CV Exam - Question Bank

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION

CAD CAM

1. With incremental tool positioning, ____. a) each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position b) all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin c) all tool movement is measured from a zero point d) No tool Movement

2. The point-to-point NC movement system ____. a) permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time b) is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position c) precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes d) All the answers

3. When the contour or continuous path system is used, ____. a) tool travel is controlled along one axis at a time b) machine and tool movements are precisely controlled at all times and in all planes c) tool movement from one point to the next does not have to follow a specific path d) No movement of tool

4. A point-to-point NC movement system ____. a) is typically used for drilling, punching, and spot welding. b) is used for operations at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position

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c) tool movement from one position to the next does not have to follow a specific path d) All of the answers

5. Servo motors are ____. a) activated by pulses of current b) provide power to position the work c) connected to the lead and feed screws d) All of the answers

6. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in: a) Design b) Drafting c) Manufacturing d) All of the answers

7. The screen is scanned from left to right, top to bottom all the time to generate graphics by a) Raster scan b) Random scan c) Vector scan d) All of the answers

8. The method which used either delta x or delta y, whichever is larger, is chosen as one raster unit to draw the line -the algorithm is called? a) Bresenham’s Line Algorithm b) DDA Line Algorithm c) Mid point Line Algorithm d) All of the answers

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9. Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines a) Bresenham’s Line Algorithm b) DDA Line Algorithm c) FFTW Line Algorithm d) Line clipping Algorithm

10. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be a) (7.5, 5) b) (10, 5) c) (7.5, -5) d) (10, -5)

11. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be a) Circular Interpolation - clockwise b) Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise c) Linear Interpolation d) Rapid feed

12. The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by: a) Control points b) Knots c) End points d) All of the answers

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13. The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors: a) Increases with knot vectors b) Decreases with knot vectors c) Remains constant d) No influence with knot vectors

14. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT language? 1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion of space does not affect the APT word Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1and 3 d) 1 alone

15. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2) along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The correct G and M code for this motion is a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0 b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0 c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0 d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

16. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control a) spindle position b) table velocity c) spindle speed

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d) coolant flow

17. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with 10mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30), (50,30), and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter will be a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55, -5), (-5, -5) b) (0, -5), (55, -5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5, -5) c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25),

(45, 5), (5, 5) (5, 25), (5, 5)

18. Consider the following characteristics: 1. Single machine tool 2. Manual materials handling system 3. Computer control 4. Random sequencing of parts to machines Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing system? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 3 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4

19. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits. Which is NOT a reported benefit of FMS? a) Lead time and throughput time reduction b) Increased quality c) More flexible than the manufacturing systems they replace d) Increased utilisation

20. Which materials-processing technology gives the advantage of precision, accuracy and optimum use of cutting tools, which maximise their life and higher labour productivity?

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a) Industrial robots b) Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) c) Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM) d) NC (and CNC) machine tools

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CAD CAM

1. When absolute tool positioning is used, ____. a) a mistake in dimensioning an individual point does not affect remaining dimensions b) all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin c) it is easier to check for errors d) All the answers

2. A straight-cut system ____. a) permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time b) is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position c) precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes d) permits controlled tool travel along three axis at a time

3. A point-to-point NC movement system ____. a) is typically used for drilling, punching, and spot welding. b) is used for operations at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position c) tool movement from one position to the next does not have to follow a specific path d) All of the answers

4. With contour or continuous path NC movement system, ____. a) cutter size and other variables must be considered when the program is prepared b) cutter location is monitored continuously c) cutting is continuous and can be in six axes simultaneously d) All of the answers

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5. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in: a) Design b) Drafting c) Manufacturing d) All of the answers

6. The method which used either delta x or delta y, whichever is larger, is chosen as one raster unit to draw the line -the algorithm is called? a) Bresenham’s Line Algorithm b) DDA Line Algorithm c) Mid point Line Algorithm d) All of the answers

7. Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm a) Back-Face Culling b) Depth Buffer c) Painter’s Algorithm d) FFTW Line Algorithm

8. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be a) (7.5, 5) b) (10, 5) c) (7.5, -5) d) (10, -5)

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9. Which of the following hidden surface removal algorithms potentially causes a bottleneck in the Graphics Pipeline? a) Back-Face Culling b) Depth Buffer c) Painter’s Algorithm d) All of the answers

10. For the following question, consider the line which starts at location (5, 14) and ends at position (21, 2).How many pixels will there be in this line? a) 12 b) 16 c) 20 d) 24

11. For the following question, consider the line which starts at location (5, 14) and ends at position (21, 2).Which is the primary direction? a) X b) Y c) Z d) All of the answers

12. With the DDA algorithm, what will be the amount (amt in notes) added to the secondary component each time through the loop a) 1/2 b) -3/4 c) 3/4 d) -4/3

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13. The computerized technology that is used to design parts is known as: a) CIM b) CAD c) CAM d) All of the answers

14. IGES stands for a) Initial Graphics Exchange System b) Initial Graphics Exchange Software c) Initial Graphic Exchange Solution d) Initial Graphics Exchange Specification

15. Group technology and CAPP are the activities of a) Computer Aided Engineering b) Computer Aided Manufacturing c) Computer Integrated Manufacturing d) Flexible manufacturing

16. Computer Integrated Manufacturing deals with a) Design and business functions b) Design activities only c) Design, Manufacturing and business functions d) Manufacturing and business functions

17. B-Rep is a methods of ____________ a) Solid modeling b) Surface modeling 10

c) Wire frame modeling d) 2D modeling

18. A system permitting the manufacture of large quantities of identical goods using repetitive actions by people or machines is called: a) manufacturing. b) operations. c) mass production. d) assembly line.

19. An approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in order to minimize inventories is called: a) JIT. b) MRP. c) CAD. d) CAM.

20. In which of the following machining manual part programming is done? a) CNC machining b) NC machining c) DNC machining d) FMS machining

21. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10,10) whileperforming an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation? a) N010G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 b) N010G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

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c) N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 d) N010G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

22. What are the main components of an NC machine? 1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only

23. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT language? 1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion of space does not affect the APT word Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1and 3 d) 1 alone

24. Which of the following are valid statements for point to point motion of the tool in APT language? 1. GOTO/............ 2. GO DLTA/............ 3. GO/TO, ………. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 12

d) 1, 2 and 3

25. In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental coordinate mode is addressed as a) GO/TO/..... b) GO/TO..... c) GO DLTA/.... d) GO FWD/ ...

26. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2) along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The correct G and M code for this motion is a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0 b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0 c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0 d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

27. In a point to point control NC machine, the slides are positioned by an integrally mounted stepper motor drive. If the specification of the motor is 1degree/pulse, and the pitch of the lead screw is 3.6 mm, what is the expected positioning accuracy? a) 1μm b) 10μm c) 50μm d) 100μm

28. In a point-to-point type of NC system a) control of position and velocity of the tool is essential b) control of only position of the tool is sufficient c) control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient

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d) neither position nor velocity need be controlled

29. A 'block' of information in N.C. machine program means a) one row on tape b) a word comprising several rows on tape c) one complete instruction d) one complete program for a job

30. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control a) spindle position b) table velocity c) spindle speed d) coolant flow

31. Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a CNC machine? a) Loading/unloading of jobs on machine b) Loading/unloading of tools from the tool changer c) Axes of machine for contouring d) Coolant and miscellaneous functions on machine

32. Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by a) synchronous motors b) induction motors c) stepper motors d) servo-motors.

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33. Which type of motor is NOT used in axis or spindle drives of CNC machine tools? a) induction motor b) dc servo motor c) stepper motor d) linear servo motor

34. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be a) circular Interpolation – clockwise b) circular Interpolation - counter clockwise c) linear Interpolation d) rapid feed

35. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with 10mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30), (50,30), and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter will be a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55, -5), (-5, -5) b) (0, -5), (55, -5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5, -5) c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25),

(45, 5), (5, 5)

d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25),

(5, 25), (5, 5)

36. Flexible manufacturing allows for: a) tool design and production b) automated design c) quick and inexpensive product change d) quality control

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37. Consider the following characteristics: 1. Single machine tool 2. Manual materials handling system 3. Computer control 4. Random sequencing of parts to machines Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing system? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 3 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4

38. In which machining system, the highest level of automation is found? a) CNC machine tools b) Automatic transfer machines c) Machine tools with electro-hydraulic positioning and control d) DNC machining system

39. Which one of the following is the third basic component of robots besides power supply and control (memory) console? a) Software b) Coaxial cable c) Mechanical unit arm d) Microcomputer

40. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits. Which is NOT a reported benefit of FMS? a) Lead time and throughput time reduction b) Increased quality c) More flexible than the manufacturing systems they replace d) Increased utilisation 16

41. Which materials-processing technology gives the advantage of precision, accuracy and optimum use of cutting tools, which maximise their life and higher labour productivity? a) Industrial robots b) Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) c) Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM) d) NC (and CNC) machine tools

42. What do Flexible Manufacturing systems (FMS) do? a) Moves and manipulates products, parts or tolls b) Co-ordinates the whole process of manufacturing and manufactures a part, component or product c) Moves materials between operations d) Completely manufactures a range of components without significant human intervention during the processing

43. Technology that is peripheral to the actual creation of goods and services is sometimes called: a) Direct process technology b) Indirect process technology c) Focused process technology d) Complementary process technology

44. Which of the following is not true of computer numerically controlled (CNC) machines? a) They can ‘learn’ from process errors. b) They can eliminate operator error. c) They can give better productivity to the process. d) They give more accuracy and precision to the process.

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45. What is the name of a system which brings together several technologies into a coherent system? a) Focused integration systems b) Portable manufacturing systems c) Flexible manufacturing systems d) Automated integration systems

46. Which of the following process technologies is associated with low volume and high variety? a) Flexible manufacturing systems b) Dedicated systems c) Flexible transfer lines d) Computer numerically controlled machines

47. The use of Internet-based technology, either to support existing business processes or to create entirely new business opportunities, has become known as what? a) E-process management b) E-business c) E-globalisation d) E-value creation

48. Which type of model is likely to be created with a rapid prototyping system? a) Mathematical model b) Wireframe model c) Surface model d) Scale model

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49. An industrial robot's end effector can be changed to perform different tasks, including which of the following?

a) Spot welding b) Materials handling c) Spray painting d) All of the answers

50. By using CIM to control all phases of manufacturing, firms hope to reap what benefits? a) Increased productivity b) Improved quality c) Enhanced flexibility d) All of the answer

CAD/CAM

1. Each screen point is referred to as ......................... a) Resolution b) Pixel c) Persistence d) Dot Pitch

2. The distance from one pixel to the next pixel is called ........... a) Resolution b) Random scan

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c) Pixmap d) Dot Pitch

3. The region code of a point within the window is ............ a) 1111 b) 0000 c) 1000 d) 0001

4. Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines? a) Bresenham’s Line Algorithm b) DDA Line Algorithm c) FFTW Line Algorithm d) All the answer

5. Which of the following hidden surface removal algorithms potentially causes a bottleneck in the Graphics Pipeline? a) Back-Face Culling b) Depth Buffer c) Painter’s Algorithm d) All the answer

6. Higher persistence phosphorus needs _________ refresh rate. a) Lower b) Higher c) Medium d) None of these

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7. The purpose of refreshing a CRT is .......................... a) To avoid flickering b) To maintain steady picture c) To avoid fading of pixels d) All the answer

8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will actually appear are called a) Transformation viewing b) View port c) Clipping window d) Screen coordinate system

9. Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm? a) Back-Face Culling b) Depth Buffer c) Painter’s Algorithm d) All the answer

10. The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set operations a) Beam penetration b) CSG Method c) Sweep representation d) All the answer

11. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using ................. 21

a) Accelerating anode b) Control grid c) Electron gun d) Focusing anode

12. Memory area holding the intensity information of an image is called .............. a) Refresh buffer b) Font cache c) Picture definition d) Video controller

13. Identify the odd one out from the following a) Vector display b) Raster scan display c) Calligraphic display d) Stroke-writing display

14. Identify different type of computer graphics a) Monochrome and Color b) CRT and Flat panel c) Vector and Raster d) Monitors and Hardcopy devices

15. A bitmap is .............. bit(s) per pixels a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 22

d) 3

16. The basic transformations include a) Translation b) Rotation c) Scaling d) All the answer

17. The transformation in which an object is moved in a minimum distance path from one position to another is called a) Rotation b) Replacement c) Translation d) Scaling

18. The transformation in which an object is moved from one position to another in circular path around a specified pivot point is called a) Rotation b) Shearing c) Translation d) Scaling

19. The transformation that produces a parallel mirror image of an object are called a) Rotation b) Reflection c) Translation d) Scaling

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20. Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as a) Concatenation b) Composition c) both a&b d) only a

21. The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set operations a) CSG method b) B-rep method c) Sweep representation d) All the answer

22. ................... is created by revolution of a circle about an axis lying in its plane. a) Sphere b) Ellipsoid c) Torus d) Cylinder

23. The point about which an object is rotated is called ................... a) Fixed point b) Central point c) Pivot point d) None

24. A surface of revolution is generated by a .................. of a 2D curve. a) Translational sweep

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b) Rotational sweep c) union d) intersection

25. Identify line clipping algorithms from the following a) Cohen- Sutherland algorithm b) Liang-Barsky clipping c) Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl clipping d) All the answer

26. The transformation in which the dimension of an object are changed relative to a specified fixed point is called a) Rotation b) Reflection c) Translation d) Scaling

27. The amount of light emitted by the phosphor coating depends on the? a) Number of electrons striking the screen b) Speed of electrons striking the screen c) Distance from the cathode to the screen d) phosphor coating thickness

28. ........ used to regulate the flow of elections in CRT ? a) Electron gun b) Focusing anode c) Control grid

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d) All the answer

29. The refresh rate below which a picture flicker is ................ a) 25 b) 30 c) 26 d) 50

30. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap on a CRT a) Aspect Ratio b) Resolution c) Brightness d) Pixel

Computer Aided Machine Drawing

1. If a client of yours is having difficulty visualizing a design, what type of drawing would be the easiest to understand? a) Axonometric b) three-view orthographic c) one-view orthographic d) bimetric

2. Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing? a) isometric b) multiview

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c) perspective d) axonometric

3. Which of the following projection methods does not use projectors perpendicular to the projection plane? a) isometric b) orthographic c) oblique d) axonometric

4. A circle will appear on an isometric drawing as a(n) __________ . a) ellipse b) cycloid c) circle d) parabola

5. An axonometric drawing which has two axes divided by equal angles is: a) dimetric b) trimetric c) orthographic d) isometric

6. An axonometric drawing which has all three axes divided by equal angles is: a) bimetric b) trimetric c) orthographic d) isometric

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7. In a trimetric drawing, the relationship of the angle between axes to each other is: a) three are equal b) two are equal c) three are unequal d) none of the answers

8. In an isometric sketch of a cube: a) the frontal face appears in its true shape b) the receding axes are at 45 degrees to the horizontal c) all faces are equally distorted d) only the depth distances must be reduced

9. In isometric drawings: a) Two axes are perpendicular b) True measurements can be made only along or parallel to the isometric axes c) All faces are unequally distorted d) None of the answers

10. In an axonometric drawing, the projection rays are drawn _________ to each other and _______ to the plane of projection. a) parallel.....oblique b) oblique.....parallel c) parallel.....perpendicular d) parallel....parallel

11. One method of drawing an ellipse that represents an isometric pictorial circle is known as:

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a) the box construction method b) the coordinate construction method c) the four-center approximation method d) the offset construction method

12. Non-isometric lines are located and sketched how? a) They are drawn parallel to the isometric axis. b) They are measured using the angle from the multiview. c) They are measured using a non-isometric template. d) They are located by determining the endpoints of the non-isometric line.

13. In an oblique sketch of a cube: a) the frontal face appears in its true shape b) both receding axes are at 30 degrees to the horizontal c) all faces are equally distorted d) the depth distances must be reduced

14. In an oblique drawing, all of the following angles are commonly used for drawing the depth axis, except: a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

15. All of the following are processes (as opposed to input or output) in a manufacturing business except: a) Material b) Planning 29

c) Documenting d) Designing

16. following operations can make use of the CAD database, except: a) Designing b) Marketing c) Producing d) None of the answers

17. What type of sketches are typically used in the refinement stage of the design process? a) isometric b) document c) oblique d) ideation

18. What type of sketch incorporates convergence? a) isometric b) perspective c) oblique d) multiview

19. What type of sketch shows the front in true shape? a) isometric b) perspective c) oblique d) axonometric

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20. What is the major difference(s) between perspective and parallel projection? a) Parallel projection can only be used with objects containing parallel edges. b) Perspective projection gives a more realistic representation of an object. c) Parallel projection is equivalent to a perspective projection where the viewer is standing infinitely far away. d) Perspective projection and Parallel projection where the viewer is standing infinitely far away gives a more realistic representation of an object.

21. Which statement(s) is true about the precedence of lines? a) a hidden line has precedence over a center line b) a center line has precedence over a visible line c) a visible line has precedence over a miter line d) all of the answers

22. Which of the following is typically represented in a drawing but does not have a true physical counterpart on the object? a) edge of planar surface b) edge of a circular face c) corner of a rectangle d) limiting element of a curved surface

23. A cutting plane normal to a face of a cube has to be ___________ in order to cut an oblique face. a) rotated about one axis b) rotated about one axis and translated c) rotated about two axes d) rotated about two axes and translated

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24. The difference between the removed and revolved sections is a) the view in both sections is shown on the same view b) the view in both sections is made seperatly c) in removed section a view is made outside in main view but incase of revolved,the view is made in between the main view d) none of the answers

25. The difference between Full and Half section is as follows a) In full section quarter portion is removed and in half section half portion is removed b) In half section quarter portion is removed and in quarter section half portion is removed c) all the answers d) none of the answers

26. the hatching between two meshing surfaces is a) in the same direction b) in the opposite direction c) not specified d) all the answers

27. which statement is true for a cutting plane a) it is always a straight line b) its axis depends on shape of the object c) it is always in the centre of the object d) it makes an angle with the object axis

28. broken outsection is used to show

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a) external and internal details for entire length b) very long object c) external and internal details for a portion of length d) small objects shown broken

29. Hacthing means a) lines at regular interval b) repeated pattern at regular interval c) repeated pattern at regular interval in a boundary d) solid filledup area

30. pattern to be used for sectioning of Cast iron a) ANSI 31 b) ANSI 32 c) ANSI 33 d) ANSI 34

31. Value of an angle equal to zero for ANSI 31 pattern will draw lines at a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 135 degrees

32. Auxiliary view is drawn to show a) an inclined surface b) complicated surfaces c) actual shape of surface which otherwise is illusive 33

d) big parts

33. A skew surface is a) twisted b) bent and twisted c) inclined to any two orthogonal planes d) inclined to all principal planes

34. Auxiliarey view is drawn a) opposite to front view b) parallel to inclined plane c) opposite to tpo view d) on the other side of side view

35. Command to draw conveniently many construction lines at a specified angle is a) XLINE b) LINE c) PARLINE d) ALINE

36. Side view of a threaded member is drawn as a) semi-circle b) full circle c) three quarter circle d) slightly more than three quarter circle

37. types of threads used on a pipe are 34

a) tapered b) parallel c) square d) knukle

38. A typical set of mechanical drawing includes a) exploded assembly b) part details c) parts list d) all the answers

39. The angle between flamks of a metric thread is a) 60 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 75 degrees d) 55 degrees

40. In isometric projection the three edges of an object are inclined to eachother at a) 60 degrees b) 120 degrees c) 100 degrees d) 90 degrees

41. the number of cotters used in an assembly of cotter and sleeve joint are a) 1 b) 5 c) 4 35

d) 2

42. A square lamina in isometric projection appears as a) rhombus b) rectangle c) trapezium d) parallelogram

43. Which one among the following represents a permanant fastner a) Nut b) Rivet c) Screw d) Bolt

44. the convexity provided on the rim of the solid web cast iron is called a) Bending b) Curving c) Crowning d) Riveting

45. The isometric view of a sphere is always a) a circle b) an ellipse c) a parabola d) a semicircle

46. In isometric method the four center method is used to construct 36

a) an ellipse b) a square c) a rectangle d) a triangle

47. A foot step bearing is a a) journal bearing b) thrust bearing c) pivot bearing d) pedestal bearing

48. The profile of gear teeth is in the form of a) parabola b) involute c) spiral d) helix

49. The curve generated by a point on the circumference of a circle,which rolls without slipping along outside of another circle is a) Hypocycloid b) epicycloid c) cycloid d) trochoid

50. If an object lies in the third quardant , its position with respect to reference planes will be a) infront of V.P,above H.P b) behind V.P,above H.P

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c) behind V.P,below H.P d) infront of V.P,below H.P

Computer Aided Machine Drawing

1. The Press-Pull tool will ________ the face of a solid model in the direction it faces. a) taper b) extrude c) spiral d) circular

2. The MASSPROP shortcut will provide the following information a) mass b) volume c) bounding box d) all the answers

3. CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________. a) size and shape of the model features b) perspective of the model c) shading used to render the model d) colouring

4. The Conceptual Visual Style tool is located on the ________ toolbar. a) Visual Styles b) Modify

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c) 3D-Modelling d) optimize

5. The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid. a) 0,0,0 b) 10,10,10 c) 20,20,20 d) -10,-10,-10

6. In perspective drawings this is placed between the observer and the object: a) Vanishing point / horizon b) station point c) ground line d) Plane of projection / picture plane

7. If a designer is developing a plan for a project in which the entire part is made out of ¾" thick plywood and he only wants to use one view, he should use the ________ view. a) front b) top c) right d) back

8. Architectural drawings used to construct a house are often plotted with a scale of ¼" = 1'0". What scale is this? a) Quarter b) Half c) Full d) Double 39

9. In multi-view drawing it is common practice to include three views, the front, the top and the right side. If no dimensions are required on the right side view the drafter can ________. a) leave the view as is b) eliminate the view c) use the left view instead d) none of the answers

10. A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ________. a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 1:4

11. Hidden lines are drawn as a) dashed narrow lines b) dashed wide lines c) long-dashed dotted wide line d) long-dashed diuble dotted wide line

12. Which type of line is part of a dimension? a) break lines b) phantom lines c) extension lines d) cutting plane lines

13. Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?

40

a) DOS b) UNIX c) LINUX d) all the answers

14. What type of sketches are typically used in the refinement stage of the design process? a) isometric b) document c) oblique d) ideation

15. This allows the performance of structures to be analyzed and tested efficiently, accurately, and quickly: a) Computer-aided manufacturing b) computer-aided designm c) computer-aided engineering d) computer-aided prototyping

16. Automation means a) increase productivity b) workers controlling machines c) assisting and replacing humanes by machines d) all the answers

17. the main function of CAD is a) Documentation b) Manufacturing

41

c) curing d) marketing

18. the ultimate solution for the computer aided design and manufacturing problem will be a) LANs b) the microprocessor c) turnkey systems d) development of a more efficient display controller

19. robots are specified by a) control system b) axis of movement c) payload d) all the answers

20. the advantage of implementing CAD is to a) increase quality of design b) expertise in the area of data base manufacturing management c) increase productivity d) improve communication

Design of machine elements

1. A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 15 kN along the weld. The shear strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor of safety is

42

a) 2.4 b) 3.4 c) 4.8 d) 6.8

2. A threaded nut of M16, ISO metric type, having 2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter of 14.701 mm is to be checked for its pitch diameter using two or three numbers of balls or rollers of the following sizes a) Rollers of 2 mm φ b) Balls of 2 mm φ c) Rollers of 1.155 mm φ d) Balls of 1.155 mm φ

3. Square key of side "d/4" each and length l is used to transmit torque "T" from the shaft of diameter "d" to the hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key to be equal to the thickness of the pulley, the average shear stress developed in the key is given by a) 4T/ ld b) 16 T/ ld 2 c) 8T / ld 2 d) 16 T / πd 3

4. A key connecting a flange coupling to a shaft is likely to fail in a) Shear b) Tension c) Torsion d) Bending

5. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

43

a) 10 3 cycles b) 10 4 cycles c) 10 6 cycles d) 10 9 cycles

6. A cylindrical shaft is subjected to an alternating stress of 100 MPa. Fatigue strength to sustain 1000 cycles is 490 MPa. If the corrected endurance strength is 70 MPa, estimated shaft life will be a) 1071 cycles b) 15000 cycles c) 281914 cycles d) 928643 cycles

7. A forged steel link with uniform diameter of 30 mm at the centre is subjected to an axial force that varies from 40 kN in compression to 160 kN in tension. The tensile (Su), yield (Sy,) and corrected endurance (Se) strength of the steel material are 600 MPa, 420 MPa and 240 MPa respectively. The factor of safety against fatigue endurance as per Soderberg’s criterion is a) 1.26 b) 1.37 c) 1.45 d) 2.00

8. The yield strength of a steel shaft is twice its endurance limit. Which of the following torque fluctuation represent the most critical situationaccording to Soderberg criterion? a) -T/2 to +T b) -T to +T c) 0 to +T d) +T/2 to +T

44

9. A thin supercritical pressure vessel of 200 mm diameter and 1 mm thickness is subjected to an internal pressure varying from 4 to 8 MPa. Assume that the yield, ultimate, and endurance strength of material are 600, 800 and 400 MPa respectively. The factor of safety as per Goodman’s relation is a) 2.0 b) 1.6 c) 1.4 d) 1.2

10. A large uniform plate containing a rivet-hole is subjected to uniform uniaxial tension of 95 MPa. width of the plate 10 cm and diameter of the hole =5 mm.The maximum stress in the plate is a) 100 MPa b) 190 Mpa c) 285 Mpa d) None of the answers DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS

1. A special case of ductility which permits materials to be rolled or hammered into thin sheets, is called a) plasticity b) elasticity c) ductility d) malleability

2. The material commonly used for crane hooks is a) cast iron b) wrought iron c) mild steel

45

d) aluminium

3. The effect of key ways on a shaft is to reduce its load carrying capacity and to increase its torsional rigidity. a) True b) False

4. The efficiency of a riveted joint is equal to a) Pt/P b) Ps/P c) Pc/P d) least of Pt, Ps and Pc/P

5. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength ? a) Transverse fillet welded joint b) Parallel fillet welded joint c) Butt welded joint d) all of these

6. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about X-axis.

a) both ends hinged b) both ends fixed c) one end fixed and the other end hinged d) one end fixed and the other end free

46

7. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a a) dun cylinder b) thick cylinder c) solid shaft d) hollow shaft

8. Screws used for power transmission should have a) Low efficiency b) high efficiency c) very fine threads d) strong teeth

9. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated. a) increases b) decreases c) does not change

10. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

11. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is a) less than 50% b) more than 50% c) equal to 50% 47

d) none of these

12. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure relation for dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material. a) elastic strength b) yield strength c) shear strength

13. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of a) bolts and nuts b) studs c) headless taper bolts d) none of these

14. A transmission shaft includes a) counter shaft b) line shaft c) over head shaft d) all of these

15. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking set screw, is called a) castle nut b) jam nut c) ring nut d) sawn nut

16. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of 48

a) maximum size of column to minimum size of column b) width of column to depth of column c) effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column d) effective length of column to width of column

17. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft. a) transmission b) machine

18. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm) a) d = t b) d = 1.6 t c) d = 2 t d) d = 6 t

19. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet hole) a) d b) 1.5 d c) 2 d d) 2.5 d

20. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon a) material of the part b) geometry of the part c) material and geometry of the part 49

d) none of these

21. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility? a) Mild steel b) Copper c) Zinc d) Aluminium

22. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered in order to prevent breakage at the a) head b) shank c) thread d) middle

23. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an axial hole is drilled through the head as far as the threaded portion such that the area of shank becomes equal to the root area of the thread. a) True b) False

24. An open belt drive is used when a) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions b) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions c) shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction d) driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interferring with the driving shaft

50

25. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures is a) socket joint b) nipple joint c) union joint d) spigot and socket joint

26. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member when the maximum shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in simple tension test. a) True b) False

27. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is (where d = Diameter of bolt hole) a) less than 20 d b) greater than 30 d c) between 20 d and 30 d d) equal to inside diameter of pipe

28. Stress concentration is caused due to a) variations in load acting on a member b) variations in properties of materials in a member c) abrupt change of cross-section d) all of these

29. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by a) elastic limit b) Young's modulus 51

c) ultimate tensile strength d) endurance limit

30. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are of identical length and identical weight and are made of the same material. The shaft A is solid and the shaft B is hollow. We can say that a) shaft B is better than shaft A b) shaft A is better than shaft B c) both the shafts are equally good

31. In a flange coupling, the thickness of flanges is taken as one-half the diameter of shaft. a) Agree b) Disagree

32. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads? a) Strength b) Stiffness c) Brittleness d) Toughness

33. Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are slightly offset. a) True b) False

34. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending moment (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is a) 2000 N-m 52

b) 2050 N-m c) 2100 N-m d) 2136 N-m

35. When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the member is a) zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member b) maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member c) zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member d) maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member

36. A screw is specified by its a) major diameter b) minor diameter c) pitch diameter d) pitch

37. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of a) maximum stress to the endurance limit b) nominal stress to the enurance limit c) maximum stress to the nominal stress d) nominal stress to the maximum stress

38. The eye bolts are used for a) transmission of power b) locking devices c) lifting and transporting heavy machines

53

d) absorbing shocks and vibrations

39. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value of the stress which a polished standard specimen can withstand without failure, for infinite number of cycles, when subjected to a) static load b) dynamic load c) static as well as dynamic load d) completely reversed load

40. According to Rankine's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member a) when the maximum shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in a simple tension test b) when the maximum principal stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the elastic limit of the material in a simple tension test c) when the strain energy per unit volume in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain energy at the elastic limit per unit volume as determined from a simple tension test d) when the maximum principal strain in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain at the elastic limit as determined from a simple tension test

41. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected to an eccentric rod by means of a) cotter joint b) knuckle joint c) universal joint d) flange coupling

42. Which of the following formula is used in designing a connecting rod ? a) Euler's formula b) Rankine's formula

54

c) Johnson's straight line formula d) Johnson's parabolic formula

43. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to the ultimate tensile strength is a) 0.20 b) 0.35 c) 0.50 d) 0.65

44. A flange coupling is a type of rigid coupling. a) Correct b) Incorrect

45. The strength of the un-riveted plate (P) per pitch length is equal to a) p.d.σt b) p.t.σt c) (p - d)σt d) (p - d)tσt

46. Two shafts of the same length and material are joined in series. If the ratio of their diameters is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist will be a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16

47. Wahl's stress factor __________ very rapidly as the spring index decreases. 55

a) increases b) decreases

48. For circumferential joint in boilers, the type of joint used is a) butt joint with single cover plate b) butt joint with double cover plate c) lap joint with one ring overlapping the other d) any one of the above

49. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more serious in a) brittle materials b) ductile materials c) brittle as well as ductile materials d) elastic materials

50. For a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing strength are related as a) shear strength is equal to crushing strength b) shear strength is greater than crushing strength c) shear strength is less than crushing strength d) none of the above

51. In a bolt, the plane of shear should be across the threaded portion of the shank. a) Correct b) Incorrect

52. A leaf spring in automobiles is used a) to apply forces 56

b) to measure forces c) to absorb shocks d) to store strain energy

53. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an initial force F. After tightening, a separating force P (P < F) is applied to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the nut. The tension in the both after this is a) F + P b) F - P c) P d) F

54. A shaft coupling should a) be easy to connect or disconnect b) transmit full power of the shaft c) hold the shafts in perfect alignment d) all of these

55. The usual proportion for the width of key is (where d = Diameter of shaft or diameter of hole in the hub) a) d/8 b) d/6 c) d/4 d) d/2

56. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is a) directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the distance of the point from the axis

57

b) directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia c) directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia d) inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia

57. Two concentric helical springs used to provide greater spring force are wound is opposite direction. a) True b) False

58. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld. a) 0.5 times b) equal to c) 2 times d) double

59. The function of the washer is to a) Fill up the axial gap b) provide bearing area c) provide cushioning effect d) absorb shocks and vibrations

60. Which of the following coupling is used to connect two shafts which have both lateral and angular misalignment ? a) Bushed pin type coupling b) Universal coupling c) Oldham coupling d) all of these 58

61. The ends of the leaves of a semi-elliptical leaf spring are made triangular in order to a) obtain variable moment of inertia (I) in each leaf b) permit each leaf to act as a overhanging beam c) have variable bending moment (M) in each leaf d) make M/I constant throughout the length of the leaf

62. An open coiled helical compression spring 'A' of mean diameter 50 mm is subjected to an axial load W. Another spring 'B' of mean diameter 25 mm is similar to spring 'A' in all respects. The deflection of spring 'B' will be __________ as compared to spring 'A'. a) one-eighth b) one-fourth c) one-half d) double

63. When the bolt is very yielding as compared to the connected members, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the a) initial tension b) external load applied c) sum of the initial tension and external load applied d) initial tension or external load, whichever is greater

64. A rivet is specified by a) shank diameter b) length of rivet c) type of head d) length of tail

59

65. A saddle key __________ power through frictional resistance only. a) transmits b) does not transmit

66. Which of the following statement is wrong ? a) The solid length of a spring is the product of total number of coils and the diameter of the wire b) The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire c) The spring stiffness is the load required per unit deflection of the spring d) The pitch of the coil is the axial distance between adjacent coils in the compressed state

67. A bolt is designed on the basis of __________ with a large factor of safety. a) direct tensile stress b) direct compressive stress c) direct bending stress d) direct shear stress

68. A bolt of M 24 x 2 means that a) the pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2 mm b) cross-sectional area of the threads is 24 mm2 c) the nominal diameter of bolt is 24 mm and pitch is 2 mm d) the effective diameter of bolt is 24 mm and there are 2 threads per cm

69. In designing a sleeve coupling, outer diameter of the sleeve is taken as (where d = Diameter of the shaft) a) d + 17 mm b) 2 d + 13 mm c) 2 d + 20 mm 60

d) 3.5 d

70. When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about its axis, the stress induced in the wire material of the spring is a) bending stress only b) a combination of torsional shear stress and bending c) direct shear stress only d) a combination of bending stress and direct shear stress

71. In a marine flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as a) 1.2 d b) 1.6 d c) 2 d d) 2.5 d

72. In the calculation of induced shear stress in helical springs, the Wahl's stress factor is used to take care of a) combined effect of transverse shear stress and bending stress in the wire b) combined effect of bending stress and curvature of the wire c) combined effect of transverse shear stress and curvature of wire d) combined effect of torsional shear stress and transverse shear stress in the wire

73. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a large amount of impact type torque is to be transmitted in both direction of rotation? a) Woodruff key b) Feather key c) Gib-head key d) Tangent key 61

74. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod ? a) The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, if Ixx= 4 Iyy b) If Ixx > 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about Y-axis c) If Ixx < 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about X-axis d) The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section

75. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of a) elastic limit to the working stress b) elastic limit to the yield point c) endurance limit to the working stress d) Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength

76. In a flange coupling, the keys are staggered at __________ along the circumference of the shafts in order to divide the weakening effect caused by key ways. a) 90° b) 135° c) 160° d) 180°

77. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of axles? a) Bending moment only b) Twisting moment only c) Combined bending moment and twisting moments d) Combined action of bending moment, twisting moment and axial thrust

62

78. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as compared to the bolt, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the a) initial tension b) external load applied c) sum of the initial tension and external load applied d) initial tension or external load, whichever is greater

79. A connecting rod should be a) strong in buckling about X-axis b) strong in buckling about Y-axis c) equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis d) any one of the above

80. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually __________ the nominal diameter of the rivet. a) equal to b) less than c) more than

81. According to Indian standards, the diameter of rivet hole is made larger than the basic size of rivet by a) 0.5 mm upto rivet diameter of 24 mm b) 1 mm for rivet diameter from 27 mm to 36 mm c) 2 mm for rivet diameter from 39 mm to 48 mm d) all of the above

82. Which of the following spring is used in mechanical wrist watch? a) Helical compression spring b) Spiral spring 63

c) Torsion spring d) Bellevile spring

83. For a shaft diameter of 100 mm, the number of bolts in a flange coupling should be a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

84. The design of pin of a rocker arm of an I.C. engine is based on a) bearing failure b) shearing failure c) bending failure d) all of these

85. A double strap butt joint (with equal straps) is a) always in single shear b) always in double shear c) either in single shear or double shear d) any one of these

86. The transverse fillet welded joints are designed for a) tensile strength b) compressive strength c) bending strength d) shear strength

64

87. When a helical compression spring is cut into halves, the stiffness of the resulting spring will be a) same b) double c) one-half d) one-fourth

88. An universal coupling is a type of __________ coupling. a) rigid b) flexible

89. A triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal width is to be designed for a boiler shell. The pitch of the rivets in the outer row is double the pitch in the inner row and zig-zag riveting is proposed. Which of the following statement is correct? a) There are four rivets per pitch length, all in double shear b) There are four rivets per pitch length, out of which two are in single shear and two are in double shear c) There are five rivets per pitch length, all in double shear d) There are five rivets per pitch length, out of which four are in double shear and one is in single shear

90. The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called a) margin b) pitch c) back pitch d) diagonal pitch

91. The tension on the slack side of the belt is __________ the tension on the tight side of the belt.

65

a) equal to b) less than c) greater than

92. The railway carriage couplings have a) square threads b) acme threads c) knuckle threads d) buttress threads

93. The diameter of knuckle pin in a knuckle joint is usually taken as (where d = Diameter of the rod) a) 0.5 d b) 0.8 d c) d d) 1.2 d

94. A spring of stiffness 1000 N/m is streteched initially by 100 mm from the undeformed position. The work required to stretch it by another 100 mm is a) 5 N-m b) 7 N-m c) 10 N-m d) 15 N-m

95. A spring is used to a) measure forces b) apply forces c) store energy 66

d) all of these

96. In order to have a connecting rod equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, the moment of inertia about X-axis should be __________ the moment of inertia about Y-axis. a) equal to b) twice c) three times d) four times

97. The acme threads are usually found on a) spindles of bench vices b) railway carriage couplings c) feed mechanism of machine tools d) screw cutting lathes

98. The taper on cotter and slot is made on both the sides. a) Agree b) Disagree

99. A cotter joint is used to connect two __________ rods. a) co-axial b) perpendicular c) parallel

100. The permissible stress in the fillet weld is 100 N/mm2. The fillet weld has equal leg lengths of 15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on the weldment per cm length of the weld is a) 7.5 kN 67

b) 10.6 kN c) 15 kN d) 22.5 kN

Design of machine elements

1. Hooks law holds good up to a) Breaking point b) Yield point c) Elastic limit d) Plastic limit

2. A stud bolt is a) Threaded on both ends b) Threaded on one end only c) Screawed into a tapped hole d) None of the answers

3. Which of the following key is under compression rather than in being shear when under load? a) Saddle b) Barth c) Feather d) Kennedy

68

4. Tangent key transmits force in a) One direction only b) Two directions c) Both A and B d) None of the answers

5. The key will fail in which of the following maner? a) Shearing b) Crushing c) Both Crushing and shearing d) None of the answers

6. Shaft is subjected to which of the following stresses? a) Bending b) Torsional c) Both A and B d) None of the answers

7. In rail road car axles, which of the following bearing is used? a) Partial b) Fitted c) Full d) Linear

8. Failure of material is called fatigue when it fails a) At the elastic limit b) Below the elasic limit 69

c) At the yield point d) Below the yield point

9. The Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by a) Elastic limit b) youngs modulus c) Endurance limit d) Ultimate tensile strength

10. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of a) Elastic limit to the working stress b) Endurance limit to the working stress c) Youngs modulus to the Ultimate strength d) Elastic limit to the yield point

11. The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is called a) Bulk modulus b) Poisons ratio c) Modulus of rigidity d) Modulus of elasticity

12. The modulus of elasticity of carbon steel is a) 207000 N/mm 2 b) 100000 N/mm2 c) 50000 N/mm2 d) 80000 N/mm2

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13. The modulus of elasticity of grey cast iron is a) 207000 N/mm 2 b) 100000 N/mm2 c) 50000 N/mm2 d) 80000 N/mm2

14. The modulus of rigidity of carbon steel is a) 207000 N/mm 2 b) 100000 N/mm2 c) 50000 N/mm2 d) 80000 N/mm2

15. The modulus of rigidity of carbon steel is a) 207000 N/mm 2 b) 100000 N/mm2 c) 40000 N/mm2 d) 80000 N/mm2

16. The poisons ration of carbon steel is a) 0.4 b) 0.29 c) 0.21 d) 0.75

17. When the diameter of shaft is doubled, its torque transmitting capacity will increased by a) 8 times b) 2 times 71

c) 4 times d) 16 times

18. A component made of grey cast iron is designed on strength basis by a) Ultimate tensile strength b) Yield strength c) Modulus of elasticity d) Modulus of rigidity

19. The thermal stresses are caused due to a) Variation in teperature b) High temperature c) Specific heat d) Latent heat

20. The factor of safety for cast iron component, subjected to static force is usually a) 1.2 to 4 b) 3 to 5 c) 1.5 to 2 d) 5 to 10

21. The factor of safety for carbon steel component, subjected to static force is usually a) 1.2 to 4 b) 3 to 5 c) 1.5 to 2 d) 5 to 10

72

22. A cotter joint is used to transmit a) Axial tensile force only b) Axial tensile and compressive forces c) Axial compressive force only d) Combined bending and twisting moment

23. The tapper on cotter is usually a) 1 in 24 b) 1 in 8 c) 1 in 100 d) 1 in 48

24. A tapper is provided for cotter a) Tightness in operation b) wedge action c) easy disassembly d) All the answers

25. The joint between the piston and cross head of steam engine is a) knuckle joint b) Universal joint c) Cotter joint d) Key loint

26. The joint in Valve mechanism of reciprocating engine is a) knuckle joint b) Universal joint 73

c) Cotter joint d) Key loint

27. The pin in knuckle joint is subjected to a) Double shear stress b) Torsional shear stress c) Axial shear sress d) Axial compressive stress

28. The fulcrum pin of lever is designed on the basis of a) Twisting moment b) tensile force c) Bending moment d) Bearing pressure

29. Rankines theory of failure is applicable to a) Ductile materials b) Brittle materials c) elastic materials d) plastic material

30. Coulomb theory of failure applicable to a) Ductile materials b) Brittle materials c) elastic materials d) plastic material

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31. Tresca theory of failure is applicable to a) Brittle materials b) Ductile materials c) elastic materials d) plastic material

32. Guest theory of failure is applicable to a) Brittle materials b) plastic material c) elastic materials d) Ductile materials

33. Distortion energy theory of failure is applicable to a) Plain carbon steel b) composites c) cast iron d) non - metals

34. Stress concentration occurs dud to a) Abrupt changes in Cross section b) Discontinuity in material c) Cracks and flaws d) All the answers

35. Stress concentration occurs at the contact between a) Meshing teeth of driving and driven gears b) cam and follower 75

c) Balls and races d) All the answers

36. The maximum stress concentration factor for a rectangular plate with a transverse hole in tension or compression is a) 2 b) 3 c) 2.5 d) 1

37. In cyclic loading, the effect of stress concentration is more serious in case of a) Brittle material b) Ductile material c) Both ductile and Brittle material d) None of the answers

38. A stress that varies sinusoidal manner with respect to time from zero to maximum valus and which hes same values for mean as well as amplitude is called a) Reversed stress b) Fluctuating stress c) Repeated stress d) Varrying stress

39. A stress that varies sinusoidal manner with respect to time from minimum value to maximum value and which has same values for mean as well as amplitude is called a) Reversed stress b) Fluctuating stress c) Repeated stress 76

d) Varrying stress

40. As the size of the componenet increases, the endurance limit of the component a) Inceases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) Increases up to 50 times

77

DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS

1. Spherical roller bearings are normally used

a) For heavy radial loads b) for heavy thrust loads c) when there is less radial space d) To compensate for angular misalignment

2. The dynamic load capacity of a 6306 bearing is 22 kN. The maximum radial load it can sustain to operate at 600 rpm for 2000 hours is

a) 4.16 kN b) 3.6 kN c) 6.25 kN d) 5.29 kN

3. A band brake having band-width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of friction of 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000 Nm. The maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band

a) 1.88 b) 3.56 c) 6.12 d) 11.56

4. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by

78

a) Decreasing center distance between gear pair b) Decreasing module c) Decreasing pressure angle d) Increasing number of gear teeth

5. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a centre distance of 450 mm is used for a speed reduction of 5:1. The number of teeth on pinion is _____

a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 40

6. Which one of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translational motion?

a) Bevel gears b) Double helical gears c) Worm gears d) Rack and pinion gears

7. It is desired to avoid interference in a pair of spur gears having a 20 degree pressure angle. With increase in pinion to gear speed ratio, the minimum number of teeth on the pinion

a) Increases b) decreases c) first increases and then decreases d) remains unchanged 79

8. Which of the bearings given below SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust load? a) Deep groove ball bearing b) Angular contact ball bearing c) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing d) Single row tapered roller bearing

9. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material is 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is a) 148 N-m b) 196 N-m c) 372 N-m d) 490 N-m

10. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a pressure angle of 20 degree. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/sec. taking a velocity facor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about a) 32 MPa b) 46 MPa c) 58 MPa d) 70 MPa

11. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate description. Type of gear

Description

P. Helical gear

1. Axes non-parallel and non-intersecting

Q. Spiral Bevel

2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to the axis

R. Hypoid

3. Axes parallel and teeth are parallel to the axis

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S. Rack and pinion

4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting, and teeth are Inclined to the axis 5. Axes are perpendicular and used for large speed reduction 6. Axes parallel and one of the gears has infinite radius.

a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-6 b) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-6 c) P-2, Q-6, R-4, S-2 d) P-6, Q-3, R-1, S-5

12. A ball bearing operating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is a) 8000 b) 6000 c) 4000 d) 1000

13. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20 revolution/second carries a load of 2 kN. The lubricant used has a viscosity of 20 mPa.s. The radial clearance is 50 µm. The Sommerfeld number for the bearing is

a) 0.062 b) 0.125 c) 0.250 d) 0.785

14. A disc clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disc has a friction lining with coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is

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a) 39.4 mm b) 49.5 mm c) 97.9 mm d) 142.9 mm

15. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh. If the module is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair will be

a) 140 mm b) 150 mm c) 280 mm d) 300 mm

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Design of Transmission Systems

1. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between the journal and the bearing is called a) Zero film bearing b) Boundary lubricated bearing c) Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing d) Hydrostatic lubricated bearing

2. In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a ................ of lubricant between the journal and the bearing. a) Thick film b) Thin film c) Zero film d) Solid film

3. A bearing is designated by the number 405. It means that a bearing is of a) Light series with bore of 25 mm b) Medium series with bore of 25 mm c) Heavy series with bore of 25 mm d) Light series with width of 20 mm

4. When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the bearing characteristic number should be ............... the bearing modulus. a) 5 times b) 10 times c) 15 times d) 20 times 83

5. When the length of the journal is equal to the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is said to be a a) Short bearing b) Long bearing c) Medium bearing d) Square bearing

6. If Z = Absolute viscosity of the lubricant in kg/m-s, N = Speed of the journal in r.p.m., and p =Bearing pressure in N/mm2, then the bearing characteristic number is a) Zp/n b) Zn/p c) Z/pn d) pn/Z

7. The ball bearings are usually made from a) Low carbon steel b) Medium carbon steel c) High speed steel d) Chrome nickel steel

8. In radial bearings, the load acts a) Along the axis of rotation b) Perpendicular to the axis of rotation c) parallel to the axis of rotation d) in any direction

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9. When the length of the journal is less than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is said to be a a) short bearing b) long bearing c) medium bearing d) square bearing

10. The angular contact ball bearing can be used for

a) Radial load only b) axial load only c) both radial and axial loads d) to adjust for misalignments

11. A bearing is designated by the number 305. It means that a bearing is of a) Light series with bore of 25 mm b) medium series with bore of 25 mm c) Heavy series with bore of 25 mm d) extra light series with width of 25 mm

12. The spherical roller bearing can be used for

a) Radial load only b) axial load only c) both radial and axial loads d) to adjust for misalignments

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13. When the length of the journal is greater than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is said to be a

a) short bearing b) long bearing c) medium bearing d) square bearing

14. A bearing is designated by the number 205. It means that a bearing is of

a) Light series with bore of 25 mm b) medium series with bore of 25 mm c) Heavy series with bore of 25 mm d) extra light series with width of 25 mm

15. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the pressure angle

a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged d) none of these

16. Lewis equation in spur gears is applied a) only to the pinion b) only to the gear c) to stronger of the pinion or gear 86

d) to weaker of the pinion or gear

17. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called a) normal pitch b) axial pitch c) diametral pitch d) module

18. The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to a) pitch angle – addendum angle b) pitch angle + addendum angle c) pitch angle – dedendum angle d) pitch angle + dedendum angle

19. The contact ratio for gears is

a) zero b) less than one c) greater than one d) none of these

20. The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately __________of the ultimate tensile stress. a) one-fourth b) one-third c) one-half 87

d) double

21. When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts whose axes intersect at right angle, then they are known as

a) angular bevel gears b) crown bevel gears c) internal bevel gears d) mitre gears

22. When the spiral angle of a bevel gear is zero, it is called as_________

a) crown gear b) zerol bevel gear c) meter gear d) spiral bevel gear

23. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to

a) pitch angle – addendum angle b) pitch angle + addendum angle c) pitch angle – dedendum angle d) pitch angle + dedendum angle

24. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles of dust, grit etc., without scoring the material of the journal, is called

a) bondability 88

b) embeddability c) comformability d) fatigue strength

25. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ............ coefficient of friction.

a) low b) high c) medium d) zero

26. In case of a multiple disc clutch, if n1 are the number of discs on the driving shaft and n2 are the number of the discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be

a) n1 + n2 b) n1 + n2 – 1 c) n1 + n2 + 1 d) none of these

27. A jaw clutch is essentially a

a) Positive action clutch b) cone clutch c) friction clutch d) disc clutch

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28. The cone clutches have become obsolete because of

a) small cone angles b) exposure to dirt and dust c) difficulty in disengaging d) all of these

29. To restore stable operating condition in a hydrodynamic journal bearing, when it encounters higher magnitude of loads, a) oil viscosity is to be decreased b) oil viscosity is to be increased c) oil viscosity index is to be increased d) oil viscosity index is to be decreased

30. Total slip will occur in a belt drive when a) angle of rest is zero b) angle of creep is greater than angle of rest c) angle of rest is greater than angle of creep d) angle of creep is zero

31. To make a worm drive reversible, it is necessary to increase a) centre distance b) worm diameter factor c) number of starts d) reduction ratio

32. the basic load rating of a ball bearing is

90

a) the maximum static radial load that can be applied without causing any plastic deformation of bearing components. b) the radial load at which 90% of the group of apparently identical bearings run for one million revolutions before the first evidence of failure. c) the maximum radial load that can be applied during operation without any plastic deformation of bearing components. d) a combination of radial and axial loads that can be applied without any plastic deformation

33. The difference between tensions on the tight and slack sides of a belt drive is 3000 N. if the belt speed is 15 m/s, the transmitted power in kW is a) 45 b) 22.5 c) 90 d) 100

34. With regard to belt drives with given pulley diameters, centre distance and coefficient of friction between the pulley and the belt materials, which of the statement below are FALSE? a) a crossed flat belt configuration can transmit more power than an open flat belt configuration b) a V-belt has greater power transmission capacity than an open flat belt c) power transmission is greater when belt tension is higher due to centrifugal effects than the same belt drive when centrifugal affects are absent. d) power transmission is the greatest just before the point of slipping is reached.

35. the ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the slack side in a flat belt drive is a) proportional to the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle b) an exponential function of the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle c) proportional to the lap angle 91

d) proportional to the coefficient of friction

36. A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min, it is to be connected to a stirrer running at 36 rev/min. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is a) Differential gear b) helical gear c) bevel gear d) worm gear

37. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are parallel to each other. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is a) Differential gear b) helical gear c) bevel gear d) worm gear

38. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are intersecting each other. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is a) spur gear b) helical gear c) bevel gear d) worm gear

39. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are nonintersecting and nonparallel to each other. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is a) Differential gear b) helical gear c) bevel gear

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d) worm gear

40. The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is 8000 hours. It’s life in hours, if the load is increased to 20 kN, keeping all other conditions the same, is a) 4000 b) 2000 c) 1000 d) 500

41. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard full height involute teeth gear mechanism with 20 degree pressure angle is a) 14 b) 12 c) 18 d) 32

42. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard stub involute teeth gear mechanism with 20 degree pressure angle is a) 14 b) 12 c) 18 d) 32

43. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard full height involute teeth gear mechanism with 14.5 degree pressure angle is a) 14 b) 12 c) 18

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d) 32

44. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard composite teeth gear mechanism with 14.5 degree pressure angle is a) 14 b) 12 c) 18 d) 32

45. Large speed reductions (greater than 20) in one stage of a gear train are possible through a) spur gearing b) worm gearing c) bevel gearing d) helical gearing

46. A wire rope is designated as 6 x 19 standard hoisting. The numbers 6 x 19 represent a) diameter in millimeter x length in meter b) diameter in centimeter x length in meter c) number of strands x number of wires in each strand d) number of wires in each strand x number of strands

47. In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on slack side is 3. If the angle of overlap of band on the drum is 1800 the coefficient of friction required between drum and the band is a) 0.20 b) 0.25 c) 0.30 d) 0.35 94

48. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 20 N-m. The torque transmitted by the gear is a) 6.6 N-m b) 20 N-m c) 40 N-m d) 60 N-m

49. Match the following Type of gears

Arrangement of shafts

P. Bevel gears

1. Non-parallel off-set shafts

Q. Worm gears

2. Non-parallel intersecting shafts

R. Herringbone gears S. Hypoid gears

a) P-4

Q-2

R-1

b) P-2

Q-3 R-4

c) P-3

Q-2

d) P-1

Q-3 R-4

R-1

3. Non-parallel, non-intersecting shafts 4. Parallel shafts

S-3 S-1 S-4 S-2

50. Which of the following is a criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings? a) Rotation factor b) rating life c) Specific dynamic capacity d) Sommerfeld number

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51. A disc clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disc has a friction lining with coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is a) 39.4 mm b) 49.5 mm c) 97.9 mm d) 142.9 mm

52. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh. If the module is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair will be a) 140 mm b) 150 mm c) 280 mm d) 300 mm

53. A ball bearing operating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is a) 8000 b) 6000 c) 4000 d) 1000

54. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20 revolution/second carries a load of 2 kN. The lubricant used has a viscosity of 20 mPa.s. The radial clearance is 50 µm. The Sommerfeld number for the bearing is a) 0.062 b) 0.125 c) 0.250 d) 0.785

96

55. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material is 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is

a) 148 N-m b) 196 N-m c) 372 N-m d) 490 N-m

56. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a pressure angle of 20 degree. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/sec. taking a velocity facor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about a) 32 MPa b) 46 MPa c) 58 MPa d) 70 MPa

57. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate description. Type of gear

Description

P. Helical gear

1. Axes non-parallel and non-intersecting

Q. Spiral Bevel

2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to the axis

R. Hypoid

3. Axes parallel and teeth are parallel to the axis

S. Rack and pinion

4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting, and teeth are Inclined to the axis 5. Axes are perpendicular and used for large speed reduction 6. Axes parallel and one of the gears has infinite radius.

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a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-6 b) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-6 c) P-2, Q-6, R-4, S-2 d) P-6, Q-3 , R-1, S-5

58. A band brake having band-width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of friction of 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000 N-m. the maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band is a) 1.88 b) 3.56 c) 6.12 d) 11.56

59. A lightly loaded full journal bearing has journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of 50.05 mm and bush length of 20 mm. If rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm and average viscosity of liquid lubricant is 0.03 Pa-sec, the power loss(in W) will be a) 37 b) 74 c) 118 d) 237

60. In involute gears, the pressure angle is a) dependent on the size of teeth b) dependent on the size of gears c) always constant d) always variable

98

99

DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS

1. Starting friction is low in a) Hydrostatic lubrication b) Hydrodynamic lubrication c) Semi-fluid lubrication d) Boundary lubrication

2. The most suitable bearing for resisting heavy loads under slow speed is a) Hydrodynamic bearing b) ball bearing c) Roller bearing d) Hydrostatic bearing

3. Pivoted segment thrust bearing is used to provide a) Uniform distribution of load b) uniform wear c) Converging film of oil d) easy flow of oil

4. In the design of connecting rod small end bearing, the value of permissible bearing pressure to be used is

a) Less than that used for big end bearing b) more than that used for big end bearing c) Equal to that used for big end bearing

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d) none of the above

5. Removal of metal particles from the race-way of a rolling contact bearing is a king of failure of bearing, known as

a) Pitting b) wearing c) spalling d) scuffing

6. Which of the following is an anti-friction bearing a) Pedestal bearing b) Collar bearing c) Hydrostatic bearing d) Needle bearing

7. Basic dynamic load of a ball or roller bearing, determine its

a) Life expectancy b) axial thrust c) stress d) size

8. Creep in belt drive is due to

a) Material of the belt b) material of the pulley

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c) Uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension d) expansion of belt

9. In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use

a) Bottom side of belt as slack side b) top side of the belt as slack side c) crossed belting d) idler in-between

10. In a belt drive, the coefficient of friction at the smaller pulley

a) Must be same as that at bigger pulley b) must be less than that at bigger pulley c) Must be more than that at bigger pulley d) Can be same or different from that at bigger pulley

11. The length of V-belt is designated by

a) Inside length b) outside length c) length at the centre of belt d) none of the above

12. In a multiple V-belt drive; when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the complete set, to

102

a) Reduce vibration b) reduce slip c) ensure uniform loading d) ensure proper alignement

13. In the design of cast pulleys; curved arms, joining rim to the hub are used, in order to a) Reduce distortion or tearing b) improve strength c) improve aesthetics d) aid in balancing the pulley

14. Wire ropes are used for applications, experiencing

a) Low speeds and low tension b) low speeds and high tension c) High speeds and low tension d) high speeds and high tension

15. In the designation 6 x 19 for the wire rope; 6 and 19 stand for

a) Diameter of wire rope and number of strands b) Diameter of wire rope and number of wires c) Number of wires and number of strands d) Number of strands and number of wires

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16. In order to have smooth operation, the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket should be

a) 15 b) 17 c) 21 d) 25

17. The size of a gear is specified by

a) Addendum circle diameter b) pitch circle diameter c) dedundum circle diameter d) base circle diameter

18. In involute gears, the pressure angle is a) Dependent on the size of the teeth b) dependent on the size of the gear c) always constant d) always variable

19. In which type of teeth, variation in centre distance, within certain limits, does not affect the velocity ratio of the mating gears

a) Cycloidal b) involute c) hypoid 104

d) epicycloid

20. Interference is inherently absent in the following types of gears:

a) Involute b) Stub c) cycloidal d) Epi-cycloid

21. If both the pinion and gear are made of the same material, then the power transmitting capacity is decided by

a) Gear b) Pinion c) pinion or gear d) both pinion and gear

22. For the possible wear to be permitted in a gear drive,

a) Wear load should be greater than the dynamic load b) Wear load should be less than the dynamic load c) Wear load should be greater than the beam strength d) Wear load should be greater than the tangential tooth load

23. The role of hunting tooth in a gear drive is that it

105

a) Increases efficiency of transmission b) distributes wear uniformly c) reduces vibration d) permits stable operation

24. The transverse section of a helical gear is identical to a) Bevel gear b) spur gear c) worm gear d) none of the above

25. In helical gears, the right hand helix will mesh with

a) Right hand helix b) left hand helix c) both of the above d) none of the above

26. Zero axial thrust is experienced in

a) Helical gears b) bevel gears c) spiral gears d) herringbone gears

106

27. Helical gears are used for

a) External meshing only b) either external or internal meshing c) internal meshing only d) none of the above

28. Angular bevel gears are the gears mounted on intersecting shafts which make an angle ______ degree

a) 90 b) less than 90 c) more than 90 d) other than 90

29. For a crown (bevel ) gear, shaft angle is ____ degree

a) 90 b) 45 c) 180 d) 0

30. Mitre gears are

a) Right angled bevel gears, having the same number of teeth b) Spur gears of equal diameter and pitch c) Helical gears of same module

107

d) A kind of worm and worm gear

31. In a worm drive, the axial pitch of the worm is

a) Equal to circular pitch of the gear b) Equal to half the circular pitch of the gear c) Equal to twice the circular pitch of the gear d) None of the above

32. The gear reduction of a worm gear set, with worm gear of 50 teeth and worm of double start threads, would be

a) 50:1 b) 100:1 c) 25:1 d) none of the above

33. If the lead angle of a worm is 20 degree, then the helix angle will be_____ degree.

a) 20 b) 70 c) 80 d) none of the above

34. In a worm drive, with self-locking feature,

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a) Worm only can act as a driver b) Worm wheel only can act as a driver c) Either worm or worm wheel can act as a driver d) None of the above

35. A jaw clutch is a a) Positive clutch b) friction clutch c) centrifugal clutch d) cone clutch

36. The friction torque, with the assumption of uniform pressure, compared to uniform wear is a) Same b) greater c) lower d) could be anything

37. A multi-disc clutch has three discs on the driving shaft and two discs on the driven shaft. Number of pairs of contact surfaces is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

38. Brakes convert

109

a) Heat energy to kinetic energy b) Kinetic energy or potential energy into heat energy c) Heat energy into potential energy d) Kinetic energy into potential energy

39. The brake commonly used on locomotive bogies is a) Internal expanding brake b) band and block brake c) shoe brake d) band brake

40. The type of brake used in motor cars is a) Block or shoe brake b) band brake c) band and block brake d) internal expanding shoe brake

110

1. Critical damping is afunction of a) mass and stiffness b) mass and damping co-efficient c) stiffness and natural frequency d) natural frequency and damping co-efficient

2. The amplitude of underdamping a small damping varies with time as a) linearly b) arithmetically c) geometrically d) exponenially

3. Ratio of two successive oscillations in an underdamped system is a) constant b) linear c) logarithmic d) exponential

4. Critical or whirling speed is the speed at which the shaft tends to vibrate violently in a) transverse direction b) longitudinal direction c) linear direction d) none of the above

5. Rotating shafts tend to of vibrate violently at whirling speeds because 111

a) the shafts are rotating at vary speeds b) bearing centre line coincide with the shaft axis c) the system is unbalanced d) resonance is caused due to the heavy weight of the rotor

6. The natural frequency of an undamped vibrating system is 100 rad/s. A damper with a damping factor of 0.8 is introduced into the system. The frequency of vibration of the damped system, in rad/s is a) 60 b) 75 c) 80 d) 100

7. The un-damped natural frequency oscillations of the bar about the hinge point is a) 42.43 rad/s b) 30 rad/s c) 17.32 rad/s d) 14.14 rad/s

8. The earth can be assumed as a uniform sphere. Suppose the earth shrinks by 1% in diameter, then new day period a) not change from 24 hrs. b) reduce by about 2% c) reduce by about 1% d) increase by about 1%

9. Whirling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural frequency of the a) longitudinal vibration 112

b) transverse vibration c) torsional vibration d) coupled between torsional vibration

10. The damping coefficient in the vibration equation is given by a) 500 Nms/rad b) 500 N/(m/s) c) 80 Nms/rad d) 80 N/(m/s)

Dynamics of Machinery

1. When the ratio of excitation freuency to natural frequency is 1.414 ,then transmissibility ratio will be a) infinite b) 1 c) 1

2. Critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural frequency of the system in a) Torsional vibrations b) Longitudinal vibrations c) Transverse vibration d) Longitudinal vibration provided the shaft is vertical

113

3. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the later at the same speed will be a) Four times the first one b) Same as the first one c) One fourth of the first one d) One and half times the first one

4. The deflection of a spring with 20 active turns under a load of 1000N is 10 mm.The springs is made into two pieces each of 10 active coils and places in parallel under the same load. The deflection of this system is a) 10 mm b) 20 mm c) 10 mm d) 2.5 mm

5. In a four cylinder 4 stroke inline IC engine, the angle between two successive crank should be 180 degree.But this rule is violated for cranks 2 and 3 (i.e. inner cranks) and the angle is made 0 degree.This is done to achieve primary force a) and secondary force balancing b) and secondary couple balancing c) primary and secondary couple balancing d) secondary force and primary couple balancing

6. If the speed of the engine varies between 390 and 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the coefficient of fluctuation of speed will be a) 0.01 b) 0.02 c) 0.05 d) 0.07 114

7. In a flywheel, the safe stress is 25.2 MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3.Then what is the maximum peripheral velocity (in m/s)? a) 30 b) 60 c) 45 d) 120

8. A reciprocating engine, running at 80rad/s, is supported on springs. The static deflection of the spring is 1mm.Take g=10m/s2.when the engine runs what will be the frequency of vibration of the system? a) 100 rad/s b) 120 rad/s c) 80 rad/s d) 90 rad/s

9. The static deflection of a shaft under a flywheel is 4 mm. Take g=10m/s2.What is the critical speed in rad/s? a) 20 b) 50 c) 40 d) 2.5

10. Hammer blow a) is the maximum horizontal unbalanced force caused by the mass provided to balance the reciprocating masses. b) is the maximum vertical unbalanced force caused by the mass added to balance the reciprocating masses c) varies as the square root of the speed

115

d) varies inversely with the square of the speed

11. The balancing weights are introduced in planes parallel to the plane of rotation of the disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic balance, the minimum number of balancing weights to be introduced in different planes is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

12. Critical damping is a function of a) Mass and damping coefficient b) Mass and stiffness c) Stiffness and natural frequency d) Natural frequency and damping coefficient

13. Whirling speed of the shaft is the speed at which a) Shaft tends to vibrate in longitudinal direction b) torsional vibrations occur c) shaft tends to vibrate vigorously in transverse direction d) combination of transverse and longitudinal vibration occurs

14. In a system subjected to damped forced vibrations, the ratio of maximum displacement to the static deflection is known as a) Critical damping ratio b) Damping factor c) Logarithmic decrement d) Magnification factor 116

15. For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance is a) 0° b) 45° c) 90° d) 180°

16. In reciprocating engines primary forces a) are completely balanced b) are partially balanced c) are balanced by secondary forces d) cannot be balanced

17. A governor is said to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed for all radii of rotation of the balls within the working range

a) is not constant b) is constant c) varies uniformly d) has uniform acceleration

18. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed a) increases b) first increases and then decreases c) decreases d) remains unaffected

117

19. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed, the governor is said to be

a) hunt b) unstable c) isochronous d) stable

20. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is

a) negative during major portion of the stroke b) negative throughout c) positive throughout d) positive during major portion of the stroke

21. when a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous a) steering b) pitching c) rolling d) steering and rolling

22. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be

118

a) to raise the nose and dip the tail b) to dip the nose and raise the tail c) to raise the nose and tail d) to dip the nose and tail

23. The air screw of an aeroplane is rotating clockwise when looking from the front. If it makes a left turn, the gyroscopic effect will

a) tend to depress the nose and raise the tail b) tend to raise the nose and depress the tail c) tilt the aeroplane d) roll the aeroplane

24. In an automobile, if the vehicle makes a left turn, the gyroscopic torque

a) increases the forces on the outer wheels b) decreases the forces on the outer wheels c) does not affect the forces on the outer wheels d) increases the forces on the inner wheels

25. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path. If the engine rotates in the same direction as that of wheels, then due to the centrifugal forces

a) the reaction on the inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels decreases b) the reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels decreases c) the reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels decreases 119

d) the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels decreases

26. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at a fixed distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent dynamical system, if

a) the sum of two masses is equal to the total mass of the body b) the centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the body c) the sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of gravity is equal to the mass moment of inertia of the body d) all of these

27. In an engine, the work done by inertia forces in a cycle is

a) positive b) zero c) negative d) infinite

28. The maximum fluctuation of energy is the

a) sum of maximum and minimum energies b) difference between the maximum and minimum energies c) ratio of the maximum energy and minimum energy d) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle

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29. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque line is called

a) fluctuation of energy b) maximum fluctuation of energy c) coefficient of fluctuation of energy d) minimum fluctuation of energy

30. The equation of motion for a viscous damped vibration is 3 d2x/dt2 + 9dx/dt + 27x = 0. The damping factor will be a) 0.25 b) 0.5 c) 0.75 d) 1

31. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called

a) fluctuation of speed b) maximum fluctuation of speed c) coefficient of fluctuation of speed d) minimum fluctuation of speed

32. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with the line of stroke is

a) 0° 121

b) 90° c) 180° d) 360°

33. The partial balancing means

a) balancing partially the revolving masses b) balancing partially the reciprocating masses c) best balancing of engines d) complete balancing

34. A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kgm2 fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in energy of 1936 Joules. The mean speed of the flywheel is (in rpm) a) 600 b) 900 c) 968 d) 2940

35. In order to facilitate the starting of locomotive in any position, the cranks of a locomotive, with two cylinders, are placed at . . . . . . to each other.

a) 45° b) 90° c) 120° d) 180°

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36. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is kept very large in order to

a) minimise the effect of primary forces b) minimise the effect of secondary forces c) have perfect balancing d) start the locomotive quickly

37. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclina of stroke ( θ ) is equal to

a) 45° and 135° b) 90° and 135° c) 135° and 225° d) 45° and 225°

38. The tractive force is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to the line of stroke ( θ ) is equal to

a) 90° and 225° b) 135° and 180° c) 180° and 225° d) 135° and 315°

39. The swaying couple is due to the

a) primary unbalanced force 123

b) secondary unbalanced force c) two cylinders of locomotive d) partial balancing

40. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as

a) tractive force b) swaying couple c) hammer blow d) pullout

41. Secondary forces in reciprocating mass on engine frame are

a) of same frequency as of primary forces b) twice the frequency as of primary forces c) four times the frequency as of primary forces d) half times the frequency as of primary forces

42. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) In any engine, 100% of the reciprocating masses can be balanced dynamically b) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is higher than the value of the primary force c) In the case of balancing of multimass rotating systems, dynamic balancing can be directly started without static balancing done to the system 124

d) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is lower than the value of the primary force

43. For static balancing of a shaft,

a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero b) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero c) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to infinite d) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to infinite

44. For dynamic balancing of a shaft,

a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero b) the net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero c) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to infinite d) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to infinite

45. In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes

a) the resultant force must be zero b) the resultant couple must be zero c) both the resultant force and couple must be zero d) the resultant couple must be infinite

46. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine a) Mass moment of inertia b) position of balancing weights 125

c) centripetal acceleration d) angular accelaration of the body

47. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to a) 0.2 b) position of balancing weights c) centripetal acceleration d) angular accelaration of the body

48. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and frequency is equal to a) 1 b) position of balancing weights c) centripetal acceleration d) angular accelaration of the body

49. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

a) diameter of disc b) span of shaft c) eccentricity d) diameter of disc,span of shaft and eccentricity

50.

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If the ratio of frequency of excitation to the natural frequency of vibrations is 1.414, then the transmissibility of vibration will the a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) 0

51. In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration

a) decreases linearly with time b) increases linearly with time c) decreases exponentially with time d) increases exponentially with time

52. The steering of a ship means

a) movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis b) turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it moves forward c) rolling of a complete ship side-ways d) tilting of a complete ship

53. A Hartnell governor is a

a) dead weight governor b) pendulum type governor c) spring loaded governor d) inertia governor

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54. A shaft carrying three rotors will have

a) no node b) one node c) two nodes d) three nodes

55. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as a) torsional pendulum b) simple pendulum c) second's pendulum d) compound pendulum

56. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one revolution of the crank. a) four times b) two times c) eight times d) sixteen times

57. For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is more than that of governor B, for a given fractional change in speed. It indicates that a) governor A is more sensitive than governor B b) both governors A and B are equally sensitive c) governor B is more sensitive than governor A d) both governors A and B are isochronous

128

58. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of the string should be a) halved b) both governors A and B are equally sensitive c) governor B is more sensitive than governor A d) both governors A and B are isochronous

59. Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused by the fluctuations of the engine turning moment? a) Governor b) flywheel c) connecting rod d) piston

60. A system in dynamic balance implies that a) there will absolutely no wear of bearings b) there is no critical speed in the system c) the system is critically damped d) the system is also statically balanced

61. The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by

a) 45° b) 135°

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c) 90° d) 180°

62. In a spring mass vibrating system, the natural frequency of vibration is reduced to half the value when a second spring is added to the first spring in series. Determine the stiffness of the second in terms of that of the first spring. a) 1/3 of first spring b) 3 times of first spring c) 2 times of first spring d) as the same of first spring

63. What is the minimum damping ratio for an underdamped system such that its overshoot is limited to 10 percent.

a) 0.59 b) 0.69 c) 1 d) 1.59

64. Which of the following statement is correct ?

a) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at the mean position b) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly proportional to its angular velocity c) The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean position d) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation 130

65. Typewriter constitutes a) machine b) structure c) mechanism d) inversion

66. If magnification factor is high for costant damping factor a) the excitation frequecy may get resonanace or nearby the resonanace b) the excitation frequecy may be higher than resonanace c) the excitation frequecy may be lower than resonanace d) the excitation frequecy may be 0.5 times of resonanace

67. The natural frequency of torsional circular bar depends on a) shear modulus, diameter, length and density b) shear modulus, diameter and length c) diameter, length and density d) shear modulus,length and density

68. The natural frequency of axial circular bar depends on a) Young's modulus, diameter, length and density b) diameter, length and density c) Young's modulus, length and density d) diameter, length and density

69. If the circular bar gets resonanace with its longitudinal frequency a) bar will deforms 131

b) bar will get angular deformation c) bar will deflect d) bar will get twisted

70. What type of vibration is predomint in the beam structure? a) Transverse b) longitudinal c) torsional d) random

1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined effect of the mass and the motion of the parts a) theory of machines b) Applied mechanics c) mechanisms d) kinetics

2. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as a) turning pair b) rolling pair c) sliding pair d) spherical pair

3. Which of the following is a lower pair 132

a) gear drive b) piston and cylinder c) cam and follower d) belt drive

4. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism

a) is based on acceleration diagram b) is a simplified form of instantaneous center method c) utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine d) enables determination of Corioli's component

5. In elliptical trammels

a) all four pairs are turning b) three pairs turning and one pair sliding c) two pairs turning and two pairs sliding d) one pair turning and three pairs sliding

6. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is

a) less b) more c) equal d) may be less or more depending on efficiency

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7. Inertia force acts

a) perpendicular to the accellerating force b) along the direction of accellerating force c) opposite to the direction of accellerating force d) in any direction w.r.t. accellerating force depending on the magnitude

8. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine

a) natural frequency of vibration b) position of balancing weights c) moment of inertia d) centripetal acceleration

9. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on

a) a triangle b) a point c) two lines d) a straight line

10. Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for static balancing?

134

1. Dynamic forces acting on the system should be zero 2. Couple acting on the system due to dynamic force should be zero 3. Centrifugal forces acting on the system should be zero 4. Couple acting on the system due to centrifugal forces should be zero a) Condition 1 and condition 2 b) Condition 3 and condition 4 c) Condition 1 and condition 3 d) Condition 2 and condition 3

11. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of free vibration goes on decreasing every cycle? a) Free damped vibrations b) Free undamped vibrations c) Force damped vibrations d) Force undamped vibrations

12. What are deterministic vibrations?

a) Vibrations caused due to known exciting force b) Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force c) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature d) Vibrations which are periodic in nature

13. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to maximum potential energy at extreme position? a) Energy method b) Rayleigh's method

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c) Equilibrium method d) Newtonian method

14. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000 N/m and mass of 20 kg? a) 12.32 Hz b) 6.16 Hz c) 4.10 Hz d) 8.10 Hz

15. What is meant by phase difference or phase angle in forced vibrations? a) Difference between displacement vector (xp) and velocity vector Vp b) Angle in which displacement vector leads 90 degree force vector by (F0 sinωt) c) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector (F0 sinωt) d) Angle in which displacement vector leads force vector by (F0 sinωt)

16. Magnification factor is the ratio of a) zero frequency deflection and amplitude of steady state vibrations b) amplitude of steady state vibrations and zero frequency deflection c) amplitude of unsteady state vibrations and zero frequency distribution d) zero frequency distribution and amplitude of unsteady state vibrations

17. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Magnification factor is minimum at resonance 2. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor decreases 3. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor increases

136

4. Magnification factor is maximum at resonance a) Statement 1 and statement 2 b) Statements 1,2 and 3 c) Statement 2 and statement 4 d) Statement 2 and statement 3

18. Simulation is a process which _________

a) Involves formation of a prototype b) Explores behavior of a model by varying input variables c) Develops geometry of an object d) Develops attribiites of an object

19. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Torsional vibrations do not occur in a three rotor system, if rotors rotate in same direction 2. Shaft vibrates with maximum frequency when rotors rotate in same direction 3. Zero node behavior is observed in rotors rotating in opposite direction 4. All of the above a) Statement 1 b) Statement 2 c) Statement 3 d) Statement 2 and 3

20. Seismometer can be used to measure acceleration of any instrument only if _____ a) It's natural frequency is high

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b) it generates output signal which is proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating object c) It's natural frequency is high and it generates output signal which is proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating object d) it's natural frequency is low

21. Which type of monitoring system uses stroboscope to measure speed of the machine? a) Portable condition monitoring system b) Basic condition monitoring system c) Computer based condition monitoring system d) structural condition monitoring system

22. Which of the following vibrometers have frequency ratio (ω/ωn) Kinsulators > Kliquids b) kgases = Kinsulators = Kliquids c) both a & b d) kgases to L + Q

5. Mobility of a statically indeterminate structure is a) Less than equal to -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Greater than or equal to 2

6. For a four bar linkage in toggle position, the value of mechanical advantage is? a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) infinite

7. A 1.5kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min. It is to be connected to a stirrer running at 36 rev/min. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is? a) differential gear b) helical gear c) spur gear 349

d) spur gear

8. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is a) knife edge follower b) knife edge follower c) spherical faced follower d) roller follower

9. A chain consisting of four links and four joints is called .... a) kinematic chain b) pair c) structure d) redundant chain

10. The inversion of a mechanism is a) changing of a higher pair to a lower pair b) turning its upside down c) obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain d) obtained by reversing the input and output motion

Kinematics of Machinery

1. When particle moves with a uifrom velocity along a circular path, then the particle has a) tangetial acceleration only b) centreipetal acceleration only c) both centreipetal acceleration and tangetial acceleration only d) coriolis only 350

2. The connection between the piston and cylinder in reciprocating corresponding to a) completly constrained kinematic pair b) incompletly constrained kinematic pair c) Sucessfully constrained kinematic pair d) single link

3. which of the following are examples of force closed kinmatics pairs 1. cam and roller mechanism 2. Door closing mechanism 3. slider crank mechanism 4. Automotive clutch opearting mechansim

a) 1,2 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4 d) 1,2,3 and 4

4. consider the following pairs 1. pair of gear in mesh 2. Belt and pulley 3. cylinder and pistonn 4. cam and follower Among these, the higher pairs are a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4 c) 1,2 and 3 351

d) 1,2 and 4

5. A linkage is shown below in the figure in which ABC and DEF are ternary links where as AF, BE and CD are binary links. The degree of freedom of the linkage when link ABC is fixed are a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

6. The centre of gravity of the coupler link in a 4-bar mechanism would experience

a) No acceleration b) only linear acceleration c) Only angular acceleration d) both linear and angular accelerations

7. In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is necessary to determine the Corioli’s component of acceleration in the case of

a) crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism b) slider-crank mechanism c) four bar mechanism d) pantograph

352

8. In a mechanism, the fixed instataneous centres are those centres which a) remain in same place for all configration of the mechanism b) vary with the configuration of the mechansim c) moves as the mechanism moves d) fixed

9. when a slider moves on a curved surface, their instantanous center liies a) on the poin of contact b) at the center of curvature c) at the center of circle d) at the pin joint

10. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the same link is a) parallel to the link b) perpendicular to the link joining the points c) at 45 degree to the link joining the points d) at 30 degree

11. In a reciprocating engine, which of the following forms a kinematic link a) cylinder and piston b) piston and connecting rod c) crank shaft and flywheel d) flywheel and engine frame

12. Ball and socket forms a a) turning pair

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b) rolling pair c) sliding pair d) spherical pair

13. The lead screw of lathe with nut forms a a) turning pair b) rolling pair c) screw pair d) force closed pair

14. when the element of the pair are kept in contact by the action of external forces, the pairs are said to be a) lower pair b) higher pair c) self closed pair d) force closed pair

15. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between link is completly constrained, is called as a) structure b) mechanism c) kinematic chain d) inversion

16. The relation between number of pairs (p) forming a kinematic chain and number of links (l) is a) l = 2p - 2 b) l = 2p - 3 354

c) l = 2p - 4 d) l = 2p - 5

17. A kinematic chian is known as a mechanism when a) none of the links fixed b) one of the links fixed c) two of the links fixed d) all of the links are to be fixed

18. which of the following is an inversion of slider crank chain? a) beam engine b) watt indicator c) elliptical trammel d) whit worth quick return motion mechanism

19. which of the following is an inversion of double slider crank chain ? a) coupling of a locomotive b) pendulum pump c) elliptical trammel d) oscilating cylinder engine

20. When relative motion between two element is completely or successfully constrained, the these two elements from a a) mechanism b) machine c) kinematic pair d) kinematic chain

355

21. Ball bearing and roller bearing form a a) turning pair b) rolling pair c) sliding pair d) spherical pair

22. Which one of the following is a lower pair? a) ball and roller bearing b) automobile steering gear c) cam and follower d) belt and chain drives

23. Choose the correct statement a) sliding pair has incompletely constrained motion b) a pair of friction discs constitutes a lower pair c) rectilinear motion of a piston is converted into rotary motion by slider crank d) automobile steering gear is an example of higher pair

24. The motion of a shaft with collars at each endin a circular hole is an example of a) incompletely constrained motion b) completely constrained motion c) successfully constrained motion d) none of the above

25. motion of a shaft a circular hole is an example of a) incompletely constrained motion 356

b) completely constrained motion c) successfully constrained motion d) force closed

26. The differential mechanism of an automobile is having degree of freedom a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

27. The Ackermann steering gear is the inversion of a) slider crank chain b) four bar chain c) crossed slider crank chain d) double slider crank chain

28. Oldham's coupling and elliptic trammels are the inversion of a) double slider crank chain b) single slider crank chain c) four bar chain d) crossed slider crank chain

29. any point on a link connecting double slider chain will trace a a) straight line b) circle c) ellipse d) parabola 357

30. a mechanism is assemblage of a) two links b) three linnks c) four links or more than four links d) five link

31. a sliding crank chain consists of following number of turning and sliding pairs a) 1, 3 b) 2,2 c) 3,1 d) 4,1

32. The tendency of body to resist change from rest or motion is known as a) resisting torque b) friction c) inertia d) resisting force

33. Typewriter constitutes a) Machine b) structure c) mechansim d) pair

34. A cam mechanism imparts following motion a) rotating 358

b) ocsillating c) reciprocating d) not any of the above

35. open pairs are thosee which have a) point or line contact b) surface contact c) elements of pair are not held together mechanically d) two elements permits relative motion

36. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism a) two links should be fixed b) one links should be fixed c) none of the above d) there is no such criterion

37. In simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following number of links a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

38. In SHM motion, acceleration is proportional to a) velocity b) displacement c) rate of change of velocity d) stroke 359

39. For a SHM motion of the follower, a cosine curve represents a) displacement b) velocity c) acceleration d) jerk

40. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are a) 4,6 b) 4,5 c) 5,4 d) 6,4

41. According to kennndys theorem, if three bodies have plane motion, their instantaneous centers lie on a) triangle b) a point c) two lines d) a straight line

42. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the a) centrepetal component of accelration with length of link b) tangential component of accelration with length of link c) resultant with link length d) velocity

43. Klien's construction is useful to determine

360

a) velocity of various parts b) acceleration of various parts c) displacement of varoius parts d) angular accelearion of various parts

44. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the center of cam axis is known as a) pitch circle b) base circle c) prime circle d) cam circle

45. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft. This arrangement is called a) Spur gearing b) helical gearing c) Bevel Gear d) Spiral gear

46. The size of the gear is usually give by a) Addendum circle b) Dedendum c) pitch circle d) clearance circle

47. The radial distance of tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is called a) Dedendum b) addendum 361

c) clearance d) working depth

48. The product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to a) 1 b) 1/π c) π d) 2π

49. Involute profile is preferred to cycloid because a) The pitch is easy to cut b) Only one curve is required to cut c) all of above d) none of the above

50. The contact ratio for gear is a) 0 b) 1 c) more than 1 d) 1.5

51. cam size depends on a) base circle b) pitch circle c) prime circle d) outer circle

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52. The maximum value of pressure angle in case of cam is kept as a) 10 degree b) 14 degree c) 20 degree d) 30 degree

53. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will give a) small value of pressure angle b) large value of pressure angle c) there is no such relation d) something else

54. A rigid body possesses_____degrees of freedom. a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

55. Transmission angle is the angle between a) Input link and coupler b) Input link and fixed link c) Output link and coupler d) Output link and fixed link

56. ________ is an inversion of Double slider crank chain. a) Coupling rod of a locomotive b) Scotch yoke mechanism 363

c) Hand pump d) Reciprocating engine

57. The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where l = number of links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs) a) n = 3(l-1)-2j-h b) n = 2(l-1)-2j-h c) n = 3(l-1)-3j-h d) n = 2(l-1)-3j-h

58. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one revolution of arm about the centre of bigger gear is a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5

59. Which gear is used for connecting two coplanar and intersecting shafts? a) Spur gear b) Helical gear c) Bevel gear d) worm gear

60. Module of a gear is a) D/T b) T/D c) 2D/T 364

d) 2T/D

61. Length of arc of contact is given by a) Arc of approach - Arc of recess b) Arc of approach + Arc of recess c) Arc of approach / Arc of recess d) Arc of approach x Arc of recess

62. The type of gears used to connect two non parallel and non intersecting shafts is a) Spur gear b) Helical gear c) Bevel gear d) Spiral gear

63. In which of the following type of gear train the first gear and the last gear are co-axial. a) Simple gear train b) Compound gear train c) Reverted gear train d) epicyclic

64. Which gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in a small space? a) Simple gear train b) Compound gear train c) Reverted gear train d) Epicyclic gear train

65. Which type of gear train is used in clock mechanism to join hour hand and minute hand? 365

a) Simple gear train b) Compound gear train c) Reverted gear train d) Epicyclic gear train

66. Which type of gearing is used in steering system of an automobile? a) Rack and pinion b) Worm and wheel c) Spiral gears d) None of the above

67. Which one of the following is an exact straight line mechanism using lower pairs? a) Watt’s mechanism b) Grasshopper mechanism c) Robert’s mechanism d) Paucellier’s mechanism

68. Consider the following mechanisms:

1.Oscillating cylinder engine mechanism 2.Toggle mechanism 3. Radial cylinder engine mechanism 4. Quick return mechanism Which of the above are inversions of slider crank mechanism? a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 366

d) 1, 3 and 4

69. Which of the following is open pair a) journal bearing b) Ball and socket joint c) leave screw and nut d) all of the above

70. which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space? a) simple gear train b) compound gear train c) reverted gear train d) epicyiclic gear train

71. The component of acceleration,parallel to the veloity of the particle, at the given instant is called a) radial component b) tangential componnent c) coriolis component d) resultant

72. The radial distance of a tooth from pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called a) dedundum b) addendum c) clearance d) working depth

367

73. The module is reciprocal of a) diametral pitch b) circular pitch c) pitch diameter d) pressure angle

74. Mitre gears are used for a) great speed reduction b) equal speed c) minimum axial thrust d) minimum backlash

75. The condtion for correct gearing is a) pitch line velocities of teeth be same b) radius of curavture of two profile be same c) common normal to the pitch surface cuts the line of centres at a fixed point d) pitch line velocities of teeth different

76. Involute profile is prefered to cycloid because a) the profile is easy to cut b) only one curve is required to cut c) the rack has straight line profile and hence can be cut accurately d) smoother operation

77. Interfernece can be avoided in involute gears with 20 degree pressure angle by a) cutting involute correctly b) using as small umber of teeth as possible 368

c) using more than 20 teeth d) using more than 8 teeht

78. In simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will a) be same as that of driving gear b) be opposite as that of driving gear c) depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear d) none of the above

79. The train value of gear is a) equal to velocity ration of a gear train b) reciprocal of velocityy ratio of a gear train c) always greater that unity d) always less than unity

80. In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move relative to a fixed axis is called a) epicyclic gear train b) reverted gear train c) compound gear train d) simple gear train

81. A differential gear in an automobile is a a) simple gear train b) epicyclic c) compound gear train d) compound gear

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82. A differential gear in automobile is used to a) reduce the speed b) assist in changing in speed c) provide jerk free movement of vehicle d) help in turning

83. The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve is called a) pitch angle b) prime angle c) base angle d) pressure angle

84. The cam follower generally used in automobile a) kife edge follower b) flat faced folower c) spherical faced follwer d) roller follwer

85. The cam follower extensively used in air craft engines is a) knife edge follower b) flat faced follower c) spherical faced follower d) roller follwer

86. In a radial cam, the follower moves

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a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis b) in a direction parallel to cam axis c) in any direction irrespective of the cam axis d) along the cam axis

87. A radial follower is one a) That reciprocates in the guides b) that ocillates c) in which the follower translates along an axis passing throgh the cam centre of rotation d) translates

88. offset is provided to a cam follower mechanism to a) minimise the side thrust b) accelerate c) avoid jerk d) reduced the noise

89. For a low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with a) uniform velocity b) simple harmonic motion c) uniform acceleration and retardation d) cycloidal motion

90. For high speed engines, the cam and follwer should move with a) uniform velocity b) simple harmonic motion c) uniform acceleration and retardation 371

d) cycloidal motion

91. which of the following displacement diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic perforamance of cam follower motion a) simple harmonic motion b) parabolic motion c) cycloidal motion d) tangent

92. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relaitve motion between the linkage is compltly constrained is called as a) structure b) mechanism c) kinematic chain d) inversion

93. The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degree of freedom is equal to a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) -1

94. In a four bar chain or quadric cycle a) each of the four pairs is turning pair b) one is a turning pair and three sliding pairs c) three are turning pairs and one is sliding pair d) all are sliding pairs

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95. The total number of instantaneous centers for a mechanism consiting of n links are a) n/2 b) n c) (n-1)/2 d) [n(n-1)]/2

96. The instantaneous centers which vary with the configuration of the mechanism are called a) permanet instantaneous centres b) fixed instantaneous centres c) neither fixed norpermanet instantaneous centres d) flexible instantaneous centres

97. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having parallel teeth to the axis of the shaft. the arrangement is called a) spur gearing b) helical gearing c) bevel gearing d) spiral gearing

98. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear is called a) addendum circle b) dedundum circle c) pitch circle d) clearance circle

99. which of the following is incorrect relationship for gears a) circular pitch X diameteral pitch = 3.14 373

b) module = pcd/No of teeth c) dedendum = 1.157 module d) addedendum = 2.157 module

100. The train value of a gear train is a) equal to velocity ratio b) reciprocal of velocity ratio c) >1 d)