ECE Laws Contracts and Ethics
Compilation of questions about laws, contracts and ethics of ECE...
De La Salle University Gokongwei College of Engineering Electronics and Communications Engineering
In Partial Fulfilment of The Requirements in ECE Laws, Contracts and Ethics
Compilation of FAQs
Presented To: Engr. Ann E. Dulay Presented By: Marquez, Ian Christopher M.
Chapter 1 Laws
EO 546 1. What is an Executive Order? “ an order having the force of law issued by the president to the army, navy, or other part of executive branch of the government.” (dictionary.com) 2. When was EO 546 implemented? July, 23 1979 3. What is the agency of the Philippine government under the Department of Transportation and Communications that responsible for the supervision, adjudication and control over all telecommunications services throughout the Philippines? National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) 4. It is the government organization that is responsible for the supervision, adjudication and control over all telecommunications services throughout the Philippines? National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) 5. According to Section 16 of EO 546, the commission shall be composed of? A Commissioner and two Deputy Commissioner (Preferably a lawyer and an economist) 6. What must be issued for the operation of communications utilities and services, radio communication systems, wire or wireless telephone or telegraph systems, radio and television broadcasting system? a. Certificate of Compliance c. Certificate of Registration b. Certificate of Authenticity d. Certificate of Public Convenience 7. When the Armed Forces of the Philippines used ________ that were allowed/assigned by the Commission; they can be considered not a subject to the provisions of EO 546. a. Bandwidth c. Frequencies b. Transmitter Power d. Transmitting Equipment 8. True or False. The NTC sub-allocate series of frequencies of bands for specific services? True.
9. True or False. When abolished the Board of Communications and the Telecommunications Control Bureauand their functionsare transferred to the National Telecommunications Commission? True. NTC Memorandum Order/ Circulars: NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005 Subject: Guidelines for the Registration of VoIP Service Providers and Resellers 1. According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, for a company to register as a VoIP service provider, the company should pay a registration amount of: a. PhP 10,000.00/year b. PhP 25,000.00/year c. PhP 50,000.00/year d. PhP 100,000.00/year 2. According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, Certificates of Registration (COR) issued to VoIP Providers and Resellers is only valid for how many years? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years 3. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 03-11-2005, each registered VoIP service provider shall be assigned a VoIP service prefix “09xx”? True NTC MC NO. 10-11-2005 Subject: Guidelines on the Cablecasting of CATV Channels with “CHATROOM” Formats 1. True or False. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, not all Cable TV (CATV) stations cablecasting channels with “chat room” formats are required to employ the use of Automated Filter Dictionary (AFD)? False 2. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, the software for the Automatic Filter Dictionary (AFD) has the capability to? 3
a. Automatically mask pre-determined words or phrases not suitable for cablecasting b. Preview all messages prior to cablecasting c. Provide the operator to edit or delete messages d. ALL OF THE ABOVE 3. According to NTC MO No. 10-11-2005, Cable TV (CATV) channels with “chat room” formats refer to interactive channels that enable viewers to interact and send messages via what? a. E-mail b. Facebook c. SMS d. Twitter NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005 Subject: GUIDELINES FOR SHARING/CONSOLIDATION OF HEAD-END FACILITIES OF CABLE TELEVISION STATIONS 1. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, the sharing of head-end facilities by two or more CATV systems shall require the approval of? National Telecommunications Commission (NTC). 2. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, aside from the petition, motion or application, what else should be submitted to the Commission to officially file intent of sharing/consolidation of head-end facilities of cable television stations? MOA and technical feasibility report. 3. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 11-11-2005, existing CATV operator serving adjoining/contiguous municipalities/cities is not allowed to consolidate its individual head-end facilities into a single head-end station. False. NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006 Subject: PROGRAM STANDARDS FOR RADIO AND TV BROADCAST AND CABLE TV STATIONS 1. It is the self-regulatory body for the broadcast media in the Philippines that is duly recognized by the NTC. Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster sa Pilipinas (KBP). 4
2. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, KBP program standards are being adopted by the NTC. True. 3. True or False. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, the members of the KBP are allowed to include information that may identify the location of troops even if it’s a highly sensitive issue. False. 4. According to NTC MC NO. 01-03-2006, what branch of the KBP is duly recognized by the NTC to consider and adjudicate all complaints against any KBP member? KBP Standard Authority. NTC MC NO. 14-07-2000 Subject: Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) for the Interconnection of Authorized Public Telecommunications Entities 1. According to the NTC MO No. 14-07-2000 Section 4, it is mandatory for all duly authorized PTEs to interconnect with one another. True or False? True. 2. What Republic Act has effectively liberalized the telecommunications services and has demonstrated its commitment to healthy and sustainable competition by allowing multiple operations by local service providers in partnership with firms of varying nationalities in most segments of the domestic and international telecommunications markets? Republic Act No. 7925 3. According to the NTC MC No. 14-07-2000, what network is used for the interconnection of PTEs aside from using direct basis, provided that no additional charges shall be passed on to end-users? Inter-Exchange Carrier’s (IXC’s) network. 4. True or False.According to the NTC MC No. 14-07-2000, a supplier shall commit acts constituting anti-competitive practices. False 5. True or False. NTC has the power to set rates charged by local firms. False 5
Other Memorandum Circulars 1. MC No. 10-8-91. Can a foreigner who is living in the Philippines be qualified by the NTC to have his or their own private radio communication network? Applicants must be 100% Filipino or there are at least 60% Filipino shareholders and 40% foreign shareholders in their company. 2. MC No. 2-05-88. What are needed in order to sell, manufacture, or purchase radio communication equipment? People who want to engage in the sales of radio communication equipment must get certain permits issued by the NTC. 3. MC No. 01-03-2010. How much frequency band is allocated by the NTC for 3G? 10Mhz paired frequency band is allocated by NTC for 3G. 4. MC No. 09-04-94A. Who shall be authorized to be responsible in endorsing the approval of renewing the amateur licenses? A Class “A” licensed amateur radio operator or an Amateur Radio Club, recommended by the Chairman of ARCP to the Commission, shall be responsible to endorse the approval of the renewal of amateur licenses. 5. MC No. 09-04-94A. An Amateur Radio Consultative Panel (ARCP) is created under Memorandum Circular No. 06-02-1994 for Amateur Radio Service. How should ARCP be composed? ARCP shall have 5 members o 2 representatives from the Commission o 2 class A amateurs (recommended by PARA – Philippine Amateur Radio Association) o 1 class A amateur with unquestionable reputation 6. MC No. 01-03-88. Yes or No. Can an Amateur Radio Enthusiast purchase a radio transceiver from abroad? Yes, provided that the person has been granted a Permit to Purchase from NTC. If purchasing locally, the other party should have a Permit to Sell from NTC and the equipment has been legally acquired (registered with the Commission).
Divisions of NTC: 1. This division of the NTC is responsible for the development, formulation and implementation of policies programs and operational standards relating to the regulation and authorization of domestic and international telecommunications carriers. Common Carrier Authorization Department 2. This department of the NTC is responsible for planning, programming and project development as well as the radio frequency spectrum management program; also responsible for the standardization of telecommunications equipment and facilities. Telecommunications Planning and Development Department 3. This department under the NTC undertakes functions relative to the registration of radio transmitter / transceiver equipment, licensing of all radio stations, issuance of Safety Radiotelegraphy / Radiotelephony Certificates for ships, recognition of radio training schools. Radio Regulations Licensing Department 4. Originally a part of RRLD, the _______ of the NTC has been elevated to Division status, per DBM approval in 1988. It undertakes functions relating to the issuance of Certificates of Public Convenience and Licenses for Radio and Television Broadcasting Stations. Broadcast Division
D0 88 AND D0 11 FAQs for DO 88 1. When submitting an application for a radio station construction permit to the Radio Control Office, What materials/requirements shall be supported when passing the permit? - Engineering plan and design with corresponding specifications of the radio stations 2. Which types of telecommunication stations are exempted from the provisions of DO 88? Amateur stations Citizens Band Radio Stations Land mobile or portable stations operating in the VHF/UHF microwave bands Aircraft stations in the non-commercial service Ship low power radio-telephone stations Stations not utilized for commercial purposes Stations operating on a non-multiplex basis with coverage area not to exceed 5 km radius. 3. Who should supervise the installation or construction of a radio station, radio communications system and broadcasting network? - Registered ECE 4. Who is required to supervise the installation or construction of a radio communications system comprised of less than 5 of any type of land radio stations? - No One 5. What is the carrier power of a standard AM broadcast station that is exempted from the provisions? - Not exceeding 1 kW 6. What is the radiated power of a standard FM broadcast station that is exempted that is from this provisions? - Not exceeding 3 kW 7. What is The RF carrier power of a TV translator that is exempted from these provisions? - Not exceeding 1 kW 8. What is the radiated power of TV RF power boosters that is exempted from the provisions? - Not exceeding 3 kW
9. True or False. When modifying the frequency of an existing radio station a permit shall not be granted unless the applicant applies another application. - True 10. What Republic Act penalizes those who violates or not comply with any provision of this order? - Act No. 3846 and/or RA No. 5734 FAQS for DO11 1. It is a person, firm, company, association or corporation holding a certificate or written authority issued by the National Telecommunications Commission to possess, own, transfer, construct, manufacture, purchase or sell radio transmitters or transceivers or to construct a radio station. - Permittee 2. A person, firm, company, association or corporation legitimately engaged in the business of buying and selling of radio transmitters and transceivers duly registered with the National Telecommunications Commission. - Dealer 3. What does this person need (Ans. to #2) in order to legitimately be engaged in buying or selling of radio transmitter and transceivers? - Dealer’s permit 4. Is a certificate or written authority issued by the National Telecommunications Commission the construction or installation of a radio transmitter or transceiver or a radio station as required by the these regulations. - Construction permit 5. This is a certificate or written authority issued by the National Telecommunications Commission to a person, firm, company, association or corporation, authorizing the holder thereof to operate a radio station during the period specified in said instruments or authorization. - Radio station license 6. A radio communication service of transmission to be received by the general public. This service may include transmissions of sounds or transmissions by television, facsimile or other means. - Broadcasting service 7. A station intended to be used while in motion or during halts at unspecified points. - Mobile station 9
8. A radio installation consisting of a separate radio transmitting apparatus or radio receiving apparatus or a combination of radio transmitting and/or radio receiving equipment including the accessory equipment for carrying on a definite radio communication service. - Radio station 9. A person, firm, company, association or corporation CAN possess or own radio transmitters or transceivers without registering the same with the National Telecommunications Commission. TRUE or FALSE. - False 10. NO person, firm, company, association or corporation CAN construct or manufacture, or purchase radio transmitters or transceivers without a permit issued by the National Telecommunications Commission. TRUE or FALSE. - True 11. What are the information that must be furnished upon registering radio transmitters and transceivers in the National Telecommunications Commission? Name and address Location Make, model and serial number. Name and address of whom it is acquired. Date acquired If it is homemade/custom built, state the power, date, and the name and address. 12. What is first needed in order to construct and operate a radio transmitting station? - Obtain a franchise from the Congress of the Philippines. 13. One must have this before the construction / installation of any Radio Station. - Permit from the National Telecommunications Commission. 14. Given that you already have a permit, can you add an additional transmitter, increase in power, change in location, antenna, etc. without prior notice? (Yes/No) - No. 15. Who issues the Radio Station License? - National Telecommunications Commission. 16. The duration of a Station License issued is three (3) years. (True/False) - True.
17. When should you apply for renewal of a station? - 2 months before its expiration. 18. Who is the only allowed person to do the actual operation, tests and adjustment of apparatus? - Licensed Operators. 19. Station and Operator Licenses should be posted in the premises in their respected places, transmitter and work place, respectively. (T/F) - True 20. When can the station license be revoked? When a false statement on material facts is made. When the license fails to operate the station substantially in conformity with the provisions. For wilful violations of the radio laws and regulations. 21. What should happen to those transmitters and transceivers not in working condition when acquired or those in working condition but which became unserviceable and not intended to be rebuilt, repaired or reconditioned? - Condemned and registered with the Radio Control Office 22. What happens to the radio equipment whose plates have been removed, changed, or altered without proper authority? - Subjected to confiscation 23. What happens to the permits issued to a permittee when the permittee provides false information or material facts? - Revocation of permits. 24. Who issues the permit to engage in the construction, manufacture, and Sale of Radio Transmitters or Transceivers? - National Telecommunications Commission 25. TRUE or FALSE. The change or transfer of ownership of a radio station, transmitter, or transceiver without prior authority from the National Telecommunications Commission is allowed. - False 26. What provisions should a station observe with regards to operating procedures and traffic handling in accordance with the radio service carried on by the station? - International Radio Regulations 11
27. What is the modulation limit of the emitted carrier? - 100 % Modulation 28. What should license holders of radio stations have in order to keep its operations in check? - Log Book 29. What is the fine for any firm, association, company, or corporation for failing or refusing to observe or violating any provision of these regulations? - Not more than Php 5000 30. What will be assigned the frequency of broadcasting services, as well as fixed service, whether domestic or international? - A separate call sign 31. Who issues the permit to purchase to persons, firms, companies, associations, or corporations in order for them to sell radio transmitters and transceivers? - National Telecommunications Commission
BECE 03-75: ECE practice in MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging, Background Music, Telephone and Computer Installations NTC MC No. 11-89: Radio Telephone Operator’s Examination PRC Resolution 217: Delisting of delinquent professionals from the Roster
Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO)
BECE 03-75: ECE practice in MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging, Background Music, Telephone and Computer Installations
Article I. Limitation 1. Which of the following equipment/installations is not covered by the rules and regulations in BECE 03-75: A. Master Antenna Television B. Community Antenna Television C. Close Circuit Television D. Paging System E. Background Music System F. Alarm System G. Telephone Installation H. Computer Installation Answer: F. Alarm System 2. Who signs the required plans/specifications for the said equipment/installations? Answer: Duly registered ECE 3. For all plans/specifications to be prepared/signed by a duly registered ECE, all equipment and installation costs of all MATV, CATV, CCTV in a commercial or industrial establishment must: A. Exceed P25,000 B. Exceed P15,000 C. Exceed P10,000 Answer: A. Exceed P25,000 4. In commercial/industrial establishments, what amount should the cost of computer installations be, before its plans/specifications have to be signed by a duly registered ECE? Answer: An amount exceeding P100,000
5. In telephone installation in a commercial or industrial establishment, more than how many lines are required so that it should be provided with a service entrance? Answer: 3 lines 6. What should be provided in a commercial/industrial establishment when there are more than 3 telephone lines that will be installed? Answer: Service Entrance 7. Should a registered ECE prepare, sign and seal the plans/specifications of the said telephone installation? Answer: Yes Article II. Enforcement by officer of the law 8. The enforcement of the provisions of the implementing rules and regulations under BECE 03-75 shall be the duty of ________,_________, _________, _________. Answer: National Government, provincial, city or municipal Government, duly constituted officers of the law 9. Who shall act as the legal adviser of the Board, and shall assist in upholding these rules and regulations? Answer: The Secretary of Justice
NTC MC No. 11-89: Radio Telephone Operator’s Examination 10. Who shall conduct the Commercial Radiotelephone Operator’s Examination? Answer: the Commission specifically, the National Telecommunications Commission 11. What do the Radio Control Law and Department Order No. 5 require radio operators to have to be able to operate radio stations? Answer: Commercial Radiotelephone Operator's Certificate 12. According to NTC MC No. 11-89, who are allowed to take the Commercial Radiotelephone Operator's Examination? Answer: ECE graduates (with valid Special Order No. from CHED) 13. True or False. The applicant who is an Electronics and Communications Engineering graduate should have undergone a training/seminar on radio laws and regulations. Answer: True 14. True or False. A certification from the applicant’s employer that he/she is performing the duties of a radio operator is not one of the requirements to be able to take the exam. Answer: False
PRC Resolution 217: Delisting of delinquent professionals from the Roster
15. When will the certificate of registration of the registered professionals who have been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration be suspended? Answer: After the lapse of 5 consecutive years from the last year that the annual registration was paid. 16. True or False. The professional regulatory boards may delist the names of the said delinquent professionals from the Rolls of Registered Professionals with or without surrender of their certificate of registration. Answer: True 17. Would a professional be notified of his suspension beforehand? Answer: Yes 18. What are the forms of notification? Answer: 1. The delinquent registrant is notified about the commission’s intention at his/her address on file with his/her records 2. The details of the delinquent registrant is published in a newspaper of a general circulation. 19. True or False. The professional has the right to reason himself/herself from the said enforcement. Answer: True 20. How many days from the said notification shall be given for the submission of avalid justification of the delinquency of payment before the suspension and/or delisting of the said registrant? Answer: 30 days 21. What can a delinquent do to make amends and have his/her name returned to the list of registered professionals? 17
Answer: If practicable, in certain cases, substitute services by publication in the Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation pursuant to the Rules of Court may be allowed. 22. Would it be considered a crime when a professional skips annual registration to the point of the suspension of his certificate of registration? Answer: No 23. True or False. The professional who has been suspended and delisted from the Rolls of Registered Professional list shall be held criminally liable for illegal practice of their profession if they practiced during the period of suspension. Answer: True 24. When shall be the registered professional’s name whose certificate has been suspended be reinstated or re-enrolled in the Rolls of Registered Professionals, his/her certificate be returned, and his/her license be renewed? Answer: 1. Upon filing of application 2. Compliance with the Continuing Education (CPE) requirement (unless exempted) 3. Payment of the annual registration fees (professional license fee) and surcharge of every calendar year
Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO) Executive Order No. 47 25. Under what law was the Commission on Information and Communications Technology (CICT) renamed as the Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO)? Answer: Executive Order No. 47 26. The Information and Communications Technology Office (ICTO) is placed under the policy, technical and administrative supervision of what department? Answer: Department of Science and Technology (DOST) 27. The ICTO shall be headed by whom? Answer: Executive Director, with the rank of an Undersecretary who shall report directly to the DOST Secretary. Overview 28. Which of the following are areas of ICTO’s primary thrusts for 2011-2016: A. ICT Industry Development B. E-Government C. ICT Policy Development D. ICT Infrastructure and Cyber Security E. All of the above Answer: E Executive Order No. 47, s. 2011 29. Who has the power and control over executive departments, bureaus and offices, as well as the continuing authority under existing laws to reorganize such executive departments, bureaus and agencies? Answer: The President
30. True or false. One of the functions of ICTO is to formulate, recommend and implement an appropriate policy and program framework that will promote the rapid development and improve global competitiveness of our country’s information and communications technology industry through research and development and through effective linkages to industry. Answer: True 31. NTC ensures the provision of efficient and effective information and communications technology infrastructure, information systems and resources to support efficient, effective, transparent and accountable governance and, in particular, support the speedy and efficient enforcement of rules and delivery of accessible public services to the people Answer: False, ICTO is in charge of it. 32. How does ICTO improve the quality of Information and Communications Technology (ICT) education and the production of globally competitive ICT manpower? Answer: By continuing research and development in partnership with academic institutions 33. How can ICTO help in building the capacities of public sector institutions and their personnel? Answer: By using ICT for the improvement in planning, management, delivery of mission, critical functions and monitoring and evaluation. 34. True or False. The NTC is in charge of the formulation of the Government Information System Plan and administering the E-Governance Fund. Answer: False, ICTO is in charge of it. Section3 35. What is transferred to DOST and will form part of the internal structure of ICTO? Answer: National Computer Center (NCC) and Telecommunications Office (TELOF) Section 4 36. True or False. The National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) and the Philippine Postal Corporation (PHILPOST) are under DOST. Answer: False. NTC and PHILPOST are under the Office of the President.
ICTO Strategic Thrust 37. What are the strategic plans of ICTO? A. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT B. E-GOVERNMENT C. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT D. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY E. All of the above 38. What strategic plan is used to ensure that ICT access and internet opportunities are available for the entire country by developing effective and sustainable and strategic ICT infrastructures? A. E-GOVERNMENT B. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT C. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT D. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY 39. What strategic plan is used to create interactions between the government and citizens which allows citizens to have easy access to information and services by strategically engaging them through digital channels? A. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY B. E-GOVERNMENT C. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT D. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT 40. What strategic plan is used for the development and implementation of comprehensive programs to ensure the continuous growth and competitiveness of ICT industry sectors? A. E-GOVERNMENT B. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT C. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT D. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY 41. What strategic plan is used to help ICTO in formulating ICT policies, implementing plans and programs that could help provide research support for e-Government, eBusiness and e-Society concerns? A. ICT PLANNING AND POLICY B. E-GOVERNMENT C. ICT INDUSTRY DEVELOPMENT D. ICT INFRASTRUCTURE MANAGEMENT
ICTO Projects 42. What is not part of the projects of ICTO? A. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) B. Government Fiber Core Network C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network D. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools E. Bluetooth Technology for Medical Applications F. Internet TV Testbed 43. What kind of Cloudtop project of ICTO in cooperation with DOST - Technological Research Center (TRC) is used to aim in the reduction of hardware acquisition costs for computers? Answer: Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools 44. The Cloudtop project is able to reduce hardware acquisition costs by using which of the following? A. Thin client and cloud computing for educational use B. Government cloud applications C. Sustainable energy solutions. D. All of the Above 45. What Project of ICTO aims to use the unused frequencies for television for data connection? A. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) B. Government Fiber Core Network C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network D. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools E. Internet TV Testbed 46. It is the essential component of ICTO’s E-Government that will utilize existing government assets. A. Internet TV Testbed B. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network D. Government Fiber Core Network 22
E. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) 47. What Project of ICTO is used to upgrade microwave network links between existing government-owned and private sector source data networks by using microwave links to be able to provide redundancy between these networks? A. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS) B. Government Fiber Core Network C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network D. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools E. Internet TV Testbed 48. In cooperation with partners in Industry and Academe, what project of ICTO that will be used to deliver digital contents and will be a key for public applications? A. Internet TV Testbed B. Cloud Top e-Learning for Public Schools C. Upgrade of National Microwave Network D. Government Fiber Core Network E. TV White Space Initiative (TVWS)
EO 109 and EO 59 Executive Order (EO) NO. 59 PRESCRIBING THE POLICY GUIDELINES FOR COMPULSORY INTERCONNECTION OF AUTHORIZED PUBLIC TELECOMMUNICATIONS CARRIERS IN ORDER TO CREATE A UNIVERSALLY ACCESSIBLE AND FULLY INTEGRATED NATIONWIDE TELECOMMUNICATIONS NETWORK AND THEREBY ENCOURAGE GREATER PRIVATE SECTOR INVESTMENT IN TELECOMMUNICATIONS 1.When was EO 59 created? a. February 24, 1994 b. February 24, 1993 c. February 29, 1993 d. February 14, 1993 2. TRUE or FALSE. It is compulsory for public telecommunications carriers to provide interconnection. Answer: True. Telecommunications carriers should be interconnected to allow one carrier to access a subscriber of another carrier. 3. What are the requirements when establishing and maintaining interconnection between carriers? Answer: There should be sufficient capacity and in sufficient number to meet traffic demands. 4. TRUE or FALSE. Interconnection of other telecommunications services such as radio paging, trunking radio, store and forward systems, etc., shall be mandatory Answer: True. Interconnection is mandatory for telecommunications services that the NTC determines to be in the interest of the public and allows for a universally accessible, fully integrated nationwide telecommunications network. 5. How long do two parties have to negotiate interconnection terms before the NTC intervenes? Answer: Negotiation between parties have ninety (90) days from the date of notice to the NTC before the NTC intervenes. After this time, the NTC will be the one to determine the terms and conditions for aspects that the parties did not agree upon so as to have a workable interconnection and traffic settlement.
6. When is the rerouting of calls from an international gateway operator to another international gateway allowed? Answer: In the event of strikes, lock-outs, disasters, calamities and similar causes, calls are permitted to be rerouted to another international gateway operator that is still operative. 7. How are the connection rates determined? Answer: A per minute rate shall be evolved with day and night differential. The rate is based on the principle of recognizing recovery of the toll related cost and return of the investment of the facilities used to make the tall call exchange. 8. In what manner do telecommunication companies interconnect? Answer: Non-discriminatory. 9. Who is responsible for detailing, assigning and approving of costs and division of income from the Interconnection of telecommunications networks using Points of Connection (PC) between public telecommunication carriers’? a. Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH) b. President of the Philippines c. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) d. Kapisanan ng mga Brodkaster ng Pilipinas (KBP) 10. Who must share with the interconnection cost, maintain and operate their facilities in accordance with their obligation as approved by the NTC? a. Interconnecting Parties b. President of the Philippines c. Citizens of the Philippines d. Supplier 11. What may be revoked, revised or amended by the NTC as it deems fit in the public service interest? Answer: Interconnection and revenue-sharing agreements 12. Who may impose penalties, i.e. administrative fines or sanctions, when any of the provisions is violated? a. Department of Defence (DoD) b. National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) c. Department of Justice (DOJ) d. Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR)
13. Who withholds any government loan or credit accommodation of the violating carrier or operator from government financial or lending institutions? Answer: President of the Philippines 14. Who, from the violating carrier or operator, cannot be disqualified from being employed in any enterprise or entity supervised by the NTC? a. Employees b. Officers c. Lawyer d. Directors 15. Whose services cannot be disrupted even if there is a suspension of authorized rates from any violating carrier or operator? a. Public b. Private c. Voluntary Services 16. From section 14 of EO 59, it states that ‘NTC is directed to promulgate the implementing rules to this Executive Order within how many days from the date of effect’? Answer: 90 days
Executive Order (EO) NO.109 – July 12, 1993 POLICY TO IMPROVE THE PROVISION OF LOCAL EXCHANGE CARRIER SERVICE Note: The answer to a multiple choice question is the one that is in bold. 1. When was EO 109 implemented? a. July 12, 1993 b. March 10, 1990 c. December 1, 1996 d. November 1, 1992 2. All of these are targets of the National Telecommunication Development Plan (NTDP) of the Department of Transportation and Communication (DOTC) except for: a. To ensure the orderly development of the telecommunication sector through the provision of service to all areas of the country b. To generate adequate funds in order to further extend the provision of local exchange services c. To satisfy unserviced demand for telephones d. To provide healthy competition among authorized service providers 3. In order to subsidize funds for the development of the local exchange service, funds may be generated from: a. National, international long distance and other telecommunications services b. Local and international sponsorships c. Fund Raising activities d. Cellular Mobile Telephone Systems (CMTS) only 4. Refers to a telecommunications service, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice service, within a contiguous geographic area are furnished to individual. a. Basic Telecommunication Service b. Local Exchange Service c. Both a and b d. None of the above 5. Refers to local exchange residence and business telephone service and telegraph service without additional features. a. Basic Telecommunication Service b. Local Exchange Service c. Both a and b 27
d. None of the above
6. Refers to a system of pricing in which the actual cost of providing service establishes the basic charge to which a fixed mark-up is added to collect a standard charge to all users without discrimination. a. Value based pricing b. Cost based Pricing c. Actual Pricing d. Neutral Pricing 7. Refers to a system of pricing where cost of service establishes the minimum charge and a variable mark-up is added to collect revenue from those who value the service more highly. a. Value based pricing b. Cost based Pricing c. Actual Pricing d. Neutral Pricing 8. Refers to the availability of reliable and affordable telecommunications service in both urban and rural areas of the country. a. Global Mobility b. International Accessibility c. Basic Telecommunication Service d. Universal Access 9. TRUE or FALSE. As stated in Section 2, the objective of this policy is to improve the provision of local exchange service in UNSERVED AREAS ONLY as defined by the National Telecommunications Commission (NTC). Answer: FALSE. Unserved and underserved areas are both improved as stated by the NTC. 10. Section 3 includes what policy that covers the ownership and operation of telecommunication facilities and services? a. Policy of Telecommunications b. Policy of Democratization c. Policy of Nation Alliance d. Policy of Communism
11. TRUE or FALSE. As stated in Section 4, local exchange service shall continue to be cross subsidized by other telecommunication services within the same company as long as universal access telecommunications service is achieved and such service is priced to reflect the actual cost. Answer: TRUE 12. TRUE or FALSE. Authorized international gateway operators shall be required to provide local exchange service in unserved and underserved areas, including Metro Manila, within 3 years from the grant of an authority from the NTC. Answer: TRUE
13. How many local exchange lines per international switch termination must an authorized gateway operator should provide? a. A minimum of 300 lines b. A minimum of 5000 lines and a maximum of 500,000 lines c. 10 (per subscriber) d. 10 million lines both for local and international services 14. For every rural exchange line, how many urban exchange lines must be installed? a. 40 b. 20 c. 30 d. 10 15. TRUE or FALSE. The establishment of Public Calling Offices at rural barangay level need the appropriate credit by NTC in order to provide local exchange service. Answer: TRUE 16. TRUE or FALSE. Carriers already providing local exchange service in accordance to sections 5.a, 5.b and 5.c shall be authorized to operate an international gateway. Answer: TRUE 17. Authorized international gateway operators may also be authorized to provide? Answer: Cellular Mobile Telephone System (CMTS) services and non-basic telecommunications service 18. TRUE or FALSE. A subsidiary of a public telecommunications carrier that is operating an authorized international gateway is allowed to operate another gateway.
Answer: FALSE. The subsidiaries of a public telecommunication carrier operating an authorized international gateway shall not be allowed to operate another gateway in accordance with Executive Order No. 59 (1993) 19. Authorized providers of non-basic telecommunications service shall be required to provide local exchange carrier service in accordance with guidelines rules and regulations prescribed by the: a. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) b. National Telecommunication Commission (NTC) c. KapisananngmgaBrodkasterngPilipinas (KBP) d. National Broadcasters Association (NAB) 20. TRUE or FALSE. Telecommunications service providers shall provide equivocal financial reports. Answer: FALSE 21. How many years does an existing telecommunications service provider have to comply with the above requirements in order to provide local exchange services? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years 22. TRUE or FALSE. International Gateway Facility, Cellular Mobile System (CMTS), and other Value added Services (VAS)pending and existing applications do not need to revise their applications. Answer: TRUE 23. TRUE or FALSE. All telecommunications service networks shall be interconnected in a non-discriminatory manner. Answer: TRUE 24. Who was the president when this executive order 59 and 109 were promulgated? a. Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo b. Joseph Ejercito Estrada c. Fidel Ramos d. Ferdinand Emmanuel Edralin Marcos
RA 7925 1. What is the process in which it enables a telecommunications entity to relay and receive voice, data, electronic messages, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures, words, music or visible or audible signals or any control signals of any design and for any purpose by wire, radio or other electromagnetic, spectral, optical, or technological means. a. Telecommunications b. Public Telecommunications c. Private Telecommunications d. Authorized Telecommunications 2. Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private, that is engaged in the provision of telecommunications services to the public for compensation. a.Public telecommunications entity b. Public telecommunications government c. Public telecommunications group d. Public telecommunications organization 3.An undertaking, the object of which is to transmit over-the-air commercial radio or television messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographic area. a.Transmission b. Broadcasting c. Regulation d. Communication 4. What is the privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing that entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service? Franchise 5. An entity providing transmission and switching of any telecommunications services, primarily but not limited to voice-to-voice service, in a geographic area anywhere in the Philippines. a. Local Exchange Operator b. Local Switch Operator c. Local Trunk Operator d. Local Geographic Operator
6. An entity, sometimes referred to as carrier's carrier or national backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services. a. Intra-exchange carrier b. Inner-exchange carrier c. Inter-exchange carrier d. Local-exchange carrier 7. An entity primarily engaged in the business of providing transmission and switching of any telecommunications service between the Philippines and any other point of the world to which it has an existing correspondent or prospective interconnection agreements. a. Global carrier b. International carrier c. World carrier d. Host carrier 8. It is an entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided for by such carriers. Valueadded service provider (VAS) 9. A non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages. a. Public toll calling station b. Public toll station c. Public toll static station d. Public toll dynamic station 10. True or False. Mobile radio telephone system is a wide area mobile radio telephone system with its own switch, base stations and transmission facilities capable of providing high capacity mobile telecommunications by utilizing radio frequencies. True. 11. True or False. Intra-connection is the linkage, by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more existing telecommunication carriers or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carriers or operators. 32
False (Interconnection) 12. What is/are the fundamental objective/s of the government? I. Develop and maintain a viable, efficient, reliable and universal telecommunication Infrastructure. II. Use the best available and affordable technologies, as a vital tool to nation building and Development. III. Develop and produce professional engineers that may help in improving, not only the technology, but also the socio-civic and economy of the country. a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. All of the above 13. True or False. The expansion of the telecommunications network shall give priority to improving and extending basic services to areas not yet served. For this purpose, government shall promote a fair, efficient and responsive market to stimulate the growth and development of the telecommunications facilities and services, with emphasis on the accessibility by persons to basic services in unserved and underserved areas at affordable rates. True 14. Who will allocate the radio frequency spectrum to service providers? a. Government b. Enterprise c. President d. Congress 15. Rates and tariff charges shall be fair, just, and reasonable and for this purpose, the regulatory body shall develop a tariff structure that is based on what? I. Socio-economic factors II. Financial, technical and commercial criteria III. Business factors a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. All of the above 16. Public telecommunications services shall be provided by who? a. Government 33
b. Private Enterprises c. All of the above 17. True or False. A healthy competitive environment shall be fostered, one in which telecommunications carriers are free to make business decisions and to interact with one another in providing telecommunications services, with the end in view of encouraging their financial viability while maintaining affordable rates. True 18.True or False. A fair and reasonable interconnection of facilities of authorized public network operators and other providers of telecommunications services is necessary in order to achieve a viable, efficient, reliable and universal telecommunications services. True 19.True or False. The government shall give some of the assistance and encouragement to Philippine international carriers in order to establish interconnection with other countries so as to provide access to international communications highways on a competitive basis. False; ALL 20. For efficiency, practicability, and convenience, but with due regard to the observance of due process at all times, regulation of telecommunications entities shall rely principally on a/an _________ process that is stable, transparent and fair, giving due emphasis to technical, legal, economic and financial considerations. a. Tributary b. Administrative c. None of the above 21. True or False.Any single franchise shall authorize an entity to engage in both and broadcasting, either through the airwaves or by cable. (False, NO single franchise shall authorize) 22.True or False. Ownership of public telecommunications entities to as wide a number of people as possible, preferably to its customers, in order to encourage efficiency and public accountability and to tap personal savings shall be encouraged. (True) 23. What do/does support the development of telecommunications? I. Human Resources skills II. Manufacturing industry a. I 34
b. II c. I and II d. None of the above 24. True or False. The DOTC serves as the principal administrator of R.A. 7295. They take necessary measures to implement the policies and objectives of this Act - False || National Telecommunications Commission (NTC) 25. True or False. The NTC facilitates an administrative process for the entry of qualified service providers and adopts a pricing policy to provide basic telecommunications services in unserved and undeserved areas. - True || Adopt a pricing policy that would generate sufficient returns to encourage basic telecommunications services in unserved and undeserved areas 26. True or False. The DOTC shall not exercise any power which will tend to influence or effect a review or a modification of the Commission’s quasi-judicial functions. - True || Although this is true, the NTC is now under the Office of the President and not the DOTC 27. Which of the following telecommunications categories would a telecommunications entity may be authorized to operate? a. Local Exchange Operator b. Inter-Exchange Carrier c. International Carrier d. Value-Added Service Provider e. All of the above * e. || A franchise shall be authorized to operate in one or more telecommunications category provided that each of its categories is covered by the franchise. 29. The number of entities allowed to provide inter-exchange national long distance services may be limited, but as a matter of policy, where it is economically viable, at least two (2) carriers, shall be authorized. - True 30. Providing local exchange services is not required for a telecommunications entity to be allowed to operate as an international carrier given that it can demonstrably show technical and financial capability to install and operate an international gateway facility.
- False || An international carrier has to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service in unserved and undeserved areas within 3 years from the grant of authority. 31. A VAS provider shall be allowed to competitively offer its services and/or expertise, and lease or rent telecommunications equipment and facilities necessary to provide such specialized services, in the domestic and/or international market in accordance with network compatibility. Provided that it does not put up its own network, a Value-Added Service Provider need not secure a franchise. - True 32. In a local telephone exchange area, only one duly enfranchised provider of mobile radio services, distinct and separate from the local exchange carrier, may be allowed to operate. - False || More than one duly enfranchised provider may be allowed to operate || Such entities shall secure prior authority from the Commission, comply with the conditions imposed on the VAS, and with the norms on radio frequency spectrum utilization 33. The operator of a mobile radio telephone system shall comply its obligations to provide local exchange service in unserved and underserved areas in accordance with existing regulations. Failure to comply with this obligation within _________ from the grant of the authority shall be a cause to cancel its authority or permit to operate a mobile radio telephone system. a. one (1) year b. two (2) years c. three (3) years 34. The Commission allows telecommunications subscribers to use type approved terminal equipments, such as telephone, PABX, facsimile, data, record, message and other specialpurpose or multi-function telecommunication terminal equipment intended for such connection. - True. 35. The radio frequency allocation and assignment will only be reviewed once. - False. The radio frequency spectrum allocation and assignment shall be subject to periodic review. 36. If in case the demand for specific frequencies exceeds availability, the Commission shall hold a bidding process and ensure wider access to this limited resource. - True. 36
37. True or False. The owner should obtain a franchise before conducting the public telecommunications business entity. - True. 38. What are the conditions that the Commission may impose in granting the Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity (CPCN)? A. The duration and termination of owning a franchise B. The standard or technical aspects of the equipments C. Rates and services D. All of the above 39. Which of the following circumstance/s does not require the approval of the Commission? A. Expansion and financing of network and services in order to service additional demand in the same areas where the previously approved network have been installed. B. The upgrading of existing plant and network facilities to improve the quality of service. C. Both A and B. D. None of the above. 40. The Commission shall establish rates and tariffs which are fair and reasonable and which provide for the economic viability of telecommunications entities and a fair return on their investments considering the prevailing cost of capital in the domestic and international markets. - True. 41. When can the Commission exempt any specific telecommunications service from its rate or tariff regulations? A. When the telecommunications service has no competition B. When the telecommunications service has paid the prescribed fee C. When the telecommunications service has requested for exemption D. When the telecommunications service has sufficient competition 42. Upon which conditions can the Commission re-impose rate and tariff regulations after exemption of a telecommunications service? A. When ruinous competition results B. When a monopoly or a cartel exists C. When the rates and tariffs are unable to function freely D. The public is adversely affected E. All of the above. 37
43. All access charge/revenue sharing between all interconnecting carriers are arranged by the Commission. - False. The access charge/revenue sharing arrangements between all interconnecting carriers shall be negotiated between the parties and the agreement between the parties shall be submitted to the Commission. 44. International carriers and mobile radio operators which are mandated to provide local exchange services shall be exempted from the requirement to provide the cross-subsidy when they interconnect with the local exchanges of other carriers. - False. 45. Telecommunications entities are required to set up a uniform system of accounts which shall be one of the bases in establishing rates and tariffs. - True. 46. What kind of service, which is non-discriminatory, reliable, and conforming to the minimum standards set by the Commission, should be entitled to telecommunications users as part of their basic rights? Answer: Utility Service 47. When should a FIRST single-line connection be given to the user upon application for service against deposit? a. Within 1 week b. Within 1 month c. Within 2 weeks d. Within 2 months 48. When should a FIRST party-line connection be given to a group of users or barangay, given that the targeted commencement of service per the original schedule of service expansion has passed by already? a. Within 3 weeks b. Within 3 months c. Within 2 weeks d. Within 2 months 49. True or False: Regular, timely and accurate billing AND courteous and efficient service at utility business offices and by utility company personnel are BOTH basic rights of telecommunications users. Answer: True
50. Complaints received over the telephone will be entertained but users should still make a formal and written complaint for it to be given prompt and thorough investigation and, proper and necessary actions. Answer: False 51. Aside from facilities currently being planned under various bilateral funding arrangements, telecommunications facilities will and shall be privatized under what conditions: I. When they are operated by the government for public use II. When they are currently owned by the government for public use a. I and II b. I or III c. I and/or II 52. Any advantage, favour, privilege, exemption, or immunity granted under existing franchises shall become part of previously granted telecommunications franchises provided that this will not apply nor affect: a. Territory covered by the franchise b. Life span of the franchise c. Type of service authorized by the franchise d. ALL of the above 53. What kind of certificate, stating the areas covered and date the grantee shall commence the service, should a franchise applied for or secured, to operate and not be deemed revoked? Answer: Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
RA 9292 RA-9292 is also known as? “ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING LAW OF 2005” 1.
The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge a. Electronic Analysis b. Electronics c. Engineering Physics d. Digital Communications
A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer and affix to his/her name the letters "PECE“ is called: a. Electronics Technician b. Professional Electronics Engineer c. Electronics and communications engineer d. Electronics Teacher
The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric is called: a. Information systems b. Information overload c. Information and communications technology d. Information inquiry
It is the process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium a. Communications b. Telecommunications c. Broadcasting d. Networking
Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control 40
signals by wire, radio or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means is: a. Communications b. Telecommunications c. Broadcasting d. Networking 6.
________ is an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means. a. Sari-Sari store b. Computer shop c. Industrial Plant d. Commercial Establishment
_______includes all manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated. a. Sari-Sari store b. Computer shop c. Industrial Plant d. Commercial Establishment
Any building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronicallycontrolled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated is called: a. Sari-Sari store b. Computer shop c. Industrial Plant d. Commercial Establishment e. What are the categories of engineering and technician that are covered in RA-9292? (a) Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE) (b) Electronics Engineer (ECE) (c) Electronics Technician (ECT)
10. What is the nature of practice of an Electronics technician? consist of non-engineering work relating to “installation, construction, operation, maintenance of electronic devices and apparatus” including the
teaching and training of technical and professional subjects given in the electronics technician curriculum and licensure examinations. 11. What is the difference of the nature of practice of an Electronics Engineer and a Professional Electronics Engineer? a Professional Electronics Engineer has the sole authority to provide consulting services and to sign and seal electronics plans, drawings, permit applications, specifications, reports and other technical documents prepared by himself/herself and/or under his direct supervision 12. The seal of design of a Professional Electronics Engineer should have the following details except: a. Registrant`s name b. Registration number c. Title (PECE,ECE) d. Date of Registration 13. Who shall promulgate the code of ethics for Electronics engineer and technician? The Board shall adopt a Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians, which shall be promulgated by the “Accredited Professional Organization”. -Article IV-section 30 14. No person shall offer himself/herself in the Philippines as, or use the title "Professional Electronics Engineer", "Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics Technician", as defined in RA-9292 without holding a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card TRUE 15. No firm, company, partnership, association or corporation may be registered or licensed as such for the practice of electronics engineering and electronics technician. TRUE 16. The Board of Electronics Engineering composes of the following: a. 1 chairman, 2 members b. 1 chairman, 3 members c. 2 chairman, 2 members d. 2 chairman, 1 member
17. What is not included in the power and functions of the Board below? a. Administer/implement the Provisions of this Act b. Maintain the Roster of PECE, Electronics Engineers, Electronic Technicians c. Issue, suspend or revoke Certificates of Registration and Identification Card d. Power to Close a School 18. What is not included in the Qualifications of Board Members below? a. Be of good moral character and integrity; b. Be a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card as a Professional Electronics Engineer c. Be atleast 40 years of age d. Be a member of good standing of the Accredited Professional Organization 19. How long is the term of office of the members of the Board? a. 5 years b. 4 years c. 2 years d. 3 years 20. Who can remove or suspend any members of the Board? a. President of the Philippines b. President of the accredited professional organization c. senator d. engineer 21. To be eligible in the licensure examination, what are the qualifications? For ECE/Electronics Engineer: - A citizen of the Philippines - With a good moral character - A holder of degree in Bachelor of Science in ECE/Electronics Engineering For Electronics Technician: - A graduate of Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational Course in Electronics - Completed atleast the minimum 3rd year equivalent of BS in ECE/Electronics Engineering 22. What are the scopes of the examination? - Mathematics, - Applied Sciences - Engineering Economics - Laws and Ethics 43
Electronics Communications Computers and Information & Communication Technology
23. What should be the passing rate? 70% 24. How long will the result come out? - Within 15 days after taking the board exam; today only 3 days 25. In applying for PECE, what are the qualifications needed? - A valid certificate of registration and professional identification card as electronics engineer - Valid/current membership identification card from the Accredited Professional Organization - A certified experience of record of active self-practice and/or employment for at least 7 years *Accompanied by 3 PECE signed certificates for the factuality of documents 26. When can an applicant for PECE register? - anytime and will have an en banc oral interview scheduled by the Board. 27. To whom can the certificate of Registration & Professional Identification Card be issued? - Examinees who passed the Electronics Engineer & Electronics Technician licensure examination - Registered PECE - Registered Electronics Technicians without examination (all subject to payment fees) 28. Can suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card & Cancellation of Special Permits happen? - Yes, if such actions violated any of the rules and regulations from the Act, Code of Ethics, and Code of Technical Standards of Practice. Also includes falsifying any documents used in practice, malpractice, incompetency and mentally ill. 29. What are the requirements for registration without examination for Electronics Technicians?
- Must be a graduate of at least a 2-year Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational course in Electronics - Completed at least the minimum 3 rd year equivalent of Bachelor’s Degree of Science in ECE or Electronics engineering program - Has at least 7 years of active self-practice and/or employment all accompanied by 3 PECE signed certificates for factuality of records 30. Can I have my Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card reissued after being revoked? - Yes, 2 years after the revocation provided that no any illegal practice, violation of this Act, rules, codes, and policies were done during the time of revocation. 31. What happens to lost, destroyed or mutilated certificate or registration card? - It can be re-issued but subject to the rules promulgated by the Commission. 32. How frequently should the Board prepare and maintain the roster of information of all registered PECEs, ECEs and ECTs? a. Every time results of the exams are released b. Every year c. Every 6 months d. Every 15 days after the release of exam results 33. T or F. Anyone who wishes to may acquire license information from PRC. TRUE 34. Y or N. May anyone be exempted from licensure examination and registration? YES, provided that… a. He/She is a foreign PECE, ECE or ECT license holder; b. No Filipino for the job; c. His/Her contract says temporary; d. His/Her contract defines and limits the job; e. He/She cannot have a private practice; 35. For every 1 foreign professional hired, how many Filipino counterpart/s should be there? At least 2 Filipinos 36. The permit lasts no more than __ & renewable every __. e. 3 mos. & 3 mos. f. 6 mos. & 3 mos. 45
g. 6 mos. & 6 mos. h. 12 mos. & 10 mos. 37. There should be 1 Accredited Professional Organization (APO) of PECEs, ECEs and ECTs in the country recognized by the PRC. What is this organization? IECEP 38. After RA 9292 was implemented, how long (year/s) were the previously licensed PECEs, ECEs and ECTs given to register themselves as members of the APO? 3 years 39. T or F. A professional has the option to not study further but still keep his/her status provided that he/she wouldn’t change his/her field. FALSE 40. After RA 9292 was implemented, how long a time is the local government given to fill out all its existing and proposed PECE, ECE and ECT positions? 3 years 41. What are the punishable crimes listed under Section 35 of RA 9292? a. Giving wrong information to get a certification b. Permitting another person to use his/her license (valid or not) c. Presenting a revoked or suspended license d. Assuming the job of a professional when one is not e. Signing a document prepared by another person unless the signee’s work is specified (i.e. collaboration) f. Violating one’s privacy rights: Electronic eavesdropping: - wiretapping - hacking g. Violating one’s intellectual property rights: - cracking - cloning - piracy
42. The fine to be paid for committing a crime against RA 9292 ranges: From not lessthan
To no more than
43. The duration of imprisonment for a committed felon ranges: From not less than
To no more than
44. T or F. Upon the effectivity of RA 9292, ECEs with valid Certificates of Registration shall automatically be registered as Electronics Engineers. TRUE, in a sense that… a. They don’t need to take the exam; b. They shall be issued a new Certificate of Registration and ID with the same license number; c. They pay the prescribed fees and submit other requirements.
Amendment to PD 1096; IRR of RA 9292; CPE Matrix; Memo on RA9292 I.
CPE Matrix 1. In what year was the 5th resolution for RA 9292 promulgated? Answer: 2008 2. This is the inculcation, assimilation and acquisition of knowledge, skills, proficiency and ethical and moral values, after the initial registration of a professional. Answer: Continuing Professional Education (CPE) 3. TRUE or FALSE: There is one chairperson and three members in the PRC CPE Council. Answer: False, 2 members 4. The PRC CPE Council’s functions include the following: a. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE providers b. Accept, evaluate and approve application for exemptions from CPE requirements c. Monitor the implementation by the CPE providers of their programs d. All of the Above e. None of the Above Answer: d. All of the Above 5. Who submits the annual reports and minutes of regular meetings? a. Chairperson b. Secretariat Answer: a. Chairperson 6. TRUE or FALSE. IECEP CPE Council, which is the counterpart of CPE Council, is not allowed to ask for reimbursement of reasonably processing fess directly from the applicants. Answer: FALSE 48
7. To whom does a provider submits programs, activities, or sources to be approved and accredited for CPE units? Answer: PRC CPE Council *From nos. 11-20, the terms are defined in accordance to the guidelines for CPE programs, activities or sources. 8. It refers to the gathering of professionals which shall include, among others, workshops, technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non-degree training courses and scientific meetings. Answer: Seminar 9. It refers to a gathering of professionals which shall include, among others, conferences, symposia or assemblies for round table discussions. Answer: Convention 10. It refers to a graduate degree in Electronics Engineering business or related field from a recognized school, college or university. Answer: Masteral Degree 11. It refers to a post graduate degree in Electronics Engineering business or related field from a recognized school, college or university. Answer: Doctoral Degree 12. It refers to the ownership of intellectual property which includes technical or professional books, instructional materials and the like. Credits earned must be claimed within one (1) year from the date of publication. Answer: Authorship 13. It refers to learning which uses course manuals or accredited learning modules. Accredited Learning modules include self-instructional materials or programs which may be in the form of printed manual, audio and video cassette tapes, films, computer-assisted learning (CAL), study kits, learning aids and modules or the use of the information highway. These should include among others clearly defined objectives, adequate content and an evaluation component for each module. Answer: Self-Directed Learning Package 14. It is a training or specialization at the post graduate level for a minimum period of one (1) week. 49
Answer: Post Graduate/In-Service Training 15. It refers to a professional who acts as discussion leader or lecturer in a convention or seminar or similar gathering. Answer: Resource Speaker 16. It refers to a professional who acts as an evaluator of a research paper, conference paper of journal article before it is presented or published. Answer: Peer Reviewer 17. It refers to a natural person or a juridical entity which includes among others, accredited or non-accredited professional organization, firm, partnership, corporation or institution which offers, organizes or arranges CPE programs, activities or sources for implementation and administration. Answer: CPE Provider 18. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, the following are the supporting documents needed by a participant in a seminar/convention except? a. Certificate of Attendance with number of hours b. seminar program c. Certificate of Participation d. Certified list of participants Answer: C. Certificate of Participation 19. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, the following what are the supporting documents needed by a resource speaker in a seminar/convention except? a. Photocopy of Plaque of Certification and Copy of Paper b. Program Invitation c. A and B d. Seminar Program Answer: d. Seminar Program 20. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, what are the supporting documents needed by a Facilitator/Moderator and a Panelist/Reactor in a seminar/convention? Answer: Certification from sponsoring organization and copy of programs.
21. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a Master’s and Doctoral Degree program, the following are the necessary supporting documents except? a. Photocopy of School ID b. University Certification c. Diploma d. Transcript of Records Answer: a. Photocopy of School ID 22. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, for authorship of research/Innovative Programs/creative Projects what is/are the necessary supporting document/s? a. Copy of Duly accomplished module and evaluation b. Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper c. Copy of Duly accomplished module d. A and B Answer: b. Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper 23. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in an invention, what are the necessary supporting documents? a. Copy of Duly accomplished module and evaluation b. Duly certified/published technical Report/Paper c. Certified Copy of patent certificate d. A and C Answer: c. Certified Copy of patent certificate 24. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a postgraduate/in-service training, which among the following is the supporting document needed? a. Certificate of Training and Training Description b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution c. Certificate of Grant or Appointment Paper d. Certificate from Council Secretary Answer: a. Certificate of Training and Training Description 25. According to the matrix for CPE programs, activities or sources, in a study observation, what are the necessary supporting documents? a. Certificate of Training and Training Description b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution c. Certificate of Grant or Appointment Paper 51
d. Certificate from Council Secretary Answer: b. Certificate from Sponsoring Institution 26. The total CPE credit units for registered ECE/PECE/ECT professional shall be: a. 75credit units b. 70credit units c. 65credit units d. 60credit units Answer: sixty (60) credit units for three (3) years provided that a minimum of fifteen (15) credit units shall be earned in each year. 27. Who observes the procedure for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs, activities, or sources? a. PRC CPE Council b. IECEP CPE Council c. A and B d. None of the Choices Answer: b. IECEP CPE Council 28. In case of natural persons, what are the basic information which should be included in the application form for accreditation of CPE provider? a. Full name, address and telephone number of the applicant-provider and Relevant educational background b. Profession, principal area of professional work and number of years in the practice of profession. c. PRC license Number and date of expiration and Current employment d. All of the Above Answer: d. All of the Above Full name, address and telephone number of the applicant-provider Relevant educational background Profession, principal area of professional work and number of years in the practice of profession. PRC license Number and date of expiration. Current employment 29. TRUE or FALSE: For accreditation of CPE provider, applicant-provider shall submit a valid NBI clearance. Answer: TRUE
30. In case of Juridical Entity, what are the basic information which should be included in the application form for accreditation of CPE provider? Answer:
Full name, address and telephone/fax number/s and e-mail address Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) original registration papers List of officers with their PRC license numbers and the expiry date if officer is a member of a regulated profession Plans for CPE programs or activities for the year applied Proof of past CPE-activities or programs conducted/arranged (immediate past year) for applicants renewing accreditation
31. A CPE provider seeking accreditation of an organized or arranged CPE program, activity or source shall submit said program, activity or source (in triplicate) to this organization for its evaluation and recommendation for approval to the PRC CPE Council. Which organization is this? Answer: IECEP CPE COUNCIL 32. The CPE program, activity, or source shall cover a period not to exceed: a. One (1) year b. Two (2) years c. three (3) years d. four (4) years Answer: c. three (3) years 33. The issuance of the certificate of accreditation shall take place within _____________ from receipt of the application. a. Fifteen (15) days b. Twenty (20) days c. Twenty-five (25) days d. Thirty (30) days Answer: d. Thirty (30) days 34. How many days upon completion of the CPE program, activity or source shall the CPE provider submit a report to the PRC CPE Council? Answer: 15 days from the last day of offering 35. In reference to the previous question, what should be included in the report? Answer: Name of CPE Provider Name of description of CPE program, activity or source Accreditation number and date of issuance of accreditation 53
Certified list of participants indicating names and PRC professional license identification cards and expiry dates, resource speakers, lecturers, discussion leaders, panellist, moderators or facilitators who took part or participated in the CPE program, activity or source. Date and time of start and completion of the holding of the CPE program, activity or source. Venue/location of the holding of the program Summary of evaluation results of participants Name of secretariat representative who monitored the CPE program or activity
36. At what age can someone be permanently exempted from obtaining CPE Requirements? Answer: Registered professional above 65 years old and registered professional practicing his profession abroad (2 years) 37. Which data is not included in the application for temporary exemption from CPE Requirements? a. Full name, residence address and phone number of applicant. b. Marital Status c. PRC License Number d. Employment History Answer: b. Marital Status 38. What will be done to ECE/PECE/ECT upon 5 years of not renewing their professional license? Answer: A notice will be posted on the IECEP website or any newspaper of general circulation that the professional is dropped from the roster of ECE/PECE/ECT. 39. What shall be withdrawn from the CPE provider if found not complying with the given rules and regulation? Answer: Accreditation 40. When was the CPE Matrix approved? Answer: May 12, 2008
Memorandum Circular No. 2013 – 01 47. When was the Memorandum Circular No. 2013-01 promulgated? Answer: January 4, 2013 48. When was the Electronics Engineering Law of 004 enacted? Answer: April 17, 2004 49. Only PECEs should supervise, manage and administer electronics services as defined under Section 5 of the Republic Act No. 9292? Answer: False, also Electronics Engineers 50. Should PECE or ECE be part of the staff of the office of the provincial, city or municipal building official to evaluate electronics engineering plans? Answer: Yes
House Bill No. 2836 51. This bill is known as the “National Building Code, as amended.” a. House Bill 2836 b. Republic act 9292 c. Republic Act 6541 d. Republic act 8293 Answer: a. House Bill 2836 52. Stated in House Bill No. 2836, along with the permits required during construction of a building, how many sets of plans and specifications are needed? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 Answer: a. 5 53. In applying for a building permit, what are the necessary five sets of signed and sealed plans and specifications required? Answer: Architectural and Structural Plans by an Architect or Civil Engineer Mechanical plans by a Mechanical Engineer Electrical Plan by an Electrical Engineer Electronic Plans by a Registered Professional Electronics Engineer Sanitary or Plumbing Installation Plans by a Licensed Sanitary Engineer 55
54. What code does a company conform to when dealing with electrical installation? Answer: Philippine Electrical Code 55. The office of the Building Official created what section that deals with the rules and regulation regarding Electronics requirements? Answer: Electronics Section 56. What are the requirements of being the head of the Electronics section? Answer: Registered Professional Electronics Engineer A member in good standing of a duly accredited organization of his profession for a period of not less than five (5) years Was endorsed or recommended by the Accredited Professional Organization
RA 8439 1. RA 8439 is a Magna Carta for [Section 1] a) Scientist b) Engineers c) Researchers d) Other S&T Personnel in the Government. e) All of the above 2. When was RA 8439 approved? a) September 22, 1997 b) December 22, 1997 c) November 22, 1997 d) October 22, 1997 3. According to RA 8439, the state recognizes __________ as an essential element for the attainment of national development and progress. [Section 2] a) Science and Technology b) Trade and Commerce c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 4. What program was declared as a policy of the State in order to achieve and maintain the necessary reservoir of talent and manpower that will sustain its drive for total science and technology mastery. [Section 2] a) A program of human resources development in Engineering b) A program of human resources development in Science and Technology c) A program of human resources development in Medicine d) All of the above 6. The following list are the ways on how the state will achieve the policy given to them except [Section 2] I. Provide Scholarship programs II. Improvement of the quality of science and engineering education III. Popularization of science culture IV. Provision of incentives for pursuing career in science and technology. a) I and III b) II and IV c) None of the Above d) All of the above 57
7. What department is created under Executive Order No. 128? [Section 3] a) Department of Science and Technology (DOST) b) Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) c) Department of Transportation and Communication (DOTC) d) Department of Social, Welfare and Development (DSWD) (EO 128 - Reorganizing the National Science and Technology Authority) 8. What refers to activities concerned with the generation, advancement, dissemination, and application of scientific and technical knowledge in all fields of natural science and technology?[Section 3] a) Scientific Activities b) Technological Activities c) All of the above d) None of the above 9. What are the broad groups of Science and Technology Activities? [Section 3] a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D) b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) d) All of the above 10. Which broad group undertakes any systematic and creative work which aims to increase stock knowledge and use this knowledge to devise new applications? [Section 3] a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D) b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) d) None of the above 11. Which broad group supports scientific research and development, dissemination and applications of scientific and technical knowledge? [Section 3] a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D) b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) d) None of the above 12. Which broad group comprises activities concerning higher education and training that would lead to a university degree, further training, or organized lifelong training for scientists and engineers? [Section 3] 58
a) Research and Experimental Development (R & D) b) Scientific and Technological Services (STS) c) Scientific and Technical Education and Training (STET) d) None of the above 13. Who formulates the career system for science and technology personnel in service of the government? [Section 4] a) DOST b) Civil Service Commission c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 14. The following list are the classifications of Science and Technology Personnel except [Section 5] I. S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners II. Members of the Scientific Career System III. Scientists, Engineers and Researchers IV. DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel a) I and IV b) II and III c) None of the above d) All of the above 15. Who are the S&T personnel with graduate degree holders or have at least 10 years of managerial experience or are performing executive, planning and policy-making functions? [Section 5] a) S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners b) Members of the Scientific Career System c) Scientists, Engineers and Researchers d) DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel 16. Who are the S&T personnel with at least undergraduate degree holder in any natural science and engineering courses and are involved in any of the STA? [Section 5] a) S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners b) Members of the Scientific Career System c) Scientists, Engineers and Researchers d) DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel
17. Who are the S&T personnel that obtained at least twelve units in science, engineering and other related courses which provides support services to other S&T personnel? [Section 5] a) S&T Managers, Supervisors and Planners b) Members of the Scientific Career System c) Scientists, Engineers and Researchers d) DOST Technicians and Related S&T Personnel 18. True or False the existing law regarding salary scales affect Science and Technology personnel. [Section 6] - False 19. Who makes the salary scale of S&T personnel? [Section 6] a) DOST b) Department of Budget and Management c)Civil Service Commission. d) All of the above 20. When is an S&T personnel entitled with Honorarium? [Section 7] a) When S&T personnel rendered services beyond the regular workload b) When S&T personnel contributes to productivity and innovativeness in their own specific field c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 21. S&T personnel benefit from share in royalties, excluding those who work in private companies. By how many percent is their share in the proceeds of royalty payments arising from patents, copyrights and other intellectual property rights? [Section 7] a) 70 to 30 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. b) 50 to 50 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. c) 90 to 10 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. d) 60 to 40 percent, in favor of the government and the personnel involved. 22. True or False. S&T personnel involved in hazardous work shall be paid a hazardous allowance ranging from 20 - 40 percent of their monthly salary. [Section 7] - False, 10 - 30 percent only 23. Which of the following list are considered as hazardous workplace [Section 7] I. Radiation-exposed laboratories and service workshops II. Remote/depressed areas 60
III. Areas declared under a state of calamity or emergency IV. Strife-torn or embattled areas V. Laboratories and other disease-infested areas a) I and V b) II, III and IV c) III only d) All of the Above 24. True or False. S&T personnel are entitled to an allowance equivalent to two meals per day due to the subsistence allowance. [Section 7] - False, three meals per day 25. True or False. All S&T personnel are given laundry allowance of not less than P150 a month for their clothes. [Section 7] - False, only S&T personnel required to wear a prescribed uniform during work are subjected to the laundry allowance. 26. True or False. S&T personnel with residence outside of the fifty (50) kilometer radius from the government facility in which they are stationed are entitled to free living quarters within the facility. [Section 7] - True 27. True or False. A monthly longevity pay equivalent to ten percent (10%) of the monthly basic salary shall be paid to S&T personnel for every two (2) years of continuous and meritorious service. [Section 7] - False, only 5% of the monthly salary shall be paid and it is given every 5 continuous service years only. 28. All S&T personnel shall be given a compulsory free medical examination every year, and these includes: [Section 7] I. Complete physical examination II. Routine laboratory, Chest X-ray and ECG III. Psychometric examination IV. Dental examination V. Other indicated examination a) I, IV, and V b) I, II, and III c) None of the above d) All of the above
29. True or False. Non DOST S&T personnel allowed to receive benefits under this Act. [Section 8] -True, upon certification of the Secretary of the Department 30. S&T personnel are entitled to avail of scholarship grants for pursuing science and engineering education. Grantees are then required to render service up to how many years? [Section 9] I. Depends on how long they received the scholarship grants. (i.e. 4 years of study is equivalent to 4 years of service) II. 2 years of service III. They are free to work in private sectors if there are no vacant positions IV. None, they are free to work in private sectors they want a) I and III b) II and III c) II only d) IV only 31. Scholarship grants include but not limited to: [Section 9] I. Tuition fee II. Book allowance III. Transportation allowance IV. Monthly stipend V. Dissertation grants VI. Insurance and the payment of regular salary a) I, II, and IV b) I, III, IV and V c) I, II, III and VI d) All of the above 32. True or False. S&T employees, engineers, scientists, etc. are allowed to give consultation to the private sectors and get payment for their services. [Section 10] - True, provided that the said consultancy/service does not jeopardize the researchers’ current work in his originating office. 33. True or False. According to RA 8439, secondment is allowed for S&T personnel working in the government. [Section 11] - True, provided that the duration of stay on another company shall not exceed 1 year and with the consent of the head of the agency. It is also given that they must not hamper the operations or activities of his originating office.
34. Due to the highly technical nature of certain positions in S&T, the appointment to position of research assistant and upwards shall not be covered by what law? [Section 12] a) Attrition Law b) CSC rule on nepotism. c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 35. True or False. S&T personnel are allowed to receive double benefits, that is, benefits from this Act and any other Act?. [Section 13] - False 36. If an S&T personnel is already receiving benefits from another law, what must he/she submit in order to receive benefits from this Act? [Section 13] a) Letter of application b) Letter of intent to withdraw other benefits c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 37. True or False. Upon retirement, the S&T personnel concerned shall automatically be granted one (1) salary grade higher than his/her basic salary and his/her retirement benefits shall be computed on the basis of his/her last salary received. [Section 14] - False, retirement benefits shall be computed based on the highest salary received by the personnel. 38. True or False. RA 8439 states that the benefits an S&T personnel have can be eliminated or diminished anytime when deemed necessary. [Section 15] -False, all benefits cannot be eliminated or diminished at the time of the effectivity of this Act. 39. True or False. Retired scientists or researchers are allowed to be hired back. [Section 16] - True, provided no other expert is available to take part in the specified scientific activity. The retirees must also be qualified and capable to do the work. 40. True or False. Retired scientist or researchers can be hired as a regular employee. [Section 16] - False, they must be on a contractual basis. 41. What is the duration of the temporary waiver of CSC eligibilities given to S&T scholarship graduates and grantees? [Section 17] a) At least one year 63
b) At least two years c) At least three years d) At least four years 42. True or False. The Department of Science and Technology (DOST) must make an annual awarding ceremony for the outstanding achievements and excellence or original contribution to science and technology. [Section 18] - False, the Science and Technology Awards Committee shall be the one conducting it. 43. Which group of people comprise the S&T COM? [Section 19] a) 5 Members of the House of Representatives with the Chairpersons of the Committee on Science and Technology b) 5 Members of the Senate with the Chairpersons of the Committee on Science and Technology c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above 44. True or False. The S&T COM shall review the progress of the state of the Philippines in terms of S&T once every four (4) years. [Section 19] - False, it must be done once every five (5) years. 45. True or False. The funding of this Act start will start when it is provided in the General Appropriations Act (GAA) of the year following its enactment into law under the budgetary appropriations of the DOST and concerned agencies. [Section 20] - True 46. To which government commission shall the annual report of the Act implementation be submitted to? [Section 21] a) National Telecommunications Commission b) Congressional Commission on Science and Technology (S&T COM) c) Commission on Elections d) None of the above 47. Which Department of the Government is in charge of implementing and formulating of this Republic Act? [Section 22] a) Department of Science and Technology b) Government agencies involved in STA c) Nongovernment agencies involved in STA d) All of the above
R.A. 8293 – Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines I. Copyrights 1. A bundle of rights relative to the attribution of ownership, acknowledgement and remuneration to a creative literary or artistic work is referred to as? A. Trademark B. Copyright C. Patent D. None of the Above 2. A. B. C. D.
Which of the following can be protected by a copyright? Books Computer Program Technical Drawings All of the Above
3. Is your finished thesis covered by copyright? A. Yes B. No 4. Does an author lose his copyright of his works after he dies? A. Yes B. No 5. If a group of people authored a work, do they lose their copyright 50 years after the death of the last member? A. Yes B. No 6. In the case of work created by an author during and in the course of his employment, to whom does the copyright belong to if it is not part of his regular duties as an employee? Employee 7. Copyright is to literary works as Patent is to ____? A. Book 65
B. Painting C. Novel D. None of the Above 8. In the case of a work commissioned by a person other than an employer of the author, who owns the work? A. The creator of the work B. The person who commissioned the work
9. Where are the works to be copyright registered? A. Sandiganbayan B. National Library C. Congress Library D. Supreme Court Library E. All of the above 10. Who authorizes copyright assignment? A. Supreme Court B. Senate C. Congress D. Author/Owner 11. Under the IP Code, copyright infringement is ______ A. a Liability B. a Crime C. a Punishment D. at Par with Reclusion Perpetua 12. The IP code provides penalties. Which among does not belong? A. Fines B. Imprisonment C. Preventive measures to control infringement while case is heard D. All of the above E. None of the above
13. The author of a book is Alyas Bong. Does the IP code recognize him as the author even if he used his pseudonym? 66
A. YES, provided that the pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of the author B. No 14. In an audiovisual work, to whom does the copyright belong? A. Producer B. Music Composer C. Scene Author D. Author if the work is adapted E. All of the above 15. How many weeks are given for the author to submit 2 copies of his work and to pay the prescribed fee? A. 6 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 4 weeks D. 3 weeks 16. Which court has jurisdiction to receive complaints pertaining to copyright complaints? A. Regional trial court B. Court of Appeals C. Municipal trial court D. Sandiganbayan E. Supreme Court 17. What is taken into account in determining the number of years of imprisonment and the relative amount to be paid? A. value of infringed material B. the damage incurred C. the monthly income of the author D. A and B E. A and C II. Patents 18. Where does one apply for a Patent? IPO – Intellectual Property Office 19. Can you transfer rights of ownership to someone else? A. Yes 67
B. No 20. What happens when two people file for the same patent? Earliest filing date wins the patent 21. Are the patent rights valid for all countries? A. Yes B. No
22. Authorship of the works are attributed to the author, in particular, the right that his name, as far as practicable, be indicated in a prominent way on the copies, and in connection with the public use of his work. This rightis referred to as? Moral Rights 23. In every sale or lease of work, the author or his heirs shall have an inalienable right to participate in the gross proceeds of the sale or lease to the extent of 50%. A. True B. False
III. Trademark 24. A visible sign used to identify the goods or services of an enterprise. It can be a word, phrase, logo or design that distinguishes the products or services of one business from another. Trademark
25. The name of designation identifying or distinguishing an enterprise is referred to as? Tradename 26. How long is the term for a trademark? 10 years 27. Where is the application for a trademark filed? Bureau of trademarks and intellectual property office 28. Which of the following cannot be registered as a trademark? A. Generic Term 68
B. Color C. Customary Signs D. All of the above 29. Which of the following is the owner of a trademark can legally do? A. Kill the person who infringed your trademark B. Claim payment for damages C. Seize all of his properties D. Both B and C 30. A well – known trademark is financially significant for a business A. True B. False
Jurispudence 1. What pertains to the philosophy or science of law? Jurispudence 2. True or False. A person is excused when he/she is ignorant of the law he/she violated. 3. True or False. Law seeks to regulate or govern human conduct through rules while morality seeks to guide human conduct through rules. 4. The Ten Commandments is infallible. Under what type of law does it fall? Eternal Law 5. True or False. One quality of Natural Law is that it is universal. 6. A passerby is hit by falling debris, he sues the company for the injuries he incurred. What type of human law covers this situation? Civil Law 7. True or False. When there is intellectual property breach, the person being charged is considered a criminal. 8. True or False. A person found guilty in a civil case can be incarcerated in addition to giving up property or paying fines. 9. The defendant in a criminal case must be proved ________ before found guilty. beyond reasonable doubt 10. True or False. Legal rights are enjoyed by every individual within the state while human rights are enjoyed by every individual regardless of age or race.
What is a discipline that deals with moral problems and the concepts of right and wrong? Ethics
What is thought to be right according to the general public, group, culture or society? Morality
Individual conscience, moral values or judgements and codes of conduct are the three contexts used in ____. Morality
If one’s action does not reflect choices based on values or social norms then it is _____. Amoral
This approach in ethical decision-making prioritizes that which is for the benefits of many than for the benefit of one. Utilitarian Approach
A ______ would consider whether an act is good when repeated over and over that it becomes a “rule”. Rule Utilitarian
What is the approach that treats humans as ends in themselves and not as means to an end. Respect for persons approach
In respects-for-persons approach, this rule states that one must be willing for others to do the same action to him under similar circumstances. The Golden Rule
This resolves a moral problem by converting the negative and positive utilities to monetary terms and it is mostly used by government and business sector in making decisions. Cost-Benefit Test
10. According to rights test, what are the two essential rights? Rights to freedom and rights to well-being 11. A person wants to give food that has been plagued by flies to a homeless person, what approach is best to consider in this situation? Self-defeating test 12. True or False. In rights test, right to life > right against being cheated, defamed > right to non-discrimination and property. 13. True or False. An engineer who is always ethical in operating his business would guarantee him success. 14. True or False. A person who diligently follows the law is also being ethical. 15. True or False. Teleological ethics is result oriented while deontological ethics is act oriented. 16. Give 5 reasons why a person should be moral. To avoid punishment, attain happiness, be dignified, gain praise and to fit in society
Code of Ethics 17. It is the keystone of professional conduct according to code of ethics. Integrity 18. An ECE is expected to discharge his duties with _______ to the public, his employers and his clients. Fidelity 19. According to the Code of Ethics for ECE practitioners, what constitutes the foundation of ethics? Honesty, Justice and Courtesy 20. How should an engineer, in the interest of national economy, execute his work? execute his work with optimum efficiency, economy and safety 21. Being a witness before a court, commission and/or other tribunal, when should an engineer express an opinion? Only when it is founded on adequate knowledge and honest conviction 22. How should an engineer discharge his duties and responsibilities to the public, his employers and clients? with fidelity and with fairness and impartiality to all 23. When should an engineer express public opinion on an engineering subject? only when he is fully familiar and knowledgeable with all the facts relating to the subject 24. What should an engineer do to the State in the interest of national security? he shall give the State primary considerations in all his inventions and/or devices on electronics 25. How should an engineer deal with contracts between his clients or employers and the contractors? exercise fairness and justice 74
26. True or False. An engineer shall accept commissions or allowances, directly or indirectly from contractors, suppliers and all other parties 27. How should an engineer be in explaining or discussing his work and/or merit? Dignified and modest; refrain from self-laudatory advertising or propaganda 28. How should an engineer present the consequences to be expected from deviations proposed if his engineering judgement is overruled by non-technical authority? present the consequences clearly 29. What should an engineer do if he has proof or personal knowledge that a fellow engineer has been unethical in his practices? inform in writing the proper authorities for appropriate action 30. According to code of ethics, an engineer shall cooperate in upholding the _______ of the profession by avoiding all conducts and practices that would harm the profession. integrity, dignity and honor 31. What should an engineer do when has an interest in a business, business connection or affiliation which may compete with or affect the business or the clients or employers? promptly inform his clients or employers about it 32. What engineering assignments should an engineer undertake? only those for which he is qualified 33. True or False. An engineer can accept any compensation for a particular service without the consent of all parties concerned. 34. To extend the effectiveness of the engineering profession, how should an engineer endeavor to be well-informed of the latest development in the profession?
By sharing or exchanging information and experience with other engineers, other professionals and students
By contributing to engineering publications and schools
By participating in the activities of engineering societies
35. In the interest of public service and maintenance of the standards of the profession, what shall an engineer do for those engaged in the engineering profession? Uphold the principle of appropriate and adequate compensation 36. Each and every engineer shall recognize and respect the supreme authority of the State as expressed through its laws, whenever and wherever such laws ________________. Do not violate the rights and privileges of ciritzens 37. What shall an engineer, in the interest of justice, do when the technology is needed for the prevention and/or prosecution of unjust, criminal or unlawful acts? Aid the state 38. In conditions that are dangerous or threatening to life or property on work for which an engineer is not responsible; what shall he do? Promptly call such conditions to the attention of those responsible
Standards and Guidelines for the Practice of ECE in the Philippines 39. In accordance with R.A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services? only PECEs 40. In accordance with R.A. 9292, ____ are authorized to render design services; however only ____ are authorized to review, sign and seal design works. registered ECEs, PECEs
41. What is the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; erect or form and/or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities? construction/installation 42. In the manual practice, what is the critical viewing or investigation or a careful, complete and systematic examination of electronic items, installation and project in question? inspection 43. True or False. Appraisal is estimating the amount, quality and conformity to plans or objectives, and worth of an electronics item? 44. It is the process of running or managing an electronics system, network, services and peripheral facilities intended for transmission, reception and delivery of intelligence by wire, radio, fiber optics and other futuristic media. Operations 45. The services rendered in the form of on-the-job training, seminars, or to full-time or part-time teaching in-training institution relating to electronics engineering. Educational services 46. In design services, which of the following methods are used in determining the fee which can be fair and reasonable to permit the designer to cover all costs and net him a reasonable profit? a.
Percent of Total Project Cost Method
Percent of Cost Method
Unit Cost Method
Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
All of the above
47. In percent of total project cost method, what determines the complexity of the design for a project? the number of electronics systems and equipment 77
Obligations and Contracts 1.
What is an act or course of action to which a person is morally or legally bound? obligation
True or False. A person who is entitled to demand the fulfilment of the obligation is the creditor or obligee.
An obligation is a juridical necessity to _________. To give, to do or not to do
True or False. A contract that has been agreed upon is cannot be revoked given that one of the parties involved is intoxicated.
Give the three (3) type fruits in an obligation. Natural, civil and industrial
What are the four requisites of an obligation? Active subject, passive subject, prestation end efficient cause
Yes or No. A person who is supposed to sign the contract for a business firm is hospitalized. His friend, knowing the situation, went out of his way to sign the contract instead without informing his friend in the hospital. Is his friend’s action correct?
Yes or No. Your neighbor was bitten by your dog when she came over to your house. Because of this, she got rabies and was hospitalized. Do you have an obligation to pay for the injuries of your neighbor?
True or False. A person who is criminally liable is also civilly liable.
10. Who shall be responsible for any fortuitous event that may happen to the item being delivered? obligor
11. Yes or No. A car owner brings his car to a mechanic for brake repairs. The mechanic fixes the brakes. In doing so, he found a separate part also damaged. This part is required for the brakes to function correctly and also fixes it. Though the separate part was not contracted for, does the owner have to pay for it? 12. True or False. Two friends “X” and “Y” are groupmates for a school project. When they bought the materials, “Y” did not have money with him. “X” paid for the materials costing P1000 so “Y” owes P500 to “X”. After 1 week, “X” remembered that “Y” owed him P500 and asked that the latter pay him but did not mention the amount. “Y” cannot remember the amount and pays “X” P700. Since “Y” cannot remember the amount, “X” is not obliged to return the excess amount of P200. 13. True or False. In buying a printer, it is the obligation of the supplier to provide the cord for connecting the printer to the computer. 14. The contracting parties may establish such stipulations, clauses, terms and conditions as they may deem convenient, provided they are not contrary to ____________. Law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy 15. What should the obligor do if he does what has been forbidden him? It shall be undone at his expense 16. What can the obligee do when a determinate thing is to be delivered? He may compel the obligor to make the delivery 17. It is also known as implied contract where no one shall be unjustly enriched or benefited at the expense of another. Quasi-contract 18. An obligation that is derived from acts or omission causing damage to another due to negligence. Quasi-delict 80
19. Yes or No. Two people have contracted in buying a lot. “X” would give the land to “Y” after receiving the payment of P100,000. “Y” fully paid “X” the said amount so “X” gives the lot to “Y”. “X” stated that the fruits of the trees in that lot still belong to him. Is the statement of “X” valid? 20. This states that contracts are perfected by mere consent. Consensuality 21. It is the characteristic of contracts where contracting parties are free to enter into a contract and establish such terms and conditions provided they are not contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy. Autonomy of contracts 22. A characteristic of contracts that binds both contracting parties to have mutual consent. Mutuality of contracts