DI(Basics) Final - Copy.docx

Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

Simple Counting: Questions 1 to 5: The following table gives the IIM calls received by 10 cat aspirants A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J. The calls received by the students are indicated by ‘S’ A S

IIM-A IIM-B IIM-C IIM-I IIM-K IIM-L IIM-S

S S

B S S

C

D S S S S S

S

S S

S S S

S

E

F S S S

S

G S S

H S

I S S

J S S

S S

S

S

S

S S

S

S S

S S

Answer the following questions: 1. How many of these candidates got IIM B and IIM C calls but not IIM l call? 1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 2.

3.

The number of calls received by B and C but not by E is: 1) 4 2) 3 3) 2

4) 1

Who got the maximum number of IIM calls? 1) D 2) J 3) A

4) None

4.

Three of the following pairs of students have same number of common IIM calls. Which is the odd one out? 1) D and F 2) B and D 3) G and I 4) H and A

5.

Which IIM calls were received by maximum number of students? 1) IIM I and B but not A 2) IIM A and C but not B 3) IIM A and B but not K 4) IIM A and K but not L

Questions 6 – 9: Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. In a 5 year management course, students studying in 2nd year are asked to select four optional subjects from the seven given subjects. There are 10 students whose roll numbers are from 1 to 10. They have selected four optional subjects each. Their subjects selected are indicated by ‘Y’. Roll No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

TA Y Y Y

MBCA Y Y

Y

Y Y

Y

Y

YCA

DMBC Y Y

XA Y

Y

Y Y Y

Y Y Y Y

Y Y

PG Y

Y

PM Y Y Y Y Y

Y Y

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 9 Y Y Y Y 10 Y Y Y Y 6. Which roll numbers have the same optional subjects? 1) 3 and 6 2) 1 and 3 3) 6 and 8 4) 9 and 10 7.

Which optional subject was chosen by the maximum number of students? 1) XA 2) TA 3) MBCA 4) DMBC

8.

Which of the following triple courses have maximum number of students in common? 1) TA, MBCA, YCA 2) DMBC, TA, PG 3) YCA, PM, XA 4) DMBC, PG, XA

9.

Which roll numbers have the maximum common number of optional subjects? 1) 1 and 8 2) 3 and 6 3) 9 and 10 4) 2 and 5

Questions 10 – 12: Answer these questions based on the frequency distribution of workers in a factory given below according to the number of children they have. Number of children 1 2 3 4 5 6 10.

11. 12.

Number of workers 40 60 35 40 15 10

Number of illiterates 15 25 20 20 10 5

Find the total number of children of all the workers? 1) 200 2) 560 3) 600

4) 700

The number of illiterate workers with more than 3 children is: 1) 30 2) 35 3) 40

4) 50

How many literate workers have at least 2 children but not more than 5 children? 1) 75 2) 80 3) 85 4) None

Questions 13 – 17: The following table represents the IIM calls received by 10 candidates (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J) in cat 2008. IIM-A IIM-B IIM-C IIM-I IIM-K IIM-L IIM-S

A, B, C, F, G D, E, F, H, J A, C, D A, B, E, I I, J E, G, H A, C, D, I

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Answer the following questions: 13. Which candidate got the maximum number of IIM calls? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) None 14.

How many students got calls from IIM A or B and IIM C or L? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) None

15.

How many students got at least three IIM calls? 1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

5) None

16.

The candidate who got IIM A, B, C, I, K, L, S calls were given 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 points respectively, which student gets the maximum points? 1) A 2) C 3) I 4) D 5) None

17.

How many students got IIM B or IIM C call and IIM A call 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) None

Questions 18 – 23: The table below gives the information of eight companies (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H) and the cities in which they have their offices.

Company A B C D E F G H

Branches are in cities: Hyderabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai Mumbai, Kolkata, Chandigarh, Pune, Hyderabad Ahmedabad, Baroda, Delhi, Bangalore, Chennai Delhi, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Pune Pune, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Indore Indore, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Bhopal Pune, Chandigarh, Bhopal, Ahmedabad Bangalore, Mumbai, Delhi, Baroda, Indore

Answer the following Questions: 18.

How many of the above mentioned companies have their branches either in Hyderabad or in Chandigarh but not in both? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

19.

How many cities have branches of company A or C but not B? 1) 3 2) 4 3) 5

4) 6

How many cities have branches of companies C & D but not E? 1) 0 2) 1 3) 2

4) None

20.

21.

How many of the above mentioned companies have their branches in Bangalore and Delhi but not in Chennai? 1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

22.

Which of the following is true?

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) There are exactly four cities in which company A has its branch but company B does not. 2) Exactly three companies have their branches in both Bangalore and Chennai 3) No city has branches of more than 5 companies. 4) None of these 23.

Which city has the branches of maximum number of companies? 1) Hyderabad 2) Delhi 3) Pune 4) Mumbai

Questions 24 – 26: Chandigarh is connected by four cities Bangalore, Delhi, Hyderabad and Mumbai (represented by BLR, DLI, HYD and MUM respectively) by direct flights. Three airline companies Kingfisher, Indigo and Go air operate flights between Chandigarh and the above mentioned cities. Each airline has one flight a day from Chandigarh to each of these four cities. The following table gives the details of number of passengers travelled through these airlines in a particular week from Sunday to Saturday. (B

BLR SUN 150 MON 120 TUE 198 WED 215 THU 244 FRI 112 SAT 134

24.

KINGFISHER DLI HYD 240 120 148 210 212 216 90 128 216 229 212 233 121 120

MUM 160 133 189 244 240 245 165

BLR 190 124 115 217 189 266 189

INDIGO DLI HYD 175 164 139 199 170 191 224 245 156 133 188 195 185 191

MUM 125 185 178 260 112 146 219

BLR 98 215 160 240 190 121 220

GO AIR DLI HYD 146 200 224 230 190 200 210 188 238 260 137 198 245 261

MUM 263 100 208 193 190 219 277

Answer the following questions: On which day, maximum number of passengers travelled from Chandigarh to Mumbai? 1) Wednesday 2) Friday 3) Saturday 4) Tuesday

25.

On which day maximum number of passengers travelled using Kingfisher? 1) Sunday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday 4) Friday

26.

On Thursday, the maximum number of passengers travelled to which city? 1) Bangalore 2) Delhi 3) Hyderabad 4) Mumbai

Questions 27 – 30: The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size of each lay. There are four sizes: M-Medium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

27. How many lays are used to produce Yellow-coloured fabrics? 1) 10 2) 11 3) 12

4) 14

28. How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large fabrics? 1) 15 2) 16 3) 17

4) 18

29. How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large Yellow or Extra-Extra Large White fabrics? 1) 8 2) 9 3) 10 4) 15 30. How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order have been produced? 1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

Questions 31 - 33: Answer these questions based on the table given below. The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions given below.

31.

How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of Crop-3 or Crop-4? 1) Zero 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

32.

How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing regions or medium quality Crop-3 producing regions? 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Zero

33.

Which of the following statement is true? 1) All medium quality Crop-2 producing regions are also high quality Crop-3 producing regions. 2) All high quality Crop-1 producing regions are also medium and low Crop-4 producing regions. 3) There are exactly five Crop-3 producing regions, which also produce Crop-4 but not Crop-2. 4) Some Crop-3, producing regions produce Crop-1, and high quality Crop-2.

Answer the questions 34 to 38 on the basis of the information given below. In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups i.e PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl. 34.

How much did Dipan get in English Paper II? 1) 94 2) 96.5 3) 97

4) 98

35.

Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to: 1) Shreya 2) Ram 3) Ayesha 4) Dipan

36.

Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

37.

Among the top ten students, how many girls scored at least 96 in all the papers of at least one group? 1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 38. How many among the top ten students scored more than 97 marks in at least one paper from at least three groups? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Questions 39 – 43: Last year CAT paper had three sections Quantitative, Reasoning and Verbal. The maximum marks in each section were 100. The cut-off marks set by the IIM’s are given in the following table.

IIM- A IIM- B IIM- C IIM- I IIM- K IIM- L IIM- S

Quant 37 34 38 28 23 21 19

Reasoning 34 32 36 24 26 21 21

Verbal 32 28 20 25 24 20 17

Overall 128 110 106 102 100 92 84

The IIM’s called all the candidates who cleared the cut-offs set by the respective IIMs for the next round. The following table gives the marks obtained by 8 candidates of a coaching institute, who appeared for the test.

Abhinav Aditi Chandu Deepak Jashan Rachri Satish Sahil

Quant 46 41 33 26 43 37 42 41

Reasoning 42 39 44 38 43 41 46 45

Verbal 36 32 45 41 40 38 40 39

Answer the following questions: 39.

How many of the above mentioned candidates cleared the cut-offs of all the seven IIM’s? 1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

40.

How many of the given candidates cleared the cut-offs IIM-C, but not IIM- A? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

41.

Who among the following got maximum IIM calls? 1) Aditi 2) Deepak 3) Jashan

4) Sahil

42.

What is the difference between the IIM calls received by Rachri and Aditi? 1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) None of these

43.

The number of IIM calls received by Jashan is : 1) 3 2) 4 3) 5

4) 6

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ DIRECTIONS for questions 44 to 47: Answer these questions based on the table given below concerning the twenty busiest international airports in the world. S.NO.

Name

International Airport type

Code

Location

Passengers

1

Hartsfield

A

ATL

Atlanta, Georgia, USA

77939536

2

Chicago – O’Hare

A

ORD

Chicago, Illinois, USA

72568076

3

Los Angeles

A

LAX

Los Angeles, California, USA

63876561

4

Heathrow Airport

E

LHR

London, United Kingdom

62263710

5

DFW

A

DFW

Dallas Ft. Worth, Texas, USA

60000125

6

Haneda Airport

F

HND

Tokyo, Japan

54338212

7

Frankfurt Airport

E

FRA

Frankfurt, Germany

45858315

8

Roissy-Charles de

E

CDG

Paris, France

43596943

9

San Francisco

A

SFO

SanFrancisco, California, USA

40387422

10

Denver

A

DIA

Denver, Colorado, USA

38034231

11

Amsterdam

E

AMS

Amsterdam, Netherlands

36781015

12

Minneapolis

A

MSP

Minneapolis- St.Paul, USA

34216331

DTW

Detroit, Michigan, USA

13

Detroit Metropolitan

14

Miami

A

MIA

Miami, Florida, USA

33899246

15

Newark

A

EWR

Newark, NewJersey, USA

33814000

16

MC Carran

A

LAS

Las Vegas, Nevada, USA

33669185

17

Phoenis sky Harbor

A

PHX

Phoenis, Arizona, USA

33533353

18

Kimpo

F

SEL

Seoul, Korea

33371074

19

George Bush

A

LAH

Houston, Texas, USA

33089333

20

John F. Kennedy

A

JFK

Newyork, Newyork, USA

32003000

44.

A

34038381

How many international airports of type 'A' account for more than 40 million passengers?

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 45.

What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America? 1) 60 2) 80 3) 70 4) 90

46.

Of the five busiest airports, roughly what percentage of passengers is handled by Heathrow airport? 1) 30 2) 40 3) 20 4) 50

47.

How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million passengers? 1) 5 2) 6 3) 10 4) 14

DIRECTIONS: The following table shows the earnings of employees in the month of June 2002. They generally worked 25 days in the month.

48.

The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 50 per day in complex operation is 1) 4 2) 3 3) 6 4) 7

49.

The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more than 80% attendance (there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might be coming on overtime too) is 1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 50.

The employee number of the person who has earned the maximum earnings per day in medium operations is 1) 2001180 2) 2001165 3) 2001177 4) 2001170

51.

Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the number of employees whose average earning per day in complex operations is more than average earning per day in medium operations is 1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7

DIRECTIONS: Answer these questions based on the table given below.

52.

What percentage of cities located within 10° E and 40° E (10° east and 40° east) lie in the Southern Hemisphere? 1) 15% 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 30%

53.

The number of countries whose name begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table 1) exceed the countries whose names begin with a consonant of Southern

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Hemisphere by 4. 2) exceed the countries whose names begin with a consonant of Southern Hemisphere by 6. 3) is less than the number of countries whose name begin with a consonant of east of the meridian by 1. 4) is less than the number of countries whose name begin with a consonant of east of the meridian by 2. 54.

The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowel and located in the Southern Hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table above is 1) 3 : 2 2) 3 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 4 : 3

Directions for questions 55 to 57: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

55.

Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overall ranked school whose a) Annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and b) Median starting salary is at least $70,000. Which school will she select? 1) University of Virginia. 3) Northwestern University.

2) University of Pennsylvania. 4) University of California-Berkeley.

56.

In terms of starting salary and tuition fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

57.

How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)? 1) 10 2) 5 3) 7 4) 8

Answer Questions 58 to 60 on the basis of the information given below: The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and EGovernance (EG).

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Sl. No. Name Gender Designatio Age Committed Interested in n Group to problems workshop on during 1 Anshul M Mgr Y Jan, Mar CS, EG 2 Bushkant M Dir I Feb, Mar BO, EG 3 Charu F Mgr I Jan, Feb BO, CS 4 Dinesh M Exe O Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG 5 Eashwaran M Dir O Feb, Apr BO 6 Fatima F Mgr Y Jan, Mar BO, CS 7 Gayatri F Exe Y Feb, Mar EG 8 Hari M Mgr I Feb, Mar BO, CS, EG 9 Indira F Dir O Feb, Apr BO, EG 10 John M Dir Y Jan, Mar BO 11 Kalindi F Exe I Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG 12 Lavanya F Mgr O Feb, Apr CS, EG 13 Mandeep M Mgr O Mar, Apr BO, EG 14 Nandlal M Dir I Jan, Feb BO, EG 15 Parul F Exe Y Feb, Apr CS, EG 16 Rahul M Mgr Y Mar, Apr CS, EG 17 Sunita F Dir Y Jan, Feb BO, EG 18 Urvashi F Exe I Feb, Mar EG 19 Yamini F Mgr O Mar, Apr CS, EG 20 Zeena F Exe Y Jan, Mar BO, CS, EG

For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he or she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on Communication Skills, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of January; Business Opportunities, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of February; E-governance, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of March. 58.

Assuming that Parul and Hari arc attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop? 1) Rahul and Yamini 2) Dinesh and Lavanya 3) Anshul and Yamini 4) Fatima and Zeena

59.

How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 15 4) 16

60.

Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops? 1) Anshul, Charu, Eashwaran and Lavanya 2) Anshul, Bushkant, Gayatri and Urvashi 3) Charu, Urvashi, Bushkant and Mandeep 4) Anshul, Gayatri, Eashwaran and Mandeep

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Directions for questions 61 to 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.

61.

What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm? 1) 48 2) 45 3) 3 4) Cannot be determined

62.

How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm and do not weigh more than 48 kg? 1) 16 2) 40 3) 9 4) Cannot be determined

63.

Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than 38 kg? 1) 34 2) 52 3) 44 4) Cannot be determined

Questions 64 – 66: There are three sections in a school. The school management keeps data of the number of boys and girls in each section. Unfortunately some of its data is lost. The available data is given below. Section-A

Section-B

Section-C

Total

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Boys Girls Total . It is known that, Exactly 50% of the students of the school are in Section –C. The ratio f number of girls and boys of the school is 3 : 2 One third of the boys of the school are in Section –A Answer the following questions: Questions 67 – 71: 400 employees are working in a company. 60% are in operations department, 20% are in marketing, 10% are in HR and the rest are in Finance department. The following table gives the proportion of male employees and the proportion of MBA’s in these departments. Male Operations Marketing H.R Finance Total

MBA’s 0.2

0.6 0.6 0.5 0.68

0.28

The number of MBA’s in Finance department is four times to that of Marketing department. Where as the number of male employees in Operations department is 16 times to that of H.R department. Answer the following questions. 67.

How many male employees are working in H.R department? 1) 8 2) 12 3) 24 4) 32 5) can’t say

68.

What percentage of the employees working in Finance department are MBA’s? 1) 32 2) 40 3) 56 4) 80 5) None of these

69.

How many female employees are working in Operations department? 1) 24 2) 48 3) 72 4)192 5) 20

70.

If 25% of female employees of the company are MBA’s, How many male employees of the company are MBA’s? 1) 28 2) 32 3) 40 4) 80 5) cannot be determined

71.

If 50% of the male employees of H.R department are MBA’s, approximately what percentage of the female MBA’s of the company are in H.R department? 1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 40% 4) 50% 5) ) cannot be determined

Questions 72 – 76: ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and gender of the student. The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of virus. Only the following could be recovered: Average

Good

Excellent

Male

Total

10

Female Total

32 30

It is known that half the students were either excellent or good. 40% of the students are females. One third of the male students were average. 72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

How many people are both female and excellent? 1) 0 2) 8 3) 16

4) 32

What proportion of good students are male? 1) 0 2) 0.73 3) 0.4

4) 1. 0

What proportion of female students are good? 1) 0 2) 0.25 3) 0.5

4) 1.0

How many students are both male and good? 1) 10 2) 16 3) 22

4) 48

Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female? 1) 1 : 2 2) 2 :1 3) 3 : 2

4) 2 : 3

DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 79: Answer the following questions based on the information given below: The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 77.

What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12? 1) 40 2) 45 3) 50 4) 55 5) 60

78.

In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians? 1) less than 8 2) 10 3) 12 4) 14 5) 16

79.

What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section? 1) 40 2) 45 3) 50 4) 55 5) 60

DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha‘s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0)/5 = 3.6 Some additional facts are also known about the students‘ grades. These are: (a) (b) (c) 77.

78.

79.

Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy. Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing. Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses. In Operations, Tara could have received the same grade as: 1) Ismet 2) Hari 3) Jagdeep

4) Manab

What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics? 1) A 2) B

4) D

3) C

What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance?

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 80.

In Strategy, Gowri‘s grade point was higher than that obtained by : 1) Fazal 2) Hari 3) Nisha 4) Rahul

Minimum / Maximum Last year CAT paper had three sections Quantitative, Reasoning and Verbal. The maximum marks in Quantitative, Reasoning sections were 100 each and that of verbal was 150. The cut-off marks set by the IIM’s are given in the following table.

IIM- A IIM- B IIM- C IIM- I IIM- K IIM- L IIM- S

Quant 34 37 38 28 23 21 19

Reasoning 33 32 36 42 26 25 21

Verbal 48 38 30 35 51 36 32

Overall 141 130 118 112 110 104 96

Answer the following questions. 81.

Raman did not get any IIM call. What could be the maximum marks obtained by him? 1) 140 2) 95 3) 229 4) 270 5) None

82.

Aayush got calls from all the IIM’s. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by him? 1) 123 2) 148 3) 141 4) 96 5) None

83.

What is the minimum aggregate marks required to get at least 4 IIM calls? 1) 112 2) 118 3) 121 4) 115 5) None of these

84.

Praveen got IIM –B call but not IIM –C call. How many marks did he get in Quant section? 1) 37 2) 38 3) 45 4) 50 5) can’t say

85.

Sumit got more marks in Quant than in Reasoning and more marks in Reasoning than in Verbal. If he gets call from IIM- C, he should definitely get a call from: 1) IIM-B 2) IIM – I 3) IIM –K 4) IIM- S 5) None of these

Directions for questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five; the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49. ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

58.

The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least:. 1) 10% 2) 16.67% 3) 20.0% 4) 30%

59.

Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most: 1) 30% 2) 73.33% 3) 76.67% 4) 90%

60.

The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least: 1) 6.67% 2) 10% 3) 13.33% 4) 26.67

DIRECTIONS: Answer these questions based on the chart given below. The chart given below indicates the annual sales tax revenue collections (in crores of rupees) of seven states from 1996 to 2001.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 50. If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending order of sales tax collections, then how many states don't change the ranking more than once over the five years? 1)1 2) 5 3) 3 4) 4 51. Which of the following states has changed its relative ranking most number of times when you rank the states in terms of the descending volume of sales tax collections each year? 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Karnataka 4) Tamilnadu 52.

The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has increased from 1997 to 2001? 1) Tamilnadu 2) Karnataka 3) Gujarat 4) Andhra Pradesh

53.

Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax revenue in Maharashtra? 1) 1997 to 1998 2) 1998 to 1999 3) 1999 to 2000 4) 2000 to 2001

54.

Identify the state whose tax revenue increased exactly by the same amount in two successive pair of years? 1) Karnataka 2) West Bengal 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Tamilnadu

55.

Which state below has been maintaining a constant rank over the years in terms of its contribution to the total tax collections? 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Karnataka 3) Tamilnadu 4) Uttar Pradesh (CAT 2002)

The following table represents the number of students of a school who play different sports. Class VI Class VII ClassVIII Class IX Class X

Cricket 80 60 25 15 10

Basket Ball 40 20 30 20 15

Foot Ball 20 15 20 40 20

Tennis 15 10 20 50 25

None 10 20 5 10 0

86.

If no student from class X play more than one sport, how many students are there in classX? 1) 60 2) 70 3) 80 4) Can’t say

87.

How many students are there in class VIII, if it is known that 60 students play at least two sports? 1) 100 2) 120 3) 140 4) Can’t say

88.

The total number of students in class VII is 80. What could be the maximum possible number of students who play more than one sport? 1) 9 2) 12 3) 15 4) 45

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 89. The total number of students in class VI is100. What could be the minimum possible number of students who play more than one sport? 1) 13 2) 16 3) 17 4) None 90.

The total number of students in class IX is 60. What could be the maximum possible number of students who play all the given four sports? 1) 19 2) 25 3) 75 4) None

Directions for Questions 91 to 93: Answer the following questions based on the information given below: For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the section and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.

91.

Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate marks obtained by him? 1) 181 2) 176 3) 184 4) 196 5) 190

92.

Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by her? 1) 180 2) 181 3) 196 4) 176 5) 184

93.

Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a section? 1) 0 2) 21 3) 25 4) 35 5) 41

(CAT 2008) (Difficult) ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ DIRECTIONS: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions that follow. There are 6 refineries, 7 depots, 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF, BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG and the districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH, AAI. Table A shows the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B shows the cost of transporting one unit from depot to districts.

94.

The minimum cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district is 1) Rs.0 2) Rs.350 3) Rs.320 4) Rs.50

95.

How many possible ways are there for sending one unit from any refinery to any district? 1) 63 2) 42 3) 54 4) 378

96.

The largest cost of sending one unit from any refinery to district is 1) Rs.2172.60 2) Rs.2193.0 3) Rs.2091.0 4) None

97.

The minimum cost of transportation of one unit from refinery BD to any district is 1) Rs.125 2) Rs.0 3) Rs.375 4) None

98.

The minimum cost of transportation from any refinery to AAG district is 1) Rs.0 2) Rs.137 3) Rs.140 4) None

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 99. The minimum cost of transportation from refinery BE to district AAA is 1) Rs.1257 2) Rs.1161 3) Rs.1231 4) None (CAT 2002) Information for questions 100 and 101: Vipin would be visiting five places: P, Q, R, S and T. The distance between any two of these places in kilometers is as follows:

100.

Vipin is currently in S and wants to finish his tour at T. If he doesn't want to visit a city more than once, what is the minimum distance he would have to cover? 1) 7 km 2) 8 km 3) 9 km 4) 10 km

101.

If Vipin starts his tour at Q, and comes back to Q after visiting all other places only once; what is the minimum distance he has to cover? 1) 10 km 2) 11 km 3) 12 km 4) None of these

(FMS 2009) Information for questions 102 to 104: Natural gas once extracted from a source is purified for commercial use at natural gas plants. From gas plants it is pumped to various destinations through pipelines. There are pumping stations, at intermediate places to maintain recommended pressure in the pipelines. The pumping stations do not produce or process any natural gas. They pump out exactly the quantity they receive from plants or other pumping stations. The following figure depicts a network of natural gas pipelines. The circles denote the locations of gas plants, pumping stations or cities with big demand for natural gas. One location can be only one of these three. The numbers on the arrows are the capacities (in appropriate units) of the pipeline that carry gas in the direction of the arrow. Currently the demand supply situation is such that the capacity utilization of the pipelines is very close to 100%.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

102.

What is the maximum quantity of natural gas S can receive? 1) 13 units 2) 15 units 3) 16 units

4) 17 units

103.

For which two cities it can be safely concluded that they have natural gas plants? 1) M and P 2) M and O 3) P and N 4) M and N

104.

What is the maximum quantity of natural gas that can be transported from M to R? 1) 11 units 2) 7 units 3) 9 units 4) 6 units

(FMS 2009) DIRECTIONS for questions 105 to 107: Answer these questions based on the pipeline diagram below. The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1000.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

105.

106.

107.

The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is: 1) 200 2) 800 3) 700

4) 1000

The free capacity available at the Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is: 1) 0 2) 100 3) 200

4) 300

What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline? 1) 300 2) 200 3) 100 4) 0

(CAT 2001)

DIRECTIONS for Questions 108 to 111: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

108.

Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out? 1) Malaysia & China 2) China & Thailand 3) Thailand & Japan 4) Japan & Malaysia ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 109.

Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India? 1) China 2) Japan 3) Malaysia 4) Thailand

110.

Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India? 1) China 2) Japan 3) Malaysia

111.

4) Thailand

Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar? 1) China & Japan 2) India & China 3) Malaysia & Japan 4) Thailand & Japan

(CAT 2004)(Understanding) (Easy) Directions for Questions 112-114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There was an effort to study the relative importance that beneficiaries of five states assigned to five different development programme implemented by their governments. The programmes were Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), Indira Awas Yozna (IAY), Mid-Day Meal (MDM), Rural Health Mission (RHM), National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREG). The level of dissimilarity between two states is the maximum difference in the rank allotted by the two states to any five programmes. The following table indicates the rank order of the five programmes for each state.

112.

113.

114.

Rank

Orissa

Bihar

Rajasthan

Kerala

Karnataka

1

JRY

MDM

IAY

NREG

NREG

2

RHM

JRY

MDM

IAY

JRY

3

MDM

RHM

JRY

RHM

MDM

4

NREG

IAY

NREG

JRY

RHM

5

IAY

NREG

RHM

MDM

IAY

Which of the following states is least dissimilar to Orissa? 1) Bihar 2) Rajasthan 3) Kerala

4) Karnataka

hich of the following states is most dissimilar to Orissa? 1) Bihar 2) Rajasthan 3) Kerala

4) Karnataka

Three of the following four pairs of states have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which is the odd one out? 1) Kerala & Bihar 2) Bihar & Karnataka 3) Rajasthan & Kerala 4) Karnataka & Rajasthan

(IIFT 2007)

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ DIRECTIONS for Questions 115 to 118: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:

115.

University 1 can belong to : 1) UK 2) Canada

3) Netherlands

4) USA

116.

To which country does University 5 belong? 1) India or Netherlands but not USA 2) India or USA but not Netherlands 3) Netherlands or USA but not India 4) India or USA but not UK

117.

Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh‘s homepage in the three days? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

118.

Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities? 1) None 2) Only UK 3) Only India 4) Both India and UK

(CAT 2004)(Understanding)(Medium) DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of the following table. Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by the name of the country. We now wish to merge the regionwise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

119.

In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines? 1) 32 2) 33 3) 34 4) 35

120.

In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan? ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) 9 2) 8 3) 7 4) 6 121. 122.

In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th? 1) South Africa 2) Brazil 3) Turkey 4) Venezuela In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower than every country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa? 1) 8 2) 7 3) 6 4) 5

Answer questions 123 to 127 on the basis of the information given below. A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes. The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs. 14 (i.e. Rs. 9 + Rs. 5) plus the toll charged at junction A. 123.

If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the same amount (fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is: 1) 2, 5, 3, 2 2) 0, 5, 3, 1 3) 1, 5, 3, 2 4) 2, 3, 5, 1 5) 1, 3, 5, 1

124.

If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is: 1) 1, 5, 3, 3 2) 1, 4, 4, 3 3) 1, 5, 4, 2 4) 0, 5, 2, 3 5) 0, 5, 2, 2 125.

If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is: 1) 0, 5, 2, 2 2) 0, 5, 4, 1 3) 1, 5, 3, 3 4) 1, 5, 3, 2 5) 1, 5, 4, 2

126.

If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is: 1) 0, 5, 4, 1 2) 0, 5, 2, 2 3) 1, 5, 3, 3 4) 1, 5, 3, 2 5) 0, 4, 3, 2

127.

The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be: 1) Rs. 7 2) Rs. 9 3) Rs. 10 4) Rs. 13 5) Rs. 14

(CAT 2006) (Easy) Answer Questions 128 to 131 on the basis of the information given below: In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 offirst round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. I of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No, 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well. Seed # 1 2 3 4

Name of Player Maria Sharapova Lindsay Davenport Amelie Mauresmo Kim Clijsters

Seed # 12 13 14 15

Name of Player Mary Pierce

Seed #

Anastasia Myskina Alicia Molik

24

Nathalie Dechy

26

23

25

Name of Player Silvia Farina Elia Tatiana Golovin Shinobu Asagoe Francesca Schiavone

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 5 Svetlana 16 Elena 27 Nicole Kuznetsova Bovina Vaidisova 6 Elena 17 Jelena 28 Gisela Dementieva Jankovic Dulko 7 Justine 18 Ana 29 Flavia Henin Ivanovic Pennetta 8 Serena 19 Vera 30 Anna Williams Zvonareva Chakvetadz e 9 NadiaPetrov 20 Elena 31 Ai Sugiyama a Likhovtseva 10 Venus 21 Daniela 32 Anna-lena Williams Hantuchova Groenefeld 11 Patty Schnyder 22 Dinara Safina

128.

If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals? 1) Justine Henin 2) Nadia Petrova 3) Patty Schnyder 4) Venus Williams

129.

If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semifinals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals? 1) Dinara Safina 2) Justine Henin 3) Nadia Petrova 4) Patty Schnyder

130.

If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals? 1) Anastasia Myskina 2) Flavia Pennetta 3) Nadia Petrova 4) Svetlana Kuznetsova

131.

If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final? 1) Amelie Mauresmo 2) Elena Dementieva 3) Kim Clijsters 4) Lindsay Davenport

(CAT 2005) (Medium) DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information. Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/ her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key. The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

132.

Which one among the following must have two sources? 1) A 2) B 3) C

4) D

133.

How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

134.

Both G and H were sources to 1) F 2) B nine.

3) I

4) None of the

135.

Which of the following statements is true? 1) C introduced the wrong answer to question 27. 2) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46. 3) F introduced the wrong answer to question 14. 4) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46.

136.

Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources? (I) A, D and G (II) E and H 1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Neither (I) nor (II) 4) Both (I) and (II)

(CAT 2003)(Understanding)(Tree) (Medium)

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Directions for Questions 137 to 140: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product. The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions.

137.

What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007? 1) 104 2) 107 3) 110 4) 115 5) 116

138.

What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss? 1) 313 2) 350 3) 384 4) 747 5) 928

139.

Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs. 5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn? 1) 25,400 2) 24,400 3) 31,400 4) 32,900 5) 32,000

140.

If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit? 1) 1400 2) 1600 3) 1800 4) 1900 5) 2000

(CAT 2007) ( Profit & Loss) (medium)

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Directions for Questions 141 to 144: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below. 1 US Dollar

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in

________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 141. The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account? 1) 700 2) 2500 3) 4500 4) 8000 5) No difference 142.

Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India. 1) 23500 2) 40500 3) 57500 4) 67500 5) 75000

143.

A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account? 1) India 2) Thailand 3) Malaysia 4) Singapore 5) USA

144.

Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement? 1) India 2) Thailand 3) Malaysia 4) Singapore 5) India and Singapore

(CAT 2007) ( Understanding) (Calculations) (Medium) Directions for Questions 145 to 149: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

145.

What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J? 1) 2275 2) 2850 3) 2890 4) 2930 5) 3340

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 146.

The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight? 1) 1991 2) 2161 3) 2707 4) 2745 5) 2783

147.

If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J? 1) 2275 2) 2615 3) 2850 4) 2945 5) 3190

148.

If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J? 1) 0.77 2) 0.88 3) 0.99 4) 1.06 5) 1.08

149.

If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company? 1) 2170 2) 2180 3) 2315 4) 2350 5) 2390

(CAT 2007) ( Understanding) (Calculations) (Medium) Answer Questions 150 to 153 on the basis of the information given below: The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order. States UP Bihar MP

Firm A 49 69 72

Firm B 82 72 63

Firm C 80 70 72

Firm D 55 65 65

Further, it is known that: In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share. Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million. 150.

What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market. Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd. 1) 2) 3) 4)

151.

If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true. Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.

What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar. 1) 2) 3) 4) 152.

What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market. Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market. 1) 2) 3) 4)

153.

If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false. If Statement 1 is false then Statement 2 is necessarily true. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true. None of the above.

Both statements could be true. At least one of the statements must be true. At most one of the statements is true. None of the above

If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true? 1) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP. 2) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar. 3) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from UP. 4) No definite conclusion is possible.

(CAT 2005)(Understanding) (Difficult)

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention lo host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC. ● In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event. ● A member is allowed to east votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting). ● A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting. ● As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting. ● The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

Round

Total votes cast

1 2 3

83 75

Maximum votes cast City No, of votes London 30 Paris 32

Eliminated City No. of votes New York 12 Beijing 21

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ It is also known that: All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well. Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2. The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1. 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3. 154.

What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round I, voted for Beijing in round 2? 1) 33.33 2) 50 3) 66067 4) 75

155.

What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1? 1) 16 2) 18 3) 22

4) 24

156.

What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London? 1) 33.33 2) 38.10 3) 50 4) 66067

157.

Which of the following statements must be true? a. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2. b. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3. 1) Only a 2) Only b 3) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b

(CAT 2005)(Understanding) (Difficult)

Directions for questions 158 to 160: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.

________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 158. In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate? 1) Financial 2) Scams 3) Products 4) None of these 62. In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as compared to June 2003 1) was larger. 2) was smaller. 3) was equal. 4) Cannot be determined 63. In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to March 2003 1) was larger. 2) was smaller. 3) was equal. 4) Cannot be determined (CAT 2003)(Understanding & Percentage)(Medium)

Directions for questions 64 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002-July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

64.

How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., how often did the total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified? 1) 0

2) 1

3) 2

4) 3 65.

Which of the following is true? 1) The second round issues have a higher maturity than the first round for all dates. 2) The second round issue of any date has a lower maturity only when the first round notified amount exceeds that of the second round.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 3) On at least one occasion, the second round issue having lower maturity received a higher number of competitive bids. 4) None of the above three statements is true. 66.

Which of the following statements is NOT true? 1) Competitive bids received always exceed non-competitive bids received. 2) The number of competitive bids accepted does not always exceed the number of non-competitive bids accepted. 3) The value of competitive bids accepted on any particular date is never higher for higher maturity. 4) The value of non-competitive bids accepted in the first round is always greater than that in the second round.

(CAT 2003)

DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of the data presented in the figure below.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

136.

Which of the following statements is correct? 1) November rainfall exceeds 100 cm in each location. 2) September rainfall exceeds 50 cm in each location. 3) March rainfall is lower than September rainfall in each location. 4) None of the above.

137.

Locations 6 and 7 differ from all the rest because only in these two locations, 1) April rainfall exceeds March rainfall. 2) Peak rainfall occurs in April. 3) November rainfall is lower than March rainfall. 4) April rainfall is less than 20 cm.

(CAT 2003)

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of following information. In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score 1, the next three into Score 2, and the last three into Score 3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table given below gives the scores and performance of nineteen top athletes in this event.

138.

The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 x 100 m relay race for their respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team? 1) 0.18

2) 0.28

3) 0.78

4)

0.00 ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 139. What is the least that Daley Thompson must get in Score 2 that ensures him a bronze medal? 1) 5309

2) 5296

3) 5271

4)

5270 140.

At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith have out-jumped in the long jump event? 1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4 (CAT 2003)

DIRECTIONS for questions 109 to 114: Answer these questions based on the two graphs shown below. Figure 1 shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software between offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore activities in the same company during the same period. [Note: Onsite refers to work performed at the customer's premise and offshore refers to work performed at the developer's premise.]

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________

109.

Which of the work requires as many man-hours as that spent in coding? 1) Offshore, design and coding

2) Offshore coding

3) Testing

4) Offshore, testing and

coding 110.

Roughly what percentage of the total work is carried out onsite? 1) 40 percent

111.

2) 20 percent

3) 30 percent

4) 50 percent

The total effort in man-hours spent onsite is nearest to which of the following? 1) The sum of the estimated and actual effort for offshore design 2) The estimated man-hours of offshore coding 3) The actual man-hours of offshore testing 4) Half of the man-hours of estimated offshore coding

112.

If the total working hours were 100, which of the following tasks will account for

approximately 50 hours? 1) Coding

2) Design

3) Offshore testing

4) Offshore testing plus design

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 113. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, the proportion of testing carried out offshore would be _________. 1) 40 percent 114.

2) 30 percent

3) 50 percent

4) 70 percent

If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, which of the following is true of all work carried out onsite? 1) The amount of coding done is greater than that of testing. 2) The amount of coding done onsite is less than that of design done onsite. 3) The amount of design carried out onsite is greater than that of testing. 4) The amount of testing carried out offshore is greater than that of total design.

(CAT 2001)(Time & work)

DIRECTIONS : Answer these questions with reference to the table given below. Information Technology Industry in India (Figure are in million US dollars)

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 126. The total annual exports lay between 35 and 40 percent of the total annual business of the IT industry, in years

127.

1) 1997-98 & 1994-95

2) 1996-97 & 1997-98

3) 1996-97 & 1998-99

4) 1996-97 & 1994-95

The highest percentage growth in the total IT business, relative to the previous year was achieved in 1) 1995-96

2) 1996-97

3) 1997-98

4) 1998-99 128.

Which one of the following statements is correct? 1) The annual software exports steadily increased but annual hardware exports steadily declined during 1994-1999. 2) The annual peripheral exports steadily increased during 1994-1999. 3) The total IT business in training during 1994-1999 was higher than the total IT

business in maintenance during the same period. 4) None of the above statements is true.

DIRECTIONS: For any activity, A, year X dominates year Y if IT business in activity A, in the year X, is greater than the IT business, in activity A, in the year Y. For any two IT business activities, A & B, year X dominates year Y if i. the IT business in activity A, in the year X, is greater than or equal to the IT business, in activity A in the year Y, ii. the IT business in activity B, in the year X, is greater than or equal to the IT business in activity B in the year Y and iii. there should be strict inequality in the case of at least one activity.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 129.

130.

For the IT hardware business activity, which one of the following is not true? 1) 1997-98 dominates 1996-97

2) 1997-98 dominates 1995-96

3) 1995-96 dominates 1998-99

4) 1998-99 dominates 1996-97

For the two IT business activities, hardware and peripherals, which one of the following is true? 1) 1996-97 dominates 1995-96

2) 1998-99 dominates 1995-96

3) 1997-98 dominates 1998-99

4) None of these

(CAT 2000)(Understanding)(Percentage)

Direction for Question No.64-65: In the diagram below, the circle stands for ‘educated‘, square stands for ‘hard working‘, triangle for ‘urban people‘ and rectangle for ‘honest‘. The different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions:

64.

Uneducated urban hard-working and honest people are indicated by: 1) 3

65.

2) 11

3) 9

4) 4

Non-urban educated people who are neither hard-working nor honest are indicated

by: 1) 5

2) 7

3) 10

4) 11

(SNAP 2008)( Understanding)(Venn diagram) ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ Directions for Questions No.131-134: Study the following chart carefully and answer.

131.

From the failure data of electronics components presented here, which statement is

true? 1) Integrated circuits and Printed circuit boards are more reliable. 2) Capacitors are more reliable than pictures tubes. 3) Higher number of components failures is likely to be due to pictures tubes. 4) The least reliable component is Hybrid Micro circuits. 132.

Which of the following components has a failure rate 25% more than that of signal

devices 1) Pictures tubes 2) Capacitors 3) Integrated circuits 4) Printed Circuits boards. 133.

Lowest priority for investing in any changes or additions to the component

manufacturing

units, in the company's investment plans, may be given to the

following: 1) Printed circuits boards and hybrid micro circuits. ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 2) Capacitors and integrated circuits. 3) Pictures tubes and signal devices 4) Signal devices and capacitors 134.

For the equipments using Integrated Circuit Board: 400, Capacitors: 240 and Printed

Circuits

boards: 120 to run with minimum downtime, how many spares should be kept

in the store

respectively?

1) 12, 4, 3

2) 12, 5, 4

3) 5, 12, 4

4) 12, 4, 4

(SNAP 2008)( Understanding)(Percentage)

Directions for Question Nos. 66 – 67: These questions are based on the graph which shows the demand and production statistics of 5 T.V. companies

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 66. What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of the five

companies taken together? 1) 1400

67.

2) 400

3) 280

4) 138

The production of the company D is how many times of the production of the

company A? 1) 1.8

2) 1.5

3) 2.5

4) 1.11

(SNAP 2009)(Understanding) (Average)

Questions 128 to 131 are based on the following table:

128.

Which region has the highest installed capacity by the Central sector as compared to

the

State sector?

129.

1) Northern Region

2) Southern Region

3) Eastern Region

4) North Eastern Region

What is the percentage of Nuclear Power in total installed capacity in the country? 1) 2.74

130.

2) 2.81

3) 2.51

4) 2.63

In any sector, across the regions, the highest contribution from any one of the three

sources

to the total installed capacity is

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) 79% 2) 78% 3) 89% 4) 98% 131.

Hydro power is the major source of energy in 1) Northern and Southern Regions

2) Eastern and Western Regions

3) Southern and North Eastern Region

4) None of the above

(JMET 2006)

Directions: Questions 110 to 113 relate to the AIRCRAFT PURCHASE problem given below: India's national airline 'INDIAN' is considering purchase of new aircraft to meet an estimated demand of 4600 seats. The table below presents the relevant data.

It has planned to buy three B777’s and five A321’s for every B747.

110.

111.

How many of each aircraft should the company purchase? 1) B747 = 2; B777 = 6; A321 = 10

2) B747 = 4; B777 = 6; A321 = 6

3) B747 = 3; B777 = 8; A321 = 5

4) B747 = 1; B777 = 6; A321 = 12

However, INDIAN’s budget is limited to $2000 million for this purchase. Given this

constraint,

it is willing to be flexible on the proportion of aircraft types to be purchased.

How many

aircraft should it purchase such that both budget utilization and meeting the

estimated seat

112.

demand are simultaneously maximized?

1) B747 = 2; B777 = 4; A321 = 9

2) B747 = 2; B777 = 6; A321 = 6

3) B747 = 2; B777 = 5; A321 = 7

4) B747 = 1; B777 = 5; A321 = 10

How many different alternatives for aircraft purchase are possible for full use of the

budget? ________________________________________________________________________ _

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) 5 2) 6 3) 3 4) None of these 113.

If a deviation of at most $50 million below the budget is permitted, how many

additional

alternatives for aircraft purchase are possible?

1) 5

2) 3

3) 4

4) None of these

(JMET 2008)

Directions: Questions 114 to 116 relate to the HOSPITAL SERVICES SURVEY given below: You have conducted a survey among patients in a large hospital and developed a 'Dissatisfaction Index' (DI) for: (a) Patients who are waiting for consultation with doctors, DIwc, and (b) Patients who are in consultation with the doctors, DIic. Consider that there are only two patients in the system. At time t = 0, one goes in for consultation, and the other begins waiting. Using the survey data, you have developed the following two mathematical models for representing the dissatisfaction among the two patients as a function of time 't': DIwc = (t2/75) + 0.1 × t DIic = 10 − 0.5 × t 114.

What is the optimal time 't' (in minutes) that a doctor should spend offering

consultation to

the patient such that the total dissatisfaction of the two patients is

minimized? The two indices are additive. 1) 12.75 min 115.

(3) 15 min

4) 10 min

What is the value of the total dissatisfaction index at this point? 1) 7

116.

2) 0 min

2) 7.07

3) 10

4) 7.33

At what point of time will a patient waiting for consultation have the same DI as a

patient in

consultation?

1) approx. 15 min

2) approx. 12.75 min

3) approx. 10 min

4) approx. 7.5 min

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ (JMET 2008) Directions: Questions 118 to 120 relate to the EXCHANGE RATES problem given below: The official 'Buy' and 'Sell' exchange rates for the US $, UK £, and EU f. with reference to the Indian INR are presented in the table below:

Your local bank agrees to sell $ 0.023 or £ 0.012 or € 0.015 for INR 1.

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 118. You wish to buy foreign currency with INR 1 lakh. Based on the values of each foreign

currency you will receive from the bank, arrange them in the descending

order? (Please

note: 1/42 = 0.023; 1/79 = 0.012; 1/62 = 0.015)

1) $ > € > £ 119.

2) € > £ > $

3) £ > € > $

4) All are equal

When you buy foreign currency from your local bank, it will levy a transaction fee

equivalent

of INR 500 and an additional INR 500 to deliver the exchanged money to the

branch of your

choice. This total amount of INR 1000 will be deducted from the

foreign currency payable to

you. At the airport, the money changer is willing to offer $

0.022 for INR 1. What in the range

of values of INR that can be exchanged for buying the

$ which will get you a better deal at the airport than the bank?

120.

1) INR 0 to 1000

2) INR 1000 to 23000

3) INR 0 to 23000

4) INR > 23000

The £ to € 'Buy' rate is £ 1 = € 1.222. Using the INR as the reference currency,

determine by what percentage this 'Buy' rate should change such that there is no arbitrage (or, differences

among the three pair wise exchange rates) across the three

currencies? 1) approx. 5%

2) approx. 36%

3) approx. 4.25%

4) approx. 35.75%

(JMET 2008) ( Understanding) ( Calculation)

Directions: Questions 127 to 132 are based on the information given below: A departmental store reported the following sales data (in million Rs.) for a particular week:

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ The Average Value of a Transaction (AVT) in Rs. and the Time Taken per Transaction (TpT) in seconds is given in the figure below:

Note: The store assigns one salesperson in a section for every 400 minutes of transaction time.

127.

128.

129.

130.

The section reporting the highest transaction time on Sunday is 1) Grocery

2) Confectionary

3) Personal Products

4) None of the above

The section with the highest number of transactions on Sunday is 1) Grocery

2) Confectionary

3) Personal Products

4) None of the above

The total sales of all the sections put together is the same on 1) Monday and Tuesday

2) Tuesday and Wednesday

3) Wednesday and Thursday

4) Thursday and Friday

The ratio of sales on the week-end (Saturday and Sunday) to total sales is nearly 1) 1 : 2.34

131.

2) 1 : 3.43

3) 1 : 4.48

4) 1 : 5.51

The section requiring the maximum number of salespersons on Saturday is 1) Grocery

2) Confectionary

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 3) Personal Products 4) None of the above 132.

The ratio of salespersons required in the Appliances section on Monday to the

salespersons required in the same section on Sunday is approximately 1) 1 : 0.50

2) 1 : 1.45

3) 1 : 1.65

4) 1 : 1.95

(JMET 208) (Understanding) ( Simple Percentage)

Direction: Questions 116 - 120 are based on the following graph:

Number of Out of School Children in Different Regions of the World from 2001 to 2006

116.

Which of the following is FALSE: 1) The number of children out of school in West and Central Africa has increased

over the years 2) The number of children out of school in South Asia has come down over the years 3) The number of children out of school in the Middle East and North Africa region has

increased over the years 4) None of the above

117.

Which of the following is TRUE:

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 1) Over the years the largest number of out of school children have been in Eastern and South

African region

2) The smallest number of out of school children have been in the East Asia and Pacific region over the years 3) Over the years, the largest number of out of school children has been in the South Asian region 4) None of the above 118.

The ratio of out of school children in South Asia to those in West and Central Africa

from 2001

to 2006 has become

1) higher

2) approximately half

3) marginally lower

4) None of the above

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Career Café CAT * MAT * CSAT * GRE * GMAT _________________________________________________________________________ 119. From 2001 to 2003, which of the following options CANNOT be deduced from the graph? 1) Overall, the out of school children have gone up 2) In West and Central Africa the numbers of out of school children have remained almost the

same over three years

3) The largest number of out of school children are in South Asia 4) None of the above 120.

The total number of children who did not go to school 1) increased from 1,12,000 to 1,20,100 from 2001 to 2006 2) was over 120,000 in 2004 3) peaked in 2003 4) cannot be estimated from the above graph

(JMET 2009)

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