Crime Detection

Crime Detection Review Questions 1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in A. the presence of a fiscal B. the presence of a police investigator C. writing D. front of a judge 2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the A. National Bureau of Investigation B. Department of the Interior and Local Government C. Supreme Court D. Department of Justice 3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence. A. Inquiry B. Interview C. polygraph examination D. interrogation 4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity. A. Tailing B. Casing C. Espionage D. Undercover work 5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing the subject.

A. B. C. D.

loose tail casing pony tail close tail

6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and associates is required. A. loose tail B. casing C. pony tail D. close tail 7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location. A. Casing B. Tailing C. Stake out D. Espionage 8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's or personal properties connected in a crime. A. B. C. D.

Search Raid Investigation Seizure

9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same point. A. Corroborative evidence B. Circumstantial evidence C. Direct evidence D. Real evidence

10. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor. A. case preparation B. order maintenance C. crime prevention D. public service 11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act. A. Instigation B. Inducement C. Buy bust operation D. Entrapment 12.A special qualification for an undercover agent. A. excellent built B. excellent eyesight C. excellent looks D. excellent memory 13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects. A. close observation B. espionage C. tailing D. surveillance 14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into custody. A. preliminary investigation B. interrogation

C. custodial investigation D. cross examination 15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at A. day time B. night time C. any day and at any time of the day or night D. weekdays 16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts. A. preventive measures B. countermeasures C. pro-active measures D. tape measures 17.A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes. A. police patrol B. police intelligence C. Criminal procedure D. Criminal investigation 18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation. A. initial investigation B. custodial investigation C. secondary investigation D. follow-up investigation 19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of

A. Interview B. Surveillance C. Investigation D. Interrogation 20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched. A. prima facie evidence B. probable cause C. prejudicial question D. res ipsa loquitur 21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void. A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 45 22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the person named in his report committed the crime. A. corpus delicti B. sufficiency of evidence C. stare decisis D. parens patriae 23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable. A. Opportunity denial B. Order maintenance C. Criminal investigation

D. Police intelligence 24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt. A. B. C. D.

Admission Confession Deposition Accusation

25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself. A. Admission B. Confession C. Deposition D. Accusation 26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt. A. B. C. D.

Admission Confession Deposition Accusation

27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation. A. B. C. D.

background interview personal interview intimate interview pre-game interview

28. It means method of operation.

A. B. C. D.

corpus delicti parens patriae stare decisis modus operandi

29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction. A. B. C. D.

Intent Motive Opportunity Inducement

30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case. A. B. C. D.

information, interrogation, instrumentation detection, apprehension, conviction ‘ inquiry, observation, conclusion magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation. A. B. C. D.

Interview Inquiry Interrogation Instrumentation

32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum.

A. chain of command B. chain of custody C. evidence tracking D. tracing evidence 33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc. A. B. C. D.

physical evidence associative evidence tracing evidence factual evidence

34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal. A. physical evidence B. documentary evidence C. tracing evidence D. testimonial evidence 35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except one: A. sympathetic approach B. emotional appeal C. financial assistance D. friendliness 36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes. A. strip method B. wheel method

C. spiral method D. zone method 37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant. A. B. C. D.

strip method wheel method spiral method zone method

38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point. A. strip method B. wheel method C. spiral method D. zone method 39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed. A. B. C. D.

Convoy Caravan Tailing Surveillance

40.Another term for tailing. A. Impersonating B. Backing C. Supporting D. Shadowing 41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

He may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous. A. Witness B. Expert witness C. Hostile witness D. Informant 42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people. A. B. C. D.

Bugging Dubbing Mimicking Tapping

43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it. A. B. C. D.

Interrogation rumor mongering interview inquiry

44.An objective of criminal investigation. A. determine the motive B. identify criminals C. rehabilitate criminals D. prevent crimes 45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their

ignition temperature at the same time. A. Intensity B. Ignition C. Flash over D. Starter 46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapors varies from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin. A. B. C. D.

Intensity Ignition Flash over Starter

47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light. A. Ignition B. Convection C. Radiation D. Conduction 48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts. A. Ignition B. Convection C. Radiation D. Conduction 49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to A. interview witnesses B. view the site of the crime

C. preserve the fire/crime scene D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene 50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification. A. group fire setter B. arson for profit C. fire starter D. solitary fire setter 51.The primary course of action in case of a fire. A. pack up and flee B. run for your life C. call an ambulance D. raise the alarm Answer: D 52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing. A. carbon oxide B. carbon monoxide C. carbon paper D. carbon dioxide Answer: D 53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted. A. carbon oxide B. carbon monoxide C. carbon paper D. carbon dioxide Answer: B 54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.

A. B. C. D.

fire resistance fire duration fire proof fire strength

Answer: A

55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc…. A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D Answer: D 56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling. A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D Answer: A 57.The following are components of fire except one: A. Gas B. Fuel C. Oxygen D. Heat Answer: A 58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin. A. Charring B. Alligatoring C. V pattern D. Pour pattern Answer: A 59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood. A. Crazing

B. Spalling C. Light bulbs D. Charring

Answer: A

60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi. A. Accelerants B. delaying tactic C. timing device D. stopper Answer: C 61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene. A. Accelerants B. Trailers C. timing device D. Stopper Answer: A 62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect flammable vapors. A. Accelerant B. Sniffer C. timing device D. stopper Answer: B 63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and satisfaction from it. A. fire starter syndrome B. pyrotechnic disease C. pyromania D. pyrophobia Answer: C 64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.” A. PD 1108

B. PD 1017 C. PD 1081 D. PD 1185

Answer: D

65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives. A. blasting agent B. blasting cap C. gun powder D. explosive primer Answer: A 66.These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one: A. Combustible B. Corrosive C. Flammable D. Inflammable Answer: B 67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit. A. B. C. D.

combustible liquid flammable liquid inflammable liquid corrosive liquid

Answer: A

68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter. A. combustible liquid B. flammable liquid C. inflammable liquid D. corrosive liquid Answer: A 69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space between two conductors. A. electrical arc

B. damper C. duct system D. ember

Answer: A

70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion. A. explosion B. arson C. combustion D. fire Answer: D 71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses. A. class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D Answer: B 72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures. A. B. C. D.

Conduction Convection Radiation Combustion

Answer: B

73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor. A. burning point B. melting point C. freezing point D. boiling point Answer: B 74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard.

A. B. C. D.

point of no return point of no escape start of evasive action final position

Answer: C

75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway. A. Traffic B. Flight C. Trip D. Journey Answer: A 76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference points. A. traffic report B. spot report C . triangulation D. accident investigation Answer: C 77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth. A. Inertia B. Friction C. Energy D. Gravity Answer: D 78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons. A. Fatal B. Chronic C. Non fatal D. Injurious Answer: B 79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines” A. RA 7160 B. RA 8551

C. RA 6425 D. RA 4136

Answer: D

80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury, death or property damage. A. traffic incidents B. traffic accidents C. traffic hazards D. traffic events Answer: B 81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way. A. non motor vehicle traffic accident B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident D. motor vehicle traffic accident Answer: D 82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him. A. traffic citation B. traffic request C. traffic warrant D. D. traffic violation Answer: A 83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard. A. primary contact B. secondary contact C. disengagement D. initial contact Answer: D 84.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one: A. Engineering B. Education C. Enforcement

D. Evaluation

Answer: D

85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.” A. RA 9870 B. RA 9165 C. RA 1017 D. RA 6195 Answer: B 86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called psychedelics. A. Tranquillizers B. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants D. Depressants Answer: B 87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions. A. Stimulants B. Narcotics C. Depressants D. Hallucinogens Answer: B 88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit. A. Gynecology B. Prostitution C. White Slavery D. Sex Trade Answer: B 89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant. A. cannabis sativa L B. Papaver somniforum C. deoxyribonucleic acid D. methamphetamine HCl Answer: A

90.The original components of heroin and morphine. A. Codeine B. Caffeine C. Opium D. Methamphetamine Answer: C 91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs. A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs C. Dangerous Drug Board D. Food and Drug Administration Answer: A 92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body. A. Vice B. Abuse C. Addiction D. Virtue Answer: A 93.The most common form of stimulant. A. Heroin B. Codeine C. Morphine D. Shabu Answer: D 94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride. A. Heroin B. Codeine C. Morphine D. None of these Answer: D 95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever. A. Codeine

B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Caffeine

Answer: A

96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds. A. opium poppy B. marijuana C. caffeine components D. codeine Answer: A 97.Another term for psychological drug addiction. A. drug habituation B. drug net consciousness C. drug pushing D. drug dependence Answer: D 98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physician’s order. A. B. C. D.

illegal drugs prohibited drugs regulated drugs prescription drugs

Answer: D

99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living organism. A. Alcohol B. Poison C. Drug D. Vice Answer: C 100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause of fire.

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

Evidence collection laboratory examination of evidence interview witnesses interrogation of suspects Answer: C

C D D D D A C A A A D D D B C C D D D B A A A B B

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

A A D B A A A C A C B D C C B D A C B C B C D C D

Administration of Police Organization Review Questions 1 1.A primary subdivision of a bureau with a department wide responsibility for providing a specific specialized functions. A.Section B.Sector

C.Squad D.Detail 2.A subdivision of a squad A.Section B.Unit C.Sector D.Detail 3.A subdivision of a unit. A.Section B.Unit C.Squad D.Detail 4.A subdivision of a section. A.Precinct B.Unit C.Squad D.Detail 5.The primary geographic subdivision of a precinct. A.Post B.Sector C. Section D.Unit 6.The primary subdivision of a sector. A.Post B.Beat C. Unit D.Sector 7.One of several tours of duty. A.Detail

B.Post C. Shift D.Beat 8.Fixed geographic location usually assigned to an individual officer A.Post B.Beat C. Shift D.Section 9.The primary geographic subdivision of the patrol operation bureau. A. Precinct B.Section C. Sector D.Unit 10.It means planning the work of the department and of the personnel in an orderly manner. A.Plan B.Delegate C. Oversee D.Organize

Memorize the following: 1.Organize - it means planning the work of the department and of the personnel in an orderly manner. 2.Oversee - It means that the supervisor ensures that the work that has been organized and delegated is satisfactorily completed.

3.Delegate - It means giving someone else the responsibility and authority to do something. 4.Precinct - the primary geographic subdivision of the patrol operation bureau. 5.Post - Fixed geographic location usually assigned to an individual officer. 6.Shift - one of several tours of duty. 7.Beat - the primary subdivision of a sector. 8.Sector - the primary geographic subdivision of a precinct. 9.Unit - subdivision of a section. 10.Squad - a subdivision of a unit. 11.Detail - a subdivision of a squad. 12.Section - a primary subdivision of a bureau with a department wide responsibility for providing a specific specialized functions. Answers: Administration of Police Organization 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B

10. D

Patrol Organization and Operation Reviewer 1 1. Sir Robert Peel introduced the Metropolitan Police Act and passed by the parliament of England on A. 1828 B. 1829

C. 1830 D. 1831 2. Considered as the father of modern policing system. A. Sir Robert Peel B. August Vollmer C. Edgar Hoover D. Henry Armstrong 3. In the principles of law enforcement enunciated by Sir Robert Peel, the basic mission of the police is A. Prevention of crime B. Enforcement of the law C. Maintenance of peace and order D. None of the above 4. One of the feature of this act is that no freeman shall be taken or imprisoned except by the judgment of his peer A. Magna Carta B. Statute of 1295 C. Legies Henry D. None of the above 5. The closing of gates of London during sun down. This mark the beginning of the curfew hours A. Statute of 1295 B. Statute of 1775 C. Statute of 1827 D. Statute of 1834 6. A Position having power to arrest, punish, and imposes imprisonment. A. Justice of the Peace B. Sheriff C. Star Chamber Court D. traveling Judge

7. A Special Court that tried cases against the state. A. Shire-Reeve B. Star Chamber Court C. Magna Carta D. Legies Henry 8. He is held responsible in passing judgment that was taken from the shire-reeve in view of some abuses. A. Legies Henry B. star Chamber Court C. Justice of the Peace D. Traveling Judge 9. An Act enacted in England with the following features: a. Policeman became public servant b. The Police has a broad power of arrest c. Grand Jury was created to inquire on the violations of the law. A. Statute of 1295 B. Star Chamber Court C. Legies Henry D. Magna Carta 10. Shire means A. Ruler B. District C. Police D. Judge 11. Reeve means A. Ruler B. District C. Police D. Judge

Answer: 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A

Patrol Organization and Operation Reviewer 2 1. A round line or district area regularly traversed by foot police patrol. A. Bureau B. Division C. Section D. Beat 2. One of the advantage of this patrol is that the patrolman knows the area and people in his beat. A. Bicycle Patrol B. Horse Patrol C. Motorized Patrol D. Foot Patrol 3. Backbone of the police service in the community. A. Police Intelligence B. Police Investigation C. Police Patrol

D. None of the above 4. One of the following types of police patrol is currently not used in the Philippines. A. Mobile Patrol B. Foot Patrol C. Animal Patrol D. Aircraft Patrol 5. It is the largest segment of a police station. A. Police Patrol B. Police Investigation C. Police Intelligence D. None of the Above 6. From the time of the receipt of the call by the police dispatcher to the arrival of the mobile patrol at the scene. A. Response Time B. Preparation Time C. Speed Time D. None of the Above 7. Which of the following kind of patrol is most effective in parade and crowd control. A. Foot Patrol B. Horse Patrol C. Mobile Patrol D. Aircraft Patrol 8. One of the advantage of this kind of patrol is stealth silence for movement. A. Foot Patrol B. Bicycle Patrol C. Mobile Patrol D. Horse Patrol

9. An electronic equipment that has helped the police in its record, storage, and location system. A. Walkie Talkie B. Vault C. File Room D. Computer 10. One electronic gadget or equipment that has assisted immediately the police investigation and interrogation in his work. A. Walkie Talkie B. Tape Recorder C. Computer D. None of the Above Patrol Organization Reviewer 3: Next Page Answer: 1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. B

Patrol Organization Reviewer 3

1. Backbone of the police department. A. Intelligence B. Patrol C. Investigation D. Vice Control 2. Established the fist English police department, the London metropolitan police in 1829. A. O.W Wilson B. Sir Robert Peel C. Henry Fielding D. None of the Above 3. He laid the foundation for the first modern police force. he was appointed magistrate in Westminster in 1748. A. Henry Fielding B. Sir Robert Peel C. O.W. Wilson D. None of the Above 4. A Chicago Police department superintendent, he introduced a one man mobile patrol except in ghetto and crime ridden section of the city. The rationale is that help is a microphone away. A. O.W. Wilson B. Sir Robert Peel C. Henry Fielding D. None of the Above 5. Required all men in a given town to serve on the night watch. A. Hue and Cry B. Shires C. Parish constable D. Watch and Ward

6. Ten tithings or 100 families under the charge of a constable. A. Shire B. Parish Constable C. Beadies D. Hundred 7. Groups of hundreds within a specific geographic area.They were put under the control of the King and were governed by a shire-reeve or sheriff. A. Shires B. Parish Constable C. Beadies D. Tithings 8. Ten families who grouped together to protect one another and to assume responsibility for the acts of the group member. A. Hundred B. Shires C. Tithings D. Beadies 9. Enacted in 1285 in England, it established a rudimentary criminal justice system in which most of the responsibility for law enforcenment remained with the people themselves. A. The Hue and Cry B. shire-reeve C. Statute of Winchester D. Magna carta 10.He was responsible for organizing and supervising the watch A. Shire-reeve B. Shire C. Magistrate D. Parish Constable

Answer: 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. C 10.D

Patrol Organization and Operation Reviewer 4 1. He assisted the justices of the peace by presiding the courts, ordering arrest, calling witnesses and examining prisoners A. Parish Constable B. Sheriff C. Magistrates D. Shire 2. This office was created to assist the shire-reeve in non urban areas A. Justice of the Peace B. Parish Constable C. Magistrates D. Watchmen 3. This office was created to assist the shire-reeve in urban areas. A. Justice of the Peace B. Parish Constable C. Magistrates D. Watchmen

4. Patrolling the streets from dusk till dawn to insure that all local people were indoors and quite and to insure that no strangers were roaming around. A. Justice of the peace B. Parish Constable C. Magistrates D. Watchmen 5. A system of apprehending criminals whereby a complainant goes in the middle of the street and shout at the top of his voice calling all males to assemble and indicates the whereabouts of the culprit. A. Royal Judge B. Magistrates C. Watchmen D. Hue and Cry 6. He conducts Criminal investigation and give punishment. A. Royal Judge B. Magistrate C. Watchmen D. Parish Constable 7. Suspects were required to place their hands in boiling water. When not hurt, he will be acquitted, if not he is guilty of the crime. A. Hue and Cry B. Shire C. Trial by Ordeal D. None of the Above 8. An Anglo-saxon period of policing system where the residents themselves were required to preserve the peace and order and protect life and properties of the people. A. Hue and Cry B. Royal Judge

C. Trial by ordeal D. Tun policing system 9. The cooperative human effort to achieve the purpose of criminal justice system. A. Civil Administration B. Police Administration C. Patrol Administration D. None of the above 10.This law established the Napolcom under the office of the President. It is also known as the Police Act of 1966. A. R.A. 6975 B. C.A. 181 C. R.A. 4864 D. R.A. 4668

Answer: 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. C

Patrol Organization and Operation Reviewer 5

1. An area containing two or more beat, route, or post. A. Sector B. District C. Area D. None of the Above 2. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes usually with its own station. A. Sector B. District C. Area D. None of the Above 3. A section or territorial division of a large city each composed of designated districts. A. Sector B. District C. Area D. None of the Above 4. All personnel of the police department who have taken oath. A. Duty officer B. Subordinate officer C. Sworn officer D. Commanding officer 5. Describes the procedure that defines the duties of officers assigned to specific post or position. A. Duty Manual B. Mission Order C. Special Order D. Office Manual

6. The Japanese Military Police. A. Kempetai B. Sepuko C. Arigato D. Kimchi 7. The Manila Police Department was formally organized on this date. A. July 31, 1901 B. July 31. 1902 C. August 1, 1901 D. August 1, 1902 8. The PC (Philippine Constabulary) was organized as the first insular police force on this date. A. July 31, 1901 B. July 31, 1902 C. August 1, 1901 D. August 1, 1902 9. The First Chief of the PC (Philippine Constabulary). A. Ronald John Hay B. Henry Allen C. George Cury D. John Burnham 10. The First chief of police of Manila. A. Henry Allen B. George Cury C. Howard Taft D. Tomas Clark

Answer:

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B

Police Operational Planning Reviewer 1 1. The determination in advance of how the objectives ofthe organization will be attained. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling 2. involves the determination and allocation of the men and women as well as the resource of an organization to achieve pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling 3. It involves the overseeing and supervising of the human resources and the various activities in an organization to achieve through cooperative efforts the pre-determined goals or objectives of theorganization. A. Planning B. Organizing

C. Directing D. Controlling 4. It involves the checking or evaluation and measurement of work performance and comparing it with planned goalsor objectives of the organization, and making thenecessary corrective actions so that work is accomplished as planned. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Directing D. Controlling 5. The task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing the right men for the right job-involves good selection and processing of reliable and well-trained personnel. A. Staffing B. Reporting C. Budgeting D. Controlling 6. The making of detailed account of activities, work progress, investigations and unusual in order to keepevery one informed or what is going on. A. Staffing B. Reporting C. Budgeting D. Controlling 7. The forecasting in detail of the results of an officially recognized program of operations based onthe highest reasonable expectations of operatingefficiency. A. Staffing B. Reporting C. Budgeting D. Controlling

8. This is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds, which shall be outlined to guide officers and men in the field. A. Field Procedure B. Headquarter's Procedure C. Special Operating Procedure D. None of the Above 9. To be included in these procedures are the duties of the dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other personnel concerned, which may be reflected in the duty manual. It also involves coordinated action on activity of several offices. A. Field Procedure B. Headquarter's Procedure C. Special Operating Procedure D. None of the Above 10.Certain special operations also necessitate the preparation of procedures as guides. A. Field Procedure B. Headquarter's Procedure C. Special Operating Procedure D. None of the Above

Answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

A B C D A B C

8. A 9. B 10. C

Police Operational Planning Reviewer 2 1. A general statement of intention and typically with a time horizon. A. Goal B. Objective C. Plan D. Strategy 2. Specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time. A. Goal B. Objective C. Plan D. Strategy 3. An organize schedule or sequence by methodical activities intended to attain a goal and objectives for the accomplishment of mission or assignment. A. Goal B. Objective C. Plan D. Strategy 4. Is an attempt by administration to allocate anticipated resources to meet anticipated service demands. A. Police Planning B. Planning

C. Strategy D. Plan 5. A process of preparing for change and copping uncertainty formulating future causes of action, the process of determining the problem of the organization coming up with proposed resolution and finding best solution. A. Police Planning B. Planning C. Strategy D. Plan 6. It is a broad design, method, a plan to attain a stated goal or objective. A. Police Planning B. Planning C. Strategy D. Plan 7. It is a specific design, method, or course of action to attain a particular objective in accordance with strategy. A. Tactic B. Procedure C. Policy D. Guidelines 8. A sequence of activities to reach a point or to attain that which is desired. A. Tactic B. Procedure C. Policy D. Guidelines 9. A product of prudence or wisdom in the management of human affairs.

A. Tactic B. Procedure C. Policy D. Guidelines 10.A rule of action for the rank and file to show them and they are expected to obtain the desired effect. A. Tactic B. Procedure C. Policy D. Guidelines

Answer: 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D

Police Operational Planning Reviewer 3 1. Set of procedure to meet varying degree of emergency while at the same time providing continuing police coverage of areas not affected by the emergency.

A. General Emergency Plan B. Specific Emergency Plan C. Policy D. Guidelines 2. A sub-type of plan to meet unusual needs which is similar to general emergency plan but it is basically to certain specific situation. A. General Emergency Plan B. Specific Emergency Plan C. Policy D. Guidelines 3. It relates to plans which are strategic or long range in application, it determine the organizations original goals and strategy. A. Strategic plan B. Intermediate plan C. Operational plan D. None of the Above 4. It relates to plans which determine quantity and quality efforts and accomplishment. It refers to the process of determining the contribution on efforts that can make or provide with allocated resources. A. Strategic plan B. Intermediate plan C. Operational plan D. None of the Above 5. It refers to the production of plans which determines the schedule of special activity and are applicable from one week to less than a year duration. A. Strategic plan B. Intermediate plan

C. Operational plan D. None of the Above 6. It is the basic principle in planning, organizing, and management of the PNP in support of the overall pursuit of the PNP vision, mission, and strategic action plan of the national objective. A. Fundamental Doctrine B. Operational Doctrine C. Functional Doctrine D. None of the Above 7. The principles and rules governing the planning, organization, direction, and employment of the PNP forces in the accomplishment of basic mission of maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention and suppression and security and public safety operations. A. Fundamental Doctrine B. Operational Doctrine C. Functional Doctrine D. None of the Above 8. This provides guidance for special activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest such as personnel, intelligence, operations, logistics, planning. A. Fundamental Doctrine B. Operational Doctrine C. Functional Doctrine D. None of the Above 9. Doctrine formulated jointly by two or more bureau in order to effect a certain operation with regard to public safety and peace and order. A. Fundamental Doctrine B. Operational Doctrine C. Complimentary Doctrine

D. Ethical Doctrine 10.It defines the fundamental principle governing the rules of conduct, attitude, behavior and ethical norm of the PNP. A. Fundamental Doctrine B. Operational Doctrine C. Complimentary Doctrine D. Ethical Doctrine Answer: 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. D

Police Operational Planning Reviewer 4 1. An organization is more effective if it enables the individual to contribute to the organization. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle

D. Functional Principle 2. Organizations structure is effective if it is structured to aid the accomplishment of organizations objective with minimum cost. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 3. The vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an unbroken chain of scale of units from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 4. This implies a system of varied function arranged into a workable pattern. The line organization refers to the direct accomplishment of the objective. The staff refers to the line organization which is an advisory or facilitative capacity. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 5. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position. A. Authority B. Doctrine C. Discipline D. None of the Above 6. It provides for the organizations objectives, it provides

the various actions, hence, policies, procedures, rules, and regulation of the organization are based on the statement of doctrines. A. Authority B. Doctrine C. Discipline D. None of the Above 7. It is imposed by command or self restraint to insure supportive behavior. A. Authority B. Doctrine C. Discipline D. None of the Above 8. Procedures for coping with specific situations and locations. A. Procedural Plan B. Tactical Plan C. Operational Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 9. Plans for the operation of special divisions like patrol, detective, traffic, vice, and juvenile control division. A. Procedural Plan B. Tactical Plan C. Operational Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 10. Standard operating procedures shall be planned to guide members in routine and field operations and in some special operations. A. Procedural Plan B. Tactical Plan C. Operational Plan D. Extra-Office Plan

Answer: 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A

Police Operational Planning Reviewer 4 1. An organization is more effective if it enables the individual to contribute to the organization. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 2. Organizations structure is effective if it is structured to aid the accomplishment of organizations objective with minimum cost. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 3. The vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an unbroken chain of scale of units from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority. A. Principle of Unity of Objective

B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 4. This implies a system of varied function arranged into a workable pattern. The line organization refers to the direct accomplishment of the objective. The staff refers to the line organization which is an advisory or facilitative capacity. A. Principle of Unity of Objective B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency C. The Scalar Principle D. Functional Principle 5. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position. A. Authority B. Doctrine C. Discipline D. None of the Above 6. It provides for the organizations objectives, it provides the various actions, hence, policies, procedures, rules, and regulation of the organization are based on the statement of doctrines. A. Authority B. Doctrine C. Discipline D. None of the Above 7. It is imposed by command or self restraint to insure supportive behavior. A. Authority B. Doctrine C. Discipline D. None of the Above

8. Procedures for coping with specific situations and locations. A. Procedural Plan B. Tactical Plan C. Operational Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 9. Plans for the operation of special divisions like patrol, detective, traffic, vice, and juvenile control division. A. Procedural Plan B. Tactical Plan C. Operational Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 10. Standard operating procedures shall be planned to guide members in routine and field operations and in some special operations. A. Procedural Plan B. Tactical Plan C. Operational Plan D. Extra-Office Plan Answer: 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A

Police Operational Planning Reviewer 5 1. Standard Operating procedures shall be planned to guide members in routine and field operations and in some special operations. A. Policy/Procedural Plan B. Operational Plan C. Tactical Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 2. Procedures for coping with specific situations at known locations. A. Policy/Procedural Plan B. Operational Plan C. Tactical Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 3. Plans for the operation of special divisions like patrol, detective, traffic, vice and juvenile control division. A. Policy/Procedural Plan B. Operational Plan C. Tactical Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 4. The active interest and participation of individual office is so vital to the success of the integrated police programs tha the integrated police shall continually seek to motivate, promote and maintain an active public concern in its affairs. A. Policy/Procedural Plan B. Operational Plan C. Tactical Plan D. Extra-Office Plan

5. It shall map out in advance all operations involved in the organizations management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money. A. Policy/Procedural Plan B. Operational Plan C. Management Plan D. Extra-Office Plan 6. Forecasting future events and determining the most effective future activities for the company. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Commanding D. Coordinating 7. Consist of the ways in which the organizational structure is established and how the authority and responsibility are given to managers a tasked called delegation. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Commanding D. Coordinating 8. Managers must supervise subordinates in their daily work, and inspire them to achieve company goals. Likewise it is the responsibility of managers to communicate company goals and policies to subordinates. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Commanding D. Coordinating 9. Concerned with activities designed to create a relationship between all the organizations efforts and individual task. A. Planning

B. Organizing C. Commanding D. Coordinating 10. It is a manager's duty to observe and report deviations from plans and objectives, and to make initiatives to correct potential deviations. A. Planning B. Organizing C. Controlling D. Coordinating Answer: 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C