Questions 1-201 1) Which of the following does business analysis entail? i. Liaison among stakeholders ii. Recommend solutions to help organization achieve goals iii. Understand the structure of the organization iv. Make hiring decisions to onboard staff a. i b. i, ii c. i,ii, iii d. i, ii, iii, iv 2) You are analyzing an area as part of your BA role. This area corresponds to the boundaries of the organization, key stakeholders outside those boundaries, and interactions with those stakeholders. What is the area you are analyzing called? a. Organizational Unit b. Repository c. Domain d. Product scope 3) As a business analyst for company A, you are recommending a set of changes to the current state of the organization. You believe that this will enable the organization to solve a problem that has risen due to a competitor. You are suggesting a: a. Transition b. Requirement c. Solution d. Project 4) Which of the following could be true of a solution? a. It is a set of changes to the current state of an organization that enable that organization to meet a business need b. It is a set of changes to the current state of an organization that enable that organization to solve a problem c. It is a set of changes to the current state of an organization that enable that organization to take advantage of an opportunity d. It is a set of changes to the current state of an organization that enable that organization to take on challenging projects 5) Which of the following is not true of a requirement? a. It is a condition needed by a stakeholder to solve a problem b. It is a capability needed by a stakeholder to achieve an objective c. It is a description of the business processes currently in use in an organization d. It is a must-have for any organization to function efficiently 6) You are classifying requirements gathered. Which of the below are valid classifications of requirements? a. Business requirements b. Stakeholder requirements c. Solution requirements d. Transition requirements 7) You are using enterprise analysis to define requirements. Which of the following types of
requirements are you defining? a. Business requirements b. Stakeholder requirements c. Solution requirements d. Transition requirements 8) You have collected business requirements for your project. Which of the below would the requirements not describe? a. The reasons why a project has been initiated b. The objectives that the project will achieve c. The metrics that will be used to measure its success d. The needs of the stakeholders in the organization 9) You have collected requirements which are the needs of a class of stakeholders and have developed and defined them through requirements analysis. Which of the following requirements have you collected? a. Business requirements b. Stakeholder requirements c. Solution requirements d. Transition requirements 10) Requirements that describe the behavior and information the solution will manage are called: a. Business requirements b. Functional requirements c. Solution requirements d. Transition requirements 11) Non-functional requirements are also called: a. Quality requirements. b. Supplementary requirements c. Stakeholder requirements d. Transition requirements 12) You have documented as part of the requirements of a new web application that the web page should load within 3 seconds and that the website should be able to handle up to 100,000 users at the same time. These are examples of which class of requirements? a. Business requirements b. Functional requirements c. Non-functional requirements d. Transition requirements 13) Requirements that capture conditions that do not directly relate to the behavior or functionality of the solution, but rather describe environmental conditions under which the solution must remain effective or qualities that the systems must have are called: a. Business requirements b. Functional requirements c. Non-functional requirements d. Transition requirements 14) You have defined requirements through solution assessment and validation. Which requirements have you gathered? a. Business requirements
b. Functional requirements c. Non-functional requirements d. Transition requirements 15) You are working on gathering requirements for a data conversion project from existing systems. The requirements describe capabilities that the solution must have in order to facilitate transition from the current state of the enterprise to a desired future state, but that will not be needed once that transition is complete. Which requirements are you collecting? a. Business requirements b. Functional requirements c. Non-functional requirements d. Transition requirements 16) Which of the following is true of inputs? a. They can be explicitly generated outside the scope of business analysis b. They can be generated by a business analysis task c. They represent the information and preconditions necessary for a task to begin d. They represent the processes being observed 17) You are the business analyst for a project. In addition to your role as BA, you have been asked to perform additional roles on the project. Which of the following are roles that are assigned to a business analyst? a. Domain Subject Matter Expert b. Implementation Subject Matter Expert c. Project Manager d. Tester 18) Which of the below are stakeholders? a. System architect b. Trainer c. Usability professional d. Business analyst 19) Which of the below are stakeholders? a. Customer b. Sponsor c. Supplier d. SOX auditor 20) Which of the below are stakeholders? a. Customer b. Domain subject matter expert c. Implementation subject matter expert d. Project manager 21) You are preparing to interview prospective business analysts for your company. Which of the below are skills that a business analyst may not need? a. Analytical Thinking and Problem Solving b. Behavioral Characteristics, Communication Skills, Interaction Skills c. Business Knowledge d. Software Applications
22) Which of the below is an output of Business analysis planning and monitoring? a. Business analysis plan b. BA process assets c. Requirements management plan d. Stakeholder list, roles, and responsibilities 23) Which of the below are examples of organizational process assets? a. Methodologies for process change b. Tools or techniques that are in use or understood by stakeholders c. Corporate governance standards d. Templates for deliverables 24) Which of the below are examples of corporate governance standards a. COBIT™ b. Sarbanes-Oxley c. Basel II d. Deming’s cycle 25) Which of the below are inputs to ‘Plan Business analysis approach’? a. Plan BA activities b. Plan requirements management process c. Business need d. Expert judgment 26) Your management wants to use the plan-driven approach to define its business process. Which of the below is not true about plan-driven approach? a. Minimizes up-front uncertainty to ensure that the solution is fully defined before implementation begins b. Standard documents and approvals are needed c. Change management can be informal d. Control is maximized and risk is minimized 27) Which of the below are examples of plan-driven approach? a. Waterfall methods of software development b. Business process re-engineering initiatives c. Exploratory development d. Agile software development 28) Your management suggests that you use the approach that focuses on rapid delivery of business value in short iterations in return for acceptance of a higher degree of uncertainty regarding the overall delivery of the solution. Which approach are they suggesting? a. Plan-driven approach b. Change-driven approach c. Agile software development d. Waterfall method of software development
29) Which of the below is ‘requirements envisioning’? a. Business analysis effort conducted early to produce an initial list of high-level requirements b. Setting the vision for the organization by developing requirements for organizational changes c. Visualizing requirements using techniques such as prototyping and wireframes d. Sharing the vision for the organization by setting expectations with the staff 30) You have used the change-driven approach for your project. Formal documentation is produced after the solution is implemented to: a. Formalize sign-off b. Facilitate change management c. Standardize documents used d. Facilitate knowledge transfer 31) The complexity of business analysis efforts ____________ with the number of stakeholders (Choose the correct option from below to fill the blank): a. Increases b. Decreases c. Stays the same d. None of the above 32) Which of the below increases the complexity of business analysis efforts? 1. Number of business areas affected 2. Number of business systems affected 3. Amount and nature of risk 4. Uniqueness of requirements a. 1 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 2, 3 d. All of the above 33) You are preparing the business analysis approach. Which of the following may the approach include? a. Team roles b. Deliverables c. Analysis techniques d. Timing and frequency of stakeholder interactions 34) One of your colleagues has a question on the methodology followed in his project. What is a methodology? a. A formalized and repeatable business analysis approach b. A formalized and random business analysis approach c. An informal and repeatable business analysis approach d. An informal and random business analysis approach
35) Which of the below tasks use stakeholder list, roles, and responsibilities? a. Prepare for elicitation b. Plan BA communication c. Plan resource management d. Plan BA activities 36) Stakeholder A works with direct end users in the five different departments. He represents 10 end users. Stakeholder B works with direct end users in four different departments. He represents 9 end users. Which of the below statements could be true? a. Stakeholder B will be able to represent his end users more easily than Stakeholder A can b. Stakeholder A will be able to represent his end users more easily than Stakeholder B can c. It could take more effort from Stakeholder A to represent his end users d. It could take more effort from Stakeholder B to represent his end users 37) Which of the below could affect the complexity of interactions with a stakeholder group? a. Number of direct end users b. Variety of direct end users c. Number of interfacing business processes d. Number of automated systems 38) Which of the below is true of a stakeholder map? a. They are visual diagrams that depict the relationship of stakeholders to the solution and to one another b. One example of stakeholder map is impact vs influence matrix c. Stakeholder maps don’t include lines of communication between stakeholders d. One form of stakeholder map is an onion diagram 39) Which of the below is not true about a stakeholder onion diagram? a. Customers, suppliers, and regulators form the outermost layer of the onion b. Solution delivery forms the inner most core of the stakeholder onion c. The affected organizational unit involves sponsors, help desk, and others whose work changes when the solution is delivered d. The enterprise layer involves sponsors and executives 40) Which of the below are inputs to ‘Plan BA activities’? a. Business analysis approach b. Business analysis plan c. Business analysis performance assessment d. Enterprise analysis 41) Which of the below tasks are managed using the business analysis plan? a. Elicitation b. Plan BA communication
c. Plan requirements management process d. Manage BA performance 42) Which of the below tasks use the business analysis plan? a. Elicitation b. Enterprise analysis c. Requirements management and communication d. Solution assessment and validation 43) The project you are working on involves stakeholders located in different continents. Which of the below is not true when stakeholders are dispersed? a. The complexity of business analysis will decrease b. You might have to use teleconferences or video conferences to communicate c. Factors of distance and time differences should be considered when assessing their impact on requirements planning d. Cultural and language differences should be identified and accounted for 44) Your company has outsourced the development of your project to an offshore team. Which of the below is not true? a. Requirements documentation need not be very detailed b. Detailed acceptance criteria could be used c. Frequent review sessions can be set up d. The offshore situation should be accounted for during business analysis planning 45) You are assigned as the business analyst for an initiative that involves improving online shopping and customer experience during the checkout process. Which of the below best describes this initiative? a. Feasibility study b. Process improvement c. Organizational change d. New software development 46) You are assigned as the business analyst for an initiative that involves building a portal that presents sales and performance reports. The portal will be built from scratch using company resources. Which of the below best describes this initiative? a. Feasibility study b. Process improvement c. Outsourced new software development d. New software development (in-house) 47) Which of the below is not true about an activity list? a. An activity list can be created by taking each deliverable, assigning the activities required to complete the deliverable, and breaking each activity into tasks b. An activity list can be created by dividing the project into phases, iterations, increments, or releases, identifying the deliverables for each, and adding activities and tasks accordingly
c. An activity list cannot be created by using a previous similar project as an outline and expanding it with detailed tasks unique for the business analysis phase of the current project d. Decomposition of activities and tasks creates the activity List 48) Which of the below is true of a WBS? a. It is an important tool in defining the scope of work and in developing estimates b. It may break down the project into iterations, releases, or phases c. It may break deliverables into work packages or break activities into smaller tasks d. It stands for Work Breakdown Schema 49) Your stakeholders have formally approved the requirements document you prepared. Which of the below is not true of this event? a. This is an example of a milestone b. Can be used as a time to celebrate the completion or delivery of a major deliverable c. This is a significant event in the progress of a project d. This event will have some task duration 50) Which of the below is not true about a business analysis plan? a. It may include information such as a description of the scope of work, the deliverable Work Breakdown Structure, an Activity List, and estimates for each activity and task b. It should also describe when and how the plan should be changed in response to changing conditions c. The level of detail associated with the plan(s) is determined by the business analysis approach and the overall methodology d. Elicitation task cannot be managed using the business analysis plan 51) Which of the below is not true about ‘Plan Business analysis communication’? a. Prepare requirements package is a task that uses the BA communication plan b. Communicate requirements is a task using the output of ‘Plan Business analysis communication’ c. Organizational process assets, BA communication plan, and stakeholder lists are inputs d. Business analysis approach and business analysis plan are inputs 52) Which of the below are cultural factors that can influence communication? a. Relationship to time b. Relationship to task completion c. Relationship to contracts d. Relationship to formal and informal authority 53) Your offshore team did not deliver the code on the set due date. In your mind, the deadline was a firm commitment but the offshore team considered the deadline as a goal to balance against their other priorities. Which of the below best describes this situation? a. Relationship to time is a cultural factor that can influence communication b. The task was not completed as trust and the human relationship were not built c. The request for proposal for the task was not specific enough
d. The offshore team did not believe in the power structure that made decisions 54) Which of the below is not true about the ‘Plan Requirements Management’? a. ‘Manage BA performance’ is a task that uses the output of ‘Plan Requirements Management’ b. ‘Business analysis plan’ is an input of ‘Plan Requirements Management’ c. ‘Requirements management plan’ can serve as an additional input to ‘Plan Requirements Management’ d. ‘Plan Requirements Management’ defines the process that will be used to approve requirements for implementation and manage changes to the solution or requirements scope 55) Which of the below are requirement attributes? a. Risks b. Stability c. Status d. Urgency 56) Which of the below are requirement attributes? a. Author of the requirement b. Complexity c. Ownership d. Priority 57) Which of the below is not true about a change-driven methodology? a. All requirements, including new and changed requirements, are recorded in the product backlog and prioritized b. At the beginning of each iteration, the highest priority requirements are selected from the backlog and estimated c. Estimates for highest priority requirements are used as input to determine whether the requirement will be implemented in that iteration d. Only new requirements are recorded in the product backlog and prioritized. Change requests follow a separate prioritization process 58) Which of the below does a requirements management plan describe? a. Approach to be taken to structure traceability b. Definition of requirements attributes to be used c. Requirements prioritization process d. Requirements change process, including how changes will be requested, analyzed, approved, and implemented 59) Which of the below is not true about ‘Manage Business Analysis Performance’? a. BA performance assessment and BA process assets are inputs b. The task, ‘Plan BA activities’ uses the outputs of ‘Manage Business Analysis Performance’ c. Business analysis performance metrics is an input to ‘Manage Business Analysis Performance’
d. The purpose is to manage the performance of business analysis activities to ensure that they are executed as effectively as possible 60) One of your colleagues, a business analsyt is undergoing a business analysis performance review. Which of the below may be used to base the performance measures on? a. If the deliverables were delivered on the due date set in the business analysis plan b. Whether the users requested frequent changes to the requirements c. Whether many review cycles needed d. Whether the business analyst received feedback from stakeholders and his peers 61) You are performing variance analysis for your project. Which of the below is not true of variance analysis? a. The purpose of this technique is to analyze discrepancies between planned and actual performance b. Variance analysis determines the magnitude of the discrepancies between planned and actual performance and recommends corrective and preventive action as required c. Variances can be related to planned versus actual estimates, cost, scope, product expectations d. When variances between the actual work and the plan are found, variance analysis measures the impact of the variation 62) You are preparing for requirement elicitation. Which of the below will guide the techniques you will use? a. Business domain b. Corporate culture c. Skills of analyst d. Requirement deliverables that will be created 63) Which of the below are elicitation techniques? a. Prototyping b. Job Shadowing c. External Interface Analysis d. Review existing documentation 64) Which of the below are inputs to ‘Prepare for Elicitation’? a. Business need b. Scheduled resources c. Supporting materials d. Organizational process assets 65) Which of the below are outputs of ‘Prepare for Elicitation’? a. Business need b. Scheduled resources c. Supporting materials d. Organizational process assets
66) Which of the below are inputs to ‘Conduct Elicitation Activity’? a. Business case b. Scheduled resources c. Solution scope d. Supporting materials 67) Which of the below are outputs of ‘Document Elicitation Results’? a. Elicitation results b. Scheduled resources c. Requirements stated d. Stakeholder concerns 68) Which of the below tasks uses both outputs of ‘Document Elicitation Results’? a. Define business need b. Confirm Elicitation Results c. Prioritize requirements d. Assess org readiness 69) Which of the below tasks uses both outputs of ‘Confirm Elicitation Results’? a. Define business need b. Define business case c. Prioritize requirements d. Assess org readiness 70) Which of the below is the output of ‘Manage solution scope and requirements’? a. Solution scope b. Requirements management plan c. Requirements [Approved] d. Stakeholder list 71) One of your stakeholders is not accepting a proposed requirement in a construction project. Which of the below can the project manager do to manage the associated risk to the project? a. Alter the project scope b. Escalate the issue c. Select other appropriate responses d. Hire an additional resource 72) Which of the below is not true about tracing requirements? a. Tracing links business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements, to other artifacts produced by the team, and to solution components b. Backward traceability is called allocation and forward traceability is called derivation c. Tracing is used to detect missing functionality or to identify if implemented functionality is not supported by a specific requirement d. The goal of tracing is to ensure that requirements and ultimately, solution components
are linked back to a business objective 73) Which of the below is/are true about ‘Manage requirements traceability’? a. Requirements [Traced] is the output b. ‘Manage solution scope and requirements’ is a task that uses the output of ‘Manage requirements traceability’ c. ‘Requirements’ and ‘Requirements management plan’ are inputs to ‘Manage requirements traceability’ d. Requirements [Traced] is the input 74) You are capturing relationships between requirements. Which of the below is not a valid requirement relationship? a. Necessity b. Effort c. Superset d. Subset 75) When a requirement is the decomposed outcome of another requirement, the relationship is called: a. Necessity b. Effort c. Value d. Subset 76) There are two requirements for a construction project for a town center you are working on. One is to build a fountain at the entrance of the town center. The other is to have colored water flow in the fountain. The relationship between these two requirements is: a. Necessity b. Effort c. Cover d. Subset 77) You only have few requirements for the project you are working on. Which of the below tools could you use for tracing requirements? a. Coverage matrix b. Requirement management software c. Tracing software d. Business requirements document 78) Which of the below are examples of ongoing requirements? a. Contractual obligations b. Quality standards c. Service level agreements d. Business rules 79) Which of the below is true about a satisfied requirement?
a. Even though a requirement has been satisfied, it is still a requirement as long as the business stakeholders need it b. Maintaining these requirements helps with product enhancements and future system changes c. Existing requirements may also be re-used on related business projects d. Some requirements that an organizational unit is required to be able to meet on a continuous basis will also be included 80) As a business analyst, you are preparing a requirements package so you can present it for formal review and approval. What else can the requirement package be used for? a. Evaluation of possible alternatives b. Inputs to solution design c. Conformance to contractual and regulatory obligations d. Maintenance for re-use 81) Which of the below is not true about a requirements packages? a. They can be presented only as models such as a process map, or captured on a whiteboard b. They can be formally documented using a template or shown as a presentation c. They can’t be used for early assessment of quality and planning d. The primary goal of developing a requirements package is to convey information clearly and in an understandable fashion 82) You are a business analyst working on the requirements development process. Which of the below are examples of work products you might use? a. Meeting agendas and minutes b. Interview questions and notes c. Work plan, status reports d. Issues log 83) Which of the below are common types of requirements documents? a. Product Roadmap b. Software/System Requirements Specification c. Supplementary Requirements Specification d. Vision Document 84) You have discussed the possible solution for your next initiative with the solution team. They think that the solution can be obtained from an outside party. You can capture the requirements in the form of which of the following? a. Request for Information (RFI) b. Request for Quote (RFQ) c. Request for Proposal (RFP) d. Acceptance criteria 85) Which of the below is not true about Request for Information (RFI), Request for Quote (RFQ), and Request for Proposal (RFP)?
a. An RFI is generally used when the issuing organization is open to a number of alternative solutions and is seeking information to evaluate possible options b. An RFQ or RFP is used when the issuing organization understands the nature of the solution options available to it and is seeking vendors who can implement an option c. An RFQ generally follows a more formal review and selection process than an RFP d. If the solution team thinks that a potential solution is available from an outside party, the business analyst may capture the requirements in the form of a Request for Information (RFI), Request for Quote (RFQ), or Request for Proposal (RFP) 86) Which of the below is/are inputs to ‘Communicate requirements’? a. BA communication plan b. Requirements c. Requirements package d. Communicated requirements 87) You are planning to present requirements to your audience. Which of the below can the presentation be used for? a. To ensure that internal project quality standards have been adhered to b. To obtain business acceptance and sign-off c. To obtain delivery team sign-off d. As a precursor to delivery 88) You are planning to present requirements to your audience. Which of the below can the presentation be used for? a. To obtain testing team sign-off b. To prioritize a set of requirements before proceeding to next project stage c. To make decisions regarding solution scope d. To ensure cross-functional fit with other business process areas within the same project 89) Which of the below could trigger the evaluation of a business need? a. Customers complain about long wait times on support calls b. A competitor has introduced a new product c. A manager needs additional information to make sound decisions d. Requirements gathered during elicitation need to be evaluated 90) A business need has been generated to fix a problem with the current state of the online order management process. This business need has been generated: a. From top down b. From bottom up c. From middle management d. From external drivers 91) Business objectives should be SMART. What does SMART stand for? a. Specific, Meaningful, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bounded b. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Time-bounded c. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Technical
d. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bounded 92) Which of the below is an input to ‘Assess capability gaps’? a. Enterprise architecture b. Organizational process assets c. Required capabilities d. Solution approach 93) Which of the below is an input to ‘Determine solution approach’? a. Business need b. Enterprise architecture c. Solution performance assessment d. Assess capability gaps 94) You have investigated several alternatives and now need to determine if you have enough alternatives. Which of the below can be used as indicators? a. At least one of the alternative approaches is acceptable to key stakeholders b. At least some of the approaches are distinctly different from one another c. The effort to investigate alternatives is producing diminishing returns d. All alternatives have been established 95) Your management has asked you to perform a feasibility study. Which of the following is true about feasibility study? a. A feasibility study is a final analysis of solution alternatives or options to determine whether and how each option can provide an expected business benefit to meet the business need b. A feasibility study is a preliminary analysis of solution alternatives or options to determine whether and how each option can provide an expected business benefit to meet the business need c. A feasibility study is a preliminary analysis of solution alternatives or options to determine whether and how each option can provide an expected business benefit to meet the IT need d. A feasibility study is a preliminary analysis of solution alternatives or options to determine whether and how each option can provide an actual business benefit to meet the business need 96) Which of the below is true about solution scope? a. It is the input of ‘Define solution scope’ process b. It cannot be changed once stakeholders have signed off c. It can change throughout a project, based on changes in the business environment or as the project scope is changed to meet budget, time, quality, or other constraints d. Assessing organization readiness is not a task that uses solution scope 97) Which of the below is true about a problem statement? a. It describes the problem b. Mentions the stakeholders affected by the problem
c. Specifies the impact of the problem on each stakeholder d. Lists some key benefits of a successful solution 98) Which of the below are considered costs associated with any solution? a. Costs of developing and implementing the change b. Opportunity costs of not investing in other options c. Costs related to changing the work and practices of the organization d. Total cost of ownership to support the new solution and consequential costs borne by others 99) You are working on risk assessment. Which of the below is not a valid example of risks to be considered? a. Whether the chosen technology and suppliers can deliver the required functionality b. Whether costs may exceed levels that make the solution viable c. Whether potential benefits may disappear d. Whether the organization will make the changes necessary to benefit from the new solution 100) Which of the below is not an input to ‘Prioritize requirements? a. Requirements management plan b. Stakeholder list, roles, and responsibilities c. Business case d. Business need 101) You are prioritizing requirements and ensuring that the easiest requirements are implemented first. Which of the below criteria are you using? a. Implementation Difficulty b. Technical Risk c. Likelihood of Success d. Urgency 102) For your project, you have decided to implement requirements based on what a fixed deadline will allow. Scope can change but deadline can’t. This is called: a. Timeboxing b. Prioritizing c. Waterfall method d. Selective implementation 103) Which of the below is not an input to ‘Organize requirements’? a. Organizational process assets b. Requirements c. Solution scope d. Requirements structure 104) What are specifications and models useful for? a. Analyzing the functioning of an organization and providing insight into opportunities for
improvement b. Supporting development and implementation of solutions c. Ensuring compliance with contracts and regulations d. Supporting training activities and knowledge management 105) Which of the below is not true about ‘Specify and Model Requirements’? a. Requirements[Stated] is an input b. Stakeholder or solution requirements is an output c. Some tasks that use the output of ‘Specify and Model Requirements’ are ‘Prioritize requirements’ and ‘Verify requirements’ d. Requirements structure is an output 106) You are helping your fellow business analyst write textual requirements. Which of the below would be tips you would give him? a. Assume your reader has domain knowledge b. Express multiple requirements at a time c. Use terminology familiar to the stakeholders who must review or use the requirement d. Include complex conditional clauses 107) Your friend, a business analyst tells you about his current project and mentions assumptions made. Which of the following best describes an assumption? a. Assumptions are factors that are believed to be true, but have not been confirmed b. Assumptions are factors that are believed to be true, and have been confirmed c. Assumptions are factors that may not be true, and have been confirmed d. Assumptions may affect all aspects of the project and pose a certain degree of risk if they do not prove to be false 108) You review your peer (business analyst’s) requirements and feel that they are lacking some desirable qualities. Which of the below are desirable qualities of requirements? a. Unambiguous b. Testable c. Feasible d. Modifiable 109) You review your peer (business analyst’s) requirements and felt that some requirements were unclear and contradicted each other. Which of the below desirable qualities of requirements are missing? a. Unambiguous b. Consistent c. Complete d. Modifiable 110) You validate requirements and find out that one of the valid requirements does not trace back to the business case of improving customer experience. What should be done with the requirement? a. It should be discussed with the delivery team to see if they can implement it
b. It should be defined and approved in a separate business case or considered for removal from the solution scope c. It should be referred to change management for prioritization and budgeting d. It should be referred to stakeholders for approval 111) Which of the below is/are needed to write solution scope? a. Work breakdown structure b. Solution definition c. Dependencies d. Implementation approach 112) You have too many requirements to be implemented within the deadline and you have to prioritize the requirements. But your stakeholders fail to recognize the necessity for making tradeoffs. This is an example of: a. Non-negotiable demand b. Business constraint c. Communication issues with stakeholders d. Change management 113) Which of the below are examples of business constraints? a. Budgetary restrictions b. Limits on the number of resources available c. Restrictions based on the skills of the project team and the stakeholders d. Non-negotiable demands 114) Solution components could include which of the below? a. Business policies and business rules b. Business processes to be performed and managed c. People who operate and maintain the solution, including their job functions and responsibilities d. Software applications and application components used in the solution 115) You are assessing the effect a new automated ticket system on the organization and whether the organization is prepared for the change arising from the implementation. You are performing: a. Organizational readiness assessment b. Solution assessment c. Organizational Business policy assessment d. Application impact 116) Which of the below are inputs to ‘Assess Organizational Readiness’? a. Enterprise architecture b. Stakeholder concerns c. BA communications plan d. Requirements package
117) The total strength of forces opposing a change is determined to be less than the total strength of forces supporting a change. What should be the next step after this force field analysis is complete? a. Look for ways to strengthen the forces that support the desired outcome or generate new forces b. Identify the forces that support and oppose the proposed change c. Estimating the strength of each force d. Do nothing 118) Your organization is moving from an old reporting system to a new one. Which of the below is not true? a. Transition requirements cannot be defined until a solution has been designed b. They remain relevant only during the transition period between solutions c. They cease to be relevant once the existing solution is eliminated d. Transition requirements still need to be analyzed even when there’s no existing solution 119) Which of the below is not an output of ‘Validate Solution’? a. Identified defects b. Mitigating actions c. Solution Validation assessment d. Requirements [Prioritized and Validated] 120) The testing team has identified a defect in the solution. The scenario leading to the defect is an extremely rare one. The implementation team does not believe that it is possible to fix the defect. What are the options that you can investigate as a business analyst? a. Consider additional quality control checks b. Consider new manual processes c. Consider removal of support for certain exception cases d. Any other suitable measure 121) You worked as the business analyst on a project that built reports to help monitor partner sales. You are looking into usage stats to get metrics on how the reports are being used and the effect the reports have had on sales operations. What are you performing? a. Performance assessment b. Solution evaluation c. Lessons learned d. Post-mortem analysis 122) Which of the below is not an input to ‘Evaluate Solution Performance’? a. Identified defects b. Solution Performance metrics c. Business requirements d. Capability gaps 123) In the context of systems theory, the term “system” includes which of the following?
a. People involved b. The interactions between the people c. The external forces affecting people behavior d. Other relevant elements and factors 124) Which of the below are business analyst competencies? a. Critical thinking b. Successful decision making c. Problem solving d. Systems thinking 125) One of your company’s competitors is introducing a product that could impact your company. As a business analyst, you recommend changes to an ongoing change initiative in order to respond to the competitor’s action. This required: a. Business principles and practices b. Industry knowledge c. Organization knowledge d. Solution knowledge 126) Your stakeholders prefer learning by doing. As a business analyst, which teaching style would you adopt? a. Visual b. Auditory c. Kinesthetic d. Writing 127) Your stakeholders get into conflicts based upon disagreements on matters of substantive value or impact on the project or organization. These are: a. Emotional conflicts b. Cognitive conflicts c. Personality conflicts d. Ego conflicts 128) A structured process which captures the key characteristics of an industry to predict the long-term profitability prospects and to determine the practices of the most significant competitors is called: a. Competitive analysis b. Solution analysis c. Industry analysis d. Market analysis 129) An analysis model that specifies complex business rules or logic concisely in an easyto-read tabular format, specifying all of the possible conditions and actions that need to be accounted for in business rules is called: a. Structured process b. Operative model
c. Decision tables d. Fish bone diagram 130) Your company has this rule-‘A new customer cannot be entered in the system with the same address as an existing customer.’ This is an example of: a. Operative rule b. Organizational rule c. Business rule d. Process rule 131) A business model that shows the organizational context in terms of the relationships that exist among the organization, external customers, and providers is called: a. Organizational map b. Relationship Map c. Business map d. Hierarchy map 132) Your implementation team tells you that the reporting solution they will build will not be compatible with all browsers, but only with the ones the technology will support. This is an example of: a. Design constraint b. Technical constraint c. Technological constraint d. Solution limitation 133) Your company has a specific formula to calculate booked amounts using exchange rates. This rule is used in calculations. This is a: a. Structural rule b. Operative rule c. Organizational rule d. Business rule 134) Which of the below is not true about a user story? a. It is a high-level, informal, short description of a solution capability that provides value to a stakeholder b. It is typically one or two sentences long and provides the minimum information necessary to allow a developer to estimate the work required to implement it c. It is a detailed, formal description of a solution capability that provides value to a stakeholder d. It is typically one or two paragraphs long and provides the minimum information necessary to allow a developer to estimate the work required to implement it 135) Benchmarking requires that the business analyst: a. Identify the area to be studied b. Identify organizations that are leaders in the sector c. Conduct a survey of selected organizations to understand their practices
d. Arrange for visits to best-in-class organizations 136) Diagrams that show how information is input, processed, stored, and output from a system and are visual representations of how information is moved through a system are called: a. Data flow diagrams b. Data models c. System flow diagrams d. Information flow diagrams 137) Effective decision analysis requires that the analyst understand: a. The values, goals and objectives that are relevant to the decision problem b. The nature of the decision that must be made c. The areas of uncertainty that affect the decision d. And the consequences of each possible decision 138) You are using financial evaluation techniques for your current endeavor. Which of the below techniques uses a future view of costs and benefits converted to today’s value? a. Discounted Cash Flow: b. Net Present Value c. Internal Rate of Return d. Average Rate of Return 139) Your colleague, a business analyst informs you that his stakeholders will not be available throughout the duration of the elicitation process. He asks you for suggestions on how to go about gathering requirements. You ask him to do ‘Document analysis’. Which of the below is not true about this technique? a. Document analysis is a means to elicit requirements by studying available documentation on existing and comparable solutions and identifying relevant information b. May include analysis of business plans, market studies, contracts, requests for proposal, statements of work, memos, existing guidelines, procedures, training guides, competing product literature, published comparative product reviews, problem reports, customer suggestion logs, and existing system specifications, among others c. Identifying and consulting all likely sources of requirements will result in improved requirements coverage, even if the documentation is not up to date d. This technique also applies in situations where the subject matter experts for the existing solutions are no longer with the organization 140) Which of the below are parametric estimation techniques for software development? a. COCOMO II b. Function Point Counting c. Use Case Points d. Story Points 141) You plan to conduct a focus group in the upcoming week. Which of the below is not true about a focus group?
a. A focus group is a means to elicit ideas and attitudes about a specific product, service or opportunity in an interactive group environment b. The participants share their impressions, preferences and needs, guided by a moderator c. This approach is less structured than brainstorming d. Compositions of a focus group can be homogenous or heterogeneous 142) When eliciting ideas about a specific product, individuals may self-censor if not comfortable with others’ backgrounds or opinions, resulting in a lower quality of data collected. Which of the below has this disadvantage? a. Homogeneous focus group b. Heterogeneous focus group c. Brainstorming d. Workshop sessions 143) When eliciting ideas about a specific product, differing perspectives may not be shared by the participants. Which of the below has this disadvantage? a. Homogeneous focus group b. Heterogeneous focus group c. Brainstorming d. Workshop sessions 144) Which of the below is used to identify interfaces between solutions and/or solution components and define requirements that describe how they will interact? a. Solution model b. Brainstorming c. Workshop sessions d. Interface analysis 145) You plan to conduct a lessons learned session. Which of the below is not true of a lessons learned process? a. The purpose of the lessons learned process is to compile and document successes, opportunities for improvement, failures, and recommendations for improving the performance of future projects or project phases b. Lessons learned sessions can include any format or venue that works for the key stakeholders identified as participants in these sessions c. Lessons learned sessions may take place in formal, facilitated meetings with set agendas and meeting roles, formal or informal working sessions, or informal get-togethers, any of which may or may not include a celebration d. The purpose of the lessons learned process is to compile and document successes, opportunities for improvement, failures, and recommendations for improving the performance of future projects or project phases and find out and assign fault 146) Which of the below is not true of a lessons learned process? a. All participants must be prepared to avoid any urge to assign blame during these sessions or honest discussion may not occur
b. Participants may be reluctant to document and discuss problems c. May risk becoming a “gripe” session and improvement opportunities may be neglected d. Not useful for identifying opportunities for process improvement 147) Which of the below are characteristics of an indicator? a. Clear, Relevant, Economical, Adequate, Quantifiable b. Clear, Relevant, Economical, Adequate, Qualifiable c. Clear, Relevant, Economical, Accurate, Quantifiable d. Clear, Reliable, Economical, Adequate, Quantifiable 148) Your company wants to measure customer satisfaction but does not have surveys to do so. So the proportion of all contracts renewed is used as: a. An indicator b. A key metric c. A lesson learned d. A parameter 149) Three key factors in assessing the quality of indicators and their metrics are: a. Reliability, Validity, Timeliness b. Reliability, Verifiability, Timeliness c. Redundancy, Validity, Timeliness d. Reliability, Validity, Technicality 150) Which of the below defines ‘Reliability of an indicator’? a. Reliability is the extent to which the data collection approach is stable and consistent across time and space b. Reliability is the extent to which data clearly and directly measure the performance the organization intends to measure c. Reliability is the fit of the frequency and latency of data to management’s need for it d. Reliability is the degree to which the result of a measurement, calculation, or specification conforms to the correct value or a standard 151) Which of the below are categories of non-structural requirements? a. Reliability b. Performance Efficiency c. Operability d. Security 152) Which of the below is not included in the definition of ‘Transferability’ in non-functional requirements? a. The ease of installing and uninstalling the application b. The kinds of different environments an application can run in c. The ease of migrating the application to a new environment d. The ability to interface with other applications 153) ‘Quality of service‘requirements document which of the below qualities of a system?
a. Scalability b. Maintainability c. Reusability d. Learnability 154) As part of requirements elicitation, you plan to conduct an assessment of the stakeholder’s work environment. You plan to use the passive approach to the observation technique. Which of the below is not true of this technique? a. You will observe the user working through the business routine but will not ask questions b. You will record what is observed, but will otherwise stay out of the way c. You will wait until the entire process has been completed before asking any questions d. You will observe the business process once to ensure you understand how the process works today and why it works the way it does 155) As part of requirements elicitation, you plan to conduct an assessment of the stakeholder’s work environment. You plan to use the active approach to the observation technique. Which of the below is not true of this technique? a. You will observe the current process and take notes while you dialog with the user b. When you have questions as to why something is being done as it is, you ask questions right away, even if it breaks the routine of the user c. This approach is also called ‘Visible’ approach d. You will observe the business process multiple times to ensure they understand how the process works today and why it works the way it does 156) A manager is responsible for directing 30 people. This is his: a. Span of control b. Control span c. Matrix organization d. Organization structure 157) A “market-oriented” organization may be organized around which of the following? a. Customer groups b. Geographical areas c. Projects d. Processes 158) Which of the below are process improvement methods? a. Value stream mapping b. Statistical analysis and control c. Process simulation d. Benchmarking 159) Your colleague wants some tips from you about making changes to processes in order to improve them. Which of the below can you suggest? a. Analysis of a process to identify and remove activities that do not add value to a stakeholder, where possible
b. Reduction of the time required to complete a process (by reducing the time to perform a task or the wait time between tasks) c. Improving interfaces or handoffs between roles and organizational units to remove errors d. Reduction or elimination of bottlenecks and backlogs 160) Which of the below types of prototypes extends the initial interface requirements into a fully functioning system and requires a specialized prototyping tool or language? a. Horizontal prototype b. Vertical prototype c. Evolutionary prototype d. “Throw-away” prototype 161) You have worked in three different organizations and noticed that each had a different category of risk tolerance. The three general categories of risk tolerance are: a. Risk-aversion, Neutrality, Risk-seeking b. Risk-avoiding, Neutrality, Risk-seeking c. Risk-aversion, Neutrality, Risk-searching d. Risk-aversion, No risk, Risk-seeking 162) Which of the below are risk response strategies for negative risks? a. Acceptance, Transfer, Avoidance, Exploitation b. Acceptance, Transfer, Avoidance, Mitigation c. Acceptance, Transfer, Prevention, Mitigation d. Agreement, Transfer, Avoidance, Mitigation 163) A positive risk can be a good thing. Which of the below are risk response strategies for positive risks? a. Split, Enhance, Exploit b. Share, Enhance, Exchange c. Share, Enhance, Exploit d. Share, Accept, Exploit 164) Which of the below statements about a risk neutral party is true? a. A risk neutral party's decisions are affected by the degree of uncertainty in a set of outcomes, so a risk neutral party is indifferent between choices with equal expected payoffs even if one choice is riskier b. A risk neutral party's decisions are not affected by the degree of uncertainty in a set of outcomes, so a risk neutral party is different between choices with equal expected payoffs even if one choice is riskier c. A risk neutral party's decisions are not affected by the degree of uncertainty in a set of outcomes, so a risk neutral party is indifferent between choices with equal expected payoffs even if one choice is riskier d. A risk neutral party's decisions are not affected by the degree of uncertainty in a set of outcomes, so a risk neutral party is indifferent between choices with unequal expected payoffs even if one choice is riskier 165) The difference between a scenario and use case is: a. A scenario is generally understood to describe just none of many ways that an actor can accomplish a particular goal, while a use case describes all the possible outcomes of an attempt to accomplish a particular goal that the solution will support b. A scenario is generally understood to describe just one way that an actor can accomplish
a particular goal, while a use case describes all the possible outcomes of an attempt to accomplish a particular goal that the solution will support c. A scenario is generally understood to describe just one way that an actor can accomplish a particular goal, while a use case describes one of all the possible outcomes of an attempt to accomplish a particular goal that the solution will support d. Scenario and use case are the same, there is no difference 166) You are writing the use cases for a user placing an order online using an ordering platform. The use case for a user successfully placing an order following the simplest way will be documented in: a. Primary flow b. Alternate flow c. Exception d. Temporal event 167) You are writing the use cases for a user placing an order online using an ordering platform. The use case for a user having issues due to entering incorrect credit card information and being unable to place an order successfully will be documented in: a. Primary flow b. Alternate flow c. Post-condition d. Temporal event 168) Which of the below is not true of a sequence diagram? a. Sequence diagrams are used to model the logic of usage scenarios, by showing the information passed between objects in the system through the execution of the scenario b. The classes required to execute the scenario are displayed on the diagram, as are the messages they pass to one another (triggered by steps in the use case) c. The sequence diagram shows how objects are related to one another but not how they interact d. The sequence diagram shows particular instances of each object with a lifeline beneath each object to indicate when the object is created and destroyed 169) A state diagram is also known as which of the following? a. State Machine Diagram b. State Transition Diagram c. Entity Life Cycle Diagram d. Sequence Diagram 170) Your colleague, a business analyst is scheduling a structured walkthrough. Which of the below is not true of a structured walkthrough? a. Structured walkthroughs are performed to communicate, verify and validate requirements b. A walkthrough may result in revised requirements as well as issues that require investigation c. A walkthrough may also be referred to as a requirements review d. A requirements model or package need not be complete in order to schedule a review 171) SWOT stands for: a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats b. Strengths, Weaknesses, Options, and Threats c. Specialties, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats d. Solidity, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
172) Which of the below does a user story include? a. Primary Actor, Secondary actor, Description b. Actor, Description, Benefit c. Actors, Benefits, Risks d. Actor, Story, Benefit 173) You are writing a user story for functionality that users need from a solution to meet a business objective. Which of the below is not true of a user story? a. A user story is a textual description of things that the solution needs to allow users to do b. User stories are typically a sentence or two that describes who uses the story, the goal they are trying to accomplish, and any additional information that may be critical to understanding the scope of the story c. The only detail that needs to be included is information that reduces the risk of misunderstanding by developers that create the estimate d. A user story does not need defined Acceptance and Evaluation Criteria 174) Which of the below is an advantage of using the user story technique? a. They may not be the best technique for some environments with regulatory restrictions or when an organization mandates documentation b. This modeling technique may not be effective when participants are not co-located c. This technique does not explicitly address how to document non-functional requirements d. They may eliminate the need to provide functional requirements in some environments 175) Some of the solutions for your project are to be provided by an external vendor. You plan to assess the ability of a potential vendor to meet commitments regarding a product or service. You are performing: a. Vendor assessment b. Vendor appraisal c. Vendor stability appraisal d. Vendor performance appraisal 176) Your quality assurance team informs you that they have only written the test scripts for black box testing. What do they mean? a. They have written the tests without regard to how the software is implemented. These tests show only what the expected input and outputs will be b. They have written the tests taking into account how the software is implemented. These tests show only what the expected input and outputs will be c. They have written the tests without regard to how the software is implemented. These tests show not only what the expected input and outputs will be but also identify defects in the internal code d. They have written the tests with regard to how the software is implemented that can only be tested by the developer who knows the code 177) Which of the below are included in the definition of business architecture? a. An organization’s current and future state b. Stakeholders affected by the organization’s activities c. The external environment in which the business operates d. The internal environment through a process or functional view 178) What is an event response table? a. An analysis model in table format that defines events and their responses b. An analysis model that defines the input stimuli that trigger the system to carry out some function
c. An analysis model that defines the responses in a tabular format d. A risk response table that defines the responses in an east-to-read format 179) A prototype that shows a shallow, and possibly wide, view of the system’s functionality, but which does not generally support any actual use or interaction is called: a. Horizontal prototype b. Vertical prototype c. Exploratory prototype d. Evolutionary prototype 180) Which of the below are used to identify the root causes of problems? a. Fish-bone diagram b. Five whys c. Force field analysis d. Impact analysis 181) What is a project charter? a.A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project, and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities b.A document issued by the project manager that formally authorizes the existence of a project, and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities c.A document issued by the project initiator that formally authorizes the existence of a project, and provides the project sponsor with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities d.A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project, and provides the project stakeholder with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities 182) The ability to identify and document the lineage of each requirement, including its derivation, its allocation, and its relationship to other requirements is called: a.Requirements Traceability b.Requirements Trace Matrix c.Requirements Validation d.Requirements Verification 183) What is requirements verification? a.The work done to evaluate requirements to ensure they are defined correctly and are at an acceptable level of quality b.The work done to ensure that the stated requirements support and are aligned with the goals and objectives of the business c.The ability to identify and document the lineage of each requirement, including its derivation, its allocation, and its relationship to other requirements d.The activities that control requirements development, including requirements change control, requirements attributes definition, and requirements traceability 184) Which of the below does an org chart show? a.Organizational Units
b.Lines of Reporting c.Roles and People d.Informal lines of authority and communication 185) Which of the following information must be recorded about each data element in the data dictionary? a.Name, Aliases, Values/Meanings, Description b.Name, Aliases, Values/Meanings, Designation c.Name, Glossary, Values/Meanings, Description d.Number, Aliases, Values/Meanings, Description 186) Composite data is assembled from primitive data elements. Composite structures include which of the following? a.Sequences, Repetitions, Mandatory Elements b.Sequences, Repetitions, Optional Elements c.Sequences, References, Optional Elements d.Serial numbers, Repetitions, Optional Elements 187) Which of the below questions can brainstorming be used to answer? a.What options are available to resolve the issue at hand? b.What factors are constraining the group from moving ahead with an approach or option? c.What could be causing a delay in an activity? d.What can the group do to solve a problem? 188) The MoSCoW technique is used in which of the below? a.Ranking requirements b.Scoring requirements c.Brainstorming requirements d.Accepting requirements 189) What does MoSCoW stand for in the MoSCoW technique? a.Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have b.Must have, Should have, Could have, Would like to have c.Must have, Should have, Could have but won’t have, Would like to have d.Must have, Should have, Could have, Would have 190) Software applications generally consist of which three components in a suite of tools? a.Word processing, database, presentation software b.Word processing, spreadsheets, presentation software c.Word processing, spreadsheets, project planning software d.Documentation, spreadsheets, presentation software 191) Which of the below are measures of successful decision making? a.Confidence of the participants in the decision-analysis process that a decision is correct b.New information or alternatives that cause a decision to be revisited are genuinely new
and not simply overlooked c.Decisions are effective in addressing the underlying problem d.The impact of uncertainty and new information when making decisions may not be effectively assessed 192) Your organization has already spent $100,000 on a project. But this investment cannot be recovered. This is called: a.Opportunity cost b.Sunk cost c.Ongoing cost d.Project cost 193) The potential value that could be realized by pursuing alternative courses of action is represented by which of the following? a.Opportunity cost b.Net present value c.Initial investment d.Project cost 194) As a business analyst, you are assessing organizational readiness. You see that certain stakeholder groups will not be willing to accept the change. In which of the below would you have been able to find this? a.Operational assessment b.Technical assessment c.Cultural assessment d.Stakeholder impact analysis 195) Which of the below are verification activities performed iteratively throughout the requirements analysis process? a.Check for completeness within each requirements model b.Compare each prepared requirements model (textual or graphical) against all other prepared requirements models c.Make sure all variations to the documented processes have been identified and documented d.Make sure all triggers and outcomes have been accounted for in all variations 196) You are prioritizing requirements based on inputs collected from the solution development team on the difficulty of implementing requirements. You feel that the solution development team is intentionally overestimating the difficulty of implementing certain requirements. This challenge is called: a.Non-negotiable Demands b.Unrealistic Tradeoffs c.Internal friction d.Implementation Difficulty 197) When can an informal presentation be used?
a.As an informal status check of requirements b.To communicate requirements to the delivery team or testing team to ensure there is no ambiguity c.To communicate requirements to affected business areas that don’t have sign-off authority but where knowledge of changes is required d.To communicate requirements to other project teams as a facilitation exercise to enhance requirement clarity 198) At which of the below levels can requirement tracing be done? a.Individual requirement level b.Model level c.Package level d.Feature level 199) Which of the below are considered valid forms of documentation? a.Written documents b.Visual recordings c.Audio recordings d.Actual/virtual whiteboards where notes are retained until they are transferred to another medium 200) Which of the below are generally accepted requirement elicitation techniques? a.Prototyping b.Survey/Questionnaire c.Observation d.Mimicking 201) You plan to tailor the requirements management process for your organization to meet the needs of a specific initiative or project. Which of the below would you factor in? a.Complexity of project b.Organizational maturity c.Availability of resources d.Organizational culture
Answer Key 1-201 1c 2c 3c 4 a, b, c 5d 6 All of the above 7a
8d 9b 10 b 11 a, b 12 c 13 c 14 d 15 d 16 a, b, c 17 All of the above 18 All of the above 19 All of the above 20 All of the above 21 None of the above. 22 All of the above 23 All of the above 24 a, b, c 25 c, d 26 c 27 a, b 28 b 29 a 30 d 31 a 32 d 33 All of the above 34 a
35 a, b, d 36 a, c 37 All of the above 38 a, b, d 39 c 40 a, c 41 a 42 None of the above 43 a 44 a 45 b 46 d 47 c 48 a, b, c 49 d 50 d 51 c 52 All of the above 53 a 54 c 55 All of the above 56 All of the above 57 d 58 All of the above 59 a 60 All of the above 61 d
62 a, b, c 63 All of the above 64 a 65 b, c 66 All of the above 67 c, d 68 b 69 None of the above 70 c 71 a, b, c 72 b 73 a, b, c 74 c 75 d 76 a 77 a 78 All of the above 79 a, b, c 80 All of the above 81 c 82 All of the above 83 All of the above 84 a, b, c 85 c 86 a, b, c 87 All of the above 88 All of the above
89 a, b, c 90 b 91 d 92 a 93 a 94 a, b, c 95 b 96 c 97 All of the above 98 All of the above 99 None of the above 100 None of the above 101 a 102 a 103 d 104 All of the above 105 d 106 c 107 a 108 All of the above 109 a, b 110 b 111 b, c, d 112 a 113 a, b, c 114 All of the above 115 a
116 a, b 117 a 118 d 119 d 120 All of the above 121 b 122 d 123 All of the above 124 All of the above 125 b 126 c 127 b 128 a 129 c 130 a 131 b 132 b 133 a 134 c, d 135 a, b, c 136 a 137 All of the above 138 b 139 c 140 All of the above 141 c 142 b
143 a 144 d 145 d 146 d 147 a 148 a 149 a 150 a 151 All of the above 152 d 153 All of the above 154 d 155 d 156 a 157 All of the above 158 All of the above 159 All of the above 160 c 161 a 162 b 163 c 164 c 165 b 166 a 167 b 168 c 169 a, b, c
170 d 171 a 172 b 173 d 174 d 175 a 176 a 177 All of the above 178 a 179 a 180 a, b 181 a 182 a 183 a 184 a, b, c 185 a 186 b 187 All of the above 188 a 189 a 190 b 191 a, b, c 192 b 193 a 194 c 195 All of the above 196 b
197 All of the above 198 All of the above 199 All of the above 200 a, b, c 201 All of the above