EASA Module 13 All Q&As

331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has

a) full authority b) 50% authority # c) 10% authority 332. Stall warning will be given # a) before stall b) after stall c) at stall 333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to # a) log relevant maintenance data b) transmits to the CMC c) provides details of defect action 334. How are spoilers normally operated? # a) Hydraulic actuator b) Air pistons c) Electrical motors 335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the # a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered 336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time b) one generator always comes on line before the other # c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled Page 38 - Mod 13 337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery a) in the aircraft b) when the battery is fully charged # c) in the charging room only

338. When removing the load from a current transformer # a) short the terminals b) place a resistor across each terminal c) leave the terminals open 339. Wing steady light must be visible through a) 70 degrees # b) 110 degrees c) 180 degrees 340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins a) a and b b) c and d # c) e and f 341. When paralleling two AC generators # a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA c) they do not need to be in phase 342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that # a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator 343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw b) prevents slip and skid in yaw # c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn 344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signals b) integrating deviation signals # c) integrating course error signals Page 39 - Mod 13

345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause a) the pointer to read zero b) the pointer to read mid scale # c) the pointer to read full scale 346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to # a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g 347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will a) increase with a higher rotor speed # b) decrease with a higher rotor speed c) decrease with a lower rotor speed 348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's a) lateral axis # b) longitudinal axis c) vertical axis 349. The glideslope equipment operates in the a) HF band # b) UHF band c) VHF band 350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank b) aircraft to overbank # c) aircraft to remain in level flight 351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are # a) DC b) AC c) pulsed DC 352. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade b) capacitance bridge c) inductance decade 353. EICAS provides the following a) engine parameters # b) engine parameters and system warnings c) engine warnings and engine parameters Page 40 - Mod 13 354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when # a) the flaps are moving down b) the flap are moving up c) the flap are moving up or down 355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system a) operational b) passive # c) simplex 356. DSR TK (desired track) means # a) the bearing to capture the track b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points c) distance left or right from desired track 357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from # a) the barometric alt capsule b) a rad alt output c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height 358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is a) FM Modulated # b) AM Modulated c) modulated with a 9960Hz 359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will # a) retard the throttle b) reverse thrust

c) control throttle for a IAS 360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the a) amplitude b) frequency # c) rate of frequency change 361. The normal axis on a helicopter is # a) straight down the rotor head b) at 90o to the C of G c) at 90o to the rotor head 362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used # a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX b) make the audio signal clearer c) an Americanisum for volume Page 41 - Mod 13 363. A GPS aerial is polarised a) vertically b) horizontally # c) right hand circular 364. Mach trim threshold are set by the a) pilot b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual # c) manufacture 365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to a) correct the VSWR b) stop arcing between the wave guide # c) stop moisture entering the wave guide 366. An RMI requires the following inputs: # a) Heading and radio deviation b) Course and radio deviation c) Radio deviation only

367. The versine signal is used in the # a) pitch channel only b) roll channel only c) pitch and roll channel 368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called # a) transient droop b) static droop c) under swing 369. Loran C Uses a) 16 KHz b) 20 Mhz # c) 100 Khz 370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is # a) 50% of control movement b) 10% of control movement c) full control movement 371. GPS Telemetry consists of a) week number and time label b) satellite position information c) 8 bits of preamble and position information Page 42 - Mod 13 372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at # a) 90o b) 180o c) 0o 373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual # b) JAR (OPS) M c) BCAR A4-8 374. The rotor disc is # a) the distance between tip to tip

b) the rotor head hub c) the ground cushion 375. A DME is in auto stand by when a) the ATC transponder is transmitting # b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second c) the TCAS is transmitting 376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display? a) 90o b) 0o # c) 180o 377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would a) continue on flying on the localizer # b) fly parallel to the localizer c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading 378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are # a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft. c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft. 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are a) not less than 100 ft. # b) not less than 200 ft. c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft. 380. When GA is initiated? a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles # c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust Page 43 - Mod 13 381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are # a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.

b) G/S deviation and radio altitude. c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation 382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering b) visual indication and nosewheel steering c) visual indication and rudder control 283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system. # b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system. c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system. 384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will a) disconnect all channels # b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach 285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will # a) retard throttle to idle. b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust. 386. Roll out mode occurs # a) after flare b) before flare c) at alert height 287. High and low signal to voter are a) average b) removed c) added 388. Basic monitoring is function of a) voting # b) signal comparison c) signal summing 389. In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system # b) the pilot can input to the system c) yaw damping is only possible signal input Page 44 - Mod 13 390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that a) the indicator is not serviceable b) the control system is out of trim c) the system is trimmed 391. in parallel rudder system, a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals # b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement c) The rudder pedals are disconnected 292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is a) AC b) DC # c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input 393. An increase in mach number will cause the # a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane 394. If one FMS fails in a duel system a) system operation will not be affected b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank # c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer 395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS # a) use database loader b) insert new EPROM c) insert new data on CDU 396. To know the valid database on FMS a) perform bite check

# b) call up relevant page on CDU c) call up relevant current status 397. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) Move as the aircraft moves c) Stay fixed on magnetic north Page 45 - Mod 13 399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 400. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Height Deviation b) Radio deviation # c) Course deviation 402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft # b) When reached a desired altitude

c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available 405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are # a) lift, drag thrust, weight b) lift, drag, thrust c) weight, drag, lift Page 46 - Mod 13 407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm? # a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter c) Provide directional control 408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? # a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 409. What does the Radar contour button do? # a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles # b) 25 miles

c) 40 miles 411. With a spring balance control system you can a) move the control surface on the ground b) move the control surface only by moving the tab c) not move the control surface on the ground 412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively 413. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made 414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position 415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral b) Longitudinal c) Normal Page 47 - Mod 13 416. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 417. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating? a) 030 b) 060 c) 090 421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve? a) 12,000ft b) 5,000ft # c) 18,000ft 422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be? # a) Left Rudder b) Right Rudder c) No Rudder 423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab? a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface # c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface Page 48 - Mod 13 424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured? # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe

c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber 425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get? # a) Stick Shaker b) Stick Nudger c) EICAS warning 426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to a) nose up b) go one wing down c) nose down 427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal? # a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift b) It will fly in circles c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount # b) it will fly in circles c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation? a) Red b) Amber c) White 430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear? # a) FM b) Pulse c) FM and Pulse 431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn? a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete c) They Disappear out of view

432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about? # a) Normal b) Longitudinal c) Lateral Page 49 - Mod 13 433. The neutral shift system augments control of the a) stabiliser # b) elevator c) spoilers 434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes # a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up b) all the elevators on each wing to move up c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up 435. What are ground spoilers used for? # a) To dump lift b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop c) To slow the aircraft 436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command? # a) Control Wheel b) Control Column c) Rudder Pedals 437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure? # a) 3000 psi b) 1000 psi c) 300 psi 438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must # a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger b) defer the defect until correct spares are available c) splice the broken lead

439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure? a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable c) No smaller than 18AWG 440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure? a) 0.5 # b) 1 ohm c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called? # a) Drag Strut b) Drag Wire c) Shock Absorber Page 50 - Mod 13 442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing? # a) Increasing in lift b) Going to the highest point c) Increasing in drag 443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have? # a) 10% approximately b) 100% c) 50% 444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver? a) Polarity sensitive AC # b) Polarity sensitive DC c) Either 445. What does an INS calculate on power up? a) Last Known Longitude # b) Last Known Latitude c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude

446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have? a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input # b) The cyclic lever will not move c) The flight director bars only will move 447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages? # a) Through the ground test function b) Through the Existing faults function c) Through the Present Leg faults function 448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication? # a) The voltage activity in the servo amp b) Trim tab position c) Control surface position 449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-? a) 62 # b) 42 c) 20 450. When using a bonding tester you # a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points c) use either leads for the testing Page 51 - Mod 13 451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for? # a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades 452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect? a) Disturbances b) Velocity # c) Pressure changes

453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved? a) It remains in the neutral position b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface 454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces? # a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off b) Pull & tag circuit breakers c) Wear ear protection 455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by # a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer 456. What is the glide slope frequency range? a) 108 - 112 Mhz b) 108 - 112 Ghz # c) 329 - 335 Mhz 457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery? a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte # b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage 458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in a) increase in lift without an increase in power b) decrease in lift c) decrease in speed 459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed? a) Bell sound # b) Clacking sound c) Horn sound Page 52 - Mod 13 460. What is a slot used for?

# a) To reinforce the boundary layer b) Increased angle of attack during approach c) Increase the speed of the airflow 461. ADF is a) Rho b) Theta c) Rho-Theta 462. A Boost Gauge reads a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure # b) absolute pressure c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure 463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and # a) relative air flow b) tip path plane c) horizontal axis 464. If cyclic is moved to the right a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another b) the rotor blades on the right flap down c) the rotor blades on the left flap down 465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz b) 2 - 6 GHz # c) 100 KHz 466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going down? a) Decrease stall speed b) Increase stall speed c) Have no effect on the stall speed 467. A high lift device is used for # a) take off and landing b) take off only

c) landing only 468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls? a) Frame b) Bulkhead c) Stringer Page 53 - Mod 13 469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission? # a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area 470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon? a) 100 b) 50 c) 20 471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer? a) Material of the coil b) Material of the sensing element c) Material of the indicator needle 472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would a) roll back to the horizontal b) continue to roll further c) remain at the position that it had rolled to 473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems? a) Spoiler to aileron b) Spoiler to flap c) Spoiler to elevator 474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication? a) To enable vowels to be heard better b) To enable consonants to be heard better c) To enable numbers to be heard better

475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is # a) underswing b) overswing c) a hole in one 476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then a) it will not need resetting and will read zero b) it will display the airfield height above sea level c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero 477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected a) by replacing capacitance probes b) in parallel with capacitance probes c) in series with capacitance probes Page 54 - Mod 13 478. What is aileron droop? a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow b) One aileron lowered c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on 479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled? a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive c) By a swashplate 480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight? a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation 481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is # a) semi rigid b) rigid c) fully articulating 482. Earths atmosphere is

a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen 483. A thermocouple a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added b) cannot be shortened c) can be shortened 484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass? a) Bellows and diaphragm b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature c) Press relief valve 485. When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by a) webs b) outer plate c) inner plate 486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency? a) 60 b) 63 c) 1000 Page 55 - Mod 13 487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade a) increases at the tip b) increases at the root c) is unaffected by blade position 488. TCAS II is a) 10 aircraft per square mile b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square 489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a a) servomotor

b) loop voltage c) Chinaman 490. FMC changes movement via a) A/P actuator b) flight control computer c) straight to the actuator 491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors a) certain parameters b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC 492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere a) increase with the frequency b) decrease with frequency c) is not affected by frequency 493. What is lapse rate? a) Pressure changes with altitude # b) Temperature changes with altitude c) Density changes with altitude 494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when a) the flaps are lowered b) at higher speeds c) the landing gear is extended 495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery? a) The outside temperature b) Electrolyte temperature c) Charge state of the battery Page 56 - Mod 13 496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left? a) Elevator up, left aileron down b) Elevator down, right aileron down c) Elevator up, right aileron down

497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch? a) Outer gimbal b) Gyro case c) Instrument case 498. DC power into the GCU comes from a) main battery bus b) main battery bus and ground service c) ground service 499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains a) 1 capsule # b) 2 capsules c) 3 capsules 500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will a) move up b) move down c) remain at the same place 501. Spring tabs a) cannot be adjusted in flight b) can be adjusted in the flight deck c) cannot be adjusted 502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will a) increase b) decrease c) remain 503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the a) normal axis b) lateral axis # c) longitudinal axis 504. LOC signal modulation is a) 50 %

# b) 20 % c) 10 % Page 57 - Mod 13 505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would a) continue to roll b) increases roll c) come back to level flight 506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure? a) ASI b) Machmeter c) VSI 507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will a) decrease # b) increase c) remain the same 508. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & trip occurs 509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? a) Elevator s # b) Elevons c) Ailerons 510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give? # a) Up Elevator b) Left rudder c) Down elevator 511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have? a) Increases lift & reduces drag # b) Increases lift and drag c) Increase lift only

512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have? # a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds b) Reduces takeoff speeds only c) Reduces landing speeds only 513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline? a) Heading error b) Course error c) Radio deviation Page 58 - Mod 13 514. What does a vibration type sensor measure? a) Maximum deflection # b) Frequency of deflections c) Direction of flexing 515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit? a) A and B b) B and C c) E and F 516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation? a) Bellows or diaphragm b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient c) Piston and oil 517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as # a) Coefficient B b) Coefficient A c) Coefficient C 518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession? a) Increase b) Remain unaffected c) Decrease 519. A 'q' feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed c) control movement effort relief 520. ADF operates within which frequencies? # a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz 521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used? a) Roll out # b) Flare c) Touchdown 522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is a) DME Freq b) LNAV # c) CRZ Page 59 - Mod 13 523. Mode C response is a) 21microseconds b) 12 microseconds c) 8 microseconds 524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system? # a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table 525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by a) climb b) descent c) roll 526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites

c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites 527. The term `circling current' refers to a) AC generators b) AC and DC Generators c) DC generators 528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft. Where do you fit it? a) LH side b) RH side c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter) 529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line # c) aircraft flies in circles 530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the a) IDG b) CSD c) swash plate 531. WX radar display the time base is # a) saw tooth wave form b) trapezoidal wave form c) rectangular wave form Page 60 - Mod 13 532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will a) stay on centre of course b) stay parallel to course c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing 533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is a) to increase GS signal

b) to decrease GS signal c) to maintain GS signal 534. A helicopter needs to re-trim # a) indication is shown on the API b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator 535. API Trim pointers are fed by a) a synchro b) an RVDT c) an LVDT 536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is a) 50 ohms b) 25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms 537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure 538. In audio clipping a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels 539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses # a) attenuation first then amplification b) amplification first then attenuation c) no attenuation but amplification 540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid? a) Decoder b) Blocking oscillator c) Integrator

Page 61 - Mod 13 541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be a) 80 ohms b) 200 ohms c) more than 20 mega ohms 542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect a) ADI b) Flight director computer c) both of the above 543. A HUMS in a helicopter is a) a vibration analysis system b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade 544. When the flaps are lowered a) the lift vector moves forward b) the lift vector moves rearward c) there is no effect on the lift vector 545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a # a) large increase in lift and drag b) small increase in lift and drag c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag 546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end) b) between the aerial and ATU c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end) 547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning

c) the trim system is out of datum 548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually a) dependent on aircraft altitude b) 100% c) chosen as a compromise 549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive # c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive Page 62 - Mod 13 550. MLS azimuth range is a) +/- 30 b) +/- 42 c) +/- 62 551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates a) 90 # b) 180 c) 0 552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when # a) flaps are retracted b) landing gear up and locked c) flaps extended 553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station? # a) 96 nautical miles b) 100 nautical miles c) 104 nautical miles 554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft? # a) 10 b) 5 c) 2.5

555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in? a) 2-30 MHz # b) 118-136 MHz c) 4-5 GHz 556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals a) above the carrier signal b) below the carrier signal # c) No sidebands present 557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning a) would initiate a Go Around b) audio and Visual warning c) visual warning only Page 63 - Mod 13 558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions # a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver 559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure a) to the control wheel b) to the control column c) to the rudder pedals 560. On a modern aircraft about to stall a) the outboard slats extend automatically b) engine power increases automatically c) the flaps retract automatically 561. Wing can spoilers be used? a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing # c) To assist the elevators 562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure

b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet 563. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously # c) yaw and roll simultaneously 564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move 565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b) transmitter power output c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna Page 64 - Mod 13 566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass # b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only 567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 degrees # b) 3 degrees c) 5 degrees 568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error # b) residual error c) index error

569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) Parallax error # b) Surface reflection c) Static to avoid dust attraction 570. Versine signal is governed by a) roll # b) pitch c) yaw 571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by a) 4% # b) 7% c) 10.321% 572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical current is a) 20 inches # b) 24 inches c) 28 inches 573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with a) an inclinometer b) micrometer c) spirit level Page 65 - Mod 13 574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by # a) Tachogenerator b) Feedback from control surface c) Feedback from servo motor 575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are a) down b) neutral

c) droop 576. Radar beamwidth improves a) range resolution b) range accuracy # c) bearing resolution 577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage? a) 115V b) 345V # c) 460V 578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the a) opening dia. of pitot head b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates c) external dia of pitot head 579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication # a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment b) it does not have any adjustment c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments 580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted a) in series with the field winding b) in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the generator output 581. When can wing spoilers be used? a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing c) To assist the elevators 582. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet Page 66 - Mod 13

583. Dutch Roll affects a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously c) yaw and roll simultaneously 584. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move 585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable b) transmitter power output c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna 586. When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass. # b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made simultaneously on each heading. c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading only. 587. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed a) 2 Degree # b) 3 Degree c) 5 Degree 588. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error # b) residual error c) index error 589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce a) parallax error.

# b) surface reflection. c) static to avoid dust attraction. 590. Versine signal is governed by a) roll # b) pitch c) yaw Page 67 - Mod 13 591. Increasing the real load primarily a) decreases frequency b) decreases output voltage # c) increases output voltage and increases frequency 592. Inductive reactive load causes a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated # c) increase in torque only 593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) apparent power from the generator that does work b) reactive power from the generator that does work # c) real power from the generator that does work 594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by # a) angle of swash plate b) IDG c) restriction valve 595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against a) A reverse current flowing from the battery b) short circuits # c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults 596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be # a) stationary b) rotating at idle

c) rotating at Nsync 597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to # a) enable generators to be paralleled b) prevent engine overload c) maintain constant load on the generator 598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is # a) activation of the time delay circuit b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs c) energise the bus tie relay 599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the # a) CSD drives shaft had sheared b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated c) bus tie interlock is inoperative Page 68 - Mod 13 600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will a) decrease and amperage output increases b) increases and amperage output increases # c) remain constant and amperage output increases 601. Battery trays are a) metal for earthing purposes # b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte 602. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in a) parallel b) series # c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option 603. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector? a) Ground or earth b) Positive to battery relay

# c) Positive to external power relay 604. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is a) 71 degrees F # b) 144 Degrees F c) 144 Degrees C 605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by # a) constant voltage b) constant current c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage 606. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA a) Chapter 24 Section 21 # b) Chapter 24 Section 31 c) Chapter 31 Section 21 607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length # b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length Page 69 - Mod 13 608. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is # a) stationary b) fluctuating c) pulse width modulating 609. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by a) transformers and transistors b) diodes and transformers # c) zeners and transistors 610. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by a) voltage coil b) current coil # c) voltage and current coil

1. Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed b) decrease take off speed # c) decrease landing speed 2. Lowering of the flaps # a) increases drag and lift b) increases drag c) increases lift 3. Pushing the left rudder pedal # a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing 4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF? a) Check of aircraft structure b) Bonding and insulation tests # c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment 5. What do ruddervators do? # a) Control pitch and yaw b) Control pitch and roll c) Control yaw and roll 6. On a helicopter what is dragging? a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges # b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground 7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft? a) Elevators b) Ailerons # c) Elevons 8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add # a) an internal doubler

b) external doubler c) an intercostals 9. What does a trim tab do? # a) Eases control loading for pilot b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot Page 1 - Mod 13 10. How does a balance tab move? a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to b) In the same direction a small amount # c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to 11. Satellite transmits updates on every a) 13th orbit b) 9th orbit c) 2nd orbit 12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus b) AC bus # c) GND services 13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp # b) local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator 14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b) 090 # c) 180 15. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power b) Pulsed power c) Average power

16. What frequency increases radar relative range a) Long # b) Short c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change 17. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b) reduced relative range # c) no effect 18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be a) 80 ohm b) 160 ohm c) 0 ohm Page 2 - Mod 13 19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you # a) 3 ft error b) 6ft error c) 12 foot error 20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width # b) narrowest width c) number of joints and bends 21. Which side of the pilot is the collective? # a) Left b) Right c) In-between legs 22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter? # a) Increases lift b) No effect c) Increases thrust 23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

a) Pfifer damper b) Swashplate c) Scissor levers 24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor? # a) Weight of blade b) Engine and gearbox c) Fineness ratio 25. Relative velocity of rotor # a) increases at fwd travelling blade b) increases at retreating blade c) is equal for all blades 26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling? a) Increase # b) Decrease c) No effect 27. How many satellites required for GNS? a) 8 # b) 4 c) 6 90o apart Page 3 - Mod 13 28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs a) topping up with distilled water b) replacing # c) recharging 29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight? # a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit b) No effect c) Electrical systems shut down 30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway a) 20 degrees

b) 15 degrees c) 10 degrees 31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected # c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure 32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH # b) QDM c) QDR 33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b) localiser deviation errors # c) heading errors 35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate # c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting 36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when autopilot is engaged # b) after glideslope capture c) at any time Page 4 - Mod 13 37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the # a) decision height

b) intercept height c) alert height 38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters 39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway # c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway 40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet # b) no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR 41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to a) assist the aerodynamic response b) produce a co-ordinated turn # c) block the Dutch roll frequency 42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels # b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach 43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b) integrating deviation signal # c) integrating course error 44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD # b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM

c) V/S and ALT ARM Page 5 - Mod 13 45. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD 46. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power # b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers 47. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system # b) system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland 48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b) increase its drift angle # c) fly parallel to the beam 49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in # a) JAR AWO b) CAIPs c) BCARs 50. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial # b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial 51. Versine is generated by a) torque receiver synchros

# b) synchros resolvers c) control synchro transformers 52. Automatic trim is used to # a) maintain level flight b) prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron Page 6 - Mod 13 53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation # b) rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course 54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement # b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged 55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for # a) maintaining a computed EPR b) controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations 56. The GA mode is usually initiated by a) pressing a button on the control wheel # b) pressing a button on thrust levers c) making a selection on the mode control panel 57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced # c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe 58. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check # b) call up the relevant page on the CDU

c) call up the relevant current status 59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by # a) yaw rate gyro signals b) aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed 60. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b) only mid range frequencies # c) low range frequencies 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected? a) Under frequency and over frequency b) Over frequency and under current c) Over current and over frequency Page 7 - Mod 13 62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms b) 25 ohms # c) 50 ohms 63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate b) use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts 64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator # a) the resistor is in series with the field b) parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil 65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft # a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b) JAR OPS c) Maintenance Manual

66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off # c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed 67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have? a) 180 degrees b) 120 degrees # c) 140 degrees 68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done # a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only 69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? # a) The temperature b) The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity Page 8 - Mod 13 70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided # a) to prevent precipitation static build up b) to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing 71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint # b) bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease 72. An elevator tab moves down # a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b) to make the nose go down c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy

73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking # a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same 74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft b) 160ft c) 80ft 75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces 76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b) the electronic interface units (EIU) # c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) 77. What type of memory do CMCs have? a) Volatile # b) Non-volatile c) Hard 78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG # b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor Page 9 - Mod 13 79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? # a) Higher than its IAS b) Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS 80. The stall margin is controlled by

# a) EPR limits b) speed bug cursor c) angle of attack and flap position 81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged # c) only after take off 82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of a) electronic engine control unit only # b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter 83. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b) Control of thrust reverser operation # c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers 84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare # b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold 85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height 86. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m Page 10 - Mod 13 87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a) 15 m # b) 60 m c) 0 m 88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point # a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals 89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than a) 1 x 10-6 # b) 1 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-8 90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III # c) ILS system must be working 91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is a) mandatory b) a matter of choice for the operator c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed 92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated a) automatically b) by a selector on the throttle control panel # c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum 93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at a) 300 ft b) the decrab phase # c) start of flare phase 94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated # a) only when the autopilot is engaged b) at any time after autoland has been engaged

c) at any time 95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of autoland a) ILS localiser an IAS b) IAS and glide slope # c) IAS and steering or heading Page 11 - Mod 13 96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will a) increase speed b) rotate nose up # c) increase speed and rotate nose up 97. V NAV can be selected a) alone b) only if A/P and F/D selected c) only if A/T selected 98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach a) system degrade to CAT II b) autoland is continued # c) go-around is initiated 99. The order of autoland approach is # a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD 100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking b) assist with glide slope tracking # c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down 101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected

c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure 102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver a) is increased as the aircraft descends b) remains constant as the aircraft descends # c) is decreased as the aircraft descends 103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers 104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant Page 12 - Mod 13 105. on touchdown, auto pilot # a) remains engaged ready for G/A b) drives the throttles forward c) disconnects after a short time 106. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H. # b) before D.H. c) after D.H. 107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by a) the area navigation system # b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon 108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from # a) radio altimeter b) the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver 109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

a) fail passive # b) fail operational c) fail redundant 110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition # b) produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically 111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system # b) duplex system c) dual-dual system 112. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range b) localiser and glideslope # c) decision height and runway visual range 113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode? a) Decision height # b) Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal Page 13 - Mod 13 114. CAT-3b allows a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR # b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters 115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim # b) continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim 116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown? # a) Nose down bias

b) Nose up bias c) No signal 117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays? a) Ailerons b) Throttles # c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals 118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go # b) ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go 119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral # b) Longitudinal c) Normal 120. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw 121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has a) increased # b) decreased c) is the same 122. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire and generator trip occurs Page 14 - Mod 13 123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is # a) 50 milliohms

b) 1 ohms c) 1M - 100,000 ohms 124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors # b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead 125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by # a) low spring tension b) bedding of brushes c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis 126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? # a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit? a) Short the terminals together b) Put a set resistance across the terminals # c) Leave the terminals open circuit 128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b) Move right c) Moves left then hard right 129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) Triplex system b) Duplex system # c) Simplex system 130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be # a) painted in a conductive paint

b) painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure 131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively Page 15 - Mod 13 132. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature # c) Mach and Temp 133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located? a) On the wing b) Under the Fuselage # c) Either side of the Fuselage 134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack? # a) Tend to increase b) Tend to decrease c) Stay the same 135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position 136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause a) poor channel selectivity b) poor audio output c) poor volume output 137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning? a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter

# b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS 138. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made 139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done? a) Placards in the cockpit # b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining 140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required Page 16 - Mod 13 141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of # a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090 MHz 142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree # b) 3 degree c) 5 degree 143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 # b) 045 c) 090 144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators # b) AC generators

c) AC & DC generators 145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the # a) spoiler b) leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps 146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree b) 110 degree # c) 50 degree 147. Stall warning will be given at speeds # a) that are higher than stall speed b) that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed 148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft? a) Turning on and off the NAV lights # b) Turning off the anti-collision lights c) Flashing the landing light 149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at # a) 1500 ft b) 2500 ft c) 3500 ft Page 17 - Mod 13 150. FADEC system gets its power supply from a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator # b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus 151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to # a) excessive charging current b) insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage

152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists b) disconnect the system if a fault appears # c) both a & b 153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour # b) amber c) red colour 154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55 # b) 121.5 c) 118.00 155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only b) continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air 156. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch # c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch 157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to # a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b) remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB 158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs b) Maintenance Manual # c) JAR OPS Page 18 - Mod 13 159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover?

a) 100 nm # b) 120 nm c) 140 nm 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial # b) 090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial 161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is # a) an accelerometer b) a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator 162. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b) decibels # c) relative amplitude 163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b) minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted 164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between # a) true north and magnetic north b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north 165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive a) terrain closure b) rate of ascent # c) rate of descent 166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12 b) 24 c) 36

167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the # a) square of the speed b) square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed Page 19 - Mod 13 168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of # a) capsule elasticity b) capsule shape c) non linear pressure/height relationship 169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank # b) aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight 170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal # a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency 171. During flare mode autothrottle will # a) retard throttles to idle b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust 172. A CSD is monitored for a) low temp and high oil pressure # b) high temp and low oil pressure c) 173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle? # a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change 174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

a) it is centralized by a spring b) its control is maintained by electric trim c) 175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes? a) 115v ac b) 200v ac # c) High voltage stepped up 176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is # a) zero b) full scale deflection c) centre scale Page 20 - Mod 13 177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance # b) increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance 178. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b) adjusted when tanks are empty c) cannot be adjusted 179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are # a) bulkheads b) longerons c) frame 180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by # a) excessive electrical loading b) high charge current c) low charge current 181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1. a) This is normal

b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx 182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks # b) damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks 183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value. a) Cell is defective b) You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell 184. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only b) TCAs only # c) all L band equipments including TCAS 185. Differential GPS requires a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters Page 21 - Mod 13 186. GPS has a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits 187. When the captain calls attendant a) a high low chine and pink light comes on b) a low chine and blue light comes on c) a high chine and pink light comes on 188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on b) a selcall light along with chine comes on

c) a chime sounds in the cockpit 189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail a) the authority of elevators not effected # b) the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift # b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle 191. IDG output voltage a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant. # b) voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG 192. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal # b) rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error 193. When moving the control column # a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal ---------194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b) there is an increases tail plane up-force # c) there is an increased tailplane down-force Page 22 - Mod 13 195. Equivalent airspeed is a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility # c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility 196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

# a) after reverse thrust is applied b) after affixed period of the time after landing c) manually after landing 197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon? # a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll 198. Acceleration error produces a) a false indication of left bank # b) a false indication of right bank c) a false indication of climb 199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis 200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door # b) Left wing c) Right wing 201. Shock stall a) is a flap down stall # b) occurs at high speeds c) occurs at low speeds 202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by a) flapping b) dragging # c) centrifugal force 203. During a turn a) left rudder to be used b) right rudder to be used # c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

Page 23 - Mod 13 204. Align light flashes during alignment # a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off b) It is attracting operators attention c) It is indicating progress of alignment 205. During decent with power on in a helicopter a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter # b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter 206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire system # a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll c) Synchros are used 207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures a) specific gravity of fuel # b) K value of fuel c) fuel quantity 208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force a) Heading and Deviation # b) Course error and Deviation c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation 209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by # a) BPCU b) PCDU (power control distribution unit) c) SPCU 210. As you approach supersonic # a) total drag is increased b) lift is reduced c) thrust is reduced

211. Range resolution is obtained by a) High PRF # b) Shorter pulse width c) Shorter beam width 212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by # a) Larger pulse width b) Larger beam width c) Larger frequency Page 24 - Mod 13 213. When the trailing edge flap is a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change # c) CP move rearward 214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails a) Auto throttle disengages # b) Throttle hold is annunciated c) Fail light illuminates 215. Flight director command bars indicate # a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred b) Direction in which aircraft is flying c) Direction in which the beacon is 216. Mode S has a) 12 address bits # b) 24 address bits c) 36 address bits 217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are a) In phase b) Opposite phase # c) Phase quadrature 218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is a) 80 ft

b) 300 ft c) 500 ft 219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is a) 3 inch b) 6 inch # c) 9 inch 220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester a) tester reads zero # b) tester reads full scale c) tester would be zero centred 221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by a) a thick metallic bonding strip # b) a corrugated bonding jumper c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends Page 25 - Mod 13 222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system a) 0.5 ohm b) 1 ohm # c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less 223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists # a) longitudinal stability b) lateral stability c) vertical stability 224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed # a) it must be installed on LH side b) it must be installed on RH side c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side 225. Main electric trim is controlled by a) a switch on control wheel

b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel c) 226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be a) higher mach number # b) lower mach number c) not effected 227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective a) one CDU blanks b) both CDU blanks # c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place 228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would a) indicate climb # b) indicate decent c) not be affected 229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure? a) ASI b) VSI c) Altimeter Page 26 - Mod 13 230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass a) is to rotate clockwise b) is to rotate anticlockwise c) It may be rotated either direction 231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by a) Having filters in power supply lines b) Separating the affected and affecting cables c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit 232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is a) 1 degree

b) 5 degree c) 10 degree 233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision? a) The one with the higher address b) The one with the smaller address c) Neither changes the decision 234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot? # a) 10% b) 50% c) 100% 235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented by a) synchros attached to the control # b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control c) a lock on the cockpit control 236. Helicopter blades are a) highly cambered b) reverse cambered # c) Symmetrical 237. GPS antenna is a) vertically polarized b) horizontally polarized c) lincomp polarization 238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is a) to the left b) to the right # c) in the centre Page 27 - Mod 13 239. An autopilot computer # a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR

b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS --------240. What type of flap is this? # a) Split flap b) Fowler flap c) Plain flap 241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to a) transmit motion # b) reverse direction and transmit motion c) adjust friction 242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure c) to minimise power losses 243. DH is based on a) aircraft characteristics b) experience of the crew c) RVR transmitted by ATC 244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by a) mercury switches on the inner ring b) mercury switches on the outer ring c) flux valve slaving 245. Index error is a) coefficient B b) Coefficient P # c) misalignment of compass lubber line 246. Helicopter derives its lift from # a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it b) rotor acts as a airscrew c) air is pushed downward

247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called a) rigid rotor # b) semi rigid rotor c) fully articulated rotor Page 28 - Mod 13 248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers b) to amplify the RF signal c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers 249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal # c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal 250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives a) excessive ground clutter b) no signal c) excess signals 251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded # b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot c) maximum rudder deflection 252. Servo tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 253. Spring Tabs a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral # b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface c) provide artificial feel 254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of a) 20 degrees per second

b) 30 degrees per second c) 15 degrees per second 255. Omega ground stations # a) transmit pulses of CW b) carrier modulated by three audio tones c) series of CW 256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set a) 1013.25 mb b) sea level pressure c) prevailing pressure Page 29 - Mod 13 257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact a) before the primary stops # b) after the primary stops c) at the same time as the primary stops 258. EICAS indicates # a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions b) engine performance only c) engine performance and aircraft status 259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right # a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right 260. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly 261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn? a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) It move as the aircraft moves c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? # a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) If P2 is before P1 263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC a) records all faults in volatile memory # b) records all faults in non-volatile memory c) 264. A helicopter autopilot uses # a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold 265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Radio deviation b) Glideslope deviation # c) Course deviation Page 30 - Mod 13 266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout # b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare 267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected? a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft b) When reached a desired altitude c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system 268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available

269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what? a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis 270. A spring balance control system you # a) can move the control surface on the ground b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab c) cannot move the control surface on the ground 271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene? a) To prevent corrosion # b) To prevent precipitation static c) To provide lightning protection 272. What is a versine signal attenuated with? a) Increase in airspeed b) Increase in altitude c) Decrease in altitude 273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to a) OFF b) AM c) either USB or LSB Page 31 - Mod 13 274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds 275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate? a) TO b) FROM

# c) Neither 276. What does the Radar contour button do? # a) Alter the beam shape b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier 277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target? a) 12 miles b) 25 miles c) 40 miles 278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state? a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground # c) Tip vortex build-up during hover 279. What controls are used in response to PVD display? # a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals b) Control wheel c) PVD control unit 280. DME transponder transmits on receipt a) of any interrogation b) of pilot input command request # c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds 281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P # a) does not move b) moves freely along the length of the blade c) is insignificant 282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is a) 16ft b) 12ft # c) 28ft Page 32 - Mod 13 283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits b) 64bits # c) 24bits 284. The rotor cone is formed by a) blade alignment # b) centrifugal force and lift c) centrifugal force only 285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path a) balance b) restore # c) align 286. Artificial feel is gained by using a a) hydraulic damper # b) spring bias unit c) 'feel' generator 287. The ground run monitor presents information # a) of distance to go and ground speed b) duration of ground run c) angle of crosstrack on ground 288. A mode C transponder a) can be used for TCAS # b) cannot be used for TCAS c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only 289. The audio select panel allows the crew to # a) transmit on one channel, listen on one b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others 290. The crew select DH on a) the altimeter b) the DH annunciator panel # c) the rad alt display

291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider a) power requirements # b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal c) the diameter of cables Page 33 - Mod 13 292. GPS has # a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4 b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6 c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9 293. Audio select panel voice switch a) allows voice ident of DME # b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal c) disables DME voice ident 294. GPS frequency is a) 1575 GHz # b) 1575 MHz c) 1525 MHz 295. Radio switches are normally # a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C 296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft # a) systems is disabled b) no traffic will be shown c) all traffic produces aural alert 297. Mode S pulses. Which are used? a) F1,F2,F4,F5 # b) s1,p1,p3,p4 c) s1,s2,p1,p2 298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is a) it amplifies output stages

# b) it improves signal to noise ratio c) it couples noise factors 299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from a) 115 volts from ac bus b) 200 volts from ac bus # c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units 300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving a) one moving in direction of relative air flow b) highest blade # c) one moving forward into relative airflow Page 34 - Mod 13 301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies a) speed increase # b) speed decrease c) height decrease 302. Back beam is captured # a) by manually selecting the back beam mode b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode 303. With an insulation tester a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item # c) it does not matter which lead goes where 304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ a) higher b) lower # c) higher or lower 305. Flight director incompatible modes are a) VOR and glideslope b) heading and altitude hold

c) VOR and altitude hold 306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet? a) 110 nm # b) 120 nm c) 130 nm 307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? a) c/a code only b) c/a code and P code c) P code only 308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control method is a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings # b) design of engine and gearbox supports c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft 309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from a) rad alt to barometric b) rad alt decrease c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold Page 35 - Mod 13 310. on power up, the IRS obtains position a) latitude from previous position b) longitude from previous position c) latitude and longitude from previous position 311. Krueger flaps make up part of the a) wing upper surface leading edge b) wing lower surface trailing edge # c) wing lower surface leading edge 312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the # a) control column b) flight control panel c) behind thrust levers

313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as a) apparent A b) real A c) true A 314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in a) BCARs # b) JAR OPS subpart M c) maintenance manual 315. Carbon microphones require # a) DC supply b) AC supply c) no supply 316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with a) FM b) phase drift keying c) Manchester code 317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined b) flights must not continue after four days # c) flights must not continue after 72 hours 318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is a) +/- 35 degrees # b) +/-40 degrees c) +/-60 degrees Page 36 - Mod 13 319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates a) 30 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 60 degrees

320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by a) non conductive paint b) conductive paint # c) earth primary conductors 321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier 322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is a) the y code b) the p code # c) the c/a code 323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for good pulse shape are a) wide and narrow b) narrow and wide c) wide and wide 324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost a) the aircraft flies in a circle # b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle 325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires a) pitot only b) static only # c) pitot and static 326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to # a) the right b) the left c) the left with some aileron assistance 327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance b) attitude of aircraft # c) rate of yaw Page 37 - Mod 13 328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons # c) to assist the up going aileron 329. Glideslope deviation signals are # a) DC polarity sensitive b) AC phase sensitive c) DC positive going only 330. A triplex system loses one channel # a) pilot can continue with autoland b) pilot can use auto approach c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

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MODULE 13 (13.3 / 13.4 / 13.6 / 13.8) •

HF IS 3 – 30 MHZ

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GLIDESLOPE TONE FREQUENCY IS 90 HZ

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LOCALIZER TONE FREQUENCY IS 150 HZ

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VOICE SWITCH ON AUDIO SELECT PANEL HAS 1020 – 1350 HZ BAND STOP FILTER

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ILS IS 111.1 HZ (ILS IS VHF)

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MLS IS 5000 – 6000 MHZ

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GPS RECEIVER NAV MSG FREQ IS 50 HZ

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VHF IS 108 – 136 MHZ

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VOR IS 112 – 118 MHZ (VOR IS VHF)

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TCAS TX AT 1030 MHZ

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TCAS RX AT 1090 MHZ

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WAVELENGTH OF A C BAND RADAR IS 4 – 8 CM

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GPS FREQ IS 1575 MHZ

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ILS MARKER BEACON FREQ IS 75 HZ

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1 NM = 12.36 MICROSECONDS

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ADF OPERATES 190 KHZ – 1759 KHZ

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ACARS OPERATES IN 118 – 136 MHZ

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DME WORKS ON UHF

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MF BAND IS 300 KHZ – 3 MHZ

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G/S FREQ IS 328.6 – 335.4 MHZ

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ADF OPERATION RANGE IS AT MF BAND

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G/S TRANSMITTER OPERATES ON UHF BAND

•

AUDIO FREQ RANGE IS 20 – 20000 HZ

•

L BAND DME TRANSMIT ON FREQUENCY OF 1090 MHZ

•

LOCALIZER EQUIP OPERATE IN VHF BAND

•

THE TROPOPAUSE EXISTS AT 36,000 FEET

•

ROTOR BLADES OPERATE AT BEST LIFT / DRAG RATIO WHEN THEIR AOA IS +30

•

A SHROUDED TAIL ROTOR REDUCES THE NEED FOR - CYCLIC FEATHERING

•

WHEN A HELICOPTER ROTOR BLADE FLAPS UP – PITCH DECREASES

•

SOLIDITY OF A ROTOR IS THE RATIO OF BLADE AREA TO DISC AREA

•

DISC LOADING IS DEFINED AS – RATIO OF GROSS WEIGHT: DISC AREA

•

AFTER A CHANGE IN PITCH OF A ROTOR BLADE, THE BLADE WILL BE MAXIMUM FLAT AT 900

•

ASSUMING THE PHASE LAG OF A ROTOR BLADE IS 900 & THE CONTROL ADVANCE ANGLE IS 150 THEN THE PITCH OPERATING ARM MUST BE AT THE HIGHEST POINT OF THE SWASH PLATE 750 AHEAD OF THE HIGHEST FLAPPING POSITION

•

IN A HELICOPTER THE ALTITUDE HOLD SIGNAL IS FROM – THE BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE CAPSULE

•

CPT CALL IS – A HI / LO CHIME & PINK LIGHT

•

TOILET CALL IS – A HI CHIME & AMBER LIGHT

•

SEAT BELT WARNING – LO CHIME

•

GALLEY EQUIPMENT IS FOUND IN AWN 99

•

INSPECTION PROOF TESTING OF SEAT BELTS IS CARRIED OUT TO 9g

•

THE MINIMUM DISTANCE BETWEEN A SEAT CUSHION AND THE SEAT IN FRONT OF IT IS 7 INCHES

•

EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER TRANSMITS 3 FREQUENCIES

•

VHF EMERGENCY FREQUENCY IS 121.5 MHZ

•

AUTOPILOT, WHEN ON APPROACH TO LANDING, 3 AXIS ARE USED

•

BACK BEAM SCANNING IN AN MLS IS AT A RATE OF 20 DEGREES PER MILLISECOND (0.02 DEGREES PER MICROSECOND)

•

MAXIMUM AZIMUTH COVERAGE BY A MLS FACILITY IS +/- 60 DEGREES

•

NORMAL AZIMUTH COVERAGE BY A MLS FACILITY IS +/- 40 DEGREES

•

IN MLS, THE 12 BIT PREAMBLE CONSISTS OF 5 BITS TIME FUNCTION & CARRIER, & 7 BITS FUNCTION

•

DURING AUTOLAND, LOCALIZER SIGNAL IS LOST AT 400FT. IN THE FINAL APPROACH A GO AROUND IS INITIATED

•

CAT 2 AUTOLAND DH LIMITS ARE BELOW 200FT BUT NOT LESS THAN 100FT

•

CAT 1 AUTOLAND DH LIMITS ARE NOT LESS THAN 200FT

•

A/C WILL CAPTURE AUTOLAND SYSTEM AT 1500FT

•

CAT 2 RVR, IF THE ALERT HEIGHT IS 100FT, WILL BE 400 METERS

•

CAT 3B ALLOWS APPROACH, LAND AND RUNWAY GUIDANCE WITH TAXING VISIBILITY IN THE ORDER OF 50 METERS

•

AN AC TACHOGENERATOR STATOR HAS 2 WINDINGS 900 APART

•

ICAO WEATHER CATEGORY 3A IS OPERATION DOWN TO AND ALONG THE SURFACE OF THE RUNWAY WITH RVR OF 200 METERS

•

A CAT 11 FACILITY PERFORMANCE ILS HAS AN INTERSECT HEIGHT OF 15M

•

AVERAGE RISK OF AUTOLAND SHOULD NOT CONTRIBUTE A RATE OF FATAL ACCIDENTS PER LANDING GREATER THAN 1 x 10-7

•

TO ENSURE THE A/C ATTAINS THE GLIDESLOPE TRACK THERE IS A GLIDESLOPE CAPTURE BIAS APPLIED FOR 10 SECONDS AFTER THE SYSTEM SWITCHES TO THE CAPTURE MODE

•

ROLLOUT GUIDANCE BY RUDDER IS EFFECTIVE TO ABOUT 80 KNOTS

•

GO AROUND CAN BE INITIATED BELOW 2000 FT

•

ERROR = DEMAND – FEEDBACK

•

2 DATABASES REQUIRED IN AN FMS SYSTEM

•

MODE 1 GPWS IS FOR EXCESSIVE DESCENT RATE

•

MODE 2 GPWS IS FOR EXCESSIVE TERRAIN CLOSURE RATE

•

HF USED FOR RADIO COMMUNICATION OVER 250 MILES

•

SATELLITES TRANSMIT UPDATES EVERY 2ND ORBIT

•

A/C IS NORTH OF VOR BEACON ON A COURSE OF 090 RMI. THE POINTER POINTS TO 180

•

TONE FREQUENCY FOR GLIDESLOPE AND LOCALIZER ARE G/S 90HZ LOCALIZER 150HZ

•

AN 80Ω COAXIAL CABLE IS CONNECTED TO AN 80Ω DIPOLE ARIEL THEREFORE THE RESISTANCE WOULD BE 80Ω

•

ADDING 6 FOOT OF CABLE TO BOTH TX & RX ARIEL’S ON A RAD ALT WOULD GIVE 18 FOOT ERROR

•

GPS EPHEMERIS COLLECTION TAKES 30 SECONDS

•

THE VOICE SWITCH ON THE AUDIO SELECT PANEL HAS 1020 – 1350 HZ BAND STOP FILTER

•

VOR CABLE IMPEDENCE IS 50Ω

•

HF CABLE IMPEDENCE IS 50Ω

•

VHF CABLE IMPEDENCE IS 50Ω

•

7770 ON THE ATC CONTROL PANEL INDICATES EMERGENCY

•

760 CHANNELS ARE AVAILABLE ON VHF

•

THE ILS MARKER BEACON LIGHTS ARE COLORED BLUE / AMBER / WHITE

•

AVIATION DISTRESS SIGNAL IS 121.5 MHZ

•

MLS FREQUENCY IS 5000 – 6000 MHZ

•

THE ELECTRICAL TUNING UNIT OF A HF TRANSMITTER MAINTAINS A VSWR OF THE ANTENNA AT 1.3 – 1

•

HF TRANSMISSION OF 10 MHZ WITH A SIDEBAND OF 1000 HZ WHICH DRIFTS 50 HZ – THE RECEIVER AUDIO TONE WOULD BE 1000 HZ

•

GPS RECEIVER NAVIGATION MESSAGE FREQUENCY IS 50 HZ

•

GNS USES 4 SATELLITES

•

VHF IS 118 – 137 MHZ

•

121.5 MHZ IS VHF FREQUENCY

•

IN MLS, THE BEAM ANGLE AWAY FROM THE RUNWAY IS 150

•

ACCURACY OF A GPS SYSTEM IS 16 METERS / LESS

•

AN A/C WITH A 8.33 KHZ SEPARATION VHF COMMUNICATION SYSTEM COMMUNICATES USING SINGLE CHANNEL SIMPLEX

•

DECCA NAVIGATION SYSTEM OPERATES ON LOW FREQUENCY

•

AN RMI IN VOR MODE, ITS POINTER IS SHOWING A COURSE OF 000. IF THE COURSE KNOB IS ADJUSTED TO 010 THE POINTER MOVES RIGHT

•

TCAS TRANSMIT ON 1030 MHZ

•

TCAS RECEIVES ON 1090 MHZ

•

RAD ALT TRACK MODE IS EFFECTIVE TO 2500 FT

•

WHEN THE VOR REFERENCE & VARIABLE PHASES ARE IN PHASE QUADRATURE, THE A/C IS AT 0900 RADIAL

•

DIFFERENTIAL GPS REQUIRE 4 SATELLITES AND 1 GROUND BASE TRANSMITTER

•

GPS HAS 4 SATELLITES IN EACH OF 6 ORBITS

•

IN A RAD ALT SYSTEM, IF THE TX AND RX CABLES ARE INCREASED BY 3 INCHES, THE TOTAL CORRECTION FACTOR IS 9

•

FMC STORE 2 PROGRAMMES, 1 ACTIVE AND 1 STANDBY

•

THE QUADRANTAL ERROR IN ADF IS MAXIMUM AT A HEADING OF 045

•

THE TCAS SYSTEM HAS 2 ARIELS

•

THE WAVELENGTH OF X BAND RADAR IS 3 CM

•

THE A/C TRANSPONDER REPLY FREQUENCY IS 1090 MHZ

•

A RAINFALL OF 5MM/ HR IS INDICATED ON THE WXR BY A YELLOW COLOR

•

WHEN THE A/C IS AT A HEIGHT OF 9500 FT & QNH IS 500 FT, THE DISTANCE THE VHF COMMUNICATIONS CAN COVER IS 120 NM

•

GLIDESLOPE EQUIP OPERATES IN UHF BAND

•

IN A DOPPLER VOR, 30 HZ REFERENCE SIGNAL IS AM MODULATED

•

DURING TESTING THE ATC ALTITUDE FUNCTION THE PRESSURE ALTIMETER IS SET TO 1013.25Mb

•

MODE C INTERROGATION WILL BE IGNORED WHEN THE P2 PULSE IS HIGHER AMPLITUDE TO P1

•

THE TIME BETWEEN THE START OF THE P1 PULSE AND THE P3 PULSE IGNORING THE P2 PULSE LENGTH FOR A MODE A TRANSMISSION IS 8 MICROSECONDS

•

WAVELENGTH OF C BAND RADAR IS 4 – 8 CM

•

VHF COMMUNICATION RANGE AT 9000 FT IS 110 NM

•

GPS SENDS L1 & L2. THE L1 c/a CODE & P CODE

•

MODE 4 OF GPWS DERIVES WARNINGS FROM RAD ALT DECREASE

•

WHEN THE CVR IS U/S, FLIGHTS MUST NOT EXCEED 72 HOURS

•

THE BEARING OF A NDB MEASURED BY ADF IS 060 DEGREES RELATIVE TO A/C HEADING OF 030 DEGREES. THE RMI POINTER INDICATES 90 DEGREES

•

GPS FREQUENCY IS 1575 MHZ

•

ILS MARKER BEACON FREQUENCY IS 75 HZ

•

ON TCAS WITH OWN A/C BELOW 1750 FT ANY OTHER A/C BELOW 360 FT ARE DEEMED TO BE ON THE GROUND

•

MODE S PULSES - S1, P1, P3, P4 ARE USED

•

DME REPLY PULSES ARE 63 MHZ HIGHER OR LOWER

•

1 NAUTICAL MILE = 12.36 MICRO SECONDS

•

DME TRANSPONDER TRANSMITS ON RECEIPT OF A PAIR OF PULSES SEPARATED BY 12 MICROSECONDS

•

RAD ALT ELECTRICAL LENGTH OF A HELICOPTER IS 28 FOOT

•

MODE S TRANSPONDERS TRANSMIT A BINARY CODE OF 24 BITS

•

INS CALCULATES ON POWER UP LATITUDE

•

ADF IS THETA

•

THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE DME TRANSMIT AND RECEIVE PULSE FREQUENCY IS 63 MHZ

•

TCAS II IS 24 A/C PER 5 NAUTICAL MILE RADIUS

•

A MODE C INTERROGATION WILL BE IGNORED WHEN THE P2 PULSE IS HIGHER AMPLITUDE TO THE P1 PULSE

•

AN RMI IN VOR MODE, ITS POINTER SHOWING A COURSE OF 000. IF COURSE KNOB IS ADJUSTED BY 010, THE POINTER TURNS RIGHT

•

MODE A – P1 TO P3 = 8 MICROSECONDS

•

MODE C – P1 TO P3 = 21 MICROSECONDS

•

AN A/C FLYING ON A HEADING OF 030 RECEIVES AN ADF SIGNAL 030 RELATIVE TO A/C. THE POINTER INDICATES 060

•

A RADIO FREQUENCY OF 16 MHZ WOULD BE USED FOR HF COMMUNICATIONS (HF IS 3 – 30 MHZ)

•

LORAN C USES 100 KHZ

•

A DME IS IN AUTO STANDBY WHEN THE DME RECEIVES 200 – 300 PULSES A SECOND

•

AN A/C IS DUE NORTH OF A VOR STATION ON A HEADING OF 900. THE RMI DISPLAYS 1800

•

VOR & ILS ARE VHF

•

A SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR INTERROGATION OPERATES ON A FREQ OF 1030 MHZ & PULSE SPACING DEPENDING ON THE MODE OF INTERROGATION

•

FMS NAV DATA BASE IS UPDATED EVERY 28 DAYS

•

IF THE 90 HZ TONE PREDOMINATES IN A LOCALIZER RECEIVER, THE DEVIATION INDICATED WILL SHOW FLY RIGHT

•

LOCALIZER MODULATION DEPT IS 20%

•

THE ARIEL ELEMENT OF A VHF COMMUNICATIONS TRANSMITTER / RECEIVER SHOULD HAVE A MIDBAND LENGTH OF

π

/4

•

THE SHORT CIRCUIT STUB THAT IS USED FOR BROAD BANDING A VHF WHIP MUST BE APPROX 59 CM

•

VSWR OF A VHF SYSTEM WITH A FORWARD POWER OF 100W & A REFLECTED POWER OF 4W WILL BE 1.5: 1

•

MIDDLE MARKER IS KEYED WITH ALTERNATE DOTS AND DASHES

•

THE MILLIVOLT DEFLECTION PER DOT ON ILS / VOR IS 75 / 75

•

AN ACCELEROMETER IN AN INS MUST BE ABLE TO DETECT ACCELERATIONS DOWN TO 10-6g

•

BANDWIDTH OF HF TRANSMISSION IS 3 KHZ

•

VHF FREQ IS 108 – 136 MHZ

•

TCAS DISPLAYS – WHITE DIAMONDS / RED SQUARES / AMBER CIRCLES

•

DFDR ARINC 573 DATA BUS HAS 4 SUB FRAMES

•

IN AIRCRAFT, VOR RECEIVER 30 HZ MODULATED REFERENCE SIGNAL IS COMPARED WITH 30 HZ VARIABLE PHASE SIGNAL

•

IN CVOR, 9960 C/S AM SUB CARRIER IS USED IN THE REFERENCE PHASE

•

ADF OPERATES 190 – 1759 KHZ

•

MODE C RESPONSE IS 20.3 MICROSECONDS

•

COAXIAL TRANSMISSION LINE OF IMPEDENCE 80Ω IS CONNECTED TO A DIAPOLE OF 120Ω. WHEN CHECKING WITH AN OHMMETER THE READING WILL BE MORE THAN 20 MEGA OHMS

•

A/C IS NORTH OF VOR BEACON & THE COURSE IS SET TO 900. RMI INDICATES 1800

•

ACARS OPERATES 118 – 136 MHZ

•

THE MODULATION USED FOR THE BEAMS OF A LOCALIZER IN AN ILS ARE 150 HZ RIGHT OF RUNWAY CENTERLINE 90 HZ LEFT OF RUNWAY CENTERLINE

•

GPS L1 & L2 SIGNALS ARE BI–PHASE 50 BIT / SECOND

•

DECCA NAVIGATION USES LF

•

A MODE S TRANSPONDER MAKES A MODE A/C ONLY CALL. THE P2 PULSE IS 0.8 ∗S

•

SINGLE SIDE BAND FILTERS ARE 3 KHZ

•

MAN MADE NOISE CAUSES INTERFERENCE MAINLY BELOW 12 MHZ

•

3 RF AMPLIFIERS OF 10 dB & 10 KHZ ARE IN CASCADE. THEREFORE THE OUTPUT IS 30 dB & 10 KHZ

•

RADIO WAVES ARE SAID TO HAVE LINE OF SIGHT PROPAGATION ABOVE ABOUT 100MHZ

•

THE IDEAL VSWR ON A RADIO TRANSMISSION LINE IS 1:1

•

CRYSTALS OPERATE RELIABLY AT FUNDAMENTAL FREQUENCIES UP TO 30 MHZ

•

DME WORKS ON UHF

•

TCAS WILL ISSUE TRAFFIC ADVISORY IF A COLLISION IS WITHIN 35 – 40 SECONDS OF OCCURRING

•

MF BAND IS 300 KHZ – 3 MHZ

•

THE NOISE FACTOR OF A RECEIVER WHOSE INPUT SIGNAL TO NOISE RATIO IS 15:1 & OUTPUT SIGNAL TO NOISE RATIO IS 12:1 IS 1:25

•

A LORAN C TRANSMISSION CONSISTS OF 8 PULSES EACH 270 MICROSECONDS

•

ARINC 629 OPERATES AT 2000 KB/S

•

BNAV ACCURACY IS +/- 5 NM 95%

•

WITH ATC CODE OF 0600 SELECTED, PULSES TRANSMITTED ARE B2 & B4

•

FOR RHO – RHO NAVIGATION 2 DME SIGNALS ARE REQUIRED

•

SINGLE SIDE BAND FILTERS ARE 3 KHZ

•

AFTER THE PILOT DEPRESSES THE IDENT BUTTON, THE IDENT PULSE APPEARS 4.35µ SECONDS AFTER LAST FRAME PULSE

•

THE LENGTH OF RESONANT ANTENNA DIOPOLE IS LAMBDA / 2

•

GPS SATELLITES ORBIT 10,900 NM HIGH

•

SELCAL SIGNAL TRANSMITS 2 PAIRS OF TONES, 1 PAIR AFTER THE OTHER

•

AN A/C IS ON COURSE ON AN ILS LOCALIZER. THE DIFFERENCE IN DEPTH OF MODULATION IS ZERO

•

ACARS TRANSMISSION TO PILOT IS INDICATED BY A DOUBLE CHIME

•

FLIGHT DATA RECORDER UNDERWATER LOCATOR BEACON WILL OPERATE AT 37 KHZ FOR 30 DAYS

•

GPS COMPRISES OF 4 SATELLITES IN EACH OF 6 ORBITS

•

COMMUNICATION BETWEEN AIRCRAFT EARTH STATION AND SATELLITE IS ON L BAND

•

IN AN INTERROGATOR MODE S ADDRESSING FORMAT, THE FIRST SYNCH PHASE REVERSAL OCCURS 2.75 µ SECONDS AFTER P2

•

IN VOR THE MANUAL PHASE SHIFT RESOLVER IS 30 HZ SIGNAL

•

IMPEDENCE OF A HF ARIEL IS 50 Ω

•

FULL SCALE DEFLECTION ON A VOR SYSTEM IS 10 DEGREES

•

A VHF COMMUNICATION BLADE ARIEL HAS A LENGTH OF A QUARTER WAVELENGTH

•

TO OBTAIN AN ACCURATE GPS FIX, THE GPS RECEIVER MUST BE IN LINE OF SIGHT OF 4 SATELLITES

•

GLIDESLOPE FREQUENCY IS 328.6 – 335.4 MHZ

•

ADF OPERATION RANGE IS AT MF BAND

•

OUTER MARKER FREQUENCY IS AT 400 HZ

•

DME INTERROGATION IS CARRIED 63 MHZ ABOVE OR BELOW TRANSMITTED FREQUENCY

•

IRS SERVICEABILITY FOR INSERVICE DRIFT IS ASCERTAINED BY 3 + 3T

•

DURING AN ACARS TRANSMISSION A 1 IS GENERATED BY THE –VE HALF OF A 1200 HZ WAVEFORM

•

ACARS TRANSMITS ITS DATA USING BINARY CODE

•

IN FLIGHT MODE, THE FMS REFERENCE OF DATA SOURCE IS IRS, RHO – RHO, RHO - THETA

•

RNAV USES INPUTS OF IRS, VOR, GPS, DME

•

AIRCRAFT IS AT 9000 FT. THEREFORE OUT OF VHF RANGE IS 120 NM

•

ATCRBS REPLY PULSES ARE 0.45 ∗S WIDE

•

TIME BETWEEN F2 FRAMING PULSE & SP1 IS 4.35 ∗S

•

TIME BETWEEN F1 FRAMING PULSE & F2 IS 20.3 ∗S

•

SLEWING OF THE INS GIMBLLED PLATFORM STIMULATES IN FLIGHT ATTITUDE CHANGES UP TO 710 IN PITCH AND 1800 AZIMUTH

•

WHEN A/C IS HEADING DUE NORTH TOWARDS A VOR STATION THE REFERENCE & VARIABLE SIGNALS WILL BE 1800 OUT OF PHASE

•

MIDDLE MARKER TO RUNWAY THRESHOLD IS 3500 FEET

•

GLIDESLOPE TRANSMITTER OPERATES ON UHF BAND

•

CAT 3B AIRCRAFT USING FAIL OPERATIONAL AUTO LAND EQUIPMENT WILL HAVE NO DECISION HEIGHT

•

AUDIO FREQUENCY RANGE IS 20 – 20,000 HZ

•

L BAND DME TRANSMITS ON A FREQUENCY OF 1090 MHZ

•

IN SECONDARY RADAR SYSTEM, THE INTERROGATOR TRANSMITS AT 1030 MHZ

•

A SIGNAL OF 120 MHZ FREQUENCY WILL NORMALLY PROPAGATE BY MEANS OF SPACE WAVES

•

TCAS CONSIDERS ANOTHER A/C TO BE ON GROUND AT DIFFERENCE HEIGHT BETWEEN THE BAROMETRIC ALTIMETER & RADIO ALTIMETER OF 180 FEET

•

IN RAD ALT INSTALLATION, ARIEL SPACING MUST BE 8 FEET

•

IN THE DOWNLINK 11 FORMAT A 0.5 PER SECOND PULSE IN THE FIRST HALF OF THE SLOT REPRESENTS A LOGIC ONE

•

THE UPLINK 11 FORMAT UTILIZES DIFFERENT PHASE SHIFT KEYING

•

IN A UNIVERSAL ALL CALL TRANSPONDER INTERROGATION P2 IS RADIATED BY THE OMNI DIRECTIONAL ARIEL

•

TCAS TRANSMITS SQUITTER PULSES ON FREQUENCY OF 1090 MHZ

•

ABOVE GLIDESLOPE, THE ILS GLIDESLOPE SIGNAL MODULATION IS 90 HZ

•

GLIDESLOPE EQUIP OPERATES IN UHF BAND

•

LOCALIZER EQUIPMENT OPERATES IN VHF BAND

•

THE AIRCRAFT EQUIP DETERMINES THE BEARING OF A GND STATION BY COMPARING THE PHASE OF TWO 30 HZ MODULATIONS

•

IRS ALIGNMENT TAKES 10 MINUTES

•

A SCHULER PENDULUM HAS A PERIOD OF OSCILLATION OF 84.4 MINS

•

WHEN IN MANUAL MODE, THE CDU ALERT LAMP OF THE INS WILL FLASH 2 MINUTES NEXT WAYPOINT

•

THE 3 ACCELEROMETERS ON A STRAPDOWN PLATFORM ARE MOUNTED 900 TO EACH OTHER

•

A BASIC INS PLATFORM HAS 2 ACCELEROMETERS AND 3 GYROS

•

THE INS COMPUTES DISTANCE FROM ACCELERATION BY 2 SUCCESSIVE INTERROGATIONS

•

THE 3 ACCELEROMETERS ON A STABLE PLATFORM ARE MOUNTED ORTHOGONALLY

•

THE EARTH RATE IS 150 / HOUR

•

TO PREVENT GIMBAL LOCK ON THE STABLE PLATFORM IT IS NORMAL TO USE 4 GIMBALS

•

THE 2 FREQUENCIES THAT ARE PAIRED ARE G/S & LOCALIZER

•

LOCALIZER BEAM WIDTH IS THE ANGLE WHERE THE 2 EDGES OF THE BEAM ARE APART AT THE RUNWAY THRESHOLD BY 700 FEET

•

IF FREQUENCY DECREASES WITHOUT ALTERING THE LENGTH OF AN ARIEL………….BECOMES CAPACITIVE REACTIVE

•

IF FREQUENCY INCREASES WITHOUT ALTERING THE LENGTH OF AN ARIEL………….BECOMES INDUCTIVE REACTIVE

•

APPLIED PRESSURE OF AN ASI VARIES WITH THE SQUARE OF SPEED

•

AIRCRAFT FLIES IN STILL AIR AT 400 KNOTS & ENCOUNTERS A HEAD WIND OF 50 KNOTS. THEREFORE THE GROUND SPEED IS 350 KNOTS

•

MODE S ADDRESS IS MADE UP OF 24 BITS

•

WHEN AN AIRCRAFT IS ALIGNED FOR A COMPASS SWING CHECK IT MUST BE ALIGNED WITH ERROR OF + / - 3 DEGREES

•

THE ELECTRIC ARTIFICIAL HORIZON HAS MOVEMENT OF 3600 IN ROLL & 850 IN PITCH

•

GPWS MODE 1 IS EXCESSIVE RATE OF DESCENT

•

WHEN CARRYING OUT AN INSULATION CHECK ON A FUEL PROBE, THE MAX VOLTAGE USED IS 250 VOLTS

•

MAXIMUM DEVIATION ON A STANDBY MAGNETIC COMPASS MUST NOT BE MORE THAN 30

•

COMPASS BASE CLASSIFICATION CLASS 2 IS PERIODICALLY RESURVEYED EVERY 2 YEARS

•

AIRCRAFT IS HEADING 2700. MAGNETIC COMPASS DEVIATION IS –10. THE PILOT SHOULD FLY 2710

•

VERTICAL GYROS ARE LIMITED TO 850 MOVEMENT IN PITCH TO PREVENT GIMBAL LOCK

•

AN ELECTRIC GYRO RPM IS 24,000 RPM

•

THE CX & TX ROTORS OF A CONTROL SYNCHRO ARE 900 SHIFTED. OUTPUT IS THEREFORE 0

•

COMPONENT C IS (DEV ON N – DEV ON S) / 2

•

COMPONENT B IS (DEV ON E – DEV ON W) / 2

•

A RATE GYRO HAS 1 DEGREE OF FREEDOM

•

AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT. THE BAROMETRIC SCALE OF ALTITUDE IS SET TO 1013.25

•

MODE S HAS 24 ADDRESS BITS

•

IN RVSM, ERROR ALLOWED IS 80 FEET

•

DURING A COMPASS SWING, USING A DATUM COMPASS, THE ERROR PERMITTED IN ALIGNING THE AIRCRAFT IS 5 DEGREES

•

A DIRECTIONAL GYRO IS CHECKED EVERY 15 MINUTES FOR DRIFT

•

IN A BOOST GAUGE SYSTEM THE SENSING ELEMENT CONTAINS 2 CAPSULES

•

STANDBY COMPASS ADJUSTING MAGNETS (FINDERS BARS) EXERT THE MOST AMOUNT OF INFLUENCE WHEN 900 APART

•

COEFFICIENT A IS ADJUSTED ON ANY HEADING

•

WHEN AIRCRAFT REACHES 2500FT THE RAD ALT GOES OUT OF VIEW

•

AIRCRAFT CERTIFIED AFTER 1997 WITH RVSM, THE MAXIMUM TOLERANCE FOR THE SYSTEM WOULD BE + / - 200 FEET PLUS + / - 50 FEET FOR INSTRUMENT ERROR

•

AIRCRAFT CERTIFIED BEFORE 1997 WITH RVSM, THE MAXIMUM TOLERANCE FOR THE SYSTEM WOULD BE + / - 300 FEET PLUS + / - 50 FEET FOR INSTRUMENT ERROR

•

LORAN C USES 100 KHZ

•

SPEED OF ARINC 439 SYSTEM IS 100 KHZ

•

IN A COMPASS SWING THE NORTH ERROR IS –20 SOUTH ERROR IS –20 COEFFICIENT C = 0

THEREFORE THE

•

THE ALTITUDE RELATIVE TO SEA LEVEL, THAT THE PRESSURE IN THE STANDARD ATMOSPHERE IS HALVED IS 18,000 FEET

•

THE NEEDLE IN A RESOLVER IS CONNECTED TO 2 COILS ONLY

•

AIRCRAFT LANDING ON QFE, ON TOUCHDOWN THE ALTIMETER READS 0

•

DC ELECTRIC CABLE MUST BE 24 INCHES FROM A COMPASS

•

A COMPASS HAS A RESIDUAL DEVIATION OF +1 DEGREE. TO STEER A TRUE HEADING OF 1800 THE PILOT MUST STEER 1790

•

ABSOLUTE PRESSURE OF 25 PSI IS 10.3 PSI (GAUGE PRESSURE = ABSOLUTE PRESSURE – ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE)

•

JAR OPS STATES A FDR RECORDING MUST BE KEPT FOR 60 DAYS AFTER AN ACCIDENT OR INCIDENT

•

COEFFICIENT A CORRECTION IS CARRIED OUT AFTER B & AFTER C

•

COMPASS ERROR Q CORRECTIONS CORRECT C ERROR

•

ICAO STANDARD ATMOSPHERE IS TAKEN FROM DATA MEASURED AT 45 DEGREES NORTH

•

ABOVE 2500 FEET THE RAD ALT POINTER IS HIDDEN BEHIND A MASK WITH OFF FLAG OUT OF VIEW

•

MODES OF GPWS THAT MAY BE INHIBITED ARE MODES 4B & 5

•

THE VOCAL REPETITION OF MODE 6 WARNINGS ARE REPEATED ONCE ONLY

•

THE HEIGHT THE RISING RUNWAY APPEARS IS 200 FEET

•

CYCLIC SHIFT OF THE STATOR CONNECTIONS IN A TORQUE SYNCHRO RESULTS IN OUTPUT DATUM ADVANCED 240 DEGREES

•

THE SCRATCH PAD IN A FMS CDU OCCUPIES THE FIRST 12 CHARACTER SPACES OF THE BOTTOM LINE

•

ELECTRIC CABLES SHOULD BE 24 INCHES FROM DR COMPASS

•

A PITOT HEAD DIAMETER OF 2 INCHES………….. THIS IS THE EXTERNAL DIAMETER OF THE PITOT HEAD

•

DEVIATION IS INDICATED BY 2 DOTS IN A VOR SYSTEM INDICATES 100

•

VACUUM DRIVEN GYRO HORIZON RUNS AT APPROX 15,000 RPM

•

WITH THE VSI POINTER AT POSITION 1 AT THE UPPER HALF OF SCALE INDICATES 1000FT / MIN RATE OF CLIMB

•

AFTER DISCONNECTING THE ELECTRIC SUPPLY TO A GYRO WAIT 15 MINUTES TO ALLOW IT TO STOP

•

COMPASS COMPENSATOR UNITS HAVE GREATEST EFFECT WHEN MAGNETS ARE 900 APART

•

MACHMETER USES SQUARE LAW COMPENSATION

•

NORMAL VERTICAL MINIMUM SEPARATION ALLOWED IS 2000 FEET

•

COMPONENT P RELATES TO COEFFICIENT B

•

EGPWS MODE 2 ANNOUNCES WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

•

EFIS DISPLAY, SG1 & SG2 ARE FOR CAPTAIN & FO DISPLAYS. PURPOSE OF SG3 IS BACKUP FOR SG1 & SG2

•

DIRECTIONAL GYRO INNER GIMBAL IS RESTRICTED TO + / - 850 TO PREVENT GIMBAL LOCK

•

SPEED OF ROTOR IN TURN & SLIP INDICATOR IS APPROX 4,200 RPM

•

IN THE DIRECTIONAL GYRO, THE INNER / OUTER GIMBAL IS CORRECTED TO 15 SINE LATITUDE

•

A RATE 2 TURN IS 360 DEGREES / MIN

•

AN ENGINE VIBRATION INDICATOR SYSTEM HAS 2 FILTERS IN THE INDICATOR

•

GPWS MODE 7 WINDSHEAR IS ACTIVATED AT 1500 FEET RAD ALT FOR TAKE OFF & LANDING

•

BOILING TEMPERATURE OF WATER IS 100OC / 212OF

•

TO CONVERT OC TO KELVIN ADD 273

•

THE MOVING ELEMENT OF A RATIOMETER HAS 2 COILS

•

IF AN ALTIMETER MILLIBAR SCALE IS SET TO 1013.25 & BAROMETRIC PRESSURE AT THE TIME WAS 1020, THE ALTIMETER WOULD READ BELOW ZERO FEET

•

1 DOT VOR DEVIATION REPRESENTS 50

•

PRESSURE GAUGE INDICATES 1000PSI. IN TERMS OF ABSOLUTE PRESSURE THIS REPRESENTS 1014.7 PSI

•

A SENSITIVE ALTIMETER READING 100 FEET WHEN THE MILLIBAR SCALE IS SET TO THE ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE AT AIRFIELD LEVEL (QFE) INDICATES THE INSTRUMENT IS U/S

•

TRUE AIRSPEED IS ALWAYS HIGHER THAN EAS / IAS AT ANY ALTITUDE ABOVE SEA LEVEL

•

IF ASI READING IS 300 KNOTS, CALIBRATED AIRSPEED IS 304 KNOTS

•

NORTH ERROR –2 DEGREES, SOUTH ERROR +2 DEGREES. THEREFORE COEFFICIENT C IS –2 DEGREES

•

THE H S I PROVIDES – VOR, PLAN, ILS, MAP & RADAR

•

COMPRESSIBILITY ERROR IN A PITOT HEAD IS CAUSED BY – COMPRESSION OF AIR IN THE TUBE AT HIGH SPEEDS

•

A BUBBLE IN A COMPASS – IS DUE TO HIGH ALTITUDE

•

A FLUX DETECTOR OUTPUT IS A – AC VOLTAGE AT TWICE THE FREQUENCY OF THE EXCITATION VOLTAGE

•

IN AN ARTIFICIAL HORIZON, PENDULOSITY ERROR IS CAUSED BY – BOTTOM HEAVINESS OF THE INNER GIMBAL

•

IN AN ARTIFICIAL HORIZON, ERECTION ERROR IS CAUSED BY – DISPLACEMENT OF ERECTION CONTROL DEVICE

•

A VSI METERING UNIT CONSISTS OF – BOTH AN ORIFICE & A CAPILLARY

•

A MANUAL VOR INPUT IS FOR – THE COURSE DEVIATION BAR

•

AFTER CORRECTION OF A NORTH-SOUTH HEADING READING ON A COMPASS SWING, RESULTANT CORRECTION IS KNOWN AS – RESIDUAL DEVIATION

•

APPARENT DRIFT ON A DIRECTIONAL GYRO IS CORRECTED BY – AN ADJUSTMENT NUT ON INNER RING

•

PURPOSE OF ALTITUDE ALERTING IS TO WARN THE PILOT OF – APPROACH TOO OR DEVIATION FROM SELECTED ALTITUDE

•

GAUGE PRESSURE AS INDICATED ON A DIRECT READING BOURDON TUBE PRESSURE IS EQUAL TO – ABSOLUTE PRESSURE MINUS ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE

•

TO / FRO INDIC ON A H S I INFORMS PILOT OF WHICH DIRECTION HE IS TRACKING RELATIVE TO – A VOR STN

•

WHEN CHECKING A SENSITIVE ALTIMETER ON A PRE FLIGHT INSPECTION – AMBIENT AIR PRESSURE IS SET ON MILLIBAR SCALE

•

H S I COMPASS CARD IS POSITIONED BY THE – COMPASS SYSTEM

•

DEFLECTION OF THE ADI COMMAND BARS WHEN FLYING A LOCALIZER APPROACH IS PROPORTIONAL TO – THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE AMPLITUDES ON THE 2 MODULATIONS

•

A/C IS FLYING STRAIGHT AND LEVEL IN STILL AIR, AIRSPEED WILL BE – EQUAL TO GROUND SPEED

•

TO PROVIDE A LINEAR SCALE ON A H S I A – RANGING BAR & SCREWS ARE FITTED

•

WHEN CARRYING OUT PRESSURE LEAK CHECK ON AN ALTIMETER, YOU ARE CHECKING FOR LEAKS IN – INSTRUMENT CASE

•

IF ALT IS SET TO 1013.25 & BAROMETRIC PRESSURE AT THE TIME WAS 1020, ALTIMETER READS – BELOW ZERO

•

COMMAND BARS IN FD SYSTEM INDICATE – REQUIRED PATH WITH RESPECT TO ACTUAL PATH

•

ON A CONVENTIONAL RMI THE ANGLE BETWEEN THE COMPASS DATUM & RADIO POINTER ARROW IS – RELATIVE BEARING

•

A COMPASS IS MADE APERIODIC BY – USING FLUID

•

ISOGONAL LINES LINK PLACES OF – EQUAL VARIATION

•

THE SUPPLY OF DESYNN INDIC SYSTEM IS – DC

•

WHEN USING PITOT STATIC TEST SET, A/C SYSTEM IS VENTED BY – VENTING THE STATIC SYSTEM VIA INTERNAL BLEED IN TEST SET

•

BIMETALLIC STRIP IN ALTIMETER IS FOR – CORRECTING CAPSULE ELASTICITY

•

WHICH AXIS DOES DIRECTIONAL GYRO SPIN ON – HORIZONTAL

•

ALTIMETER CAPSULE RESPONDS TO – ABSOLUTE PRESSURE

•

THE TRUE AIRSPEED IN ADC IS FROM – MACH NUMBER & TEMPERATURE

•

WHAT TYPE OF GYRO IS USED INA GYRO COMPASS – DIRECTION GYRO

•

WHAT EFFECT ON RATE OF PRECESSION WILL A CHANGE OF GYRO ROTOR SPEED HAVE – INCREASE ROTOR SPEED DECREASES RATE OF PRECESSION

•

BOURDON TUBES HAVE – OVAL CROSS SECTION

•

IN A BOURDON TUBE – ONE END IS SEALED AND OTHER END IS CONNECTED TO THE PRESSURE SOURCE

•

DISTANCE READOUT FROM H S I - IS FROM A/C DME SYSTEM

•

A GYRO HAVING ONE PLANE OF FREEDOM AT RIGHT ANGLES TO PLANE OF ROTATION & ITS GIMBAL RESTRAINED ELECTRICALLY OR BY A SPRING IS KNOWN AS – A RATE GYRO

•

AN INSTRUMENT USED FOR MEASURING NEGATIVE PRESSURES – HAS ANTI CLOCKWISE POINTER MOVEMENT IF BOURDON TUBE OPERATED

•

AN ABSOLUTE PRESSURE GAUGE MEASURES – THE APPLIED PRESSURE REFERRED TO A PERFECT VACUUM

•

DFDR LOW SPEED PLAYBACK CAN BE ACHIEVED BY – FLIGHT COMPARTMENT TEST CONNECTOR THROUGH DIGITAL FLIGHT DATA ACQUISITION UNIT

•

IN A CHANGE TO A LOWER ALTITUDE, PISTON IN VSI WILL CREATE FOR AN INSTANT – MORE PRESSURE TO CAPSULE ONLY

•

MACH METER IS – COMPENSATED WITH SQUARE LAW SCREWS AND AN ARM

•

WHAT IS NOT DISPLAYED ON AN ADI – VOR LATERAL DEVIATION

•

WHAT EFFECT ON RATE OF PRECESSION WILL A CHANGE OF GYRO ROTOR SPEED HAVE – INCREASE ROTOR SPEED CAUSES DECREASE IN RATE OF PRECESSION

•

A GYRO HAS ITS RIGIDITY INCREASED BY – INCREASING THE ROTOR SPEED

•

IF A CONSTANT TORQUE IS APPLIED TO A GYRO, THE RATE OF PRECESSION INCREASES WITH LOWER ROTOR SPEED

•

GYRO RANDOM DRIFT IS CAUSED BY – UNBALANCE & BEARING FRICTION IN THE GYRO

•

PENDULOUS VANE TYPE ERECTION SYSTEMS FITTED TO A GYRO HORIZON WORKS ON THE PRINCIPLE – INCREASED REACTION OF THE AIR FROM A FULLY OPEN PORT

•

THE PITCH / BANK ERECTION SYSTEM IS USED IN ELECTRICAL GYRO HORIZON TO – PREVENT PITCH SWITCH GIVING A FALSE INDICATION DUE TO CENTRIFUGAL EFFECTS DURING A TURN

•

FAST ERECTION PUSH MUST NOT BE USED FOR A SET PERIOD OF TIME BECAUSE – EXCESSIVE HUNTING WILL TAKE PLACE

•

THE ERECTION SYSTEM ON A DIRECTIONAL GYRO HAS – A SWITCH ON INNER GIMBAL CONTROLLING A MOTOR ON OUTER GIMBAL

•

THE TURN & SLIP INDICATOR IS A – RATE GYRO

•

GIMBAL LOCK IN A DISPLACEMENT GYRO OCCURS WHEN – SPIN AXIS BECOMES COINCIDENT WITH ANY OF THE AXIS OF FREEDOM

•

IN A TURN COORDINATOR, OUTPUT AXIS OF RATE GYRO IS – SET AT 300 TO LONGITUDINAL AXIS

http://www.aircrafttechtrng.com

Module 13 Exam Practice Exam Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems

This is exam number 2. 1. Satellite transmits updates on every a) 13th orbit b)9th orbit c) 2nd orbit Answer:C 2. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus b)AC bus c) GND services Answer:B

3. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp b)local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator Answer:B

4. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b)090

c) 180 Answer:C

5. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power b)Pulsed power c) Average power Answer:A

6. What frequency increases radar relative range? a) High b)Low c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change Answer:B

7. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b)reduced relative range c) no effect Answer:C

8. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be a) 80 ohm b)160 ohm c) 0 ohm Answer:

9. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you a) 3 ft error

b)6ft error c) 12 foot error Answer:C

10. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width b)narrowest width c) number of joints and bends Answer:C This is exam number 4. 1. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure Answer:C

2. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH b)QDM c) QDR Answer:B

3. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros b)radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers

Answer:B

4. The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b)localiser deviation errors c) heading errors Answer:C 5. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b)the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting Answer:C

6. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when autopilot is engaged b)after glideslope capture c) at any time Answer:B 7. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the a) decision height b)intercept height c) alert height Answer:A

8. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b)operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters

c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters Answer:C

9. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b)three sets of instruments at the side of the runway c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway Answer:C

10. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet b)no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR Answer:B

This is exam number 5. 1. The purpose of a yaw damper is to a) assist the aerodynamic response b)produce a co-ordinated turn c) block the Dutch roll frequency Answer:C

2. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels b)the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach Answer:B

3. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b)integrating deviation signal c) integrating course error Answer:C

4. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD b)IAS HOLD and ALT ARM c) V/S and ALT ARM Answer:B

5. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD b)G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD Answer:B

6. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power b)ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers Answer:B 7. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system b)system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland Answer:B

8. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b)increase its drift angle c) fly parallel to the beam Answer:C

9. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in a) JAR AWO b)CAIPs c) BCARs Answer:A

10. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial b)is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial Answer:B

This is exam number 6 1. Versine is generated by a) torque receiver synchros b)synchros resolvers c) control synchro transformers Answer:B

2. Automatic trim is used to a) maintain level flight b)prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron Answer:A

3. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation b)rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course Answer:B

4. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement b)that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged Answer:B

5. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for a) maintaining a computed EPR b)controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations Answer:A Answer:

6. The GA mode is usually initiated by

a) pressing a button on the control wheel b)pressing a button on thrust levers c) making a selection on the mode control panel Answer:B 7. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b)the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe Answer:C 8. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check b)call up the relevant page on the CDU c) call up the relevant current status Answer:B

9. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by a) yaw rate gyro signals b)aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed Answer:A

10. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b)only mid range frequencies c) low range frequencies Answer:B

This is exam number 7. 1. A GCR will trip if what is detected?

a) Under frequency and over frequency b)Over frequency and under current c) Over current and over frequency Answer:C

2. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms b)25 ohms c) 50 ohms Answer:C

3. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate b)use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts Answer:B

4. In a vibrator type voltage regulator a) the resistor is in series with the field b)parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil Answer:A

5. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b)JAR OPS (M) c) Maintenance Manual Answer:A

6. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b)the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/shut off c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed Answer:C

7. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have? a) 180 degrees b)120 degrees c) 140 degrees Answer:C

8. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b)the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only Answer:A

9. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? a) The temperature b)The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity Answer:A

10. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided a) to prevent precipitation static build up

b)to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing Answer:A

This is exam number 8. 1. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint b)bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease Answer:B

2. An elevator tab moves down a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b)to make the nose go down c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy Answer:A

3. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b)only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same Answer:A

4. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft b)160ft c) 80ft Answer:C

5. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces b)LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces Answer:B

6. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b)the electronic interface units (EIU) c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) Answer:C 7. What type of memory do CMCs have? a) Volatile b)Non-volatile c) Hard Answer:B

8. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG b)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor Answer:B

9. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? a) Higher than its IAS b)Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS

Answer:A

10. The stall margin is controlled by a) EPR limits b)speed bug cursor c) angle of attack and flap position Answer:A

This is exam number 9. 1. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b)With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged c) only after take off Answer:C

2. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of a) electronic engine control unit only b)electronic engine control unit and all its sensors c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter Answer:B

3. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b)Control of thrust reverser operation c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers Answer:C

4. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare b)Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold Answer:B

5. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the a) decision height b)intercept height c) alert height Answer:A

6. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b)operation down to 60 m and 800 m c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m Answer:C

7. A category II facility performance ILS has an intercept height of a) 15 m b)60 m c) 0 m Answer:B

8. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal b)the localiser and glide path signals cross each other c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide

path signals Answer:A

9. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than a) 1 x 10-6 b)1 x 10-7 c) 1 x 10-8 Answer:B

10. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II b)ground radio aids must be at CAT III c) ILS system must be working Answer:C

This is exam number 10. 1. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is a) mandatory b)a matter of choice for the operator c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed Answer:A

2. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated a) automatically b)by a selector on the throttle control panel c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum Answer:C

3. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at a) 300 ft b)the decrab phase c) start of flare phase Answer:C

4. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated a) only when the autopilot is engaged b)at any time after autoland has been engaged c) at any time Answer:B

5. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of autoland a) ILS localiser and IAS b)IAS and glideslope c) IAS and steering or heading Answer:C

6. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will a) increase speed b)rotate nose up c) increase speed and rotate nose up Answer:C 7. V NAV can be selected a) alone b)only if A/P and F/D selected c) only if A/T selected

Answer:C

8. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach a) the system degrades to CAT II b)the autoland is continued c) a go-around is initiated Answer:C

9. The order of autoland approach is a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b)GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD Answer:A

10. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking b)assist with glideslope tracking c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down Answer:C

This is exam number 11. Answer 1. 2 C C

3 B

4 B

5 A

6 B

7 B

8 A

9 B

10 B

1. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot

if any failure is detected c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of single failure

2. The effective gain of the glide path receiver a) is increased as the aircraft descends b)remains constant as the aircraft descends c) is decreased as the aircraft descends

3. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros b)radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers

4. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive b)fail operational c) fail redundant

5. On touchdown, autopilot a) remains engaged ready for G/A b)drives the throttles forward c) disconnects after a short time

6. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H. b)before D.H. c) after D.H. 7. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

a) the area navigation system b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon

8. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from a) radio altimeter b)the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver

9. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now, a) fail passive b)fail operational c) fail redundant

10. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition b)produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically

This is exam number 12. Answer 1. 2 B C

3 B

4 B

5 B

6 A

7 C

8 B

9 B

10 A

1. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system b)duplex system c) dual-dual system

2. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range b)localiser and glideslope c) decision height and runway visual range

3. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode? a) Decision height b)Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal

4. CAT-3b allows a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR b)approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

5. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim b)continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim

6. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown? a) Nose down bias b)Nose up bias c) No signal

7. What controls are used in response to the PFD? a) Ailerons b)Throttles c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

8. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go b)ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go

9. For a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement? a) Lateral b)Longitudinal c) Normal

10. Versine is used in which channel? a) Pitch b)Roll c) Yaw This is exam number 13. Answer 1. 2 B A

3 A

4 B

5 A

6 A

7 C

8 B

9 C

10 A

1. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has a) increased b)decreased c) is the same

2. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed and cabin altitude occurs b)cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

3. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is a) 50 milliohms b)1 ohms c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

4. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors b)at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead

5. Sparking in a generator would be caused by a) low spring tension b)bedding of brushes c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis

6. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations? a) Visual inspections b)Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications 7. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit? a) Short the terminals together b)Put a set resistance across the terminals c) Leave the terminals open circuit

8. An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer? a) Move left b)Move right c) Moves left then hard right

9. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a a) Triplex system b)Duplex system c) Simplex system

10. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be a) painted in a conductive paint b)painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure

This is exam number 14. Answer 1. 2 A C

3 C

4 A

5 C

6 B

7 B

8 A

9 B

10 C

1. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is a) 50 ohms b)20 ohms c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively

2. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static

b)Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature c) Mach and Temp

3. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located? a) On the wing b)Under the Fuselage c) Either side of the Fuselage . 4. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack? a) Tend to increase b)Tend to decrease c) Stay the same

5. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position b)controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position

6. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause a) poor channel selectivity b)poor audio output c) poor volume output 7. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning? a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter b)A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS

8. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made b)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made

9. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done? a) Placards in the cockpit b)An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining

10. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water b)a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required This is exam number 15. Answer 1. 2 A B

3 B

4 B

5 A

6 C

7 A

8 B

9 A

10 B

1. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of a) 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively b)1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090mhz

2. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree b)3 degree c) 5 degree

3. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 b)045 c) 090

4. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators b)AC generators c) AC & DC generators

5. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the a) spoiler b)leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps

6. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree b)110 degree c) 50 degree 7. Stall warning will be given at speeds a) that are higher than stall speed b)that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed

8. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft? a) Turning on and off the NAV lights b)Turning off the anti-collision lights

c)

Flashing the landing light

9. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at a) 1500 ft b)2500 ft c) 3500 ft

10. FADEC system gets its power supply from a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator b)channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus This is exam number 16. Answer 1. 2 A C

3 B

4 B

5 B

6 C

7 A

8 C

9 B

10 B

1. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to a) excessive charging current b)insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage

2. An autopilot interlock circuit is to a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists b)disconnect the system if a fault appears c) both a & b

3. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour b)amber c) red colour

4. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55 b)121.5 c) 118.00

5. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only b)continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air

6. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll b)360 in roll and 110 in pitch c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch 7. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b)remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB

8. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs b)Maintenance Manual c) JAR OPS

9. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover? a) 100 nm

b)120 nm c) 140 nm

10. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature , the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial b)090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial This is exam number 17. Answer 1. 2 A C

3 C

4 A

5 C

6 B

7 A

8 A

9 B

10 A

1. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is a) an accelerometer b)a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator

2. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b)decibels c) relative amplitude

3. A fuel flow measurement system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b)minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted

4. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between a) true north and magnetic north

b)magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north

5. GPWS mode 1 is excessive a) terrain closure b)rate of ascent c) rate of descent

6. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12 b)24 c) 36 7. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the a) square of the speed b)square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed

8. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of a) capsule elasticity b)capsule shape c) non linear pressure/height relationship

9. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank b)aircraft to overbank c) aircraft to remain in level flight

10. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b)amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency This is exam number 18. Answer 1. 2 A B

3 A

4 C

5 C

6 A

7 B

8 C

9 A

10 A

1. During flare mode autothrottle will a) retard throttles to idle b)disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust

2. A CSD is monitored for a) low temperature and high oil pressure b)high temperature and low oil pressure c) high temperature and high oil pressure

3. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle? a) Increases b)Decreases c) No change

4. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected a) it is centralized by a spring b)its control is maintained by electric trim c) it is centralised by the airflow

5. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes? a) 115v ac

b)200v ac c) High voltage stepped up

6. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is a) zero b)full scale deflection c) centre scale

7. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance b)increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance

8. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b)adjusted when tanks are empty c) cannot be adjusted

9. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are a) bulkheads b)longerons c) frame 10. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by a) excessive electrical loading b)high charge current c) low charge current This is exam number 19.

Answer 1. 2 B B

3 A

4 C

5 C

6 B

7 A

8 C

9 B

10 B

1. With engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1. a) This is normal b)You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx

2. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks b)damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks

3. The specific gravity readings of a lead–acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value. a) Cell is defective b)You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell

4. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only b)TCAs only c) all L band equipments including TCAS

5. Differential GPS requires a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b)4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

6. GPS has a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits b)4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits 7. When the captain calls attendant a) a high/low chime and pink light comes on b)a low chime and blue light comes on c) a high chime and pink light comes on

8. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on b)a selcall light along with a chime comes on c) a chime sounds in the cockpit

9. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail a) the authority of elevators not effected b)the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected

10. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost a) aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift b)aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle This is exam number 20. Answer 1. 2 B B

3 A

4 C

5 C

1. IDG output voltage

6 A

7 A

8 B

9 B

10 B

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant. b)voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG

2. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal b)rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error

3. When moving the control column a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b)sensor located along the control run produces a signal c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

4. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b)there is an increases tail plane up-force c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

5. Equivalent airspeed is a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b)rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

6. In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged a) after reverse thrust is applied b)after affixed period of the time after landing c) manually after landing

7. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon? a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b)360 degrees in pitch and roll c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll

8. Acceleration error produces a) a false indication of left bank b)a false indication of right bank c) a false indication of climb

9. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc b)through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis

10. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door b)Left wing c) Right wing

This is exam number 21. Answer 1. 2 B C

3 C

4 A

5 B

6 A

7 B

8 B

9 A

10 A

1. Shock stall is a flap down stallis a flap down stalloccurs at high speeds a) is a flap down stall occurs at high speeds b)occurs at high speeds occurs at high speeds

c) occurs at low speeds occurs at high speedsoccurs at high speeds

occurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high spe 2. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by centrifugal force a) flapping entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)dragging entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) centrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 3. During a turn entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) left rudder to be usedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)right rudder to be usedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) rudder to be maintained in centre positionentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 4. Align light flashes during alignment entrifugal forceentrifugal force a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned offentrifugal forceentrifugal fore b)It is attracting operators attentionentrifugal force c) It is indicating progress of alignmententrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 5. During decent with power on in a helicopterentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopterentrifugal forceentrifugal force

b)lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopterentrifugal forceentrif c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopterentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 6. To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire systementrifug a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeabilityentrifugal force b)LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and rollentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) Synchros are usedentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force7. The compensator in a fuel tank measuresentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) specific gravity of fuelentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)K value of fuel c) fuel quantityentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 8. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrif a) Heading and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)Course error and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) Heading ,Course error and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 9. In modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled byentrifugal force a) BPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal

forceentrifugal force b)PCDU (power control distribution unit)entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) SPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force 10. As you approach supersonic speedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force a) total drag is increasedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force b)lift is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force c) thrust is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force This is exam number 22. Answer 1. 2 B A

3 C

4 B

5 A

6 B

7 C

8 A

9 C

10 B

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