In This Issue Regulars Editorial
535
July 2009
Science and Technology
537
Year—12 Issue—137
Latest General Knowledge
539
Science Tips
543
Physics
Editor MAHENDRA JAIN
Thermal Physics-II
545
Atomic Physics-VII
554
Typical Model Paper
558
Typical Model Paper
565
Chemistry Electrochemistry
571
Aromatic Compounds : A General Survey
581
Typical Model Paper
589
Typical Model Paper
593
Zoology Advertisement ATUL KAPOOR (Business Manager) 4845/24, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, New Delhi–110 002 Phone : 23251844/66
Chromosomal Aberrations
598
The Ear
602
Human Respiratory System
606
Typical Model Paper
613
Typical Model Paper
616
Botany Editor/Publisher is not responsible for views, data, figures etc. expressed in the articles by the authors. —Editor No part of this publication can be reproduced or transmitted in any form without the prior written permission from the publishers.
Beverages : Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic
618
Cyanobacteria
621
Genetic Code and Protein Synthesis
626
Typical Model Paper
629
Typical Model Paper
632
Typical Model Paper
635
Other Features Edited, printed and published by Mahendra Jain for M/s. Pratiyogita Darpan, 2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–2 and printed by him at Pratiyogita Darpan Printing Unit, 5 & 6, Bye pass Road, Agra. Phone : 4053333, 2531101, 2530966 Fax : (0562) 4031570, 4053330 E-mail :
[email protected] Website : www.pdgroup.in
C.S.V. / July/ 2009 / 533
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
638
True or False
641
Do You Know ?
645
General Awareness
649
Mental Ability Test
651
Correct Solution and Prize Winners of CSV Quiz No. 131
655
CSV Quiz Contest No. 134
656
To Our Readers Dear Readers, It gives us great pleasure and a sense of satisfaction in presenting to you the July issue of your favourite and frontline magazine ‘Competition Science Vision’. By this time almost all PMTs are over and their results are declared. Those of you who have not been successful and the freshers are now planning for the next premedical examinations. If somehow not, start it soon with all seriousness. CSV has also started giving text and other reading material from the beginning of the syllabus. We again assure you that CSV is a unique magazine that meets all your requirements. It is second to none in this field. It purposely avoids giving all unnecessary material which is time-consuming and energy-wasting. Our vast experience of pre-medical examinations has made this magazine totally examination– oriented and covers almost all the major pre-medical tests held in the country. This is our sincere advice that you must develop the habit of doing hardwork because there is no alternative to it. Guidance of CSV will prove immensely useful. Read CSV regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master your career and shape your destiny. With best wishes for your all-round success. Sincerely yours,
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For welfare and progress, a life of discipline is very essential whether it be an individual, a group, a society or a nation. For that matter it may be a case of the world. It may be mentioned that for want of a discipline, most of our country men appear dejected, pulled down or without any enthusiasm. They seem to be having no goal of life.
In the present set up of the society, politics and political thinking have acquired top priority. From the personal life the national interests all depend on politics. We can easily say that the life of the nation has become politically biased Herbert Spencer had forseen the present conditions when he wrote, “You may leave politics, the politics will not leave you.”
It is a well known fact the three factors—Family, atmosphere, educational system and political thinking go to form the personality of persons. In the family the individual learns to live in discipline, to obey elders and to lead a cooperative and tolerant life. These things go a long way in making the individual useful to the society and the nation. Aristotle has rightly said that “State is an enlarged form of the family.” The present development of civilization owes much to the good traditions and development of the families from generation to generation. To draw out the best, specially the latent powers of the child ought to be the main function of an educational system. To make a perfect man of an individual has also always, been considered the chief aim of education. The aim of the education is the all round development of the individual. This, like the family, goes a long way in making the individual an useful instrument in giving proper and designed shape to the nation. The present system of education, which is the legacy of the British rule has been only partially useful in this respect. Although many people find faults in the present system of education yet we will say that the present system has its own merits. In case otherwise it should not have produced big persons like Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Swami Vivekanand, Lokmanya Tilak, Mahatma Gandhi and others. Looking at different aspects of the role in the development of the person and the state it may be very easily said that discipline in family and education life has a great role to play in the formation of the person, society and the nation.
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The multi party system in our country has made confusion worse confounded. The main reason is that the party leaders have very little sense of discipline, they have little respect for the declared objects of the party and are only running after seeking pelf and power. The result is that they are hardly making any social or national progress and are fast loosing values of life. People are often heard to say that the present politics has no place for the intelligent or the intellectual. They often are unpalatable metaphors for the political system. Be as it may, the political life of the country has failed to make any contribution for discipline of the people at large.
We should pause a little to think how far our family life, educational system and political system have been successful in disciplining people and develop in them the human quality. The answer may be disappointing but we need not be dejected. History tells us that there were times when things had gone worse—But people of firm determination led a life of strict discipline and thus impacted their neighbourhood. In the modern times Mahatma Gandhi has been a glaring example of such people. He by his personal example made many persons to lead a disciplined life which ultimately formed a big discipline party. Education means drawing out of all latent powers and all round development of faculties of the human being. It means that certain rules and regulations are to be followed where proper education is concerned. This is nothing but observing a certain discipline. On the path of meditation or spirituality, some discipline, namely Raj Yoga, Dhyana Yoga, Bhakti Yoga or Hath Yoga is to be followed. Where development is concerned, discipline plays a very important role. They say that humanity has become civilized through discipline. We forget that the persons whom we call natives or man of jungle also follow certain rules of conduct and are in a way leading a disciplined life. In the community of abonimals, certain rules of discipline and conduct are followed. In short, where there is human society, there is discipline, because without it, no life is possible. When there is no discipline, there is confusion, disorder and ultimately war, but in war also certain rules are to be followed, the soldiers lead a life of ‘do or die’ discipline and then fight the war. In short, in both, disorder and peace, discipline is indispensable. Therefore, let us remember that discipline is the life blood of the human society, without it, no life is possible. ●●●
TS FOR THE MON H G U TH T HO ❥
Everything appears coloured to the jaundiced eye.
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However clever you are, there is someone cleverer than you.
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If you don’t crack the shell, you can’t eat the nut.
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Using threats of suspension as a major strategy for maintaining discipline does not go a long way.
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Sooner or later the man who wins is the man who thinks he can.
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Prefer a loss to a dishonest gain; the one brings pain at the moment, the other for all time.
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The humblest citizen of all land, when clad in the armour of righteous cause, is stronger than all the hosts of error.
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To be vanquished and yet not surrender, that is victory.
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What you cannot say before your enemy, do not say before your friend.
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Criticism breeds criticism.
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Is not country more important than community ?
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There are some students who are playing the fool at the back of the class but such are surely the boys who roam the streets in the end.
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Be neither saint, nor sophist-led, but a man.
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Praise is a debt, flattery is a present.
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Success is never ending, failure is never final.
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Be the best you can be.
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Rebirth of Hubble Space Telescope The Hubble space telescope, the object of NASA’s fifth and the last servicing mission, is a veritable time machine that has revolutionalised humankind’s vision and comprehension of the universe. Put into orbit at an altitude of 600 km by the shuttle Discovery on April 25, 1990, Hubble has transmitted more than 7,50,000 spectacular images and streams of data from the ends of the Universe, opening a new era. But the Hubble telescope, the fruit of a collaboration between NASA and the European Space Agency, had a troubled start and did not become operational until three years after its deployment. Its lense in effect had to be fixed because of a flaw in its shape, a sensitive operation that was not carried out until 1993 in the first shuttle-borne service mission, which installed corrective lenses. From that time o n Hubble s p a c e telescope transmitted stupefying images of supernovas, gigantic explosions that marked the death of a star and revealed mysterious black holes in the centre of virtually all galaxies.
precision as an estimated 13·7 billion years. The universe’s acceleration is the result of an unknown force dubbed dark energy that constitutes three-quarters of the Universe and counterbalances the force of gravity. The rest of the cosmos is composed of five per cent visible matter and about 20% shadow matter or anti-matter. Among the other discoveries, credited to Hubble, figures the detection of the first organic molecule in the atmosphere of a planet orbiting another star and the fact that the process of formation of planets and solar systems is relatively common in our galaxy, the Milky Way. Hubble also has observed small protogalaxies that were emitting rays of light when the Universe was less than a billion years old, the farthest back in time that a telescope has been able to peer so far.
distant galaxies, map the large scale structure of the Universe and study the planet forming processes around other stars. The two new installed instruments will enable Hubble to look out in time as far as 500 to 600 million years after the Universe’s birth with the big bang. Closer to home, Hubble has observed radical changes in the direction of Saturn’s winds and revealed that Neptune has seasons. Hubble has also examined mysterious lightning flashes on Jupiter and taken astonishing pictures of Mars.
New York-Sized Ice Shelf Collapses in Antarctic An area of ice shelf, almost the size of New York City, broke into icebergs in April 2009 after the collapse of an ice-bridge widely blamed on global warming.
Eye in the sky : A few of the stunning images taken by the Hubble space telescope over the years.
Helping Hand : In this image taken from NASA video, Hubble is captured by the space shuttle Atlantis’ robotic arm as it begins its mission to service the space telescope.
Thanks to these observations, delivered with 10 times clarity of the most powerful telescopes on the Earth, the astronomers have been able to confirm that the Universe is expanding at an accelerating rate and to calculate its age with greater
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In space, Hubble was captured by the space shuttle Atlantis’ robotic arm as it began its mission to service the space telescope. Two astronauts Mike Massimino and Mike Good emerged from the airlock of the shuttle Atlantis and began work on Space Telescope. In addition to the partial revival of the Advanced Camera for surveys, they installed two new scientific instruments and a crucial science computer as well as replaced gyroscopes and batteries to sustain the Observatory’s pointing and power systems. The overhauling prepared Hubble to search for the oldest and the most
Warming Disaster (Top) A satellite image of the Wilkins Ice Shelf, taken on April 27, shows icebergs covering an area of 700 sq km that have broken off.
Professor Angelika Humbert, a glaciologist of the University of Muenster (Germany) analysed the European Space Agency Satellite images of the Shelf of Antarctic and
came to this conclusion. She (Prof. Humbert) said about 700 sq km of ice–bigger than Singapore or Bahrain and almost of the size of New York City–broke off the Wilkins and shattered into a mass of icebergs. She said 370 sq km of the ice had cracked in recent days from the Shelf, the latest of about 10 shelves on the Antarctic Peninsula to retreat in a trend linked by the U.N. Climate Panel to global warming. The new icebergs added to 330 sq km of ice that broke up earlier in April 2009 with the shattering of an ice bridge apparently pinning the Wilkins in place between Charkot island and the Antarctic Peninsula. Nine other ice shelves have receded or collapsed around the Antarctic Peninsula during the past 50 years, often abruptly like the Larsen A in 1995 or the Larsen B in 2002. The trend is widely blamed on climate change caused by heat-trapping gases from burning fossil fuels.
Most Distant Object in the Universe Spotted Astronomers have spotted the most distant object in the universe, which is self-destructing star that exploded 13·1 billlion light years from Earth. It detonated just 640 million years after the big bang, around the end of the cosmic ‘dark ages’, when the first stars and galaxies were lighting up space. The object is a gamma-ray burst—the brightest type of stellar explosion. Gamma-rays bursts occur when massive spinning stars collapse to form black holes and spew out jets of gas at nearly the speed of light.
Stars ‘Eat Up’ Planets Cannibalism is rampant in our universe. Stars ‘eat’ the exoplanets that venture near them. The new study has revealed that the exoplanets are doomed to premature deaths even before they could get close to be ripped apart by the host star’s gravity, a finding that may help explain why few exoplanets are found next to host stars. The research team
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is lead by Professor Brian Jackson of the University of Arizona (U.S.A.). In accordance with this research, a star’s gravity can put a nearby planet on a ‘fast track’ to spiralling into the star and may also cause the planet to lose much of its atmosphere. More than 300 exoplanets have been catalogued to date. Many are situated close to the host stars. But the closestin ones are commonly found some 0·05 astronomical units (AU) from their host stars. But, no one is sure why the planets seem to pile up there. Very close to a star, at a boundary called the Roche limit, planets are dismembered by the star’s gravity. But the migration of planets seems to stop there ? Some models suggest gas and dust in the disc around a star could drag the planets inward.
Forthcoming Space Telescopes to Peek into Future A couple of space telescopes, that are going to be launched very shortly, will answer some of the biggest questions of the universe. Scientists hope that the probes will answer questions such as how did we get to, where we are now, and where are we likely to end up. Each telescope is designed to probe the deepest reaches of space to unravel the origins of matter, from the earliest beginnings of the universe, some 13·7 billion years ago to the creation of the stars, galaxies and planets. One of the telescopes called, ‘Planck’, will study in unprecedented detail of the ancient ‘fossilized’ radiation left over as a relic of the big bang. The analysis could help to explain how the universe formed through a process of rapid expansion in the first fractions of a second after the big bang itself. The other space telescope to be launched is ‘Herschel’. It will concentrate on the invisible, infrared radiation emitted by the star-forming regions of the galaxies on the hope of explaining how stellar objects from stars like the Sun to planets such as Earth, can
form from clouds of cosmic gas, dust and debris. Scientists involved in the twin missions hope that the data gleaned from instruments on board each space telescope will enable them to fill in the remaining mysteries of how the universe came into existence, how it evolved and how it is likely to end—if indeed it ever will.
Flowers May Bloom on Jupiter’s Icy Moon Scientists have suggested that spacecraft should hunt for signs of life on Jupiter’s ice-covered moon, Europa, since it would be detectable there in the form of blooming flowers. Life could be visible from orbiting spacecraft, however, if it made a hole in cracks in Europa’s shell that connect the surface to the interior, physicist and futurist, Professor Freeman Dyson reported. Such life might take the form of flowers that focus sunlight on the interior of the plant. Europa flowers could be detectable through retro-reflection, an optical effect that is seen in light reflected from animals’ eyes. ●●●
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UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2 E-mail :
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AWARDS/HONOURS Whitley Award—Wildlife biologist M. D. Madhusudan has been awarded the Whitley Award in recognition of his work to reduce humanwildlife conflict. He is the Director of the Mysore-based Nature Conservation Foundation. The award carries a cash of £ 30,000. Nikkei Asia Prize—Kiran Mazumdar Shaw, Chairman and Managing Director of ‘Biocon’ has been awarded the Nikkei Asia Prize, 2009 for promoting regional growth in Asia. Former winners of this award are the Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Bangladesh’s Nobel Laureate, Mohammad Yunus. Elected FRCP—Neuropsychiatrist E. S. Krishnamoorthy Professor of the Institute of Neurological Sciences, Chennai, has been elected a Fellow of the Royal College of Physicians (FRCP) for his contributions to the advancement of neurology. This is one of the most prestigious international honour for a physician.
BOOKS
and fall of the Indian intellectuals in post-independent India). Democracy and Human Development in India— Naresh Gupta (The author has touched upon the constitutional setting, demographic profile and different aspects of human development and well-being).
DAYS June 4—International Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression June 5—World Environment Day June 25—U. N. Charter Signing Day June 26—International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking June 27—World Diabetes Day June 28—Poor’s Day
Prabhakaran—The curtains came down on the 33-month-old-long Eelam War as the Sri Lankan military succeeded in decimating the military capabilities of the LTTE resulting in death of its all top brass including its
Payment for Ecosystem Services—Pushpam Kumar and Roldan Muradian (The book consists of a variety of issues dealing with the evaluation of ecosystems and challenges to PES (Payment for Ecosystem Services). Ancient to Modern—Ishita Banerjee Dube and Saurabh Dube (This enthology explores different aspects of religion in the context of identity and articulation of power). Money, Finance and Political Economy— Deena Khakhate (The book is a collection of selected writings. The essays dealing directly with the Indian experience in economic and social development are largely polemics justifying and defending the reform process started in 1991. One of them also deals with the decline
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 539 / 2
Roaring Tiger Silenced
Chief Velupillai Prabhakaran. He had successfully transformed the Tigers
from an archetypal guerilla outfit into a conventional army. This ultimately proved to be his downfall. He was a dogged fighter for a separate homeland for Tamils in Sri Lanka. The 54-year-old son of a government officer, and a school dropout, Prabhakaran pioneered suicide bombing and cynide death for cadres under attack in war for Tamil Eelam that consumed more than 70,000 lives, including those of a score of Sinhalese and Tamil leaders apart from former Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi. Born on November 26, 1954 in the northern coastal town of Velvettithurai on the Jaffna peninsula, Prabhakaran, the youngest of four children, began attending political meetings and practising martial arts and soon became involved in the Tamil protest movement. He got married on October 1, 1984 in Tirupporur near Chennai and had a daughter name Duwaraka and two sons—Charles Anthony and Balachandran. While Charles was killed in battlefront, the whereabouts of others are not known, but it is widely speculated that they are not in Sri Lanka. Prakash Mehra—Noted film producer-director, Prakash Mehra (69) passed away on May 17 in Mumbai due to pneumonia and multiple organs failure. He is survived by three sons. Noted films produced-directed by him are—Zanjeer, Hera Pheri, Khoon Paseena, Lawaris, Muquaddar Ka Sikandar, Sharabi, Namak Halal. Admiral S. M. Nanda—The former Chief of the Naval Staff Admiral Nanda passed away in New Delhi on May 12, 2009. He was 94. He took the charge as Navy Chief in 1970 and commanded the force successfully during the 1971 IndiaPakistan war. Pakistan Navy was crumbled and the Indian Navy had complete control over the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian sea. Admiral S. M. Nanda was born in Karachi and had joined Royal Indian Navy in 1941.
Wajed Mia—Nuclear scientist and Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina’s husband, Wajed Mia (66), died of prolonged illness and multiple complications in Dhaka on May 9, 2009.
General Elections 2009—India voted decisively for continuity and stability in the general election to the 15th Lok Sabha, giving the Congressled United Progressive Alliance (UPA) another five-year term in office. People of India spoke and spoke with great clarity. In contrast to 2004, the UPA won close to 260 of the total 543 seats did not need the support of Left Parties. The allies of Congress are— Nationalist Congress Party, the All India Trinamool Congress, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, the National Conference, and the All India Majlis-e-Ittehadul Muslimeen. Now, Manmohan Singh is the first Prime Minister since Indira Gandhi to have two full terms.
Parties and their Vote Share Party Congress BJP JD (U) CPM CPI BSP AIADMK DMK TC NCP SP TDP SS RLD SAD NC RJD LJP TRS BJD AGP INLD JD(S) JMM IUML IND Others
Total Change Vote seats from share 2004 (%) 206 116 20 16 4 21 9 18 19 9 23 6 11 5 4 3 4 0 2 14 1 0 3 2 2 9 16
61 – 22 12 – 27 –6 2 9 2 17 0 – 13 1 –1 2 –4 1 – 20 –4 –3 3 –1 0 0 –3 1 2 –9
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29·67 19·29 1·58 5·52 1·46 6·27 1·79 1·91 3·43 2·24 3·44 1·53 1·67 0·49 0·92 0·13 1·31 0·48 0·63 1·35 0·45 0·33 0·89 0·43 0·23 4·16 8·4
The triumph of the Congress was actually an aggregation of specific successes across different states. The party retained its base in Andhra Pradesh, cut its losses in Madhya Pradesh, recovered lost ground in West Bengal, Keral and Rajasthan and combined well with its allies in Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. The BJP and Left parties are the big losers in the current general election.
Ashok Chawla (New Finance Secretary )—Economic Affairs Secretary, Ashok Chawla, took over as the Union Finance Secretary, succeeding Arun Ramanathan who retired. Mr. Chawla is an IAS officer of 1973 batch of Gujarat cadre. P. K. Barbora ( New Vice Chief of Air Staff )—Air Marshal P. K. Barbora has been appointed as the new Vice Chief of Air Staff. He will assume the charge on June 1, 2009. Currently, he has been serving as the Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief of Western Air Command. Deepak Verma (New Judge, Supreme Court)—Justice Deepak Verma (61), Chief Justice of Rajasthan, has been appointed as the
Judge of Supreme Court. He hails from Madhya Pradesh and will have a tenure of about four years. Balbir Singh Chauhan (New Judge, Appex Court )—President Pratibha Patil cleared the appointment of Justice Balbir Singh, Chief Justice of Orissa High Court, as the judge of the Supreme Court. Naveen Patnaik (CM, Orissa)— Biju Janta Dal President Naveen Patnaik was sworn-in as Chief Minister of Orissa for the third consecutive term. Twenty other legislators were also sworn-in as the Ministers. Patnaik’s Party won 103 seats in the 147 member Assembly. Pawan Chamling (CM, Sikkim )— Pawan Chamling was sworn-in as Chief Minister of Sikkim for a fourth successive term, making him the longest serving Chief Minister in the state. Eleven other Ministers were also sworn-in. Chamling’s Sikkim Democratic Front created history by winning in all 32 Assembly seats. D. D. Lapang (CM, Meghalaya)— A seven member Congress and United Democratic Party coalition Ministry, headed by D. D. Lapang, was sworn-in at the Raj Bhavan Shillong. Zuma (New President, S.A. )— Jacob Zuma, the indefatigable fighter against apartheid was sworn-in as liberated South Africa’s fourth President.
Dr. Manmohan Singh—President Pratibha Patil administered the oath of office and secrecy to Dr. Manmohan Singh as the Prime Minister of India alongwith his cabinet colleagues in Rashtrapati Bhavan on May 22, 2009. This is Dr. Singh’s second successive term.
President Pratibha Patil is administering the oath of Office and Secrecy to Dr. Singh
Prime Minister Manmohan Singh was born on September 26, 1932, in a village in the Punjab province of undivided India. Dr. Singh completed his Matriculation examinations from the Punjab University in 1948. His acadmic career took him from Punjab to the University of Cambridge, UK, where he earned a First Class Honours degree in Economics in 1957. Dr. Singh followed this with a D. Phil in Economics from Nuffield College at Oxford University in 1962. His book, ‘‘India’s Export Trends and Prospects for Self-Sustained Growth’’ [Clarendon Press, Oxford, 1964] was an early critique of India’s inwardoriented trade policy. In 1971, Dr. Singh joined the Government of India as Economic Advisor in the Commerce Ministry. This was soon followed by his appointment as Chief Economic Advisor in the Ministry of Finance in 1972. Among the many Governmental positions that Dr. Singh has occupied are Secretary in the Ministry of Finance; Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission; Governor of the Reserve Bank of India; Advisor of the Prime Minister; and Chairman of the University Grants Commission. In what was to become the turning point in the economic history of independent India, Dr. Singh spent five years between 1991 and 1996 as India’s Finance Minister. His role in ushering in a comprehensive policy of
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 541
economic reforms is now recognized worldwide. In the popular view of those years in India, that period is inextricably associated with Dr. Singh. Among the many awards and honours conferred upon Dr. Singh in his public career, the most prominent are India’s second highest civilian honour, the Padma Vibhushan (1987); the Jawaharlal Nehru Birth Centenary Award of the Indian Science Congress (1995); the Asia Money Award for Finance Minister of the Year (1993 and 1994); the Euro Money Award for Finance Minister of the Year (1993), the Adam Smith Prize of the University of Cambridge (1956), and the Wright’s Prize for Distinguished Performance at St. John’s College in Cambridge (1955). Dr. Singh has also been honoured by a number of other associations including the Japanese Nihon Keizai Shimbun. Dr. Singh and his wife Mrs. Gursharan Kaur have three daughters.
one thing that remained constant was the LTTE’s uncompromising secessionism and militarism, and the rising graph of its terrorist crimes, which included the assassination of the former Indian Prime Minister, Rajiv Gandhi, Sri Lankan President Premdasa, a Sri Lankan Defence Minister, a Foreign Minister and countless others. Now, in the post Prabhakaran era, the Sri Lankan Government needs to address two big tasks— rehabilitation of hundreds of thousands of Tamils who have been through a prolonged nightmare and crafting an enduring political solution based on far-going devolution of power to the Tamils in their areas of historical habitation. India, which has excellent relations with its southern neighbour, can make a constructive difference by coming up with a massive rehabilitation package for the North and encouraging Colombo to fast-track the political solution.
SPORTS During the last 26 years, LTTE rewrote many of the standards of terrorism. The Sri Lankan armed forces won a comprehensive victory over the LTTE in a military campaign that began in the eastern province in August 2006. With its entire top leadership and thousands of fighting cadres are killed in action, its military structure, assets and capabilities are destroyed, its political organization decimated, the LTTE no longer exists. Belying conventional wisdom, Sri Lanka has found a military solution to what used to be regarded as an intractable armed secessionist and terrorist challenge. Over a quarter of century, this war waged and claimed tens of thousands of lives. The images of terrified children, women and men fleeing the tiny sliver of coastal land in which they were confined by the Tigers for use as human shieled. Senior LTTE leaders made a final hopeless stand for a lost cause will continue to haunt the memories of journalists and others who witnessed these scenes. As the years went by and numerous proposals for a negotiated political solution fell by wayside, the
Cricket IPL-2—The final of Indian Premier League cricket match was played in Johannesburg between Deccan Chargers and Royal Challengers, Bangalore on May 24, 2009 at the Wanderers. Anil Kumble was the ‘Captain of Royal Challengers, Bangalore’ while Adam Gilchrist was the Captain of Deccan Chargers. A fighting unbeaten half century by Herschelle Gibbs (53 runs not out) took Deccan Chargers 143 for six wicket. But then it appeared initially to be an innings dominated by a bowler, leg spinner Anil Kumble, who finished four wicket for sixteen runs. Three of his scalps were—Adam Gilchrist, A. Symonds and Rohit Sharma. In a brilliant play, Kumble picked himself to bowl the first over after inviting Chargers to bat. It was Captain versus Captain when Kumble operated to the in-form. Finally, the Royal Challengers, Bangalore could score only 137 runs for 9 wickets and lost to Deccan Chargers by six runs. ●●●
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Physics
16. When a radioactive nucleus emits a β-particle, the neutron to proton ratio ➠ decreases
1. What is the relation between v, ω and r (in vector form) ?
17. What is the dimensional formula of Hubble’s constant is ➠ [M0 L0 T–1]
→ → → ➠ v = ω × r 18. In nuclear reactor what is the function of moderators ?
2. What does the plug marked infinity in a resistance box have below it ? ➠ only air gap 3. What is the moment of inertia for elliptical lamina ? ➠ I = (1/4) Ma 2 (about minor axis) and I = (1/4) Mb 2 (about major axis) 4. How many protons and neutrons does an α-particle possess ? ➠ Two protons and two neutrons 5. What is tractive force ? ➠ F = (P/v) 6. What is conserved in the case of a freely falling body ? ➠ sum of kinetic and potential energies 7. What is the pressure-temperature law ? ➠ (P1/T1) = (P2/T2) 8. An astronomical telescope is made of two lenses of powers 5 D and 20 D. Its magnifying power for normal vision is ➠4 9. What is Poynting vector ? → → → → → 1 → → ➠ S= E × H= ( E × B) = c 2 ε0 ( E × B) μ0 10. To which region does the electromagnetic radiation of ° wavelength of the order of 1 A belong ? ➠ X-ray radiation 11. What is ratio of the reflected intensity and incident intensity ? 2 I n –n ➠ Ir = n 1 + n 2 i 1 2
(
)
12. A 4 μF condenser is charged to 400 volt and then its plates are joined through a resistance. Heat produced in the resistance is ➠ 0·32 joule 13. What is polarization vector ? →
Q
→
P ➠ (i) ⏐ P ⏐ = A , (ii) ⏐ P ⏐ = ε0 χ Ed
14. How will you connect three capacitors of 3 μF each so that the capacitance of the combination is 4·5 μF? ➠ Two in series and then one in their parallel 15. What is the trajectory of a charged particle when it is projected perpendicular to a magnetic field ? ➠ Circle in a plane perpendicular to the field
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 543
➠ To slow down fast fission neutrons 19. What will be the force when dipoles are along the line joining their centres ? μ 6M M ➠ 4ππ0 · r14 2 (along r) 20. What provides the centripetal force to enable an earth satellite to move in a circular orbital ? ➠ The gravitational force of attraction between the earth and the satellite
Chemistry 21. The esters of long chain fatty acids with long chain alcohols are commercially known as ➠ Waxes 22. The lines in the spectrum of hydrogen atom in the visible region are termed as ➠ Balmer series 23. Both mass and volume are extensive properties but the ratio of mass of a sample to its volume is an intensive property, known as ➠ Density 24. The idea of elliptical orbits was propounded by ➠ Sommerfeld 25. The scientist who first pointed out that an element is any substance that cannot be decomposed into a simpler substance ➠ Robert Boyle’s 26. Certain materials like potassium emit electrons when irradiated with visible light. This is known as ➠ Photoelectric effect 27. The term isotope was introduced by ➠ Frederick Soddy 28. High lattice energy of an ionic compound is favoured by ➠ Small inter-ionic distance and high charge on ions 29. 1 mol of O is equal to 16·0 gm and 1 mol of O2 will be equal to ➠ 32·0 gm 30. The chemical compounds which exist over a range of chemical composition are known as ➠ Berthollide compounds
31. When neutron is outside the nucleus, it is unstable and it changes into a proton, and electron and another elementry particle, known as ➠ Neutrino 32. The product of the net positive or negative charge and distance between the two charged ends is known as ➠ Dipole-moment 33. When a neutron collides with a proton, a nucleus of ➠ Deuterium is formed 34. Who discovered chlorine ? ➠ C. W. Scheele (1774) 35. A cold glow given out by some substances is called ➠ Phosphorescence 36. Entire mountain ranges in Italy consist of mineral dolomite. Chemically dolomite is ➠ MgCO3·CaCO3 37. The crystals that can detect ultrasound and produce ultrasound are known as ➠ Piezoelectric crystals 38. Fluoroapatite is commercially important as a source of phosphate. The composition of fluoroapatite is ➠ [3{Ca3(PO4)2}·CaF2] 39. The SI unit of pressure is ➠ Pascal (Pa) [1 atm = 101,325 Pa = 101·325 kPa] 40. Aluminium articles are often given decorative finish by electrolysing dil. H2SO4 with the aluminium anode. This process is known as ➠ Anodising
Zoology 41. What is the name of the hormone that causes deposition of fat in breast and hips in female humans during puberty ? ➠ Estrogen 42. A group of coelomate metazoans in which the first embryonic opening is associated with the mouth is ➠ Protostome
48. Ridges or folds found in the lining of vertebrate stomach is called ➠ Rugae 49. Where each restriction enzyme cleaves a molecule ? ➠ At a particular nucleotide sequence 50. A rod of bone or cartilage that forms the only ear ossicle in amphibians, birds and reptiles is called ➠ Collumelar auris 51. Where the spermatogenesis occurs ? ➠ Seminiferous tubules 52. In cerebrum, the roof of each paracoel is called ➠ Pallium 53. Which hormone prevents dehydration of human body ? ➠ ADH 54. Part of coelom in mammals containing lungs and lined by pleura is ➠ Viscera 55. Which area of human brain is responsible for arousal and wakefulness ? ➠ Reticular formation 56. Large marine mammals well adapted for aquatic life are collectively known as ➠ Cetacea 57. Which ion is most concentrated outside a resting potential ? ➠ Sodium 58. The endocrine part of pancreas consists of ➠ Islets of Langerhans 59. Which kind of cells transmit the sensory impulses in human eye to optic nerve ? ➠ Ganglion cells 60. The cells from Graafian follicle that surround the ovulated mammalian egg are known as ➠ Cumulus cells
Botany
43. Which ion must be present for binding of the cross bridges in muscles ? ➠ Calcium
61. Who prepared an infectious extract from tobacco plants that were suffering from mosaic disease ? ➠ D. I. Ivanovsky
44. Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood stream of humans is ➠ Bicarbonate ion
62. When does chromosome number becomes halved ? ➠ In meiosis during anaphase-I
45. What is called the form of enzymes that are encoded by different allelic genes ? ➠ Allozymes 46. A small calcareous granules found in the inner ear of many mammals, is ➠ Otolith 47. Over production of which neurotransmitter has been associated with the mental disorder, called schizophrenia ? ➠ Dopamine
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 544
63. What type of lysine, an amino acid, is ? ➠ Basic amino acid 64. What food is used by fungal partner made by algal partner in a lichen ? ➠ Mannitol 65. What refers to the number of death per unit time ? ➠ Mortality 66. What is the major role of phosphorus in plant metabolism ? ➠ To generate metabolic energy
(Continued on Page 612 )
Thermodynamics Thermodynamics is that branch of physics in which heat is converted into other forms of energy and other forms of energy are converted into heat. This branch deals the transformation of heat into mechanical work and the inter-relationship between them.
P-V diagram or indicator diagram—A graph between pressure (P) and volume (V) is known as P-V diagram or indicator diagram. Area under P-V diagram = Work done. A
Thermodynamical Variables
Area = Work done by the gas in path AB
Thermodynamical variables are those parameters which define the thermodynamical system completely. These are pressure (P), volume (V), temperature (T), internal energy (U) and entropy (S). These are also called thermodynamical coordinates.
P
B
Thermodynamical Equilibrium A system is said to be in thermodynamical equilibrium if the temperature of its various parts is the same and equal to that of surroundings.
External Work done (W) When a body is heated, it expands. This is opposed by external atmospheric pressure. The work done against external atmospheric pressure during expansion of a body is called external work. ∴ Work done = Force × displacement = Pressure × area × displacement = Pressure × change in volume ΔW = P ΔV ΔW = P (V2 – V1)
or where,
V1 = Initial volume of gas, V2 = Final volume of gas (i)
If V2 > V1, then ΔW = +ve, then work is done by the system
(ii) If V2 < V1, then ΔW = –ve, then work is done on the system (iii) If V 1 = V2 or V = constant, then ΔW = 0 ●
If pressure is constant, then work done
●
W = P(V2 – V1) If pressure and volume both are variable then the work done W=
∫
V2
P dV
V1
●
= Area between P -V curve and volume axis If the system expands into vacuum (free expansion), then ΔW = 0
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 545
V
Cyclic Process (or Closed Path) Cyclic process is that process in which the system returns to its original state (P, V, T) after doing work or after work being done on it. The work done on the system or work done by the system depends upon the area of cycle. If the cycle traced in clockwise direction then the network is done by the gas and if the cycle is traced in anticlockwise direction the net work is done on the gas. Conversion of units—Work is measured in joule or erg and heat is measured in kilo calorie or calorie. In the relation W = JH, J is conversion factor. In C.G.S. system J = 4·2 × 107 erg/cal In M.K.S. system J = 4·2 × 103 joule/k cal = 4·2 joule/cal In F.P.S. system J = 778 foot-pound/B.Th.u. Example 1. When a body falls from a great height (e.g. , water in a waterfall), potential energy is finally converted into heat energy. Here the temperature increases slightly.
mgh = J × ms Δ t ∴
Δt =
gh Js
Example 2. When a bullet is fired at a target, kinetic energy is converted into heat energy and the temperature increases too much. 1 Here mv2 = J (ms Δt) 2 If bullet does not melt 1 mv2 = J (ms Δt + m L) and 2 If bullet melts
Example 3. When a piece of ice (hail) falls from a great height, if a part of it melts, then
In the figure Ui = Internal energy of the gas in initial state (i ) Uf = Internal energy of the gas in final state (f )
mgh = J (m′ L )
Then change in internal energy
m′ → Mass of ice melts
ΔU = Uf – Ui
m → Total mass of ice If whole of ice melts, then
mgh = J × mL JL h = ≈ 34 km g
⇒
ΔU does not depend upon the path chosen. Hence, internal energy is called unique function (but work done by a gas depends upon the path chosen). For a closed path—Change in internal energy ΔU = 0. Hence, U = Constant
Internal Energy (U)
ΔW ≠ 0
Every substance is made of tiny particles, known as molecules. The molecules of a substance possess kinetic energy due to the translatory motion or temperature. Translational K.E. of molecules is proportional to absolute temperature. The molecules also possess potential energy (Ep) due to their position, or inter-molecular force of attraction. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of all molecules of a system is called internal energy or intrinsic energy of the system. ●
●
In a perfect gas or ideal gas, there is no force between its molecules, hence their potential energy is zero, they have only kinetic energy. Therefore, internal energy of a perfect gas is entirely in the form of kinetic energy of its molecules. Since kinetic energy of molecules is proportional to temperature, therefore, internal energy of a perfect gas depends only on temperature and not on its pressure and volume. It is called Joule’s law. Thus, for a perfect gas ∂U ∂V
= 0, T
∂U ∂T
≠ 0, P
According to Clausius, “When some amount of heat is given to a system, then a part of it is used to do work and remaining part is used to change internal energy of the system.” Let Q be the amount of heat given to a system. Then ΔU = Uf – Ui ⇒ Change in internal energy of the system. W (or P ΔV) = Work done by the system Then
T
≠ 0 V
●
For isothermal change temperature T remains constant. Hence, U remains constant, i.e., ΔU = 0.
●
In real gases, since there is a force of attraction between molecules of the gas, hence their potential energy is not zero. Therefore, internal energy of a real gas is in the form of kinetic energy and potential energy of its molecules. Hence, internal energy of a real gas depends upon all pressure (P), volume (V) and temperature (T).
Q = ΔU + W = ΔU + P ΔV)
Applications of first law of thermodynamics (a) For isothermal change (in case of perfect gas)— Since, temperature T = Constant
= 0
∂U ∂T
First Law of Thermodynamics
So,
∂U ∂P
ΔQ ≠ 0
and
In this case
ΔU = 0 Q = W
(b) For adiabatic change—In this process heat is neither given to the system nor taken from it, i.e., exchange of heat Q = 0 In this case
ΔU = – W
So in adiabatic compression in the system since W = –ve hence, ΔU = +ve i.e., there will be rise in internal energy of the system or adiabatic compression always causes heating. Similarly if there is expansion in the system (adiabatic expansion) since W = +ve, so ΔU = –ve. Hence, internal energy or temperature of the gas falls or adiabatic expansion causes cooling. (c) For isochoric change—Since volume V = Constant Hence, or
ΔV = 0 W = PΔV = 0
∴
Q = ΔU = m Cv Δt
Therefore, in isochoric change the heat supplied to the system is used up in increasing internal energy of the system.
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 546
(d) For isobaric change—In this process P = Constant.
Values of Specific Heats C p and Cv for Gases (a) For monoatomic gases (e.g., He, Ne, Ar etc.) 3 Cv = R ~ – 3 cal/mole-K 2
Q = m Cp Δt ΔU = m Cv Δt Here, Cp is specific heat of gas at constant pressure. Therefore, in isobaric change the heat supplied to the system is used partly in changing the volume and partly in changing temperature. (e) For isolated system—An isolated system is one which is completely cut off from the surroundings, therefore, Q = 0, and there is no change in internal energy i.e., Δ U = 0 and hence, ΔW = 0. So system does not perform any work. (f) For cyclic process—For this process change in internal energy ΔU = 0.
5 R ~ – 5 cal/mole-K 2 Cp = 1·67 γ = Cv
Cp =
(b) Diatomic gases (e. g., H2, O2, N2 etc.) 5 Cv = R 2 ≈ 5 cal/mol-K 7 Cp = R 2 = 7 cal/mole-K Cp γ = = 1·4 Cv
Hence, Q = W i.e., whole of the heat supplied to the system is used in doing work against external pressure.
Specific Heat of Gases Specific heat of a gas depends on the condition of pressure and volume of the gas during its heating. Accordingly specific heat of a gas may be anything from zero to infinity. In general two modes of heating a gas has been selected. They are (a) At constant pressure (b) At constant volume. Accordingly there are two specific heats in case of gases. (i) Specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) (ii) Specific heat at constant volume (Cv ) Cp > Cv—In case of Cv , volume V = Constant ⇒
ΔV = 0
Hence, work done by gas W = P ΔV = 0 but in case of Cp, pressure P = constant. Therefore, when gas is heated its volume increases and some work (W = P ΔV) is done by the gas. Hence extra amount of heat should be given to the gas to do this work. So Cp > Cv . Cp – Cv = Extra work done
●
(c) Polyatomic gases Cv = 3 R = 6 cal/mole-K Cp = 4R ~ – 8 cal/mole-K Cp γ = = 1·33 Cv For n moles of gas ΔU = n Cv ΔT ΔQ = n Cp ΔT
and ∴
ΔW = ΔQ – ΔU = n R ΔT
Nature of Internal Energy Every thermodynamic system has some internal energy which is characteristic of its state. It consists of kinetic energy due to molecular motion and potential energy due to molecular attraction. We know that monoatomic molecules undergo only translational motion, i.e., the centre of mass of the molecule moves [fig. (a)]. Hence, these molecules have kinetic energy due to translational motion.
= P ΔV = PV2 – PV1 = RT2 – RT1 = R (T + 1) – RT = R ∴
Cp – C v = R
It is known as Mayer’s formula For one gm mole gas Cp – C v –~ 2 cal/mole-K
Molar Specific Heat It is equal to specific heat multiplied by the molecular weight M. Thus, and
Cp = M × Cp Cv = M × Cv
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 547 / 3
Translational Motion (a)
Rotational Motion (b)
Vibrational Motion (c)
Diatomic and polyatomic molecules undergo not only the translational motion inside the substance; but also rotate about the axis passing through the centre of mass of the molecule [fig. (b)] and also vibrate relative to each other [fig. (c)]. Thus, in diatomic and polyatomic molecules, in addition to translational motion, there is also internal
rotational motion and vibrational motion. Hence, these molecules in addition to translational kinetic energy, have rotational kinetic energy and vibrational kinetic energy also. Thus, the internal energy of a substance consists of : (i) The translational kinetic energy of molecules. (ii) The internal rotational and vibrational kinetic energies of molecules (if they are polyatomic). (iii) The potential energy of the molecules due to inter-atomic forces.
Important Points to Note 1. Ideal gases—In case of ideal gases there is no molecular attraction between the molecules. Hence, they have no potential energy. Thus, the internal energy of an ideal gas is only the kinetic energy of its molecules. 2. Real gases—In real compressed gases the molecules come closer and so exert appreciable force on one another. Hence, potential energy also adds to their internal energy. Since, potential energy is negative, it follows that internal energy of a compressed gas is less than its internal energy in rarefied state at the same temperature. 3. Liquids—Molecules in liquids are very close to one another exert stronger forces and possess sufficient potential energy. But their translation motion is very limited in comparison to gas molecules. Since potential energy is negative, the internal energy of the liquids is very small compared to the internal energy of the gas at the same temperature. 4. Solids—In solids molecules are fixed in definite positions in a lattice. These molecules vibrate to and fro about these positions but can not leave these positions permanently. These vibrations are called lattice vibrations. In solids the potential energy of molecules is very large. Since this is negative, the internal energy of solids is less than that of liquids. 5. Translational K. E. of molecules—According to the kinetic theory, the translational kinetic energy of the molecules (and not the whole internal energy of the substance) is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the substance. Hence the temperature of the substance rises on increasing the translational kinetic energy of its molecules.
Second Law of Thermodynamics The first law of thermodynamics states the equivalence heat and mechanical work when one is completely converted into the other. It simply tells that when ever work is obtained an equivalent amount of heat is used up, or vice-versa. It does not say anything either about the limitation in the conversion of heat into work or about the condition necessary for such a conversion. The quest for deciding these points led to the formulation of Second Law of Thermodynamics. This law is generalisation of certain experiences and observations and is concerned with the direction in which energy transfers take place. This law has been stated in various forms but all the statements are equivalent. Below are given two simple forms of this law. According to one statement :
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 548
‘It is impossible to convert ‘all’ the heat extracted from a hot body into work’ According to a second statement : ‘It is impossible to transfer heat from a cold body to a hot body without expenditure of work by an external agency’. As an illustration we take the case of a heat engine. Here the working substance takes heat Q 1 from the hot body (source), converts a part of it into work W and gives the rest Q 2 to a cold body (sink) No engine has ever been designed which may convert ‘all’ the heat Q taken from the source into work W without giving any heat to the sink. For obtaining continuous work a sink is necessary. In other words, all the heat taken from a body cannot be converted into work. ●
Hot Body (Source) Q1
⎯⎯→W Q2 Cold Body (Sink)
A refrigerator is a heat engine running in the reverse direction. In it, the working substance (a gas) takes in heat from a cold body and gives out to the hotter body (external atmosphere). For doing this it uses electrical energy. No refrigerator has yet been designed which may transfer heat from a cold body to a hot body without using an external source of energy. It implies that it is impossible for a self-acting machine, unaided by any external agency, to transfer heat from a cold body to a hot body.
Efficiency of Heat Engine Amount of heat converted into mechanical work Amount of heat taken from the source Q1 – Q2 = Q1 Q2 = 1– Q1
η =
Carnot engine (Reversible cycle) For a reversible cycle T1 Q1 = Q2 T2 ∴
η = 1–
T2 T1
Refrigerator Hot Body T1 K Q1 Mechanical
←⎯⎯ work
W = Q1 – Q2 Q2 Cold Body T2 K
The efficiency of reversible thermodynamic cycle (Carnot cycle) depends not on the nature of the gas, but only on the temperature range between which it operates. Carnot’s theorem—No engine can be more efficient than a reversible engine working between the same temperatures. W = Amount of mechanical work given from outside which changes into amount (Q1 – Q2) of heat.
Relation between β and η
At a Glance Efficiency of Engines Steam engine—ηs = 17% (Max.)
β =
Petrol engine—ηp = 44% (Max.) Diesel engine—ηd = 55% (Max.)
η = 1–
and
Thus, ηd > η p > η s Electric engine η = 90% (Max.) The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator. Q2 Q2 β = = W Q1 – Q2 For a reversible cycle Q1 T1 = Q2 T2 T2 ∴ β = T1 – T 2
T2 1 = T1 – T 2 T1 –1 T2 T2 T1
or
T2 = 1–η T1
or
T1 1 = T2 1–η ∴
β =
β =
1 1 –1 1–η 1–η η
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 01. The volume of a gas expands by 0·25 m3 at constant pressure of 103 Nm –2. The work done is equal to— (A) 2·5 erg (B) 250 joule (C) 250 watt (D) 250 newton 02. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V diagram. The work done during the cycle is— ↑ P
(2P, V)
(2P, 2V) B
A
D
C (P, 2V)
(P, V) V→ (A) PV 1 (C) PV 2
(B) 2 PV (D) Zero
03. 1 gm water at 100°C becomes 1671 c.c. steam at 100°C and at 1 atmosphere pressure when 540 cal heat is supplied. The external work done is nearly— (A) 2268 J (B) Zero (C) 169 J (D) 2100 J 04. If 10 moles of oxygen gas is heated at constant volume from 20°C to 40°C. The change in internal energy of the gas is— (A) 1400 cal
(B) 1000 cal
(C) 400 cal
(D) 1000 kilo cal
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 549
05. A bullet moving with a uniform velocity v stops suddenly after hitting the target and the whole mass melts. If the mass of the bullet be m, specific heat S, initial temperature 25°C, melting point 475°C and latent heat L. Then— (A) m L = m S (475 – 25) + 1/2 mv2/J (B) m S (475 – 25) + m L = 1/2 mv 2/J (C) mS (475 – 25) + m L = 2J/mv2 (D) mS (475 – 25) = m L + 2J/mv2 06. A waterfall is 84 m high. Assuming that half of the kinetic energy of the falling water gets converted into heat, the rise in temperature of water is— (A) 0·098°C
(B) 0·98°C
(C) 9·8°C
(D) 0·0098°C
07. 1 gm coal gives 2 kilo cal of heat effectively on burning. The coal costs 14 paise per kg. The cost to produce 1 kWh electrical energy is— (A) 60 paise
(B) 6 paise
(C) 1 paisa
(D) 100 paise
08. During the adiabatic expansion of 2 mole of a gas, the internal energy of the gas is found to decrease by 2 joule. The work done during the process on the gas will be equal to— (A) 1 joule (C) 2 joule
(B) – 1 joule (D) – 2 joule
09. If the amount of heat given to a system be 35 joule and the amount of work done by the system be – 15 joule, then the change in the internal energy of the system is— (A) – 50 joule (B) 20 joule (C) 30 joule (D) 50 joule 10. A gas expands from 50 litre volume to 250 litre at 105 N/m 2 atm pressure. Calculate the work done by the gas— (A) 2 × 107 J (B) 2 × 104 J (C) 2 cal (D) Zero 11. The kinetic energy of gas molecules will be half the value at room temperature (27°C), when temperature becomes— (A) 327°C (B) 123°C (C) – 123°C
(D) – 27°C
12. The average energy associated per molecule for a gas whose molecules have n degrees of freedom is— 1 nk T (A) nk T (B) 2 N 1 nk T 3 (C) (D) k T 2 N 2 13. The efficiency of Carnot engine working between the source at absolute temperature T1 and sink at absolute temperature T2 is— (A)
T2 T1
(C) 1 –
(B) 1 – T2 T1
(D)
T1 T2
T1 –1 T2
14. A Carnot engine is working between temperature 527°C and 27°C. Its efficiency will be— (A) 62·5% (C) 50%
(B) 37·5% (D) 25%
15. Theoretically the efficiency of Carnot engine is 100%, when the temperature of the sink is— (A) 0°C
(B) 0K
(C) 0°F
(D) 0°R
16. By opening the door of a refrigerator which is inside the room— (A) The room can be cooled to a certain degree (B) Room can be cooled to the temperature of the refrigerator (C) Ultimately room is slightly warmed (D) The room is neither cooled or warmed
21. Work done in an adiabatic change for a perfect gas depends only on—
(B) Work done
(B) Change in pressure
(C) Gibbs energy
(C) Change in temperature
(D) Internal energy
(D) Change in heat content 22. An ideal Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40% receives heat at 500 K, If the efficiency is to be 50%, the intake temperature for the same exhaust temperature is— (A) 900 K
(B) 800 K
(C) 700 K
(D) 600 K
23. A given mass of a gas expands from the state A to the state B by three paths 1, 2 and 3 as shown in figure. If W1, W2 and W 3 respectively be the work done by the gas along the three paths then— A
3
⎯⎯→
P
(A) Equal to 336 J
2 1
B
⎯⎯→ V
(B) More than 336 J (C) Less than 336 J
(A) W1 > W2 > W3
(D) Equal to zero
(B) W1 < W2 < W3
(A) Becomes 0 K (B) Remains unchanged (C) Becomes more than before (D) Becomes less than before 19. A perfect gas is heated in an isothermal way. The heat will be used to— (A) Do external work
(C) W1 = W2 = W3 (D) W1 < W2 and W 1 > W3 24. The specific heat of hydrogen gas at constant pressure is Cp = 3·4 × 103 calorie/kg°C and at constant volume is C v = 2·4 × 103 calorie/kg°C. If one kilogram hydrogen gas is heated from 10°C to 20°C at constant pressure the external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant pressure is—
(B) Increase temperature
(A) 103 calorie
(C) Increase internal energy
(B) 5 × 103 calorie
(D) Decrease internal energy
(C) 104 calorie
20. In which process will the change in internal energy be equal to the work done ?
(D)
105
calorie
25. The differential form of first law of thermodynamics is—
(A) Isothermal process
(A) d Q = d U – d W
(B) Adiabatic process
(B) d Q + d U = d W
(C) Isochoric process
(C) d Q = d U + d W
(D) Isobaric process
(D) d Q + d U + d W = 0
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 550
(A) Enthalpy
(A) Change in volume
17. One gram of ice, when melts, requires 336 joule of heat. The increase in internal energy will be—
18. A perfect gas is contained in a cylinder kept in vacuum. The cylinder suddenly bursts. The temperature of the gas—
26. Which of the following is not thermodynamic function ?
27. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77°C is to have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at— (A) 127°C
(B) 327°C
(C) 227°C
(D) 673°C
28. A Carnot’s engine first works between 200°C and 0°C and then between 0°C and – 200°C. The ratio of its efficiencies in these two cases is— (A) 1·000 (B) 0·722 (C) 0·577 (D) 0·340 29. In a Carnot’s engine, the temperature of the source is found to be 727°C and that of sink to be 27°C. The approximate efficiency of the engine is— (A) 0·7 (B) 0·9 (C) 0·4 (D) 1 30. A Carnot’s engine takes 300 calorie of heat at 500 K and rejects 150 calorie of heat to the sink. The temperature of the sink is— (A) 1000 K (B) 750 K (C) 250 K (D) 125 K 31. A lead bullet of mass 21 gm hits a hard target with a velocity 200 m/s. The total amount of heat produced would be— (A) 100 cal
(B) 1000 cal
(C) 500 cal
(D) 2000 cal
32. A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 50 N/m2 from volume of 10 m3 to a volume of 4 m3. Energy of 100 J is then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy is— (A) Increased by 400 J (B) Increased by 200 J (C) Increased by 100 J (D) Decreased by 200 J 33. In a thermodynamic process the pressure of a fixed mass of the gas is changed in such a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the
(C) 18 J
(D) 58 J
34. Find the change in internal energy of the system when a system absorbs 2 kilo-calorie of heat and at the same time does 500 joule of work— (A) 7900 J
(B) 8200 J
(C) 5600 J
(D) 6400 J
35. The efficiency of a Carnot’s engine working between steam point and ice point is— (A) 16·8%
(B) 26·81%
(C) 36·8%
(D) 46·8%
36. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator working between – 10°C and 20°C is— (A) 8·77
(B) 6·77
(C) 7·77
(D) 10·77
37. From what minimum height a block of ice has to be dropped in order that it may melt completely on hitting the ground ? (L is the latent heat of ice and J is joules constant) (A) mgh
(B) mgh /J
(C) JL/g
(D) J/Lg
38. A Carnot’s engine takes in 3000 k cal of heat from a reservoir at 627°C and it gives it to a sink at 27°C. The work done by the engine is— (A) 4·2 × 106 J (B) 8·4 × 106 J (C) 16·8 × 106 J (D) Zero
(A) 250 k cal
(B) 350 k cal
(C) 480 k cal
(D) 550 k cal
41. The P-V diagram shows the thermodynamic behaviour of an ideal gas. The work done in the complete cycle ABCDA is— A
12
8 6 4 D
2
1
(A) Equal to η (B) Greater than η (C) Less than η (D) Greater or less than η depending upon the nature of working substances
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 551
C 2
3 4 V (litre)
5
6
(A) 6000 J (B) 5000 J, done by the gas (C) 5000 J, done on the gas (D) 6 × 106 J done by the gas 42. The figure shows the changes in a thermodynamical system as it goes from A → B → C → A. It is given that UA = 0, UB = 30 J and heat given to the system in the process B → C is 50 J. C
90
60
30
0
39. An ideal heat engine working between temperature T1 and T 2 has efficiency η. If both the temperatures are raised by 100 K each, the new efficiency of the heat engine will be—
B
10
Pressure P
(B) 42 J
P (105 N/m2)
(A) 2 J
40. A Carnot’s engine operates with a source at 500 k and sink at 375 k. The engine takes in 600 k cal of heat in one cycle. The heat rejected to the sink per cycle is—
(N/m2)
gas. If the initial energy of the gas was 30 J, then the final internal energy will be—
B
A
E
D 2 1 Volume V (m3)
3
Which of the following inference from it is not correct ? (A) Internal energy of the system in state C is 80 J (B) Heat given to the system in process A → B is 90 J (C) Heat taken out from the system in process C → A is – 200 J (D) Work done in complete cycle ABCA is 120 J
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
Thermal Radiation Heat travelling by the process of radiation is called radiant heat or thermal radiation. When heat is propagated by radiation, no material medium is necessary for the transmission and if there is any medium it is not necessary that it should first get itself heated (as in case of conduction and convection) before it could assist the propagation of thermal radiation. Thermal radiation has following properties : (1) Thermal radiation travels through empty space with the velocity of light. (2) Thermal radiation exhibits properties of light. The only difference is that its average wavelength is greater than that of visible light. Therefore, the thermal radiation is called infrared radiation.
At a Glance Some Definitions Total energy density—The total energy density of radiations at any point is the total radiant energy per unit volume around that point for all the wavelengths taken together. It is generally expressed by u, its unit is joule m – 3. Spectral energy density—The spectral energy density for a particular wavelength is the energy per unit volume per unit range of wavelength. This is denoted by uλ. Total emissive power—The total emissive power of a body is the radiant energy emitted per unit time per unit surface area of the body for all wavelengths taken together. It is denoted by E. Spectral emissive power—The spectral emissive power of a body at a particular wavelength is the radiant energy emitted per unit time per unit surface area of the body within a unit wavelength range. It is denoted by E λ. Absorptive power—The absorptive power of a body at a particular temperature and for a particular wavelength is defined as the ratio of the radiant energy absorbed per unit surface area per unit time to the total energy incident on the same area of the body in unit time within a unit wavelength range. It is denoted by aλ. From these definitions
u =
∫
∞
∫ E dλ λ
0
Black Body and Black Body Radiation A perfectly black-body is one which absorbs all the heat radiations, of whatever wavelength, incident on it. It neither reflects nor transmits any of the incident radiation and, therefore, appears black whatever be the colour of incident radiation. Let a black-body be placed in an isothermal enclosure. The body will emit the full radiation of the enclosure after it is in thermal equilibrium with the enclosure. These radiations are independent of the nature of the substance. Clearly the radiation from an isothermal enclosure is identical with that from a black-body at the same tem-
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 554
In practice no substance possesses strictly the properties of a black-body. Lamp-black and the platinum black are the nearest approach to a black-body. However, the bodies showing close approximation to a perfectly blackbody have been constructed e.g., Ferry’s black body and Wien’s black-body.
Kirchhoff’s Law It states that the ratio of the emissive power to the absorptive power for a given wavelength at a given temperature is the same for all bodies and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black-body at that temperature. Expressed in symbols, it is eλ = Eλ aλ
Pressure of Radiation The radiation possesses the properties of light. Like light it exerts a small but definite pressure on the surface on which it is incident. For normal incidence on the surface, the pressure of radiation is equal to the energy density, i.e. I p = u= c The density of radiation u is simply the amount of radiation contained in unit volume and is, therefore, equal to I/ c where I is the intensity of radiation and c is the velocity of light. For diffuse radiation 1 Pressure = × Energy density 3 1 1 I p = u = 3 3 c
Stefan-Boltzmann Law
∞
uλd λ and E = 0
perature. Hence, the heat-radiations in an isothermal enclosure are termed as black-body radiation.
Stefan’s law states that the rate of emission of radiant energy by unit area of a perfectly black-body is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature. In symbols E = σT4 where σ is a constant and is called Stefan’s constant. The unit of σ is Jm– 2 s – 1K– 4 or Wm– 2 K– 4. The law in the above form refers to the emission only and not to the net loss of heat by the body after exchange with the surroundings. The law can be extended to represent the net loss of heat and may be enunciated as follows : A black-body at absolute temperature T surrounded by another black-body at absolute temperature T 0 not only
loses an amount of energy σT4 but also gains σT04, thus, the amount of heat lost by the former per unit time is given by E = σ (T4 – T 04) The law is known as Stefan-Boltzmann’s law as Boltzmann deduced it thermodynamically in 1884 and showed that the law strictly applies to emission from a perfectly black-body.
Newton’s Law of Cooling It states that the rate of loss of heat from a body is proportional to the mean excess temperature of the body over the temperature of its surroundings provided that the temperature excess is small, i.e. Rate of loss heat from the body ∝ Mean temp. difference Consider a hot body of mass m, specific heat s and at temperature θ1. Its temperature falls from θ 1 to θ2 in a time-interval t, when the temperature of surroundings is θ0. Then Rate of loss of heat from the body = ms
(θ 1 – θ 2) t
During cooling, average temperature of the body θ 1 + θ2 θ= , so the average temperature-difference bet2 ween the body and its surroundings is (θ – θ0). According to Newton’s law, we have
ms
(θ 1 – θ 2) ∝ (θ – θ0) t
ms
Consider that a hot body at temperature T is surrounded by a medium at temperature T′. According to Stefan’s law the net rate of loss of heat by the body is e σ (T4 – T′4) where e is emissive power of the body. Further suppose that temperature T of the body is only slightly higher than the temperature T′ of its surroundings both at T – T′ = ΔT T = (T ′ + ΔT)
so the rate of loss of heat is
e σ [(T′ + ΔT)4 – T′4] = e σ
[ ( T′ 4
1+
ΔT T′
)
4
]
– T′4
Since ΔT is very small compared to T′, hence ΔT 4 ΔT 1+ = 1+4 T′ T′
(
)
by the binomial theorem neglecting higher powers of ΔT/T′ ∴ Rate of loss of heat = eσ
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 555
[ ( T′ 4
Thus, Newton’s law is only a special case of Stefan’s law for small temperature differences.
Spectral Distribution of Black Body Radiation A perfectly black-body is a full radiator, i.e., it emits radiation of all possible wavelengths. Lummer and Pringsheim studied the spectral T3 > T2 > T1 distribution of energy (i.e., energy distribution among different wave- Eλ T3 lengths) in the radiation of a black body at different temperatures. T2 Spectral distribution curves so T1 λ obtained are shown in the figure. These curves have the same general shape for all temperatures and give the following information regarding the characteristics of black body radiation : (i) At a given temperature T, with increase in wavelength λ, the energy Eλ first increases, reaches a maximum and then decreases. It means that for a given temperature, the radiant energy emitted by a black-body is maximum for a particular wavelength.
Wien in 1896 established the following relation between temperature T and wavelength λm corresponding to maximum emission.
Derivation of Newton’s Law from Stefan’s Law
or
∝ ΔT The rate of cooling of a body depends upon the energy radiated by it. Hence, rate of cooling of a body is proportional to the mean temperature difference between the body and its surroundings.
(ii) As the temperature increases, the peak of the curve shifts towards shorter wavelength side, i.e., the maximum value of E λ is obtained at smaller value of λ.
(θ 1 – θ 2) = k (θ – θ0) t where k is a proportionality constant. or
= e σ (4T′3) ΔT
ΔT 1+4 T′
) ] –
T′4
λm T = constant = b (suppose) This is called Wien’s displacement law. The constant b is called Wien’s constant and has the value 0·2896 cm K or 0·2896 × 10– 2 mK (iii) As the temperature rises, the area enclosed by the curve goes on increasing. This area represents total energy E (for all wavelengths) emitted by a black body at that temperature. The areas enclosed by different curves, when measured, are found to be proportional to the fourth power of corresponding absolute temperatures. Thus E ∝ T4 This is Stefan’s law. (iv) Wien also proved that at a temperature T, the maximum emitted energy (Eλ)m corresponding to wavelength λ is proportional to the fifth power of that temperature (T5). Thus (Eλ)m ∝ T5 This shows that on raising temperature, the maximum energy (Eλ)m emitted corresponding to wavelength λ increases very rapidly.
SOME TYPICAL SOLVED EXAMPLES Example 1. A black-body radiates heat energy at a rate 1·45 × 10 3 Js– 1 m – 2 at a temperature of 127°° C. At what temperature will it radiate heat at the rate of 1·17 × 105 Js – 1 m – 2 ? Example 3. Estimate the temperatures at which a body would appear red and blue. The corresponding ° wavelengths of maximum emission are λ = 7500 A
Solution :
m
° respectively. and 5000 A (Given : Wien’s constant b = 0·3 cm-K) Solution Example 2. At what temperature a perfectly blackbody of area 104 m2 would radiate energy at the rate of 90·72 Wm – 2 ? (Given : σ = 5·67 × 10– 8 Wm– 2 K– 4) Solution
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1. A hot body will radiate heat most rapidly its surface is— (A) White and polished (B) White and rough (C) Black and polished (D) Black and rough
are at temperatures 4000 K and 2000 K. Which will emit more energy per second ?
2. The best black-body is— (A) A metal coated with a black dye (B) A lamp of charcoal heated to a high temperature (C) A glass surface coated with coal-tar (D) A hollow enclosure blackened inside and having a small hole
(D) None of these
3. The colour of a star indicates its— (A) Weight (B) Size (C) Distance (D) Temperature 4. Three stars A, B and C appear green, red and blue respectively. The star having minimum temperature is— (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) All are at the same temperature 5. Two sphere A and B of the same material having radii 1m and 4m
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 556
(A) A (B) B (C) Equal for both
6. Choose the wrong statement— (A) Black surface is a better absorber of radiation than a white one
8. The temperature of a piece of metal is raised from 27°C to 84°C. The rate at which the metal radiates energy nearly increases to— (A) Two times (B) Four times (C) Eight times (D) Sixteen times
(B) Rough surface is a better radiator than a smooth surface
9. Which of the following is roughly the rate of solar energy (in kW) falling per m2 surface area of the earth ? (A) 1 (B) 100 (C) 0·1 (D) 0·0001
(C) Highly polished surface is a very good radiator
10. Sun and moon emit maximum ° radiation for wavelengths 5000 A
(D) Black surface is a better radiator than a white one
and 15μ respectively. Taking temperature of the sun to be 6000 K, find the temperature of the moon— (A) 250 K (B) 200 K (C) 300 K (D) None of these
7. A polished plate with a rough black spot is heated to a high temperature and taken in a dark room. Then— (A) Spot will appear brighter than the plate (B) Spot will appear darker than the plate (C) Both will bright
appear equally
(D) Neither the spot, nor the plate will be visible
11. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same material and same external radii are heated to the same temperature and left to cool in the same environment. Which statement about their cooling is correct ? (A) Solid sphere cools faster (B) Hollow sphere cools faster
(C) Both spheres cool at the same rate (D) Nothing can be said as more information is required 12. The temperature of an incandescent body is increased and a graph between temperature T and λm, wavelength corresponding to maximum emission is drawn. Which of the following is the correct graph ? (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
●●●
13. A body cools in 7 minute from 60°C to 40°C. What will be the temperature after next 7 minute ? The temperature of surroundings is 10°C. Assume that the Newton’s law of cooling holds throughout the process— (A) 21°C
(B) 35°C
(C) 28°C
(D) 42°C
14. A steel block heated to 100°C is left to cool. The curve showing the correct cooling behaviour is—
Temperature
●●● C B
UPKAR’S
A Time
(A) A (C) C
(B) B (D) None of these
15. The intensity of radiation emitted by sun has its maximum value at a wavelength 510 nm and that emitted by the North star has the maximum value at 350 nm. If these stars behave like black bodies, the ratio of the surface temperature the Sun and the North star is— (A) 1·46 (B) 0·69 (C) 1·21 (D) 0·83
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
By : Dr. Lal & Jain Code No. 1512 Price : 155/-
Main Features ❖ General Knowledge ❖ Physics/Electronics ❖ Mathematics HINDI EDITION Code 1206 Rs. 160/Upkar Prakashan, AGRA-2 ● E-mail :
[email protected] ● Website : www.upkar.in
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 557
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
PHYSICS 1. A radioactive particle has a proper half-life 2 × 10–6 sec. If it is travelling with a speed of 0·9 C, then the lab distance covered by the beam of such particles 3 before th of them decay is 4 about— (A) 11 × 102 m (B) 25 × 102 m (C) 4·5 × 102 m (D) 5·2 × 102 m 2. A long straight conductor, carrying a current I, is bent to form an almost complete circular loop of radius r. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop has magnitude— μ0 (A) 2
( ) 1 1– π
μ0I (B) (1 + π) r μ0I (C) 2r (D)
μ0I 2r
6. The count rate from 100 cm3 of a radioactive liquid is C. Some of this liquid is now discarded. The count rate of the remaining liquid C is found to be after three half10 lives. The volume of the remaining liquid, in cm3, is— (A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 80 7. A rock solidified sometime in the past contained no lead (Pb206 ) but did contain some U238 . The half-life of U 235 is 4·5 × 109 years and other decays in the series have much lower halflives. At present the ratio of Pb atoms to U atoms is 7 : 1. The age of the rock roughly is— (A) 7 × 4·5 × 109 years (B) log 7 × 4·5 × 10 9 years
( ) ( ) 1 1– π
1+
(C) Potential difference can be expressed in watts per ampere (D) None of these
(C) 13·5 × 109 years (D) 9 × 109 years
1 π
3. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line ABC, where AB = BC. The average velocity of the particle from A to B is 10 m/s and from B to C is 15 m/s. The average velocity for the whole journey from A to C is— (A) 12·5 m/s
(B) 12 m/s
(C) 13 m/s
(D) 13·5 m/s
4. The penetrating powers of α, β and γ radiations in decreasing order, are— (A) γ, α, β
(B) γ, β, α
(C) α, β, γ
(D) β, γ, α
5. Choose the incorrect statement— (A) Forces always exist in pairs (B) Gases have only two specific heats
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 558
8. Assuming that 200 MeV of energy is released per fission of uranium atom, find the number of fission per second required to release 1 kilowatt power— (A) 8 × 1012
(B) 10 × 1013
(C) 15 × 1010 (D) 3·125 × 1013
(C) The potential energy gained by the object when it is on the top of the plane is 2700 joule (D) None of these 10. Crystalline state of matter means the following— (A) A representative unit is periodically repeated in all dimensions in the matter (B) A large number of different representative units are spread out in all directions in the matter (C) An array of basis points spread out inside the material (D) Smallest size grains, each having a single representative unit, are arranged periodically in the crystal 11. 30 joule of heat flows into a system. The system in turn does 50 joule of work. The internal energy of the system has— (A) Remained constant (B) Increased by 80 joule (C) Decreased by 80 joule (D) Decreased by 20 joule 12. The focal lengths of the objective and the eyepiece of a telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the telescope is focussed for distinct vision on a scale distant 2 m from its objective, then its magnifying power will be— (A) – 2
(B) – 4
(C) + 8
(D) – 8
13. Symbols having their usual meaning, which of the following does not represent energy ? (A) ms / t 1 (C) ms2/ t 2 2
(B) Q2R/ t
9. An inclined plane 5 m long has one end on the ground and the other end on a platform 3 m high. A man weighing 650 N wishes to push a 900 N object up this plane. The force of friction is 100 N. Which of the following conclusions from it is wrong ?
14. Velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium depends upon—
(A) The minimum force he must exert is 640 N
(B) Mechanical and electrical properties of the medium
(B) The minimum force required to hold the object on the plane without letting it slide is 440 N
(C) Electrical and magnetic properties of the medium (D) Mechanical and magnetic properties of the medium
(D) mgh
(A) Thermal properties of the medium
15. A tuning fork vibrating gently produces a note C. Another tuning fork produces the note C′, an octave higher in pitch than C and slightly louder than C. The speed of the wave produced by the second fork, as compared with that produced by the first fork is— (A) 8 times as great (B) 4 times as great (C) 2 times as great (D) The same 16. The distance between the first and the sixth minima in the diffraction pattern of a single slit is 0·5 mm. The screen is 0·5 m away from the slit. If the wavelength of light used is 5000 ° A, then the slit width will be— (A) 5 mm (C) 1·25 mm
(B) 2·5 mm (D) 1·0 mm
17. In sound frequency determines pitch. In light frequency determines— (A) Speed (B) Amplitude
20. The ratio of frequencies of two forks is 1 : 2. The phase difference between two perpendicular sound waves emitted by them is zero. The shape of Lissajous figure obtained will be a— (A) Circle (B) Ellipse (C) Straight line (D) Figure of 8 21. Two parallel slits 2·0 × 10 –4 m apart are illuminated by parallel rays of monochromatic light of wavelength 6·0 × 10– 7 m. The interference pattern is formed on a screen 2·0 metre from the slits. Distance on the screen from central maximum to first bright fringe is— (A) 6·0 × 10–3 m (B) 6·0 × 10–2 m (C) 6·0 ×
10–1
m
(D) None of these 22. If the velocity of sound in hydrogen is 1500 m, then its velocity in a mixture of three parts of oxygen and two parts of hydrogen by volume will be— (A) 385·7 m/s
(B) 474·4 m/s
(D) Colour
(C) 536·3 m/s
(D) 676·9 m/s
(in kg-m /s) (A) 0·043
(B) 0·037
(C) 0·61
(D) 0·91
19. Consider the following figure. When switch S is closed, the current through R2 is— R2 R1
•
• R3
• S
120V
• ~• F
(A) 1·5 A (C) 4·5 A
(B) 3 A (D) 6A
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 559
27. For crown glass-air the critical angle is 41° 3 0 ′ what is the limiting angle of the prism of crown glass after which no transmission of light through it is possible ? (A) 41°30′ (B) 83° (C) 90°
(D) None of these
28. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure and volume V are related as VPn = constant. The bulk modulus for the gas in this process is— 1/n
(C) State of polarisation
18. Suppose you are sitting in sun 1 for 2 hours. The area of your 2 body exposed normally to sun rays is 1·3 m2. The intensity of sun rays is 1·1 kW/m 2. If your body completely absorbs the sun rays then the momentum transferred to your body will be—
ing from zero to maximum value and the peak value will be— (A) 2 × 10–2 sec, 14·14 amp (B) 1 × 10–2 sec, 7·07 amp (C) 5 × 10–3 sec, 7·07 amp (D) 5 × 10–3 sec, 14·14 amp
23. Meniscus of pure water when a clean capillary tube of silver is dipped in water, will be— (A) Concave with ascent of water (B) Convex with depression of water (C) Plane with neither ascent nor depression of water (D) None of these 24. 56 tuning forks are arranged such that each fork produces 4 beats per second with its preceding fork. The frequency of the last fork is three times that of first. The frequency of the first fork will be— (A) 220 Hz (B) 110 Hz (C) 330 Hz (D) 440 Hz 25. Pressure × area × distance represents— (A) Energy (B) Power (C) Momentum (D) Impulse 26. The r.m.s. value of an A.C. of 50 Hz is 10 amp. The time taken by the alternating current in reach-
(A) nP (B) P (C) P/ n (D) Pn 29. A certain capacitor consists of two plates in air placed parallel to each other but not touching. The capacitor is connected briefly to a D.C. generator so that the difference in potential between the two plates becomes 12000 V. The capacitance of the capacitor is 1 μF. Which statement about the capacitor is incorrect ? (A) The charge on its either plate is 1·2 × 10–8 coulomb (B) The energy stored on its plates is 7·2 × 10–5 joules (C) When a thin uncharged glass plate is slipped between the two metal plates without touching them the charge on plates does not change but the potential difference between the plates decreases somewhat (D) None of these 30. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to two voltmeters A A
B
C
S
and B. A is ideal, having infinite resistance, while B has resis-
tance R. The capacitor is charged and then the switch S is closed. The readings of A and B will be equal— (A) At all times (B) After time RC (C) After time RC log 2 (D) Only after a very long time 31. A point source of light is placed at the focus of a concave lens. Which will be the correct statement for the refracted light ? (A) It will become parallel to the principal axis (B) It will converge to a point on the principal axis (C) It will diverge and appear to come from a point on the principal axis (D) None of these 32. A U-tube containing a liquid moves with a horizontal acceleration a along a direction joining the two vertical limbs. The separation between these limbs is d. The difference in their liquid levels is— 2da ad (A) (B) g g da a (C) (D) d tan g 2g
electric bulb. Which of the following statement is wrong ? (A) Total energy provided by the battery is 900 J (B) Energy dissipated in the battery is 288 J (C) Energy dissipated in the bulb is 612 J (D) None of these
(C)
(D)
35. Three wires of same length and cross-sectional area are connected in series to a battery. The wires are made of copper, silver and nichrome respectively. Pick out the correct statement. The potential difference across the copper wire is— (A) The same as across the silver and the nichrome wires (B) Greater than across the silver or the nichrome wire
()
(C) Greater than across the silver wire but less than that across the nichrome wire
33. When water cools from 7 °C to 1°C— (A) It contracts only (B) It expands only (C) It first contracts and then expands (D) It first expands and then contracts
(D) Less than that across the silver or the nichrome wire.
34. P is a point at a distance r from the centre of a solid sphere of radius a. The gravitational potential at P is V. If V is plotted as a function of r, which is the correct curve ?
36. One end of a long metallic wire of length L is tied to the ceiling. The other end is tied to a massless spring of spring constant k. A mass m hangs freely from the free end of the spring. The area of cross-section and the Young’s modulus of the wire are A and Y respectively. If the mass is slightly pulled down and released, it will oscillate with a time period T equal to— (A) 2π
m k
(B) 2π
m (YA + k L) YAk
(C) 2π
mYA kL
(D) 2π
mL YA
(A)
(B)
37. A battery of e.m.f. 2·50 V and internal resistance 2·00 Ω causes a steady current of 0·4 A to flow for 15 minutes through an
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 560
38. A simple pendulum of length l has a bob of mass m and swings with an angular amplitude φ. The tension in the thread is T. At a certain time, the string makes an angle θ with the verti-
(
cal θ
R—CH2OH R—C—OH > R | R —T/F 18. Benzaldehyde is condensed with aniline in presence of anhydrous zinc chloride, to give a Schiffs base.
—T/F
—T/F
7. An electric line of force in the x-y plane is given by the equation x 2 + y 2 = 1. A particle with unit positive charge, initially at rest at the point x = 1, y = 0, in the x -y plane, will move along the circular line of force.
19. Benzaldehyde on treatment with concentrated solution of NaOH undergoes a disproportionation reaction.
—T/F 8. A substance gives yellow fluorescence when white light is incident in it. It gives no fluorescence when red light or infrared rays are incident on it. —T/F 9. All points on the same horizontal must lie in the same plane. 10.
11.
12.
13.
—T/F The whole charge of a conductor cannot be transferred to another isolated conductor. —T/F A ring of radius ‘R’ carries a uniformly distributed charge + Q. A point charge – q is placed on the axis of the ring at a distance 2R from the centre of the ring and released from rest. The particle executes a S.H.M. along the axis of the ring. —T/F The root-mean square speeds of the molecules of different ideal gases at the same temperature are the same. —T/F Snow is better heat insulator than ice. —T/F
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 641
—T/F 20. The specific optical rotation of freshly prepared solution of glucose decreases slowly and finally becomes constant. —T/F 21. At lower concentration of electrolytes, the aggregation of sol particles is known as flocculation which can be reversed on shaking. —T/F 22. The maximum number of electrons which can be placed in an orbital with angular quantum number, 2 will be ten. —T/F H2O(g) at 1 atm pres23. For the equilibrium H2O (l) sure and 25°C, the standard free energy change is equal to zero. —T/F 24. Aniline on direct nitration with a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated H 2SO4 gives ortho and para nitroaniline. —T/F 25. Chlorobenzene of reacting with KCN easily give aromatic nitrile. —T/F
26. The normal density of a gas is equal to the product of vapour density of gas and normal density of hydrogen. —T/F 27. Element A combine with B to give AB and with C to give A2C, the formula of the compound formed by B and C will be B2C. —T/F 28. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a neutral oxide and hence it can be easily dried over concentrated sulphuric acid. —T/F 29. The pair of oxides of copper having formulae CuO and Cu 2O illustrates the law of multiple proportions. —T/F 30. When excess ethyl alcohol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid one mole of water is eliminated per mole of alcohol. —T/F
44. Pulse rate is equivalent to heart rate. —T/F 45. The haemoglobin of the foetus has a greater affinity for O2 than does adult haemoglobin. —T/F
Botany 46. The corn is really a solid very much condensed vertical rootstock with a large apical bud. —T/F 47. Sub-metacentric chromosome has unequal arms and assume L or J-shaped. —T/F 48. Agranal chloroplast bears bundle sheath in sugarcane leaves. —T/F
Zoology 31. Parts of nervous system that regulates digestion is peripheral nervous system. —T/F 32. Analogous organs explain ‘Divergent evolution’. —T/F 33. The ridges and lines of finger tips forming finger prints are produced by epidermis. —T/F 34. Descent with modification is the central theme of evolution. —T/F 35. Lymphatic capillaries remove excess fluids from tissues. —T/F 36. Duct of Botallo is vascular connection between aortic arch IV and aortic arch VI. —T/F 37. Exocytosis transport materials out of cells. —T/F 38. Skull of humans is monocondylic. —T/F 39. Eccrine glands secrete sweat and apocrine glands secrete oils. —T/F 40. Haversian system or osteon are anatomical unit of compact bone. —T/F 41. Mucous cells of small intestine release enzymes disaccharidase and peptidase. —T/F 42. Part of nervous system that regulates digestion is peripheral nervous system. —T/F 43. Protein catabolism breaks down cellular protein molecules into their individual amino acids which can be used as a source of energy during dieting or starvation. —T/F
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 642
49. Fruitfly having four pairs of chromosomes will have four linkage groups. —T/F 50. Leaves must synthesize amino acids before they can make any proteins. —T/F 51. Rhizophora is a viviparous mangrove plant. —T/F 52. In leaves, branched and non-articulated laticifers are not found. —T/F 53. Biological oxygen demand is the amount of oxygen required for biological oxidation by microbes in any unit volume of water. —T/F 54. In Allium, the megaspore mother cell divides only once giving rise to two haploid cells one of which develops a bisporic embryo sac. —T/F 55. Materials of biological origin that are applied commonly to maintain and improve soil fertility are known as biofertilizers. —T/F 56. Xylem transport usually organic nutrients from the leaves to the roots. —T/F 57. Nucleoli are chiefly formed by chromatin. —T/F 58. The trace element which causes the ‘black necrosis’ of stem due to the deficiency of boron. —T/F 59. The causal organism of ‘black rust of wheat’ is Puccinia graminis , a fungus. —T/F 60. Actual amounts of trace elements range from as little as 2-3 parts in 100 million parts upto 10–100 parts in 100 million. —T/F
Physics Q. What is the unit cell of a crystal ?
☞
Q. What is Presbyopia ?
☞
Q. Why are neutrons better particles than protons or α -particles for bombarding atomic nuclei ?
Q. A thin wheel can stay upright on its rim for a considerable length of time when rolled with a considerable velocity, while it falls from its upright position at the slightest disturbance, when stationary. Explain.
☞
☞
Q. What are fluorescence, phosphorescence and calorescence ?
Q. Why is it that only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom ?
☞
Q. Mountain roads rarely go straight up the slope but wind up slowly. Why ?
☞
☞
Chemistry Q. What the candles are made up of ? Q. What are the laws of friction ?
☞
Q. The magnitude of the resultant of two equal vectors may be equal to the magnitude of each of them. Explain.
☞
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 645
☞
Q. What is the quick vinegar process ?
☞
Q. What are essential oils ?
☞
Q. Why is the dipole moment of CHCl3 is less than that of CH Cl ?
☞
Q. The reaction which is known as chemical volcano reaction.
Q. What are the important uses of liquid crystals ?
☞
☞
Q. Why is the boiling point of H2O (100°° C) much higher than that of HF (–83°° C), even though both form hydrogen bonds and have similar molecular weights ? Q. What is the induced radioactivity ?
☞
☞
Q. What is the Olestra ?
☞
Q. What is hydrogenolysis of oils and fats ?
☞
Q. How is gas density calculated from ideal gas equation ?
☞ Q. What do you mean by per cent yield of a product of a certain reaction ?
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C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 646
Zoology Q. What diseases ?
are
autoimmune
☞
Q. What are Mnemonic devices ?
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Q. What is staph food poisoning ?
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Botany
Q. What Exons ?
are
Q. What is Persian melon ? What important elements does it contain ?
Introns and
☞
☞
Q. What is enthalpy and free energy ?
☞ Q. What is cellobiose ? What is its chemical constituent ?
☞
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 647
(Continued from Page 640 )
Q. What is Eumycota ? What are its characteristics ?
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Q. What do you mean by microbial biofilms ?
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Q. What is raffinose ? Where is it synthesized in plant ?
☞ Q. How does t-RNA transfer amino acid during protein synthesis ?
☞ ●●●
Just Released
Q. What do you mean by intervening nontranscribed sequences in eukaryotic genes ?
☞
By : Dr. Vijay Agarwal Translated by : Nidhi Sahni Code No. 1647 Price : Rs. 90/HINDI EDITION Code No. 215
Rs. 110/-
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
●●●
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 648
● E-mail :
[email protected] ● Website : www.upkar.in
1. The winner of the Sony Ericsson Open is— (A) Serena Williams (B) Venus Williams (C) Victoria Azarenka (D) Dinara Safin 2. Recently earthquake struck— (A) France (B) Germany (C) The Netherlands (D) Italy 3. India recently won cricket Test series against— (A) Australia (B) New Zealand (C) England (D) None of the above 4. India has recently launched its biggest ever auction of— (A) Public Sector undertakings (B) Gold and properties (C) Oil and gas blocks (D) None of the above 5. The winner of Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament is— (A) Argentina (B) India (C) Chile (D) Pakistan 6. Chandrayaan-1 has sent back recently— (A) Three full earth images of earth (B) First full earth image (C) Two full earth images (D) None of the above 7. Who among the following was recently disqualified from the Australian Grand Prix ? (A) Lewis Hamilton (B) Felipe Massa (C) Casey Stoner (D) None of the above 8. G-20 summit was recently held in— (A) Johannesburg (B) Manila (C) New York (D) London 9. The number of Jobless people may grow in 2009 by more than— (A) Ten crore (B) Six crore
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 649
(C) Five crore (D) Seven crore 10. India has been ranked…………in networked readiness index. (A) 54th (B) 53rd (C) 55th (D) 52nd 11. The winner of Malaysian Grand Prix is— (A) Lewis Hamilton (B) Jenson Button (C) Felipe Massa (D) None of the above 12. Who has won the ATP Tour’s Stefan Edbers sportsmanship award for a record fifth consecutive year ? (A) Rafael Nadal (B) Roger Federer (C) Mahesh Bhupati (D) None of the above 13. Goce is a— (A) Satellite by EU (B) China’s future moon mission (C) Japanese Space Mission (D) None of the above 14. LOHAFEX is a/an— (A) Antarctic Expedition (B) Artificial brain (C) Chinese Lunar Mission (D) None of the above 15. The first person to travel to space is— (A) Anna Bligh (B) Mardy Fish (C) Charles Simonji (D) None of the above 16. India on April 15, 2009 test-fired a nuclear version of nuclear capable— (A) Akash Missile (B) Prithvi-II Ballistic Missile (C) Naag Missile (D) Trishul Missile 17. The Coveted Ramnath Goenka Excellence in Journalism Awards have been conferred on— (A) 30 Journalists (B) 29 Journalists (C) 25 Journalists (D) 40 Journalists
18. The is— (A) (B) (C) (D)
winner of Qatar Motor GP Casey Stoner Lewis Hamilton Felipe Massa Fernando Alonso
19. The award which is an equal to Nobel Prize in Architecture is— (A) Pulitzer Prize (B) Abel Prize (C) Pritzker Prize (D) None of the above 20. The winner of Indian Open Badminton Championship is— (A) Muhammad Hafiz Hashim (B) Taufik Hidayat (C) Choong Tan Fook (D) Lee Wan Wah 21. The top golf player currently is— (A) Tiger Woods (B) Phil Mickelson (C) Sergio Garcia (D) Geoff Ogilvy 22. The Internet marked on March 13, 2009 its— (A) 30th anniversary (B) 25th anniversary (C) 20th anniversary (D) 40th anniversary 23. According to a recent UN report Indian Economy for 2009 may grow at the rate of— (A) 6% (B) 7% (C) 8% (D) 10% 24. Pi Hongyan has recently won the women’s title of— (A) Indian Open Tennis Championship (B) Indian Open Badminton Championship (C) Indian Volleyball Championship (D) None of the above 25. Michelle Bachelet is the President of— (A) Argentina (B) Peru (C) Chile (D) Bolivia 26. How many countries are there in G-20 grouping ? (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 22 (D) 23
27. The 5th World Water Forum was recently held in— (A) Istanbul (B) London (C) New York (D) Cairo 28. The Indian state where 40% girls marry before 18 is— (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Rajasthan 29. JEM stands for— (A) Justice for Equality and Movement (B) Justice and Equality Movement (C) Justice and Equality Mass Movement (D) Justice and Envy Movement 30. The prestigious Abel Prize has been bagged by— (A) K. Sri Nath Reddy (B) H. Sudarshan (C) Sivathanu Pillai (D) Mikhail Gromov 31. DRDO successfully tested an interceptor missile from the Wheeler island off the Orissa Coast for— (A) The third time (B) The fourth time (C) The second time (D) The fifth time
37. During recession World Billionaires Club has lost— (A) $ 2 trillion (B) $ 3 trillion (C) $ 4 trillion (D) $ 5 trillion 38. Who is presently the richest/ wealthiest person of the world ? (A) Warren Buffet (B) Lawrence Ellison (C) William Gates III (D) Mukesh Ambani 39. The Chameli Devi Jain Award has jointly been shared by— (A) Shabana Azmi and Vineeta Deshmukh (B) Shabana Azmi and Nirupam Subramanian (C) Nirupam Subramanian and Vineeta Deshmukh (D) None of the above 40. Who among the following three is not the finalist of Times Magazine most influential people of 2009 ? (A) Laxmi Mittal (B) Sonia Gandhi (C) Ratan Tata (D) Mukesh Ambani
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
32. “Bold Endeavours—How our Government Built America, and Why it Must Rebuild Now” is a book written by— (A) Joseph Stylitz (B) Lind J. Bilms (C) Felix Rohatyn (D) None of the above 33. World No-Tabocco Day observed on— (A) 31 May (B) 28 May (C) 26 May (D) 20 May
is
34. The winner of Deodhar Trophy is— (A) East Zone (B) West Zone (C) North Zone (D) South Zone 35. 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship has been won by— (A) Meghalaya (B) Manipur (C) Tripura (D) Mizoram 36. The best ranked golf player of India is— (A) Jyoti Randhawa (B) Jeev Milkha Singh (C) Arjun Atwal (D) S.S.P. Chourasia
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 650
●●●
Directions—(Q. 1–3) Following questions are based on the information given below— (i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’. (ii) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. (iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. (iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. 1. Which of the following means ‘M is nephew of N’ ? (A) M + R – N (B) N ÷ T – M + J (C) N ÷ T – M ÷ J (D) N + T × M ÷ J (E) None of these 2. Which of the following means ‘R is paternal grandfather of T’ ? (A) T ÷ K – M – R (B) R × M + T + D (C) R – M – T ÷ D (D) R – M × T ÷ D (E) None of these 3. How is K related to D in the expression : D ÷ F – T + K ? (A) Nephew (B) Niece (C) Nephew or Niece (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 4–6) These questions are based on the five threedigit numbers given below— 813 967 429 295 648 4. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the middle digit of the lowest number ? (A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 9 (E) 6 5. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the three digits of the highest number ? (A) 12 (B) 22 (C) 15 (D) 16 (E) 18
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 651
6. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the second highest number ? (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 5 (E) 8 Directions—(Q. 7–12) In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (E) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 8@1 3 © 9 % 5★7#6 $ 42δ Letter Code : FHRADIWEQUTJV P M B Conditions : (i) If the first unit in the group is a symbol and the last unit is an odd digit, the codes are to be interchanged. (ii) If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol, both are to be coded as ‘X’. (iii) If both the first and the last units of the group are symbols, both are to be coded as the code for the first unit. 7. 5★679# (A) TQJUIE (B) XQJUIX (C) TQJUIT (D) EQJUIT (E) None of these
10. 639δ8$ (A) JAIBFV (B) XAIBFX (C) VAIBFJ (D) JAIBFJ (E) None of these 11. %8562δ (A) WFEJMB (B) XFEJMX (C) BFEJMW (D) BFEJMB (E) None of these 12. 94%★$7 (A) IWPRVU (B) IPWQVU (C) UPWQVI (D) IPWVQU (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 13–17) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below— B, D, F, H, K, W, M and T are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. F is third to the left of D who is second to the left of H. B is fourth to the right of H. K is third to the right of M who is not an immediate neighbour of F. T is not an immediate neighbour of B or D. 13. Who is to the immediate right of T? (A) K (B) F (C) H (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these 14. Who is second to the left of B ? (A) T (B) K (C) D (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these 15. Who is sitting between D and B ? (A) T (B) F (C) M (D) W (E) Data inadequate
8. @195%8 (A) HRIEWF (B) XRIEWX (C) HRIFWH (D) FROEWH (E) None of these
16. Who is third to the left of H ? (A) W (B) F (C) B (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these
9. ©3%249 (A) XAWMPX (B) DAWMPI (C) IAWMPD (D) IWMAPD (E) None of these
17. What is T’s position with respect to W ? (A) Third to the right (B) Third to the left
(C) Second to the left (D) Second to the right (E) None of these 18. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFORM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three 19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) 19 (B) 35 (C) 15 (D) 21 (E) 27 20. In a certain code BOARD is written as ‘53798’ and TRAIN is written as ‘29714’. How is BAIT written in that code ? (A) 5714
(B) 5412
(C) 5712
(D) 5912
(E) None of these 21. How many such digits are there in the number 84315269 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ? (A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three 22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) Fluorine
(B) Methane
(C) Hydrogen (D) Chlorine (E) Nitrogen 23. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ODME using each letter only once in each word ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three 24. ‘BE’ is related to ‘FI’ and ‘LO’ is related to ‘PS’ in the same way as ‘RU’ is related to— (A) VY (B) WZ (C) VZ (D) VX (E) None of these
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 652
25. If only each of the consonants in the word GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ? (A) O
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
(E) None of these 26. What should come next in the following letter series ? AACACEACEGACEGI ACEGI (A) J
(B) K
(C) A
(D) L
(E) None of these 27. Mohan walked 20 metre towards North, took a left turn and walked 10 metre, then he took a right turn and walked 20 metre, again he took a right turn and walked 10 metre. How far is he now from the starting point ? (A) 20 metre (B) 30 metre (C) 40 metre (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 28–30) Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below— 857 391 482 576 214 28. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number after the rearrangement ? (A) 857
(B) 391
(C) 482
(D) 576
(E) 214 29. If ‘1’ is added to the first digit in each number and ‘1’ is subtracted from the middle digit in each number and five new numbers are obtained, which of the following will be the middle digit of the second highest number ? (A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) 0
30. The first and third digits of each number are interchanged. After this arrangement which one in the following will be the second smallest number ? (A) 857 (B) 391 (C) 482 (D) 576 (E) 214 31. As ‘Bright’ is related to ‘Dim’, in the same way high is related to— (A) low (B) sky (C) field (D) pit (E) None of these 32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) Mars (B) Jupiter (C) Earth (D) Uranus (E) Moon 33. In a certain code ‘BOND’ is written as ‘APME’. How is ‘MALE’ written in that code ? (A) NZMD (B) LBKF (C) NBMF (D) NBKE (E) None of these 34. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘54386179’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number as in the number after arranging in descending order ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four 35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) BD (B) KM (C) HK (D) PR (E) TV
According to the rules of the CSV Quiz, all entry forms were examined. As a result, the following participants have qualified for various prizes. CSV sends them greetings and good wishes for their bright future. It also places on record its appreciation for their inquisitive nature and expresses obligation for their co-operation.
PRIZE WINNERS First Prize Vijay Kumar New Medicare L. B. Palace, Kadam Kuan, Patna Bihar–800 003 Second Prize Rahul Kumar Singh S/o Shobha Sinha Nooranibagh Colony–5A, P.O.–Gulzarbagh, Patna Bihar–800 007 Third Prize Ravi Jaiswal C/o Gaurav Jaiswal Room No. 88, A. N. Jha Hostel, University of Allahabad, Allahabad U.P.–211 002
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C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 655
1. Two infinitely long linear charges, having 1 C/m charge each, are kept parallel at 1 m apart. Force per unit length by one linear charge on the other will be— 100 1 (A) N (B) N πε0 4πε0 (C)
λ2 2πε0
1 (D) N 2πε0
2. For what value of R in the given circuit will the current passing through 4Ω resistance be zero ?
4Ω
2Ω
R
6V 10V
4V
(A) 1·5 Ω
(B) 1 Ω
(C) 0·5 Ω
(D) 2 Ω
3. A sinusoidal voltage V = 200 2 sin (100t) volt is applied to a 1 μF capacitor through an a.c. ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be— (A) 1 mA (B) 10 mA (C) 20 mA (D) 40 mA 4. Human ear can hear a sound of wavelength— ° (A) 5000 A
(B) 5000 μ
(C) 5000 mm
(D) 5000 cm
5. The refractive index of air is 1·0003. The thickness of air column which can accommodate ° one wave of wavelength 6000 A
7. The alkene reacts with one molecule of hydrogen to give a compound which contains only one asymmetrical carbon atom. The structure of alkene is— CH3 CH3 | | (A) C3H7 — CH—C == CH2 H | (B) CH3—C == CH2 C2H5 | (C) CH3—C == CH2 (D) CH3—CH == CH—CH3 8. In the acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohols to olefins the intermediate species involved is— (A) A free radical (B) A carbanion (C) A carbonium (D) None of the above 9. Which of the following carbonates is most stable ? (A) CaCO3 (B) BaCO 3 (C) BeCO 3 (D) MgCO3 10. Silver mirror test can be used to distinguish the following pair— (A) Alcohol and phenol (B) Phenol and acid (C) Aldehyde and acid (D) Ketone and acid 11. The first step in nuclear premRNA splicing involves cleavage at the— (A) 5′ intron splice site
more than in vacuum is— (A) 2 m
(B) 2 cm
(D) 5′ exon splice site
(C) 2 mm
(D) 0·2 m
(A) Atomic weight (B) General solidification (C) Avogadro’s number (D) None of the above
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 656
(A) Locate breeding sites (B) Identify potential mutes (C) Prepare individuals for reproduction (D) All of the above 15. Which of the following animals is/are induced ovulator(s) ? (A) Rabbits (B) Ferrets (C) Mink (D) All of the above 16. In plants evergreen forests— (A) Sporophyte organisms produce spores (B) Spore becomes the sporophyte generation (C) Gamete becomes the gametophyte generation (D) Both (B) and (C) are correct 17. The fact about seed plants is/ are— (A) Complex vascular tissue (B) Pollen grains replace swimming sperms (C) Retention of megagametophyte within the ovule (D) All of the above are correct 18. The thermal algae can survive in a hot water spring at about— (A) 40°C
(B) 100°C
(C) 50°C
(D) 70°C
(B) 3′ intron splice site (C) Both 5′ and 3′ intron splice sites
6. The percentage of atoms in a natural sample of the pure element represented by a particular isotope is called the isotope’s—
14. In amphibians, courtship behaviour helps individuals—
12. Characteristics of phylum Platyhelminthes include— (A) Triploblastic (B) Acoelomate (C) Gut absent in Cestoidea (D) All of the above 13. Which of the following is not a member of class Bivalvia ? (A) Loligo (B) Mytilus (C) Venus (D) Anodonta
19. The physical barrier to avoid selfpollination between stamens and pistils is— (A) Dichogamy (B) Dicliny (C) Herkogamy (D) Heterostyly 20. The process of gene manipulation may play an important role in— (A) Pharmacognosy (B) Agriculture (C) Gene mutation and hybridization (D) All of the above ●●●
Rules for taking part in Quiz Contest of Competition Science Vision 1. 2.
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All students or those appearing in competitive examinations can take part in this contest. Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your envelope 'Quiz–Competition Science Vision' on the top left hand side. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will be admissible. In the form there are four squares against each question number. Contestants should put a cross (×) in the square for the answer they think is correct. Giving more than one answer to a question will disqualify it. Contestants should essentially write the number of questions they have solved. Marks will be deducted for wrong answers. The candidate sending the maximum number of correct answers will be given Rs. 600 as first prize. Next two candidates after that will get Rs. 400 and Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If there are more than one candidate eligible for a prize, the amount will be equally distributed among them. The decision of the editor will be final and binding in all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration of any court.
Solution to Quiz No. 134 Competition Science Vision Last date for sending 28th July, 2009 Name Mr./Miss/Mrs. ...........................…......................... Full Address ...................................….......................... .............................................................………………… ............................................................………………… State .......................Pin Code No. Age.................. Academic Qualification........................ Competition examination for which preparing .................................................................................... I have read and understood the rules of quiz contest of Competition Science Vision issued by Pratiyogita Darpan and agree to abide by them. ................................... (Signature) RESULT No. of questions attempted.......................................... No. of correct answers................................................. No. of wrong answers................................................... Marks obtained............................................................. ANSWER FORM Q. No. A
C.S.V. / July / 2009 / 657
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