Complete Physics MCQ
March 12, 2017 | Author: Abdul Hamid Bhatti | Category: N/A
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PHYSICS Part - I CHAPTER 1 1, In high energy physics scientist study: a, matter b, big particles c, elementary d, ions 2, Wave theory of light was presented by: a, Newton b, Maxwell c, Compton d, Huygens 3, Natural Radioactivity was disobeyed by Decree in. a, 1976. b, 1896. c, 1996. d, 1916. 4, X – rays were discovered by, a, b, c, d,
J.J. Thomson. Crooks. Lorenz. Roentgen.
5, The circumference of the earth was determined by, a, b, c, d,
Albernie. Al – Khawririmi. Omer Khayyam, Ibn – al – Haitiam.
6, The pioneers of physics are a, b, c, d,
Greeks Egyptians Babylonians Chinese
. 7, which one of the following is not a unit of length a, b, c, d,
Angstrom Micron Radian Light year
8, Which one of the following is not regarded as a fundamental quantity in physics a, b, c, d,
Length Mass Time Weight
9, Zero is significant only if it a, b, c, d,
Lies to the left of a significant digit is between two digits is to the right of a significant digit is before the decimal point
10, A Second is defined as the duration of vibration of a, b, c, d,
Carbon atom Cesium atom Radium atom Nitrogen atom
11, The dimension of the following pair is not the same a, b, c, d,
work & energy work and torque Momentum & impulse Mass & moment of inertia
10, The decimal system was introduced by a, b, c, d,
Greeks Egyptians Chinese Indians
11, The unit of Plank’s constant is a, b, c, d,
Joule /sec Joule x sec Joule x m Joule / m
12, The error in measurement may occur due to a, b, c, d,
inexperience of a person The faulty apparatus Inappropriate method Due to all reasons in a, b and c
13, In any measurement the significant figures are a, b, c, d,
all accurately known and all doubtful digits only accurately known digits only doubtful digits all accurately know digits and the first doubtful digit
14, A digit zero in a measurement a, b, c, d,
may be significant may not significant always significant always insignificant significant only if left to a significant figure
15. Which one is the highest power multiple? a, giga c, mega 16, Unit of G is ?
b, d,
beta deca
a, Nm2 kg2 b, c, N m2 kg-2
N m2 kg d, none
17, The unit of force is ___________ and its symbol is _____________ which is the correct pair? a, Newton, n c, newton, n
b, d,
Newton, N newton, N
.18, Which one is the correct representation of the unit of pressure? a Newton/Meter2 b, newton/meter2 c, Newton/meter2 d, Newton/Meter2 19, 1024 can be written in scientific notation as a, 1.024x 103 c, 0.000976
b, d,
210 1/0300097
20. Number of significant figures in 0.0173 are a, Three c, five
b, d,
four two
21. The dimension of force is a, MLT-1 c, ML-1T
b, d,
MLT-2 ML-1T2
22. ML-1T-2 is the dimension of a, force c, momentum
b, d,
pressure energy
23. Which equation is not dimensionally correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)
E = mc2 Vf = Vi + at S = Vt2 S = 1/2at2
24. Three students measured length of a needle with meter rod and recorded as: (i) 0.2145m (iii) 0.214m
(ii)
0.21m
25, Which one is correct record? a, only (i) c, only (iii)
b, d,
only (ii) both (i) and (ii)
26. Which one is the dimensionally correct equation? a, f = vt b, S = Vit+1/2at2 c, V = St
d, V= f/t 27. A metal sphere of radius r is dropped into a tank of water. As it sinks at speed v, it experiences a drag force F given by F = kr v, where k is a constant. What are the SI base units of k? a, kg m2 s–1 b, kg m–2s–2 c, kg m–1s–1 d, kg m s–2 A. 28, Wave theory of light was presented by: a Newton c, Compton
b, d,
Maxwell Huygens
29, Einstein presented his famous theory of relativity in: a, 1975 c, 1905
b, d,
1955 1805
20, Muslims in the early ages translated science books into Arabic from which language? a, English c, French
b, d,
Spanish Greek
31, Al-Beruni determined a, b, c, d,
Area of the moon Circumference of earth Modern electronics Radioactivity
32, The unit of Luminous Intensity is: a, cadela c, cdanela
b, d,
candela caladela
33, Which of the following us SI base unit? a, gram c, Newton
b, d,
slug Kilogram
34, Which one of the following shows only unit of length: a, Ao , kg, gm c, Ao km , m
b, d,
M, m3 , s Gm, m2, deci-m
35, Meter is defined as the distance traveled by light in vacuum in: a, b, c, d,
1 second 299792458 second 1/299792458 second 165076373 second
36, The dimensions of stain are a, [MLT2]b, c, [Mo Lo To]
[ML-2T] d, [M-1L-1T-1]
37, Which of the following physical quantities is represented by dimensions M -1 L1 T2
a, b, c, d,
gravitational constant G coulombs constant young,s modulus plank,s constant
38, The dimension of angular velocity is: a, A. Mo Lo K-1 c, Mo Lo K-1
ML2 L-1 K T-1
b, d,
39, One mile is equal to: a, 1699m c, 1809 m
b, d,
1799 m 1609m
b, d,
1000 mm3 100 cm3
40, 1 mc3= a, 0.01 mc3 c, 0.001 m3
ANSWER 1
D
2
A
3
C
4
A
5
B
6
D
7
B
8
D
9
C
10 B
11 A
12 A
13 A
14 B
15 B
16 C
17 C
18 D
19 B
20 B
21 C
22 A
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 C
27 D
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 C
33 C
34 B
35 C
36 C
37 D
38 A
39 B
40 C
CHAPTER 2A,B (1)
Rectangular coordinate system is also called. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2)
The direction of a vector in space is specified by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3)
vector unit vector vector in the direction at angle with x-axis unit vector in the direction at angle θ with x-axis
Maximum number of rectangular components are (a) (b) (c) (d)
(8)
x-axis normal on a surface y-axis z-axis
cosθi^ + sinθj^ is a. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(7)
dimensionless dimensional scalar negative all a, b and c are correct.
ˆ is along. Unit vector n (a) (b) (c) (d)
(6)
commutative law distributive law associative law all given laws in a, b and c.
A vector can be multiplied by number. The number may be. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(5)
one angle two angle three angle no angle
Addition of vector obeys. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4)
polar coordinate system Cartesian coordinate system Cylindrical coordinate system Space coordinate system
one two three infinite
Maximum number of components of a vector may be. (a) (b) (c) (d)
one two three infinite
(9)
Which one is not correct for a vector (a) (b) (c) (d)
(10)
has direction θ=45 with x-axis has magnitude 2 has magnitude 2 and direction θ=45 with y-axis has magnitude -2
The resultant of two forces of equal magnitudes is also equal to the magnitude of the forces. The angle between the two forces is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(11)
A A = √2 i^ + √2 j^ ?
30o 60 o 90 o 120 o
What is the angle that the given vector makes with y-axis? A = 2i^+ √ 12j^ (a) (b) (c) (d)
20 o 60o 90o 120o
(12) In which quadrant the two rectangular components of a vector have same sigh? (a) (b) (c) (d) (12)
Two vectors A and B are making angle θ with each other. The scalar projection of vector B on vector A is written as. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(14)
1st 2nd both 1st and 3rd 4th
A.B/ A A.B/ B A. cos θ Both a and b are correct.
Two vectors are A = 3i^+2j^ -k^ & B = 3i^ - 2j^ + k^ , then
(a) B is antiparallel to A (b) B is negative vector of A (c) B has negative magnitude (d) B is perpendicular to A (15)
If A=B which of the following is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(16)
A .B = A^ .B^ |A| = |B| |A^| = |B^| AB^ = BA^
i^ . (j^ x k^) is equal to. (a) 1 (b) i^
(c) j^ (d) k^ (17)
Which one is not a correct relation? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(18)
The direction of vector product is given by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(19)
their dot product their cross product head to tail rule right hand rule
The magnitude of cross product is equal to the dot product between the. The angle between the two vector is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(24)
√3 i^ + √3 j^ + √3 k^ 1√3 i^ + 1/ √3 j^ + 1√3 k^ √3/3 i^ + √3/3 j^ + √3/3 k^ both b and c are correct
Angle between two vectors A and B can be determined by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(23)
zero magnitude no specified direction both a and b are correct both a and b are not correct
Which one is a unit vector? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(22)
west north down up
Null vector is a vector which has. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(21)
head to tail rule right hand rule left hand rule triangular rule
If east, west, north, south, up and down are representing the direction of unit vectors, then east x south has direction along. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(20)
A x B = -BxA |AxB| = - |BxA| AxB = AB Sinθn^ BxA = AB Sinθ(-n^)
30o 45 o 60 o 180 o
Torque is defined as. (a) turning effect of force
(b) cross product of force and position vector (c) product of force and moment arm (d) all a, b and c are correct
(25)
The dimension of torque is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(26)
SI unit of torque is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(27)
rotational equilibrium translational equilibrium static equilibrium both a and c are correct answer
Three coplanar force acting on a body keep it in equilibrium. They should therefore be. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(32)
1st condition of equilibrium 2nd condition of equilibrium both 1st and 2nd condition of equilibrium impossible
Which one is not a type of dynamic equilibrium? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(31)
always at rest always in uniform motion may be at rest or in uniform motion may be at rest or in motion\
A body will be in complete equilibrium when it is satisfying. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(30)
acceleration linear acceleration angular acceleration direction of motion of the body
A body in equilibrium. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(29)
N.m Joule Both a and b are correct Neither a nor be is correct
Torque acting on a body determines. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(28)
[ML2T-2] [MLT-2] [ML2T] [ML-2T-2]
concurrent non concurrent parallel non parallel
Which of the following pairs does not have identical dimensions? (a) torque and energy
(b) momentum and impulse (c) energy and work (d) mass and moment f inertia
(33)
A central force. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(34)
It is easier to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with a single hand because. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(35)
acceleration force increases on the wheel two forces act on the wheel two hands provide firm grip couple acts on the wheel
The cross product i^ x j^ is equal to. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(36)
can produce torque can’t produce torque some time can produce torque some time can’t it has no relation with torque
zero one –k^ k^
The unit vector in the direction of vector A = 2i^ - 2j^ + k^ is.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2i^ - 2j^ + k^ (2i^ - 2j^ + k^) / 9 (2i^ - 2j^ + k^) / 3 (2i^ - 2j^ + k^) / 5
(37)
The magnitude of i^ .( j^ x k^) is.
(38)
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) i^ In which quadrant, only value of ‘tan’ will be positive? (a) first (b) second (c) third (d) both 1st and 3rd
(39)
If A = Ax i^ + Ayj^ + Azk^ , B = Bx i^ + Byj^ + BzK^ then.
(40)
(a) A . B = AxBx + AyBy + AzB (b) A . B = AxBy + AyBz + AzBy (c) A . B = AyBz + AzBy + AzBx (d) A . B = AxBz + AyBy + AzBx The cross product of two vectors is a negative vector when. (a) they are parallel vectors (b) they are anti parallel vectors (c) they are perpendicular vector
(d) they are rotated through 270o
3A,B (1)
D B D D
5 15 25 35
ANSWER B 6 D A 16 A A 26 A D 36 C
7 17 27 37
C B C B
8 18 28 38
When velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then. acceleration is const acceleration is variable acceleration is zero velocity is zero
Area under velocity time graph represent. force momentum distance acceleration
Slope of velocity time graph is. acceleration distance force momentum
Instantaneous and average velocities become equal when body. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(8)
4 14 24 34
10m/s 36m/s zero infinite
(a) (b) (c) (d) (7)
D A B B
D B C D
9 19 29 39
D C C A
10 20 30 40
D C C D
A man is in a car is moving with velocity of 36Km/hr. his speed with respect to the car is.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (6)
3 13 23 33
speed changes acceleration changes direction of motion changes displacement from origin changes
(a) (b) (c) (d) (5)
C C A D
A body is moving with uniform velocity. Its,
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4)
2 12 22 32
Velocity Acceleration Position vector Momentum
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3)
B B D A
When body is in motion its ____________ always changes. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2)
1 11 21 31
has zero acceleration has uniform acceleration has variable acceleration moves in a circle
Which law of motion is also called law of inertia?
CHAPTER
(a) (b) (c) (d) (8)
Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(9)
fore act on the body mass of the body velocity of the body both mass and velocity of the body
The dimension of force is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(15)
effect of force existence of a force existence of two forces existences of pair of forces in nature
Momentum depends upon. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(14)
force acceleration velocity both force and acceleration
3rd law of motion explains. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(13)
rest motion velocity force
2nd law of motion gives the definition of. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(12)
at rest moving slowly high velocity move with velocity comparable to velocity of light
1st law of motion gives the definition of. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(11)
Volume Density Mass Temperature
Newton’s laws do not hold good for particles. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(10)
1st law 2nd law 3rd law 4th law
MLT-2 ML2T-2 ML2T2 ML-2T-2
Which of the following pair has same direction always?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (16)
Motorcycle safety helmet extend the time of collision hence decreasing the. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(17)
force, displacement force, velocity force, acceleration force, momentum
chance of collision force acting velocity impulse
The collision between two bodies be elastic if bodies are. (a) (b) (c) (d) (18) (a) (b) (c) (d)
solid and soft soft and elastic solid and hard hard and elastic During long jump, athlete runs before taking the jump. By doing so he. provide him a larger inertia decrease his inertia decrease his momentum increase his momentum
(19) When car takes turn around a curve road, the passengers feel a force acting on them in a direction away from the center of the curve. It is due to. (a) (b) (c) (d) (20)
A body is falling freely under gravity. How much distance it falls during an interval of time between 1 st and 2nd seconds of its motion, taking g = 10? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(21)
straight line parabola inclined curve declined curve
When collision between the bodies in a system is inelastic in nature then for system. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(23)
14 m 20 m 5m 25 m
What is the shape of velocity time graph for constant acceleration? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(22)
centripetal force gravitational force their inertia centrifugal force
momentum changes but K.E remain conserve K.E changes but momentum remain conserve Both momentum and K.E changes Both momentum and K.E remain conserve
Which shows the correct relation between time of flight T and maximum height H?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (24)
The acceleration in the rocket all any instant is proportional to the nth power of the velocity of the expelled gases. Where the value of n must be ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(25)
Constant Not constant Constant if the rate of ejected gases is constant Constant for short range rocket
When two bodies move toward each other with constant speeds the distance between them deceases at the rate of 6m/sec. if they move in the same direction the distance between them increases at the rate of 4m/sec. Then their speeds are. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(30)
Tan-1 1/4 Tan-1 4 Tan-1 1/2 Tan-1 2
The thrust on the rocket in the absence of gravitational force of attraction is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(29)
A gas filled balloon Bullet fired from gun A football kicked A base ball shot
What is the angle of projection for which the range and maximum height become equal? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(28)
1st law of motion 2nd law of motion law of conservation of momentum law of conservation of energy
Which of the following is not an example of projectile motion. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(27)
-1 1 -2 2
Taking off rocket can be explained by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(26)
H = gT2 / 8 H = 8T2 / g H = 8g/T2 H = 8/gT2
5m/s, 1m/s 3m/s, 3m/s 6m/s, 1m/s 4m/s, 2m/s
Distance covered by a freely falling body in 2 seconds will be. (a) (b) (c) (d)
4.9 m 19.6m 39.2m 44.1m
(31)
The distance covered by a body in time ‘t’ starting from rest is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
at2/2 Vt a2t/2 at2
(32)
Flight of a rocket in the space is an example of.
(33)
(a) Second law of motion. (b) Third law of motion (c) First law of motion (d) Law of gravitation The trajectory (or path) of a projectile is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(34)
Straight line Parabola Hyperbola Circle
The limit of the average velocity over a path length that approaches zero but always includes the point ‘A’ is defined as (a) speed at ‘A’ (b) instantaneous velocity at ‘A’ (c) acceleration at ‘A’ (d) average speed at ‘A’.
(35)
Uniform acceleration results in a velocity which: (a) (b) (b) (d)
(36)
remains constant varies linearly with time zero none of these.
x 2 x1 Average velocity, Vav t 2 t1
depends on
(a) the path between the positions x 2 and x 1 .. (b) the average speed and the average direction of the journey (c) positions x 2 and x 1 and the average speed. (d) average direction of the journey
(37).
The speed of a particle at the end of four successive seconds is 20, 25, 30, 35 km/hr. The the particle is (a) 5 km/sec (c) 5 km/hr
(38)
(b) 5 km/hr2 (d) 5 km/sec2
A rock is dropped from a high bridge. After 3 seconds of free fall the speed of the rock is: (a) 30 m/sec (c) 2940 cm/sec
(39)
acceleration of
(b)29.4 km/sec2 (d) 30 m/sec
A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 200 mph. If the air resistance is negligible, the bomb will reach the ground in 5 sec when the altitude is: (a) 4 miles (c) 40 m
(b) 122.5 m (d) 10 m
(40)
A particle accelerates uniformly from 10 km/hr to 20 km/hr with acceleration of 2 km./hr 2. The total time it takes is: (a) 20 hr (c) 10 min
(41)
A football player will throw a football at maximum distance if the angle of projection is: (a) 300 (c) 600
(42)
(b) 10 hr (d) 5 hr.
(b) 450 (d) 900
The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by (a) the angle of projection (b) the initial velocity of projection (c) the mass of the projectile (d) speed and mass of the projectile
(43)
Range of a projectile on a horizontal plane is same for the following pair of angles: (a) 300 and 600 (c) 00 and 450
(44)
A cricket ball is hit at 45o to the horizontal with K.E. of E. The K.E. at the highest point is: (a) zero (c) E /
(45)
2
directly at the target slightly higher slightly lower slightly sideways
A projectile is fired horizontally off a 490 m high cliff with a muzzle velocity of 80 m/sec. The time taken by the projectile to reach the ground is (a) 2.5 sec (c) 5.0 sec
(47)
(b) 400 m (d) 1600 m
A missile is fired with a speed of 98 m/sec at 30o with the horizontal. The missile is airborne for (a) 10 sec (c) 30 sec
(49)
(b) 7.5 sec (d) 10 sec
A projectile is fired horizontally off a 490 m high cliff with a muzzle velocity of 80 m/sec. How far from the bottom of the cliff will the projectile land ? (a) 200 m (c) 800 m
(48)
(b) E/2 (d) E
A man wanting to shoot at a fixed target should aim (a) (b) (c) (d)
(46)
(b) 200 and 800 (d) 100 and 900
(b) 20 sec (d) 40 sec
A missile is fired with 98 m/sec at 30o with the horizontal. It reaches a maximum height of
(a) 196 m (c) 122.5 m (50)
(b) 98 m (d) 2940 m
The range of a projectile is 8000 m and its summit is 3000 m high. How far is the summit from the point of projection?. (a) 3000 m (c) 5000 m
1 11 21 31 41
C D C A B
(b) 8000 m (d) 11000 m
2 12 22 32 42
D B A B B
3 13 23 33 43
C D A A A
4 14 24 34 44
C D B B B
5 15 25 35 45
ANSWER C 6 A A 16 A A 26 B B 36 C B 46 D
7 17 27 37 47
A C C A C
8 18 28 38 48
A B A C A
9 19 29 39 49
C C B B C
10 20 30 40 50
D A A D C
CHAPTER 4 (1)
Work done will be maximum if the angle between the force F and displacement d is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
45o 90 o 180 o 0o
(2)
A field in which the work done in a moving a body along closed path is zero is called.
(3)
(a) electric field (b) conservative field (c) electromagnetic field (d) maximum When a force is parallel to the direction of motion of the boyd, then work done on the body is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4)
Which of the following types of force can do no work on the particle on which it acts? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(5)
frictional force gravitational force elastic force centripetal force
If a body a mass of 3 kg is raised vertically through 2m, then the work done will be. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(6)
zero minimum infinity maximum
38. 2 J 392.1 J 39.2J 3.92J
An elevator weighing 3.5 x 10-6 N is raised to a height of 1000 m in the absence of friction, the work done. (a) 3.5 x 103 J
(b) 3.5 x 104 J (c) 3.5 x 106 J (d) 3.5 x 109 J (7)
The average power and instantaneous power become equal if work is done at. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(8)
The relation between horse power and watt is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(9)
change in its K.E always change in its P.E always change in it K.E and change in its P.E neither change in K.E nor change in its P.E
The escape velocity of a body in gravitational field of earth is independent of. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(14)
force into small interval displacement into small interval both force and displacement into small intervals force into small and displacement into large intervals
Work done on the body equals to the. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(13)
displacement acceleration power energy
Work done by variable force is determine by dividing. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(12)
proton electron neutron -particle
Slope of work time graph is equal to. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(11)
1 hp = 546 watts 1 hp = 746 watts 1 hp = 1000 watts 1 hp = 946 watts
Proton, electron, neutron and particles have same momentum. Which of them have highest K.E? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(10)
any rate at variable rate at uniform rate at high rate
its mass the angle at which its is thrown both its mass and the angle at which it is thrown gravitational field of earth
The tides raise the mater in the see roughly in a day. (a) once (b) twice (c) four time
(d) eight time (15)
The source of geothermal energy is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(16)
The highest value of escape velocity in solar system is for planet . (a) (b) (c) (d)
(17)
its K.E is doubled its acceleration is doubled its P.E is doubled its momentum is doubled
One mega watt hour is equal to. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(22)
momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times momentum and K.E remain same momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times
When the speed of a moving body is doubled, then. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(21)
no formula a formula mgh only a formula no general formula
If velocity is double, then. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(20)
always positive always negative positive only for small frictional force positive only for large frictional force
P.E of a body has. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(19)
Earth Neptune Jupiter Moon
Work done by the force of friction is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(18)
decay of radioactive element in the earth compression of material in the earth residual lost of the earth all as said in a, b and c
36x 106 J 36x 1012 J 36x 109 J 36x 108 J
Which of the following is not conservative force. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Friction electric gravitational magnetic
(23)
Work has the dimension as that of same as that of. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(24)
The consumption of energy by a 60 watt bulb in 2 sec is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(25)
Kinetic energy increases P.E between them increases P.E between them decreases P.E between them do not change
When arrow is released from its bow, its energy is transformed from. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(30)
1600 ms-1 50.6 ms-1 71.6 ms-1 2263 ms-1
When two protons are brought together. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(29)
4.2 km s-1 7.5 km s-1 9.5 km s-1 11 km s-1
If moon radius is 1600 km and g on its surface is 1.6 ms -2, then the escape velocity on the moon is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(28)
Vesc = 1 /2Vo Vesc = √2 Vo Vesc = Vo Vesc = 2Vo
The escape velocity form the earth surface in km s-1 is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(27)
120 J 60 J 30 J 0.02 J
The relation between the escape velocity Vesc and orbital speed Vo is given by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(26)
torque angular momentum linear momentum power
heat energy to K.E elastic P.E to K.E chemical energy to elastic P.E K.E to elastic P.E
A man lifts, vertically, a weight of 40 kg through 1m in 10s: while a child lifts, vertically, a weight of 10 kg through a distance of 1m in 1s. What will be correct inference? (a) (b) (c) (d)
man does more than child child does more work than man both do the same amount of work it is a foolish question.
(31)
A man carries a 1 kg suitcase 10 m horizontally across the corridor and then goes up the stairs of total height 10 m. The work done by the man is (a) 0 J (c) 196 J
(32)
A 100 kg car starting from rest runs down a 30 o slope. If the total length of the slope is 20 m, the speed of the car at the bottom, ignoring friction, is (a) 14000 3 m/sec (c) 20 sin 30o m/sec
(33)
(b) 4.9 J (d) 98 J
(b) 1.4 m/sec (d) 14 m/sec
A 2m tall man standing at the top of a 30 m tall tower raises a 1 kg mass 0.5 m above his head. The potential energy of the raised mass may be considered to be (a) 4.9 J (c) 316.5 J
(b) 24.5 J (d) all of the above
(34)
A body is falling freely under gravity from point A to point B. The energy of the body at the point C is
(35)
(a) is less than its energy at A (b) is equal to its energy at A (b) is grater than its energy at A (d) none of these When two protons are brought closer together, the P. E. between them (a) remains constant (c) decreases
(36)
If a car is moving at a constant speed of 25 m/sec and the total frictional forces acting on it amounts to 1000 N, then the engine power of the car is (a) 250 joule sec-1 (c) 25 k watt
(37)
(b) 746 W (d) 1 kilowatt
The horse-power required to pump up 2500 kg of water up 100 m in 5 minutes is: (a) 10.9 hp (c) 15 hp
(40)
(b) 3000 J sec-1 (d) 60 kilowatt
One horsepower equals (a) 273 W (c) 500 W
(39)
(b) 2500 watt (d) 500 k watt
If you weigh 500 N and in 5 seconds you can run up a flight of stairs consisting of 40 steps, each 15 cm high, what is your power? (a) 3000 J (c) 600 watt
(38)
(b) increases (d) approaches zero
(b) 25 hp (d) 5 hp
Water falls over a fall of 30 m at a rate of 45 106 kg/min. The power generated is: (a) 200 MW (c) 220 MW
(b) 210 MW (d) 230 MW ANSWER
1
D
2
B
3
D
4
D
5
C
6
D
7
C
8
B
9
B
10
C
11
B
12
C
13
C
14
B
15
D
16
C
17
B
18
D
19
D
20
D
21
D
22
A
23
A
24
A
25
B
26
D
27
B
28
B
29
B
30
B
31
D
32
D
33
D
34
B
35
B
36
C
37
C
38
B
39
A
40
C
CHAPTER 5 (1)
The rotational K.E of hoop is equal to the. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2)
A hoop and disc have same mass and radius. Their rotational K.E are related by an equation. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3)
42000 km 36000 km 24000 km 18000 km
material objects only material objects and electromagnetic radiation only electromagnetic radiations. none of the above.
One radian is equal to. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(8)
3 hours 6 hours 12 hours 12 hours
According to Einstein, the gravity interaction is possible between. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(7)
6 Kms-1 8.1 Kms-1 7.9 Kms-1 8 ms-1
Radius of geo-stationary orbit form center of earth is nearly. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(6)
= K.E disc = 2K.E disc = 1/2K.E disc = 4K.E disc
Geo-stationary satellite completes one rotation around earth in. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(5)
K.Ehoop K.Ehoop K.Ehoop K.Ehoop
The critical speed of an artificial satellite is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4)
its translational K.E half than its translational K.E double than its translational K.E four times than its translational K.E
67.3o 57.3o 87.3o 60o
The period of a circular motion is given by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
T = rV T = w T = 2 T = 2/
(9)
The direction of linear velocity of body moving in a circle is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(10)
When a body moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity and angular velocity is always. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(11)
= a x a = r x a = x r = x
r r a
When a body is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string the centripetal force is supplied by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(14)
radian 2 radian /2 radian 4 radian
The relation between linear and angular acceleration is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(13)
180o 0o 90 o 45 o
The circumference subtends an angle. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(12)
along the axis of rotation along the tangent directed towards the center directed away from the center
mass of a body velocity of body tension in the string centripetal the string
Centripetal force performs . (a) (b) (c) (d)
maximum work minimum work negative work no work
(15) When a body moves in a circle of radius ‘r’ with linear speed ‘V’, its centripetal force is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
mV / r2 mV / r mV2 / r mV2 / r2
(16) A stone is whirled in a vertical circle at the end of a string. When the stone is at the highest position the tension is the string is. (a) maximum (b) zero (c) equal to the weight of the stone
(d) less than the weight of the stone
(17)
The span of broad jump depends upon. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(18)
In case planets the necessary acceleration is provided by. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(19)
2 4 7.3 x 10-5 rad-1
When a wheel, 1 m in diameter makes 30 rev min, the linear speed of point on its rim in ms -1 is. (a) (b) (d)
(24)
R 2 R zero 4 R.
The angular speed for daily rotation of earth in rad s -1 is. (a) (c) (d)
(23)
elliptical path circular path parabolic path rectilinear path
A body moving along the circumference of a circle completes two revolutions. If the radius of the circular path is R, the ratio of displacement to the covered path will be.\ (a) (b) (c) (d)
(22)
4 rad. s-1 5 rad s-1 1.6 rad s-1 2.8 rad s-1
A body can have constant velocity when it follows a. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(21)
Gravitational force Frictional force Coulomb force Centripetal force
If a car moves with a uniform speed of 2 ms -2 in a circle of radius 0.4. its angular speed is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(20)
mass of the jumper height of jump angle of projection none
2 /2 20
A cyclist cycling around a circular racing track, skids because
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(25)
If a wheel of radius r turns through an angle of 30 o, then the distance through which any point on its rim moves is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(26)
1N 10N 2N 100N
If we whirl a stone at the end of a string in the vertical circle, it is likely to break when the stone is . (a) (b) (c) (d)
(31)
3 6 12
What is outward force acting on a mass of 10 kg when rotating at one end of an inelastic string 10m long at speed of 1m/s? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(30)
/2 /30 /180
The shaft of a motor rotates at a constant angular speed of 360rev/min. Angle turned through in 1 sec in radian is. (b) (c) (d)
(29)
F = ma F = ∆p/∆t = la all of above
Angular speed of second’s hand of a watch in rad-1 is. (b) (c) (d)
(28)
/3 x r /6 x r /30 x r /180 x r
In angular motion, Newton’s second law of motion is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(27)
the centripetal force upon him is less than limiting friction the centripetal force upon him is greater than limiting friction the centripetal force upon him is equal to the limiting friction the friction between the tyres of the cycle and road vanishes
at the highest point at the lowest point at any point during motion at the point where gravity is not acting
A body moving along the circumference of a circle completes two revolutions. If the radius of the circular path is R, the ratio of displacement to the covered path will be ____________.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (32)
(33)
A man of weight W is standing on an elevator which is ascending with an acceleration a. The apparent weight of the man is. (a) mg (b) mg – ma (c) mg + ma (d) mg – ma Which one of the following planets is closer to the sun? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(34)
9.8 N 19.6 N 129.4 N 39.2 N
If a body of mass 10 kg is allowed to fall freely, its weight becomes. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(39)
4 3 2 5
A body of 2 kg is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator moving up with an acceleration g. its apparent weight in the elevator will be (a) (b) (c) (d)
(38)
An inertial frame of reference Non inertial frame Neither inertial nor non inertial Both inertial and non inertial
Minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is (a) (b) (c) (d)
(37)
Venus Mars Uranus Sun
A satellite moving round the earth constitutes. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(36)
Pluto Venus Mercury Mars
The planet nearest to the earth is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(35)
√R 2√R zero 4√R
zero 98N 9.8N 10N
How many days would be in a year if the distance between the earth and the sun were reduced to half of its present value (assuming circular orbit)?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (40)
When a body is moving along a circular, path, it covers a certain angle in a given internal of time. Such type of motion is. (a) (b) (c) (d)
1 11 21 31
A B C C
365 days 730 days 329 days 129 days
2 12 22 32
vibratory motion linear motion rotatory motion angular motion
B C D C
3 13 23 33
C C B D
4 14 24 34
D D B A
5 15 25 35
ANSWER A 6 B C 16 C B 26 C B 36 B
7 17 27 37
B C C D
8 18 28 38
D A D A
9 19 29 39
CHAPTER 6 (1)
Coefficient of viscosity of honey is greater than. (a) (b) (c) (d)
milk water tarcoal water
(2)
The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are. (a) ML-1T-1 (b) M2L1T1 (c) ML1T-1 (d) M2L-1T-1
(3)
Terminal velocity is. (a) uniform (b) maximum (c) uniform and maximum (d) neither uniform nor maximum
(4)
When body moves with terminal velocity the acceleration in the body become. (a) zero (b) maximum (c) variable (d) infinite
(5)
Terminal velocity is given by equation. (a) Vt = gr2/η
B B A D
10 20 30 40
C D B D
(b) Vt = gr2/9η (c) Vt = gr2/9η (d) Vt = 9gr2/2η (6)
Terminal velocity of the body is directly proportional to the. (a) radius of the body (a) diameter of the body (b) size of the body (c) square of the diameter of the body
(7)
The flow of ideal fluid is always. (a) turbulent (b) streamline (c) irregular (d) straight line
(8)
Drag force is given by. (a) Newton’s law (b) Pascal’s law (c) Gauss’s law (d) Stoke’s law
(9)
When fluid is incompressible then. (a) velocity of the fluid is constant (b) flow of the fluid is constant (c) density of the fluid is constant (d) volume of the fluid is constant
(10)
Irregular flow of fluid is called. (a) streamline (b) turbulent (c) uniform (d) laminar
(11)
According to equation of continuity, A1V1 = A2V2 The constant is equal to. (a) flow rate (b) volume of fluid (c) mass of fluid (d) density of fluid
= constant.
(12)
Equation of continuity is obtained by apply in law of conservation of. (e) mass (f) energy (g) momentum (h) all
(13)
Velocity of fluid increases where the pressure is. (a) low (b) high (c) constant (d) changes continuously Speed of efflux can be determined by applying. (a) Bernoull’s theorem (b) Torricelli’s theorem (c) Venture relation (d) All
(14)
(15)
Blood vessels are. (a) rigid (b) not rigid (c) of glass (d) of rubber
(16)
Concentration of red cells in blood is about. (a) 25% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 75%
(17)
A man standing near a fast moving train may fall. (a) on the train (b) away from the train (c) towards the train (d) on himself
(18)
For which position, maximum blood pressure in the body have the smallest value ? (a) standing straight (b) sitting on chair (c) sitting on ground (d) lying horizontally
(19)
Two fog droplets have radius 2:3, their terminal velocities are . (a) 4:6 (b) 4:9 (c) 2:9 (d) 4:3
(20)
Burnoulli’s equation is obtained by applying law of conservation of . (a) mass (b) energy (c) momentum (d) fluid
(21)
Venturi meter is used to measure. (a) fluid pressure (b) fluid density (c) fluid speed (d) none
(22)
In cricket when a bowler produce reverse swing, the ball will move towards. (a) Shinning side of the ball (b) Rough side (c) Seam of the ball (d) Goes straight
(23)
Stokes law is applicable if body has __________ shape. (a) rough (b) square (c) circular (d) spherical
(24)
One torr is equal to.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1.333 Nm-2 .1333 Nm-2 13.33 Nm-2 133.3 Nm-2
(25)
Systolic pressure is called. (a) low blood pressure (b) high blood pressure (c) normal blood pressure (d) abnormal blood pressure
(26)
Instrument used to measure blood pressure is called. (a) Venturimeter (b) Blood pressure (c) Sphygmomanometer (d) Sonometer
(27)
A chimney work best if air exposed to the chimney is, (a) Stationary (b) Moving (c) Moving slowly (d) Moving fast
(28)
Which one is venture relation? (a) P1 – P2 = 1 / 2 ρV22 (b) V2 = 2g (h1-h2) (c) P + 1 / 2ρV2 + ρgh = Constant (d) A1V1 = A2V2 = Constant
(29)
The effect of the decrease in pressure with the increase of the speed of fluid in a horizontal pipe is known as. (a) Bernoulli’s effect (b) Torricelli’s effect (c) Venture effect (d) Stokes effect
(30)
Ideal fluid is. (a) non-viscous (b) incompressible (c) steady flow (d) possess all properties
(31)
When weight of an object falling freely becomes equal to the drag force, then the body will move with (a) increasing speed (b) decreasing speed (c) constant speed (d) none of them
(32)
The body will move with terminal velocity when it acquires (a) minimum speed (b) zero speed (c) maximum speed (d) none of them
(33)
When the body reaches its terminal velocity, the acceleration of the body becomes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
maximum speed minimum speed zero constant quantity
(34)
A water hose with an internal diameter of 20 mm at the outlet discharges 30 kg of water in 60 s. what is water speed at the outlet if density of water is 1000 Kg/m3 during its steady flow. (a) 1.3 m/s (b) 1.6m/s (c) 1.9 m/s (d) 2.2 m/s
(35)
The direction of the streamlines is the same as the direction of the (a) force (b) torque (c) velocity (d) weight
(36)
When the different streamlines cannot cross each other, then this condition is known as (a) continuity condition (b) turbulent flow condition (c) steady flow condition (d) none of them
(37)
When each particle of the fluid moves along a smooth path, this path is known as (a) straight path (b) smooth path (c) haphazard path (d) streamline
(38)
During the steady flow, different streamlines (a) cannot across each other (b) can across each other (c) either of them (d) neither of them
(39)
If every particle of the flow that passes a particular point, moves along the same path as followed by particles which passed the point earlier, then this flow is said to be (a) turbulent (b) streamline (d) abrupt (d) none of them
(40)
When a fluid is in motion, its flow can be considered as (a) turbulent (b) streamline (c) either of them (d) neither of them ANSWER 1
D
2
A
3
C
4
A
5
B
6
D
7
B
8
D
9
C
10
B
11
A
12
A
13
A
14
B
15
B
16
C
17
C
18
D
19
B
20
B
21
C
22
A
23
D
24
D
25
B
26
C
27
D
28
A
29
C
30
D
31
C
32
C
33
C
34
B
35
C
36
C
37
D
38
A
39
B
40
C
CHAPTER 7 (1)
The time required to complete one vibration is called (a) time period (b) frequency (c) time period (d) velocity
(2)
The force which opposes the applied force producing the displacement in the spring is called (a) restorign force (b) periodic force (c) centripetal force (d) resistive force
(3)
The number of vibrations completed by a body in one second is called (a) time period (b) frequency (c) total vibrations (d) displacement
(4)
The distance of vibrating body at any instant from its equilibrium position is called (a) displacement (b) frequency (c) amplitude (d) time period
(5)
For a body executing S.H.M, its (a) momentum remains constant (b) potential energy remains constant (c) kinetic energy remains constant (d) total energy remains constant
(6)
Which of the following does not exhibit S.H.M? (a) a plucked violin string (b) a mass attached to a spring (c) a train shunting between two terminals (d) a simple pendulum
(7)
If the displacement of a body executing S.H.M is plotted against time, then the curve is known (a) frequency of S.H.M (b) period of S.H.M (c) wave form (d) none of them
(8)
The wave from of S.H.M will be (a) square wave (b) sine wave (c) rectified wave (d) saw tooth wave
(9)
An object undergoes S.H.M has maximum speed when its displacement from the mean position is (a) maximum speed (b) zero (c) half of the maximum value (d) one third of the maximum value
(10)
An object undergoes S.H.M has maximum acceleration when its displacement form the mean position is (a) maximum (b) zero (c) half of the maximum value (d) one third of the maximum value
(11)
In vibratory motion. (a) P.E remains constant (b) K.E remain constant (c) Total energy remain constant (d) Total momentum remain constant
(12)
The waveform of S.H.M is. (a) standing wave (b) sine wave (c) square wave (d) none
(13)
S.I unit of frequency is. (a) vibration s-2 (b) radian (c) hetz (d) ms-1
(15)
In S.H.M the velocity of a particle is maximum at (a) mean position (b) extreme position (c) Middle between mean and extreme position on the right side. (d) Middle between mean and extreme position on the left side.
(16)
The acceleration of a projection on the diameter for a particle moving along a circle is. (a) w2x (b) wx2 (c) –w2x (d) –wx2
(17)
Total energy of a body executing S.H.M, is directly proportional to. (a) square root of amplitude (b) the amplitude (c) reciprocal of amplitude (d) square of amplitude
(18)
The time period of a second pendulum is(a) 4 seconds (b) 3 seconds (c) 2 seconds (d) 6 seconds
(19)
The length of second pendulum is. (a) 100 cm (b) 99 cm (c) 99.2 cm (d) 98 cm
(20)
If length of second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become. (a) four time (b) six times (c) eight time (d) two times
(21)
The force responsible for the vibratory motion of the simple pendulum. (a) mg cosθ (b) mg sinθ (c) mg tanθ (d) mg
(22)
The frequency of the second pendulum is. (a) 1 hertz (b) 0.5 hertz
(c) 1.5 hertz (d) 2.5 hertz (23)
Simple harmonic motion is a type of . (a) Rotational motion (b) Circular motion (c) Musical arrangement (d) Vibratory motion
(24)
The SI unit of force constant is identical with that of. (a) Force (b) Pressure (c) Surface tension (d) Loudness
(25)
When the amplitude of a wave become double, its energy become. (a) Double (b) Four times (c) One half (d) None time
(26)
A simple pendulum suspended form the ceiling of a lift has time period T, when the lift is at rest. When the lift falls freely, the time period is. (a) Infinite (b) T/g (c) Zero (d) g/T
(27)
The energy of S.H.M is maximum at. (a) Mean position (b) Extreme position (c) In between mean position (d) All positions during SHM
(28)
The product of frequency and time period is equal to. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(29)
The displacement of SHM is written as X = Xo sinωt , If displacement is written by X = Xo cosωt then phase constant will be equal to. (a) 0o (b) 45 o (c) 90 o (d) 180 o
(30)
For what displacement the P.E becomes ¼ of its maximum value? (a) x = xo (b) x = xo/2 (c) x = xo/4 (d) x = xo2/2
(31)
Sharpness of resonance is. (a) directly proportional to damping force (b) inversely proportional to damping force (c) equal to square of damping force (d) equal to square of damping force
(32)
Which one does not work according to resonance? (a) T.V (b) Radio (c) Microwave oven (d) Bulb
(33)
The restoring force acting on simple pendulum is given by. (a) mg sin θ (b) –mg sin θ (c) ms cos θ (d) –mg cos θ
(34)
Phase of SHM describes. (a) Displacement only (b) Direction of motion only (c) Both displacement and direction of motion (d) Neither displacement nor direction of motion
(35)
Natural frequency of simple pendulum depends upon. (a) Its mass (b) Its length (c) Square of its length (d) Square root of its length
(36)
Electrical resonance is observed in. (a) Radio (b) Microwave oven (c) Both in radio and microwave oven (d) Neither in radio nor in microwave oven
(37)
Total distance traveled by bob of simple pendulum in one vibration is equal to. (a) Amplitude (b) Square of amplitude (c) 2 x amplitude (d) 4 x amplitude When K.E energy of SHM is maximum, its. (a) P.E is zero (b) Acceleration is zero (c) Restoring force is zero (d) All P.E acceleration & restoring force are zero In damped harmonic oscillation, which one deceases? (a) Amplitude of vibration (b) Energy of vibration (c) Both amplitude and energy (d) Neither amplitude nor energy Forced vibration are known as (a) Simple harmonic vibration (b) Natural vibration (c) Driven harmonic vibration (d) Free vibration
(38)
(39)
(40)
ANSWER
1
C
2
A
3
B
4
B
5
D
6
C
7
C
8
B
9
B
10
A
11
C
12
B
13
C
14
A
15
C
16
D
17
C
18
C
19
D
20
B
21
B
22
D
23
C
24
B
25
A
26
D
27
A
28
B
29
C
30
B
31
B
32
D
33
B
34
C
35
D
36
A
37
D
38
D
39
C
40
C
CHAPTER 8 (1)
Waves transmit ________ from one place to another. (a) energy (b) mass (c) both (d) none
(2)
The waves that require a material medium for their propagation are called . (a) Matter waves (b) Electromagnetic waves (c) Carrier waves (d) Mechanical waves
(3)
The distance between any two consecutive crests or troughs is called. (a) Frequency (b) Period (c) Wave length (d) Phase difference\
(4)
When two identical traveling waves are superimposed, the velocity of the resultant wave. (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains unchanged (d) Becomes zero
(5)
In vibrating cord the points where the amplitude is maximum, are called. (a) antinodes (b) nodes (c) troughs (d) crests
(6)
The distance between two consecutive nodes is. (a) λ/2 (b) λ/4 (c) λ (d) 2 λ
(7)
The distance between consecutive node and antinode is. (a) λ (b) λ/2 (c) 2λ (d) λ/4
(8)
If stretching force is T of wire increases, then its frequency (a) Deceases (b) Increases (c) Remains the same
(d) Any of above (9)
A stationary wave is set up in the air column of a closed pipe. At the closes end of the pipe (a) Always an node is formed (b) Always an antinode is formed (c) Neither node nor antinode is formed (d) Sometimes a node and sometimes an antinode is formed
(10)
It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves form the property of (a) Refraction (b) Polarization (c) Interference (d) Diffraction
(11)
according to Laplace correction sound travel in air under the conditions of (a) adiabatic (b) isothermal (c) isobaric (d) isochoric
(12)
Sound waves do not travel in vacuum because (a) They are transverse waves (b) They are stationary waves (c) They require material medium for propagation (d) They do not have enough energy
(13)
Velocity of sound is vacuum is (a) 332 ms-1 (b) 320 ms-1 (c) zero (d) 224 ms-1
(14)
Increase in velocity of sound in the air for 1oC rise in temperature is (a) 1.61 ms-1 (b) 61.0 ms-1 (c) 0.61 ms-1 (d) 2.00 ms-1
(15)
The velocity of sound is greatest in (a) Water (b) Air (c) Copper (d) Ammonia
(16)
On loading the prong of a tuning form with wax, its frequency (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remains unchanged (d) May increase or decrease
(17)
The velocity of sound in air would become double its velocity at 0 oC at temperature (a) 313 oC (b) 586 oC (c) 819 oC (d) 1172 oC
(18)
The normal ear is the most sensitive in the frequency range
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20,000 to 30,000 hertz 10 to 20 hertz 2000 to 4000 hertz 6000 to 8000 hertz
(19)
Ultrasonics have (a) Frequency in the audible range (b) Frequency is greater than 20 kHz (c) Frequency lower than 20 Hz (d) All of above
(20)
The periodic alternation of sound between maximum and minimum loudness are called (a) Silence zone (b) Interference (c) Beats (d) Resonance
(21)
The number of beats produced per second is equal to (a) The sum of the frequencies of two tuning forks (b) The difference of the frequencies of two tuning forks. (c) The ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks (d) The frequency of either of the two tuning forks
(22)
Beats are the results of (a) Diffraction of sound waves (b) Constructive and destructive interference (c) Polarization (d) Destructive interference
(23)
Silence zone takes place due to (a) Constructive interference (b) Destructive interference (c) Beats (d) Resonance
(24)
Doppler effect applies to (a) Sound wave only (b) Light wave only (c) Both sound and light wave (d) Neither sound nor light wave
(25)
When the source of sound moves away form a stationary listener, then ___________occurs. (a) an apparent increase in frequency (b) an apparent decrease in frequency (c) an apparent decrease in wavelength (d) an apparent change in frequency
(26)
A simple pendulum has a bob of mass ‘m’ and its frequency is ‘f’. If we replaced the bob with a heavier one, say of ‘2m’, then what will be its new frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(27)
1/4f 1/2f f 2f
Which one is the correct relation for fundamental frequency of open and closed pipe? (a) fopen = 2 f closed (b) f closed = 2fopen
(c) fopen = f closed (d) f open = 1 / f closed (28)
In open organ pipe (a) Only even harmonics are present (b) Only odd harmonic are present (c) Both even and odd harmonics are present (d) Selected harmonics are present
(29)
Which one is the correct relation? (a) V Newton = V Laplace (b) V Newton = γV Laplace (c) V Newton = √γ V Laplace (d) V Laplace = √γ V Newton
(30)
The dimension of elastic modulus ε is (a) ML-1T-2 (b) ML-2T-2 (c) MLT-2 (d) ML2T-2
(31)
The wave speed of a wave in terms of its wavelength and period is: (a) v = T (b) v = T2 (c) v = / T (d) v = T /
(32)
In a transverse wave the distance between a crest and a trough is equal to: (a) /2 (b) /4 (c) (d) 2
(33)
In a longitudinal wave the distance between adjacent condensations is equal to: (a) /2 (b) /4 (c) (d) 2
(34)
When a transverse wave is reflected on going from a denser to a rarer medium, then at the boundary the reflected wave undergoes a phase change of: (a) 0o (b) 90o o (c) -90 (d) 180o
(35)
When a wave is reflected on going from a rarer to a denser medium, then at the boundary the reflected wave will undergo a phase change of: (a) 0o (b) 90o o (c) -90 (d) 180o
(36)
A wave has a wavelength of 1 cm and a period of 2 sec. Its wave speed is: (a) 0.5 m/sec (b) 5 cm/sec (c) 2.50 cm/sec (d) 0.5 cm/sec
(37)
If the distance between a compression and an adjacent rarefaction is 2 cm and the wave speed of the wave is 4 cm/sec, then its wavelength is (a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 8 cm (d) ½ cm
(38)
The intensity of a wave is the transfer of
a) energy per unit area normal to direction of wave propagation (b) power per unit area normal to direction of wave propagation (c) amplitude normal to direction of the wave propagation (d) power per unit area parallel to direction of wave propagation (39)
Two wave trains of the same amplitude and frequency travelling in opposite directions along the same path in the same medium produce: (a) resonance (b) beats (c) standing waves (d) musical notes
(40)
The speed of the transverse waves travelling in a stretched string of mass m, length l and under tension T is given by the equation l T mT (a) v (b) v m l T ml
(c) v
(d) v
l mT
1 2
ANSWER 1
A
2
D
3
C
4
C
5
A
6
A
7
D
8
B
9
A
10
B
11
C
12
C
13
C
14
C
15
C
16
B
17
C
18
C
19
B
20
C
21
B
22
B
23
B
24
C
25
B
26
C
27
A
28
C
29
C
30
A
31
C
32
A
33
C
34
A
35
D
36
D
37
B
38
B
39
C
40
A
CHAPTER 9 (1)
Optical active crystals rotates the (a) Vibrating plane (b) polarization plane (c) diffraction plane (d) interference plane
(2)
Which is not optically active? (a) sugar (b) tartaric acid (c) water (d) sodium chlorate
(3)
I double slit experiment, we observe (a) Interference fringes only (b) Diffraction fringes only (c) Both interference and diffraction fringes (d) Polarized fringes
(4)
When light incident normally on thin film, the path difference depends upon (a) Thickness of the film only (b) Nature of the film only (c) Angle of incidence only (d) All thickness, nature and angle of incidence
(5)
Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of the medium? (a) Velocity (b) Wavelength (c) Amplitude (d) Frequency
(6)
Light reached the earth from sun in nearly (a) 15 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 8 minutes (d) 8 minutes 30 seconds
(7)
Photoelectric effect was given by (a) Hertz (b) Fresnel (c) Einstein (d) Plank
(8)
According to Einstein, light travels from one place to another in the form of (a) waves (b) particles (c) photons (d) it was not his discovery
(9)
Longitudinal waves do not exhibit (a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization
(10)
Central spot of Newton’s rings (a) Bright (b) Dark for large wavelength (c) Dark (d) Bright for large wavelength
(11)
A point source of light placed in a homogeneous medium gives rise to (a) A cylindrical wave front (b) An elliptical wave front (c) A spherical wave front (d) A plane wave front
(12)
the locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called (a) crest (b) trough (c) wavelength (d) wave front
(13)
Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic light? (a) Light form fluorescent tube (b) Light form sodium lamp (c) Light form neon lamp
(d) Light form simple lamp (14)
Two sources of light are coherent if they emit rays of (a) Same wavelength (b) Same amplitude of vibration (c) Sam wave length with constant phase difference (d) Same amplitude and wavelength
(15)
When crest of one wave falls over the trough of the other wave, this phenomenon is known as (a) Polarization (b) Constructive interference (c) Destructive interference (d) Diffraction
(16)
In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe spacing is equal to (a) dλD (b) 2λd/D (c) λD/d (d) λd/D
(17)
In Young double slit experiment, if white light is used (a) Alternate dark and bright fringes will be seen (b) Coloured fringes will be seen (c) No interference fringes will be seen (d) Impossible to predict
(18)
The Velocity of light was determined accurately by (a) Newton (b) Michelson (c) Huygen (d) Young
(19)
The condition for constructive interference of two coherent beams is that the path difference should be (a) Integral multiple of λ/2 (b) Integral multiple of λ (c) Odd Integral multiple of λ/2 (d) Even integral multiple of λ
(20)
In an interference pattern (a) Bright fringes are wider than dark fringes (b) Dark fringes are wider than bright fringe (c) Both dark and bright fringes are of equal width (d) Central fringes are brighter than the outer fringes
(21)
The appearance of Colour in thin films is due to (a) Diffraction (b) Dispersion (c) Interference (d) Polarization
(22)
The blue to the sky is due to (a) Diffraction (b) Reflection (c) Polarization
(d) Scattering (23)
A light ray traveling form rarer to denser medium suffers a phase change of (a) 60o (b) 90 o (c) 180 o (d) 45 o
(24)
When one mirror of a Michelson Interferometer is moved a distance of 0.5 mm, we observe 2000 fringes. What will be wavelength of light used ? (a) 5000 nm (b) 5000 Ao (c) 500 m (d) 2000 μm
(25)
Diffraction effect is (a) More for a round edge (b) Less for a round edge (c) More for a sharp edge (d) Less for a sharp edge
(26)
The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of (a) 10Ao (b) 1000Ao (c) 1Ao (d) 100Ao
(27)
Wavelength of X-rays falling at glancing angle of 30o on a crystal with atomic spacing 2x10-10 for the first order diffraction is (a) 4x10-10 m (b) 2x10-10 m (c) 0.02 x 10-10m (d) 20x10-10m
(28)
A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. its slit spacing or grating element will be equal to (a) 500 mm (b) 5x10-3mm (c) 2x10-5mm (d) 2x10-3mm
(29)
In a plane polarized light, (a) Vibration in all direction (b) Vibration in two mutually perpendicular directions (c) Vibration take place in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light. (d) No vibration at all.
(30)
Light on passing through a Polarized is (a) Plane polarized (b) Un-polarized (c) Circularly polarized (d) Elliptically polarized
(31)
Which one of the following cannot be polarized?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (32)
Diffraction fringes are (a) Equally spaced (b) Distance between them increases (c) Distance between then decreases (d) They are adjacent with no space in between
(33)
In monochromatic red light, a blue book will probably appear to be (a) Black (b) Purple (c) Green (d) No scientific reasoning available
(34)
A thing that emits its own light is (a) Luminous (b) Non-luminous (c) Incandescent (d) Bright In double slit experiment, if one of the two slit is covered then (a) No interference fringes are observed (b) No diffraction fringes are observed (c) No fringes observed (d) Interference pattern not distributed
(35)
.
Radio waves Ultraviolet rays X-rays Sound waves
(36)
In Young’s double slit experiment, if d is the separation between the slits, destructive interference will occur if (a) d sin = m : (m = 0, 1, 2, . . .) (b) d sin = (m + ½) : (m = 0, 1, 2, . . .) (c) 2d sin = m / : (m = 0, 1, 2, . . .) (d) 2 d sin = m : (m = 0, 1, 2, . . .)
(37)
In Young’s double slit experiment, if d is the separation between the slits, is the wave- length of the light used and D is the distance of the screen from the slits, then the position of the mth bright fringe from the central position is given by (a) ym = m D/d (b) ym = (m + ½ ) D/d (c) ym = m d/D (d) ym = (m+ ½) d/D
(38)
In Young’s double slit experiment, if d is the slits separation, is the wave length of the light used and D is the distance of the screen from the slits, then the separation between two successive bright fringes or dark fringes is given by d D (a) (b) d D (c)
(39)
D d
d D
In monochromatic red light a blue book will appear
(a) red (c) purple (40)
(d)
(b) blue (d) black
Which of the following properties is not found in both sound and light waves
(a) interference (c) polarisation
(b) diffraction (d) dispersion
ANSWER 1
B
2
C
3
C
4
D
5
D
6
D
7
C
8
C
9
D
10
A
11
C
12
D
13
C
14
C
15
C
16
C
17
B
18
B
19
B
20
C
21
C
22
D
23
C
24
B
25
C
26
C
27
B
28
D
29
C
30
A
31
D
32
C
33
A
34
A
35
A
36
B
37
A
38
A
39
D
40
C
CHAPTER 10 (1)
A lens which converges a beam of parallel rays to a point is called (a) Diverging (or concave) lens (b) Converging (or convex) lens (c) Plano concave lens (d) Plano convex lens
(2)
A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called (a) Center of curvature (b) Focus (c) Optical centre (d) Aperture
(3)
The diameter of a lens is called (a) Focal length (b) Principal axis (c) Aperture (d) Radius of curvature
(4)
In going form a denser to rarer medium a array of light is (a) undeviated (b) bent away form the normal (c) bent towards the normal (d) polarized
(5)
Unit of power of a lens is (a) Meter (b) watt (c) dioptre (d) horsepower
(6)
Dioptre power of an concave lens of 10 cm focal length is (a) 10 dioptre (b) -10 dioptre (c) 1/10 dioptre (d) -1/10 dioptre
(7)
The power of a concave lens is (a) real (b) virtual (c) positive (d) negative
(8)
The minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is a. 2 f b. 2.5 f c. 3 f d. 4f
(9)
If an object is placed away form ‘2f’ of a converging lens, then the image will be a. Real and erect b. Virtual and erect c. Real and inverted d. Virtual
(10)
A convex lens gives a virtual image only when the objects leis a. Between principal focus and center of curvature b. Beyond 2 f c. At the principal focus d. Between principal focus and optical center
(11)
Magnifying power of simple microscope a. Increase with increase in focal length b. Increase with decrease in focal length c. No effect with decrease or increase with focal length d. List distance of distinct vision
(12)
Image of an object 5 mm high is only 1 cm high. Magnification produced by lens is a. 0.5 b. 0.2 c. 1 d. 2
(13)
The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is a. 15cm b. 25cm c. 30cm d. 40cm
(14)
least distance of distinct vision a. increases with increase in age b. decrease with increaser in age c. neither increases nor decreases d. becomes infinite after 60 years
(15)
If a convex lens of large aperture fails to converge the light rays incident on it to a single point, it is said to suffer form a. Chromatic aberration b. Spherical aberration c. Both spherical and chromatic d. Distortion
(16)
Two convex lenses of equal focal length ‘f’ are placed in contact, the resultant focal length of the combination is a. Zero b. f c. 2f d. f/2
(17)
A convex lens of focal length ‘f1’and a concave lens of focal length ‘f2’ are placed in contact. The focal length of the combination is a. f2 + f1 b. f2 – f1 c. f1f2/f2+f1 d. f1f2/f1-f2
(18)
Final image produced by a compound microscope is a. Real and inverted b. Real and erect c. Virtual and erect d. Virtual and inverted.
(19)
for normal adjustment, length of astronomical telescope is a. fo + fe b. fo – fe c. fo/fe d. fe/fo
(20)
In multimode step index fibre the refractive index of core and cladding is a. Same b. Different c. Zero d. Different with refractive index of core higher than cladding
(21)
Dispersional effect may produced error in light signals. This type of error is minimum in. a. Single mode step index fibre b. Multimode step index fibre c. Multimode graded index fibre d. Monomode step index fibre
(22)
Light signals passes through multimode graded fibre due to . a. Continuous refraction b. Total internal reflection c. Both continuous refraction and total internal reflection d. Diffraction
(23)
Which one type of fibre is more suitable for transmission of signals in which white light is used? a. Mono mode step index fibre b. Multi mode step index fibre c. Multi mode graded index fibre d. Single mode step index fibre
(24)
Critical angle is that incident angle in denser medium for which angle of refraction is. a. 0o b. 45 o c. 90 o d. 180 o
(25)
There is no noticeable boundary between core and cladding. a. Multi mode step index fibre b. Multi mode graded index fibre c. Single mode step index fibre d. All types of fibre
(26)
The electrical signals change into light signals for transmission through optical fibre. A light pulse represent. a. Zero (0) b. One (1) c. Both zero (0) and one (1) d. Neither zero (0) nor one (1)
(27)
A lens, which is thicker at the center and thicker at the edges, is called. a. Concave lens b. Convex lens c. Plano convex lens d. Plano concave lens
(28)
(29)
A spectrometer is used to find. a. Wave length of light b. Refractive index of the prism c. Wavelength of different colours d. None If a convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is cut into two identical halves along the lens diameter, the focal length of each half is. a. f b. f/2 c. 2f d. 3f/2
(30)
A convex and concave lens of focal length ‘f’ are in contact, the focal length of the combination will be. a. Zero b. f/2 c. 2f d. Infinite
(31)
A double convex lens acts as a diverging lens when the object is placed (a) at the focus (b) at 2f (c) between f and 2f (d) within the focal length
(32)
The least distance of distinct vision for normal eye is approximately (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 25 cm
(33)
White light does not focus to a single point after passing through a convex lens due to (a) chromatic aberration (b) spherical aberration (c) distortion (d) spherical and chromatic aberrations
(34)
Chromatic aberration can be removed by using (a) concave lens (b) combination of concave and convex lenses (c) two convex lenses (d) two concave lenses
(35)
Spherical aberration can be reduced by using (a) double convex lens (b) central portion of the lens (c) edge portion of the lens (d) parallel rays
(36)
If placed in contact, the focal length of the combination of two convex lenses of equal focal lengths f, will be (a) zero (b) f/2 (c) f (d) 2f
(37)
If a single convex lens is placed close to the eye, it can be used as a (a) telescope (b) simple microscope (c) compound microscope (d) refracting telescope
(38)
If d is the distance of distinct vision, the magnifying power of a magnifying glass of focal length f is (a) d/f (b) f/d
(c) 1 + d/f (39)
(40)
(d) 1 + f/d
The objective of a microscope is a lens of (a) large focal length and converging properties (b) moderate focal length and diverging properties (c) very short focal length and converging properties (d) moderate focal length and converging properties The magnifying power of a compound microscope in terms of the magnification of the objective and magnifying power of the eyepiece is given by qo d po f (1 e ) (a) M = (b) p ( 1 f ) o qo d e q
d
o (c) p ( 1 f o
)
(d)
e
po d (1 ) qo f e
ANSWER 1
B
2
B
3
C
4
B
5
C
6
B
7
D
8
D
9
C
10
D
11
B
12
D
13
B
14
A
15
B
16
D
17
D
18
D
19
A
20
D
21
C
22
A
23
C
24
C
25
B
26
B
27
B
28
D
29
C
30
D
31
D
32
D
33
B
34
B
35
B
36
B
37
B
38
C
39
C
40
B
CHAPTER 11 (1)
Dimension of pressure is. (a) MLT (b) ML-1T-1 (c) ML-1T-2 (d) ML-2T-2
(2)
Temperature is a property, which determines. (a) How much heat a body contains (b) Whether a body will feel hot or cold to touch (c) In which direction heat will flow between two systems (d) How much total absolute energy a body has.
(3)
WE prefer mercury as a thermometric substance because. (a) Over a wide range of temperature is expansion is uniform (b) It does not stick to thermometer glass (c) It is opaque to light (d) All of above
(4)
The scales of temperature are based on two fixed points, which are. (a) The temperature of water at 0oC and 100oC. (b) The temperature of melting ice and boiling water at atmospheric pressure. (c) The temperatures of ice cold and boiling water (d) The temperatures of frozen and boiling mercury
(5)
Numerical value of Bolzmann’s constant is. (a) 1.38x10-31JK-1 (b) 3.18x10-31JK-1 (c) 3.18x10-23JK-1 (d) 1.38x10-23JK-1
(6)
(7)
In a clinical thermometer, the mercury in the capillary tube does not contract one removed from the patient because. (a) Mercury takes a long time to contract (b) The amount of mercury use is very small (c) The capillary tube has a small constriction near the bulb (d) The capillary tube is very narrow Normal human body temperature 98.6oF corresponds to. (a) 37oC (b) 42 oC (c) 55 oC (d) 410 oC
(8)
The Fahrenheit and centigrade scales agree to. (a) -40 (b) 15.5 (c) 542 (d) -273
(9)
The size of one degree of Celsius is equal to. (a) One degree of Fahrenheit scale (b) 1.8 degrees of Fahrenheit scale (c) 3.2 degrees of Fahrenheit scale (d) 2.12 degrees of Fahrenheit scale
(10)
At constant temperature, the graph between V and 1 / P is. (a) Hyperbola (b) Parabola (c) A curve of any shape (d) A straight line
(11)
According to Pascal’s law the pressure of gas in a vessel is. (a) Different in different direction (b) Same in all direction (c) Same only along opposite directions (d) Same only along normal directions
(12)
We can produce heat by. (a) Frictional process (b) Chemical processes (c) Electrical processes (d) All of the above
(13)
Which one is true for internal energy? (a) It is sum of all forms of energies associated with molecules of a system. (b) It is a state function of a system (c) It is proportional to transnational K.E of the molecules (d) All are correct
(14)
Metabolism is the name of a process in which energy transformation take place within. (a) Heat engine (b) Human body (c) Atmosphere (d) Laboratory
(15)
Which one is not an example of adiabatic process? (a) Rapid escape of air from a burst tyre (b) Rapid expansion of air
(c) Conversion of water into ice in refrigerator (d) Cloud formation in the atmosphere (16)
The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76cm high and at 0 oC is Called. (a) 1 Atmosphere (b) 1 Newton per square meter (c) 1 Pascal (d) date is insufficient
(17)
Standard condition (STP) refer to a gas at. (a) 76cm, 0oC (b) 760mm, 273K (c) 1 atm, 273K (d) all of the above
(18)
If the volume of a gas is held constant and we increase its temperature then. (a) its pressure is constant (b) its pressure rises (c) its pressure falls (d) any of above
(19)
“If the pressure of a given gas is held constant its density is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature.” We can refer it as another statement of. (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law (c) Ideal gas law (d) Avagadro’s law
(20)
Boyle’s law holds for ideal gases in. (a) Isochoric processes (b) Isobaric processes (c) Isothermal processes (d) Adiabatic processes
(21)
Gas molecules of different masses in the same container have the same average transnational kinetic energy, which is directly proportional to (a) Volume (b) Pressure (c) Absolute temperature (d) Time
(22)
Which one is correct relation? (a) CP +CV= γ (b) CP = 1+R/Cv (c) γ = CP/CV (d) CP = 1-R/CV
(23)
The reading on the Fahrenheit scale will be double the reading on the centrigrade scale when the temperature on the centigrade scale is. (a) 460oC (b) 280 oC (c) 360 oC (d) 160 oC
(24)
The area inclosed by the curve ABCDA for a Carnot heat engine represents the work done by Carnot engine. (a) At any instant (b) Averagely
(c) During its operation (d) During one cycle (25)
For a gas obeying Boyle’s law, if the pressure is doubled, the volume Becomes. (a) Double (b) One half (c) Four time (d) One fourth
(26)
Triple point of water is. (a) 273 oC (b) 273K (c) 273.16 oC (d) 273.16 K
(27)
Which of the following properties of molecules of gas is same for all gases at particular temperature? (a) Momentum (b) Mass (c) Velocity (d) Kinetic energy
(28) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Boltzmann constant K in terms of universal gas constant R and Avagadro’s number N a is given as, K = RNa K = R/Na K = Na/Ra K = nRNa
(29)
Average translational kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is given by (a) 3NaT/2 R (b) 2NaT/3 (c) 3RT/2Na (d) 3Na/2RT
(30)
In which process entropy remains constant. (a) Isobaric (b) Isochoric (c) Adiabatic (d) Isothermal
(31)
The expression for the absolute temperature T of an ideal gas is given by
(a) T = 3/2 k N (b) T = 2/3 A R (c) T=
m v2 3k
2 NAR 3T The amount of heat required raising the temp. of 1 kg of a substance through 1 K is called
(d) (32)
(a) specific heat (c) calorie (33)
(b) heat capacity (d) Joule
Specific heats of a gas at const. pressure and at const. volume are respectively C p and Cv>
(a) Cp < Cv (c) Cp = Cv (34)
(b) Cp > Cv (d) none of these
The ratio Cp/Cv = γ for a monoatomic gas is equal to
(a) 1.67 (c) 1.29 (35)
(b) 1.40 (d) 1.11
The first law of thermodynamics is an expression of
(a) the conservation of energy including heat (b) Conservation of mass (c) heat death of the universe (d) degradation of energy (36)
The process in which the pressure of the system remains constant is called (a) adiabatic (b) isothermal (c) isobaric (d) isochoric
(37)
In an adiabatic process (a) ΔQ = ΔU (b) ΔQ = ΔW (c) ΔQ = 0 (d) ΔQ = ΔU - ΔW
(38)
In thermodynamic process, ΔQ = ΔU. The process is
(a) isothermal (c) adiabatic (39)
(b) isobaric (d) isochoric
The efficiency of a Carnot engine between HTR at T1 and LTR at T2 is given by: T1 T2 T1
(a) 1 -
(b)
T2 T1 T2 (c) T1 (40)
T1 T1 (d) T1 T2
The property of a system that remains constant during an adiabatic process is called
(a) internal energy (b) entropy (c) temperature (d) pressure ANSWER 1
C
2
C
3
D
4
B
5
D
6
C
7
A
8
A
9
B
10
D
11
B
12
D
13
D
14
B
15
C
16
A
17
D
18
B
19
B
20
C
21
C
22
C
23
D
24
D
25
B
26
C
27
D
28
B
29
C
30
C
31
C
32
A
33
B
34
A
35
A
36
C
37
C
38
D
39
C
40
B
CHAPTER # 12
ELECTRO STATIC 1.
One coulomb is that unit of charge which when placed at 1m form an equal and similar charge repels it with a force a) 5 X 109 dyn c) 9 x 109 dyn
2.
The minimum charge on an abject is a) 1 coulomb c) 1.6 x 10-19
3.
b) 5 N d) 0.3 N
Unit of electric flux is a) V.m c) V.m2
12.
b) Direction d) All of them
If two charges are experiencing a force of 10 N, when medium is Air, if the medium is change whose permittivity is ‘2’ then force will be a) 3 N c) 10 N
11.
b) 1:6 d) 6:1
An electric field lines provides information about ________ a) Electric Force c) Medium
10.
b) Blue d) Tonar
There are two charges 1 uc and 6 uc, the ratio of forces acting on them will be a) 1:25 c) 1:1
9.
b) J.J. Thomson d) Einstein
The ink used in the photocopy machine a) Black c) Red
8.
b) Insulators d) S. conductors
The charge on the electron was calculated by a) Faraday c) Millikon
7.
b) 4.8 x 10-10 ergs d) None
Polarization of matter is possible only for a) Conductors c) Gases
6.
b) J = V x A d) J = C x V
One electron volt is a) 1.6 x 10-12 ergs c) 300 ergs
5.
b) 1 state coulomb d) None
Which of the following is correct a) J = C/V c) J = V/A
4.
b) 5 x 109 N d) 9 x 109 N
b) N/C d) N2/C2
Gauss’s law can be applied to a) Plane surface c) Any surface
b) Curved surface d) Closed surface
13.
Objects may acquire an excess or deficiency of charge by a) Electric force c) Striking
14.
Coulomb’s law is only applicable for a) Big charges c) Point charges
15.
b) Heating d) By rubbing
b) Small charges d) Any charges
The force per unit charge is known as a) Electric flux b) Electric potential c) Electric intensity d) Electric current
16.
Electric field intensity is also known as a) Electric potential c) Potential gradient
17.
A basic technique when applying gauss’s law is to a. b. c. d.
18.
Assume the field is constant in direction Assume the field is constant is magnitude Assume the field is constant in both magnitude and direction Construct and imaginary surface about the charge
The work done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface is a. b. c. d.
19.
b) Electric flux d) None
Depends on the path taken Greater then zero Equal to zero Negative
In the region where the electric field is zero, the electric potential is always a) Positive b) Negative c) Constant d) Zero
20.
The electric intensity is expressed in unit of N/C or a) Volts b) Walt c) Joules d) V/m
21.
The energy stored in the capacitor is a) ½ CV2 c) ½ QV2
22.
A charge of 0.01c accelerated through a p.d of 1000v acquires K-E a) 10 J c) 200 J
23.
b) 100 J d) 400 eV
If the charge on the particle is double then electric field is a) Half c) Unchanged
24.
b) ½ C2 V d) ½ Q2V
b) Double d) None
The electric potential at a point of distance 1 m from 2 uc charge is a) 1.8 x 106 V c) 1.8 x 104 V
b) 1.8 x 106 N/C d) 1.8 x 105 V
25.
Capacity of a capacitor depends upon a. b. c. d.
26.
Size of plate Distance b/w plates Nature of dielectric b/w plates All of above
The area of plates of 1 farad capacitor separated 8.85mm placed in the air is a) 109m2 c) 10-9m2
27.
28.
The equation for the stokes law is a) 6
b)
6
c) 6 rv
d)
8
A capacitor acts as blocking elements when applied signal is a) A.C c) Digital
29.
b) 05m2 d) 10-15m2
b) D.C d) None
Inkjet printers works on the principle of a) Electrostatic c) Electro magnetism
30.
The surface consider for gauss’s law is called a) Closed surface c) Gaussian surface
31.
b) Dielectric d) Medium
The automobiles wind shield wipers works on a. b. c. d.
36.
b) J.J. Thomson d) None
The medium used b/w the plates of capacitor is called a) Polarization c) Insulators
35.
b) Masses d) Medium
Charge to mass ratio was firsts found by a) Millikon c) Newton
34.
b) 109 ev d) 1015 ev
Gravitational force does not depends on a) Force c) Distance
33.
b) Spherical surface d) None
One giga electron volt a) 106 ev c) 1012 ev
32.
b) Electro dynamics d) Electronics
Electricity Cell Charging and discharging of capacitor None
Selenium is a conductor material which when exposed to ________
a) Light c) Mono chromatic light 37.
When capacitors are connected in parallel the net capacitance will a) Increase c) Constant
38.
Storing energy Increasing resistance Decreasing resistance None
If a 10MF and 2000MF capacitors are connected in parallel the net capacitance will be a) 6.7 uF c) 2010 uF
42.
Magnetization Electrification Electrostatic induction Electromagnetic induction
The field inside the hollow conductor will be a) Zero c) E = kq/r2
44.
One joule per coulomb One dyne per coulomb One Newton per coulomb One watt per second
If the potential difference on a surface is equal to zero b/w any two points, then surface is said to be a. b. c. d.
46.
b) Greater than zero d) Infinite
One volt is a. b. c. d.
45.
b) 1990 uF d) None
A method for charging a conductor without bringing a charge body in contact with it is called a. b. c. d.
43.
b) Weber d) c2/N.m
A capacitors may be considered as a device for a. b. c. d.
41.
b) 4:1 d) 1:2
S.I unit of permittivity of free space is a) Farad c) c2/N.m2
40.
b) Decrease d) None
When two capacitors of same capacitance are connected in parallel and then in service, the capacitance in these two cases are in ratio of a) 1:4 c) 6:1
39.
b) Dark d) None of these
A dielectric An equipotential surface Polarized None
The electric flux through the surface of hollow sphere containing a point charge at its center depends upon a. Radius of sphere b. Surface area c. Magnitude of charge
d. None of these 47.
A charge of 2c is in a field of intensity 2N/C, the force on the charge is a) 1 N c) 4 N
48.
A line whose tangent at each point is in the direction of electric intensity at that point is called a line of a) Voltage c) Charge
49.
b) Hennery d) Coulomb
Potential gradient is defined as
E V r c. V a.
51.
b) Electric force d) Potential field
A unit of electric charge is a) Volt c) Ampere
50.
b) 4 N d) 0 N
E V V d. r b.
Large CR (Time constant) value has a. Small time constant b. Large time constant c. Equal time constant d. None of these
52. A Capacitor of 2μF is connected with a battery of 12 Volts, the charge stored in capacitor a. 2.5 × 10 -5C c. 2.4 × 10-5C
b. 2.4 × 10-6C d. 2.4 × 10-6C
53. An electric field can deflect a. Neutron c. – rays 54. The relative permittivity a. 16 c. 18 55.
b. x – rays d. α – rays
r
for germanium is
b. 17 d. 22
Xerography means a. Type writing c. Dry writing
b. Wet writing d. None of these
56. A 25eV electron has a speed of a. 2 × 106m/sec c. 5 × 106m/sec 57.
b. 3 × 106m/sec d. 4 × 106m/sec
If mica sheet is place between the plates, the capacity will
a. Increase c. Remain same
58.
b. Decrease d. None of these
The force exerted by two charged bodies on one another, obeys Coulomb’s law provided that a. The charges are not too small b. The charges are in vaccum c. The charges are not too large d. The linear dimension of charges are much smaller than distance between them
59.
Coulomb Law is also known as a. Electrostatic Law c. Inverse Square Law
60.
61.
The ratio of Cvac and Cmed is equal to a.
r
c.
1
b) 1.6 × 109N d) 1.6 × 1013N
A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylindrical axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is: a) R 2 / E c) 2R 2 / E
64.
b) 1 : K d) 1 : K2
The force of proton in electric field of magnitude 10 6 N/c is a) 1.6 × 10-15N c) 1.6 × 1013N
63.
1 r 1 d. o b.
The ratio of the force between two small spheres with constant charges A) in air, B) in a medium of dielectric constant K is a) K2 : 1 c) K : 1
62.
b. Force Law d. None
b) Zero d) 2R 2 E
In an inkjet printer the charged ink drops are diverted by the deflection plates a) Towards the charging electrodes b) Towards the gutter c) Towards a blank paper on which the print is to be taken d) In inkjet printer ink can not be charged
65.
The constant K in Coulomb’s Law depends upon a) Nature of medium c) Intensity of charge
b) System of units d) a & b
66.
How many electrons are in one Coulomb? a) 6.2 × 10-23 c) 1.6 × 10-19
67.
b) 6.2 × 10-21 d) Zero
The force between two charges in 8N. now placed a mica of relatively 4 between two charges as a medium, the force then reduced to a) 2N c) 6N
68.
b) 4N d) 8N
Selenium is an a) Insulator c) Semiconductor
69.
b) Conductor d) Photoconductor
Find the potential at a point, where a charge of 1 × 10-3 coulomb is placed at a distance of 10m is a) 1mV c) 1.6KV
70.
b) 1.9KV d) 0.15KV
In Milikan’s experiment, we find the e/m for a) Atom c) Proton
71.
The charge determined by the Milikan’s experiment is qvd qvd a) q b) q g m c) g
72.
b) Electron d) Neutron
mgd v
d) None
The ratio of electrostatic force to the gravitational force between them is of the order of a) 1036 c) 1040
73.
b) 1038 d) 1042
The magnitude of the electric field on the surface of a sphere of radius ‘r’ having a uniform surface charge density is a)
c) 74.
r
b) d)
b) Field d) Potential Difference
Dielectric has the charge of the type inside it a) Moving charge c) Both a & b
76.
2 r
Of the following quantities, the one that is vector in character is an electric a) Charge c) Energy
75.
2
b) Static charge d) None of these
The Coulomb’s force between two charges q1 and q2 separated by distance ‘r’ is F. If the separation between two charges is doubled keeping charges constant, then Coulomb’s force becomes a) 4F
b) F/4
c) F/2 77.
d) 2F
The dimensions of relative permittivity are a) [A2T4ML-3] c) [ML3A2T2]
78.
b) [ML-3A2T4] d) None
An alpha particle has twice the charge of a proton. Two protons separated by a distance ‘d’ exert a force ‘F’ on each other. What must be the separation between the alpha particles so that they also exert a force ‘F’ on each other? a) 2d c)
79.
b)
2d
d 2 d)
d 2
The ratio of instantaneous charge and maximum charge on plates of capacitors at t = RC is a) 36.8% c) 20%
b) 63.2% d) 30%
CHAPTER # 13 CURRENT ELECTRICITY 1) If the length and diameter of conductor is double, the resistance is a) Remain same c) Half
b) Double d) Four time
2) The expression for the co-efficient of receptivity is a.
R Ro
b.
R2 R1 R2
c.
R1 R2 R1
d.
R2 R1 R
3) The reciprocal of resistivity is called
a) b) c) d)
Resistance Conduction Conductivity None
4) One coulomb per second is equal to a) b) c) d)
Joule Volt Ampere Walt
5) In the metallic conductor the current is due to flow of charge a) b) c) d)
Positive Negative Proton None
6) Conventional current flow from a) b) c) d)
Positive to negative Negative to positive Negative to negative None
7) The main source for the current are a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five 8) The drift velocity of electron at 0oC is a) b) c) d)
zero Maximum 1 cm/sec 10 cm/sec
9) In the thermocouple the heat energy is converted into a) b) c) d)
Mechanical energy Electric energy Magnetic energy None
10) An electric heater 220V, 440W has a resistance a) b) c) d)
2Ω 110 Ω 0.5 Ω 20 Ω
11) The heating effect of current utilized in a) b) c) d)
Iron Tube light Fan Motor
12) Mathematical form of ohm’s law is a) I = VR
b) I = V/R c) I = R/V d) R = IV 13) Ohm’s law is valid for only current flowing in a) b) c) d)
Conductors Transistors Diodes Electric Areas
14) Through an electrolyte electric current is passed due to drift of a. b. c. d.
Free electrons Positive and negative ions Free electrons and holes Protons
15) The e.m.f. of two cells can be compared by a. b. c. d.
AVO meter Voltmeter Potentiometer Galvanometer
16) The post office box is based on the principle of a. b. c. d.
Galvanometer Wheat-stone bridge Voltmeter None
17) At null point the current through the galvanometer is a) b) c) d)
Zero Maximum Minimum None
18) A current of 10A flows in a conductors of 10 Ω resistance for 1 mint the heat produce will be a) b) c) d)
102 J 6 x 102 J 6 x 103 J 6 x 104 J
19) The unit of conductivity is a. b. c. d.
Ω. M (η.m)-1 Ω.m-1 None
20) When the bulb is turned on, ohm’s law is applicable a) b) c) d)
Yes No May or may not None
21) In series circuit the net resistance is a. b. c. d.
Increase Decrease Remain constant None
22) Joule law can be expressed as a) b) c) d)
I2 Rt IR2t IRt2 V2/R
23) The graph b/w V and I in case of ohm law is a) b) c) d)
Parabolic Curve Slope Straight line
24) Resistance of supper conductor is a) b) c) d)
Finite Infinite Zero Changes with material
25) The e.m.f. of a cell or battery is the voltage b/w its terminals, when a. b. c. d.
It is closed circuit It is open circuit Its internal resistance is zero None
26) The S.I unit of e.m.f. is same as a. b. c. d.
Work Energy Power Voltage
27) The main type of resistors are a. b. c. d.
Two Three Four Five
28) In the carbon resistor their value can be find by their a. b. c. d.
Wires Terminals Color Spots
29) The third band is written in the form of power of a. 2 b. 6
c. 8 d. 10 30) Tolerance color means a. b. c. d.
Greater Less Greater-less None
31) If the first color red and 2nd band is green and third band is orange, then value of resistance is a. b. c. d.
20000 24000 25000 None
32) If the tolerance color is gold then it value is a. b. c. d.
± 2% ± 4% ± 5% ± 6%
33) A variable resistors is called a. b. c. d.
Resistance Rheostat Amplifier None
34) A heat sensitive resistor is called a. b. c. d.
Amplifier Diode Thermistor Conductor
35) The temperature co-efficient of thermistor is a. b. c. d.
Positive Negative Zero None
36) Thermistor can be used for the accurate measurement of a. b. c. d.
Voltage Resistance Temperature Heat
37) A circuit which has only one voltage source is called a. b. c. d.
Network Simple circuit Complex circuit None
38) The circuit who has more than one voltage source
is called a. b. c. d.
Network Simple circuit Complex circuit None
39) The algebraic sum of all the current at junction is zero, is Kirchoff’s a. 1st law b. 2nd law c. 3rd law d. 4th law 40) The algebraic sum of voltages changes around a closed circuit or loop is zero, is Kirchoff’s a. b. c. d.
1st law 2nd law 3rd law 4th law
41) If the resistance of a certain length wire, diameter 5mm is 10Ω if the diameter is charge to 10mm, then new resistance is a. b. c. d.
40 5 20 2.5
42) The unit for the consumption of electrical energy commonly used is a. b. c. d.
Joule Watt sec K. watt. hr Watt. hr
43) Heat generated by 40 watt bulb is one hour is a. b. c. d.
24000 J 48000 J 144000 J 14400 J
44) The principle of potentiometer a. b. c. d.
P.d length P.d resistance P.d. area None
45) A fuse is placed in series with circuit to protect against a. b. c. d.
High power High voltage High current Over heating
46) If the resistor is traversed apposite to the direction of current, then potential is
a. b. c. d.
Positive Negative Zero None
47) When electricity passes through the liquid then process is called a. b. c. d.
Electro late Electrolysis Electro-conductor None
48) Which one gives pure nature of the material a. b. c. d.
Resistively Conductivity Temperature co-efficient None
49) Kirchoff’s 1st law is also called law of conservation of a. b. c. d. 50.
Charge Mass Energy None
The resistivity of copper in Ω.m is a. 1.52 × 10-8
51.
b. 1.54 × 10-8
b. Nichrome
b. Voltage
Open electric transmission lines a. Obey Ohm’s law b. Obey at high temperature c. Do not obey Ohm’s law d. None of these
54.
If three resistances of equal resistance R are connected in parallel, the net resistance will a. 3R c.
55.
c. Manganin
d. Tungston
c. Resistance
d. None of these
An ideal voltmeter would have an infinite a. Current
53.
d. None
The wire used in Rheostate is made from a. Constanton
52.
c. 1.56 × 10-8
3 R
b.
R 3
d. R + 3
The fractional change in resistivity per Kelvin a. co-efficient in resistance b. co-efficient of resistivity c. Resistance d. None
56.
An electric bulb rated at 220V 140watt is connected to 110v power line, the current that flows in it is a. 1.27 A c. 2.27 A
57.
b. 1.83 A d. 2.83 A
Which one is non-ohmic? a. Diode c. Copper wire
58.
b. Carbon resistance d. Tungston wire
Magnetic effect of current is utilized in a. Iron b. Thermocouple c. Measurement of current d. None
59.
The unknown e.m.f can be determined by a. E x
60
R E r
b. E x E
L l
c. E x E
l L
d. E x
R lE r
Three two ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. The resistance b/w any two corner is a.
3 Ohm 4
b.
4 Ohm 3
c. 4 × 3 Ohm
d. 4 + 3
Ohm 61.
The resistivity of a material is the resistivity of material is: a) c) 2
62.
b) Every point d) All of them
The value of resistance depends upon a) Nature c) Physical state
66.
b) 40 watt d) 200 watt
When the battery is connected at its ends, an electric field is set up at a) Its ends c) Middle
65.
b) 20W d) 40W
A source of 200V provides a current of 10.0 Amperes to a house. The power delivered by the source is a) 20 watt c) 2000 watt
64.
b) 4 d) / 4
Four bulbs of 10W, 20W, 30W and 40W are connected in parallel, the bulb that will shine more is a) 10W c) 30W
63.
. If the area of cross-section of material is doubled and length is halved then
b) Dimension d) All of them
Conductance is a quantity used to describe the a) Physical state of the conductor
b) Electrical properties of material c) Dimension of the conductor d) All of them 67.
The resistivity
of Aluminium in Ωm is
a) 2.59 × 10-8 c) 2.63 × 10-8 68.
The resistivity of Germanium in Ωm is a) 0.7 × 10-8 c) 0.59 × 10-8
69.
b) 0.5 × 10-8 d) None of these
The colour code for the colour Grey is a) 7 c) 9
70.
b) 2.60 × 10-8 d) None of these
b) 8 d) 5
A zero ohm resistor is indicated by a) A single silver colour band b) A single black band c) A silver black band d) None of these
71.
Thermo couples convert heat energy into a) Mechanical energy c) Electrical energy
72.
An accurate measurement of emf of a cell is made by a) A voltmeter c) A potentiometer
73.
R E r l c) E x E L
d) E x
L l
R lE r
b) No d) None of these
A 50 volt battery is connected across a 10 ohm resistor. The current is 4.5A. The internal resistance of the battery is: a) 1.1 Ω c) 1.3 Ω
76.
b) E x E
Do bends in a wire affect its electrical resistance a) Yes c) Affects a little
75.
b) An ammeter d) All of them
The unknown emf can be determined and given by a) E x
74.
b) Chemical energy d) None of these
b) 1.2 Ω d) 1.4 Ω
A 25 watt and 40 watts bulbs were connected an a series to a 220V line. Which electric bulb will grow more brightly? a) 25 watts bulb b) Neither will give light c) Both will have same incandescence d) none
77.
A 100 watt bulb and a 200 watt bulb are designed to operate at 110V and 220V respectively. The ratio of their resistance is
1 2 1 d) 4
a) 1 c)
b)
1 3
CHAPTER # 14 ELECTROMAGNETISM 1.
The origin of magnetism is a. b. c. d.
2.
Iron Steel Moving charge None of these
The poles of magnet are similar to a. Geo poles b. Opposite to geo poles c. Perpendicular to geo poles d. None
3.
A moving charge is surrounded by a. b. c. d.
4.
A photon while passing though a magnetic field are deflected towards a. b. c. d.
5.
Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic Non-magnetic
Magnetism is related to a. b. c. d.
7.
North pole South pole Are ionized None
Iron is what type of magnetic material, it is a. b. c. d.
6.
2 fields 3 fields 4 fields None
Stationary charges Moving charges Stationary and moving charge Law of motion
if the angle b/w v and B is zero then magnetic force will be a. Max
b. Min c. Zero d. None
8.
when charge particle enter perpendicular to magnetic field, the path followed by it is a. b. c. d.
9.
The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is a. b. c. d.
10.
Away from you Towards you Clock wise Anti clockwise
The shape of magnetic field around a long straight current carrying wire is a. b. c. d.
14.
Yes No Some Time None
A current carrying conductor carries current away from you the direction of magnetic field with respect to you is a. b. c. d.
13.
Electric field Magnetic field Magnetic field intensity Electric field intensity
It is possible to set a charge at rest into motion with magnetic field a. b. c. d.
12.
Tesla Weber Joule Newton
Tesla is the unit of a. b. c. d.
11.
A helix A circle Straight line Ellipse
Electrical Squire Varies with current Circular
one Tesla is equal to a. b. c. d.
104G 10-4G 106G 10-6G
15.
The flux through an area of 1 m2 in x -y plane in a magnetic filed of 1T directed along Z -axis will be a. b. c. d.
16.
The toque in the coil can be increased by increasing a. b. c. d.
17.
1 x 10-6N 6.4 x 10-17N 3.6 x 10-24N 4 x 106N
The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by a. b. c. d.
23.
N.A2/A N.m2/A N.A/m N.m/A
An electron moves at 2x102m/sec perpendicular to magnetic field of 2T what is the magnitude of magnetic force a. b. c. d.
22.
Conductance Electric current Magnetic flux Electric flux
One weber is equal to a. b. c. d.
21.
0o 60o 90o 180o
The Weber and Maxwell are unit of measure of a. b. c. d.
20.
Electric flux Torque Magnetic flux Force
The magnetic flux will be max, for an angle of a. b. c. d.
19.
No, of tarns Current and magnetic field Area of coil All of above
A current carrying loop, when placed in a uniform magnetic field will experience a. b. c. d.
18.
Zero 1 wb 0.5 web None
CRO Diode Transistor Radio
The force on a charge particle moving parallel to magnetic field is
a. b. c. d. 24.
The presence of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor was detected by a. b. c. d.
25.
4 4 4 4
x 10-6 x 10-7 x 10-8 x 10-9
The magnetic induction of solenoid is a. b. c. d.
29.
T.m/A T.m2/A T.m/A2 None
The value of o is a. b. c. d.
28.
Circular path Rectangular path To any path None
The unit of permiability of free space is a. b. c. d.
27.
H. orested Ampere Weber Henry
Ampere’s law is applicable to a. b. c. d.
26.
Maximum Minimum Zero None
o NI o NL o N None
A solenoid of length 500m is wonded into 100 turns. A current of 10 A flows in it, the magnetic field intensity is a. 20 o b. 200 o c. 2000 o d. None
30.
When charge particle enters in the uniform magnetic field, the magnetic force will be balance by a. b. c. d.
31.
Electric force Magnetic force Centripetal force None
The frequency of cyclotron is given by
qb 2m qb b. f = 2rm qb c. f = 2 qb d. mr a. f =
32.
the e/m value of electron is
33.
a. 1.7588 x 1011 b. 1.75599 x 1012 c. 1.7588 x 109 d. 1.7559 x 1014 F = Fe + Fm is a. b. c. d.
34.
The main part of C.R.O is a. b. c. d.
35.
Two Three Four None
The material used in fluorescent screen is a. b. c. d.
37.
Two Three Four Five
In C.R.O. the deflecting plats are a. b. c. d.
36.
Electric force Magnetic force Lorentz force None
Electric Magnetic Phosphors None
The value of restoring torque in galvanometer is a. r b. c c. m d. None
38.
In the galvanometer the current is proportional to a. b. c. d.
Magnetic field Electric field Angle None
39.
When a small resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer it is called a. b. c. d.
40.
Ammeter Voltmeter AVO meter None
To find the shunt resistance we used equation
IgRg I Ig IsRg b. Rs = I Ig IgRs c. Rs = R Ig IsRs d. Rs = I Ig a. Rs =
41.
To convert a galvanometer into voltmeter we connect a resistance in a. b. c. d.
42.
AVO-meter is used to find a. b. c. d.
43.
Very large Very small Unaltered None
To increase the scale of galvanometer to twice of its initial value we need to connect a shunt a. b. c. d.
46.
Small resistance High resistance Infinite resistance None
an ammeter can be more sensitive if C/BAN is made a. b. c. d.
45.
Current Voltage Resistance All of above
An ideal voltmeter has a. b. c. d.
44.
Series Parallel Series or parallel None
Rs = Rg Rs < Rg Rs > Rg None
Which of the following is a hard magnet?
a. b. c. d. 47.
Iron Nickel Steel All of them
Ammeter and galvanometer a. b. c. d.
Are always connected in series Are always connected in parallel Both in series and parallel None
48.
The sensitivity of galvanometer is directly depends on a. Magnetic field b. Area of coil c. Number of turns d. All of above
49.
One Tesla is also equal to a. b. c. d.
50.
The dot product of magnetic field are area is called a. b. c. d.
51.
web.m2 web.m-2 web.m None
Electric flux Magnetic flux Ampere law None
One Henry is equal to a. V. sec/A c. A.sec/V
52.
b. V.A/sec d. None
The S.I unit of Magnetic Permeability is a. web/m2 c. web m/A
53.
b. web A/m d. None of these
Shunt resistor is also called a. By pass resistor
54.
b. Specific resistor
Synchronization controls of CRO are used to synchronize a. Frequency c. Voltage
55.
b. Current d. All of them
In C.R.O the anode are at positive potential with respect to cathode is a. very high c. low
56.
b. high d. very low
The e/m value for an electron is a.
4v Br
b.
Zv Br
c. Reactance
d. None
c. 57.
2v B2r
Radio TV Picture tube Transistor None
Heating a magnet will a) b) c) d)
59.
0.1A 1A current sensitivity 1mA
1 weber = _______ a) b) c) d)
61.
Weaken it Strength it Reverse its polarity Demagnetize completely
Minimum current require to produced a deflection of 1mm on a scale at a distance of 1mm is a) b) c) d)
60
106 Maxwell 108 Maxwell 1010 Maxwell none
When the number of turns in a solenoid is doubled without any change in the length of the solenoid its self induction will be: a) Four times c) Halved
62.
b) Doubled d) None
The potential difference across the shunt resistor Rs is a) V I g R s c) V ( I g I ) R s
63.
2v B2r 2
C.R.O is same as a. b. c. d.
58.
d.
b) V ( I I g ) R s d) V I g R g
In multi range ammeter a) Resistances of different values are connected in series with galvanometer b) Different resistances are connected in parallel with galvanometer c) Some resistances are connected in parallel and some of them are connected in series d) None
64.
The S.I unit of magnetic permeability is a) TmA-2 c) Fm-1
65.
b) TmA-1 d) None of these
A solenoid is a cylindrical, long and tightly wound coil of wire. When a current pass through it behaves like a
a) Source of emf c) Electromagnet 66.
The brightness of the spot formed on the screen in controlled by the a) Electron c) Potential
67.
b) Magnet d) None of these
b) Proton d) None of these
Due to radial field, a moving coil galvanometer is a) Comes to rest quickly b) Magnetic field becomes strong c) Movement is frequent d) None of these
68.
A very high resistor Rh is connected in series with the galvanometer in order to convert it into voltmeter
V Rg I Ig c) Rg V a)
69.
b)
V Rg Ig
d)
I Rg V
Magnetic flux passing normally, through a unit area is called a) Magnetization b) Magnetic field intensity c) Magnetic flux density d) All of these
70.
The relation between Tesla ( T ) and Gauss (G) is given as a) 1T = 104G c) 1T = 10-4G
71.
Couple necessary to produce unit twist is a) Deflecting couple c) Torsion couple
72.
c) v
2V m 2V me
b) v d) v
3 Ve m 2 Ve m
The beam of the electrons is provided by a) Ionization of atoms c) Electron gun
74.
b) Restoring couple d) None of these
In velocity selector method, the velocity of an electron is given by a) v
73.
b) 1T = 106G d) 1T = 10-6G
b) Photoemission d) None of these
The resistance of a voltmeter should have a very high resistance a) It does not disturb the circuit b) It draws some current c) It same the galvanometer coil d) None of these
75.
The wave form of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by
a) CRO c) Transistor 76.
b) Diode d) Radio
The shunt resistance connected to a Galvanometer to convert it into a desired level current measuring ammeter is a) R s c) R s
77.
V Rg I Ig I Ig
b) R s
Vg I Ig
d) None
A vertical solenoid has 200 turns in a length of 0.4m and carries a current of 3A in anticlockwise. The flux density in the middle in Tesla is about a) 6 10 4 c) 60 10 4
b) 6 10 5 d) None
CHAPTER # 15 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 1.
The induced e.m.f. is produce due to a. b. c. d.
2.
Induced electric current can be explained using which law a. b. c. d.
3.
Motion of coil Motion of magnet The rate of change of flux None
Gauss’s law Faraday’s law Ohm’s law Ampere law
In the motional e.m.f. the mechanical energy consumed is converted into
a. b. c. d. 4.
Generator works on the principle of a. b. c. d.
5.
Faraday’s law Lenz’s law Ampere’s law Right hand rule
The relation of motional e.m.f. is a. b. c. d.
11.
Faraday’s law Lenz’s law Ampere law None
The best way to find the direction of induced e.m.f. in the circuit is a. b. c. d.
10.
Current Voltage No. of turns None
The negative sign with induced e.m.f. is due to a. b. c. d.
9.
Magnetic field Electric flux Electric field None
The induced e.m.f. can also be increase by increasing a. b. c. d.
8.
Mass Energy Charge None
An inductor is a circuit element that can store energy in the form of a. b. c. d.
7.
Torque on rectangular coil Motional e.m.f. Question is wrong None
Lenz’s law is consistent with law of conservation of a. b. c. d.
6.
Heat energy Internal energy Steam energy None
E=BLV E=qBl E=Blq E=qVB
If we increase the resistance of coil, the induced e.m.f. will be a. b. c. d.
Increase Decrease Remain same None
12.
The self-inductance may be defined by / t / t b) L =
a) L =
/ t L= / t
c) L = d) 13.
The mutual inductance b/w two coil is a. M = - / p b. M =
p / t
c. M = - / / t d. None 14.
Inductance are measured by a) Coulombs c) Volt
15.
The self inductance in case of D.C circuit is a. b. c. d.
16.
Maximum Minimum negligble None
An over loaded motor draws a. b. c. d.
17.
b) Amperes d) Henry
Max. current Min. current Half None
The self inductance of a solenoid is
2 b) L = n 2 2 c) L = nlA 2 n d) L = 2 a) L = n
18.
A current of 7Amp/sec flows a steady rate, through a inductor of inductance 25mh, what is the induced e.m.f? a) b) c) d)
19.
3.57mv 175mv 350mv None The energy stored in the inductor is
a) ½ L I 2 b) ½ L2 I c) ½ L2I2
d) None 20.
The energy stored in the inductor per unit volume is a. c.
21.
24.
Eddy current Hysteresis Electric resistance Inductance
p t
c.
tp
t b. p d. none
Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil when the rate of change of One ampere in secondary coil Magnetic flux Current in one ampere in secondary None
Mutual inductance exists Within coil Out of coil B/w two coil None
Alternating current changes a. b. c. d.
27.
2 4 o
160 mJ 1.28 J 1.6 mJ None
a.
a. b. c. d. 26.
d.
The co-efficient of mutual inductance is equal to
a. b. c. d. 25.
2 o
Lamination of lamina core of transformer is to decrease its a. b. c. d.
23.
b.
What energy is stored in an inductor of 40mH, when a current of 8A passing through it a. b. c. d.
22.
2 2 0 4 0
Its magnitude as well as direction Only direction but not magnitude Only magnitude but not direction None
The coil in A.C generator rotates with rotational speed of 10rad/sec its frequency is a.
2 rad/sec
b. c. d. 28.
V = Vo sin 2 ft V = Vo sin 2 ft V = Vo sing 2 wt None
Move parallel to coil Are stationary Move along the direction of coil None
VBL sin NESN sing NAB sin NIAB sin
50 Hz 100 Hz 150 Hz 220 Hz
The difference b/w A.C. and D.C. generator in due to a. b. c. d.
33.
Attract each other Repel each other No effect None of these
The back motor effect exist in the a. b. c. d.
35.
Slip rings Commutators Slip – chip None
Two parallel conducting wires placed closer to each other carry current in the same direction will. a. b. c. d.
34.
None
In Pakistan the frequency of A.C. is a. b. c. d.
32.
rad/sec
The induced e.m.f. in A.C. generator is a. b. c. d.
31.
In case of A.C. generator the slip rings a. b. c. d.
30.
5
The instantaneous value of A.C. voltage is a. b. c. d.
29.
5 rad/sec
Generator Mater A.C. Meter None
The coil used in the generators is called a. Commutaters
b. Slip rings c. Armature d. None 36.
The back ward generator is called a) b) c) d)
37.
Electric mo0ter are used in a. b. c. d.
38.
Primary Secondary Middle None
In the actual transformer, the output is always a. b. c. d.
43.
Energy Power Voltage All of above
The coil which is connected to input is called a. b. c. d.
42.
Amperes law Mutual induction Motional e.m.f. None
A transformer is a device which step up or stop down a. b. c. d.
41.
Generator Motor Transformer None
The principle of transformer is a. b. c. d.
40.
Television Radar Tape recorder All of above
The back e.m.f. exist in the a. b. c. d.
39.
Electric motor A.C. generator Reverse generator None
Equal to input Less then input More than input None
A transformer changes 12V to 1800V and there are 6000 turns in secondary coil, the no of turn on primary coil is a. b. c. d.
40 20 10 2
44.
In ideal transformer when p.d. in double the current is a. b. c. d.
45.
Power is effectively supplied to primary coil of step up transformer by a. b. c. d.
46.
Small Large Zero None
To minimize the heating effect in the transmission lines a. b. c. d.
51.
Laminated with insulation With magnetic With plastic None
For a good transformer the hysterics loop are _______ in size. a. b. c. d.
50.
Power loss Heating Both a and b None
To over come the eddy current, the core is a. b. c. d.
49.
Step up transformer Step down transformer For both None
The eddy current produced a. b. c. d.
48.
A.C. generator D.C. generator Battery Motor
An adopter is an example of a. b. c. d.
47.
Doubled Tripled Halved Same
High current low voltage in used High voltage low current in used Same voltage and current in used None
Load is a device which consume a. Mechanical energy b. Electrical energy c. Frictional energy d. None
52.
Induced e.m.f is
a. Directly proportional to change in flux b. Directly proportional to rate of change of flux c. Inversely proportional to change of flux 53.
A transformer is said to be efficient if a. Output voltage = Input voltage c. Output power = Input power d. Output energy = Input energy
54.
d. None of these
b. Output current = Input current
The ratio of e.m.f’s of two cells is equal to a.
2
c.
1
1 2
b. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 1
55. If a 3cm of wire is moved at right angle to the magnetic field with a speed of 2 miles/sec and if flux density is 5 Tesla, what is the magnitude of induced e.m.f? a. 0.03v c. 0.6v
b. 0.3v d. 10v
56.
When a transformer is connected to 120 volt A.C it supplies 3000 volt to device, the current through secondary winding is 0.6 amp and current through primary is 2 amp, the no. of turns primary is 400. what is the efficiency of transformer? a. 75% c. 85%
57.
b. 80% d. None of these
A.C and D.C have same a. Effect in charging a capacitor c. Effect while passing through an inductor d. Heating effect through a resistor
58.
Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting, if it is kept near a. Static charge c. Semi conductor
59.
b. Zero d. None of these
Non inductive resistances are used in decreasing a. Mutual inductance c. Magnetic field
61.
b. Soft iron d. Accelerating charge
When motor is at its Max. speed the back e.m.f will be a. Maximum c. Cannot tell
60.
b. Effect in charging a battery
b. Self inductance d. Heating effect
Self induction is greater in a) AC circuits c) Both in AC & DC
b) DC circuits d) None
on
62.
A solenoid of area of cross section 2.0cm2 and length 100cm stores energy. When current of 5.0A flowing in it produces B = 0.1T then the stored energy is a) (10-6μo)J c) (10-6/μo)J
63.
If the speed of rotation of AC generator is made four times of its initial value, the percentage increase in an induced emf is a) 100% c) 300%
64.
b) (106/μo)J d) None
b) 400% d) None
In mutual induction, the mutual inductance of the two coils depends upon a) Number of turns b) Area of cross section of coil c) The distance between the two coils d) All of them
65.
The devices in the circuit that consume electrical energy are known as a) Inductor c) Load
66.
The back emf effect in motors changes due to a) Inductance of coils c) Voltage
67.
b) Capacitor d) None of these
b) Current d) None of these
In an ideal transformer, the following factors are used a) Input and output power is same b) Currents are inversely proportional to voltage c) Currents are directly proportional to voltage d) None of these
68.
Radio frequency (R.F.) shielding of a coil means to protect from external circuit a) Varying magnetic field b) Magnetic field c) Dust and heat d) Electric field
69.
The Jerks are created by the use of a) Commutator c) Torques
70.
The application of mutual induction is a a) Television c) D.C. motor
71.
b) Radio d) Transformer
If the emf across the conductor of length 1m moving with a uniform speed at right angles to a magnetic field of 0.5T is 2V, the velocity of the conductor is a) 1 ms-1 c) 4 ms-1
72.
b) Armature d) None of these
b) 2 ms-1 d) 8 ms-1
What is the self inductance of a coil when a change of current from 0 to 2A in 0.05sec induces an emf of 40V in it? a) 1H
b) 2H
c) 3H 73.
A pair of coils has a mutual inductance of 2H. If the current in the primary changes from 10A to zero in 0.1sec, the induced emf in the secondary will be a) 100V c) 300V
74.
d) 4H
b) 200V d) 400V
A copper ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is a) Equal to that due to gravity b) Less than that due to gravity c) More than that due to gravity d) Depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
75.
An emf of 0.003V is induced in a wire when it moves at right angles to uniform magnetic filed with a speed of 4m/sec if the length of the wire in the field is 15cm, what is the flux density in Tesla? a) 0.003 b) 0.005 c) 6 d) 12 e) 2000
CHAPTER # 16 ALTERNATING CURRENT CIRCUITS 1.
The A.C. e.m.f. can be represented by the wave form called a. b. c. d.
2.
The mean value of A.C. over a complete cycle in a. b. c. d.
3.
Resistors Capacitors Inductors All of above
The quality which is called argument of sine or cosine function is a) c)
8.
Matter wave Mechanical wave Electromagnetic wave Transverse wave
A battery can pass only steady current through a. b. c. d.
7.
In phase Voltage leads the current Current leads the voltage None
The waves which can also pass through the vacuum are a. b. c. e.
6.
0.707 Io 0.707 Vo 0.708 Ro None
In pure resistive A.C. circuit the voltage and current are a. b. c. d.
5.
Maximum Minimum Zero None
The r.m.s. value of A.C current in a. b. c. d.
4.
Sinusoidal Cosine wave Tangent wave None
t 2
b) 2T
d)
2
The unit used for capacitive reactance is a. Volt b. Ampere
c. Joule d. Ohm 9.
If the frequency of A.C in large the reactance of capacitor is a. b. c. d.
10.
In case of capacitor, the voltage lage- behind the current by
a. b. c. d. 11.
t c. L t L
d. None
The resistance of inductor is represented by b) XL d) None
If the frequency of A.C. is double inductor the reactance will be a. b. c. d.
17.
p t
Lead the current by 90o Ledge the current by 90o Remain same with current None
a) Xc c) RL 16.
b. L
In pure inductive circuit the voltage a. b. c. d.
15.
Zero Maximum Minimum None
The magnitude of back e.m.f. in the inductor is a.
14.
3184 3190 3140 3150
In the pure inductor the resistance is a. b. c. d.
13.
90o 60o 30o 180o
If the capacitance of capacitor is 1µF and the frequency of A.C is 50Hz then reactance will be a. b. c. d.
12.
Large Small Zero None
Half Same Double Triple
The average power dissipated in a pure inductor is a. b. c. d.
Maximum Minimum Zero None
18.
The device which is used for controlling A.C. without dissipation of energy is called a. b. c. d.
19.
By increasing the frequency of A.C. through an inductor the reactance will be a. b. c. d.
20.
Null vector Unit vector Phasor None
The combine opposition of resistor capacitor and inductor is called a. b. c. d.
23.
Clockwise Anti clockwise Remain stationary None
In case of phasor diagram the velocity vector is called a. b. c. d.
22.
Increases Decreases Remain same None
In case of phasor diagram the vector rotates a. b. c. d.
21.
Inductor Capacitor Resistor Choke
Reactance Resistor Impedance None
The S.I unit of impedance is called a) Joule c) Ampere
24.
b) Weber d) Ohm
When A.C. flow through RC series circuit the magnitude of voltage is a. V = R 2 Xc 2 b. V =
R2 X L
2
c. V = IR d. None 25.
The impedance of RC – series circuit is
V I V b. Z = I Z c. V = I a. R =
d. None 26.
The magnitude of voltage in case of RL – service circuit a. V = I
R 2 XL2
b. V = I R 2 Xc 2 c. V = IR d. None 27.
The average power in case of A.C. series circuit is a) P = VI c) P = VI sin
28.
b) P = VI cos d) None
In equation P = VI cos , the factor cos
At what frequency will a 1H inductor have reactance of 500 ohms a) 80 Hz c) 40 Hz
30.
is called
b) Cos d) None
a) Cosine c) Power factor 29.
b) 60 Hz d) 20 Hz
In case of RLC series circuit the impedance of circuit is a. Z = R2 + b. Z =
Xc 2 X L
2
2
R 2 X L Xc 2
c. Z = R 2 ( XL Xc ) 2 d. None 31.
The behavior of resistance is frequency a) Dependent c) No, response
32.
At resonance frequency the power factor is a) One c) Two
33.
Resonance frequency Threshold frequency Non-frequency None
At resonance frequency the impedance of A.C series circuit is a. b. c. d.
35.
Maximum Minimum Can not explain by give data None
In parallel circuit of A.C. there will be maximum a) Power c) Impedance
36.
b) Voltage d) None
The electrical oscillators are used in a) Metal detectors c) Diode
37.
b) Zero d) Three
The frequency at which XL is equal to Xc in called a. b. c. d.
34.
b) Independent d) None of these
b) Amplifier d) None
The current which is produce due to changing electric flux is called
a. b. c. d. 38.
The fundamental requirement for the generation of electromagnetic wave is a. b. c. d.
39.
Displacement current Conduction current Eddy current None
Oscillation of electric charge Motion of electric charge Motion of electron None
The speed of light was found by formula a) c =
1
b) c = s/t
o o
c) c = 2 rt 40.
The super position of sonic wave on EM waves that causes a change in vertical shape of EM waves is a. b. c. d.
41.
Frequency Modulation Amplitude Modulation No, effect None
For the reception of electromagnetic wave we use a variable a) Resistor c) Inductor
42.
Amplitude Modulation Applied Metal Accurate Measurement None
F.M stands for a. b. c. d.
44.
Frequency Modulation Frequency Metal Frequency Member None
The process of combing the low frequency signal with high frequency radio-wave is called a) Modulation c) Rectification
45.
b) F.M d) M.W
An A.C voltmeter reads 250volts, its peak voltage is a) 250v c) 353.5v
47.
b) Amplification d) None
Which one give more quality transmission a) A.M c) S.W
46.
b) Capacitor d) None
A.M stands for a. b. c. d.
43.
d) None
b) 350.5v d) None of these
The types of modulations are a) One c) Three
b) Two d) Four
48.
In A.C. parallel resonance circuit branch current may be granter then a. b. c. d.
49.
Source current e.m.f. current Applied voltage None
The angular frequency of resonance circuit is
1
a) W =
LC
c) W = 50.
b) W =
1 L C
d) None
LC
Natural or Resonant frequency of an LC circuit is
1 4 c)
LC
1
2 LC
b)
2 LC
d)
1 2
LC
51. What is the self inductance of a coil in which changes at the rate of 4 A/sec.
an induced e.m.f of 2 volt is setup when current
a. 0.5 m H b. 0.5H c. 2H d. 0.5volt When coil of high inductance is used for controlling A.C without dissipation of energy is called
52.
a. Inductor c. Impedance 53.
b. Choke d. None
An A.C choke is a coil consist of thick copper wire, wound closely over a a. Soft iron core b. Hard iron core c. Soft iron laminated core d. None
54.
The power consumption in A.C choke is a. Small c. Zero
55.
b. High d. Maximum
The reciprocal of impedance is called a. Conductance c. Admittance
56.
b. Inductance d. None
Which one is prefer for transmission of radio signal. a. X – rays b. Infra red rays c. Larger than infra red d. Smaller than infra red
57.
Television programs are carried away by a. Low frequency waves
b. High frequency waves c. Microwaves d. None 58.
When a radio station is broadcasting a musical program, the antenna of its transmitter radiates a. R.F electromagnetic waves b. A.F electromagnetic waves c. R.F longitudinal waves
59.
d. A.F longitudinal waves
An A.C varies as a function of a. Voltage b. Current c. Voltage and current d. Time
60.
During each cycle A.C voltage reaches its peak value a. One time
61.
c. Four times
d. None of these
At resonance, the value of the power factor in an LCR series is a) Zero c) 1
62.
b. Two times
b) ½ d) Not defined
In an LCR circuit, if V is the effective value of the applied voltage, V R is the voltage across R, VL is the effective voltage across L, VC is the effective voltage across C, then: a) V = VR + VL + VC b) V2 = VR2 + VL2 + VC2 c) V2 = VR2 + (VL – VC)2 d) V2 = VL2 + (VR – VC)
63.
The alternating current transmission for long distances has a) Expensive c) Sometimes both a & b
64.
At high frequency the reactance of the capacitor is a) Low c) Very large
65.
b) Large d) None of these
The behaviour of resistance is frequency a) Dependent c) No response
66.
b) Low cost d) None of these
b) Independent d) None of these
In an inductor the phase difference between the current and voltage is a) Current lags voltage by 90o b) Voltage lags current by 180o c) Current leads voltage by 90o d) None of these
67.
The combined effect a resistance R, an inductance L, a capacitance C is known as a) Resistance c) Impedance
b) Reactance d) None of these
68.
The condition of resonance reached when a) XC > XL c) XL = XC
69.
The phase difference between coils of three phase A.C is a) 60o c) 90o
70.
b) 45o d) 120o
Since there are three coils, the generator has the terminals a) Two c) Six
71.
b) XL < XC d) None of these
b) Four d) Eight
Modulation is the process in which a) Amplitude is change b) Frequency is change c) Both a & b d) None of these
72.
The frequency of modulated carrier waves is lowest when signal amplitude is a) Maximum negative value b) Maximum positive value c) Amplitude zero d) None of these
73.
In a FM broadcast in VHF band channel width is a) 75 c) 88
74.
b) 25 d) 200
Find the impedance of an AC circuit when the current flowing in it is 100mA and 10 volts are applied to the circuit. a) 500 Ω c) 23 Ω
75.
b) 100 Ω d) 20 Ω
How many times per second will an incandescent lamp reach maximum brilliance when connected to a 50Hz source? a) 50 times c) 200 times
76.
The peak value of sinusoidal voltage in an AC circuit is 50V. The rms value of voltage is roughly equal to a) 70V c) 35V
77.
b) 100 times d) None of these
b) 40V d) 45V
The magnetic field intensity at appoint due to rate of change of electric flux is a) B c)
B
1 B 2 r t
b) B
e 2 r t
1 e 2 r t d) B
1 t 2 r e
78.
In RLC series AC circuit, when XL = XC then impedance is a) Minimum c) Zero
b) Maximum d) None
CHEPTER # 17 PHYSICS OF SOLIDS 1.
Which of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity? a) Rubber c) Glass
2.
What is the S.I unit of modules of elasticity of substances? a. b. c. d.
3.
Nm-2 Jm-2 Nm-1 Being number, its has no unit
What are the dimensions of stress? a) MLT-2 c) ML-1T-2
4.
b) Strains d) Pressure
A rubber cord of cross-sectional area 2cm2 has a length of 1m. when a tensile force of 10N is applied, the length of the cord increases by 1cm. what is the young’s modules of rubber?
a. b. c. d. 6.
b) ML-2T-1 d) MLoT-1
Which one of the following physical quantities does not have the dimensions of force per unit? a) Stress c) Young’s modulus
5.
b) Steel d) Copper
2 x 108 Nm-2 5 x 106 Nm-2 0.5 x 10-6 Nm-2 0.2x10-6 Nm-2
A wire of length L is stretched by a length L when a force F is applied at one end. If the elastic limit is not exceeded, the amount of energy stored in the wire is _____________
a) FL c) FL2/L 7.
b) ½ (FL) d) ½ FL2/L
When a force is applied at one end an elastic wire, it produce a strain E in the wire If “y” is young’s modules of the material of the wire, the amount of energy stored per unit volume of the wire is given by ________ a) YE c) YE2
8.
b) ½ YE d) ½ YE2
A wire, suspended vertically from on end, is stretched by attaching a weight of 20N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1mm. how much energy is gained by the wire? a) 0.01J c) 0.04J
9.
b) 0.02J d) 1.0J
A certain stress applied to an elastic materials produces a certain strain in it. If the elastic limit is not exceeded, the energy gained per unit volume of the material is given by_________ a) Stress/strain c) Stress x strain
10.
b) ½ (stress × strain) d) (stress x strain)
A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area of cross section 3 x 10-6 m2 is extended by 1mm by the application of a force. If the young’s modules of steel is 2x1011Nm-2, the energy stored in the wire is ____________ a) 0.025J c) 0.075J
b) 0.050J d) 0.100J
11. The ratio stress to strains in young’s modules of the materials then tension is _______ a) Directly proportional to extension b) Directly proportional to strains c) Directly proportional square of amplitude d) Inversely proportional to extension 12. Materials that undergo plastic deformation before breaking are called ___________ a) Brittle c) Amorphous 13.
b) Ductile d) Polymers
A wire is stretched by a force F which causes an extension 1. the energy stored in wire is ½ FL only if _________ a. The extension of the wire is proportional to the force applied. b. The weight of the wire is negligible c. The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit d. The cross sectional area of the wire remains
constant 14.
Formation of large molecule by joining small molecules is __________ a. Fusion c. Crystallization
15.
Any alteration produced in shapes, length or volume when a body is subjected to same internal force is called __________ a. Stiffness c. extension
16.
b. Polymerization d. Subtraction
b. Ductility d. deformation
The energy band occupied by the valence electrons is called ________ a. Energy state b. Valence band c. –ve energy state d. Conduction band
17.
The curie temperature is that at which ______ a. Semi conductor becomes conductors b. Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic c. Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic d. Metal becomes super conductor
18.
A ferromagnetic will become fully magnetized at _______ a. High voltage A.C b. Low voltage A.C c. Alternating current at its peak value d. D.C current is peak value
19.
Coercion force is the force which opposes a. Demagnetization c. Extension
20.
Materials in which valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms at low temperature are called _________ a. Semi conductors c. Insulators
21.
b. Super conductors d. Conductors
The bulk properties of materials such as their mode of fracture, can be related to their a. Polymerization c. Microstructure
22.
b. Breakage d. Surface cracking
b. Cleavage d. Dislocation
The angular position of cells remains the same for a sample of a crystal this property is called a. Isotropy b. Cleavage c. Homogeneity d. The external symmetry of form
23.
The breaking of a crystal along definite direction is called
a. Cleavage c. Isotropy 24.
If the density of atoms remains the same along any direction in a crystal is called a. Symmetry c. Isotropy
25.
b. Homogeneity d. Clearage
In simple cube, one atom or molecule leis at its a. Four corners c. Eight corners
26.
b. Symmetry d. Homogeneity
b. Nine corners d. Six corners
The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily the nature of a. Electrical insulators alone b. Electrical conductors alone c. Electrical semi conductors alone
27.
A vacant or partially filled band is called _____ a. Conduction band c. Forbidden band
28.
b. Valence band d. Empty band
A completely filled band is called _______ a. Conduction band c. Forbidden band
29.
b. Valence band d. Core band
The electrons in conduction band are free to ___________ a. Transport vibrations b. Transport signals c. Transport charge d. Transport impulses
30.
Which one has the greatest energy gap _______ a. Semi-conductors c. Metals
31.
b. Conductors d. Non-metals
many of the semi conductors are crystals of the type ________ a. Face centered cubic b. Body centered cubic c. Simple cubic d. All of the above
32.
With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semi conductors ______ a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remain the same d. First increases, then decreases
33.
d. All of the above
Holes can exists in_________
a. Conductors c. semi conductors 34.
b. insulators d. all of the above
In a semi conductors, the charge carriers are __________ a. Holes only b. Electrons only c. Electrons and holes both d. All of the above
35.
The net charge on N-type material is ________ a. Positive c. Both a & b
36.
b. Negative d. Neutral
Very weak magnetic fields are detected by _____ a. Squids b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Magnetometer d. Oscilloscope
37.
Energy needed to magnetic and demagnetize is represented by a. Hysterics curve c. Hysterics loop
38.
b. Hysterics loop area d. Straight line
Pentavalent impurities are called a. Donor impurities b. Acceptor impurities c. Some times donor and some times acceptors d. None of these
39.
Minority carriers in N-type materials are a. Electrons c. Neutrons
40.
According to free electron theory the only energy possessed by electron is a. K.E c. Gravitational
41.
b. P.E d. Electrical
The area under stress – strain graph is a. Power c. Momentum
42.
b. Protons d. Holes
b. Energy d. Impulse
Polymers are usually a. Organic compounds b. Non-organic compounds c. Acidic d. Alkaline
43.
The resistance against any distortion by solid is a. Toughness c. Stiffness
44.
Solid material that are brittle are a. Toughness c. Stiffness
45.
b. Ductility d. None
b. Ductile d. None
The temperature at which conductors lose its resistivity is called a. Supper temperature b. Kelvin temperature c. Critical temperature d. None
46.
The magnetic domains are the small regions of the order of a. Millimeter c. Micron
47.
A bullet train move with max the speed of a. 400 km/hr c. 500 km/hr
48.
b. Very close d. None
The valence energy band can never be a. Filled c. Empty
55.
b. 55 d. 110
When an atom is isolated its energy lavels are a. Distinct c. Very very close
54.
b. Ionic compounds d. All of them
Young’s Modulus for copper is a. 25 c. 100
53.
b. Nitrogen d. All of them
Crystalline solids are also a. Metals c. Ceramics
52.
b. Copper d. None
Polymers have chemical combination with a. Carbon c. Hydrogen
51.
b. Kmaerling d. None
Examples of brittle substances are a. Glass c. Lead
50.
b. 450 km/hr d. 550 km/hr
The first supper conductor was discovered by a. Fermi c. Weinberg
49.
b. Micrometer d. None
b. Partially filled d. None of these
When semiconductor is doped by trivalent, it has a. More electrons
b. More holes
c. + ive charge 56.
The field of long bar magnet is like a a. Solenoid c. Pieces of magnet
57.
b) Halved d) None
A hydraulic press contains 0.25m3 oil of bulk modulus 5.0 × 10 7 Pa. The change in volume of oil when subjected to pressure increase of 1.6 × 107 Pa is a) – 8.0 × 10-4 m3 c) 2.0 × 10-4 m3
64.
b) Ductility d) None
The Young modulus of elasticity is Y. If the forces is increased such that the extension produced becomes double of its initial value then Young Modulus is a) Double c) Unchanged
63.
b. Two d. Four
The ability of a material to be hammered, pressed, bent, rolled, cut, stretched into useful shape is a) Toughness c) Stiffness
62.
b. No units d. None
How many types of strain are there a. One c. Three
61.
b. Copper d. All of them
Strain is dimensionless and has a. Units c. S.I units
60.
b. 650oC d. 750oC
The examples of diamagnetic are a. Water c. Antimony
59.
b. Toroid d. None
The curie temperature of Iron is a. 600oC c. 700oC
58.
d. – ive charge
b) 4.0 × 10-4 m3 d) 10-4 m3
The resistivities of conductors, semiconductors and insulators are of the respective orders of a) 108 Ω.m, 10-4 Ω.m b) 10-4 Ω.m, 104 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m c) 10-4 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m, 104 Ω.m d) 104 Ω.m, 10-4 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m
65.
Diamagnetic needle when placed between the poles of a magnet align itself in the direction a) Parallel to B c) Perpendicular to B
66.
b) Anti parallel to B d) None
Crystalline solids are also a) Metals
b) Ionic compounds
c) Ceramics 67.
With the rise of temperature the amplitude of atoms a) Slow down c) Increases
68.
b) Copper d) None of these
Semiconductor materials have the conductivities generally lies between a) 10-5 to 10-6 (Ω.m)-1 c) 10-7 to 10-3 (Ω.m)-1
73.
b) Elasticity d) None of these
Examples of brittle substances are a) Glass c) Lead
72.
b) Nitrogen d) All of them
If the stress increased on a material is beyond the yield strength of the material is called a) Plasticity c) Still in elasticity
71.
b) Molecules d) All of them
Polymers have chemically combinations with a) Carbon c) Hydrogen
70.
b) Fixed d) None of these
Crystal lattice is a repetition of a) Atoms c) Unit cell
69.
d) All of them
b) 10-6 to 10-4 (Ω.m)-1 d) None of these
The electrons occupying the outermost shell of an atom and the electrons occupying in the energy band are called a) Energy band c) Forbidden energy band
74.
Conductors are those materials in which the free electrons a) Very large c) Plenty of
75.
b) Very small d) None of these
Doping is the process in which the small amount of impurity is added into the pure semiconductor lattice in the ratio a) 1 to 103 c) 1 to 105
76.
b) Valence band d) None of these
b) 1 to 104 d) 1 to 106
The technological uses of super conductors are a) MRI b) Magnetic levitation trains c) Faster computer chips d) All of them
77.
The magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to a) Spin motion b) Orbital motion c) Spin & orbital motion d) None of these
78.
The combination of solenoid and a specimen of iron inside it make a powerful magnet called a) Horse shoe magnet b) Bar magnet
c) Electromagnet 79.
d) 10-10 to 1018
In the phenomenon of hysteresis, the magnetism and magnetizing current behaves as a) 1 lags c) 1 & B becomes equal
80.
A current which demagnetize the material completely is called a) Applied current c) Maximum current
81.
b) 1 leads B d) None of these
b) Coercive current d) None of these
The energy need to magnetize and demagnetize the specimen during the each cycle of magnetizing current is a) Value of current b) Value of demagnetizing current c) Value of magnetic flux density d) Area of the loop
82.
The strain energy density is given by
1 ( Stress Strain) 2 1 b) U ( Stress Strain ) 3 a) U
c) U d) 83.
Stress Strain
U ( Stress Strain)
3
When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of the covalent bonds, the semiconductor is called a) Donor c) Intrinsic
84.
1
b) Acceptor d) Extrinsic
What is the S.I unit of magnetic permeability? a) Ampere per meter b) Ampere meter c) Henry per meter d) Being a dimensionless number, it has no unit
CHAPTER # 18 ELECTRONICS 1.
A semi – conductor can be used as a rectifier because
a) It has low resistance to the current flow when forward biased b) It has high resistance to the current flow when reversed biased c) It has low resistance to the current flow when forward biased and high resistance when reversed biased d) None of the above 2.
In half ware rectification, the output DC voltage is obtained across the load for
a) The positive half cycle of input AC b) The negative half cycle of input AC c) The positive and negative half cycles of input AC d) Either positive or negative half cycle of input AC 3. a) b) c) d) 4. a) b) c) d)
A bridge rectifier is preferable to an ordinary two diodes full ware rectifies because It uses four diodes Its transforms has no counter tap It needs much smaller transformer It has higher safety factor The color of light emitted by LED depends on Its forward biased Its reversed biased The amount of forward current The type of semi conductor material used
5.
A PN junction photodiode is
a) b) c) d)
Operated in forward direction Operated in reversed direction A very fast photo detector Dependent on thermally generated minority carriers
6. a) b) c) d)
The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it Has to dissipate maximum power Has to supply the charge carriers Is the first region of transistor Must posses law resistance
7.
For proper working of a transistor in normal circuits
a) Emitter base junction is reversed biased, collector base junction is forward biased b) Emitter base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is forward biased c) C-B junction is reversed biased, E-B junction is forward biased d) C-B junction is reversed biased and E-B junction is reversed biased 8. a) b) c) d)
In a properly biased NPN transistor most of the electrons from the emitter Recombine with holes in the base Recombine in the emitter itself Pass through the base to the collector Are stopped by the junction barrio
9. a. c.
The current gain of a transistor is given by
IC IB IB d. IE
IC IE IB IE
10.
b.
When the E-B junction of a transistor is reversed – biased, collector current
a) Is reversed c) Decreased 11.
An op-AMP has
a) Infinite AV c) Zero Ro 12.
a) b) c) d) 14.
b) -1000 d) -10-6 A diode characteristic curve is a graph between
Current and time Voltage and time Voltage and current Forward voltage and reverse current A NOR Gate is ON only when all its input are a) ON c) Positive
15.
b) Infinite Ri d) All the above
An inverting amplifier has Rf = 2mл and Ri = 2Kл, its scalar factor is
a) 1000 c) 10-13 13.
b) Increased d) Stops
b) OFF d) High
A logic gate is an electronic circuit which a. b. c. d.
Makes logic decision Work on binary algebra Alternates between 0 and 1 None of these
16.
In positive logic, logic state 1 correspond to a) b) c) d)
17.
The output of a 2-input OR gate is zero only when its a. b. c. d.
18.
Positive voltage Higher voltage level Zero voltage level Lower voltage level
Both input are zero Either input is 1 Both input are 1 Either input is 0
An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are a) High c) Different
19.
An AND Gate a. b. c. d.
20.
Implement logic addition Is equivalent to a series switching circuit Is any or all gate Is equivalent to a parallel switching circuit
The only function of a NOT gate is to a. b. c. d.
21.
b) Low d) Same
Stop a signal Re-complement a signal Invert an input signal Acts as a universal gate
A NOR gate is ON only when all its input are a) ON c) Positive
22.
Which of the following are electromagnetic waves a. b. c. d.
23.
Sound waves Water waves Light waves Waves along a stretched string
The EM waves travel is free space with the velocity a. b. c. d.
24.
b) OFF d) High
Equal to the velocity sound Equal to the velocity light More than the velocity of light Less than the velocity of light
A changing electric flux develops in the surrounding space a. An electric field b. A magnetic field c. An electromotive force
d. Gravitational field 25.
EM waves transport a) Matter c) Energy
26.
Waves emitted from the antenna are a. b. c. d.
27.
Stationary Longitudinal Transverse All of the above
The waves from the antenna are a. b. c. d.
29.
Longitudinal waves EM waves Sound waves Radio waves
EM waves emitted from antenna are a. b. c. d.
28.
Expanding plane wave fronts Concentric spheres Expanding curves None of the above
EM waves have frequency of the range of a. 104Hz c. 106Hz
30.
c.
I o
o uo
d.
I o uo
The forward current through a semiconductor diode circuit is due to b) Majority carriors d) Electrons
The device used for conversion of AC into DC is a) An oscillator c) An amplifier
34.
I uo
A rectifier An amplifier A semi conduction An oscillator
a) Minority carriors c) Holes 33.
b.
A junction between P and N materials forms a. b. c. d.
32.
b. 105Hz d. 1012Hz
Maxwell derived mathematically that velocity of EM-waves is a.
31.
b) Wavelength d) Charge
b) A detector d) A rectifier
A photo diode is a semi conductor device usually made from
a) Bismuth c) Antimony 35.
Specially designed semi conductor diodes used as fast counters in electronic circuits are a. b. c. d.
36.
Photo diodes LED Solar cell Photo voltaic cell
The specially designed semi conductor diodes used as indicator lamp in electronic circuit are a) Photo diodes c) LED
37.
Transfer of current Transfer of voltage Transfer of resistance Transfer of charge
The thickness of depletion region is of the order of a) 10-7 cm c) 10-5 cm
39.
b) Solar cell d) Photo voltaic cell
The term transistor stands for a. b. c. d.
38.
b) Arsenic d) Silicon-dioxide
b) 10-6 cm d) 10-4 cm
In amplitude modulation, the wave superimposed on EM waves are a) Water waves c) Light waves
40.
A junction diode when forward biased behaves as a device of a. b. c. d.
41.
Zero resistance Infinite resistance Low resistance High resistance
The P.d across the depletion region of silicon is a. 0.5v c. 0.7v
42.
b. current gain d. None
The alarm requires a voltage for its activation is a. low c. Very High
45.
b. Step-down d. None
The ratio of β shows the a. voltage gain c. input resistance
44.
b. 0.67v d. 0.8v
A Transformer used in rectification acts as a. Step-up c. Center trapped
43.
b) Sound waves d) Matter waves
b. high d. None
What is the gain of op – amplifier if R1 = infinity and R2 = 0Ω a. 15 c. 1
b. 1000 d. Cannot tell
46.
The resistance between + ive and – ive inputs of op – amplifier is a. 100 Ω c. 106 Ω
47.
Photo – voltic cell have a. Battery input
49.
b. Two d. Four
b. NOR gate d. NOT gate
A diod can not be used as a. Rectifier c. Oscilator
58.
b. Current amplifier d. None
The Boolean expression X = A + B represents the logic operation of a. NAND gate c. OR gate
57.
b. Micro seconds d. None
Transistor is a device which has ________ terminals. a. One c. Three
56.
b. 60% d. 90%
A transistor is a circuit basically act as a. Voltage amplifier c. Power amplifier
55.
b. Two inputs d. None
A photo – diod can switch its current ON and OFF in a. Milli seconds c. Nano seconds
54.
b. Switches d. All of them
The efficiency of half wave rectifier is roughly a. 40% c. 70%
53.
b. 2 d. 3
NOT gate has only a. One input c. Many inputs
52.
b. Detector d. Amplifier
XOR gate is combination of a. AND, OR and NOT gate b. NAND, OR and NOT gate c. NOT, AND and OR gate d. NOT, AND and NOR gate
59.
c. No internal bias
Transistor can be used as a. Oscilators c. Memory unit
51.
b. No external bias
In NOR gate 1 + 1 = ________ a. 0 c. 1
50.
b. 1000 Ω d. None of these
The open loop gain of op – amplifier is
d. None
a. Zero c. Very high 60.
b. High d. Low
The width of depletion region of a diode a. Increases under forward bias c. Increases under reverse bias
61.
A LED emits lights only a. Forward biased c. Un biased
62.
b. Is independent of applied voltage d. None of these
b. Reverse Biased d. None of these
In a pn junction, the barrier potential offers opposition to only a) Majority carriers in both regions b) Minority carriers in both regions c) Electrons in n – region d) Holes in P – region
63.
In the use of a transistor as an amplifier a) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased b) The emitter-base junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased c) Both the junctions are forward biased d) Any of the two junctions may be forward biased
64.
NAND gate is a combination a) AND gate and NOT gate b) AND gate and OR gate c) OR gate and NOT gate d) NOT gate and NOT gate
65.
The reverse or leakage current of the diode is of the order of a) Microampere c) Both
66.
b) Milli-ampere d) None of these
How many diodes are used for the full wave rectification is a) Two c) Four
67.
b) Three d) None of these
A photodiode can turn its current ON and OFF in a) Microsecond c) Nanosecond
68.
The base of the transistor is very thin of the order of a) 10-2m c) 10-6m
69.
b) Millisecond d) None of these
b) 10-4m d) 10 m -8
The gain A of the amplifier is
Vin V c) A V Vin a) A
70.
b) A
V Vi
d) None of these
The positive sign of the gain indicates that a) Input and output signals are not in phase b) Input and output signals are in phase c) May be in phase or not d) None of these
71.
The electronic circuits which implement the various logic operations are known as a) Digital gates c) Voltage operated gate
72.
b) Logic gate d) All of them
A diode characteristic curve is a plot between a) Current and time b) Voltage and time c) Voltage and current d) Forward voltage and reverse voltage
73.
In a half-wave rectifier the diode conducts during a) Both halves of the input cycle b) A portion of the positive half of the input cycle c) A portion of the negative half of the input cycle d) One half of the input cycle
74.
The output of a two inputs OR gate is O only when its a) Both inputs are O c) Both inputs are 1
75.
For typical transistor as an amplifier
Vout R C Vin Rie Vout R ic c) Vin Rc a)
76.
Vout Vin Vout R ie d) Vin Rie b)
The resistance between (+) and (-) of ideal Op-Amp is a) High c) Infinity
77.
b) Either input is 1 d) Either input is zero
b) Low d) Moderate
Temperature, pressure etc are converted into electronic informations by devices called a) LEDs c) Vacuum tubes
b) Sensors d) None
CHAPTER 19 DAWN OF MODERN PHYSICS 1.
An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at very high speed (relativistic) and finds that the length of meter stick is __________ a) b) c) d)
2.
Greater than one meter Less than one meter One meter None of these 0.001 Kg mass will be equivalent to a) 2.5 GWh c) 0.26 GWh
3.
b) 25 GWh d) 250 GWh
Which of the following radiations has the greatest photon a) TV waves c) X-rays
4.
b) Microwaves d) γ - rays
Linear momentum of a photon is a) Zero c) hf/c
b) Hf/c2 d) c2/hf
The linear momentum of an x-ray photon of wavelength 0.1A o is
5. a) b) c) d) 6.
6.625 x 10-23 NS 66.25 x 1023 NS 662.5 x 1023 NS Data is insufficient Stopping potential for a metal surface incase of photo electric emission depends on a) The threshold frequency for the metal surface b) The intensity of incident light c) The frequency of incident light and the work function for metal surface d) None of these
7.
Select an alternative form of uncertainty principle from the following a. c.
8.
h/moca mc2 = hf
b. d.
E. t h any of the above
The existence of ether wind was experimentally rejected by a) HeisenbergEinstein b) Michelson and Morely d) De-Broglie d) None 9. a) b) c) d)
10.
As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity
Shifts towards longer wavelength Shifts towards shorter wavelength Remains the same Shifts towards shorter as well as longer wavelength Rest mass of photon is
a) Infinite c) Very small 11.
b) Zero d) Very large
The name of photon for quantum of light was proposed by a) Ampere c) Thomson
12.
b) Planck’s d) Einstein
A photon is a ____________ a. b. c. d.
13.
Unit of energy Positively charged particle Quantum of electromagnetic radiations Unit of wavelength
Which one of the following has the largest energy content? a. b. c. d.
14.
103 photons of wavelength 2pm (Y-rays) 102 photons of wavelength 1mm (X-rays) 106 photons of wavelength 50mm (Infrared) 106 photons of wavelength 200mm (UV)
A transmitting station emits radio waves of wavelength at power p. if h is plank’s constant C the speed of light, what is the rate of emission of photon? a) pc/h c) p /hc
15.
b) hc/p d) ph/ck
After traveling through a vacuum, a photon of light entering into some transparent denser medium. Thus the energy of light _________. a. b. c. d.
16.
Increase because wave light decrease Decease because speed decrease Remains same Increase then decrease
In a photo electronic effect, monochromatic light, is incident on a metal surface. If the incident light of twice the intensity but the same wave length, the kinetic energy of the emitted electron ______ a) Becomes double b) Remains same c) Becomes half d) First increase then decreases because curvilinear graph.
17.
If the wave length of incident radiation is increase in photo emission, then _________ a) The minimum kinetic energy of the photo electrons increase b) The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons decrease c) The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increase d) The average kinetic of the photoelectrons decrease
18.
If a photon is reflected from the mirror, then the change in momentum of each photon is ________
a) Zero c) 19.
c.
nh
Zero
c.
2h m 2 m c 2 h
b) Wave property d) Quantum property
Wave property Particle property Energy particle Electromagnetic wave property
Electromagnetic gun Source of electromagnetic waves Deflected charged particle Converging source of electrons
A three dimensional image is obtained by ______________ Electron microscope Scanning electron microscope Magnetic imaging None of the above
The uncertainty in momentum and position is due to its ___________ a. b. c. d.
27.
d.
mSc 2 h h m
In electron microscope, electric and magnetic field are used as _______
a. b. c. d. 26.
b.
If a diffracted grating is placed in the path of a light beam, it revels ______
a. b. c. d. 25.
nft
In Davison – Germer experiment, the diffracted proton from crystal shows ____________
a. b. c. d. 24.
d.
2nh
5.53 x 10-36 kg 0 Kg 2.46 x 10-36 kg 1.84 x 10-44 kg
a) Particle property c) Light property 23.
b.
The velocity of particle of mass m of de-Broglie wave length is ________ a.
22.
d) Ft
A photon of wave length 900mm behaves like a particle of mass ________ a. b. c. d.
21.
h
h
If n number of photon are striking on a metal surface, then the total momentum exerted is ______ a.
20.
b) 2
Property of matter and radiation Two dimensional motions Emotion of certain wave length Very high velocity
For confinement of electron in a box of radius 10-14 m. the electron speed should be ____ a. 107m/sec b. Should be greater than speed of light
c. Be zero d. Not be wave link 28.
The energy radiated is directly proportional to fourth power of Kelvin’s temperature is _____ a. b. c. d.
29.
Compton effect proves the _______ a. b. c. d.
30.
Photon theory of light Deal nature of light Wave nature of light Uncertain nature of light
Electron moves in the orbit as ______ a. b. c. d.
31.
Karl-wein’s laws Raleigh jeans law Stephens law Planck’s
Simple vibratory motion Standing wave motion Vibratory motion like up and down S.H.M like sound
The mass of an object will be doubled at speed a. 1.6 × 108 m/sec
32.
b. 2.6 × 108 m/sec
The anti-particle of electron is a. Proton c. Meson
b. Position d. Neutron
33. The reverse process of pair-production is a. Annihilation c. Fission
b. Materialization d. Fussion
34. The decrease in length with speed was explained by a. Einstein c. Bohr
b. Lorentz d. None
35. The famous Michel-son-Morely experiment proves that a. Light is energy b. Earth rotates about its axis c. Ether medium does not exist d. None 36. All the motion in this universe are a. Absolute c. Variable
b. Uniform d. Relative
37. On a hot day white clothes are cold because they are
c. 2.6 × 107 m/sec
d. None
a. Reflective c. Radiators
38.
The radiation emitted by human body lies in the range of a. Infrared region c. Visible region
39.
J is
b. 1.24oA d. None
b. 1930 d. None
b. Moon d. None
The minimum energy required for pair production is a. 10.2 Mev c. 102 Mev
48.
-19
The anti-particle of earth is a. Sun c. Black hole
47.
b. Water d. Vacuum
The concept of antimatter was predicted theoretically by Dirac in a. 1928 c. 1935
46.
b. Space d. None
The wavelength of photon with energy of 16 × 10 a. 12.4oA c. 124oA
45.
b. Large wavelength d. None
Pair production cannot possible in a. Air c. Glass
44.
b. Large wavelength d. None
According to special theory of relatively the 4th variable is a. Time c. Speed of light
43.
c. Wein’s Law
Plank’s theory is hold good for a. Short wavelength c. All wavelength
42.
b. Stephen – Boltzman Law
Wein’s displacement law holds good for a. Short wavelength c. All wavelength
41.
b. U.V region d. None
The energy emitted is directly proportional to fourth power of temperature is a. Lummer Law
40.
b. Absorbers d. None
b. 1.02 Mev d. None
Photo electric effect for visible light can be obtain from
d. None
a. Sodium – Potassium 49.
b. 1.38 × 10-3 m.k d. None
b. Pair-production d. None
b. 1013Hz d. 1015Hz
b. Energy d. None
Loius Broglie give the idea of Matter – wave in a. 1924 c. 1926
60.
b. Very low d. None
Each quantum is associated with radiation of a. Intensity c. Frequency
59.
b. Electron micrograph d. None
If work function is 4.14ev, the threshold frequency of incident light is a. 1012Hz c. 1014Hz
58.
b. 1.09 × 10-20J d. None
The reverse process of Photo-electric effect is a. Compont Effect c. Annihilation
57.
sec. What is uncertainly in energy for this time?
The value of Wein’s Constant is a. 2.9 × 10-3 mol .k c. 3.51 × 10-3 m.k
56.
-6
At stopping potential current passing through circuit is a. Mini c. Zero
55.
b. 1923 d. 1919
The photograph taken by electro-microscope is called a. Photograph c. Chronograph
54.
b. Plank’s Law d. None
The life time of an electron in an excited state is 10 a. 2.35 × 10-20J c. 1.05 × 10-26J
53.
b. Rectifier d. Photo – cell
A. H Compton was awarded Nobel Prize in Physics in a. 1927 c. 1921
52.
d. None
The relation Max T Contt . is a. Wein’s Law c. Stephen Law
51.
c. Helium – Neon
Sound tracks of movies can be controlled by a. Diode c. Amplifier
50.
b. Carbon – oxygen
b. 1925 d. 1928
A passenger passes a clock with a speed
C . The time period observed by him is: 2
3 t 2 2 t d) t 5
a) t t c) t 61.
b)
2 t 3
The threshold frequency of metals is 2 × 10-4Hz. The work function of metal is a) 13.26 × 10-38ev c) 13.26 ev
62.
The wavelength associated with electron moving with speed 5.6 × 10 6 m/s is a) 12nm c) 1.2nm
63.
b) 0.12nm d) 120nm
The uncertainty in position of electron is 6.63Ao. The uncertainty in momentum of electron is a) 10-24N-S c) 10-16N-S
64.
b) 10-48N-S d) 10-20N-S
The concept of position is purely a) Specific c) Ordinary
65.
A quantity
b) Relative d) None of these
1
v2 is always c2
a) Greater than one c) Equal to one 66.
b) Less than one d) None of these
At higher temperature, the body emits long wavelength in the region a) Infra red c) Far-infra red
67.
b) 13.26 × 10-38J d) None
b) Ultraviolet d) None of these
The Stefen-Boltzmann has the value a) 5.67 × 10-5Wm-2K-4 b) 5.67 × 10-6Wm-1K-4 c) 5.67 × 10-6Wm-2K-4 d) 5.67 × 10-8Wm-2K-4
68.
The energy of photon of radio waves is only about a) 10-6eV c) 10-10eV
69.
The stopping potential when intensity is kept constant is a) Same c) Both a & b
70.
b) Different d) None of these
The idea of quantization of energy was proposed by a) Einstein c) Compton
71.
b) 10-4eV d) 10-12eV
b) Max Planck d) None of these
Application of photoelectric effect is
a) Photo diode c) Photocell 72.
b) Photo transistor d) None of these
In Compton effect, the law/laws are conserved a) Energy c) Both
73.
b) Momentum d) None of these
The equations of pair production is a) hf = 2moc2 – KE(e-) + K.E (e+) b) hf = 2moc2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+) c) hf = 2mo2c2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+) d) hf = 2mo2c + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
74.
Louis De Broglie received Nobel prize in physics in a) 1926 c) 1925
75.
b) 1922 d) 1929
The high energy electrons penetrate the specimen to reasonable thickness and acquire sufficient energy due to its a) Short wavelength b) Extremely short wavelength c) Long wavelength d) None of these
76.
The best optical resolution is made by the microscope is a) 0.1 μm c) 0.3 μm
77.
In Compton effect
b) 0.2 μm d) None of these
is always
a) Less than c) Equal to 78.
b) Greater than d) None of these
Who discovered the idea of Ether? a) Schrodinger c) Michelson and Morley
79.
Can pair production takes place in vacuum because of conservation of a) Energy c) Momentum & Energy
80.
b) Time d) None
Photon ‘A’ has twice the energy of photon ‘B’. What is the ratio of the momentum of ‘A’ to that of ‘B’? a) 4 : 1 c) 1 : 2
82.
b) Momentum d) None of these
Which of the following has the same dimension as h/m oc? a) Length c) Mass
81.
b) De-Broglie d) None of these
b) 2 : 1 d) None
An electron accelerated through a P.D, V has a wave associated with it of wavelength
a) 12.3 V A c) 12.3 / V 2 A
b) 12.3 / VA d) None
CHAPTER # 20 ATOMIC SPECTRA 1.
Ratio of the weight of H-atom to that of an electron is approximately ________ a. 183.336 c. 18360.00
2.
Photon of high frequency will be absorbed when transisation takes place from _________ a. 1st to 5th orbit c. 3rd to 5th orbit
3.
b. 2nd to 5th orbit d. 4th to 5th orbit
In Hydrogen spectrum, which one of the following series lies in the ultraviolet region? a. Ballmer series c. Lyman series
4.
b. 1836 d. 183.60
b. Pfund series d. Bracket series
In obtaining an x-ray photograph of our hand, we use the principle of _______ Photo electric effect Ionization Shadow photograph Any of above
5.
Excited atoms return to their ground stat in __________ a) 10-10S c) 10-6S
6.
b) 10-8S d) 10-9S
When we excite some atoms by heat collusion or electrical discharge, they will ______ a. radiate electromagnetic energy with a continues distribution of wavelength
b. Absorb particular wavelengths when white light is incident an them c. Radiate electromagnetic energy of discrete charactristic wavelength d. Emit either invisible or visible light 7.
Hydrogen atom does not emit x-rays because __________ a. Its energy level are too close to each other b. Its energy level are too far apart c. It is too small in size d. It has a single electron
8.
Which one of following postulate is in accordance with the Rutherford’s model? a. Continues spectra for atoms b. Discrete spectra for atoms c. Either continues for atoms d. No spectrum
9.
X-rays are ___________ a. Unknown nature b. High energy electrons c. High energy photon d. Radioisotopes
10.
Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a H-atom is ________ a. 13.60eV c. 0.85eV
11.
Total number of series in hydrogen spectrum is _____________ a. Three c. Five
12.
b. 3.40eV d. -1.51eV
b. Four d. Six
The radiations emitted from hydrogen filled discharge tube show _________ a. Bound spectrum b. Line spectrum c. Continuous spectrum d. Absorption spectrum
13.
The electric P.E of an electron is an orbit at a distance from the positive charge ________ a. Ke2/rn c. –ke2/rn
14.
Radiation with wavelength longer than red light________ a. Ultraviolet rays c. Infrared radiation
15.
b. Ice2/rn2 d. –ke2/rn2
b. X-rays d. Visible radiations
Bracket series is obtained when all
transition of electron terminate on _____ a. 4th orbit c. 3rd orbit 16.
In an electronic transisation, atom cannot emit _________ a. γ - rays c. Visible light
17.
b. Positive rays d. α - rays
The penetrating power of X-ray depends on their ____________ a. Applied voltage c. Source
20.
b. Compton effect d. X-rays production
X - rays are similar in nature to _______ a. Cathode rays c. γ - rays
19.
b. Infrared radiation d. Ultraviolet rays
Reverse process of photo electric effect is __________ a. Pair production c. Animation of matter
18.
b. 5th orbit d. 2nd orbit
b. Frequency d. All of the above
When X-rays are passed through successive aluminum sheets, what happens to their thickness? a. In increases b. It decreases c. Remains same d. Sometimes increase sometimes decreases
21.
The penetrating power of X-rays is comparable with that of __________ a. α - rays c. γ - rays
22.
b. β - rays d. All of above
Quality of X-rays depends upon _______ a. Filament current b. Accelerating voltage c. Material of the target d. b and c
23.
Radiation produced from T.V. picture tube is _________ a. γ - rays c. Far infrared
24.
b. X - rays d. Infrared
In an X - ray tube, electrons each of charge e are accelerated through V potential difference allowed to hit a metal target, the wavelength of the X-rays emitted is ____
a. hc/ev c. ev/h
25.
b. he/vc d. impossible to predict
The minimum wavelength of X-rays can further be reduced by _________ a. Reducing the pressure of cooling the target b. Increasing the temperature of the filament c. Using a target element of higher atomic number d. Increasing the potential difference b/w the cathode and the target
26.
The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to ____ a. The illumination of the target metal by ultraviolet radiation b. The bombardment of the target by proton c. The bombardment of target by electron d. The absorption of Y-radiation by the target metal
27.
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by the bombardment of electron on the screen of a T.V. set where the accelerating potential is 2.0 K,V will be ________ a. 6.2 x 10-10m c. 3.11 x 10-10m
28.
b. 9.1 x 10-18m d. 4 x 10-10m
Maximum frequency in the spectrum from x-rays tube is directly proportional to the ___________ a. Number of electron i.e. filament current b. The kinetic energy of incident electron c. The soft target which can easily emit electron d. All the above are correct
29.
X-rays are diffracted by a crystal but not by a diffraction grating because ______ a. The ions in a crystal are well arranged b. The lines in a diffraction grating cannot reflect X-rays c. The perpetrating power of x-rays is which in a diffraction grating d. The wavelengths of x-rays are of same order of magnitude as the separation between atoms in a crystal
30.
UV radiation can be produced by __________ a. Heating the filament b. Ionization of atoms c. Electron excitation in the gas
d. All the above
31.
What is the velocity of a particle of mass m and de-Broglie Wavelength? a. h/mλ c. Mh/h
32.
b. 2h/mλ d. (2hc/mx)½
Wave like characteristic of electron is demonstrated by _________ a. Line spectrum of atoms b. Production of X-rays c. Diffraction by crystalline solids d. Photo electric effect
33.
Electron cannot exist in the nucleus, it is confirmed by observing that __________ a. At does emit Y-radiation b. Its size as compare to proton and neutron is very small c. No antiparticle of electron is present d. The velocity of electron must by very high according to uncertainly principle
34.
In normal state of energy, the incident high energy photons will be _________ a. Stimulated b. Absorbed c. Cause X-rays emission d. Cause laser production
35.
In laser production, the state in which more atoms are in the upper state then in the lower one is called _________ a. Metal stable state c. Inverted population
36.
The meta stable state for an atom in laser light is _____________ a. 10-4 sec c. 10-3 sec
37.
b. 10-5 sec d. 10-8 sec
In He – Ne laser, the lazing action is produced by __________ a. Ne only c. Electrons of He
38.
b. Normal state d. All the above
b. He – Ne both d. Electrons of Ne
Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to ________ a. Further stimulation b. Lasing more c. For production more energetic laser d. All the above
39.
The velocity of laser light is __________
a. Less than ordinary light b. More than ordinary light c. Equal to ordinary light d. Different for different colors or frequency 40.
Laser beam can be used to generate a. One dimensional images b. Two dimensional images c. Three dimensional images d. None of these
41.
X – rays is also know as a. photon c. breaking radiation
42.
Bremsstrahlung is phenomenon in which the rate of slowing down of electron is a. small c. very large
43.
16 RH c. 16 RH
c. Complex atoms spectrum
d. None
b. 13.6ev d. none
b. Normal light d. γ – rays
b. Line spectrum
Optical pumping exist in a. X – rays c. Spectrum
50.
b. He – spectrum
Sunlight spectrum is a. Discrete
49.
d. None
Which one of the following is more coherent a. X – rays c. Laser
48.
RH 16
The ionization energy of H – atom is a. – 13.6ev c. ±13.6ev
47.
b.
Bohr’s theory is failed to explain a. H – spectrum
46.
b. 1.0794 × 107m-1 d. None
The shortest wave length radiation in Bracket series has wavelength a.
45.
b. large d. None
The value of Rydberg’s constant is a. 1.0974 × 107m-1 c. 1.0974 × 10-7m-1
44.
b. γ – rays d. none
b. Laser d. None
A common He – Ne gas laser contain, He – Ne ration a. 85 – 15 %
b. 80 – 20%
c. Continuous spectrum
d. none
c. 70 – 30% 51.
The total energy of electron in an orbit around the nucleus is a. + ive c. zero
52.
b. 106 d. 1012
The value of Plank’s constant is a. 6.63 × 10-34 J.sec
58.
b. C.H.Towner d. C.H.Towner
The ratio of volume of an atom to the volume of nucleus is a. 103 c. 109
57.
b. Mari – curie d. Lane
The idea of laser was first introduced in 1958 by a. Frank – white c. Dr. Gilbert Young
56.
b. Chadwick d. Stony
X – rays was discovered by a. Bacquerel c. Roentgen
55.
b. Smaller d. None of these
The name of electron was suggested by a. Rutherford c. Thomson
54.
b. – ive d. None
According to Bohr’s theory the outer orbit Electron has ________ energy than inner orbits. a. Greater c. Equal
53.
d. None
b. 6.63 × 10-34 J/sec
c. 6.63 × 10-34 sec/J
Laser is a device which can produce a. an intense beam of light b. Coherent light c. Monochoromatic light d. All
59.
The total energy of electron in state n = α is a. + ive c. zero
60.
When magnetic field is applied in the path X – rays , they will be moving in a) Straight line c) Parabolic path
61.
b. – ive d. None
b) Circular path d) None
With the help of laser beam we can produce a) Fusion reaction
d. None
b) Holograms c) Fragment of kidney stone d) All of these 62.
Continuous spectra is an example of a) Atomic b) Molecular c) Black body radiation d) None of these
63.
Line spectra is an example of a) Atomic b) Molecular c) Black body radiation d) None of these
64.
The quantized energy of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is a) 13.04 eV c) 13.6 eV
65.
b) – 13.6 eV d) 13.5 eV
Bremsstrahlung are those in which radiations are produced of a) Long wavelength b) Short wavelength c) Wavelength in X-rays region d) None of these
66.
In LASER principle, a photon produce another photon by the process of a) Excitation c) Ionization
67.
b) De-excite d) None of these
Characteristic X – rays are the X – rays which have a) High energy photons b) Specific wavelengths c) Specific frequencies d) All of these
68.
X – rays can penetrate into a solid matter upto a) Few millimeter c) Few centimeter
69.
b) Several millimeter d) Several centimeter
Computerized axial tomography (CAT-scanner) is a system in which X – rays are a) Maximum through the subject b) Minimum absorptions through the subject c) Depending upon the subject d) None of these
70.
X – rays can cause cancer in living cells due to radiation exposure which is a) Small c) Excessive
71.
b) Large d) None of these
In Laser a Meta-stable state is a) An excite state b) In which an electron is usually stable c) In which an electron reside 10-3 sec d) None of these
72.
The Meta-stable state of Helium and Neon is a) Different c) Nearly identical
73.
b) Identical d) None of these
Laser beam can be used for a) Wilding of detached retinas b) Destroy tissues in a localized area c) Sealed off capillaries for prevention of disease d) All of them
74.
In Balmer series the shortest wavelength radiations have wavelength equal to
RH m 4 RH m c) 9 a)
75.
4
d) (9 R H ) m
The longest wavelength radiations in Braket series have wavelength equal to
25 RH 16 135 c) 27 R H a)
76.
m b) RH
b)
16 RH 25
d) None
The wavelength of X – rays produced due to declaration of electrons is a)
V e m
b)
he V e
c)
h V e
d)
V e h
Chapter 21 NUCLEAR PHYSICS 1.
In nucleus of uranium the number of neutrons will be ___________ a. b. c. d.
92 235 143 Different for different isotopes
2.
During fusion of hydrogen into helium _______ a. b. c. d.
3.
Energy is absorbed Energy is released Mass is increased due to energy absorption Mass is reduced due to energy absorption One a.m.u is equal to _________
a) 1.66 x 10-27 kg c) 1.66 x 10-20 kg 4.
According to which one of following law, the density of atom is uniform ? a) J.J. Thomson c) Bohr’s Model
5.
b) Rutherford’s Model d) All of above laws
For chain reaction to buildup, the size of the radio active target should be ______ a. b. c. d.
6.
b) 1.66 x 10-25 kg d) All of above
90 Greater than the critical size Less than the critical size Equal to critical size
Antimatter consists of _____________
a) Antiproton c) Positron 7.
b) Antineutron d) All of above
Neutron and proton are commonly known as ____________ a) Nucleons c) Boson
8.
b) Meson d) Quartz
Half life of Radium is 1590 years. In how many years shall the earth loss all his radium due to radioactive decay ? a) 1590 x 106 years c) 1590 x 1025 years
b) 1590 x 1012 years d) Never
9. Which one of the following radiation possesses maximum penetrating power? a) α - rays b) β - rays c) γ - rays d) All have equal penetrating power 10.
Electrons a) b) c) d)
11.
Radioactivity is a ______________ a) b) c) d)
12.
Can exist inside the nucleus Cannot exist inside the nucleus Can exist both inside and outside the nucleus Don’t know
Spontaneous activity Chemical property Self disintegration property Both a and c Energy liberated when one atom of U-235 undergoes fission reaction is ______ a) 200 Mev c) 30 Mev
13.
Transuranic elements have atomic number ____ a) Greater than 72 c) Greater than 92
14.
b) Greater than 82 d) Greater than 102
Nuclear force exist between a) Proton – proton c) Neutron – Neutron
15.
b) 40 Mev d) 20 Mev
b) Proton – Neutron d) All of the above
Mass defect per nucleons is _________ a. b. c. d.
Binding energy of nucleus Packing fraction Average energy of nucleus All of above are one & same thing
16.
Tick the correct statement a) b) c) d)
17.
Moderator slow down the neutron Moderator bring the neutrons to rest Moderator absorb the neutron Moderator reflect the neutron The bombardment of nitrogen with α - particles will produce ________
a) Neutron c) Electron
18.
b) Proton d) Positron
Diameter of an atom is approximately _______ a) 10-12 m c) 10-10 m
19.
b) 10-11 m d) 10-14 m
Radioactive decay obeys which one of the following data? a) N = Noe-λt c) N = Noe-xt/2
20.
b) N = Noext d) No = N(Iext)
Average energy required to remove one nucleon from the nucleus is called _____ a) b) c) d)
21.
Binding energy per nucleon Energy of decay Destruction energy All of above Fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing ________
a) Iron rod c) Cadmium rods 22.
b) Graphite rods d) Platinum rods
Which one of the following possesses maximum velocity? a) α - rays b) β - rays c) γ - rays d) All of the above have same speed
23.
Charge on an electron was determine by ______ a) Ampere c) Milliken
24.
Charge on neutron is _____________ a) b) c) d)
25.
b) Maxwell d) Thomson
+1.6 x 10-19c -1.6 x 10-19c Zero No definite charge A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called
a) Antiproton c) Gamma rays
b) Positron d) Photon
26.
Mass of neutron is ____________ a) 1.67 x 10-13 Kg c) 9.1 x 10-31 Kg
27.
b) 1.67 x 10-27 Kg d) 1.67 x 10-19 Kg
Nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are ______ a) Isotopes c) Isotones
28.
b) Isobars d) Isomers
A mass spectrograph sorts out _______ a) Molecules c) Elements
29.
b) Ions d) Isotopes
Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is _______ a) b) c) d)
Smaller Greater Same Some times smaller some times greater An α - particle is emitted from 88Ra226, what is the mass and atomic number of the daughter nucleus?
30.
a. b. c. d. 31. a) b) c) d) 32. a) b) c) d) 33.
Mass Number 224 220 222 226
The unit of Radioactivity “Curie” is equal to ___________ 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec 3.55 x 1010 disintegration per sec 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec During fission process, a large amount of _____________ Heat energy is released Nuclear energy is released Chemical energy is released Light energy is released In liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type of uranium used is _______ a) 92U235 c) 92U234
34.
b) 92U238 d) 92U
239
Radioactive materials can be identified by measuring their_______
a) Hardness c) Mass
35.
Atomic Number 84 80 86 87
b) Density d) Half life
If one or more of the neutrons emitted during fission can be used to build up further fission then the reaction is self sustained and is known as ________
a) Fission reaction c) Chain reaction 36. a) b) c) d) 37.
Pair production takes place in the vicinity of heavy nucleus so that __________ Net energy is conserved Net charge is conserved Net momentum is conserved All of the above During an encounter with an atom α - particle knocks out _______ a) Protons c) Neutrons
38.
a) b) c) d) 42.
a) b) c) d) 44.
α - rays β - rays γ- rays ‘b’ & ‘c’ have equal antiseptic properties Charge on α - particle is _________ b) +2 d) -1
B-particle ionizes an atom ________ Through direct collision Through electrostatic attraction Through electrostatic repulsion All of above T.V. sets and microwave oven emit ______ a) X - rays c) β - rays
45.
b) Strontium – 90 d) Nickel – 63
Sterilizations of surgical instrument, medical supplies and bandages can be done by exposing them to a beam of _________
a) +1 c) -2
43.
b) β - rays d) X - rays
Various types of cancer are treated by ___________ a) Cobalt 60 c) Carbon 14
41.
b) Carved d) Elliptical
Which one of the following radiations are suitable for the treatment of an infection in the interior body? a) α - rays c) γ - rays
40.
b) Electrons d) Nothing
The path of B-particle is_________ a) Rectilinear c) Zigzag or erratic
39.
b) Fusion reaction d) Chemical reaction
b) α - rays d) γ - rays
A β - particle in a single encounter _______
a) b) c) d) 46.
Loses a small fraction of its energy Loses most of its energy Loses no energy at all Loses energy at all Strontium -90 is used as _________
a) β - particle source c) γ - particle source 47.
The penetration power of β - particle as compared to a-particle is_______
a) 10 times more c) 100 times less 48.
b) Heat waves d) X - rays
Charge on B-particle is __________ a) +1 c) +2
57.
b) I -131 d) C -14
γ - rays are electromagnetic waves like ____________ a) Normal light c) Micro waves
56.
b) β - rays d) Neutron
The most useful tracer is ________ a) Sr -90 c) Ca -41
55.
b) Range d) Limit
Which one of the following possesses greater penetrating power? a) α - rays c) X-rays
54.
b) Aerosol spray d) All of above
Average distance covered by α - particle in air before its ionizing power ceases is called its __________
a) Trajectory c) Firing level 53.
b) Charge d) Momentum
CFC is used in ____________
a) Refrigerator c) Plastic foam industry 52.
b) Barium Palatino cyanide d) All of above
Pair production cannot take place in vacuum as ______ is not conserved
a) Energy c) Mass 51.
b) Extremely fast counting d) All situations
A α - particle can produce fluorescence in ___________
a) Zns c) Calcium tunzstate 50.
b) 100 times more d) 10 times less
Geiger counter is suitable for ______
a) Fast counting c) Slow counting 49.
b) α - particle source d) Neutrons source
b) -1 d) -2
Why γ - rays are used to kill bacteria, to sterilize surgical equipments etc?
a) Chargless
b) Massless
c) Highly penetrating 58. a) b) c) d)
B-particle ionizes an atom ________ Due to electrostatic force of attraction Due to electrostatic force of repulsion Due to direct collision Due to gravitational force
59. a) b) c) d)
B-particles possess greater penetration power then that of a-particle due to its ____________ Smaller ionization power Energy is not conserved Neither greater nor smaller ionization power Same ionization power
60.
Pair production can take places only with ______________
a) X-rays c) UV-rays 61.
b) γ - rays d) IR-rays
A device for producing high velocity nuclei is ___________
a) Cloud chamber c) A mass spectrograph
62.
b) Linear acceleration d) Wilson cloud
Which one of the following will be better shield against γ - rays?
a) Ordinary water c) Lead 63.
b) Heavy water d) Aluminum
The maximum safe limit does for persons working in nuclear power station are __________
a) 1 rem per week c) 4 rem per week 64.
b) 5 rem per week d) 3 rem per week
Radiations are used for the treatment of skin of a patient is __________ a) α - rays c) X - rays
65.
d) All of above
b) β - rays d) γ – rays
Strong nuclear force a) Increase with magnitude of increasing charge b) Decreases with magnitude of increasing charge c) Is independent of charge d) None
66.
Complete the reaction Z
X A X ....... Q Z 1
a) Neutrino c) - particle 67.
b) Antineutrino d) None
Both Xenon and Cesium each have isotopes a) 12
b) 33
c) 36 68.
d) 39
Marie Curie and Pierre Curie discovered two new radioactive elements which a) Uranium and Polonium b) Polonium and Radium c) Radium and Uranium d) Uranium and Plutonium
69.
The half of uranium – 238 is a) 1.67 × 108 years b) 3.3 × 109 years 8 c) 4.5 × 10 years d) 4.5 × 109 years
70.
The
- particle ionizes the particles in its way and adopt the path which is
a) Curved c) Zig – Zag 71.
- particles can be deflected by collisions than the a) Difficult c) Easily
72.
b) Proton d) None of these
b) Indirect ionization d) None of these
- rays are absorbed by a sheet of
a) 1 ~ 5 mm of lead c) 5 ~ 10 mm of lead 75.
b) Very easily d) None of these
Neutron produce ionization by knocking out proton which is a) Direct ionization c) Both
74.
-particles is
Neutron interact with materials containing hydrogen atoms and knock out a) Electron c) Photon
73.
b) Straight d) None of these
b) 1 ~ 10 mm of lead d) None of these
Tracks obtained by - particles in Wilson Cloud Chamber is a) Strong Continuous b) Discontinuous, not straight thin c) Weak and no definite tracks d) None of these
76.
The mixture of gas filled in a Geiger-Muller tube at atmospheric pressure at about a) 0.01 mm of Hg c) 10.00 mm of Hg
77.
The quenching of gas by a quenching gas is called a) Quenching c) Forced quenching
78.
b) 0.1 mm of Hg d) None of these
b) Self quenching d) None of these
The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is of the order of a) Micro second b) Miilli second c) More than millisecond d) None of these
79.
As the solid state detector absorbs so less energy of the incident particle and junction become from surface. So it is called the detector as a) Surface contact c) Surface dependent
80.
The solid state detector operated at a) Low c) Very High
81.
b) Surface barrier d) None of these
The breakage of
b) High d) None of these 235
U
produces the fragments as
92
a) Kr and Ba c) Xe and Sr 82.
The fuel / fuels used in the reactor are nowadays a) Plutonium – 239 c) Uranium – 235
83.
b) Leptons d) All of these
Hadrons are the particle included a) Protons c) Mesons
90.
b) Protons d) None of these
Subatomic particles are divided into a) Photons c) Hadrons
89.
b) Heart d) Brain
Radio isotopes can be made easily by bombardment with a) Electrons c) Neutrons
88.
b) Blindness d) All of them
Neutrons are particularly more damaging to a) Legs c) Eyes
87.
b) Fast neutron d) None of these
Ultraviolet radiation cuase a) Sum burn c) Skin Cancer
86.
b) 1100oC d) 1300oC
Plutonium can be fissioned by a) Slow neutron c) Very slow neutron
85.
b) Uranium – 233 d) All of these
The temperature of the core of the reactor rises to about a) 1000oC c) 1200oC
84.
b) Sn and Mo d) All of them
b) Neutrons d) All of these
Lepton’s particles which experience no strong nuclear force are a) Electrons
b) Muons
c) Neutrinos 91.
d) All of these
The charges on the quarks are a) One unit c) Fraction
92.
b) Half unit d) None of these
Meson is made from a) A pair of quarks b) A pair of anti quarks c) A pair of quarks and anti quarks d) None of these
93.
Fission nuclear reaction leads to a _____ stability. a) Lesser c) Medium
94.
If a radioactive isotope of silver have a half life of about 7.5 days. After 15 days the remaining isotope of its original is a) 25% c) 7.5%
95.
b) Greater d) None
A nuclide
b) 50% d) 15% 86
R 220 decays to a new nuclide by two
a)
84
S 212
b)
c)
80
S 220
d) None
82
S 212
-emissions, the nuclide S is
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