Class11_NSO_Level2_2012

1

Class 11 |

Section-1 Physics 1.

At the instant a motor bike starts from rest in a given direction, a car overtakes the motor bike, both moving in the same direction. The speed time graphs for motor bike and



car are represented by OAB and CD, respectively. Then (A) At t = 18 s the motor bike and car are 180 m apart (B) At t = 18 s the motor bike and car are 360 m apart (C) The relative distance between motor bike and car reduces to zero at t = 27 s and both are 1080 m far from origin (D) Both (A) and (C)

2.

Given figure shows two blocks connected by a light string placed



on the two inclined parts of a triangular structure. The coefficients



of static and kinetic friction are 0.28 and 0.25 respectively at each of the surfaces. What is the minimum and maximum values of m for which the system remains at rest ?

(A)

9 32 kg, kg 4 3

9 32 kg, kg (B) 9 8

18 64 kg, kg 18 8

(C)

m

2 kg 45°

45°

3 16 kg, kg 3 4

(D)

3.

A uniform chain of mass m hangs from a light pulley, with unequal lengths hanging at the two



sides of the pulley. The force exerted by the moving chain on the pulley is (A) mg (B) > mg (C) < mg (D) May be any of these depending on the time elapsed

4.

A horizontal plane supports a fixed vertical cylinder of radius R and a particle is attached to the cylinder by a horizontal thread AB as shown in figure. A horizontal velocity v0 is imparted to the



particle, normal to the threading during subsequent motion. Point out the true statements. v0 (A) Angular momentum of particle about O remains constant. (B) Angular momentum about B remains constant. O R (C) Momentum and kinetic energy both remain constant. B A (D) Kinetic energy remains constant.

5.

Read the given statements and mark the correct option.



Statement-1 : To measure the current in a circuit element, the ammeter should be connected in series with the element.



Statement-2 : Connecting the ammeter in series with a circuit element causes atleast a small



(A) (B) (C) (D)

6.

Lengths and cross-sectional areas of four pieces of nichrome wire are (L, A), (2L, A), (L, 2A) and

reduction of the current in that element. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

(2L, 2A), respectively. If the same voltage difference V is applied across their lengths, which of

the wires will get the hottest in steady state? (A) Wire (L, A) (B) Wire (2L, A)

(C) Wire (L, 2A)

(D) Wire (2L, 2A)

2

| Class 11 7.

Two bodies A and B are moving towards a plane mirror with speeds vA and vB, respectively, as shown in the figure. What is the speed



8.

of image of A with respect to the body B? (A) vA + vB v A + vB (C) 2



A small block oscillates back and forth on a smooth concave surface of radius R as shown in the figure. What is the time period of small oscillation?



(B) vA – vB v A − vB (D) 2

(A)



π

R g

R (B) 2π g





(C)

2π



g R

(D) 0





Direction : Read the following passage carefully and answer questions number 9, 10 and 11.



In a thermally insulated tube of cross sectional area 4 cm2 there is a liquid of thermal expansion coefficient of 10 –3 K –1 flowing. Its velocity at the entrance is 0.1 m s –1. At the middle of the tube, a heater of a power 10 kW is heating the liquid. The specific heat capacity of the liquid is 1.5 kJ/(kg K) and it density is 1500 kg m –3 at the entrance.

9.

The rise in temperature of the liquid as it pass through the tube is 1000 1 500 (A) (B) (C) °C °C °C 9 9 9

10. What is the density of liquid at the exit? (A) 1450 kg m–3 (B) 1400 kg m–3

(C) 1350 kg m–3

(D) None of these

(D) None of these

11. How much bigger is the volume rate of flow at the end of the tube than at the entrance in cubic meters?

(A) 9 × 10–5

1 × 10−5 3

(B)

(C)

4 × 10−5 9

(D) None of these



12. An observer turns on an electric field across a sealed glass tube and the electrons from one of the electrodes move toward the other, horizontally toward right. A magnetic field is applied pointing

towards the observer. The force acting upon the electrons points (A) To the right (B) To the left (C) Upward

(D) Downward

13. A person brings a mass of 1 kg from infinity to a point A. Initially the mass was at rest but it moves at a speed of 2 m s–1 as its reaches A. The work done by the person on the mass is – 3J.

The potential at A is (A) –3 J Kg –1

(B) –2 J Kg –1

(C) –5 J Kg –1

(D) None of these

14. The tension in a string holding a solid block below the surface of a liquid (where rliquid > rblock) as

shown in the figure is T when the system is at rest. Then, what will be the tension in the string



if the system has upward acceleration a? a  (A) T  1−   g 



a  (C) T  − 1 g  

a  (B) T  1+  g   a (D) T g

a

15. A police car with a siren of frequency 8 kHz is moving with uniform velocity 36 km hr – 1 towards a tall building which reflects the sound waves. The speed of sound in air is 320 m s– 1. The frequency of the siren heard by the car driver is (A) 8.50 kHz (B) 8.25 kHz (C) 7.75 kHz (D) 7.50 kHz

3

Class 11 |

Chemistry 16.

Which of the following statements are wrong? 1. Barium is a better reducing agent than magnesium. 2. Ba(OH)2 is more basic than Be(OH)2. 3. Mg2+ are precipitated as MgCO3 by ammonium carbonate in presence of ammonium chloride. 4. MgCl2 gives colouration in flame test. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

17. Pick the correct order of stability of reactive intermediates.

(A)

–

–

–

CH2

CH2

CH2

> NO2





>

–

HC



CH3

(B) >

>

>

>

CH3

(C)

(D)



18. Study the given series of reactions carefully.

W turns lead acetate paper black. Identify Z. (A) KCO3 (B) BaCO3

(C) KCl

(D) BaS

19. Argon gas liberated from crushed meteorites does not have the same isotopic composition as atmospheric argon. The gas density of a particular sample of meteoritic Ar was found to be 1.481 g/L at 27°C and 740 torr. What is the average atomic weight of this sample of argon? (A) 4.93 g/mol (B) 37.5 g/mol (C) 3.75 g/mol (D) 49.3 g/mol 20. Which of the following is anti-aromatic? O + (A) (B)

O

(C)



(D)

O

O N H

21. The first ionization potential of Mg, Al, P and S follows the order (a) Mg < Al < P < S (b) Al < Mg < P < S (c) Al < Mg < S < P

(d) Mg < Al < S < P

22. The number of geometrical isomers of the PBr2Cl3 molecule with finite dipole moment is/are (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 23. Pick the correct order of decreasing C – H bond energy of

the bonds shown in the given compound. (a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (b) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1



(c) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

24.

When NaBH4 is dissolved in water, – (A) Na+ and BH4 ions are formed which are stable (B) It decomposes with the evolution of H2 – – (C) BH4 is formed initially decomposes to give OH ions, which prevent further decomposition (D) NaH and B2H6 are produced.

(d) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4

4

| Class 11

25. The IUPAC name of which of the following compounds is incorrectly written? OH O



(A)

NHCH3

4-ethyl-3-hydroxy-N-methylhexanamide

CH2





(B) CH3 CH3

(C)



trans-1-isopropenyl-3-methylcyclohexane



2-(1-cyclobutenyl)-1-hexene

OH



(D)





2-(2-methylbutyl)-1-cyclopentanol

26. What masses of P4O6 and P4O10 respectively will be produced by the combustion of 2 g of P4 in

2.00 g of oxygen leaving no P4 or O2? (A) 1.98 g, 2.02 g (B) 3.5 g, 2.7 g

(C) 2.98 g, 1.5 g

(D) 1.01 g, 1.45 g

27. The final product S formed in the following reaction sequence is

(a) Naphthalene

(b) Tetralin

(c) Benzene

(d) Anthracene

28. An electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 1.50 times as much energy as the minimum

required for it to escape from the atom. What is the wavelength of the emitted electron? (A) 1.5 × 10–6 m (B) 1.09 × 10–18 m (C) 4.7 × 10–10­ m (D) 2.1 × 10–12 m

29. In which of the following reactions, gas is not evolved?

(A) NaOH + P4 (C) KO2 + CO2

Current

(B) NH4HSO4 (D) Ba(OH)2 + H2O2



30. How many mole of NH3 must be added to 1.0 L of 0.750 M AgNO3 in order to reduce the silver ion

concentration to 5.0 × 10–8 M? (A) 0.4 mol (B) 1.5 mol

(C) 0.75 mol

(D) 1.9 mol

Section-2 MATHEMATICS 31. From 50 students taking examinations in subjects A, B and C, 37 passed A, 24 passed B and 43 passed C. At most 19 passed A and B, at most 29 passed A and C and at most 20 passed B and

C. The largest possible number that could have passed all three examinations is ______. (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 14

 cos x − cos a  32. lim   = _____. x → a  cot x − cot a  1 3 1 sin a cosec 3 a (A) (B) 2 2

(C) sin3a

(D) cosec3a

5

Class 11 |

33. Two persons A and B play a game where each is asked to select a number from 1 to 20. If the two numbers match, both will win a prize. The probability that they will not win a prize in a single trial is _______.

(A)

13 20

(B)

17 20

(C)

19 20

(D) None of these

34. A line passes through the points (6, –7, –1) and (2, –3, 1). The d.c.'s of the line so directed that

the angle made by it with positive direction of x-axis is acute, are ______. 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 (A) (B) − , , (C) (D) ,− ,− ,− , , , 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

35. A pie chart is to be drawn for representing the data. Value of central angle for food and clothing is _______.

(A) 40°



(B) 28°



(C) 150°



(D) 144°

36. A ray of light incident at the point (–2, –1) gets reflected from the tangent at (0, –1) to the circle x2 + y2 = 1. The reflected ray touches the circle. The equation of the line along which the incident

ray moved is _______. (A) 4x – 3y + 11 = 0

(B) 4x + 3y + 11 = 0

 a 37. If the (r + 1) term in the expansion of  3 + b  then the value of r is _______. th



(A) 9

(C) 3x + 4y + 11 = 0 b  3  a

(B) 10

(D) None of these

21

contains a and b to one and the same power,

(C) 8

(D) 6

38. The value of the expression 1⋅(2 – w)(2 – w2) + 2⋅(3 – w)(3 – w2) + ..... + (n – 1)(n – w)(n – w2), where w is an imaginary cube root of unity is _______.

2

(A)  n(n + 1)   2 

2

(B)  n(n + 1)  − n  2 

2

(C)  n(n + 1)  + n  2 

(D) None of these

39. Let P be the point (1, 0) and Q a point of the locus y2 = 8x. The locus of mid point of PQ is _____.

(A) x2 + 4y + 2 = 0

(B) x2 – 4y + 2 = 0

(C) y2 – 4x + 2 = 0

(D) y2 + 4x + 2 = 0

40. Eight chairs are numbered 1 to 8. Two women and three men wish to occupy one chair each. First, the women choose the chairs from amongst the chairs marked 1 to 4, and then the men select the

chairs from amongst the remaining. The number of possible arrangements is ________. (A) 4C3 × 4C2 (B) 4C2 × 4P3 (C) 4P2 × 4P3 (D) None of these 1 sinq are in G.P., then the general value of q is ______. 6 n π π π (B) 2n π ± , n ∈ Z (C) n π + ( −1) , n ∈ Z (A) 2n π ± , n ∈ Z 3 3 6

41. If tanq, cosq,

(D) n π +

π ,n ∈ Z 3

42. A rectangular hyperbola whose centre is C is cut by any circle of radius r in four points, P, Q, R

and S. Then CP2 + CQ2 + CR2 + CS2 is equal to _______. (B) 2r2 (C) 3r2 (A) r2

(D) 4r2

6

| Class 11

43. If r and s are the roots of the equation lx2 + mx + n = 0, then the value of

(B)

(A) m2 – 4ln

m 2 − 4ln 2l

(C)

m 2 − 4ln n2

1 r

2

(D)



+

1

is ______. s2 m 2 − 2ln n2

44. Value of 32 cos6 20° – 48 cos4 20° + 18 cos2 20° – 1 is ________.

(A) −

1 2

(B)

1 2

(C)

3 2

(D) None of these

45. Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows :

(i) E and F have one letter between them; (ii) G is to the right of A; (iii) B is to the immediate left of F; (iv) There is one letter between D and A; (v) D is not G's neighbour; (vi) G and F have



two letters between them. Which letter is second to the left of letter A? (A) C (B) B (C) D

(D) E

46. Study the number series given below and answer the question.

6 7 8 9 9 8 7 9 7 7 8 9 7 8 7 6 9 6 8 9 7 7 9 8 9 7 6 8 8 7



How many such numbers are there in the given series each of which when subtracted from the



following number, has a difference of 2 ? (A) Three (B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Nine

47. Some equal cubes are arranged in the form of a solid block as shown in the given figure. All the visible surfaces of the block (except the bottom) are painted. How many cubes do not have any of the faces painted?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

27 32 36 40

48. Select a figure from the options which will continue the series established by the Problem Figures.



(A)

(B)



(C)



(D)



49. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X).



(A)



(B)



(C)



(D)

7

Class 11 |

50. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Rajesh said, "she is my grandfather's only son's mother".

How is the woman related to Rajesh? (A) Daughter (B) Sister

(C) Grandmother

(D) Niece

OR

Biology 31.

Refer the given figures and read the following questions. (i) These organisms belong to which group? (ii) Noctiluca is a special organism. Why? (iii) They are all very useful. True or false. (iv) They cause algal blooms. True or false. Select the option that answers the above mentioned questions correctly. (A) (i) Brown algae, (ii) Smallest bioluminescent organism, (iii) False, (iv) True (B) (i) Dinoflagellate, (ii) First bioluminescent organism discovered, (iii) False, (iv) True (C) (i) Diatoms, (ii) Causes human disease, (iii) True, (iv) False (D) (i) Diatoms, (ii) Smallest bioluminescent organism, (iii) True, (iv) False

32. Given below are four incomplete floral formulae. Select the option that correctly completes the floral formula and matches with its family.



(A) (B) (C) (D)

Families

(i) G2

(ii)

(iii)

Solanaceae Compositae Fabaceae C1+2+(2) Liliaceae P(9)

(iv) C(3+3)

33. Enzymes are biocatalysts. These mediate a number of physico-chemical processes. Some examples

of enzyme-mediated reactions are given below. Select the odd one out. (B) Unwinding of the two strands of DNA (A) Dissolving CO2 in water (C) Hydrolysis of sucrose (D) Formation of peptide bond

34.



The above figure shows four types of animals (P-S). Select the correct option with respect to a



common characteristic of two of these animals. (A) Q and R have cnidoblasts for self defence. (C) R and S have a true coelom.

(B) The bodies of P and S show true segmentation. (D) Both P and Q exhibit metagenesis.

35. Most of protons, which play a crucial role in oxidative phosphorylation, enter the mitochondrion

as (A) C3H4O3

(B) C6H12O6

(C) CO2

(D) O2

8

| Class 11

36. The graph shows the effect of different wavelengths of light on processes taking place in green plants.



What can be deduced from the solid line Y? (A) Photosynthesis is least active in green light and most active in blue and red light. (B) Photosynthesis is most active in green light and least active in blue and red light. (C) Respiration is least active in green light and most active in blue and red light. (D) Respiration is most active in green light and least active in blue and red light.

37. An experiment was performed on a young plant to measure the rate of transport in the phloem. The same plant was then placed in a bell jar and a chemical was placed in the bell jar to absorb all the oxygen present. The rate of transport in the phloem decreased and then stopped. What is the reason for this? (A) Companion cells no longer produce sufficient energy. (B) Mitochondria in the xylem vessels cease to function. (C) Photosynthesis cannot occur in the bell jar. (D) Translocation occurs only by diffusion. 38. The pulse rate of a girl was measured every two minutes and plotted on the graph as shown.

Her exercise started at S and finished at T but her pulse rate did not start to drop until U. Which process(es) would occur during the T-U interval? (i) Accumulation of lactic acid in muscle cells (ii) Increased supply of oxygen to the muscle cells (iii) Increased transport of carbon dioxide to the lungs



(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii) only

T Pulse rate S 0

Time

(D) (ii) and (iii) P

39. Which of the following statements is correct for the given figure?

(A) The blood components such as RBC, WBC and plasma proteins are found in



P but not in Q.



(B) Urea is present in parts P, Q, R, S and T.



(C) Glucose is present in part Q but not in part S.



(D) All of these

40. The given diagrams show two sections through the eye of the same person. What happens to achieve the changes from the eye in diagram X to the eye in diagram Y under the (A) (B) (C) (D)

different conditions? Ciliary muscles Iris radial muscles Iris circular muscles Contract Contract Relax Contract Relax Contract Relax Contract Relax Relax Relax Contract

U

Q R T S

9

Class 11 |

41. In an experiment, a student is threatened by a large dog and has to run away to escape. During the incident the adrenaline level in the student's blood is measured. The graph given shows the results. Which statement explains the change in adrenaline level between points X and Y? (A) Adrenaline is being broken down by the liver. (B) Adrenaline is being excreted by the kidneys. (C) Adrenaline is being returned to the endocrine gland that produced it. (D) Adrenaline is being used up by the contracting muscles. 42. Read the given statements indicating whether the first item is greater than (G), the same as (S), or less than (L) the second item. (i) Hydrogen ion concentration in lysosomes. GSL Hydrogen ion concentration in cytoplasm of cells. (ii) Concentration of K+ in intracellular fluid. GSL Concentration of K+ in interstitial fluid. (iii) Size of mitochondrial genome. GSL Size of nuclear genome. (iv) Concentration of Ca2+ in intracellular fluid. GSL Concentration of Ca2+ in interstitial fluid. Select the correct option regarding this: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) G G S L (B) L S L G (C) G G L L (D) L S G L 43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I (a) Decreased muscle glycogen content (b) Increased muscle mass (c) Increased speed of contraction of muscles (d) Bone resorption

(A) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(v), d-(i) (C) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(vi), d-(i)

Column-II (i) Epinephrine (ii) Inhibin (iii) Testosterone (iv) Cortisol (v) PTH (vi) Thyroid hormones (B) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(v) (D) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(vi), d-(v)

44. In complete heart block (i) fainting may occur because the atria are unable to pump blood into the ventricles (ii) ventricular fibrillation is common (iii) the atrial rate is lower than the ventricular rate (iv) fainting may occur because of failure of ventricular contraction for a prolong period. Which among these is/are correct regarding complete heart block ? (A) (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

10

| Class 11

45. Refer the given figure and select the incorrect option. (A) The labelled structure P is the main site at which hypothalamic hormones leave the brain. (B) The part labelled Q is the main site at which angiotensin II acts to increase water intake. (C) The part labelled R is the chemoreceptor area that is a trigger zone for vomiting. (D) The labelled structure S is the main site at which vasopressin acts to decrease cardiac output.

Q

R P S

46. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement I : It is necessary to incorporate forest soil along with a forest tree, when it is transplanted to a treeless area.



Statement I : Forest trees do not survive well without special fungi that form associations, known as mycorrhizae, with the tree roots.



(A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.



(B) Both statements I and II are correct but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.



(C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.



(D) Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect.

47. Nicotiana tabacum, when exposed to more than critical period of light fails to flower. Why?

(A) Some plants require a periodic exposure to alternate light and dark for its flowering response. This phenomenon is termed phototropism.



(B) The long day plants, when exposed to light period in excess of critical period fail to flower.



(C) Those plants which require exposure to light period at critical or more than critical period for its flowering response are called short day plants.



(D) Nicotiana is a short day plant.

48. Read the following statements regarding the given figure.



(i) The parts labelled X and Y are anal style and anal cercus respectively.



(ii) Anal cercus contains audio-receptors to capture sound.



(iii) P is a male cockroach while Q is a female cockroach.



(iv) The structure marked as Z is a brood pouch.



(v) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6 th segment of P.



Select the correct statements. (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (C) (i) and (iii)

49.

What happens in plants during vascularisation ? (A) Differentiation of procambium, formation of primary phloem followed by formation of primary xylem (B) Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of primary phloem and xylem simultaneously (C) Formation of procambium, primary phloem and xylem simultaneously (D) Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of secondary xylem.

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)

11

Class 11 |

50. Given below is a graphical representation showing influence of light intensity and carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of photosynthesis in green alga.



Which of the following statements justifies the graph ?



(A) On increasing the light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis increases initially but soon becomes constant. Thus, light intensity is a rate limiting factor. (B) The number of chlorophyll molecules limits the rate of photosynthesis. (C) Photosynthesis is independent of light intensity provided there is no total darkness. (D) All of these



SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK