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2015 Bull Mock CAT -06 To check your Result: Logon at www.hitbullseye.com & enter your Test Booklet No. or User Name & password.

Test Booklet No.

Please read the Instructions for the test carefully 1. 2. 3.

4. 5. 6.

7. 8.

9. 10. 11.

12.

13.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START. Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators, (including watch calculators), cellular phones, pagers, digital or any other devices or loose paper. These should be left outside the room. Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered in the Answer sheet on both the sides. AT THE START OF THE TEST As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet. This Test Booklet contains a total of 24 pages. You will get the first seven pages in the first section and the remaining pages in the second section. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. HOW TO ANSWER This test has 2 Sections with 100 questions, which examine various abilities. You will be given a total of 170 minutes to complete the test. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. Each correct question carries 3 marks. Wrong answers carry proportionate, 1/3rd negative marking i.e. one mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. AFTER THE TEST At the end of the test remain seated till the invigilator collects your Application Form-cum-Answer sheet from your seats. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Application Form-cumAnswer sheets from every candidate in the room. You may retain the test booklet with you.

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Bull Mock CAT 06 1

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SECTION – I QUANT & DI

No. of questions: 50

DIRECTIONS for the questions 1 to 5: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. 1.

A chocolate manufacturing company received an order of 400 litres of dark brown chocolate and 360 litres of white milk chocolate. It has two machines (X and Y) to make these chocolates. X takes 4 hours to make 16 litres of dark brown chocolate and 3 hours to make 9 litres of white milk chocolate. Y takes 4 hours to make 12 litres of dark brown chocolate and 3 hours to make 12 litres of white milk. If the company has to deliver the order in 93 hours, its delivery will be delayed by at least 1 1. 2 hours 7

2.

2. 10

3. 17

4. 7

2. a < - 1

3. a > 1

4. a > 2

An instruction was sent to all the railway stations across the country that, workers above the age of 47 years must retire. Five workers with different ages at the kazipet railway station managed to tamper their records. However, the station master knew that the sums of the ages (in years) of all the possible pairs of workers (from out of the five) are 102, 105, 107, 107, 109, 109, 111, 112, 114, 116. Find the age of the oldest of the five workers. 1. 58

5.

5 4. 2 hours 7

A quadratic expression g(x) = ax2 + mx + n is such that g(-2) < 4; g (2) > - 4 and g (3) < -11. Which of the following best determines 'a'? 1. a < -2

4.

4 3. 2 hours 7

The minimum number of straight lines required to obtain 16 non-overlapping parallelograms are 1. 8

3.

2 2. 2 hours 7

2. 59

3. 57

4. 60

Which of the following is the most appropriate range of values of k for which the lines 3x + y = 7 and kx – 4y = 2 intersect in the first quadrant? 1. k >

7 6

2. k >

6 7

3. k >

3 7

4. k >

7 3

DIRECTIONS for the questions 6 & 7: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. A regular polygon with n sides is such that the angle subtended by its sides at its centre is 12 more than the angle subtended by an (n + 1)-sided regular polygon. If the area of the circle (circum-circle) which inscribes the n-sided polygon is 3850 mm2, then: (Given π = 22/7 and sin 54o = 0.8 and cos 54 o = 0.6) 6.

The area of the n-sided polygon will be 1. 2940 mm2

7.

3. 1650 mm2

4.

None

of

these

The area of the polygon with (n + 1) sides (sides being equal to that of the n-sided regular polygon) will be 1. 3441√3mm2

8.

2. 1470 mm2

2. 2221√2 mm2

3. 2221√3 mm2

4. None of these

X toffees can be distributed equally among Y children, where X > Y. What is the number of Values that X can assume such that Y > 1 and 2 < X + Y < 110? 1. 81

2. 82

3. 78

4. 84

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2 9.

Bull Mock CAT 06

In a class 40 students took Hindi as one of the subjects, 60 English and 100 Sanskrit. If the number of students who took exactly one of the subjects is 60 and number of student who took exactly two subjects is 40 then find the number of students who took all the three subjects? 1. 30

10.

3. 36

4. Cannot be determined

2. 5

3. 6

4. Cannot be determined

If a, b, c and d are four distinct natural numbers, each of which has exactly five factors, find the number of the factors of the product of a, b, c and d. 1. 17

12.

2. 20

x, y and z are positive numbers. [n] denotes the integral part of n and {n}denotes the fractional part of n. If the following equations are given: [x] +{y} + [z] = 11.2 [y] + {z} + [x] = 10.3 [z] +{x} + [y] = 9.4 Find the value of [x + y – z]. 1. 4

11.

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2. 256

3. 625

4. Cannot be determined

Two persons A and B started running simultaneously from a point P, around a circular track of length 1000 m, in opposite directions, with speeds of 4 m/s and 1 m/s respectively. The moment they crossed each other, two more persons, C and D, started from P towards A and B respectively, C running around the track in the direction opposite to A, with a speed of 1 m/sec and D running around the track, in the direction opposite to B, with a speed of 4 m/sec. Which of the following is a possible time when A, B, C and D will all meet at the same point on the track? (Assume that they continue indefinitely to run around the track in their respective directions). 1. 60 min

2. 30 min

3. 48 min

4. They will never meet

DIRECTIONS for the questions 13 to 15: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows. Bar chart 1 gives the percentage shares of all the five chocolate making Companies-Amul, Bon Bon, Cadbury, Dabur, Ertiga-in the total quantity of chocolate sold in country Hunohullo. Bar chart -2 gives the percentage shares of all the eleven states-S 1 through S 11 in the total quantity of chocolates sold in the country.

The market share of any company in a state is the total quantity of choclate sold by the company in that state as a percentage of the total quantity of choclate sold in that state. 13.

In any state, if no chocolate making company had more than 50% market share, then in at least how many states did Amul sell Choclate? 1. 4

2. 5

3. 6

4. 3

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14.

If in all the states in which Ertiga was present, it had a market share of at least 25%, in at most how many states did company Ertiga sell chocolates? 1. 9

15.

3. 7

4. 6

The number of companies which had sales in more than two states, is at least 1. 1

16.

2. 8

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Solve the equation 2x4 + x3 – 11x2 + x + 2 = 0. 1.

−4± 7 1 , ,2 2 2

2.

3± 5 1 , ,2 2 2

3.

7 ± 11 1 , 2, 3 2

4. None of these

DIRECTIONS for the questions 17 to 19: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Two large Boeing planes are hijacked from airports at the King town and Queen city. The distance between the King town Airport (KTAP) and Queen city Airport (QCAP) is 800 km. They crashed into the symbol of establishment and enterprise - the two buildings of CII Trade Centre in Queen city. The country had never faced a terrorist attack on this scale. Nearly 20,000 people had trickled into the office at 9:00 am, when the plane crashed into the first building. Television cameras were showing smoke billowing from this building. While 23 minutes later, the second plane, what appeared to be a Boeing-642, flew into the belly of the second building in an unforgettable manner. When the Jet plane had crashed into the first building, at that time the Boeing-642 was flying 8000 m from QCAP and was flying away from it towards CII TC. The KTAP, QCAP and the CII TC (CII Trade Centre) are respectively in a straight line. The ambulances of Health plus hospital, which is just near the QCAP had reached at CII TC at 11 am, which was sent from the hospital after 20 minutes of the accident of first plane, with an average speed of 60 kmph. It is also known that the Boeing-642 flew from KTAP. 17.

When had the Boeing-642 taken off? (Assume the Boeing-642 flew on a constant speed over the entire journey) 1. 5:38 am

18.

3. 6:32 am

4. 6:02 am

3. 140 kmph

4. Cannot be determined

3. 250 kmph

4. 300 kmph

The speed of jet plane was 1. 32 kmph

19.

2. 5:30 am

2. 65 kmph

The speed of Boeing-642 was 1. 320 kmph

2. 240 kmph

DIRECTIONS for the questions 20 to 21: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. 20.

4 athletes begin skating at time ‘t’ in the same direction on a rectangular track ABCD, which has the length 600 meters and breadth 400 meters. The athletes P, Q, R and S have speeds in the magnitudes 5 m/s, 10 m/s, 20 m/s, 40 m/s respectively. How much total distance would they have covered before getting together at the starting point for the first time? 1. 30,000 meters

2. 20,000 meters

3. 25,000 meters

4. 35,000 meters

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Bull Mock CAT 06

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4 athletes begin skating at time ‘t’ in the same direction on a rectangular track ABCD, which has the length 600 meters and breadth 400 meters. The athletes P, Q, R and S have speeds in the magnitudes 5 m/s, 10 m/s, 20 m/s, 40 m/s respectively. The next day, P and R reversed their directions of movement and 1000 meters were added to the complete lap. When will all of them be together? 1. 100 seconds

22.

2. 200 seconds

3. 300 seconds

4. 600 seconds

4 athletes begin skating at time ‘t’ in the same direction on a rectangular track ABCD, which has the length 600 meters and breadth 400 meters. The athletes P, Q, R and S have speeds in the magnitudes 5 m/s, 10 m/s, 20 m/s, 40 m/s respectively. The next day, P and R reversed their directions of movement and 1000 meters were added to the complete lap. How much distance would they have covered before getting together? 1. 10,000 metres

23.

If f(x) = 1. 6

24.

2. 0

3. -6

4. -5

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

2. 96

3. 108

4. 72

2. 2

3. 5

4. 4

Sheela was presented with a cake and she wants to obtain the maximum number of pieces with a certain number of straight line slices. If she uses one line slice, she will get 2 pieces. Two slices will give her 4 pieces, but if she wants the maximum number of pieces, the third slice should avoid the intersection of first two slices. If Sheela was presented with a cake of radius 10 cm, and she cuts the maximum number of pieces, using 8 straight line slices, then the number of pieces will be 1. 35

28.

2x 2 − 5 , then the minimum value of f(x) is 2x 2 + 1

If N is the number of ways of dividing 500 students into five sections of 100 students each, how many zeros does N end with? (Cancellation of only zeroes is allowed) 1. 0

27.

4. 30,000 metres

In the figure below, PQRS is a parallelogram where SR = 2PS = 4PT and U is a point on SR. if ∠STU = ∠PRS and PT is 20cm less than UR, find the perimeter (in cm) of PQRS

1. 80 26.

3. 150,00 metres

At how many points does the graph y = | | x – 5| –14 | – 6 touch the x-axis? 1. 1

25.

2. 12,500 metres

2. 37

3. 40

4. None of these

A, B, C are decimal numbers with MOD (x) = x truncated to the nearest integer less than or equal to x. If p = MOD (A + B + C) and q = MOD (A) + MOD (B) + MOD (C), then the maximum value that p – q can attain is 1. 0

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

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29.

In the figure below, the measure of ∠POQ is equal to 1280 and on extension SO is perpendicular to chord PQ of the circle with centre O. The measure of ∠TPS is S R

T

O P 1. 36o 30.

Q

2. 26o

3. 34o

4. 32o

For what value of x is the given function defined? f(x) =

( x − 1) +2

1. x ≥ 1 31.

M

(1 − x ) + ( x 2 + 1) 2. x ≤ 1

3. - ∞ < x ≤ ∞

4. x = 1

A curve follows a cubic equation a 1 x3 + a 2 x2 + a 3 x + a 4 = 0 and another curve is to be formed with a 1 = 1. Also, two roots of both the cubic equations have the same magnitude and sign, while the unequal root of the second equation is twice the unequal root of the first equation. The percentage change in the constant term is 1. 200% decrease

2. 200% increase

3.100% increase

4. Cannot be determined

DIRECTION for the question 32: The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer. 1. If statement I alone is sufficient and statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient and statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 3. If statement I and II together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question. 4. If each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question. 32.

The average age of a family of a father, mother and a child in 1990 was 22 years. If another child was born into the family after 1990, in which year was the new child born? I. The average age of the family in 1998 was 24 years. II. The average age of the family in 1994 was 26 years

DIRECTIONS for questions 33 to 35: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below Auto Drive an automobile magazine, conducts a poll among its readers, in which they are asked to rate different models of cars on each of five parameters – comfort, mileage, safety, power and reliability – on a scale of 1 – 200 with 200 being the highest rating possible. The following tables gives the average rating obtained by eight models of cars – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – under various parameters. Cars A B C D E F G H

Comfort 172 168 168 178 174 180 178 185

Average Rating Mileage Safety Power 164 172 156 174 162 176 156 170 164 178 168 148 170 158 154 174 154 180 176 162 174 164 162 172

Reliability 170 162 174 176 182 178 170 164

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The magazine then gives awards to these models based on the following criteria: (i) If a model secures the highest rating under comfort among all the models or has a combined average rating of not less than 170 under comfort, mileage and safety put together, then it gets a Comfort award. (ii) If a model secures the highest rating under mileage among all the models or has a combined average rating of at least 176 under comfort and mileage put together, then it gets a Mileage award. (iii) If a model secures the highest rating under power among all the models or has a combined average rating of at least 168 under safety and power put together, then it gets a Power award. 33.

The highest overall average rating obtained by a model which did not get any award is 1. 166.8

34.

3. 168.8

4. 165.4

How many of the given models either failed to get a Comfort award or got a Power award? 1. 5

35.

2. 167.7

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

The difference between the highest and the lowest overall average ratings among the given models is 1. 6.2

2. 6.4

3. 6.8

4. 7

DIRECTIONS for the questions 36 to 40: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows. PVC Ltd., an advertising agency, while announcing its annual revenue, fudged some of the data to accommodate for its future plans. It understated its revenue from the T.V. medium in the Brand Image category by a certain amount. For all other sources of revenue, it stated the correct revenues. The following pie-charts were then prepared using the announced revenues of the agency.

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36.

If in the actual results of the company, 20% of the revenue from the T.V. medium was from the Twowheeler category, the actual percentage share of the Print medium in the total revenue was approximately 1. 21.7%

37.

3. 23.6%

4. 25.4%

If the actual total revenue of the company is Rs. 450 crores and the revenue from the Two-wheeler category forms 16% of the actual total revenue, the announced revenue from the T.V. medium is what percentage of the actual revenue from that medium? 1. 74.2%

38.

2. 22.4%

2. 76.8%

3. 79.3%

4. 84.2%

If the actual revenue from the Internet medium is known, how many of the following statements, each when considered independently along with the given information, will be necessary as well as sufficient to find the actual revenue from the Brand Image category? 1. Actual revenue from the Outdoor medium in the Brand Image category. 2. Actual revenue from the Educational Institutions category. 3. Actual revenue from the T.V. medium in the Insurance category. 4. Actual revenue from the Internet medium in the Brand Image category. 1. 0

39.

42.

3. 45%

4. Cannot be determined

2. 22.4%

3. 26.3%

4. 9.7%

1. 4 plump and 3 cherries

2. 3 melons and 3 guavas

3. 4 apricots and 6 cherries

4. 3 plump and 6 apricots

Find the remainder when the sum 3100 + 3200 + 3300 + ..... + 310000 is divided by 26? 2. 16

3. 12

4. 6

If | x | + x + y = 25 and x + | y | - y = 50, then what is the value of | x | + | y |? 1. 25

44.

2. 50%

The cost of 3 cherries is equal to the cost of 2 plumps. The cost of 2 apricots is equal to the cost of one melon. The cost of 3 guavas is equal to cost of 5 cherries. The cost of 4 cherries is equal to the cost of 5 apricots. Which of the following combination of fruits is the costliest?

1. 0 43.

4. 3

Which of the following cannot be the actual percentage share of the revenue from any of the six categories? 1.15.4%

41.

3. 2

The revenue from Educational Institutions forms what percent of the actual revenue from the TV medium? 1. 40%

40.

2. 1

2. 32

3. 35

4. Cannot be determined

Given: (15x2 + 8y2)/22 = xy ; (where x and y are positive integers less than 100). How many distinct pairs of (x, y) exist which will satisfy the given equation? 1. 50

2. 51

3. 52

4. 53

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Bull Mock CAT 06

The sum of two numbers is 4732 and then HCF is 13. How many pairs of such number are possible? 1. 360

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2. 144

3. 72

4. Cannot be determined

3. 9

4. 2

Find the remainder when 22674 is divided by 73. 1. 4

2. 7

DIRECTIONS for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given. Table A provides data about the Wind Speed Reading and the corresponding increase in the Beaufort Number over the Beaufort Number of the immediately preceding Wind Speed Reading. Table B gives the Sea Disturbance Number and its corresponding Beaufort Number (given in parentheses) and the associated Average Wave Height. Table C gives the observable wind characteristics - i.e. the common name assigned to the wind, for the corresponding Beaufort Number. Table A Wind Speed Increase Reading in Beaufort (in Km/Hr) Number 1-5 1 6-11 1 12-19 2 20-38 1 39-49 3 50-61 2 62-74 3 75-88 3 89-102 2 >102 1

Table B Sea Disturbance Average Number (Beaufort Wave Number) Height 0(0) 0 0(1) 0.1 1(2) 0.3 2(4) 0.4 3(5) 0.6 4(8) 1.2 5(10) 2.4 6(13) 4 7(16) 6 8(18) 9

Table C Beaufort Wind Name Number 0 1 2 4 5 8 10 13 16 18 or more

Calm Light Air Light Breeze Gentle Breeze Moderate Fresh Strong Gale Storm Hurricane

Beaufort Number is 0 for Wind Speed Reading of less than 1 km/hr and for all wind speeds in excess of 1 km/hr, the Beaufort Number is calculated over that of the immediate preceding wind speed reading. 47.

What is the range over which the Average Wave Height can vary when the wind speed reading varies between 20 and 74 km/hr? 1. 0.3 - 2.4

48.

2. 42

4. Data inadequate

3. 32

4. 72

The coast guard of Bangladesh raises cautionary signal 1 for a Gale, 2 for a Storm and 3 for a Hurricane in times of inclement weather. On 5th June 2003, the wind speeds at Coastal Bangladesh were in excess of 94 km/hr. Which of the following is true regarding the cautionary signal raised? 1. The signal raised was 1 3. The signal raised was 3

50.

3. 0.6 - 4

Which of the following is not a possible Wind Speed Reading (in km/hr) when the wind is either Light Breeze, Gentle Breeze, Moderate, Fresh or Strong? 1. 60

49.

2. 0.1 - 6

2. The signal raised was 2 4. Either signal 1 or signal 2

What is the increase in the Sea Disturbance Number when the Wind Speed Reading has increased from 17 km/hr to 83 km/hr? 1. 3

2. 6

3. 4

4. 5

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SECTION – II VERBAL & REASONING

No. of questions: 50

DIRECTIONS for the questions 51 & 53: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. 51.

Last Saturday, Rakesh went for the late night show and came in late. In the morning, everyone asked him which movie he saw. He gave different answers to all of them. He told his father that he had gone to see MONEY. According to his mom, he saw either JOHNY or BABLU. His elder brother came to know that he saw BHABI. To his sister, he told ROBOT. And his grandpa heard that he saw BUNNY. Thus, Rakesh gave six movie names, all five letter words. But he actually saw a completely different movie with a five-letter name. Moreover, each of the six movie names mentioned above had exactly two letters common with the movie he saw (in the same position). Which movie did Rakesh see? 1. BHALU

2. MOHNI

3. BOBBY

4. BANNU

DIRECTIONS for the questions 52 to 53: Solve the following question and mark the most appropriate option. 52.

Appa, Chappa and Tappa often dine out. Each orders either coffee or tea after dinner. 1. If Appa orders coffee, then Chappa orders the drink that Tappa orders. 2. If Chappa orders coffee, then Appa orders the drink that Tappa doesn't order. 3. If Tappa orders tea, then Appa orders the drink that Chappa orders. Who do you know always orders the same drink after dinner? 1. Appa

53.

2. Chappa

3. Tappa

4. None of these

Manas departmental store employs five workers - Aditi, Gautam, Sahil, Manish and Prashant - each of whom works alone on exactly one day, Monday through Friday. They obey the following conditions 1. Aditi works only on Mondays or on Wednesdays. 2. Gautam will not work on Wednesdays or on Fridays. 3. Manish works before Sahil and both work on consecutive days. If Gautam can’t work either immediately before or after Prashant, then which of the following must be true? 1. Prashant on Monday. 3. Prashant on Thursday.

2. Prashant on Tuesday. 4. Prashant on Friday.

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DIRECTIONS for questions 54: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 54.

The persons who scored the first three places in a table tennis tournament are from different Organizations-Services, Railways and Petroleum Sports Control Board (PSCB) and also the persons are from different cities. Below are some of the facts about the organisations, the contestants and the cities where the persons are from. 1. The person from Services did not come first. 2. The person from PSCB was Raman. 3. The contestant from Railways was not from Hyderabad. 4. The contestant from Pune took the third place, 5. The contestant from Pune is not from Services. 6. The contestant from Bangalore did not come first. 7. The contestant from Railways was not Baboor. 8. One of the contestants is Basu. Which of the following is the correct order of the persons who won the first, second and third prize respectively? 1. Raman, Basu, Baboor 3. Basu, Baboor, Raman

2. Basu, Raman, Baboor 4. Raman, Baboor, Basu

DIRECTIONS for questions 55 to 58: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Moodys, a modelling agency was on the lookout for new models. It had called 150 candidates for the purpose of recruiting models who were tall, dark and handsome. The break-up of the candidates with different attributes in that group of 150 was: • • •

Tall and handsome but not dark = 9 Dark and handsome but not tall = 12 Tall or dark but not handsome = 107

Each candidate had at least one of the three attributes that the agency was looking for. The agency could find only one person who satisfied its criteria and so was considering relaxing the requirements a little. It was also found that, for any attribute, the number of candidates who had that attribute alone did not exceed one-third of the total number of candidates called. 55.

What is the minimum number of candidates who had at least two of the three attributes? 1. 21

56.

4. None of these

2. 9

3. 10

4.12

If exactly half of the candidates who were tall were also dark and exactly half of the candidates who were dark were also tall, then how many candidates were only tall? 1. 31

58.

3. 28

If the number of candidates who were dark is less than those who were tall, then at least how many candidates were dark as well as tall? 1. 7

57.

2. 22

2. 33

3. 34

4. 38

If the number of candidates who were tall is twice that of those who had at least two attributes, then at least how many candidates were only dark? 1. 37

2. 41

3. 43

4. 47

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DIRECTIONS for question 59 & 60: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage. 59.

Armed robbery is becoming Americanized, both in the sense that Britain is moving towards late-night convenience store robberies, and also in the sense that anyone can do it. The rise of unskilled robbery – junkies with guns and no previous experience – is bad news for shop workers, who are less welltrained in dealing with guns than are bank tellers; it is also bad for the police, who tend to find illthought-out crimes harder to solve than planned ones. Which of the following is in consonance with the passage ? 1. In armed robbery, Britain is trying to imitate America, leaving the police as baffled as they are in the US. 2. Robbery in Britain has ceased to require skill and the police have therefore becoming inconsequential in tackling crimes. 3. Like in US, robbery in Britain is now becoming more and more casual, thereby posing problems both for the victims and for the police. 4. Robbery in Britain has now shifted from banks to shops; as a result the shopkeepers and the police are clueless regarding the spurt of crime.

60.

NAFTA alone has not been enough to modernize Mexico or guarantee its prosperity. It was never reasonable to suppose that it would be. NAFTA has spurred trade for all its members. That is a good thing. But trade can do only so much. Sadly, successive Mexican governments have failed to deal with the problems – corruption, poor education, red tape, crumbling infrastructure, lack of credit and a puny tax base – that have prevented Mexicans and foreign investors alike from exploiting the openings which freer trade afforded. Don’t blame NAFTA for that. Which of the following summarizes the passage in the best possible manner ? 1. NAFTA has played its role in Mexican development – namely, promoting trade; the rest depends on how the Mexican administration functions. 2. Mexico has not become modern in spite of NAFTA; successive Mexican governments should not blame the trade bloc. 3. The problem is that Mexico had expected too much of NAFTA; it forgot that the organisation was a mere trade bloc. 4. The good thing about NAFTA is that it has facilitated Mexican trade; so it should be congratulated rather than pilloried.

DIRECTIONS for the questions 61 to 64: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Nobel Laureate Muhammad Yunus's three-decade-long journey with microfinance was laborious. But he most certainly did not encounter a crisis like the one he is facing now. It was only in December 2010 that the Bangladeshi — who shared the Nobel Peace Prize with the Grameen Bank in 2006 — first came across an utterly odd situation when a Norwegian television documentary accused him of diverting huge aid funds to a business concern. The news was widely reported in the local media, particularly those sections which were not appreciative of his model of microfinance for poverty alleviation. Dr. Yunus denied this and other allegations in the media that he developed many businesses using the Grameen brand name. The Norwegian government, too, came out in his defence. Amid a mounting debate for and against Dr. Yunus, Bangladesh's central bank on March 2 ordered his removal from the post of Managing Director on the ground that he had crossed the retirement age. Dr. Yunus defied the order but the High Court rejected his writ petitions challenging the legality of the central bank's action. Now his appeal is pending in the Supreme Court. Meanwhile, Dhaka is facing a strong reaction from the West, particularly the United States. The U.S. has called for a dialogue and compromise between Dr. Yunus and the Hasina government for an “honourable solution.” Whatever the criticism of the U.S. stand in Bangladesh's political and social circles, analysts believe

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that it is a clear disapproval of the government action against Dr. Yunus, although the Grameen Bank is neither an NGO nor a private bank. It was founded in 1983 under an ordinance and the government still holds a 25 per cent share in it. Dr. Yunus had been the Managing Director ever since the bank was founded. Despite the controversies, many analysts are of the opinion that the Hasina government may take the U.S. stand seriously but it will, for sure, find it difficult to come to an amicable solution since the Supreme Court verdict is awaited. However, the mainstream Bengali dailies have reported that a committee was formed to broker a compromise, an indication of a shift in the government stand. The fact is the present government is not very appreciative of Dr. Yunus' contribution to poverty alleviation through the microfinance model, although Sheikh Hasina in her first tenure attended the world microcredit summit at the United Nations where he got the world body's support. The Prime Minister has accused him of treating the Grameen Bank as his “personal property” and claimed that the group is “sucking the blood of the poor.” Many have even called the model a “villain.” But Dr. Yunus has the support of many important sections, particularly from the world's powerful lobbies. 61.

What can we infer about the West’s attitude towards Prof. Yunus’ involvement with the Grameen Bank? 1. The West will not be able to protect the interests of the Grameen Bank. 2. The West has remained dispassionate on the Grameen Bank and Prof. Yunus’ involvement in it. 3. The U.S is supportive of Professor Yunus’ involvement with the Grameen Bank. 4. The U.S is appreciative of the Hasina government’s achievement in the Grameen Bank.

62.

Who could be the author of the passage? 1. A journalist based in Dhaka, who is closely following the case of the Grameen Bank. 2. A corporate lobbyist in Dhaka, who has keen interest in the development of the bank. 3. A politician closely watching the Bangladesh government’s moves on the Grameen Bank. 4. An economist discussing economic theories about Grameen Bank.

63.

Pick the word from the alternatives that is the most inappropriate meaning of panacea in the sentence provided below: A host of studies have disagreed with the claim that microfinance is a panacea for poverty. 1. Nostrum

64.

2. Elixir

3. Antidote

4. Panach

In case the allegations against Professor Yunus were found to be false, then his case can be regarded as one of: 1. political victimization 3. inept government analysis

2. clumsy administration 4. all of the above

DIRECTION for the question 65: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 65.

A. The overall Indian believability threshold is pretty low and Delhi is particularly rumour prone for two reasons. B. The city’s culture is geared towards rumour-mongering: from multiple arms of the government, countless scraps of information slip-slide their way on to the street, mutating into rumours. C. First it is the seat of government and, therefore, the theatre of political and bureaucratic intrigue and second, of course, is its pot- pourri character. D. Thus, the PM’s crumbling knee becomes a case of cancer and health bulletins are issued by the day by those who claimed to be in the know. 1. BCAD

2. CBAD

3. ABCD

4. ACBD

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DIRECTIONS for the questions 66 to 69: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Most people are in the pursuit of happiness. There are economists who think happiness is the best indicator of the health of a society. We know that money can make you happier, though after your basic needs are met, it doesn't make you that much happier. But one of the biggest questions is how to allocate our money, which is (for most of us) a limited resource. There's a very logical assumption that most people make when spending their money: that because a physical object will last longer, it will make us happier for a longer time than a one-off experience like a concert or vacation. According to recent research, it turns out that assumption is completely wrong. “One of the enemies of happiness is adaptation,” says Dr. Thomas Gilovich, a psychology professor at Cornell University who has been studying the question of money and happiness for over two decades. “We buy things to make us happy, and we succeed, but only for a while. New things are exciting to us at first, but then we adapt to them.” Gilovich's findings are the synthesis of psychological studies conducted by him and others into the Easterlin paradox, which found that money buys happiness, but only up to a point. How adaptation affects happiness, for instance, was measured in a study that asked people to self-report their happiness with major material and experiential purchases. Initially, their happiness with those purchases was ranked about the same. But over time, people's satisfaction with the things they bought went down, whereas their satisfaction with experiences they spent money on went up. It's counterintuitive that something like a physical object that you can keep for a long time doesn't keep you as happy as long as a once-and-done experience does. Ironically, the fact that a material thing is ever present works against it, making it easier to adapt to. It fades into the background and becomes part of the new normal. But while the happiness from material purchases diminishes over time, experiences become an ingrained part of our identity. “Our experiences are a bigger part of ourselves than our material goods,” says Gilovich. One study conducted by Gilovich even showed that if people have an experience they say negatively impacted their happiness, once they have the chance to talk about it, their assessment of that experience goes up. Gilovich attributes this to the fact that something that might have been stressful or scary in the past can become a funny story to tell at a party or be looked back on as an invaluable character-building experience. Another reason is that shared experiences connect us more to other people than shared consumption. You're much more likely to feel connected to someone you took a vacation with in Bogotá than someone who also happens to have bought a 4K TV. “We consume experiences directly with other people,” says Gilovich. “And after they're gone, they're part of the stories that we tell to one another.” Gilovich's research has implications for individuals who want to maximize their happiness return on their financial investments, for employers who want to have a happier workforce, and policy-makers who want to have a happy citizenry. “By shifting the investments that societies make and the policies they pursue, they can steer large populations to the kinds of experiential pursuits that promote greater happiness,” write Gilovich and his coauthor, Amit Kumar, in their recent article in the academic journal Experimental Social Psychology. If society takes their research to heart, it should mean not only a shift in how individuals spend their discretionary income, but also place an emphasis on employers giving paid vacation and governments taking care of recreational spaces. “As a society, shouldn't we be making experiences easier for people to have?” asks Gilovich. 66.

Which, out of the following, is a statement Gilovich is likely to agree with: 1. In conjunction to your experiences, material stuff remains separated from you and virtually, we are simply the sum total of our experiences 2. In contrast to your material possessions, experiences remain separated from you and in effect, we are simply the sum total of our possessions 3. In sharp contrast to your experiences, material stuff remains separated from you and in effect, we are simply the partial total of our experiences 4. In contrast to your experiences, material stuff remains separated from you and in effect, we are simply the sum total of our experiences

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According to Gilovich, which of the following would give you more happiness: I. Buying the latest iPhone. II. Going to art exhibitions. III. Buying a second-hand BMW or Mercedes. IV. Taking up outdoor activities. V. Learning a new skill, such as how to speak a foreign language 1. All of the above except I and II 3. All of the above except I and V

68.

2. All of the above except I and III 4. All of the above except II and III

From the context of the passage, it can be inferred that the Easterlin paradox will agree with: I. Within a society, rich people tend to be much happier than poor people. II. Rich societies tend not to be happier than poor societies (or not by a huge amount). III. As countries get richer, they do not get happier. 1. I & II

69.

2. II & III

3. I & III

4. All of the above

Go through the following statements: I. Adaptation to material things leads to their loss of their charm. II. Consumption of experiences is possible but not of material possessions. III. Negative experiences, over time, have the ability to lose impact as they convert into funny reminiscences or instructional experiences. Which of the following statements agree with the central ideas presented in the passage? 1. I & II

2. II & III

3. I & III

4. All of the above

DIRECTIONS for the questions 70 to 72: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Five Footballers – Ronaldo, Kaka, Cristiano, Messi and Ronnie – each wearing a different jersey from the five different clubs among Arsenal, Chelsea, MAN U, Manchester City and Sunderland, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a queue in an award ceremony. The five Jerseys are of the different colours among Black, Red, Silver, Violet and White, in no particular order. It is also known that: (i) Footballer wearing Arsenal Jersey is ahead of Footballer wearing Manchester City jersey and is not Red in colour. (ii) Kaka is not wearing Chelsea jersey and he is behind Messi (iii) Sunderland jersey, which is Violet in colour, is not worn by Ronnie. (iv) Ronaldo is behind the White Jersey and he is not wearing silver jersey (v) Cristiano is not wearing Arsenal jersey and he is immediately ahead of the Black Jersey. (vi) The Red Jersey, which is ahead of three other Jerseys, is worn by Kaka. (vii) The only Jersey between MAN U and Manchester City is White in colour. (viii) Messi is not wearing the Silver Jersey. Manchester City jersey is not Black in colour. 70.

Who is wearing Chelsea jersey? 1. Ronaldo

71.

2. Cristiano

3. Messi

4. Ronnie

3. Arsenal

4. MAN U

Which Jersey is Ronnie wearing? 1. Manchester City

2. Chelsea

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72.

Who is ahead of man wearing red jersey? 1. Messi

2. Ronnie

3. Kaka

4. None of these

DIRECTION for the question 73: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 73.

A. The Kalari tradition is struggling to survive in the land of its origin. B. The palace guards are no bunch of extras in funny costumes, menacingly waving plastic swords. C. The exclusive heritage of the warrior clans of North Kerala, this fading martial arts tradition is finding celluloid resurrection on the extravagant and surreal sets of the Bombay film industry and Hollywood’s tryst with Kalaripayattu possibly couldn’t have come at a better time. D. They are real-life fighters trained in Kalaripayattu, Kerala’s ancient martial art. 1. ACDB

2. BDCA

3. CABD

4. DCAB

DIRECTIONS for the questions 74 to 77: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Segregation is a term that all Americans have heard and have their own definition of. What many Americans do not realize is that segregation is not just something that happened as soon as the Civil War ended. This separation of blacks and whites took time and a lot of effort by white southerners. C. Vann’s ‘The Strange Career of Jim Crow’ says that the reason for segregation is the laws that were enforced during the late nineteenth century or “de jure.” The article talks of how the “relaxation of the opposition” is a major cause for the Democrats being able to come back into power and the implementation of the eventual segregation laws such as Jim Crow laws. The division of the two races happens soon after the end of the Civil War. Churches and schools were probably some of the first places to be split. During the time, neither place was to be segregated by law. Both places became segregated by the choice of the public. This is an early example of how the blacks separated themselves from the Whites to start life as free people. Vann Woodward also talks about the reactions of people in the late nineteenth century to the placement and enforcement of the Jim Crow laws. Of course the black communities were against any law restricting them from everyday rights and everyday convenience. Many whites also were not satisfied with the thought of Jim Crow Laws. The article quotes a Charleston editor saying, “We have no more need for a Jim Crow System this year than we had last year. Joel Williamson’s, ‘The Separation of the Races’, shows segregation being a social separation, or “de facto,” and claims that it started at the end of the Civil War. The withdrawal of blacks is not because of hatred for the white man, but because of a need to leave their past behind them and move away from slavery and servitude. The excerpt shows that many people believe that “separation was also a way to avoid interracial violence”. The withdrawal of blacks immediately following the Civil War gave whites the idea they had control over the situation. Even though blacks were not giving in, they were just looking for separation between them and the white man. Blacks started to push for equal rights in public areas. Whites started to withdraw themselves to avoid mixing with blacks. This withdrawal became a push to have the color line clearly drawn and to have laws set in place to prevent mixing of the races. Edward L. Ayers’s, ‘The Promise of the New South: Life After Reconstruction’, shows how extreme the battle for a proper place to ride on the train was and how railroads were the starting place for segregation, since the railroad companies were trying to separate the races with no legal right 74.

Suggest a suitable title for the passage 1. Segregation: a common practice of life. 3. Laws segregating races.

2. Interpretation of Jim Crow’s laws. 4. The history of Segregation.

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What is the author’s tone? 1. Laudatory, as he is keenly involved in what he writes. 2. Dispassionate, as he cites various books and authors to write the passage. 3. Tongue-in –cheek as he mixes reality & sarcasm. 4. Tongue lashing as he criticizes the loopholes in the system.

76.

If the author were to continue the passage what could the author have written after the last paragraph? 1. Why trains were turned into the first major place of tension after the civil war. 2. A ruling which gave the railroad law to separate all the races but with equal accommodation. 3. How Blacks and Whites learned to be civilized when they met each other. 3. A discussion on how the new generation of Blacks did not respect the old ways of the South.

77.

What were Jim Crow laws? 1. They mandated de jure racial segregation in all public facilities, with a supposedly separate but equal status for black Americans. 2. They mandated de facto racial segregation in all public facilities, with a supposedly separate but equal status for black Americans. 3. The unfortunate enforcement of Jim Crow laws led to years of racial division and tension. 4. They were about how the new generation of Blacks did not respect the old ways of the South.

DIRECTIONS for the questions 78 to 81: Go through the graph and the information given below and answer the question that follows. Parle Havidson leading bike manufacturing company conducted mileage test on all the bike available in the market. i.e. Indian and Foreign segments put together. The results of the test are represented in the following table. Range of Mileage (x) (in km/litre) Indian Segment Foreign Segment 5(18L,30L) 4(22L,30L) x≤10 8(14L,22L) 7(15L,28L) 10