Class-7 Cbse Dpps (All Subjects)

 VIBRANT ACADEMY 

ENGLISH 

(India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY DAILY PRACTICE P ROBLEMS SHEET

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION Direction (1 to 5) :Read the following passage p assage carefully and answer the questions giv en below each passage.

The camel is the oldest of domestic animals. It has been used for thousands of years, by the desert people of Africa and Asia to supply many of their needs. On the fertile edges of the desert, camels pull ploughs, the wheels to irrigate the fields and carry goods to market. In the desert itself, they are still almost the only means of transport. They supply food, milk and clothing in the form for m of wool and leather. This useful animal is well adapted to life in harsh, arid lands. The Arabian camel has one hump; the Bactrian camel has two. The hump is, in fact, a store of fat which is used as a source of energy when food and water are scarce. The camel can take up to 100 litres of water in ten minutes. The camel has broad, soft feet for a steady grip in the sand. A thick skin protects it from the fierce daytime sun and bitterly cold nights. The camel's eyes have three eyelids to help keep out sand; its ears and nose are also adapted to keep out sand storms. Often called 'The ships of the desert', they can carry loads of  200 kilos and more, travelling up to 160 kilometres a day. 1.

Camel is the mainstay of the desert people of the world because it_____. (A) do does ma many works re relating to to th their lilife (B) pl ploughs (C) transports things (D) supplies them many things

2.

Without camels the life of the desert people shall stop because_____. (A) camels supply them many things (B) they do various duties (C) (C) the they y prov provid ide e them them with with essen essenti tial al thin things gs (D) (D) the they y are are dome domest stic ic anim animal als s

3.

Camels don't drink water almost daily because_____. (A) they store it in their bodies (B) they don't have much thirst (C) their their taking taking up much much more water lasts lasts long long (D) they they have no liking liking for it

4.

It is rightly said that camels are called the ships of the desert because_____. (A) (A) with withou outt the them m des deser ertt lif life e is not not poss possib ible le (B) (B) the they y do many many jobs jobs (C) they they help help the desert desert people people in many ways ways (D) they they are are neve neverr tired tired

Direction (5 to 7) :Read the following passage p assage carefully and answer the questions giv en below each passage.

But I did not want to shoot the elephant. I watched him beating his bunch of grass against his knees, with the preoccupied grandmotherly air that elephants have. It seemed to me that it would be murder m urder to shoot him. I had never shot an elephant and never wanted to. (Somehow it always seems worse to kill large animal.) Besides, there was the beast's owner to be considered. But I had got to act quickly. I turned to some experienced-looking Burmans who had been there when we arrived, and asked them how the elephants had been behaving. They all said the same thing; he took no notice of you if you left him alone, but he might charge if you went too close to him. 5.

The phrase 'Preoccupied grandmotherly air' signifies_____. (A) being totally unconcerned (B) pretending to be very busy (C) a very superior attitude (D) calm, dignified and affectionate disposition

6.

From the passage it appears that the author was_____. (A) an inexperienced hunter (B) kind and considerate (C) possessed with fear (D) a worried man

7.

The author did not want to shoot the elephant because he_____. (A) was afraid of it (B) did not have the experience of shooting big animals (C) did not wish to k ill animal which was not doing anybody any harm (D) did not find the elephant to be ferocious

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1

Direction (8 to 11) :Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below each passage.

8.

Harold, a professional man who had worked in an office f or many years, had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then becam e the nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realised that he himself was c overed with these things, and he woke up screaming. scr eaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures this dream dramatised for f or Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the "security bug" and took up freelance work. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures_____. (A) in his village (B) in his own house (C) in a different land (D) in his office

9.

Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of 'loathsome creatures'? (A) Security bug and sl slimy tentacles (B) Fe Fearful dream an and slug-like animal mals (C) (C) Sli Slimy my tent tentac acle les s and and slug slug-l -lik ike e ani anima mals ls (D) (D) slu slugg-li like ke anim animal als s and and secu securi rity ty bug bug

10.

The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that_____. (A) Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security (B) Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams (C) Harod started tolerating social victimisation (D) Harold killed all the bugs troubled him

11.

Harold's dream was fearful because_____. (A) it brought him face to face with reality (B) it was full of vivid pictures of snakes (C) he saw huge elephant in it (D) in it he saw slimy creatures feeding f eeding on people's bodies

Direction (12 to 15) :Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below each passage.

Laws of nature are not comm ands but statements of acts. The use of the word "law" in this context is rather  unfortunate. It would be better to speak of uniformities in nature. This T his would do away with the elementary fallacy that a law implies a law giver. giver. If a piece of matter does not obey a law of nature it is not punished. On the contrary, contrary, we say that the law has been incorrectly started. 12.

If a piece of matter violates nature's law, it is not punished because_____. (A) it is not binding to obey it (B) there is no superior being to enforce the law of nature (C) it cannot be punished (D) it simply means that the facts have not been correctly stated by law

13.

Laws of nature differ from man-made laws because_____. (A) the former state facts of Nature (B) they must be obeyed (C) they are natural (D) unlike human laws, they are systematic

14.

The laws of nature based on observation are_____. (A) conclusion conclusion about about the the nature of of the universe. universe. (B) true and and unfalsifiab unfalsifiable. le. (C) (C) figm figmen ents ts of the the obse observ rver er imag imagin inat atio ion. n. (D) (D) subj subjec ectt to to chan change ge in the the lig light ht of of new new fact facts. s.

15.

The author is not happy with word 'law' because_____. (A) it connotes rigidity and harshness (B) it implies an agency which has made them (C) it does not convey the sense of nature's uniformity (D) it gives rise to false beliefs

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2

DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : SENTENCES Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. 2.

The tennis team won the state championship. The subject is (A) tennis (B) team (C) championship

(D) None of these

Several thousand people watched the parade. The predicate is (A) several (B) watched (C) parade

(D) None of these

3.

Identity theft is a significant problem in the United States. The predicate is (A) theft (B) is (C) problem (D) None of these

4.

The study of human populations is called demography dem ography.. The predicate is (A) study (B) populations (C) is called

(D) None of these

We were puzzled by her explanation. The subject is (A) we (B) were puzzled (C) explanation

(D) None of these

Sally never finishes her homework on time. (A) Exclamatory (B) Interrogative

(C) Imperative

(D) Declarative

Who helped you feed the dogs? (A) Declarative (B) Exclamatory

(C) Interrogative

(D) Imperative

I can't believe they won the game! (A) Interrogative (B) Imperative

(C) Exclamatory

(D) Declarative

Did you finish your homework last night? (A) Exclamatory (B) Declarative

(C) Imperative

(D) Interrogative

Watch the ball. (A) Interrogative

(B) Exclamatory

(C) Declarative

(D) Imperative

Mr. Brown can be very strict. (A) Imperative (B) Interrogative

(C) Declarative

(D) Exclamatory

Wash the dishes before dinner. dinner. (A) Declarative (B) Imperative

(C) Interrogative

(D) Exclamatory

I am so excited, we are going to Paris! (A) Exclamatory (B) Interrogative

(C) Imperative

(D) Declarative

Did you see that baseball game? (A) Interrogative (B) Exclamatory

(C) Imperative

(D) Declarative

Mrs. Smith needs help watering her roses. (A) Declarative (B) Imperative

(C) Interrogative

(D) Exclamatory

5. 6. 7. 8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

The professor handed out a syllabus the first day of class. The subject is (A) professor (B) syllabus (C) class (D) None of these

17.

Most colleges offer several computer science courses. The predicate is (A) colleges (B) offer (C) courses

(D) None of these

Typing Typing is an important skill. The subject is (A) typing (B) is

(D) None of these

18.

19.

20.

(C) skill

Everyone recognizes the name Oprah. The subject is (A) Everyone (B) name (C) Oprah

(D) None of these

 A schedule schedule helps students with time management. The predicate is (A) schedule (B) helps (C) management

(D) None of these

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3

DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : NOUNS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6.

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

The noun form of ‘responsible’ is (A) responsability (B) responsibality

(C) responsibility

(D) responsibly

The proper noun in the following is (A) Kabir (B) market

(C) army of soldiers

(D) bravery

The masculine gender of the noun 'bee' is (A) drone (B) fly

(C) drake

(D) bee

John has hatred for swimming. The abstract noun is (A) John (B) for (C) swim

(D) hatred

The correct collective noun in the following is (A) a pride of peacocks (C) a herd of peacocks

(B) a flock of peacocks (D) a colony of peacocks

The noun 'parliament' means (A) a cultural body in any country (C) (C) an an ente entert rtai aini ning ng body body in any any coun countr try y

(B) a religious body in any country (D) (D) a legi egislat slatiive body body in any any coun countr try y

The proper noun in the sentence is (A) seed (B) table

(C) deer

(D) Kanpur  

The collective noun 'choir' means (A) a group of of si singers (B) a group of of la ladies

(C) a group of of an ants

(D) a group of of bi birds

The feminine form of the noun 'monk' is (A) friar (B) lady

(C) woman

(D) nun

The noun form the verb 'dine' is (A) dinely (B) dinner

(C) dining

(D) dineless

The collective noun for ‘lion’ is (A) a herd of lions (B) a pack of lions

(C) a pride of lions

(D) a heal of lions

The feminine form of the noun 'lord' is (A) lady (B) lordess

(C) lordy

(D) sister  

The abstract noun of 'Dangerous' is (A) danger (B) dangerly

(C) dangerousness

(D) dangerful

The correct sentence is (A) W hose books are these? (C) W hom books are these?

(B) W ho books are these? (D) W here books are these?

The meaning of 'pharmacy' is (A) a kids store (B) a fancy store

(C) a drug store

(D) a pet store

The feminine gender of ‘horse’ is (A) colt (B) mare

(C) filly

(D) stag

The plural form of ‘mouse’ is (A) mice (B) mouses

(C) mices

(D) mouse

The antonym of the abstract noun 'gloomy' is (A) cheerly (B) cheerful

(C) cherish

(D) cheers

The collective noun of 'thieves' is (A) (A) a swar swarm m of of thi thiev eves es (B) (B) a team team of thi thieves eves

(C) (C) a den den of of thi thiev eves es

(D) (D) a spri spring ng of thi thieves eves

Neuter gender in the following is (A) child (B) teacher

(C) computer

(D) poetess

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4

DPP NO. 4 TOPIC : PRONOUNS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. My wife and _______________ went to see see the movie.

(A) I 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(B) me

(C) my

(D) myself

 

I love you more than ______________. (A) he (B) him

(C) his

(D) their  

You and Ram have done ____________ work. (A) his (B) our

(C) your

(D) their  

Three of _____________ went to Pune. (A) us (B) ours

(C) those

(D) theirs

The rivers of America are longer than _____________ of Europe. (A) this (B) these (C) those

(D) that

The jury were divded in _____________ opinion. (A) it (B) his (C) its

(D) their

Neither of the teachers could express_____________ideas. (A) his (B) this (C) these

(D) their  

I __________washed my clothes. (A) I (B) my

(C) am

(D) myself

Sheela absented ___________ from the office. (A) himself (B) him

(C) his

(D) herself  

She has not completed the task__________. (A) herself (B) her

(C) him

(D) his

Lalita can _______________ find the lost key k ey.. (A) himself (B) him

(C) his

(D) herself  

 ____________ Raj or Kamal will will come today. today. (A) Either (B) All

(C) Every

(D) Each

 ____________ student of this class is allowed to go to the library. library. (A) Those (B) All (C) Every

(D) These

 _____________ has to look after one’s own business. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Five

(D) One

 ____________ pen is this this ? (A) W hat (B) W ho

(C) W hose

(D) W hich

 ____________ is sweeter sweeter than honey ? (A) W ho (B) W hat

(C) W hom

(D) W hich

 

 

There were four problems __________ had to be tackled. (A) who (B) what (C) that

(D) which

 Any person ______________ ______________ does not listen to you is a fool. (A) what (B) whom (C) that

(D) which

 All ____________ glitters glitters is not gold. (A) who (B) that

(C) those

(D) which

 All of them depend upon _____________. (A) one other (B) each other

(C) one another

(D) both ‘B’ and ‘C’

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5

DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : ADJECTIVES Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9. 10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Her hair is long and _________. (A) curly (B) happy

(C) slim

(D) late

He drives a bright red sports car. It's very _________. (A) wild (B) shallow (C) fast

(D) tall

Today, the weather's going to be ___________. (A) hopeful (B) warm (C) blue

(D) urgent

This house is _________ and old. (A) awkward (B) electric

(C) large

(D) fat

I'm feeling really ________ today. today. (A) late (B) long

(C) happy

(D) round

The food at this supermarket is always _________. (A) gentle (B) hopeful (C) empty

(D) fresh

Her new husband is very ________. (A) high (B) smart

(C) urgent

(D) relaxing

Take care of this letter, it’s ________. (A) urgent (B) round

(C) blonde

(D) fresh

I had a brilliant holiday. holiday. It was really _______. (A) relaxing (B) loving I have fallen in love with a _________ woman. (A) closed (B) beautiful

(C) low

(D) straight

(C) wooden

(D) handsome

Which word is an adjective? (A) after (B) pretty

(C) taste

(D) none of these

Which word is an adjective? (A) dirty (B) ran

(C) away

(D) none of these

Which word is an adjective? (A) eat (B) hot

(C) meal

(D) none of these

Which word is an adjective? (A) beautiful (B) over

(C) wave

(D) none of these

It is very ______ to write clearly. (A) dangerous (B) important

(C) silly

(D) none of these

There are no more ______ towels in the cupboard. (A) white (B) dirty (C) empty

(D) none of these

I can’t afford that coat. I need to find a _______ one. (A) black (B) cheaper (C) fashionable

(D) none of these

I’ve lost my glasses so I’m wearing my ________ ones. (A) clean (B) better (C) old

(D) none of these

Be careful - the roads are ______ after the rain. (A) slippery (B) long (C) bendy

(D) none of these

How many adjectives are there in this sentence? I thought the film was very long and boring. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these

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6

DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : DEGREE OF COMPARISION Direction : Fill in the blanks using correct degree of adjectives. 1.

Her dress is (pretty) ______________ than mine.

2.

Cheetahs are (fast) ______________ animals we can find.

3.

Eating fruit and vegetables is (healthy) ______________ than eating hot dogs.

4.

I like milk (good) ______________ than coffee.

5.

China has (many) ______________ people than any other country in the world.

6.

The blue whale is (heavy) ______________ animal in the world.

7.

Which is (big) ______________, Portugal or Spain? Spain?

8.

Travelling by plane is (comfortable) (comf ortable) ______________ than travelling by car.

9.

He is (untidy) ______________ person in class.

10.

Buying things from plastic is (bad) ______________ than buying things from recycled paper. paper.

11.

The Nile is (long) ______________ river in the world.

12.

In Mark’s opinion History is (difficult) ______________ than Geography. However, it is (interesting)  ______________ .

13.

 Antarctica is one of (cold) ______________ places on Earth.

14.

Greece is (hot) ______________ than England.

15.

Mirror, mirror on the wall, who’s (pretty) ______________ of them all?

16.

Elvis Presley is one of (popular) ______________ rock singers ever.

17.

Jenny is (tall) ______________ than Alice even though she is (young) ______________.

18.

Switzerland is one of (rich) ______________ countries in the world.

19.

People in Africa are the (poor) ______________ in the world.

20.

 Alexander the Great was was a (good) ______________ leader than Xerxes.

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7

DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : VERBS Direction : Pick out the correct verb from the four alternatives suggested below. 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

They (A) doesn't enjoy watching TV . (C) hasn't enjoy watching TV.

(B) don't enjoy watching TV. (D) haven't enjoy watching TV.

The past and past participle for verb hide is (A) hide and hidden (B) hid and hid

(C) hid and hidden

(D) hide and hade

Find verb in the following (A) former (B) formation

(C) form

(D) from.

Her roommate usually (A) help her.

(B) helps her.

(C) is helping her.

(D) was helping her.

Karuna and Kamla (A) are teachers

(B) is teachers

(C) be teachers

(D) am teachers

The past participle of verb 'trot' is (A) troted (B) trots

(C) troting

(D) trotted

The past tense of verb 'try' is (A) tryed (B) tried

(C) tred

(D) tryded

The past and past participle of hit is (A) hitted and helted (B) hit and hat

(C) hat and hut

(D) hit and hit

Sentence with helping verb is (A) (A) has has made made a pi pictur cture. e. (B) (B) mad made e a pi pictur cture. e.

(C) (C) mak makes es a pi pictur cture. e.

(D) (D) mak make e a pict pictur ure. e.

The verb in the following f ollowing list of words is (A) large (B) fair

(C) examination

(D) interfere

The antonym of tie is (A) untie

(C) tier

(D) tired

The past tense of fly is (A) flown (B) flied

(C) flyed

(D) flew

The past of hop is (A) hoped

(C) hopped

(D) hopeded

(B) tied

(B) hopping

Tina sat in the chair and (A) read th the book (B) has re read the bo book

(C) is is re reading the bo book (D) rea readed th the book

While he was watching TV, TV, his brother  (A) (A) were were play played ed cric cricke ket. t. (B) (B) play plays s cric cricke ket. t.

(C) (C) was was play playin ing g cric cricke ket. t. (D) (D) play played ed cric cricke ket. t.

The past of chew is (A) chewd

(B) chew

(C) chewn.

(D) none

He has (A) eat his food.

(B) eaten his food.

(C) ate his food.

(D) eated his food.

18.

I have never  (A) drank drank coconu coconutt milk. milk. (B) drink drink coconu coconutt milk. milk. (C) dranke dranked d coconut coconut milk. milk. (D) drunk drunk coconu coconutt milk. milk.

19.

They have (A) did their work.

20.

(B) do their work.

The past and past participle of ‘know’ is (A) knew, known (B) knowed, knowed

(C) done their work.

(D) does their work.

(C) know, known

(D) knew, knewed

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8

DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : ADVERBS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. The correct interrogative adverb in the sentence is

2. 3. 4.

5.

6.

7.

8. 9.

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

15. 16.

17.

(A) W he hen are you going to London? (C) W hi hich are you going to London?

(B) W he here are you going to London? (D) W ho ho are you going to London?

The antonym of the adverb 'delightfully ' delightfully'' is (A) agreeable (B) sorrowfully

(C) pleasantly

(D) enjoyably

Sunday morning I woke up (A) later (B) lately

(C) late

(D) latest

 My telephone is (A) temporarily out of order. (C) temporate out of order.

(B) temporary out of order. (D) temper out of order.

Vimal drove (A) to avoid being late quickest. (C) quick to avoid being late.

(B) quickly to avoid being late. (D) quicker to avoid being late.

The correct sentence is (A) How old is your son now? (C) W hich old is your son now?

(B) W hat old is your son now? (D) W here old is your son now?

He is (A) absolute wonderful. (C) absolutingly wonderful.

(B) absolutefully wonderful. (D) absolutely wonderful.

Razia spoke to me (A) angrily.

(C) anger.

(B) angry.

(D) angryfully.

He spoke well at (A) the meeting night last. (C) the meeting night last.

(B) the meeting last night. (D) last the meeting night.

I like your handwriting. You write very (A) neat. (B) illegibly.

(C) neatly.

(D) neatful.

The water in the pond is (A) ex extreme di dirty. (B) ex extremely dirty.

(C) ex extremeful di dirty.

(D) ex extremelessly dirty.

I haven't seen him (A) lately.

(B) late.

(C) latest.

(D) later.

The redwood tree was (A) im impressively tall.

(B) im impressly tall.

(C) im impressive ta tall.

(D) im impressfully tall.

We (A) usual have breakfast at eight. (C) us usually have br breakfast at at eight.

(B) used to have breakfast at eight. (D) us usuality have breakfast at at ei eight.

These mangoes are (A) most ripe.

(C) almostly ripe.

(B) almost ripe.

(D) almostfully ripe.

Rajesh was (A) part responsible for the crime. (C) pa partly responsible for th the crime.

(B) partfully responsible for the crime. (D) pa partingly responsible for th the crime. me.

Raj drives (A) in a careful manner. (B) carefully.

(C) with caution.

(D) carefull.

18.

The sentence with correct adverb in the following sentence is (A) I looked for the keys anywhere but didn't find them. (B) I looked for the keys many where but didn't find them. (C) I looked for the keys everywhere but didn't find them. (D) I looked for the keys somewhere but didn't find them.

19.

I (A) (A) quic quickf kful ully ly open opened ed the the gold gold enve envelo lope pe.. (C) (C) quic quickf kful ul open opened ed the the gol gold env envelop elope. e.

(B) (B) qui quick ckly ly open opened ed the the gold gold enve envelo lope pe.. (D) (D) qui quicker cker open opened ed the the gol gold env envelop elope. e.

He is (A) probable in the park. (C) probably in the park.

(B) probability in the park. (D) probablely in the park.

20.

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9

DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS Direction: Choose suitable prepositions : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

18. 19. 20.

She was sitting________ her two sisters. (A) between (B) among

(C) in

(D) on

She has been waiting ________ the bus-stop for two hours. (A) for (B) on (C) at

(D) in

She was cutting vegetables ________a knife. (A) from (B) to

(C) by

(D) with

He lends money ________ interest. (A) on (B) at

(C) by

(D) with

There was a fly ________the milk. (A) in (B) on

(C) over

(D) into

The car ran ________the snake. (A) over (B) on

(C) at

(D) to

My friends always go home_________ foot. (A) by (B) with

(C) on

(D) upon

She always looks ________her guests. (A) for (B) after (C) about Wise people do not believe ________superstitions. (A) in (B) about (C) of

(D) to

What are you wearing _________the party ? (A) at (B) on

(D) for

 

He will meet you ________the evening of July the first. (A) in (B) on (C) at

(D) for

 

This is the knife ________which the murder was committed. (A) by (B) on (C) with

(D) from

She has lived in that town ________several years. (A) from (B) by (C) for

(D) since

I expect him ________ call me today. today. (A) at (B) on

(C) with

(D) to

I had two eggs ______ breakfast. (A) between (B) with

(C) among

(D) for  

(C) after

(D) into

Man is entirely different ________other animals. (A) with (B) for (C) from

(D) on

I have given ________smoking. (A) of (B) from

(C) up

(D) out

The boats are ________the bridge. (A) under (B) in

(C) over

(D) on

Birds are flying ________the bridge. (A) on (B) over

(C) with

(D) under  

I have not seen him ________Monday. ________Monday. (A) on (B) from

(C) for

(D) since

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DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : DETERMINERS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :Very____ Very____ people fly just because of terrorist terror ist activities. 1.

(A) little 2.

(B) much

(C) many

(D) few

Johnny is a keen player but unfortunately he has____ skills. (A) few (B) none (C) some

(D) little

3.

If we don't move faster, we'll miss our transfer to Munich. There isn't ____ time to waste. (A) little (B) any (C) many (D) few

4.

Unfortunately, Unfortunately, I haven't got____ time for watching TV T V. (A) few (B) no (C) much

(D) little

You can buy these maps at____ station. They all have them. (A) a lot of (B) several (C) some

(D) any

5. 6.

7.

The correct option for the sentence is (A) How many books did you buy? (C) How many a books did you buy?

(B) How much books did you buy? (D) How a lot of books did you buy?

The correct option is (A) (A) Ther There e was was litt little le hope hope for for the the pati patien ent. t. (C) (C) The There re was few few hop hope e for for the the patie atient nt..

(B) (B) Ther There e was was the the litt little le hope hope for for the the pati patien ent. t. (D) (D) The There re was a few few hope hope for for the the pati atient. ent.

8.

'This is her purse'. With the help of a possessive pronoun we can replace the same sentence as (A) This This pur purse se is his. his. (B) This This pur purse se is hers. hers. (C) (C) Thi This s pur purse se is thei theirs. rs. (D) (D) Thi This s pur purse se is mine. mine.

9.

The correct option for the sentence is (A) Few members were absent from the meeting. (B) Little members were absent from the meeting. (C) A few members were absent from the meeting. (D) A little members were absent from the meeting. m eeting.

10.

Using a specific (the) or general (a/an) determiner, the correct option is (A) The Ra Ravi is a boy. (B) Ravi is is an bo boy. (C) Ra Ravi is th the boy.

(D) Ravi is is a bo boy.

If you have____ questions, I'm ready to answer. (A) little (B) any (C) much

(D) plenty

11. 12.

I didn't have____ trouble getting the passports. I only had a problem with my photo because it was an old one. (A) much (B) any (C) no (D) several

13.

There is____ water left, so so drink only if you must. (A) some (B) little (C) few

(D) much

There isn't____ point at all in getting upset about it. (A) few (B) several (C) any

(D) many

 ____ coat will do. It doesn't need to be a raincoat. (A) Little (B) No (C) Any

(D) Few

The correct option is (A) at the dinner.

(D) at dinner.

14. 15. 16.

(B) at a dinner.

(C) at an dinner.

17.

Using a specific (the) or general (a/an) determiner, the correct option is (A) (A) Mr Mr. Rit Ritw wik is a M.L M.L.A .A.. fro from m Man Maniipur pur. (B) (B) Mr Mr. Rit Ritw wik is an M.L. M.L.A A. fro from m Man Manip ipur ur.. (C) (C) Mr Mr. Ritw Ritwik ik is the the M.L M.L.A .A.. from from Man Manip ipur ur.. (D) (D) Mr Mr. Ritw Ritwik ik is M.L. M.L.A. A. from from the the Mani Manipu purr.

18.

I am (A) a English teacher. (C) any English teacher.

(B) an English teacher. (D) each English teacher.

The correct option for the sentence is (A) How many hours do you work? (C) Ho How many a hours do you work?

(B) How much hours do you work? (D) Ho How a lot of hours do you work?

19.

20.

'He' is a personal pronoun. With an appropriate possessive the correct option is (A) He is going to its house. (B) He is going to their house. (C) He is going to my house. (D) He is going to his house.

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11

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : CONJUNCTIONS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer : 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

The little girl smiles (A) whenever she sees me. (C) because she sees me.

(B) after she sees me. (D) by the time she sees me.

I was allowed to go home (A) so that I could take rest. (C) till I take rest.

(B) after I take rest. (D) before I take rest.

You can have ice-cream (A) before you no longer have fever. (C) until you no longer have fever.

(B) so that you no longer have fever. (D) now that you no longer have fever.

The news was published (A) as all could know about it. (C) (C) in in ord order er that that all all cou coulld kno know w abou aboutt it. it.

(B) as soon as all could know about it. (D) (D) pro provi vide ded d tha thatt al all cou coulld kno know w abo about ut it.

You can take a leave (A) provided that you return on time. (C) only that you return on time.

(B) so that you return on time. (D) even if you return on time.

You can either hire an auto rickshaw (A) but come on foot. (C) nor come on foot.

(B) after you come on foot. (D) or come on foot.

The stadium was empty (A) until the match ended. (C) while the match ended.

(B) by the time the match ended. (D) till the match ended.

She was spending so much (A) that she won a lottery. (C) while she won a lottery.

(B) unless she won a lottery. (D) as though she had won a lottery.

 Amitabh is tall (A) although Jaya is short. (C) if Jaya is short.

(B) even if Jaya is short. (D) whereas Jaya is short.

Give me a call (A) now that you find him. (C) if you find him.

(B) while you find him. (D) since you find him.

She got the job (A) and and she she doe does s not not hav have e any any exp exper erie ienc nce. e. (C) whil while e she she does does not not have have any any experi experienc ence. e.

(B) (B) as if she she doe does s not not have have any any exp exper erie ienc nce. e. (D) though though she does does not not have have any any experi experienc ence. e.

I ate so much (A) since I could not walk. (C) as I could not walk.

(B) though I could not walk. (D) that I could not walk.

Raunak is taller  (A) as Vineet.

(C) than Vineet.

(B) before Vineet.

(D) for Vineet.

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12

14.

15.

16.

17.

I will go to school (A) because it is raining.

(B) if it is raining.

(C) where it is raining.

(D) although it is raining.

I have not met him (A) wherever he took up a new job.

(B) since he took up a new job.

(C) until he took up a new job.

(D) though he took up a new job.

He came last (A) as he ran very fast.

(B) since he ran very fast.

(C) till he ran very fast.

(D) although he ran very fast.

He is both cunning (A) or selfish.

18.

20.

(C) and selfish.

(D) yet selfish.

(B) though I was ill.

(C) before I was ill.

(D) because I was ill.

I was absent (A) after I was ill.

19.

(B) nor selfish.

You cannot succeed (A) after you work hard.

(B) before you work hard.

(C) unless you work hard.

(D) so you work hard.

I will confess (A) before I leave.

(B) because I leave.

(C) so I leave.

(D) though I leave.

DPP NO. 12 TOPIC : ACTIVE & PASSIVE VOICE Direction : Tick mark the correct answer : 1.

The teacher is teaching the class. The correct passive form of the sentence is (A) The class is being taught by the teacher. (B) The class was being taught by the teacher. (C) The class will be taught by the teacher. (D) The class has been taught by the teacher.

2.

She was cooking dinner when I arrived. The passive form of this sentence is (A) The dinner is being cooked when he arrived. (B) The dinner was being cooked when he arrived. (C) The dinner was cooked when he arrived. (D) The dinner is cooked when he arrived.

3.

Before the semester was over, the programme (A) had approved. (C) had been approved.

(B) was being approved. (D) is being approved.

Our plan is still (A) being considered. (C) has considered.

(B) been considered. (D) was considered.

When the Director came, the problem (A) was already been solved. (C) had already been solved.

(B) is already been solved. (D) will already been solved.

4.

5.

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13

6.

I will introduce you to my friend tomorrow. The passive voice of this sentence is (A) you are been introduced to my m y friend tomorrow. (B) you will be introduced to my friend tomorr ow. ow. (C) you have been introduced to my friend tomorrow tomor row.. (D) you had been introduced to my friend tomorrow.

7.

The bridge (A) is still built.

8.

9.

10.

(B) was still built.

(C) will still built.

(D) is still being built.

The Old Man and the Sea (A) was being wriiten by Hemin mingway. (C) has written by Hemingway.

(B) was wriiten by Hemin mingway. (D) was wrote by Hemingway.

The last day's match (A) has disrupted due to heavy rain. (C) (C) have have been been disr disrup upte ted d due due to hea heavy vy rain rain..

(B) has been disrupted due to heavy rain. (D) (D) is been been disr disrup upte ted d due due to to heav heavy y rain rain..

We buy and sell old books. T he passive voice of the sentence is (A) Old bo books is bo bought an and so sold he here. (B) Ol Old bo books are bought an and so sold he here. (C) (C) Old Old boo books ks hav have e bou bough ghtt and and sol sold d her here. e. (D) (D) Old Old boo books ks sha shall ll boug bought ht and and sold sold here here..

Direction : Write the Passive form of the following sentences: 1.

I have taken food.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

2.

Stand up.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

3.

Please have a seat.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

4.

Let him open the door.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

5.

 All like it.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

6.

They are shouting slogans.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

7.

He killed a mouse.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

8.

She was mourning her grandpa’s death.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

9.

Shut up.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

10.

Let John do it.

Ans.

 ___________________________________   ___________________ ________________ 

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14

DPP NO. 13 TOPIC : DIRECT INDIRECT SPEECH Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. The children said," Hurray! We W e have won the competition." Indirect speech is

(A) The children said that they have won the competition. (B) The children exclaimed with joy that they had won the competition. (C) The children asked that they have won the competition. (D) The children asked whether they had won the competition. com petition. 2.

They said that (A) they have been planning on an adventure trip for som etime. (B) they had been planning on an adventure trip for sometime. (C) they are planning on an adventure trip for sometime. (D) they had planned on an adventure trip for sometime.

3.

They told us that all the employees (A) were invited for a buffet lunch on this occasion. (B) were invited for a buffet lunck on that occasion. (C) were inviting for a buffet lunch on that occasion. (D) will invited on this occasion.

4.

"I need a reasonable explanation", said the warden. Indirect speech is (A) I need a reasonable explanation, told the warden. (B) The warden said I needed a reasonable reas onable explanation. (C) The warden said that she needed a reasonable explanation. (D) The warden told that she needs a reasonable explanation.

5.

They said that (A) we are going to be delayed. (B) we were going to be delayed. (C) they were going to be delayed. (D) they going to be delayed.

6.

The police announced that (A) the station has to be evacuated as there is a terror alert. (B) the station has to evacuate as there is a terror alert. (C) the station had to be evacuated as there was a terror alert. (D) the station had to be evacuated as there is a terror attack.

7.

The contestants complained that (A) they will have performed better if they are given more time. (B) they will have performed better if they were given more time. (C) they would have performed better if they were given more time. (D) they would performed better if they were given mor e time. Divya said,"I will visit my maternal aunt tom orrow." orrow."

8.

(A) Divya said that she will visit my maternal aunt tomorrow. (B) Divya said that she visited her maternal aunt tom orrow. orrow. (C) Divya said that she would visit her maternal aunt the next day. (D) Divya said that she would visit her maternal aunt the previous day. 9.

 All my friends said that (A) they should has be informed about the reunion in advance. (B) they should have be inform about the reunion in advance. (C) they should have been inform about the reunion in advance. (D) they should have been informed about the reunion in advance.

10.

He said,''Honesty is the best policy ''. (A) He said that honesty is the best policy. policy. (B) He said that honesty was the best policy. policy. (C) He said that honesty had been the best policy. policy. (D) He said that honesty has been the best policy. policy.

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15

11.

The guests said that (A) they had been waiting outside the venue. (B) we have been waiting outside the venue. (C) they are waiting outside the venue. (D) we are waiting outside the venue.

12.

"Go and clean the mess in your room right now", s aid his elder brother. Indir Indirect ect spee speech ch is is (A) His elder brother asked him to cleaned the mess in your room right now. now. (B) His elder brother ordered him to clean c lean the mess in his room right then. (C) His elder brother requested him to clean the mess m ess in his room right then. (D) His elder brother asked him to clean the mess in his room right now.

13.

Rohan said that (A) I have been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music. (B) I had been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music. (C) he has been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music. (D) he had been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music.

14.

Their aunt (A) said that switch off the television and go to sleep. (B) said that they switch off the television and go to sleep. (C) ordered them to switch off the television and go to sleep. (D) told them that switch off the television and go to sleep.

15.

"Will they be able to m meet eet the deadline?" asked she. Indirect speech is (A) She asked will they be able to meet m eet the deadline. (B) She asked whether they will be able to meet m eet the deadline. (C) She asked would they be able to meet m eet the deadline. (D) She asked whether they would be able to meet the deadline.

16.

Reema asked me, "Will you attend the seminar?" (A) Reema asked ask ed me will I attend the seminar. sem inar. (B) Reema said to me will I attend the seminar. sem inar. (C) Reema asked me whether you would attend the seminar. (D) Reema asked me whether I would attend the seminar. sem inar.

17.

Riya asked Shreya,"Are you aware of this route?" (A) Riya asked Shreya that is she aware of this route. (B) Riya asked Shreya whether she was aware of that route. (C) Riya asked Shreya was she aware of that route. (D) Riya asked Shreya Shreya that whether she was aware aware of that route.

18.

Our elders said to us,''Hard work is the key to success.'' (A) Our elders told us that hard work was the key to success. (B) Our elders told us that hard work is the key to success. (C) Our elders told us that hard work has been is the key to sucees. (D) none of these

19.

He said .''The earth is round.'' (A) He told that th the earth wa was round. (C) He said that the earth is round.

20.

(B) He He to told that the ea earth has be been round. (D) He said that the earth had been round.

"Leave me alone, I am not in a mood to talk right now", said Lisa to her friend. (A) Lisa said to her friend that leave me alone I am not in a mood to talk. (B) Lisa asked her friend to leave her alone she was not in a mood to talk right now. (C) Lisa told her friend to leave her alone as she was not in a mood to talk then. (D) Lisa told her friend that leave me alone as I was not in a mood to talk then.

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16

DPP NO. 14 TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :One hundred dollars 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6. 7.

8.

9. 10. 11.

12.

13.

(A) is a lot for this pair of trousers. (C) we were a lot fo for th this pa pair of of tro trou users. rs.

(B) are a lot for this pair of trousers. (D) ha have be been a lot fo for th this pa pair of of tr trousers. rs.

 A number of people people (A) are waiting to see you. (C) was waiting to see you.

(B) is waiting to see you. (D) has been waiting to see you.

The chairman, along with his two assistants (A) have planned to visit London. (C) plans to visit London.

(B) plan to visit London. (D) were planned to visit London.

There (A) are too much crime today. (C) were too much crime today.

(B) have too much crime today. (D) is too much crime today.

Bread and butter  (A) are his only food. (C) is his only food.

(B) were his only food. (D) have been his only food.

One of my best friends (A) are a doctor. (B) is a doctor.

(C) were a doctor.

Few mountain climbers (A) has reached the peak. (C) was reached the peak.

(B) have reached the peak. (D) is reached the peak.

None of them (A) had ready to do this work. (C) were ready to do this work.

(B) are ready to do this work. (D) have been ready to do this work.

None (A) had helpless.

(C) are helpless.

(D) has been helpless.

Not only the players but also the coach (A) was happy. (B) were happy.

(C) have been happy.

(D) are happy.

There (A) is many reasons for the delay. (C) ha has ma many reasons fo for the de delay.

(B) was many reasons for the delay. (D) ar are ma many reasons fo for the de delay.

The team (A) run during practice. (C) have run during practice.

(B) were running during practice. (D) runs during practice.

Every boy and every girl (A) was given a gift. (C) are given a gift.

(B) were given a gift. (D) have been given a gift.

(B) was helpless.

(D) have a doctor.

14.

The doctor who has helped thousands of patients (A) is here. (B) are here. (C) were here. (D) have been here.

15.

Social Studies (A) are an interesting subject. (C) were an interesting subject.

(B) have an interesting subject. (D) is an interesting subject.

Dogs and cats (A) are bo both playing.

(C) wa was bo both pl playing.

16. 17.

(B) is bo both playing.

Every one of them (A) has has done done their their duty duty.. (B) has has done done his his duty duty..

(D) ha has be been bo both pl playing.

(C) are done done their their duty duty. (D) were were done done thei theirr duty duty.

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18.

19.

20.

The United States (A) are having a big navy. (C) have a big navy.

(B) were having a big navy. (D) has a big navy.

 A car and a bike (A) are means of transportation. (C) were means of transportation.

(B) is means of transportation. (D) have means of transportation.

Two hours (A) (A) is is a lon long g time time to wait ait for for the the doc docto torr. (C) (C) wer were e a lon long g time time to wait wait for the the doc docto torr.

(B) (B) are are a long long time time to wait ait for for the the doc docto torr. (D) (D) have have been been a lon long g tim time e to wait wait for for the the doc docto torr.

DPP NO. 15 TOPIC : MODALS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. You _____________ go now. It is too late.

(A) must 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

(B) will

(C) can

(D) may

When he grows up he ___________ like to be an engineer. (A) would (B) should (C) must

(D) will

Nobody ___________ enter this room without permission. perm ission. (A) must (B) can’t (C) mustn’t

(D) shall

That _____________ to be Raju’s car. (A) used (B) must

(D) should

(C) can

He _________ to go for swimming once a week. (A) ought (B) used (C) should

(D) must

She ____________ go there now because her brother has done her work. (A) must not (B) need not (C) can not (D) should not Run fast lest you _____________ miss the train. (A) will (B) can (C) should (D) ought to  _____________we read this book ? (A) shall (B) can

(C) would

(D) may

He _______________ come anytime. (A) may (B) must

(C) can

(D) will

Soliders __________ obey orders. (A) must (B) may

(C) should

(D) can

If I were a parrot, I ____________ fly. fly. (A) can (B) would

(C) may

(D) will

I ____________ rather fail than adopt unfair means. m eans. (A) should (B) might (C) will

(D) would

We ______________ pay our taxes. (A) can (B) might

(C) would

(D) must

 ___________ you play with us ? (A) can (B) may

(C) shall

(D) will

He ran as fast as he____________  (A) can (B) could

(C) may

(D) might

You ____________ have worked harder. (A) need not (B) might

(C) can

(D) should

You ____________ to finish your work in time. (A) ought (B) shall

(C) should

(D) must

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18. 19. 20.

You ____________ tell the truth. (A) can’t (B) must

(C) won’t

He was very strong, he ___________ hunt all day and dance all night. (A) can (B) could (C) would

(D) may (D) might

The swimmer was tired but he ____________ reach the shore before he collapsed. (A) could (B) will (C) was able to (D) must DPP NO. 16 TOPIC : PUNCTUATIONS

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. Which of this is not a punctuation mark?

(A) Full stop 2.

(B) Comma

(C) Colon

Which of these is used after a nominative absolute? (A) Colon (B) Comma (C) Full stop

(D) Hashtag

(D) Question mark

3.

Which of these is used to separate short co-ordinate clauses of a compound sentence? (A) Semicolon (B) Comma (C) Full stop (D) Colon

4.

Which of these is used to separate a series of loosely related clauses? (A) Comma (B) Full stop (C) Semicolon

(D) Colon

5.

Which of these is used between sentences which are grammatically gramm atically independent? independent? (A) Colon (B) Semicolon (C) Comma (D) Hyphen

6.

Which of these is used to convey proportions? (A) Semicolon (B) Colon

(C) Comma

Choose the correct statement : (A) My My aunt aunt who lives lives in in Mumbai Mumbai is a doctor doctor.. (C) My My aunt, aunt, who who live lives s in Mumba Mumbaii is a doct doctor or..

(B) My My aunt aunt,, who who lives lives in Mumba Mumbai, i, is is a docto doctorr. (D) My My aunt aunt who who lives lives in Mumbai Mumbai,, is a doct doctor or..

Choose the correct statement : (A) (A) I met met a beau beauti tifu ful, l, Europ uropea ean n woman oman.. (C) (C) I met met a beaut eautif ifu ul Eur Europ opea ean n, wom woman an..

(B) (B) I met met a beau beauti tifu full Eur Europ opea ean n woman oman.. (D) (D) I met met a beau beauti tifu ful, l, Euro uropean pean,, wom woman an..

7.

8.

(D) Hyphen

9.

Which sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark? (A) (A) Tom went ent to the the stor store e to to buy buy brea bread, d, (B) (B) Tom went ent to the the stor store e to to buy buy brea bread! d! (C) (C) Tom Tom went ent to the the stor store e to to buy buy brea bread. d. (D) (D) Tom Tom went ent to to the the sto store re to buy buy brea bread? d?

10.

Which sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark? (A) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and the prize was $1,000, (B) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and the prize was $1,000! (C) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and the prize was $1,000? (D) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and thr proze was $1,000.

11.

Which sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark? (A) W hen is your birthday. (B) W hen is your birthday (C) W hen is your birthday? (D) W hen is your birthday!

12.

Whcih sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark? (A) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy? (B) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy! (C) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy (D) The parade is coming com ing and I am going to get lots of candy,

13.

When will you return to our city.... city.... (A) ? question mark (C) . full stop

14.

(B) ! exclamation mark (D) None of these

Wow....You Wow....You really obtained a gold medal in the Olympics. (A) ? question mark (B) ! exclamation mark (C) . full stop (D) None of these

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15.

They offered the children bananas....apples...pears and plums. (A) , a comma (B) ; semi-colon (C) - a hyphen (D) None of these

16.

The rich man was a self...made man. (A) No punctuation mark (C) - a hyphen

(B) - a dash (D) None of these

...I haven't seen Carol today,...said today,...said Tom (A) () brackets (C) , commas

(B) " " speech marks (D) None of these

17.

18.

The children were told to bring the following items... a pen, a pencil, a ruler and an exercise book. (A) , a comma (B) ; a semi-colon (C) : a colon (D) None of these

19.

Jim lives in Australia...his brother lives in England. (A) - a hyphen (B) ; semi-colon (C) : colon

(D) None of these

I found Claire..s jacket on the chair. (A) - a hyphen (B) , a comma

(D) None of these

20.

(C) ' an apostrophe

DPP NO. 17 TOPIC : ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION Direction : In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for  the given word/sentence. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14.

Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool (A) Imbecility (B) Senility (C) Dotage

(D) Superannuation

That which cannot be corrected (A) Unintelligible (B) Indelible

(C) Illegible

(D) Incorrigible

The study of ancient societies (A) Anthropology (B) Archaeology

(C) History

(D) Ethnology

 A person person of good understanding knowledge knowledge and reasoning power  power  (A) Expert (B) Intellectual (C) Snob

(D) Literate

 A person person who insists on something (A) Disciplinarian (B) Stickler

(C) Instantaneous

(D) Boaster  

State in which the few govern the many (A) Monarchy (B) Oligarchy

(C) Plutocracy

(D) Autocracy

 A style in which a writer writer makes a display of his his knowledge (A) Pedantic (B) Verbose (C) Pompous

(D) Ornate

List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting (A) Schedule (B) Timetable (C) Agenda

(D) Plan

Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous (A) Evade (B) Evacuate (C) Avoid

(D) Exterminate

 A prima facie case is such (A) As it seems at first sight (C) As it turns out to be at the end

(B) As it is made to seem at first sight (D) As it seems to the court after a numbe mber of hearings

 A person pretending to be somebody he is not (A) Magician (B) Rogue

(C) Liar

(D) Imposter  

 A person who knows many foreign languages languages (A) Linguist (B) Grammarian

(C) Polyglot

(D) Bilingual

One who has little faith in human sincerity and goodness (A) Egoist (B) Fatalist (C) Stoic

(D) Cynic

One who possesses m any talents (A) Versatile (B) Nubile

(D) Gifted

(C) Exceptional

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15. 16. 17.

18. 19. 20.

Words inscribed on tomb (A) Epitome (B) Epistle

(C) Epilogue

(D) Epitaph

One who eats everything (A) Omnivorous (B) Omniscient

(C) Irrestible

(D) Insolvent

Malafide case is one (A) (A) Whic Which h is unde undert rtak aken en in a good ood fait faith h (C) (C) Whic Which h is is und under erta take ken n aft after er a lon long g del delay ay

(B) (B) Whi Which is unde undert rtak aken en in a bad bad fai faith (D) (D) Which Which is not not und under erta take ken n at at all all

The custom or practice of having more than one husband at same time (A) Polygyny (B) Polyphony (C) Polyandry

(D) Polychromy

Tending to move away from the centre or axis (A) Centrifugal (B) Centripetal

(C) Axiomatic

(D) Awry

Teetotaller means (A) One who abstains from theft (C) On One wh who ab abstains fro from m ta takin king wi wine

(B) One who abstains from meat (D) On One wh who ab abstains fr from ma malice DPP NO. 18 TOPIC : IDIOMS

Direction : Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If th ere is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' w ill be the answer. 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

To make clean breast of  (A) To gain prominence (C) To confess without of reserve (E) None of these

(B) To praise oneself   (D) To destroy before it blooms

To keeps one's temper  (A) To become hungry (C) To preserve ones energy (E) None of these

(B) To be in good mood (D) To be aloof from

To catch a tartar  (A) To To trap wanted wanted criminal criminal with with great great difficul difficulty ty (C) To meet with disaster (E) None of these

(B) To To catch catch a dangerou dangerous s person person (D) To deal with a person who is more than one's match

To drive home (A) To find one's roots (C) Back to original position (E) None of these

(B) To return to place of rest (D) To emphasise

To have an axe to grind (A) A private end to serve (C) To have no result (E) None of these

(B) To fail to arouse interest (D) To work for both sides

To cry wolf  (A) To listen eagerly (C) To turn pale (E) None of these

(B) To give false alarm (D) To keep off starvation

To end in smoke (A) To make completely understand (C) To excite great applause (E) None of these

(B) To ruin oneself   (D) To overcome someone

To be above board (A) To have a good height (C) They have no debts (E) None of these

(B) To be honest in any business deal (D) To try to be beautiful

To put one's hand to plough (A) To take up agricultural farming (C) To To get entang entangled led into into unnece unnecessa ssary ry thin things gs (E) None of these

(B) To take a difficult task (D) Take inte interes restt in tech technic nical al work work

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10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

To pick holes (A) To find some reason to quarrel (C) To criticise someone (E) None of these

(B) To destroy something (D) To cut some part of an item

To leave someone in the lurch (A) To come come to compr compromi omise se with with someo someone ne (C) To put someone at ease (E) None of these

(B) (B) Con Const stan antt sou source rce of anno annoy yance ance to someo someone ne (D) To desert someone in his difficulties

To play second fiddle (A) To be be ha happy, ch cheerful ful an and healthy (C) To do back seat driving (E) None of these

(B) To To re reduce imp impo ortance of of on one's se senior  (D) To support the role and view of another person

To be the question (A) To refer to (E) None of these

(B) To take for granted (C) To raise objections (D) To be discussed

 A black sheep (A) An unlucky person (C) An ugly person (E) None of these

(B) A lucky person (D) A partner who takes no share of the profits

 A man of straw (A) A man of no substance (C) A worthy fellow (E) None of these

(B) A very active person (D) An unreasonable person

To smell a rat (A) To se see signs of pl plague epidemic (C) To suspect foul dealings (E) None of these

(B) To ge get bad small of a bad dead rat (D) To be in a bad mood

To hit the nail right on the head (A) To do the right thing (C) To announce one's fixed views (E) None of these

(B) To destroy one's reputation (D) To teach someone a lesson

To set one's face against (A) To oppose with determination (C) To get out of difficulty (E) None of these

(B) To judge by appearence (D) To look at one steadily DPP NO. 19 TOPIC : PHRASAL VERBS

Direction : Tick the correct phrasal verb. 1.

He could feel the back of his neck_______ when they started talking about the tragedy. tragedy. (A) burn on (b) burn in (c) burn up (D) burn of  

2.

Candace has a bad habit of________ when others are talking. (A) but in (B) but (C) but into

(D) but against

Ken tried to ________his teachers in order to get a good report card. (A) butter up (B) butter over (C) butter in

(D) butter down

3.

4.

The guard had to______ the dogs when Henry menacingly approached the locked gate. (A) call on (B) call down (C) call off (D) call for  

5.

Everyone could see by the grimace on his face that he didn't_______ the meal in front of him. (A) care on (B) care for (C) care of (D) care up

6.

He didn't_______ to new concepts easily. easily. (A) catch on (B) catch up

(C) catch with

(D) catch in

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7.

They _______the hotel late last night. (A) checked into (B) checked on

(C) checked down

(D) checked at

8.

Due to his illness, he had lagged behind, so he worked hard to_______ with his missed school work. (A) catch on (B) catch up (C) catch (D) catch in

9.

The couple_______of the hotel early this morning. (A) checked out (B) checked in (C) checked about

(D) check down

Ronu always tried to_______on rainy days. (A) (A) che cheer er ever every yone one on on (B) (B) che cheer er ever every yone one up up

(D) (D) che cheer er ev every eryone one in in

10.

(C) (C) che cheer er ever every yone one

11.

Most of the kids at school thought he was scared and that he would_____ of the race. (A) chicken out (B) chicken (C) chicken in (D) chicken up

12.

The supervisor asked everyone to _______to arrange for the manager's birthday present. (A) chip (B) chip over (C) chip in (D) chip about

13.

He _______when the police officers started to question him about the robbery. (A) clammed (B) clammed up (C) clammed about (D) clammed down

14.

Prime minister is determ ined to ________a change in the cabinet. (A) bring in (B) bring across (C) bring about

(D) bring at

Rishi_______a terrible cold this week. (A) came up with (B) came about with

(C) came down with

(D) came in with

Lily was_______her friends to help her move. (A) counting down (B) counting about

(C) counting on

(D) count over  

15. 16. 17.

The new police chief is trying to________ on the current drug mafia in the city. city. (A) crack down (B) crack over (C) crack (D) crack upon

18.

John is trying to _______on fatty foods. (A) cut down (B) cut up

(C) cut about

(D) cut off  

The custody battle______ for many months. (A) dragged down (B) dragged on

(C) dragged in

(D) dragged off  

19. 20.

The architect________ some blueprints for you last week. (A) drew on (B) drew up (C) drew down

(D) drew with

DPP NO. 20 TOPIC : PROVERBS Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :1. With open arms 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(A) Warmly

(B) Cold blooded

(C) Resemble

(D) Coldly

By leaps and bounds (A) very fast

(B) very slow

(C) in details

(D) aimlessly

Lions share (A) look angrily

(B) major share

(C) minor share

(D) heart of the prey

To cry wolf  (A) To refer to

(B) To emphasise

(C) To have no result

(D) To give false alarm

Out of question (A) Resemble

(B) Easy

(C) Impossible

(D) For the end

 A hard nut to crack (A) To be deceived

(B) Lazy

(C) To confirm

(D) A difficult problem

Every trick in the book (A) Nothing Happening (C) Try every possible way

(B) Be optomistic (D) Forgive someone

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8.

9.

10.

11.

12. 13.

14. 15. 16. 17.

18.

19. 20.

 A black sheep (A) Stranger (C) Scoundrel

(B) On the run (D) Gentleman

 A turn coat (A) (A) One One who who chan change ges s one one’’s opi opini nion on or or par party ty (C) A poor man

(B) (B) A wet wet coa coatt (D) Man of principal

Bag and baggage (A) All the clothing

(B) W ithout any belonging

(C) Leave

(D) W ith all one’s belongings

To end in smoke (A) To come to nothing (C) To praise oneself

(B) To gain importance (D) To reach target

 At arm’s length (A) Length of arm

(B) At a distance

(C) Insult

(D) Very near  

Get rid of  (A) Invite somenone (C) To begin to do something

(B) Attend an occasion (D) Dispose of  

Tie the knot (A) To get married

(B) To get educated

(C) To hit someone

(D) To be tu turned away

 At daggers drawn (A) real cause

(B) to be puzzled

(C) at enmity

(D) at friendship

Up to the mark (A) Feel greatly

(B) Standard

(C) Extinguish

(D) Below standard

Lean and mean (A) To destroy something (C) Using only what is necessary  All and Sundry (A) Everybody without distinction (C) together  A cock and bull story (A) In Interesting st story (B) A detective st story  A bone of contention (A) (A) Bon Bone e of lion

(B) To create something (D) Not afraid dangerous situations (B) only rich person (D) selected people (C) An ab absurd ta tale

(D) A relevant st story

(B) (B) A reas reason on for for dis disco cord rd (C) (C) Cau Cause se of frie friend ndsh shiip (D) (D) Con Conti tinu nued ed to bed bed DPP NO. 21 TOPIC : SYNONYMS SY NONYMS AND ANTONYMS ANTONYMS

Direction : Choose the correct SYNONYM of Bold words. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

He is a fast runner.  A)  A) Quick

B) Slow

C) Energetic

D) Calm

I am terrible at Mathematics.  A)  A) Good B) Great

C) Awful

D) Fantastic

Have you looked at the Invoice?  A) Pen B) Bill

C) Sheet

D) Paper 

Do you think I am stupid?  A)  A) Dumb B) Intelligent

C) Brilliant

D) Fast

He never comes on time.  A)  A) Sees B) Does

C) Goes

D) Arrives

This toy is inexpensive.  A)  A) Cheap B) Over priced

C) expensive

D) Good

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7. 8. 9. 10.

The music is loud. A) Soft

B) Blaring

C) Pleasant

D) Catchy

I require three big boxes.  A)  A) Need B) Threw

C) Found

D) got

He has a big house.  A)  A) Small

C) Large

D) Great

C) Beautiful

D) Stupid

B) Tiny

My girlfriend is very pretty. A) Ugly B) Strange

Direction : Choose the correct ANTONYM of Bold words. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

He is tall.  A) Short It is hot outside. A) Warm

B) Big

C) Huge

D) Hungry

B) Breezy

C) Cold

D) Stormy

This seems like a good hotel.  A)  A) Brilliant B) Bad

C) Great

D) Dirty

She is foolish.  A)  A) Dumb

C) Brainy

D) W ise

That seems expensive.  A)  A) Overpriced B) W ealthy

C) Great

D) Inexpensive

This house is magnificent.  A)  A) Big B) Small

C) Unimpressive

D) Gigantic

Why are you being so arrogant?  A)  A) Snooty B) Stupid

C) Humble

D) Cunning

What about this restaurant? It's very  popular.  A)  A) Infamous B) Dirty

C) Unpopular

D) Crowded

Do you want to go the beautiful valley?  A)  A) Ugly B) Dirty

C) Filthy

D) Nice

I do not want to live in this filthy colony  colo ny..  A)  A) Nice B) Dirty

C) Clean

D) Pretty

B) Idiotic

DPP NO. 22 TOPIC : JUMBLED WORDS Direction : Rearrange the following words into meaningful sentences : 1.

on/televisions/internet/the/accessed/is

2.

carry/we/laptop/can/easily

3.

important/is/it /eat/to/ breakfast

4.

about/is/education/and/teaching/learning

5.

 America/colombus/discovered

6.

sharda/the/room/being/was/cleaned/by

7.

the/boy/naughty/window/broke/pane/the

8.

soldiers/a/battle/fought/was/by/the

9.

the/wrote/Mahabharata/who

10.

the/sweeps/sweepers/floor/the

11.

differences/air temperature/is caused/it/by/in

12.

weighs/warm air/less than/so/and/rises/it/cold air 

13.

rushes in/cooler air/underneath it/creating winds/then/lts place/take/to

14.

is free/a the din and noise/village/from/city/of/the

15.

crowdfree/there/open/and/atmosphere/is

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DPP NO. 23 TOPIC : GAP FILLING Direction : Fill in the blanks 1. Sher Singh’s father was known far and wide (a)..............‘Sher Singh Bahadur’. He lived a quiet life here in

Laldwani village, grazing grazing his cattle. cultivating his bit of land. But (b).............. there was an expedition (c) ..............the jungle in search of big game, gam e, (d) ..............to shoot or photograph them, they sent (e).............. this man, Bahadur the Brave. He (f)..............find tigers where there were (g).............. tigers at all. He could look at the dry grass and tell everything (h)..............had happened there. 2.

 An American geologist geologist Paul Walker, concerned (a)..............the (a)..............the melting of ice, buried buried a message in a bottle, during his exploration (b)..............‘Ward Hunt Island’ in Nunavcit, Canada (c).............. 1959. He measured the distance - about 1.2 metres - from a glacier to (d) ..............he buried the message in a bottle requesting that (e) ..............who found the note (f).............. contact him with with an update on the glacier’s distance to the bottle site.

3.

 A millionaire Indian couple facing charges (a) .............. enslaving and torturing tortur ing two Indonesian women (b) .............. released (c) ..............bail. (d) ..............of the time the women (e) .............. be kept (f) ..............strict vigilance.

4.

Located on (a)..............Grand Trunk Road between Khanna (b)..............Ludhiana, this serai-fort was built by Mughal chieftain Lashkari Khan (c).............. the 16th century. century. Much of the structure is in ruins and has (d)..............vandalised. (d)..............vandalised. The serai gained attention (e)..............parts (e)..............parts of the Bollywood film “Rang de Basanti” (f)..............shot here. DPP NO. 24 TOPIC : OMISSION + ERROR SPOTING

Omission In the following passages one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and after it in your answer sheet against the correct blank number. Ensure that the word that forms your answer is underlined. 1.

In evening when we reached home (a) of us were too tired to even think. (b) All decided to have tea and snacks. (c) Being eldest I had to prepare everything. (d) I opened the refrigerator to find there wasn't mil milk (e) to to pr prepare ten cu cups of te tea and very butter to to make (f) sa sandwiches. So Somehow I ma managed to to pr prepare te tea. (g) Everyone enjoyed tea and the snacks that (h) I served but there wasn't tea left for me.

e.g. In the evening (a) _____________   (b) _____________   (c) _____________   (d) _____________  (e) _____________  (f) __ _____________   (g) _____________   (h) _____________  

2.

(a) Macbeth not really like to play fool. (b) But the witches promised him greatness, (c) (c) and and alre alread ady y two two of thei theirr pred predic icti tion ons s had had prov prove ed true true.. (d) Now his mind to be obsessed with the intense (e) de desire fo for the th third prediction to co come true. ItIt only (f) (f) hum human an to want want this this grea greatn tnes ess. s. As the the see seeds ds of ambi ambiti tion on (g) (g) gro grow wing ing his his min mind to to thi think nk dark dark thou thoug ghts hts abo about ut getti etting ng (h) (h) rid rid of Dun Dunca can n and and his his son sons. s. Bei Being ng kin king g a ver very y att attra ract ctiv ive e proposition indeed.

(a) _____________   (b) _____________   (c) (c) ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ___  _  (d) _____________   (e) _____________  (f) (f) ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ___  _  (g) (g) ___ ____ _____ ______ ____ ___  _  (h) (h) ___ _____ ____ ____ ____ ____  __ 

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 Error Spotting The following passages have not been edited. There is one error in each of the lines. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet as given below against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied. Incorrect Correct 1.

2.

The house on which we were to live was in one end of the village. It was hiding behind a screen of mango and orange tree and bushes of hibiscus full from enormous scar scarllet flow flowe ers. rs. The The hous house e were ere adeq adequa uate te witho ithout ut be luxur uxuriious ous. We had had jus just fini finish shed ed unp unpacki ackin ng when hen they they were ere gree greete ted d by the the housekeeper which name was Paula.

e.g. on (a) ______________ (b) ______________ (c) ______________ (d) ______________ (e) (e) ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____ __ (f) (f) ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____ __ (g) (g) ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____ __ (h) __ ______________

Dance is an art form is e.g. well known, for dance as a (a) therapy is not known in many. (b) Dance therapy involves a synthesis (c) of the grace and vigour on Indian (d) classical and folk dance movements into a innovative (e) holistic therapy. It brings over the (j) inner feelings for the participants (g) and can help them with develop a healthy personality. personality. (h)

in ______________   ______________   ______________   ______________   ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____  __  ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____  __  ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____  __  ______________  

Incorrect

Correct

is __________ __________ __________ __________

as __________   __________   __________   __________  

__________ __________ __________

__________   __________   __________  

__________

__________  

DPP NO. 25 THREE QUESTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Why did the king send two messengers throughout his kingdom? How did the king promise to reward the person who would answer his questions correctly? Whose advice did the king finally think of seeking? Who did go alongwith the king to meet the hermit? During which time of the day would the hermit would leave the forest and go out? Why was the king k ing advised to listen to his soldiers? Why did the king refuse to give reward to anyone? THE SQUIRREL

1. 2. 3. 4.

What is being compared to a gray overcoat? Discuss the posture of the squirrel as discussed in line 3 of the poem. Having observed the squirrels around us, can we say that a squirrel is a fast paced animal? What does the poem say about the poet's choice of subject? DPP NO. 26 A GIFT OF CHAPPALS

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Who is Mridu and with whom Mridu went to Rukku Manni's place? Why was Ravi dragging Mridu towards the backyard? Why were the red chilli kept in the backyard? The beggar was leaning against what in Ravi's garden? Mridu had noticed in front of Meena's house a pair of chappals. Whom did they belong to? What was in the cat's name that pleased Mridu? How did Ravi link his cat with the Pallava kings?

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27

THE REBEL 1. 2. 3. 4.

What does the rebel do when everybody talks talks during the lessons? Why does the rebel choose to wear fantastic clothes? Why do rebels always contradict the others? Why does the society disapprove of the rebels? DPP NO. 27  GOPAL AND THE HILSA-FISH

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

How did the fishmongers lure the customers to buy Hilsa? Who was Gopal? What did Gopal's wife think about him? What were the remarks of two men on seeing Gopal in the market? What was the king's reaction when he came to know that he had lost the challenge? What happened when the king hear his courtiers talking about Hilsa fish? Why did Gopla's wife ffind ind his activities strange? THE SHED

1. 2. 3. 4.

Why were the hinges of the door rusty? What does the speaker usually do while lying in the bed? What did the speaker's brother say about the shed? Comment on the speaker's resolve to go inside the shed? DPP NO. 28 THE ASHES THAT THAT MADE M ADE TREES BLOOM

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

What did the kind farmer do with the money he made from the gold? How did the daimios reward the kind farmer? What did the leader of the van do with the kind old man? Why did the wicked couple drop their tools? How did the wicked couple behave with the dogs passing by their house? How did the kind old couple treat their dog? Describe the change the cherry tree underwent after the kind old poured a pinch of ash over it. CHIVVY

1. 2. 3.

Why do the grown-ups tell the children not to talk with their mouth full? What all instructions are given by the adults regarding noise? What happens when the adults give too many instructions to the children? DPP NO. 29 QUALITY

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

What proves that Mr Gessler was not an Englishman? Where did Mr Gessler live? What distinction Mr Gessler's shop had? How did Mr Gessler found that the boot was not comfortable for author? What material Mr Gessler used to make the boots? Why did author preferred boots made by Mr Gessler than that of big firms? The author felt sorry for complaining about his boots. What made him feel so? TREES

1. 2. 3. 4.

Who have tea parties under the trees? To what use a mother puts the trees? Why do the fathers find trees useful? Why the chopped down trees are called timber?

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DPP NO. 30 EXPERT DETECTIVES 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Why Maya called Nishad Seven? Name the narrator in the lesson 'Expert Detectives'.  According to Maya what what was the cause behind Mr Mr Nath's scars? What did Mr Nath thought Nishad had come to his place the second time for? How was Nishad spending his unexpected holiday? What made Nishad turn sympathetic towards Mr Nath? Give a brief description about Mr Nath's visitor. visitor. MYSTERY OF THE TAKING FAN

1. 2. 3. 4.

What does the phrase, "he ran as still as water" mean? What was troubling the talking fan? Why was all the 'mystery' 'm ystery' spoilt? Who do you think or understand what the talking fan wished to convey? DPP NO. 31 THE INVENTION OF VITA-WONK VITA-WONK

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

 According to Charlie, what what lives the longest? longest? Bristlecone pine trees live the longest. Whom did Mr Wonka asked Charlie to confirm his fact with? What was unique about the Great Glass Elevator? Whose knucklebones were collected by Willy Wonka? Where did the old flea collected by Mr Wonka live? What was the need for Mr Wonka to invent Vita-Wonk? Name five ancient things collected by Mr Wonka. W onka. DAD AND THE CAT AND THE TREE

1. 2. 3. 4.

How many times does the narrator's father try to climb the tree? From where did the narrator' father get the ladder? Describe the tone in which the narrator's father dismissed his wife's warning every single time. Discuss plan A, B and C and the reasons for f or their respective failures. DPP NO. 32 FIRE : FRIEND AND FOE

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Why the early man was afraid of fire? Give some examples of fuel. Why a newspaper or stick lying in the open does not catch fire on its own? Why gaps are left between buildings during construction? How the discovery of fire has helped the mankind? m ankind? How fire is a good servant? Before fire brigades were set out, how people tried to put out fire? MEADOW SURPRISES

1. 2. 3. 4.

What kind of surprise could be found while walking on the grass? Why is one unable to see a rabbit initially? Which all houses are characterised by the term 'meadow houses'? Describe the various sights that one comes across in the meadows.

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DPP NO. 33 A BICYCLE IN GOOD REPAIR 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Where did the author planned to do alongwith his friend? Who the author called the right person to shake the bicycle? Which was the toughest part of the bicycle that the author's friend found the toughest to fix? How the author and his friend spent the entire day? Was it right for the author's friend to dismantle the bicycle? How did the author said to encourage his friend f riend to fix the gear-case? What happened to the ball bearings? GARDEN SNAKE

1. 2. 3. 4.

Why did the narrator run away seeing the garden snake? What does a garden snake eat? What makes the child comfortable the next time he sees the garden snake? What lesson does the young child narrator learn from his mother? DPP NO. 34 THE STORY OF CRICKET

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Name one cricket ground that is oval in shape. Mention the year when the cricket rules were written for the first time. State two changes that were seen in the game of crick et around 1780. The game of cricket traces its origin from where? Where and by which community cricket was initially played played in India? What are the changes the cricket bat has undergone with time? CK Nayudu name is recorded in his history of cricket. What are the reasons that make him a legend?

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 VIBRANT ACADEMY  ACADEMY 

MATHEMATICS  CLASS – VII (CBSE)

(India) Private Limited DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET

DPP NO. 01 TOPIC: INTEGERS 1.

Closure property is observed with respect to .......... operation in integers. (A) +,X (B) +,X,/ (C) +,X,– (D) +,–,/

2.

The sum of two integers is – 16. If one them is 20, then the other is : (A) 36 (B) 4 (C) – 36

(D) none of these

What must be subtracted from – 3 to get – 9 ? (A) – 6 (B) 12

(C) 6

(D) – 12

(C) –1 or 1

(D) 2

3. 4.

27

53

4

The value of (–1 )  × (–1) × (–1)  is (A) –1 (B) 1

5.

The product of two integers is 12, if one integer is – 3 then the other one is : (A) + 4 (B) – 4 (C) 3 (D) – 3

6.

Resolve the brackets and simplify: (28  2)  (56  8). (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3

7.

For integers: (A) Addition is associative (C) Integer “0” is the identity under addition

(D) 2

(B) Addition is commutative (D) All of the above

8.

Identify the property used in the following: 2 × 13 + 8 × 13 = ( 2+8 ) × 13 (A) Commutative (B) Closure (C) Associative (D) Distributive

9.

(9)  4 6  8  4 .





(A) –15 10.

The reciprocal of

1 9

(A) –9 11.

(B) –33

(C) 10

(D) 33

(B) 9

(C) 1

(D) –1

 is :

Write the value of : (i) |18 – 8|

(ii) – |3 – 2 |

(iii) 39 – [23 – {29 – (17 – 9 – 3 )}].

(iv) 118 – [121 ÷ (11 × 11) – (– 4) – { 3 – 9 – 2  }].

12.

Arrange the following integers in descending order: (i) –1, 10, 0, –3, 5, 99, –100 (ii) – 99, 54, 89, 70, –3, 0

13.

Verify and name the property used : (i) –110 × (–237) = (–237) × (–110)

14.

15.

Fill in the blanks. (i) 3 + 2 + (– 5) = ............ (iii) – 3 + (– 2) – (5) = ....... (v) 312 + ..... = 312 (vii) (– 2) × (– 3) × (– 4) = ...... (ix) 30  .... = – 6 (xi) 301 × 305 × 307 = 307 × ..... × 305 (xiii) 3 × .... = 3 (xv) 0  700 = ....

(ii) (–35 × 4) × (–152) = –35 × [4 × (–152)] (ii) 5 – (– 7) + (– 2) = ....... (iv) 750 + ..... = 0 (vi) 7 × (– 3) × (– 2) = ..... (viii) 5 × 6 × .... = – 30 (x) – 42  ....... = 21 (xii) 7 × [60 + 75] = 7 × 60 + 7 × ..... (xiv) 5  .... = 1

(a) Write a pair of negative integers whose difference is 7. (b) Write a pair of positive integers whose difference is – 5.

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DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : FRACTIONS AND DECIMALS 1.

Which of the following is a reducible fraction? 105 104 (A)   (B)   112 121

(C)

77   72

(D)

2.

What should be subtracted from 0.1 to get 0.03 ? (A) 0.7 (B) 0.07 (C) 0.007 (D) none of these

3.

The place value of 3 in 9.453 is: (A) tenth (C) thousandth

(B) hundredth (D) thousand

If a = 2 × 3 and b = 3  2 then (A) a > b (C) a = b

(B) a < b (D) none of the above

4.

3

5.

Which number completes the equivalent fraction? (A) 14 (C) 27

6.

The expression (A)

7.

8.

9.

10.

9 ?

(B) 24 (D) None of these

  4 1       is equivalent to 15  15 3  1

1

(B) 9

9

(C)

Which one is correct? (A) 0· 658 < 0.732 < 0 . 514 < 0 . 813 (C) 0·813 < 0 ·732 < 0·658 < 0 . 514 1 Solve : 1 1 1 2 3 1 3 (A)   (B)   6 10

By what number should 1

2

1 2

(C)

 be divided to get

(B) 1

3 45

3

 

31

(D) 5

5

7 10

 

(D)

(C) 1

2 3

(C)

4

(D) 2

9 4

The product of two decimals is 1.5008 . If one of them is 0.56, find the other.

13.

(i) Express in rupee (a) 335 paise (b) 8 rupees and 5 paise (ii) Arrange decimal in ascending order 2.3450, 2.34, 2.3415, 2.34005. (iii) Express 45 mm in cm, m and km. (iv) Write 2305.007 in expanded form.

14.

Find the value of (i) 0.3 × 0.3 × 0.3 (iv) 2.73 × 1000

 Arrange the following in descending order

11

(iii) 39.13

 and

3

12.

15.

from the difference of 3

(ii) 0.3 + 0.03 + 0.003 (v) 0.3  100

6

?

Subtract the sum of

33

5

(D) 0.8962

11.

66

 and

2

1

(B) 0· 514 < 0· 658 < 0 . 732 < 0 . 813 (D) 0· 514 < 0· 732 < 0 . 658 < 0 . 813

0.64 × 0.64 + 0.64 × 0.72 + 0.36 × 0.36 = ...... (A) 0.5392 (B) 0.9682

(A) 2

8

 =

46 63

22

1 4

 .

 1.3

1 5 3 9 , , , . 8 2 16 24

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DPP NO. 03 TOPIC : RATIONAL NUMBER 1.

The reciprocal of (A)

2.

22

 

(B)

Multiplicative inverse of (A)

3.

7

  3  5     9  3   is :      11 6   22 4 

0

5.

6.

5

What is the product of

8.

102 10 2 119

If

x

4 7

 

3

(B) 7

 =

3 (A) – 14

If

6

7

(D)

22

1 2

If

2 3 4

18

3 11

 22

(C)

3

and 2

4

5

(D) Not defined

1

? (C)

 12

1 4

 

(D)

(D)

(D)

 17

5 12

15 21

3 4

6 7

 

(C)

6

(D) none of these

17

(B) 14

(C) 21

(D) – 21

 m rope is cut into 10 equal pieces, then the length of each piece will be:

If x  , y  (A)

7

, then the value of x is :

(B)

4

6 5

2

1 2

(C) 2

m

1 3

1

m

(D)

2

 

(D)

5 18

4

m

, z  2, then  (x÷y) ÷ z is equal to:

 

(B)

18 5

of a number is 22. What is

(A) 6 11.

1

 

 in standard form is :

1

10.

6

22

is :

(B) 24

(A) 1 m 9.

(C)

Which of the following is not equal to the others? 25 40 5 (A)   (B)   (C)    35 56 7 Which of the following is in the standard form? 9 3 3 (A)   (B)   (C)   12 4 4

(A) 7.

5

7

 

(B)–5

(A) –12 4.

0

22

 

(C)

6 11

5 18

of that number?

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 44

 Arrange the following in ascending order 3 4 7 1 2 , , , , 5

5

15

20

5

  5        ×  15   6  

Find the value of

13.

Draw a number line and represent (i) –

3 4

 

(i)

3

12.

(ii)

14.

Find the value of a and b, If

15.

Solve : (i) 

  7        12  



(ii)

9

(iii) –

7

12 15

  5       7      +   –   3   6     9   2

 =

a 20

 =

 14     (ii) 3  × 3  – 3 24     7 7 7

28  b



8 3

 

(iv)

2 11

.

3 7

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DPP NO. 04 TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLE 1.

Ram’s father age is 2 times as old as Ram. If sum of there ages is 48. Find Ram’s age. (A) 16 years (B) 17 years (D) 18 years (D) 19 years

2.

Sum of three consecutive number is 45. Find the larger number. (A) 12 (B) 16 (D) 15

3.

Solve for x : 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 7(x + 2) + 4(x + 3) (A)

4.

3 2

 

(B)

Solve for x :

Solve :

If

x 4



2

 

(C)

(B) 11

2x – (2 x – 3) 3x – ( 4x  3)

(B) 0 x 3 6

2 3

 

(D)

2 3

(C) 12

(D) – 12

(C) –1

(D) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

 = –1

(A) 1 6.

 –3

2 x  2 = 3 x – 3

(A) – 11 5.

(D) 14

 1 , then x is equal to -

(A) 12

(B) 6

7.

If twice a certain number is diminished by five, the result is equal to twelve added to the number. Find the number(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 15 (D) 17

8.

Solve :

x  b a  b



x  b a  b

(A) a 9.

(B) 2a

Solve for x : 0.5x  (A) 12

10.

.

x 3

(C) –a

(D) –2a

(C) 21

(D) 82

 0.25x  7 . (B) 14

The denominator denominator of a fraction is greater than numerator by 6. If 3 is added to numerator and 2 is 6 subtracted from denominator, the fraction becomes , then the equation so formed is 7 (A)

x4 x 3



6 7

 

(B)

x3 x4



6 7

 

(C)

x x6



3

2



6 7

 

11.

Write equation for the following statement (i) Sum of x and y is 5 (ii) five times a is 60 (iii) two times of x is added with 5 times of y given 99. (iv) x is 99 more than y (v) addition of a number and one fourth of the number gives 25.

12.

Solve the following linear equation 3p (i) 2m + 8 = 16 (ii) =8 5 (v) 12 = 5(t – 2) + 3

(iii) 3x + 7 = 0

(D)

x x 6



2 3



6 7

(iv) 5x = 0

(vi) 3 = – 4(t + 1) + 3(t – 2)

13.

Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number will be ?

14.

Find two consecutive positive odd integers whose sum is 76.

15.

The total cost of 3 tables and 2 chairs is Rs. 1850. If a table costs Rs. 75 more than a chair, find the price of each.

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DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES 1.

In the given figure, if AOB is a straight line, then the value of x is : D x + 15°

2.

(C)

22

1

(D) 150°

2

How many degrees are there in an angle which equals one fifth of its supplement ? (B) 30°

(C) 75°

(D) 150°

For what value of x will line l be parallel to line m ?

(A) 50º 4.

x + 30° B

(B) 45°

(A) 15° 3.

45° O

 A (A) 90°

C

(B) 53º

(C) 52º

(D) 51º

In the given figure, straight lines PQ and RS intersect at O. If the magnitude of

 is 3 times that of ,

than  is equal to : R

Q O S

P

(A) 30° 5.

(B) 40°

(C) 45°

(D) 60°

In the given figure, AB || CD,  ABO = 40° and CDO = 30°. If

DOB = x°, then the value of x is :  A

B 40° O

C

(A) 35° 6.

(B) 110°

x 30°

D

(C) 70°

(D) 140°

In the adjoining figure AB || CD and PQ, QR intersects AB and CD both at E, F and G, H respectively. Given that m

(A) 40º

PEB = 80º, m QHD = 120º and m PQR = xº, find the value of x :

(B) 20º

(C) 100º

(D) 30º

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7.

In the given figure, if EC || AB,

(A) 20° 8.

(B) 50°

(C) 60°

(D) 70°

(C) 45º

(D) 60º

In the given figure, AB || CD. The value of x is :

(A) 20º 9.

ECD = 70° and BDO = 20°, then OBD is :

(B) 30º

 As shown in figure, line AB || line PQ, m ONQ = 110º, m MYO = 80º. Find m MOX : M

Y

 A

80º

P

O 110º X

(A) 190º 10.

B Q

N

(B) 30º

(C) 150º

Z.

In the figure AB || CD and line t 1 || t2, find the measure of t

t

1

20º

 A

2

Z

F

H

90º C

(A) 90º 11.

(D) 70º

D

G

(B) 70º

B

(C) 110º

(D) 130º

Find the angles in each of the following : (i) The angles are complementary and the smaller is 40° less than the larger (ii) The angles are supplementary and the larger is 58° more than the smaller.

12.

If  A = (4x + 2)°, what is the measure of the complement of  A = ?

13.

AD bisects

CAB . If CAD = (8x + 6)° and DAB = (x + 20)°, what is the value of x ? C D A

B

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14.

In the given figure identify D O  A

B C

E

(i) Three pairs of adjacent angle (ii) Two linear pair (iii) Two pair of vertically opposite angle 15.

In figure, if x + y = w + z then prove that AOB is a straight line.

DPP NO. 06 Topic : Triangles 1.

2.

3.

4.

In triangle ABC ,If

 A 

 B 2



C  3

  find  A of a triangle –

(A) 30º

(B) 60º

(C) 90º

(D) none of these

The perimeter of rectangle whose length is 40 cm and a diagonal 41 cm (A) 96 cm

(B) 98 cm

(C) 92 cm

(D) 90 cm

The largest side of a right triangle is : (A) median

(B) altitude

(C) angle bisector

(D) hypotenuse

A tree is broken at a height of 5 m from the ground and its top touches the ground at a distance of 12 m from the base of the tree. Find original height of the tree

5.

(A) 13 m

(B) 18 m

(C) 17 m

(D) 19 m

In Fig., PQ = PR, RS = RQ and ST QR. If the exterior angle RPU is 140°, then the measure of angle TSR is U P

S

140º

T

Q (A) 55° 6.

(B) 40°

(C) 50°

(D) 45° 2

In an equilateral triangle ABC, AD is an altitude. Then 4AD  is equal to 2

(A) 2BD 7.

R

2

(B) BC

2

(C) 3AB

(D) 2DC

2

If length of two sides of a triangle are 6 cm and 10 cm, then the length of the third side can be (A) 3 cm

(B) 4 cm

(C) 2 cm

(D) 6 cm

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8.

If we join a vertex to a point on opposite side which divides that side in the ratio 1:1, then what is the special name of that line segment?

9.

(A) Median

(B) Angle bisector

(C) Altitude

(D) Hypotenuse

In Fig. 6.11, the value of  A + B + C +

D + E + F is  A

F

E

B

C D

10.

(A) 190°

(B) 540°

(C) 360°

(D) 180°

Which of the following statements is not correct? (A) The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side (B) A triangle can have all its angles acute (C) A right-angled triangle cannot be equilateral (D) Difference of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side

Directions (Q.11) : Find the value of x in the given figure.

11.

12.

In the diagram if AB = AD = BD = DC, then find out the xº

13.

Is it possible to construct a triangle : (a) with side 7, 8, 2

(b) with side 8, 4, 4

(c) with angle 30º, 60º, 90º

(d) with two obtuse angle

(e) with two right angle

(f) with all angle less than 60º.

Justify 14.

Two poles are 6m apart of length 18m and 10m. Find the distance between their tops.

15.

In a quadrilateral ABCD . Prove that

(i) AB + BC + CD + DA > AC + BD (ii) AB + BC + CD + DA < 2( AC + BD)

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DPP NO. 07 TOPIC : Congruency of triangles 1.

In Fig. 6.18, M is the mid-point of both AC and BD. Then D

 A 1

2

M

4

3 B (A) 2.

3.

1 = 2

(B)

1 = 4

C (C) 2 = 4

(D)

1 = 3

Which one of the following is not a criterion for congruence of two triangles ? (A) ASA

(B) SSA

(C) SAS

(D) SSS

If for  ABC and

DEF, the correspondence CAB  EDF gives a congruence, then which of the

following is not true?

4.

(A) AC = DE

(B) AB = EF

(C)  A = D

(D)

C = E

Two triangles are congruent, if two angles and the side included between them in one of the triangles are equal to the two angles and the side included between them of the other triangle. This is known as the

5.

(A) RHS congruence criterion

(B) ASA congruence criterion

(C) SAS congruence criterion

(D) AAA congruence criterion

By which congruency criterion, the two triangles in Fig. are congruent? P a cm

a cm R

S

b cm

b cm

Q

(A) RHS 6.

If  ABC and

(B) ASA

(C) SSS

(D) SAS

DBC are on the same base BC, AB = DC and AC = DB (Fig. 6.21), then which of the

following gives a congruence relationship?

 A

D

C

B (A)  ABC

 DBC (C)  ABC  DCB

7.

(B)  ABC  CBD (D)  ABC  BCD

By which of the following criterion two triangles cannot be proved congruent? (A) AAA

(B) SSS

(C) SAS

(D) ASA

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8.

If PQR is congruent to STU Fig., then what is the length of TU?

P

U 7 cm

5 cm

Q

9.

R

6 cm

T

S

(A) 5 cm

(B) 6 cm

(C) 7 cm

(D) cannot be determined

In Fig.,  ARO

  Q  A

55º

O P

55º R

10.

(A) POQ

(B) QPO

(C) PQO

(D) None of these

If  ABC  PQR and  ABC = 60°, then find the magnitude of (A) 60°

11.

(B) 120°

PQR.

(C) 40°

(D) 90°

In figure, D and E are the mid-points of equal sides AB and AC of  ABC respect ively prove that BE = CD.

12.

Triangle DEF and LMN are both isosceles with DE = DF and LM = LN, respectively. If DE DE = LM and and EF = MN then, are the two triangles congruent ? Which condition do you use ? If measure of

13.

In fig.

E = 40º, what is the

N.

P = S = 90º and PQ = SR. Is PRQ  STR ? Give reason in support of your answer. T Q

P

14.

In

R

S

PQR and SQR are both isosceles triangle on a common base QR such that P and S lie on the

same side of QR. Are triangle PSQ and PSR congruent. Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. " Ltd.  "A-14(A) A-14(A)"" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (edge.vibrantacademy.com)

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15.

In Fig, QS PR, RT

PQ and QS = RT. P

T

S R

Q (i) Is QSR   RTQ? Give reasons.

PQR = PRQ? Give reasons.

(ii) Is DPP NO. 08

TOPIC: Exponents 1.

 –1

(A) 2.  2. 

 –1  –1

(6  – 8 )  =

(–1)

1

(B) 24

24 301

 + (–1)

302

303

 + (–1)

 + … + (–1)

(A) 1

3.

4.

5

11

1

(B) –

2

3 4

 

(D)

4 3

(C) 256 x yz

y zx

(D) None of these

z xy

If xyz = 0, then find the value of (a )  + (a )  + (a )  = (B) 2

If x = 2 and y = 4, then

2   2 1             2      

(C) 1

(D) 0

(B) 8

(C) 12

(D) 2

(B) 16

(C)

 x     y 

x y

y        x 

y x

=

1

 = ?

1 16

1 16

(D) – 16

The expression 61 × 61 × 61 × 61 × 61 can be written as : 4

5

(B) 61

(C) 61

3

(D) 61

2

By what number should (– 8) –1 be multiplied to get 10 –1 ? (A)

10.

(C)

(B) 216

(A) 61 9.

4

 

3/2

(A) 8.

3

(1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11)  =

(A) 4

7.

(D) 0

24

8x

(A) 3

6.

(C) 100

1

 5   5        , then x = ?  3   3 

(A) 36 5.

(D) –

=

(B) 101

 5  If    3  (A) –

400

(C) – 24

4 5

 

  1  3  1  3         2    3 

(A)

19   64

(B)



  1     4 

5

 

(C)

64   19

(C)

4

4 5

(D) none of these

3

=? (B)

27 16

(D) none of these

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4

3

1

11.

Find the value of (–2ab)  when a =

12.

Simplify and express the result in power notation : 23

 4   4       5   5  13.

5

,b=

2

.

37

Find the value of x in each case : 8

7

 4   4   4  (i)          5   5   5 

2 x 1

(ii) (7)

14.

Rewrite 4963 in expanded form using exponents.

15.

Simplify : (i)

(iii)

(v)

154  9 4  80 12 2  27 2

 

(ii)

3  2 2  52 8  32  124 ( 4  3)

 (7)4–x = 78

43  x 4  6 x 3 2  x2

(iv) (6° + 7° + 8°)

4  15 4

6

3 2

 (2  3)

6

(vi) [(9 )  ×9 ]  9

2

 3

10

DPP NO. 09 TOPIC : Algebraic Expressions 1.

2

What should be subtracted from (2 – x + x ) to obtain (x – 1) ? (A) 2x – 3 – x

2.

2

2

(B) 3 + 2x – x

2

2

2

(B) 2a  + ab – 15b

2

2

(C) 2a  – ab – 15b

(B) –1

2

2

(D) 2a  – ab + 15b

2

(C) 2

(D) – 2

If A = 2, B = –1, C = – 3, find the value of 2(A +B) + 3(B + C) – 4 (C + A). (B) 6

(C) 5

(D) None of these

(C) 1

(D) None of these

2

The degree of the polynomial x  + 1 (A) 3

6.

2

2

(A) – 6 5.

(D) 3 – 2x + x

What should be the value a if the value of 3x  – 5x + a equals to 7, when x = – 1 (A) 1

4.

2

(2a + 5b) × (a – 3b) = ? (A) 2a + ab + 15b

3.

(C) 3 + 2x + x

(B) 2

The length of a side of square is given as 2 x + 3. Which expression represents the perimeter of the square? (A) 2 x + 16

7.

(C) –1

(D) 11

(B) 0 2

2

2

Number of terms in the expression 3 x  y – 2y  2y  z – z  x + 5 is (B) 3 2

(C) 4

(D) 5

(C) 7yz 

(D) 7z 

(C) – 1 × x × y

(D) – 1 × x × x × y × y 

2

 xyz – 2z  The coefficient of xy of xy in 3 x   + zy + 7 xyz – 2z  x is (A) 3z  3z 

10.

(D) 8 x + 12

2

(A) 2 9.

(C) 8 x + 3

The value of 3 x   – 5 x + 3 when x when x = 1 is (A) 1

8.

(B) 6x + 9

(B) – 2 2

The factors of the term – xy   are (A) x (A) x × y × y 

(B) – 1 × y × y 

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11.

Determine the polynomial according to number of terms. (i) x + y + z

3

(ii) xyz 5

3

(iii) 7x  – 2x  + 5x

2

4

2

2

12.

Subtract : 4.5x  – 3.4x  + 5.7 from 5x  – 3.2x  – 7.3x.

13.

Find the values of following polynomials at m = 1, n = –1 and p and p = 2: 2 2

2 2

2

m n  + n p  + p m 14.

(iv) 1 + 2 + 3

2

2

2

Rohan's mother gave him 3xy   and his father gave him 5(xy +2). Out of this total money he spent 2

(10–3xy ) on his birthday party. How much money is left with him? 15.

 x – 3) metres long. A length of (3 x –  x – 4) metres is cut for use. How much wire is left? A wire is (7 x – DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : Ratio and Proportion

1.

The average age of the three boys is 15 years. years. Their ages are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the oldest is (A) 7 years

2.

4.

5.

(C) 29 : 22

(D) 61 : 26

(B) 4:9

(C) Both are equal

(D) None of these

Are 36, 49, 6, 7 in proportion. (A) Yes

(B) No

(C) Can not be determined

(D) None of these

The mean proportional between 0.08 and 0.18 is :

If 4,

a

(B) 0.39

(C) 0.48

(D) 0.60

, 9 are in continued proportion, then a has the value – (B) –6

(C) 36

(D) –36

Reema types 540 word during half an hour. How many words would she type in 6 minutes? (A) 1800

8.

(B) 26 : 61

(A) 3:7

(A) 6 7.

(D) 21 years

Which ratio is greater : (3 : 7) or (4 : 9)

(A) 0.12 6.

(C) 20 years

If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is:(A) 22 : 29

3.

(B) 14 years

(B) 216

(C) 108

(D) 540

In a library 136 copies of certain book require a shelf – length of 13.6m. How many copies of the same book would occupy a shelf – length of 5.1 m? (A) 36

9.

(B) 51

(C) 136

(D) 510

In a bag, there are coins coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If If there are Rs. 30 in all, how many 5 p coins are there ? (A) 50

10.

11.

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 200

The cost of 20 kg of milk is  500. Find the cost of 59 kg of milk. (A) Rs.1475

(B) Rs. 1059

(C) Rs. 500

(D) None of these

Find the ratio of (i) 60 paise : 3 rupees

(ii) 2 m 7 cm : 36 cm

(iii) 2 years : 10 months

(iv) 3 kg 250 g : 5 kg

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12.

Express the following in the simplest form (ii) 2

(i) 28 : 80 13.

:

3

8 7

(iii) 1

 

1

:3:4

2

1 2

1

 

(iv)

:

6

1 8

:

1 12

Find the value of x for which the following forms a proportion : (i) 16 : 8 :: 7 : x

14.

2

(ii) 36 : 45 :: 16 : 2x

The ratio ratio of the present ages of Salma and Mona is is 2 : 3. Two years hence, the ratio of their ages will will be 5 : 7. Determine their present ages .

15.

Are the following in proportion ? (i) 45, 60, 30, 40

(ii) 84, 42, 44, 22

(iii) 43, 55, 65, 170

(iv) 450, 400, 350, 300

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : PERCENTAGE 1.

Rs. 25 as percentage of RS.75 is (A) 3%

2.

(B) 30%

(D) 37%

(C) 950

(D) 850

40% of ? + 180 = 564, then the missing value is (A) 960

3.

(C) 33.3%

(B) 860

 A person sells 36 oranges per rupee and incurs a loss of 4%. How many oranges per rupees r upees to be sold to have a gain of 8% ? (A) 32

4.

(B) 30

(D) 34

(C) 11 paise

(D) None of these

Difference between a rupee and 1%of a rupee is (A) 99 paise

5.

(C) 28

(B) 1.01 paise

 A m an purchased a bag ba g of rice containing 70 kg k g for Rs. 175. He sold it at the rate of Rs. 2.75 per kg. Then the profit or loss in % is (A) 12% loss

6.

(B) 10%gain

(C) 12%gain

(D) 10% loss

The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of  x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x of x is: (A)15

7.

(B) 16

(C) 18

(D) 25

On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is: (A) Rs. 45

8.

(B) Rs. 50

(C) Rs. 55

(D) Rs. 60

 A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22.5% on h is cost price. If in a week, his sale was of Rs. 392, what was his profit? (A) Rs. 18.20

9.

(B) Rs. 70

(C) Rs. 72

(D) Rs. 88.25

There would be 10% loss if a toy is sold at Rs 10.80 per piece. At what price should it be sold to earn a profit of 20% . (A) 12

10.

(B) 14.40

(C) 12.96

(D) None

 A man buys bu ys oranges at Rs 5 a dozen an d an equal number at Rs 4 a dozen. He sells them at Rs 5.50 a dozen and makes a profit of Rs 50. How many oranges does he buy? (A) 30 dozens

11.

In an orchard 16

(B) 50 dozens

2 3

(C) 40 dozens

(D)60 dozens

% of the trees are apple trees. If the number of trees in the orchard is 240, find the

number of other type of trees in the orchard. Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. " Ltd.  "A-14(A) A-14(A)"" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (edge.vibrantacademy.com)

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12.

Neeraj borrowed a sum of money at 10 2

1 2

1 2

% per annum from a bank. If he paid  1863.75 as interest for

years, find the sum.

1

13.

Find the time when principal =  640, Rate =12

14.

Nandan sells a quintal of wheat for  308 thereby, gaining a profit of 12%.

2

% per annum and Simple Interest =  40.

By selling a quintal of rice for the same amount, he losses 12%. Find the C.P. of both rice and wheat.  Also his total gain or loss. 15.

If a man were to sell his hand cart for  720, he would loss 25%. What must be the selling price if he were to gain 25% ? DPP NO. 12 TOPIC : PROFIT,LOSS AND DISCOUNT

1.

Shyam purchased 20 dozens of toys at the rate of Rs.375 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the rate of Rs. 33. What was his percentage profit ? (A) 3.5

2.

(B) 4.5

A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22

(C) 5.6

1 2

(D) None of these

% on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was of Rs. 392, what

was his profit ? (A) Rs.28 3.

(B) Rs.70

(C) Rs.72

(D) Rs.88.25

Two horses were sold for Rs. Rs. 12,000 each, one at a loss of 20% and the other at a gain of 20%. The entire transaction resulted in

4.

(A) no loss , no gain

(B) a loss of Rs. 1,000

(C) a gain of Rs. 1,000

(D) None of these

An article is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for  30 more, the profit would have been 25%, find the C.P. (A) Rs. 300

5.

(B) Rs. 200

(C) Rs. 400

(D) Rs. 500

By selling a chair for  160, a carpenter loses 20%. How much percent would he gain or loss by selling it for  170 ?

6.

(A) loss 15%

(B) Profit 25%

(C) loss 25%

(D) Profit 15%

Bela purchased a second hand car for  89,000. She spent  21,000 on its repair and sold it to Aman for  1,10,000. Find her profit or loss in this transaction.

7.

(A) Profit

(B) Loss

(C) No profit no loss

(D) Can not be determined

A shopkeeper sold apples for  30 per kg. If the shopkeeper made a loss of  5.50 per kg what was the cost price of 1 kg of apples ? (A)  36.50

8.

(B)  35.50

(C)  33.50

(D)  25.50

A machine was purchased for Rs. 445 and Rs. 25 were paid for transportation. If it be sold for Rs. 517, find the gain per cent. (A) 8%

(B) 10%

(C) 12%

(D) 15%

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9.

Mr. Virmanic purchased a house for Rs. 365000 and spent Rs. 135000 on its repairs. If he sold it for Rs. 550000, find his gain percent. (A) 6%

10.

(B) 8%

(C) 10%

(D) 12%

Shikha purchased a wrist watch for Rs. Rs. 840 840 and sold it to her friend Vidhi for Rs. 910. Find her gain percent. (A)

11.

25 3

%

(B)

25 16

%

(C)

9 16

%

(D) None of these

A business man makes a 10% profit by selling a toy costing him Rs. 120. What is the selling price ? (A) Rs. 132

(B) Rs. 232

(C) Rs. 157

(D) Rs. 253

12.

A team won 65% of their matches and draw 24% of them. What percentage did they lose ?

13.

In a garage, 16 of the 30 cars, which are for sale are second hand. What percentage of the cars are : (i) new ?

14.

(ii) second hand ?

A mathematics book has 320 pages, 40% of which are on algebra, 25% on geometry and the remaining on arithmetic. How many pages of arithmetic are there ?

15.

Amar obtained obtained 410 marks out of 500 in an examination while while his friend Rajiv gets 536 marks out of 600. Find whose performance is better.

16.

The excise duty on a certain item has been reduced to  3486 from  5229. Find the percentage reduction in the excise duty for that item.

17.

Noori's weight is increased by 15% between her fifteenth and sixteenth birthdays. If she weighed 65 kg on her fifteenth birthday, what did she weigh on her sixteenth birthday ? DPP NO. 13 TOPIC : SIMPLE INTEREST

1.

A sum of money lent by Hari at simple interest becomes double of itself in 8 years. Then the sum will triple itself in (A) 16 years

2.

300 amounts to

(B) 15 years

(C) 20 years

(D) 24 years

360 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, it would

amount to (A) 3.

364

(B)

368

The simple interest on a sum of money is

(C) 9 25

372

(D)

384

 of the principal and the rate percent is equal to number of

years. The rate percent is (A) 3% 4.

(B) 4%

(C) 5%

(D) 6%

The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% simple interest is

129 less than the simple

interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. Then the sum is (A) 5.

6.

3,400

(B)

3,500

(C)

3,600

(D)

3, 700

What rate gives  280 as interest on a sum of  56,000 in 2 years ? (A) 0.25%

(B) 2.5%

(C) 25%

(D) None of theses

If interest for 't' years on (A) 4 years

200 at the rate 5% is (B) 8 years

80, then 't' is (C) 12 years

(D) 16 years

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7.

In how much time will the simple interest on  800 at 12.5% per annum be  125 ? (A) 1

8.

1 4

years

2

years

(C) 1

3 4

years

(D) 2

1 4

 years

(B)  10

(C)  15

(D)  20

Find the principal when Simple Interest =  72, Rate = 3% per annum and Time = 3 months. (A)  9000

10.

1

Find the simple interest when, Principal =  600, Rate = 2% per annum and Time = 20 months. (A)  50

9.

(B) 1

(B)  9400

(C)  10000

(D)  9600

If Meena gives an interest of  45 for one year at 9% rate p.a., what is the sum she has borrowed ? (A)  550

(B)  500

(C)  450

(D)   400

11.

Find the simple interest on  3285 from May 11, 1999 to 11 September, 1999 at 10% annum.

12.

For investing money in the firm Rosy and Mitthu, you get interest at the rate of 18% per annum. What amount will you get after 6 years if you deposit  10000 with the firm now and  5000 three year from hence ? 1

13.

In what time will a sum of money put as 13

14.

A farmer borrowed borrowed Rs. 2500 and Rs. 4500 from a bank for buying buying seeds and fixing a tubewell

3

% simple interest triple itself ?

respectively at simple interest with the same rate. He paid after 3 years 3 months Rs 520 more interest on the sum borrowed for tubewell. Find the rate of interest per annum. 15.

A lends some money to B at 9% per annum on S.I. B lends the entire amount to C on the same day at 12% per annum. In this transaction after 5 years B gains Rs 1200. Find the amount lent by A to B. DPP NO. 14 TOPIC : STATISTICS-I

1.

If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 be 10, then the value of x is : (A) 10

2.

(C)14

(D) 16

If the mean of five obseration x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8 is 11, then the mean of first three observations is : (A) 9

3.

(B) 12

(B) 11

(C) 13

(D) none

The mean of 100 observations is 50. If one of the observations which was 50 is replaced by 40, the resulting mean will be : (A) 50

4.

(B) 49.90

(C) 70

(D) 40

 A cricketer c ricketer has a certain average run for 10 innings. In the 11 th t h inning, he scores scor es 100 runs, and now his average run is .increased by 9 runs. Then average of 11 inning is (A)10 runs

5.

(B) 20 runs

(C) 11 runs

(D) 21 runs

The ages in years of 10 teachers of a school are: 32, 41, 28, 54, 35, 26, 23, 33, 38, 40 What is the range of the ages of the teachers? (A) 31 years

6.

(B) 23 years

(C) 54 years

(D) 28 years

(C) 42

(D) 32

(C) 10

(D) 35

Find the median of the following values : 37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32 (A) 39

7.

(B) 43

Find the median of 18, 35, 10, 42, 21. (A) 21

(B) 42

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8.

Find the mode of the following array of an individual series of scores 7, 7, 10, 12, 12, 12, 11, 13, 13, 17. (A) 7

9.

(B) 13

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 1

The mode of the given numbers 2, 14, 16, 12, 14, 14, 16, 14, 10, 14, 18, 14 is _______. (A) 12

11.

(D) 11

The mode of the distribution 3, 5, 7, 4, 2, 1, 4, 3, 4 is (A) 7

10.

(C) 12

(B) 14

(C) 16

(D) 18

Organise the following marks in a class assessment in a tabular form: 4, 6, 7, 5, 3, 5, 4, 5, 2, 6, 2, 5, 1, 9, 6, 5, 8, 4, 6, 7 (i) Which number is the highest? (iv) Find the arithmetic mean.

12.

Find the value of p, if the median of following observations is 48. 14, 17, 33, 35, p – 5, p + 7, 57, 63, 69, 80. The above observation are in ascending order.

13.

Following data gives total marks (out of 600) obtained by six children of a particular class. Represent the data on a bar graph.

14.

15.

Students

 Ajay

Bali

Dipti

Fayaz

Geetika

Hari

Marks Obtained

450

500

300

360

400

540

If the mean of the following data is 18.75, find the value of p : x

10

15

P

25

30

f 

5

10

7

8

2

Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions : 18

Rice

16

Wheat

14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 U.P.

M.P.

W.B.

Maharashtra

Haryana

States

(i) What information does the bar graph give ? (ii) Which state has the largest production of wheat ? (iii) Which state has the largest production of rice ? (iv) Which state has total production of rice and wheat maximum ? (v) Which state has total production of rice and wheat minimum ? DPP NO. 15 TOPIC : STATISTICS-II 1.

The range of (A) 1.5

2.

3.5, 2, 4.5, 8.7, 1.9, 3.2, 1.9 is (B) 2.5

(C) 6.8

(D)1.6

The rainfall in (mm) in a city in a particular week recorded as follows: 4.9, 5.5, 25.6, 21.3, 0, 2.2, 0. The range is equal to (A) 0

(B) 25.6

(C) 21.3

(D) none of these

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3.

The mean of first 10 natural numbers is (A) 5.5

4.

6.

(D) 4

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 12

The arithmetic mean is also called as (A) mode

(B) median

(C) average

(D) none of these

The median of 48, 45, 30, 35, 44, 47, 49, 33, 46 is (A) 44

7.

(C) 5

The mean of 6,7,10,x,9,12,11 is 8, then x is equal to (A) 7

5.

(B) 10

(B) 44.5

(C) 46

(D) 45

The ages of 10 persons ( in years ) are 34,24,28,31,30,26,27,25,29,30. The median age is

8.

9.

(A) 28 years

(B) 29 years

(C) 28.5 years

(D) 32.5 years

The mode of the data 23, 26, 22, 29, 23, 29, 26, 29, 22, 23 is (A) 23 and 29

(B) 23 only

(C) 29 only

(D) 26 only

The mode of the following data 6,5,6,7,8,5,6,7,7,6,7,5,8,8,7,7,6,9 (A) 5

10.

(B) 6

is

(C) 7

(D) 8

Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?

11.

(A) Mean

(B) Mode

(C) Median

(D) Any of the three

The marks (out of 50) obtained by a group of students in a mathematics test are : 45, 46, 40, 45, 49, 38, 46, 48, 30, 22 Find : (i) Highest and lowest marks obtained by the students. (ii) Range of the marks obtained. (iii) Mean marks obtained by the group. (iv) How many students have marks less than the mean marks ?

12.

(i) The ages (in years) years) of 8 teachers in a school are: 50, 40, 36, 31, 43, 52, 46, 53. 53. Find median age. (ii) The marks of 11 students (out of 50) in an examination are : 35, 21, 24, 17, 23, 29, 25, 19, 17, 19, 40. Find the median marks.

13.

Mean marks obtained by a student in his five subjects are 15. In English he secured 8 marks, in Hindi 12, in Mathematics 18, and in Science 9. Find out the marks secured by him in History.

14.

Make a frequency distribution table for each of the following data : (i) 7, 6, 5, 3, 7, 6, 7, 5, 3, 2, 5, 3 (ii) 51, 54, 61, 53, 55, 51, 54, 61, 53, 55, 51, 51, 53, 61, 55, 55, 53

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15.

For what value of x, the mode of the following data is 18 ? 31, 35, 17, 18, 17, 18, 40, x + 12

16.

The following data gives the number of students of Delhi-state who went abroad for study during the following years :  Year 

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

Number of Students

1400 1600 1250 1000 2000 2200

Represent the above data with the help of bar graph. DPP NO. 16 TOPIC : PROBABILITY 1.

The probability of getting a head when when a coin is tossed is 1

(A) 2.

3

2

 

(B)

3

1

 

(C)

2

(D) 1

The probability of getting an even number when a die is thrown is 1

(A) 1/3 3.

3

(B) 3/5

(C) 5/8

(D) 3/8

(B) 6

(C) 1/6

(D) none of these

(C) 0

(D) 100

The probability of an impossible event is (A) 1

6.

2

(D)

In a throw of a die the probability of getting 6 is (A) 1

5.

2

(C) 0

The probability of drawing a black ball from a bag containing 5 black and 3 red balls is (A) 5/3

4.

(B)

(B) 10

In a game, Erin is rolling a fair number cube with faces numbered 1 through 6. Which BEST describes the probability of rolling an even number? (A) impossible (B) equal to the probability of rolling an odd number (C) less likely than the probability of rolling an odd number (D) more likely than the probability of rolling an odd number

7.

Linda flipped a fair coin six times, and the result was heads each time. Which statement describes the likelihood of obtaining tails on the seventh flip?

8.

(A) It is not at all likely

(B) It is less likely than heads.

(C) It is just as likely as heads.

(D) It is more likely than heads.

The table below shows the number of each color of Mr. Logan’s pencils. Mr. Logan’s Pencils Color 

Number 

Blue

2

Green

1

Red

2

Yellow

7

If he chooses one pencil without looking, what color is he least likely to choose? (A) blue

(B) green

(C) red

(D) yellow

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9.

Bernice placed 5 green paper clips, 6 blue paper clips, and 9 yellow paper clips in a container. She will reach into the container and pull out one paper clip without looking. What is the probability that the paper clip she chooses will be green? (A) 0.20

10.

(C) 0.30

(D) 0.33

The probability of selecting M from the word MORE is : (A)

11.

(B) 0.25

1 2

 

(B)

1 4

 

(C)

3

(D) 0

4

 A coin is tossed 100 times with the following frequencies : Head : 49, Tail : 51 When a coin is tossed at random, what is the probability of getting Head?

12.

Given an example of sure chance and impossible chance.

13.

In a circket match, a batsman hits a boundary 6 times out of 90 balls he plays. Find the probability that he : (i) hit a boundary

14.

(ii) did not hit a boundary.

A number from 1 to 20 is choosen at random. What in the probability of getting : (i) a prime number.

(ii) multiple of 3.

(iii) multiple of 2.

(iv) multiple of 2 and 3.

(v) multiple of 2 or 3. 15.

 A bag contains 5 red, 2 black, and 3 green balls, find the probability of getting : (i) Red ball

(ii) Black ball

(iii) Green ball

(iv) Red or green ball

(v) Not black ball

DPP NO. 17 TOPIC : Mensuration 1.

The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is : (A) 0.0024 m

2.

2

(B) 0.0026 m

2

(C) 0.003 m

2

(D) 0.0015 m

2

In the given figure, the area of triangle LMN is :

L

  m   c    6

O (A) 18 cm 3.

2

(B) 12 cm

2

M

6 cm

(C) 36 cm

2

 N (D) 40 cm

2

If the length of a diagonal of a square is a + b, then the area of the square is : 2

(A) (a + b)  

(B)

a  b 2 2

2

2

(C) a  + b  

(D)

ab 2

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4.

A rectangle lawn 80 m × 60 m has two roads each with 10 m wide running in the middle of it, one parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The cost of gravelling them at 30 paise sq. m is –

10 60

80

(A) Rs. 280 5.

2

(B) 2080 m

(D) Rs. 480

2

(C) 2180 m

2

(D) 2010 m

2

2

The area of a rhombus is 54 cm . If its perimeter is 36 cm, then its altitude. (A) 6 cm

7.

(C) Rs. 390

 A side of a parallelogram is 80 m and the length of the corr esponding altitude is 26m. Its area is (A) 1280 m

6.

(B) Rs. 320

(B) 5 cm

(C) 4 cm

(D) 8 cm

2

The area of a trapezium is 180 cm  and its height is 12 cm. If one of the parallel sides is double that of the other, then the length of two parallel sides in cm are : (A) 20, 40

8.

(B) 15, 30

(C) 10, 20

(D) 10, 10

The ratio of the length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is 4 : 1. The distance between them is 10 cm. 2

If the area of the trapezium is 500 cm , find the length of the parallel sides.

9.

(A) 20 cm ,40 cm

(B) 20 cm, 80 cm

(C) 30 cm ,60cm

(D) 10 cm ,20cm

The area of the shaded region in the given figure is : (use  = 3.14)

6cm 2cm

(A) 12.56 cm 10.

2

(B) 32 cm

2

(C) 100 cm

(D) 100.48 cm

2

If AB = BC = CD then find the perimeter of adjoining figure.

A

11.

2

7m

B

7m C

D

The area of a square park is same as that of a rectangular park. If the side of the square park is 64 m and length of the rectangular park is 80 m, find the breadth of the rectangular park.

12.

 A wire is in the shape of a rectangle. Its length is 42.7 m and breadth is 21.8 m. If the same wire is rere bent in the shape of a square, what will be the measure of each side ? Also find which enclose more area ?

13.

The circumference of a circle exceeds the diameter by 16.8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.

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14.

The inner circumference of a circular track is 220 m. The track is 7m wide everywhere. Calculate the cost of putting up a fence along the outer circle at the rate of   2 per metre. (Use  = 22/7)

15.

Calculate the area of the shaded region in the given figure. F

A

D

  m   c    0    3

B

E

C

50 cm

DPP NO. 18 TOPIC : SYMMETRY AND VISUALISING SOLID SHAPES 1.

The number of lines of symmetry in Square is/are: (A) 1

2.

8.

11.

(C) Triangle

(D) Circle

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

(B) pyramid

(C) cone

(B) sphere

(C) cylinder

(A) 12 cm × 4 cm × 4 cm

(B) 4 cm × 8 cm × 4 cm

(C) 4 cm × 8 cm × 12 cm

(D) 4 cm × 6 cm × 8 cm

(D) sphere

(D) prism

Which of the following letters of English alphabets have more than 2 lines of symmetry? (B)

(C)

(D)

In a solid if F = V = 5, then the number of edges in this shape is (A) 6

10.

(B) Sphere

If three cubes each of edge 4 cm are placed end to end, then the dimensions of resulting solid are:

(A) 9.

(D) Cylinder

The solid with one circular face, one curved surface and one vertex is known as: (A) cone

7.

(C) Cone

A solid that has two opposite identical faces and other faces as parallelograms is a (A) prism

6.

(B) Cube

Total number of edges a cylinder has (A) 0

5.

(D) Infinitely many

Out of the following which is a 3-D figure? (A) Square

4.

(C) 4

A solid that has only one vertex is (A) Pyramid

3.

(B) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 2

A ……………. triangle has no line of symmetry (A) Equilateral triangle

(B) Isosceles triangle

(C) Isosceles right angle triangle

(D) Scalene triangle

By what minimum angle angle does a regular hexagon hexagon rotate so as to coincide with its original position for the first time?

12.

Which capital letters of English alphabet have no line of symmetry?

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23

13.

14.

15.

16.

Match the nets with appropriate solids : (i)

(a)

(ii)

(b)

(iii)

(c)

(iv)

(d)

Find the number of lines of symmetry for the following : (i) A circle

(ii) A square

(iii) A rhombus

(iv) An equilateral triangle

(v) An isosceles triangle

(vi) A rectangle

(vii) A parallelogram

(viii) A regular octagon.

Which of the following are 2-D figures and which are 3-D figure (i) rectangle

(ii) cylinder

(iii) circle

(iv) sphere

(v) octagon

(vi) cone

Identical cubes are stacked in the corner of a room as shown below. The number of cubes that are not visible are _________.

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SCIENCE CLASS – VII (CBSE)

INDEX PHYSICS

–

01 - 11

CHEMISTRY

–

12 - 20

BIOLOGY

–

21 - 28

 VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited

PHYSICS 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY DAILY PRACTICE P ROBLEMS SHEET

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : MEASURE M EASUREMENT MENT 1.

2.

The standard quantity used for comparision while while measuring a physical quantity is called called the (A) Fundamental quantity

(B) Derived quantity

(C) Unit

(D) None of these

The fundamental unit among the following following is (A) Kelvin

3.

(C) W eight

(D) Acceleration

(C) Velocity

(D) W eight

(C) Pressure

(D) Velocity

(B) Distance

(C) Pressure

(D) Acceleration

(B) 10 –9 mm

(C)109 mm

(D) 107 mm

(B) impulse

(C) momentum

(D) time

(B) 10 –10 m

(C)10 –8 cm

(D) All of these

(B) Velocity

(B) work

(B) W eight

Which is not a vector : (A) velocity

12.

(D) Torque

Ten km is equal to :

(A) 1012 mm 11.

(C) Energy

(B) Acceleration

Which of following is a vector quantity : (A) Mass

10.

(D) litre

Which of the following is a scalar quantity : (A) Force

9.

(C) second

(B) metre

Which of the following is not a vector quantity? (A) Force

8.

(D) kg m -3

Which of the following is not a vector ? (A) Speed

7.

(C) mg cm -3

(B) g cm-3

Which of the following is not a vector quantity ? (A) Force

6.

(D) W att

The derived unit among the following following is (A) kilogram

5.

(C) Newton

If density mass/volume then SI unit of density is (A) kg cm-3

4.

(B) Pascal

One Aº is equal to (A) 10 –13 km

13.

What are scalar and vector quantities? Explain with example.

14.

The speed of an aeroplane A is 600 km/h .The .The speed of another aeroplane B is 240 m/s .Then which which of the two will have greater speed?

15.

Convert the following : (i) 10 kg/m 3 into g/cm 3

(iv) 30.5 kg m 2 s –2 to g cm2 s –2

(ii) 50Aº into m

(iii) 280 mm into cm

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1

DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : HEAT 1.

A difference of temperature of 25ºC is equivalent to a difference of : (A) 72º F

2.

3.

(B) 45ºF

(A) tempe mperature remai mains the same

(B) heat dissipates

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) temperature decreases

Boiling point of water is : (B) 273 K

8.

(D) 00C to 350C

(B) 105 ergs.

(C) 109 ergs.

(D) 107 ergs.

(C) (C) good good cond conduc ucto torr.

(D) (D) radi radia ator tor.

In vacuum, heat can be transferred through (A) (A) cond condu uctio ction n & conv convec ecti tion on onl only.

(B) (B) cond conduc ucti tio on onl only.

(C) radiation only.

(D) convection only.

1 Joule is equal to (B) 100,000 erg.

(C) 1,000,000 erg.

(D) 10,000,000 erg.

Energy produced by burning one gram of fuel is called its (A) calori calorific fic value. value.

10.

(C) 350C to 420C

(B) (B) semi semico con nduct ductor or..

(A) 9.8 m/ s2. 9.

(B) 420C to 1100C.

Copper tubing is used in automobile radiators as copper is a (A) (A) bad bad cond conduc ucto torr.

7.

(D) Both (A) & (C)

One joule is equal to (A) 103 ergs.

6.

(C) 373 K

Range of clinical thermometer is (A) -100C to 1100C.

5.

(D) 32ºF

When steam condenses into water its :

(A) 100 ºC 4.

(C) 25º F

(B) maximum maximum energy energy..

(C) activ activati ation on energ energy y.

(D) thresh threshol old d energy energy..

We wear light coloured clothes in summers because they are (A) good absorber of heat.

(B) good reflector of heat.

(C) poor reflector of heat.

(D) poor radiator of heat.

11.

Define temperature ?

12.

Define conduction

13.

Define good conductor and bad conductor 

14.

Name the three temperature scales Write the relationship between them.

15.

Which two conditions must be satisfied for heat transfer by conduction

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2

DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : MOTION & TIME 1.

When is is an object said to be in motion ? (A) If object changes its position with time is said to be in motion (B) If object position does not change with time is said to be in motion (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

2.

The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is : (A) always less than one (B) always equal to one (C) always more than one (D) equal to or less than one

3.

SI Unit of time is : (A) Second

(B) Minute

(C) Hour

(D) None

4.

A ball is thrown vertically vertically upward and after ascending a height of 15m it comes back to the same point The total displacement of the ball is : (A) zero (B) 15 m (C) 30 m (D) 98 m

5.

What is SI units of speed : (A) km/hour (B) m/s

(C) cm/s

Distance for a moving object : (A) Is always positive

(B) Is always negative

(C) (C) May be pos positi itive or nega negati tive ve

(D) (D) Is nei neither posi ositive ive nor negat egativ ive e

Speed of a particle : (A) May be positive or zero (C) (C) May May be posi positi tive ve as well well as nega negati tive ve

(B) Is always negative (D) (D) Is neit neithe herr zero zero nor nor nega negati tive ve

6.

7.

8.

(D) None of these

Which of the following is not a characteristic of displacement : (A) It is always positive (B) It has both magnitude and direction (C) It can be zero (D) Its magnitude may be less than or equal to the actual path length of the object

9.

10.

In 10 minutes, a car with speed of 60 kmh-1 travels a distance of : (A) 6 km (B) 600 km (C) 10 km

(D) 7 km

When the distance covered by an object is directly proportional to time, it is said to travel with with (A) zero velocity. (B) constant speed. (C) constant acceleration.

(D) uniform acceleration.

11.

Which one of the following have maximum and the least average speed ? (i) Sanjeev moving with 12 kmh -1 (ii) Rajeev running with 5 ms -1 (iii) Kabir moving with 150 m min-1

12.

Define periodic motion

13.

Differentiate between uniform and non - uniform motion

14.

A train covers a distance of 560 km is 8 hours Find its speed

15.

Find the distance covered by an athlete in 25 seconds if it is running at a speed of 20 m/s

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3

DPP NO. 4 TOPIC : MOTION & TIME 1.

2.

3.

4.

Which of the following groups have all vector quantity : (A) Velocity, length and mas mass

(B) Speed, length and mas mass

(C) (C) Time Time,, disp displa lace ceme ment nt and and mass mass

(D) (D) Veloc elocit ity y, disp displa lace ceme ment nt and and forc force e

A particle moves with a uniform velocity : (A) (A) The The part partic icle le must must be at rest rest

(B) (B) The The part articl icle mov moves alon along g a curv curved ed path path

(C) (C) The part partic icle le moves moves alon along g a circ circle le

(D) (D) The The part partic icle le moves moves alon along g a stra straig ight ht line line

A quantity has value of –60 ms-1 It may be the : (A) Speed of a particle

(B) Velocity of a particle

(C) Position of a particle

(D) Displacement of a particle

A force of 4 kgwt acts on a body of mass 49 kg Its acceleration is : (A) 4 m/s2

5.

7.

(C) 12 m/s2

(D) 14 m/s2

An object undergoes an acceleration of 10 m/s2 starting from rest, Find velocity after 5 seconds : (A) 100 m/s

6.

(B) 0.8 m/s2

(B) 125 m/s

(C) 50 m/s

(D) 150 m/s

 Average speed is the total distance covered (A) divided by the distance distance travelled travelled in one hour. hour.

(B) multiplied by the total time taken.

(C) divided by the total time taken ken.

(D) in one hour.

If a car is moving with a speed of 45 kilometres per hour, it implies that the body (A) covers a distance of 45 metres in one minute. (B) covers a distance of 45 kilometres in one hour. (C) covers a distance of 45 miles in one hour. (D) is moving with a variable speed of 45 kilometres per hour.

8.

9.

If the speed of an object moving along a straight line keeps on changing, then the (A) motion motion is said said to be a uniform uniform motion motion

(B) motion motion is said said to be a non - uniform uniform motion motion

(C) (C) obje object ct is sai said to be stat statiionar onary y

(D) (D) moti motion on is sai said to be a fast fast moti motion on

Speed of 90 km/h when expressed in m/s is (A) 2.5

10.

(C) 250

(D) 2500

(C) vibr vibrato atory ry motion motion..

(D) linear linear motio motion. n.

The to and fro motion is an example of  (A) circul circulato atory ry motion. motion.

11.

(B) 25

(B) curvi curvili line near ar motio motion. n.

A bus covers a distance from A to B at 40 km/h and while returning it travels at 50 km/h. calculate the average speed.

12.

A simple pendulum takes 30 seconds to complete 6 oscillations. oscillations. What is the time period of the pendulu pendulum? m?

13.

Shruti covers a distance of 2.4 km from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the bicycle bicycle has a speed of 2 m/sec, calculate the time taken by her to reach the school ?

14.

The distance between between two stations is 360 km. A train takes 6 hours to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train ?

15.

Find the weight of the body body of mass 5 kg in kgwt, gwt, Newton and dyne.

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4

DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : ELECTRICAL CURRENT AND ITS EFFECT 1.

2.

3.

Electroplating is an application of : (A) Heating effect of current

(B) Chemical effect of current

(C) Magnetic effect of current

(D) None of these

The strength of electromagnet increases by : (A) increasing numbe mber of turns

(B) using soft iron core

(C) increasing current

(D) all of these

Examples of primary cells are : (A) Voltaic

4.

(B) Daniel

(C) Dry cell

(D) All of them

Compact fluorescent lamps, (A) results in wastage of electricity. (B) reduces the wastage of electricity. (C) are used for heating effect of electric current. (D) are used as an electromagnet.

5.

Certain cranes can lift heavy iron loads easily as they have (A) (A) an elec electr troma omagn gnet et..

6.

(D) (D) elec electri trica call swit switch ches es..

(B) (B) will incr increa ease se..

(C) (C) rema remain ins s same same..

(D) (D) con converts erts into fir fire.

When an electric current passes through a wire, it becomes (A) weak.

8.

(C) (C) elec electr tric ic bulb bulbs. s.

Length of the heater coil is increased. When current passes, the amount of heat (A) (A) will decr decrea ease se..

7.

(B) (B) an elec electri tric c cell cell..

(B) a switch.

(C) hot.

(D) cold.

Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs) (A) behaves like a magnet. (B) automatically switch off when an electric current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit. (C) do not help in maintaining safety. (D) have wire of very low melting point .

9.

10.

The wires used for making electric fuses (A) melt quickly.

(B) are very thick.

(C) are made up of plastic.

(D) are responsible for short circuiting.

An electromagnet (A) is a kind of a fuse.

(B) is a compass needle.

(C) (C) is a minia miniatu ture re circ circui uitt brea breaker ker..

(D) (D) beha behave ves s like like a magne magnett on pass passin ing g an elec electr tric ic curr curren ent. t.

11.

Mention one important use of insulators.

12.

Mention two uses of electromagnets.

13.

Can a copper wire wire be used as a fuse wire ?

14.

Which material is commonly used to make elements of heating appliances ? Why ?

15.

What is the basic basic principle principle on which which an electric electric bell bell works ?

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5

DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : LIGHT 1.

A thin plane mirror : (A) refra fracts light

2.

(B) refl refle ects light

(C) (C) transmit mits light

(D) none of these

The angle of reflection is the angle between : (A) the reflected ray and surface of mirror  (B) the incident ray and the surface of mirror  (C) the normal to the surface of a mirror and incident ray (D) the normal to the surface of mirror and reflected ray

3.

Middle point of plane mirror is : (A) point of incidence

4.

(D) none

(B) 90o

(C) 30o

(D) 120o

(B) air

(C) glass

(D) diamond

Light travels faster in : (A) vacuum

6.

(C) centre of curvature

If angle of incidence is 30o, then glance angle of reflection is : (A) 60o

5.

(B) pole

A point source of light is placed placed in front of a plane mirror, then : (A) all the reflected rays meet at a point when produced backward (B) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a point when produced backward (C) only the reflected rays making a small angle with the mirror, meet at a point when produced backward (D) light of different colours make different images

7.

8.

Laws of reflection are in diffused reflection : (A) Violated

(B) Followed

(C) (C) Foll Follow owed ed at some some poin points ts only only

(D) (D) Some Someti time mes s viol violat ated ed and and some someti time mes s foll follow owed ed

Reflection through plane mirror is an example of : (A) regul regular ar refle reflecti ction on

9.

(C) irre irregu gula larr refle reflect ctio ion n

(D) all are correct correct

Transparent glassses which are thicker in the middle than at the edges are (A) concave concave lenses. lenses.

10.

(B) diffu diffuse sed d refle reflecti ction on

(B) used in kaleidoscope kaleidoscope.(C) .(C) used in periscope. periscope.

(D) convex convex lenses. lenses.

(B) (B) five five col colours ours..

(D) (D) blue blue colo colou ur.

Sunlight consists of  (A) (A) blac black k colo colour ur only only..

(C) (C) seve seven n colo colour urs. s.

11.

What is incident ray of light ?

12.

What is reflected ray of light ?

13.

Define lateral inversion.

14.

State the difference difference between between a luminous and a non luminous luminous bodies bodies

15.

What is the difference between real and virtual image ?

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6

DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : SOUND 1.

What is transferred in wave motion : (A) matter

2.

(B) energy

(C) both A and B

(D) none of these

The maximum displacement of an oscillating body from its mean position position is called : (A) amplitude

3.

(B) one meter

(C) frequency

(D) a wave

Which of the following is not a wave motion : (A) ripp ripple les s on wate waterr

4.

(B) (B) soun sound d prop propag agat atio ion n (C) (C) movi moving ng bus bus

(D) (D) radi radio o wav waves

Sound is produced due to : (A) heating

5.

(B) vibrations

(C) running

(D) walking

(C) water

(D) vacuum

Sound waves cannot travel through : (A) glass

6.

(B) air

Transverse waves travel in the form of :

7.

(A) (A) comp compre ress ssio ions ns and and rare rarefa fact ctio ions ns

(B) (B) cres crests ts and and trou trough ghs s

(C) crests sts and compr mpressions

(D) troughs and rarefactions

Transverse waves can be : (A) (A) Mecha echani nica call

8.

(B) (B) Non Non Mec Mechani hanica call

(C) (C) Both Both A and and B

(D) (D) None one of these hese

Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) Both, sound and light waves in air are longitudinal (B) Both, sound and light waves in air are transverse (C) Sound waves in air are transverse and light waves are longitudinal (D) Sound waves in air are longitudinal and light waves are transverse

9.

Rarefractions are the regions of : (A) Maximum pressure

(B) Minimum pressure

(C) Maximum density

(D) Minimum density

On moon, sound is :

10.

(A) like a thunder

(B) inaudible

(C) louder than on Earth

(D) same as on earth

11.

Explain reflection of sound. Explain some applications.

12.

What is pitch ? Name the unit of physical quantity on which which pitch depends ?

13.

What is Rarefaction ?

14.

Explain the speed of sound in different media.

15.

 

Explain (i) (i)

Timbe Timberr or qual qualit ity y

(ii) (ii)

Loudne Loudness ss or soft softne ness ss

(iii (iii)) Soun Sound d inte intens nsit ity y

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7

DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : UNIVERSE 1.

The names of the planets in order of increasing increasing distances from the sun are : (A) earth, jupiter jupiter,, mars

2.

3.

(B) jupiter jupiter,, mars, earth (C) jupiter jupiter,, earth, earth, mars

(D) earth, mars, jupiter  jupiter 

Ursa Major is (A) a star

(B) seen only with a telescope

(C) a constellation

(D) a natural satellite of Mars

Pole star appears to be stationary in all seasons because (A) Pole star does not rotate on its axis (B) Pole star happens to lie on the axis of equator  (C) Pole star happens to lie above the axis of north pole of the earth (D) Pole star is most distant of all the stars

4.

5.

Stars are mainly made up of : (A) oxygen and hydrogen

(B) oxygen and nitrogen

(C) hydrogen and helium

(D) water and helium

Sun is a : (A) star

6.

(C) galaxy

(D) comet

Any heavenly body having light of its own is called a : (A) nebulae

7.

(B) planet

(B) star

(C) comet

(D) meteorite

(C) Mars

(D) Mercury

(C) Jupiter

(D) Venus

Lunar eclipse occurs when the : (A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon (B) Moon comes between the earth and the sun. (C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon. (D) Earth and the moon collide with each other 

8.

The planet having no atmosphere on it is : (A) Earth

9.

Hottest planet of the solar system is : (A) Mercury

10.

(B) Venus

(B) Pluto

Asteroid are : (A) Small planets

(B) Shooting stars

(C) Found in a belt between between earth and Venus

(D) None of these these

11.

What are comets ?

12.

What is Galaxy ?

13.

Explain the difference between Galaxy and constellation in detail.

14.

Why Venus is more hotter than mercury ?

15.

Write short note on Solar eclipse.

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8

DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : LIGHT 1.

A virtual, virtual, erect erect & magnified magnified image of an object object is to be produced with a concave mirror of focal length 12 12 cm Which of the following object distance should be chosen for this purpose ? (A) 10 cm

2.

(D) frequency

(B) concave

(C) Convex or concave

(D) Cannot say

(B) at focous

(C) beyond 2F

(D) between F and 2F

(B) 90º

(C) 45º

(D) 180º

(C) concave

(D) none

The mirror used by a dental surgeon is : (A) Plane

7.

(C) wavelength

The angle of incidence incidence of a ray passing through center of curvature of a spherical mirror is : (A) 0º

6.

(B) direction

To obtained obtained magnified inverted inverted image in a concave mirror, object should be held held : (A) at pole

5.

(D) 30

To form a real image, the mirror required is : (A) Convex

4.

(C) 25 cm

When light goes from one medium to another, the characteristic that remains unaffected unaffected is : (A) speed

3.

(B) 15 cm

(B) Convex

Where Wher e should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a convex lens ?

8.

(A) At the focus

(B) At infinity

(C) At twice the focal length

(D) Between optical centre and focus

If image formed is always diminished and between F and O, then lens is : (A) Concave

9.

(B) Convex

(D) None of these

Which of the following diagrams correctly represent the path of a ray of light light through a concave lens ?

(A)

10.

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(B)

(C)

(D)

In the side mirror of a car, the size of the images of all the objects appear to be (A) same as that that of the size size of the object objects. s.

(B) smaller smaller than than the object objects. s.

(C) larger than the objects.

(D) of point size.

11.

Define dispersion of light.

12.

Gives the use of : (i) (i) Con Concav cave mirr mirror or

(ii (ii) Conv Convex ex mirr mirror or

(iii (iii)) Plan Plane e mirr mirror  or 

13.

State two uses of convex lens.

14.

What are constituent colours of light?

15.

State the characteristic of image formed by concave lens.

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9

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : MISCELLANEOUS 1.

2.

3.

4.

To search for targets targets and threats in the surrounding sea and air, submarines make use of  (A) kaleidoscopes

(B) periscopes

(C) magnifying glass

(D) rear view mirror  

The nature and size of an image depend upon the (A) (A) time time of cond conduc ucti ting ng the the expe experi rime ment nt

(B) (B) posi positi tion on of the the obje object ct

(C) kind of the object

(D) position of the object in case of mirrors only

An image obtained by a plane mirror, the left side of of an object appears to be (A) the left side of an image

(B) the right side of an image

(C) the top of an image

(D) the bottom of an image

Height of candle is 10 cm Height of its image seen in the plane mirror is (A) 20 cm

5.

(B) 5 cm

(C) 10 cm

(D) 1 m

An object is kept at the distance of 6 cm from the plane mirror So, the distance of the image from the object will be (A) 6 cm

6.

7.

8.

(D) 12 cm

(A) 10 m away from the mir mirror

(B) 2 m away from the mirror 

(C) 6 m away from the mirror

(D) 4 m away from the mirror  

We can change the path of light when it (A) falls on a person

(B) enters a dark room

(C) (C) fall falls s on a poli polish shed ed or a shin shiny y surfa surface ce

(D) (D) falls falls on a pinh pinhol ole e camer camera a

In headlights of cars and searchlights, we use (B) convex mir mirror

(C) plane mir mirror

(D) concave lens

(B) plane mir mirror

(C) concave lens

(D) concave mirror 

A dentist uses (A) convex mirror

10.

(C) 16 cm

A car is at a distance of 8 m from the plane mirror If it moves 2 m towards the mirror, the image will be formed at

(A) concave mirror 9.

(B) 8 cm

The centre of a concave mirror is called (A) focal centre

(B) pole

(C) centre of curvature

(D) principal focus

11.

What are electric fuses ?

12.

What are miniature circuit breakers?

13.

What are the different types of mirrors?

14.

What are the characteristics of the image formed by a concave lens?

15.

What are the characteristics of an image formed by a plane mirror?

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10

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : WIND, STORMS STORM S AND CYCLONES 1.

Tornado is a dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from the (A) sky to the ground ground

2.

3.

5.

(C) land land to the ocean ocean

(D) ocean ocean to the land land

Most of the tornadoes are (A) strong

(B) weak

(C) of zero magnitude

(D) detected in oceans only

A hurricane is (A) a cyclone

4.

(B) ground ground to the sky

(B) land winds

(C) air pressure

(D) water pressure

In winters, the direction of winds is (A) reversed to that in summer mers

(B) same as in summer  mer 

(C) both both from ocean ocean to land and and land land to oceans oceans

(D) funnel funnel shaped shaped

Winds near the Equator blow because(A) Equator gets maximum heat from the Sun causing warming up of regions around the Equator  (B) Warm air rises and the cooler air from 0 – 30 degrees latitude belt on either side of the equator moves in (C) These winds blow from the North and the South towards the equator  (D) All of these

6.

A cloud region of about 150 km in size surrounds the eye of the storm This region has ____________ ____________ winds winds and thick clouds with heavy rain (A) High speed

7.

(C) Slow

(D) None of these

The center of the cyclone is a calm area called the eye eye of the storm, which which varies from _____________ in diameter  (A) 300 – 400 km

8.

(B) Rotating

(B) 3 – 10 km

(C) 10 – 30 km

(D) 300 – 400 m

Monsoon winds carry rains because(A) In summer, lands warm up faster than the water of the oceans (B) The air above the lands is warmer than the air over the water causing the wind to flow from the oceans towards the land (C) These winds carry moisture and are known as the monsoon winds (D) All of these

9.

A cyclone is also known by the names (A) hurricane in Japan. (B) typhoon in Russia and Philippines. (C) hurricane in America and typhoon in Japan and Philippines. (D) tornado in Russia.

10.

A safety measure during the tornado is to (A) stand with arms raised. (B) bow down on knees and protecting head and neck using arms. (C) sit on a chair immediately. (D) visit a doctor.

11.

What is Typhoons Typhoons ?

12.

What is monsoon winds ?

13.

Why cyclones are destructive?

14.

What causes a thunderstorm?

15.

What is lightning?

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11

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  ACADEMY 

CHEMISTRY  CLASS – VII (CBSE)

(India) Private Limited DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET

GENERAL CHEMISTRY DPP NO. 01 TOPIC : LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

An atom is represented by (A) formula

(B) chemical equation

(C) symbol

(D) chemical reaction

Who laid the foundation of language of chemistry (A) Mendal

(B) Lavoiser

(C) Asphalt

(D) J.J. Berzelius

The latin name of tin is (A) Plumbum

(B) Stannum

(C) Cuprum

(D) Argentum

The formula of sodium sulphate (A) Na2CO3

(B) Na2SO4

(C) Na2O

(D) NaNO3

Ozone is (A) Diatomic

(B) Monoatomic

(C) Triatomic

(D) none of these

The valency of nitrogen in ammonia is (A) 3

(B) 1

(C) 4

(D) 2

The correct chemical formula of aluminum sulphate is (A) AlSO4

(B) Al(SO3)4

(C) Al3(SO4)4

(D) Al2(SO4)3

Identify the unbalanced chemical equation (A) 2Mg + O



MgO

(B) 2H2 + O2  2H2O

(C) H2 + Cl2  2HCl 9.

(D) 2Mg + O2  2MgO

An element (A) is tetravalent electropositive and another element (B) is divalent electronegative. The formula of the compound formed from these elements will be (A) A2B

10.

(B) AB

(C) AB2

(D) A2B3

(B) Au

(C) Al

(D) Ag

The symbols of gold is (A) Pb

11.

What is a balanced chemical equation ? Explain with example.

12.

Why is the valency of inert gases zero ?

13.

What does a symbol represent ?

14.

What is meant by compound radicals ? Give examples.

15.

What do you mean by the valency of an element ?

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12

DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Acids are ………………….. in taste. (A) sweet

(B) salty

(C) sour

(D) bitter

The acid present in sour milk is (A) oxalic acid

(B) lactic acid

(C) citric acid

(D) hydrochloric acid

Acid present in our stomach which helps in digestion of food (A) phosphoric acid (H 3PO4)

(B) nitric acid (NHO3)

(C) sulphuric acid (H 2SO4)

(D) hydrochloric acid (HCl)

The acid present in Tamarind is (A) Tartaric acid

(B) Acetic acid

(C) Lactic acid

(D) Citric acid

Acid which is used in the manufacture of explosives such as TNT (A) HNO3

(B) HCl

(C) H2SO4

(D) CH3COOH

Acids gives +

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

 –

(A) H in water

(B) OH  in water

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

Acid present in tea is (A) tartaric acid

(B) amino acid

(C) tannic acid

(D) citric acid

pH of blood is (A) 6.3

(B) 7.4

(C) 8.2

(D) 4.7

Sulphuric acid can be neutralized by (A) citric acid

(B) tartaric acid

(C) nitric acid

(D) sodium hydroxide

Common name of H2SO4 is (A) green vitriol

(B) muriatic vitriol

(C) blue vitriol

(D) oil of vitriol

Name the acid present in (i) Tamarind

(ii) Vinegar

(iii) Apples

(iv) Tomato

12.

What will be the litmus test for a solution of vitamin C ?

13.

Give the difference between strong acid and weak acid. Give example.

14.

Why it is desirable to add acid to water and not water to acid ?

15.

What are inorganic acid ? Give examples.

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13

DPP NO. 03 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1.

When magnesium oxide (MgO) reacts with water to form magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH) 2), a base, it turns …………………… litmus to ………………….. .

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

(A) blue, red

(B) blue, colorless

(C) red, blue

(D) colorless, blue

An indicator that turns reddish brown when dissolved in soap solution is (A) litmus

(B) china rose

(C) turmeric

(D) methyl orange

When a drop of phenolphthalein is introduced in lime water, the solution turns (A) blue

(B) red

(C) milky

(D) pink

A base which dissolves in water is called (A) a soluble base

(B) an alkali

(C) an acid

(D) an oxide

A soap solution is (A) acidic

(B) basic

(C) neutral

(D) none of these

Which of the following is a base (A) ammonium hydroxide

(B) sodium hydroxide

(C) potassium hydroxide

(D) all the above

Antacids contains (A) weak base

(B) weak acid

(C) strong base

(D) strong acid

Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is used in (A) plastics and dyes

(B) fertilizers

(C) antacids

(D) white washing

According to Arrhenius concept, base is a substance that +

10.

 –

(A) gives H ions in aqueous solutions

(B) gives OH  ions in aqueous solution

(C) accepts electrons

(D) donates electrons

According to the Bronsted Lowry concept an acid is a substance which (A) accepts proton

(B) gives an electron pair

(C) gives proton

(D) combines with H 3O  ion

+

11.

What are the general properties of basic substances ?

12.

Classify the following substances into acidic and basic substances : Tomato juice

Soap solution

Toothpaste

Lemon juice

Vinegar. 13.

Which base is used in preparation of soap and detergents ?

14.

Why are bases slippery or soapy to touch ?

15.

What is the difference between an alkali and a base ?

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14

DPP NO. 04 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Neutralization reaction is an example of (A) exothermic reaction

(B) endothermic reaction

(C) oxidation

(D) none of these

In a neutralization reaction, an acid reacts with a base to give (A) another acid

(B) another base

(C) another acid and another base

(D) a salt and water

A compound formed by the reaction of an acid with base is (A) salt

(B) indicator

(C) vitamins

(D) all the above

The acidity and alkalinity of a compound is represented on a scale known as (A) pH scale

(B) Hess's scale

(C) Kelvin scale

(D) none of these

HCl + NaOH

 Product. Choose the correct product for the reaction



(A) NaCl + H2O

(B) New HCl + New NaOH

(C) NaCl + H 2 + O2

(D) All of the above

Litmus solution is …………………. colored dye. (A) blue

(B) red

(C) purple

(D) green

Rock phosphate is (A) Ca3(PO4)2

(B) NaNO3

(C) NaOH

(D) Al2O3.2H2O

Methyl orange can be classified in which category ? (A) acid

(B) base

(C) salt

(D) indicator

Which of the following is an olfactory indicator ? (A) methyl orange

(B) turmeric

(C) vanilla essence

(D) phenolphthalein

Salt that we add in our food is (A) MgCl2

(B) CaCO3

(C) NaCl

(D) CaSO4

11.

Define salts ? Give the reaction also.

12.

What are acids, bases and indicators ?

13.

What is meant by pH ? What does it indicate ?

14.

What will be the colour of following indicators in neutral, acidic and basic medium : (a) China rose (b) Hydrangea flower

15.

What are olfactory indicators? What happens happens when vanilla essence is added to acidic and basic medium ?

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15

DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Acidic soil which is not good for healthy growth of plants is neutralized by (A) potassium hydroxide (KOH)

(B) calcium oxide (CaO)

(C) sodium hydroxide (NaOH)

(D) Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH) 2)

Acetic acid is used (A) as soda water

(B) for preparing soaps

(C) in flavoring food items

(D) to manufacture detergents

Potassium hydroxide is (A) caustic soda

(B) caustic potash

(C) slaked lime

(D) milk of magnesia

Silver hydroxide is a (A) weak base

(B) strong base

(C) weak acid

(D) strong acid

Match the following – Column –I

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Column - II

(a) tamarind

(p) acetic acid

(b) vinegar

(q) lactic acid

(c) lemon

(r) tartaric acid

(d) sour milk

(s) citric acid

(A) a – r; b – p; c – s; d – q

(B) a – p; b – r; c – s; d – q

(C) a – p; b – s; c – q; d – r

(D) none of these

The acid present in vinegar is (A) benzoic acid

(B) citric acid

(C) tartaric acid

(D) acetic acid

Which of the following is not a monoacidic base ? (A) Cu(OH)2

(B) NaOH

(C) KOH

(D) All of these

Which of the following is a tribasic acid ? (A) H2SO4

(B) H2CO3

(C) H4SiO4

(D) H3PO4

A solution has pH 2 on dilution the pH value (A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains same

(D) none of these

Bases gives  –

+

(A) OH in water

(B) H  in water

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) none of these

11.

Define acids and bases on the basis of Arrhenius theory ? Give reactions.

12.

What are electrolytes ? Give few examples.

13.

Explain the process of diluting the acids.

14.

Give the classification of acids on the basis of basicity ?

15.

What are organic acids ? Give their names and source.

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16

DPP NO. 06 TOPIC : FIBRE TO FABRIC 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Which fibres are used to make clothes ? (A) Synthetic

(B) Natural

(C) Both

(D) None of these

Silk is obtained from – (A) Cocoon

(B) Pupa

(C) Egg

(D) Moth

Which of the following is a synthetic fibres ? (A) Cellulose

(B) Nylon

(C) Starch

(D) Cotton

Pashmina shawls are obtained from the skin of which animal ? (A) Camel

(B) Yak

(C) Kashmiri Goat

(D) None of these

Which of the following is made from coconut fibres ? (A) Sweaters

(B) Shoes

(C) Mattresses

(D) Sarees

Wool can be dissolved in (A) acid

(B) base

(C) both A & B

(D) None of these

The hair of sheep in called (A) Llama

(B) Alphacas

(C) Pupa

(D) Fleece

Silk thread woven by silkworm around its larva is made up of (A) carbohydrates

(B) proteins

(C) fat

(D) none of these

Removing of silk fibre from cocoons is (A) shearing

(B) reeling

(C) sericulture

(D) none of these

Cotton is obtained from (A) larva of silkworms

(B) hairs of sheep

(C) balls of flowers

(D) patsun

11.

What is cocoon ?

12.

What are several health hazard in wool and silk industry ?

13.

What is meant by shearing and scouring ?

14.

Give the uses of cotton.

15.

Define the chemical properties of wool ?

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17

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES DPP NO. 07 TOPIC : HOW THINGS REACT WITH ONE ANOTHER 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Photosynthesis is a ....................... (A) physical change

(B) chemical change

(C) both A and B

(D) none of these

Which one of the following is a physical change ? (A) digestion of food

(B) boiling of an egg

(C) making of cup of tea

(D) none of these

During all changes physical or chemical changes mass is (A) gained

(B) conserved

(C) loss

(D) none of these

When food eaten by us is digested it undergoes ............................ change. (A) periodic

(B) reversible

(C) irreversible

(D) physical

Melting of wax is a ................. change while burning of candle is .................. change. (A) irreversible, reversible

(B) reversible, irreversible

(C) physical, reversible

(D) chemical, irreversible

A chemical reaction in which heat is evolved is called (A) endothermic reaction

(B) exothermic reaction

(C) neutralization reaction

(D) displacement reaction

On a hot summer day ice-cream melts faster than in winters. The process of melting is (A) chemical change

(B) physical change

(C) periodic change

(D) irreversible change

Which one of the following is a chemical change ? (A) Photosynthesis

(B) Combustion

(C) Digestion of food

(D) All of the above

Which of the following changes include formation of new substances ? (A) Melting

(B) Sublimation

(C) Evaporation

(D) Rusting

CO2 + Ca(OH)2  x + y. The x and y are (A) water and calcium

(B) water and calcium hydroxide

(C) CaCO 3 and H2O

(D) None of these

11.

Give two examples of physical change and chemical change ?

12.

Discuss why the dissolving of salt in water is a physical change ?

13.

Differentiate between physical and chemical changes with reference to the change in composition of the substance and change in energy ?

14.

Which gas is evolved when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to form zinc chloride ? Give the reaction.

15.

Give differences between crystalline and amorphous substances.

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DPP NO. 08 TOPIC : HOW THINGS REACT WITH ONE ANOTHER 1.

Coating iron with a thin layer of zinc, to prevent rusting is called (A) galvanization

2.

5.

(D) none of these

(B) Fe2O3

(C) Fe2O3.xH2O

(D) none of these

A change in which one or new substances are formed is called (A) chemical change

4.

(C) crystallization

During rusting, the layer deposited on the surface of iron is (A) FeO

3.

(B) anodizing

(B) physical change

(C) corrosion

(D) all of the above

An ice cube floats in a glass of water, when the ice cube melts, the water level will (A) rise

(B) fall

(C) remain unchanged

(D) first fall and then rise

Fraction of ship's iron has to be replaced every year because (A) rusting makes iron weak (B) its color fades away (C) ship can move properly in water only after replacement (D) All the above

6.

Why rusting is faster in coastal areas than in deserts ? (A) Because air has more moisture in coastal areas than in desert areas. (B) Because air has less moisture in coastal areas than in desert areas. (C) None of these (D) Both (A) and (B)

7.

A ..................................... speeds up a chemical reaction. (A) reactant

8.

9.

(B) product

(C) catalyst

(D) none of these

The process of obtaining pure crystals of copper sulphate from copper sulphate solution is known as (A) crystallization

(B) galvanization

(C) rusting

(D) none of these

Favorable conditions for a chemical reaction may be(i) When the reactants come in close contact. (ii) When the reactants are heated. (iii) When the reactants are exposed to light. (iv) When the reactants are subjected to pressure. (v) When a catalyst is used the same chemical reaction takes place at a faster rate (A) i, ii and iii

10.

(B) ii, iii and iv

(C) ii, iv and v

(D) all five options

(C) carbon

(D) both oxygen and water

For rusting the essential component is (A) oxygen

(B) water

11.

Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reaction.

12.

Why sea water is called saturated solution of salt ?

13.

Write an equation for burning of magnesium in air. What happens when magnesium ribbon is heated in a flame of bunsen burner ?

14.

Why bicycle wheels and wheels of automobiles are coated with nickel and chromium ?

15.

How will you explain that state changes during a chemical change ? Give reaction.

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19

WATER & WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT DPP NO. 09 TOPIC : WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT 1.

2.

3.

Sewage is mainly a (A) liquid waste

(B) solid waste

(C) gaseous waste

(D) mixture of solid and gas

Open drain system is a breeding place for which of the following (A) Flies

(B) Mosquitoes

(C) Organisms which cause diseases

(D) All of these

Water polluted by various human activities causes a number of water borne diseases. Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

4.

5.

(A) Cholera

(B) Typhoid

(C) Asthma

(D) Dysentery

Pick from the following one chemical used to disinfect water. (A) Chlorine

(B) Washing soda

(C) Silica

(D) Coal

The system of a network of pipes used for taking away wastewater from homes or public buildings to the treatment plant is known as -

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

(A) sewers

(B) sewerage

(C) transport system

(C) treatment plant

Which of the following is a part of inorganic impurities of the sewage? (A) Pesticides

(B) Urea

(C) Phosphates

(D) Vegetable waste

In a filtration plant water is filtered using layers of (A) sand and clay

(B) clay and fine gravel

(C) sand and fine gravel

(D) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel

Which of the following is not a source of waste water? (A) Sewers

(B) Homes

(C) Industries

(D) Hospitals

 A resource much needed for fertile soil is (A) Septic Tank

(B) Chemical Toilet

(C) Vermi - Processing Toilet

(D) Composing pits

Better housekeeping practice includes (A) Cooking oil and fats should not be thrown down the drain (B) Chemicals like paints, solvents, insecticides should not be thrown the drain (C) Used tea leaves, solid food, cotton should not be thrown in the drain (D) All of the above

11.

What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.

12.

How water is treated in areas having low population?

13.

Outline your role as an active citizen in relation to sanitation.

14.

Discuss the various steps involved in water treatment plant.

15.

What are the different types of inorganic and organic impurities generally present in sewage?

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 VIBRANT ACADEMY 

BIOLOGY  CLASS – VII (CBSE)

(India) Private Limited DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET

DPP NO. 01 TOPIC : NUTRITION IN PLANTS 1.

2.

Photosynthesis utilize (A) carbon dioxide and water

(B) solar energy and water

(C) solar energy and chlorophyll

(D) both (A) and (C)

Autotrophs produce their food by the activation of (A) solar energy

3.

10.

(B) stem

(C) root

(D) node

(B) autotrophic

(C) parasitic

(D) holozoic

(B) holozoic

(C) autotrophic

(D) decomposer

(B) stroma

(C) thylakoid

(D) cytoplasm

(C) sunlight

(D) O2

The inducer of photosynthesis is (A) CO2

9.

(D) all of these

The final production of product of photosynthesis occur in (A) grana

8.

(C) phosphorus

Fungi is considered as.............. in nature (A) producer

7.

(B) potassium

Algae's mode of nutrition is (A) heterotrophic

6.

(D) air

Photosynthesis can't be proceed in (A) leaf

5.

(C) chlorophyll

Major nutrients require for the growth of plants (A) nitrogen

4.

(B) water

(B) H2O

Excess light (A) increases photosynthesis

(B) equilibrates photosynthesis

(C) decreases photosynthesis

(D) no effect on photosynthesis

Products of photosynthesis are (A) H2O

(B) Glucose and sunlight

(C) Glucose

(D) Glucose and O 2

11.

Name the components of food.

12.

What is the mode of nutrition of plants?

13.

Name the process by which plants prepare their own food.

14.

What are stomata?

15.

To destarch any plant, what should be done?

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21

DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : NUTRITION IN ANIMALS ANIMALS

1.

The process of breaking down of food into small pieces is (A) respiration

2.

(D) symbiotic

(B) legs

(C) pseudopodia

(D) suckers

(B) small intestine

(C) stomach

(D) pharynx

(B) glycogen

(C) cellulose

(D) glucose

(B) small intestine

(C) large Intestine

(D) pharynx

(B) pancreas

(C) thyroid

(D) adrenal

(C) venules

(D) portal vein

(C) lizards

(D) both (A) and (B)

The smallest blood vessel is (A) capillary

10.

(C) parasitic

The largest gland in our body is the (A) liver

9.

(B) holozoic

The site of food absorption is (A) stomach

8.

(D) ingestion

The major digesting substance of plant eater is (A) chitin

7.

(C) assimilation

Mouth is connected with oesophagous by a structure called (A) food pipe

6.

(B) excretion

Amoeba intake food by the structure called (A) parapodia

5.

(B) arterioles

Four chambered heart is found in (A) birds

(B) crocodile

11.

How many chambers are present pr esent in a ruminant stomach? ruminant  stomach?

12.

Name the enzymes active in acidic medium.

13.  13. 

How is the nutrition in amoeba different from human beings?

14.

Describe the functions of the following: (i) saliva

15.

(D) reproduction

Mode of nutrition in Amoeba is (A) saprotrophic

4.

(C) circulation

The steps of nutrition by which the organism generates energy during digestion (A) absorption

3.

(B) digestion

(ii) oesophagus

(iii) liver

Define the following terms : (i) assimilation

(ii) intracellular digestion

(iii) villi

(iv) digestive system

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22

DPP NO. 03 TOPIC : WEATHER CLIMATE AND ADAPTATIONS 1.

 Animals have moist and slimy skin, which helps in breathing are the adaptations of (A) aquatic animals

2.

3.

(C) a (C) amphibians mphibians animals (D) a (D) a rboreal

Desert animals excrete (A) dilute urine

(B) concentrated urine

(C) urine with excreta

(D) a (D) ammonia mmonia gas

Organisms that live on trees are called (A) arial

4.

(B) aerial (B) aerial animals

(B) arboreal

(C) terrestrial

(D) aquatic

Wool yielding animals bear thick coat of hair because (A) the animals carry a lot of hair follicles on body only (B) it protects them from the predators (C) hair trap a lot of air, which is a poor conductor of heat (D) the animals can sleep happily on the rough surfaces

5.

6.

7.

How do desert animals adjust to very high temperature and lack of water in the area ? (A) They shed their skin

(B) They become active during day time

(C) They lose much water from their bodies

(D) They use the stored water in their bodies

Which of the following adaptations enable a penguin to swim ? (A) Flippers

(B) Webbed feet

(C) Streamlined body shape

(D) All (D) All of these

Elephants keep cool with the help of their (A) tail

8.

(D) trunk

(B) gills

(C) skin

(D) both (A) and (C)

(C) cold and humid

(D) extremely cold

What is the climate of a tropical rainforest region. (A) warm and humid

10.

(C) teeth

Respiratory organs of amphibians are (A) lungs

9.

(B) ears

(B) hot and dry

The climatic condition is concerned with low temperature is the indication of (A) summer

(B) spring

(C) winter

(D) autumn

11.

Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.

12.

When are the maximum and minimum temperatures likely to occur during the day?

13.

The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain why it is so?

14.

Write a short note on migration.

15.

Write characteristics of hydrophytes.

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23

DPP NO. 04 TOPIC : SOIL 1.

2.

3.

Soil consists of (A) organic waste

(B) decomposed material

(C) ions

(D) all of these

C-horizon present at (A) top position-profile

(B) in each layer of soil-profile

(C) bottom position of soil profile

(D) none of these

The removal of fertile layer from the earth crust is termed as (A) soil transformation

4.

5.

(A) deforestation

(B) industralisation

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) afforestation

8.

9.

(B) clayley soil

(C) sandy soil

(D) all of these

(C) black soil

(D) brown soil

The soil present in plateau area are (B) yellow soil

Bed-rock and pebbles are the characteristics of (A) C-horizon and A-horizon

(B) C-horizon and B-horizon

(C) D-horizon and C-horizon

(D) A-horizon and B-horizon

The hot-spots of a land considers the following (A) rainfall

(B) temperature and pressure of that area

(C) biodiversity

(D) both (A) and (B)

Soil pollution can be controlled by (A) deforestation

10.

(D) soil culture

The soil having good water holding capacity is

(A) red soil 7.

(C) soil erosion

The possible reasons of soil-pollution are

(A) loamy soil 6.

(B) soil implantation

(B) over-grazing

(C) industrialization

(D) afforestation

The elements which are required for the fertility of soil (A) P,K,Ca

(B) N,P,K

(C) Ca,Mg,K

11.

What is Humus?

12.

Draw a neat and labeled diagram of soil profile.

13.

Why is the uppermost layer of soil dark in colour ?

14.

Explain how soil pollution and soil erosion could be prevented.

15.

List the differences between clayey soil and sandy soil.

(D) H,P,K

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DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : RESPIRATION 1.

Leaves respire with the help of (A) lenticles

2.

3.

4.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

(C) plasmodesmata

(D) cuticle

The type of respiration in mamm als is called (A) gill respiration

(B) tracheal respiration

(C) cutaneous cutaneous respiration

(D) pulmonary respiration

W hich of the following is not a characteristic of good respiratory surface ? (A) Thin and moist

(B) Large surface area

(C) Close to oxygen and gas transport

(D) Thick and dry surface dry surface

In aerobic respiration A respiration ATP TP is form ed (A) 38 ATP

5.

(B) stomata

(B) 32 ATP

(C) 30 ATP

(D) 28 ATP 28 ATP

In human normal breathing rate is (A) 15-18 per min.

(B) 25-30 per min.

(C) 30-32 per min.

(D) 10-12 per min.

End products of aerobic respiration are (A) CO2  and H2O

(B) lactic acid

(C) alcohol

(D) none of these

During inhalation, the ribs (A) move outwards

(B) move upwards

(C) move downwards downwards

(D) do not move at all

Respiration is a process opposite to (A) blood blood circulation

(B) digestion

(C) photosynthesis

(D) none of these

In respiration (A) gaseous exchange occurs

(B) energy is produced

(C) breakdown of food occurs

(D) all of these

Respiration is (A) aerobic

(B) both aerobic and anaerobic

(C) anaerobic

(D) none of these

11.

W hat is the biological fuel in respiration?

12.

What is breathing rate?

13.

W hat is anaerobic respiration?

14.

Give reasons to justify that energy is required during sleep.

15.

List the similarities and differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

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DPP NO. 06 TOPIC : TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS ANIMALS AND PLANTS PLANTS 1.

Which one of the following is connected with transport of water in plants (A) phloem

2.

3.

(B) tracheids and sieve tube

(C) vessel and compansion cell

(D) companion cell and sieve tube

Organ do the process of circulation and transportation

(C) head artery

(D) aorta senior

(B) plasmalemma

(C) erythrocytes

(D) thrombocytes

(B) inferior vena cava

(C) capillaries

(D) all of these

(C) WBC

(D) plasma

(B) chromoplast

(C) haemoglobin

(D) melanin

(B) one chambered

(C) two chambered

(D) three chambered

(C) nephron

(D) none of these

(B) platelets

Red color of blood is due to

Human heart is (A) four chambered

10.

(B) aorta

The fluidity of blood is due to

(A) myoglobin 9.

(D) stomach

Vessels forms the network between arteries and veins

(A) RBC 8.

(C) kidney

The other name of RBC's are

(A) vena cava 7.

(B) heart

The 'Main artery' is also termed as

(A) leucocytes 6.

(D) cambium

(A) tracheids and vessel

(A) superior artery 5.

(C) epidermis

Cells which transport food to the autotrophs

(A) liver 4.

(B) xylem

Unit of excretion in man is (A) neuron

(B) nissl's organ

11.

Name the two kinds of cells of xylem.

12.

Write two excretory wastes in plants.

13.

What is systemic circulation of blood?

14.

With a diagrammatic representation of the human heart , trace the flow of blood.

15.

What is blood? Describe its composition.

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26

DPP NO. 07 TOPIC : REPRODUCTION IN PLANT 1.

The ability to generate new ones of same kind is (A) digestion

2.

4.

8.

10.

(D) sexual reproduction

(C) asexual reproduction

(D) none of these

Hydra reproduce through (B) fragmentation

(C) regeneration

(D) both (A) and (C)

Variation are generated in (B) sexual reproduction (C) fragmentation

(D) grafting

Fungi's mode of reproduction is (B) grafting

(C) spore formation

(D) cutting

Vegetative Reproduction includes (A) generation of new somatic cells

(B) no variation generated

(C) simple reproducing process

(D) all of these

Amoeba reproduces through (A) budding

9.

(C) grafting

(B) both (A) and (C)

(A) budding 7.

(B) budding

(A) sexual reproduction

(A) budding 6.

(D) excretion

Single parents reproduction is termed as

(A) budding 5.

(C) respiration

Gametes are formed in (A) binary fission

3.

(B) reproduction

(B) binary fission

(C) spore formation

(D) fragmentation

Bryophyllum reproduces through

(A) vegetative reproduction

(B) spore formation

(C) budding

(D) fragmentation

'Stock' is associated with (A) layering

(B) cutting

11.

W hat is budding ?

12.

Explain the term grafting.

13.

Give one example of each of the following

(C) grafting

(D) vegetative propagation

(i) plant which reproduces naturally by vegetative propagation of leaf. (ii) plant which reproduces naturally by vegetative propagation of stem. 14.

W rite a note on germination of seed.

15.

How is zygote formed in plants?

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DPP NO. 08 TOPIC : OUR FOREST 1.

A huge area covered with trees and surrounded by biodiversity is (A) agriculture land

2.

3.

(B) balance the ecosystem

(C) habitat of biodiversity

(D) all of these

A linear arrangement of producers and consumers of eaten and being eaten is

8.

9.

(D) none of these

(B) floods

(C) afforestation

(D) plantation

(B) eastern himalayas

(C) western ghats

(D) both (B) and (C)

Rabbit, polar-bear, yaks gives commercialize product (B) fur

(C) bones

(D) oil

The major cause of melting of glaciers is (A) deforestation

(B) extinction

(C) global warming

(D) abundance of flora and fauna

The peculiar feature of plants of Artic region is (A) needle shaped leaves

(B) pointed branches

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) none of these

The group of inter linked food chain (A) ecosystem

10.

(C) food-chain

The hot spots of India are

(A) tusk 7.

(B) food-triangle

The major cause of soil erosion is

(A) eastern ghats 6.

(D) none of these

(A) O2 and CO2 balance

(A) deforestation 5.

(C) forest

The benefits of forest are

(A) food-web 4.

(B) both (A) and (C)

(B) food web

(C) food circle

(D) food pyramid

Commercial products obtained from the from the forest are (A) paper

(B) honey

(C) medicine

11.

W hy is energy flow considered as unidirectional? unidirectional ?

12.

W hat happens when when in a food-chain tertiary consumers are destroyed?

13.

W rite any four significances of forest.

14.

List any three measures for the protection of wildlife.

15.

"Nothing is waste in forests". Can you explain this statement?

(D) all of these

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28

 VIBRANT ACADEMY 

SOCIAL SCIENCE 

(India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY DAILY PRACTICE P ROBLEMS SHEET

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : TRACING CHANGES THROUGH A THOSAND YEARS 1.

What do you mean by the Archives? (A) a place where government documents are kept (B)a place where people are kept (C) a place where animala are kept (D) none of these

2.

Match the following (a) Kalhana (b) Al-beruni (c) Abul Fazl (d) Firdausi (A) a (ii) b (iv) c (i) d (iii) (C) a (i) b (ii) c (iv) d (ii)

3.

(i) Akbarnama (ii) Rajatarangini (iii) Shahnama (iv) Tarikh-al Hind (B) a (iii) b (iv) c (ii) d (i) (D) none of thses

British historians divided the history of India into (A) six periods (B) five periods (C) four periods.

(D) three periods.

4.

Coins,inscriptions Coins,inscriptions and architecture architecture are few of the important methods through through which which we we come to know about (A) Our economy (B) Our past (C) Our political cal status (D) Our Trade

5.

Prophet Mohammadís son-in-law was the legitimate leader of Muslim community as per the (A) (A) Sunn Sunnii commu communi nity ty (B) (B) Shia Shia commu communi nity ty (C) (C) The The Kha Khalifa lifas s (D) (D) The The Sufi Sufis s

6.

Cartographer is an an important person in the study of history history as he is the (A) (A) one one who rule rules s over over a king kingdo dom m (B) (B) one one who who does does trad trade e by ocea oceani nic c rout routes es.. (C) one who makes maps (D) one who carves out empires.

7.

Al-Idrisi was (A) (A) an arti artist st

(B) (B) an Arab Arabic ic sail sailor or

(C)a (C)an n Arab Arabiic geog geogra raph pher er (D) (D) an hist histo orian rian

8.

The term ëHindustaní was used to refer to area of Punjab, Haryana Haryana and Doab of Ganga Yamuna by (A) Minhaj-us-Siraj (B) Harisena (C) Kalidas (D) Al beruni

9.

Babar used the term ëHindustaní in the (A) poli politi tica call sens sense e (B) (B) geog geogra raph phic ical al sens sense e (C) (C) hist histor oric ical al sens sense e

(D) (D) poet poetic ic terms terms..

10.

In past the term ëforeignerí meant (A) The one who was not an Indian (B) The one who was not a part of a specific social unit like village or city etc (C) One who came from the region of Afghanistan (D) One who came from the southern region of the sub continent

11.

Who was James Mill ?

12.

What do you mean by inscriptions?

13.

List some of the historical historical accounts during the medieval period. Ans. (i) (i) Tuhfat Tuhfat - un - Nuz Nuzzar zar Gharib Gharibii - il - Amsar Amsar by lbn - e - Batu Batuta ta (ii) (ii) Accoun Accounts ts of Marco Marco Polo Polo (13th (13th centur century y A.D.) A.D.) (iii (iii)) Accoun Accounts ts of Nicolo Nicolo Conti Conti (16th (16th centur century y A.D.) A.D.) (iv) Tarikh - i- firishta firishta (16th century century A.D.) by Firishta Firishta

14.

What were ëjatisí? How were the affairs of jatis regulated?

15.

In what ways has the meaning of the term “Hindustan” changed over the centuries ?

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1

DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : NEW KINGS AND KINGDOMS 1.

2.

3.

Sultan Mahmud Ghazniís Ghazniís ruled Afghanistan from (A) 900 to 950. (B) 950 to 970. (C) 970 to 990.

(D) 997 to 1030.

The foundation of Rashtrakutas dynasty was laid down by (A) Amoghavarsha-I (B) Dantidurga (C) Indra-III

(D) Krishna-I

Prithviraja III defeated Sultan Muhammad Muhamma d Ghori in (A) 1191.

4.

6.

7.

(C) 1193.

(D) 1194.

The Rashtrakutas dynasty was founded in the region of  (A) Deccan.

5.

(B) 1192.

(B) W arrangal.

(C) Kalinga.

(D) Karnataka

The river that flowed in the regions of the Chola dynasty was (A) Godavari. (B) Krishna. (C) Tungabhadra .

(D) Kaveri.

At the time of Cholas, Cholas, the tax ëVettií ëVettií was levied in the form of  (A) cash. (B) food grain. (C) forced labour.

(D) irrigation tax.

Match the following List I (A) Gurjara-prathiharas (B) Rashtrakutas

List II (i) W estern Deccan (ii) Bengal

(C) Pala (D) Cholas (A) (A) A - (ii (iii), B - (i), (i), C - (ii (ii), D - (iv) (iv)

(iii) Gujarat and Rajastan (iv) Tamil Nadu (B) (B) A - (i), (i), B - (ii) (ii),, C - (iii (iii), ), D - (iv (iv)

(C) (C) A - (iv (iv), B - (iii (iii), ), C - (ii) (ii),, D - (i) (i)

(D) (D) A - (ii (ii), B - (iii (iii), ), C - (iv) (iv),, D - (i) (i)

8.

Among the crafts associated with the Chola Chola temples the most distinctive distinctive was that of the (A) bronze images. (B) woven silk. (C) tall statues. (D) carvings on walls.

9.

The author of Kitab-ul-Hind was (A) Al-Beruni. (C) Firdausi.

(B) Amir-khusru. (D) Isami.

Rashtrakutas were subordinate to (A) Cholas.

(B) Chalukyas.

(C) Pandyas.

(D) Mauryas.

10.

11.

What were the titles adopted by the kings during this period?

12.

Who were Gurjar-Pratiharas?

13.

What was the significance of the Pala Rule in Bengal and Bihar?

14.

How did the kings demonstrate their power ?

15.

What are Prashastis?

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DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : ON EQUALITY 1.

The Civil Rights Movement took place (A) U.S.A. (B) South Africa.

(C) Latin America.

(D) Chile.

2.

What does the term Dalit  stand   stand for? (A) It symbolises inequalities among upper castes (B) It is a term which symbolises inequalities among lower caste (C) Gender Inequalities (D) Discrimination on religious grounds

3.

What do you understand by mid-day meal scheme? (A) It refers to the programme that provides lunch for the students (B) Providing financial aid to the students (C) Meal only for disabled students (D) Programme for non-resident indians

4.

Where is Universal Adult Franchise practiced ? (A) India (B) The world (C) Most of the democratic countries of the world (D) China China

5.

What does the term ‘people’s participation’ in democracy mean? (A) It means that people participate in all the democratic processes like elections etc (B) It means that people observe, suggest and criticise the policy and work of the government (C) It implies involvement of people in judicial decisions. (D) It impies people’s participation in the formation of non-governmental agencies. agencies.

6.

India holds which form of government? (A) Democratic (C) Communist

7.

8.

(B) Autocratic (D) Presidential form of government.

The concept of Universal Adult Franchise is based on(A) Equality (B) Inequality (C) Justice

(D) Conflict

The mid-day meal scheme in India was first introduced in the state of  (A) Tamil Nadu. (B) Andhra Pradesh. (C) Karnataka.

(D) Mumbai.

9.

Who was Rosa Parks? (A) She was an actress (B) Painter  (C) She was an activist who started agitation against racial discrimination (D) Musician

10.

What does the term ’dignity’ symbolise? (A) Sel Self respect (B) Verbal abuse

(C) Confrontation

11.

How is political equality established in India?

12.

What does equality before law mean?

13.

Which Indian Dalit leader came to be known as the messiah of Dalits ?

14.

Who are minorities?

15.

What were were the positive outcomes of mid-day meal scheme?

(D) Non-violence

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3

DPP NO. 4 TOPIC : ENVIRONMENT 1.

5th June is celebrated as (A) agricultural day. (C) water day.

(B) forest day. (D) environment day.

2.

Which of the following is not a part of human environment? (A) Society (B) Religion (C) Jungles (D) Communities

3.

Ecosystem í is associated with (A) Biotic and Abiotic Factors (C) Abiotic Factors

(B) Biotic factors (D) Atmosphere

4.

The major threat to our environment is the growing (A) animals (B) population (C) crops (D) plants

5.

The term 'Abiotic' includes: (A) Land (C) Animals

(B) Plants (D) Human beings

6.

The basic life support system is commomly known as (A) Lithosphere (B) environment (C) hydrosphere (D) atmosphere

7.

Choose the wrongly matched pair: (A) Biotic ó Forest (C) Hydrosphere ó Land

(B) Atmosphere ó Air   (D) Abioticó Building

8.

Excessive population threatens environment because: (A) It increases oxygen level in the atmosphere (B) It maintains balance balance in ecosystem (C) It exerts exerts pressur pressure e on natura naturall resour resources ces (D) It incre increase ases s forest forest cover  cover 

9.

Family is a part of  (A) natural environment (B) human environment

(C) abiotic environment (D) human made environment

10.

Biosphere is the (A) narrow zone where land, water and air interact. (B) combination of natural and human phenomena. (C) hard layer of the earth. (D) source of mineral wealth.

11.

How is environment important to us ? Explain.

12.

What are the major domains of the environment?

13.

How is atmosphere important to us ?

14.

What is biosphere ? How is it made up ?

15.

How do humans affect/modify affect/m odify the natural environment?

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4

DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : INSIDE OUR EARTH 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

The earth interior consist of  (A) 4 layers (C) 2 layers

(B) 3 layers (D) 1 layer  

The uppermost layer of earth is called: (A) Crust

(B) Mantle

(C) Core

(D) Asthenosphere

The main consituents of continenet are (A) Silica, alumina (C) Magnesium, copper

(B) Alumina, magnesium (D) Silica, iron

Where is Granite found in India? (A) Rajasthan (C) Karnataka

(B) Madhya pradesh (D) All of them

Sedimentary rocks are made up of  (A) lava. (C) (C) comp compre ress ssed ed lay layers ers of sedi sedime ment nts. s.

(B) buried rocks. (D) (D) molt molten en magm magma. a.

Sandstones is an example of  (A) Sedimentary Rock (C) Metamorphic rock

(B) Igneous rock (D) volcanic rock

Fossils are (A) the remains remains of of the dead dead plants plants and animal animals. s.

(B) molten molten magma.

(C) igneous rocks.

(D) solid lava.

Under heat and pressure clay changes into (A) Slate (C) Diamond

(B) Marble (D) Coal

Petroleum and coal are example of  (A) Fossils fuels (C) forest fuels

(B) abiotic resource (D) biotic resource

The transformation of one rock into another is known as the: (A) Geological Cycle (B) Rock Cycle (C) Flluvial Cycle

(D) W ater cycle

11.

What are the three layers of the earth?

12.

What do you mean by ‘Sial’ ?

13.

What do you you mean by rock cycle ? What are the types types of rock ?

14.

What are sedimentary rocks ? Give an example.

15.

How are metamorphic rocks formed ? Give examples

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DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : THE DELHI SULTANS 1.

2.

The sultanate reached its farthest extent during the reign of  (A) Qutubuddin Aibak. (C) Ghiyasuddin Balban.

(B) Alauddin Khilji. (D) Mohammad Tuglaq.

Delhi was made capital by the rulers of  (A) Tomar dynasty. (C) Chauhana dynasty.

(B) Slave dynasty. (D) Pratihara dynasty.

3.

The number of taxes levied by the Delhi Sultans were (A) two (B) three. (C) four. (D) five.

4.

Kharaj was a tax on

5.

6.

7.

(A) house. (C) cultivation.

(B) pastures. (D) water.

Market control policy was introduced by (A) Mohammad bin Tughluq. (C) Iltutmish.

(B) Firoz Shah Tughluq. (D) Alauddin Khilji.

Iqta was abolished by (A) Balban. (C) Mohammad Tughluq.

(B) Alauddin Khilji. (D) Ibrahim Lodi.

Mohammad Tughluqís innovative token currency failed because, (A) he coul could d not not cont control rol its its circ circul ulat atio ion. n. (B) (B) toke token n curre currenc ncy y was was usel useles ess. s. (C) it was not popularised.

(D) people were against it.

8.

The tarikh and tawarikh tawarikh provides provides us a lot of information about Delhi was written in (A) Persian. (B) Arabic. (C) Iranian. (D) Hindavi.

9.

Which of the folowing did not belong to slave dynasty? (A) Iltutmish (B) Qutbuddin Aibak (C) Balban (D) Khizr Khan

10.

Moth Ki Masjid was constructed during the time of  (A) Bahlol lodi. (B) Sher Shah Lodi. (C) Ibrahim Lodi.

(D) Sikander Lodi.

11.

Why was Raziya, daughter of Sultan Sultan Iltutmish removed from the throne of Delhi?

12.

Who were the iqtadars or the muqti and what was their role?

13.

Why did large parts of the subcontinent remain outside the control of the Delhi sultans?

14.

What were the duties of the authors of the Histories?

15.

What were the results of the first campaigns of the rulers of the Delhi Sultanate to extend the empire?

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6

DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : HOW THE STATE GOVERNMENT WORKS 1.

2.

3.

The political party, party, which is unable to get a majority in Legislative Legislative Assembly is known as the (A) Ruling party (C) Private party.

(B) Opposition party. (D) Assembly party.

Who is the Chief Minister in a state? (A) Head of state (C) Head of the opposition

(B) Leader of the ruling party (D) Judicial Head

The functions of Governor are: (A) He appoints appoints members of the parliament parliament (C) Appoints Chief Minister

(B) He heads the centre centre during during emergency emergency (D) Elects MLAs

4.

In India what is the most important organ of the state ? (A) Legislative Assembly (B) Lok Sabha (C) Rajya Sabha (D) Chief Election Commissioner  

5.

What do you mean by majority? (A) When a decision is supported by more than half the number in the group (B) One third number of MLAs strength in an assembly is called as majority (C) Less than one third of the total strength of assembly is called majority (D) Half of the stregth

6.

The Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs ) belong to the (A) same political party. (C) pressure groups.

(B) different political parties. (D) non governmental organisations

7.

How is a governor appointed? (A) Governor is appointed by the central government (B) Governor is appointed by the state government (C) He is elected by the people (D) Appointed by the President

8.

The state with the largest number of MLA constituencies is (A) Uttar Pradesh. (B) Bihar. (C) Delhi. (D) Rajasthan.

9.

In India, how many states have assemblies? (A) All states (C) 15 states

10.

(B) 22 states (D) 20 States

To be a member of Vidhan Sabha, person should not be less than (A) 19 years of age. (C) 25 years of age.

(B) 22 years of age. (D) 30 years of age.

11.

What do you mean by the word word “majority” “majority” and “the ruling party”?

12.

What is a Legislative Assembly?

13.

What is the composition of the state legislature?

14.

What is the role of opposition in a democracy?

15.

Who is an MLA and how is he elected.

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7

DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : OUR CHANGING EARTH 1.

Following is the endogenic force (A) River (C) W ind

(B) Volcano (D) Glacier  

2.

The lithospheric plates are continuously moving due to : (A) Molten magma (B) Deforestation (C) Rainfall (D) Volcanic activities

3.

Sand-dunes are depostional feature formed due to action of  (A) W ind (B) Glacier   (C) River (D) Earthquakes

4.

A volcano is a phenomenon in which (A) earth plates move. (C) (C) molt molten en mate materi rial al erup erupts ts sudd sudden enly ly..

(B) high winds blow. (D) (D) sun sun ray rays beco become me hott hotter er..

5.

Earthquakes occur when (A) magma inside the earth comes out. (B) high pressure wind blows. (C) lithosphere plates move and cause earth surface to vibrate. (D) cyclones develop over Bay of Bengal.

6.

The earthquake is measured by (A) Seismograph. (C) Rectograph.

(B) Crescograph. (D) Barometer.

7.

When the river falls at steep angles over hard rocks, itit forms : (A) W aterfalls (B) Meanders (C) Flood plains (D) Cirques

8.

When river enters a plain, it twists and forms a large bend known as: (A) W aterfall (B) Meander   (C) Flood plain (D) Delta

9.

The cut-off lake formed from meanders by erosion is called: (A) Ox-Bow lake (B) Salt lake (C) tectonic lake (D) fresh water lake

10.

Two processes, which which are continuously breaking down down the landscape, are (A) (A) earthq rthqua uake kes s and volc volca anoes noes.. (C) weathe therin ring and and eros rosion. on. (B) (B) sedi sedime ment ntat atio ion n and and tran transp spor orta tati tion on.. (D) (D) rota rotati tion on and and revo revolu luti tion on..

11.

What are mushroom rocks?

12.

Which landforms are created by the sea ?

13.

Define Delta?

14.

What creates different landforms on the surface of the earth?

15.

What are meanders and ox-bow lakes?

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8

DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : THE MUGHAL EMPIRE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Sher Khan defeated Humayun at Chausa in (A) 1539 (C) 1541

(B) 1540 (D) 1542

Who was Prince Khurram? (A) Jahangir (C) Shah jahan

(B) Humayun (D) Akbar  

Sher Shah died while fighting in ; (A) Chausa (C) Kalinjar

(B) Kalinga (D) None of these

Subas in Mughal empire stands for  (A) provinces. (C) taluka.

(B) districts. (D) villages.

Todarmal was the Revenue Minister of  (A) Akbar.

(B) Jahangir  

(C) Shah Jahan

(D) Aurangzeb.

Prince Akbar rebelled against (A) Humayun (C) Shah Jahan

(B) Jahangir   (D) Aurangzeb.

7.

The coparcenary inheritence was followed by the Mughal ruler  (A) Babur. (B) Humayun. (C) Akbar. (D) Shahjahan.

8.

Mughals permanently lost Qandhar during the reign of  (A) Jahangir. (B) Shah Jahan. (C) Aurangzeb.

9.

10.

(D) Humayun.

The battle of Chanderi was fought in the year  (A) 1526. (C) 1528.

(B) 1527. (D) 1530.

Chittor was the capital of  (A) Chauhana Rajputs.

(B) Parmara Rajputs

(C) Sisodiya Rajputs.

(D) Hindushahi dynasty.

11.

Who were Mughals?

12.

Explain the rule of Babur?

13.

Who were Mansabdars?

14.

Explain Akbar’s Empire?

15.

Who were Zamindars?

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9

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : STATE GOVERNMENT AND ITS ROLE IN HEALTH 1.

What does the medical term OPD stand for? (A) Out Patient Department (C) Out Patient Donation

(B) Our Patient Donor   (D) Out parent door  

2.

One of the healthiest countries in South America is (A) Argentina. (B) Brazil. (C) Venezuela (D) Costa Rica.

3.

Right to Life is a (A) Legal right only. (B) Fundamental Right

(C) Human Right. (D) Directive Principle of State Policy.

Who owns the Private health facilities ? (A) Private sector (C) Medical Supritendent

(B) Government sector   (D) Medical Council of India

4.

5.

Why Private Health care system is not accessable to all? (A) It is more expensive (C) Inexperienced medical practitioners (B) It is mainly mainly concen concentra trated ted in rural rural areas areas (D) Non Non avail availabi abili lity ty of equip equipmen ments ts

6.

The two categories of health facilities are: (A) Public health services and private health facilities (B) Government and public heath (C) Private clinics and government hospitals (D) Health centres and hospitals

7.

Publ Public ic heal health thca care re syst system em is run run by (A) the doctors (C) the people

. (B) the teachers (D) the government

8.

Health Health means means our abilit ability y to remain remain free of and (A) government, health (C) Active, good spirits

. (B) welfare, health measures (D) illness, injuries

9.

People in the rural areas have to travel long distances to reach a (A) postman. (B) police. (C) trader. (D) physician.

10.

PBKMS stands for  (A) Paschi Paschim m Banga Banga Khet Khet Mazdoo Mazdoorr Samity Samity (C) Paschim Paschim Bengal Bengal Khet Mangalmay Mangalmay Samity

(B) Purab Purab Bengal Bengal Khet Khet Mangal Mangalmay may Samity Samity (D) Purab Banga Khet Mazdoor Mazdoor Samity

11.

What are the main resources to run public health centres?

12.

Who appoints the Governor?

13.

Explain the public health services.

14.

What do you mean by private health centre ?

15.

What do you mean by ëhealthí?

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10

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : AIR 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Precipitation in the liquid form is called (A) frost (C) Dew

(B) Snow (D) Rain

Pilots prefer to fly their aeroplanes in (A) troposphere. (C) thermosphere.

(B) stratosphere. (D) exosphere.

The following is a type of permanent wind (A) Trade W inds (C) Sea breeze

(B) Cyclonic winds (D) Monsoon winds

The gas that holds the least share in total composition is (A) Oxygen (C) CO

(B) Nitrogen (D) Argon

Which one is considered as green house gas? (A) Carbon Dioxide (C) Nitrogen

(B) Oxygen (D) Helium

6.

The following following is the consequence of global warming (A) W inds (B) Rise in sea level (C) Earthquakes (D) Increase in population

7.

Weather phenomena is generally associated with (A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere

8.

(C) Mesosphere

(D) Exosphere

If an area has low temperature then: (A) It will have high pressure (C) (C) It will ill many many varie arieti ties es of tree trees s

(B) It will have heavy rains (D) (D) It will ill have have many many riv rivers

9.

The state that is is prone to cyclones and originates in the Bay of Bengal is (A) Punjab. (B) Orissa. (C) Bihar. (D) Kerala.

10.

A type of rainfall is (A) Heavy rainfall.

(B) Convectional rainfall.

(C) Sudden rainfall.

(D) Systematic rainfall.

11.

What is atmosphere?

12.

How is carbon dioxide useful to plants?

13.

Explain Stratosphere?

14.

Describe briefly the composition of the atmosphere.

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11

DPP NO. 12 TOPIC : RULERS AND BUILDINGS 1.

Qibla stands for the (A) pedestal on which kingís throne was placed. (B) place where where the royal royal guard stood. (C) entrance of the kin kingdom. (D) The The side fac facing Mecca in a mos mosque

2.

The Agra fort was constructed during the reign of  (A) Babar. (B) Shahjahan. (C) Jahangir. (D) Akbar.

3.

Taj Mahal was constructed by Shah Jahan on the bank of river  (A) Ganga. (B) Yamuna. (C) Gomati. (D) Hindon.

4.

Muslim Sultans and Badshahs claimed to be (A) a shadow of God. (B) kind hearted rulers.

(C) generous to their people. (D) equivalent to God.

5.

Construction of Qutub Minar was initiated (begin) by (A) (A) Quta Qutabb- udud- din Bakh Bakhti tiy yar Kaki Kaki.. (B) (B) Qutb utbudd uddin Aib Aibak (C) Iltutmish. (D) Firoz Shah.

6.

Trabeateí means a form of  (A) architecture. (C) painting.

(B) dance. (D) clothing.

7.

The reservoir constructed on the orders of Sultan Illtutmish was (A) Delhi-I Kuhna. (B) Hauz-i Sultani. (C) Harminder Sahib. (D) Holy Sarovar.

8.

Match the following according to the code given below : Column A Column B  A Chola King Rajendra I (i) Buddha Buddha B Sri Lankan King Sena I (ii) Shiva C Palas of Bengal (iii) Bhairava and Bhairavi D Kalingas of Orissa (iv)Kali (A) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii) (B) A(iv) ,B(iii), C(ii), D(i) (C) A(i), B(ii) ,C(iii), D(iv) (D) None of them

9.

Chahar Bagh means (A) a huge garden. (C) four gardens.

(B) a garden along a river. (D) five gardens.

Hasht Bihishtî was a (A) architectural technique. (C) council of eight writers.

(B) accounts register. (D) name of a Persian text.

10.

11.

Give a description of Chahar Bagh.

12.

What do you know about ëHumayun’s Tombí?

13.

What is Quibla ?

14.

What is ‘Hauz-i-Sultanií? ‘Hauz-i-Sultanií?

15.

Why were the temples destroyed?

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12

DPP NO. 13 TOPIC : MEDIA AND ADVERTISEMENT 1.

2.

The Government of India censored the media in (A) 1768-1980 (C) 1990-1998

(B) 1890-1960 (D) 1975-1977

What is the local language of Uttar Pradesh? (A) Bundeli (C) Prakrit

(B) Pali (D) Sanskrit

3.

How does media play an important role in the democracy? (A) Media acts only on the advice of the government (B) Highlights weaknesses of the government (C) Media is not free (D) Only achivements of the government are highlighted

4.

What do you mean by media? (A) It describes the various problems that we face while communicating in the society (B) It refers to all means of communication (C) Only newspapers (D) Visual mode of communication

5.

Give an impact of technology on media? (A) It helps in reachin reaching g out to millions millions of people people (C) (C) It is unaf unaffo ford rdab ablle for for the the majo majori rity ty

(B) It is is time consuming consuming (D) (D) Peop People le misu misuse se tech techno nolo logy gy

Who invented television? (A) John L Baird (C) Abraham Lincoln

(B) Graham Bell (D) Newton

How does the media earns money? (A) (A) Thro Throu ugh advertisemen ments (C) Government aid

(B) (B) With With the the help elp of nonnon- gov govern ernmen mental tal orga organ nisa isatio tions (D) Co-operatives resources

6.

7.

8.

How people can show their dissent against governmental actions? (A) (A) By writi riting ng lett letter ers s to thei theirr frie friend nds s (B) (B) By orga organi nisi sing ng a publ public ic prot protes estt (C) (C) By avoi avoidi ding ng a sign signat atur ure e camp campai aign gn (D) (D) Using sing viol viole ent mean means s

9.

What do you mean by a ëBalanced Reportí? (A) It is the report that discusses any particular story from all the points of view and then leaves it to the readers to analyze it (B) Points out only the government perspective (C) Highlights record of employees (D) Deals with financial aspects

10.

What is most important for writing a ëBalance Reportí? (A) To be secular (B) Independent (C) Dependent on government (D) Democratic

11.

What are the reasons that prevent the media from being being independent?

12.

What is media?

13.

What impact does the changing technology have on media and the minds of people?

14.

What is a Balanced Report?

15.

What is political advertising ?

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13

DPP NO. 14 TOPIC : TOWNS, TRADERS AND CRAFTSPERSON’S 1.

Spices and cloth sold by Indian merchants in the Red sea ports ports were were purchased by (A) Roman traders. (B) British traders. (C) Italian traders. (D) French traders.

2.

The ìdevadasisî ìdevadasisî perform their dances on the occasion of  (A) Mahanavmi. (B) Dashmi. (C) Saptami. (D) Panchami.

3.

The ancient capital of Vijayanagara is located in the (A) Govadri basin. (B) Kaveri basin. (C) (C) Kri Krishna-Tun Tungabhadra basin sin.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

(D) Tungabhadra basin sin.

The most important festival celebrated at Hampi was (A) Shivratri (C) Mahanavami

(B) Diwali (D) Holi

The city of Ahmedabad is located in (A) Gujarat. (C) Andhra Pradesh.

(B) Maharashtra. (D) Rajasthan.

Surat declined, due to the decline of the (A) Delhi Sultanate. (C) Portuguese.

(B) Gujarat kingdom. (D) Mughal Empire.

Murshidabad became the capital of Bengal in (A) 1701 (C) 1703

(B) 1702 (D) 1704

Which city is called the city of ruins ? (A) Hampi (C) Surat

(B) Vijay nagar   (D) Bangalore

Rulers built temples to demonstrate their  (A) religion (C) generosity

(B) devotion (D) wealth

Temple towns represented repres ented an early pattern of  (A) life

(B) religion

(C) urbanisation

(D) brahmanical ideas

11.

What kind of market did the small towns have?

12.

What was the role of a ‘Samanta’ or a ‘Zamindar’ ?

13.

What were were guilds ? Name two famous guilds?

14.

Who were Devdasis?

15.

Why did European traders come to India?

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14

DPP NO. 15 TOPIC : WATER 1.

2.

Tsunami are rare in the (A) Indian ocean. (B) Pacifi cific c ocean.

(C) Arctic ocean.

(D) Ant Antarctic ocean.

Tsunami sunam i is a (A) Hindi word.

(C) Japanese word.

(D) Sanskri krit word.

(B) French word.

3.

An advantage of high tide (A) It bring about warm temperature over land surface. (B) It raise the water level close to the shores. This helps the ships to arrive at the harbour more easily (C) It help in predicting weather conditions. (D) It helps in formation of islands

4.

What do you mean by water cycle? (A) Process of keeping house plants and growing them naturally (B) Process by which water continuously changes its form and circulates between the oceans, atmosphere and the land (C) Process in which a bi-cycle is used wherein the water is spread all over the place (D) Filtering of water 

5.

Why is the ocean water salty? (A) The ocean water contains large amount of dissolved salts (B) The ocean water contains all the industrial wastes which is salty (C) The ocean water contains salty animals (D) The ocean water contains salty plants

6.

The Indira Point is located (A) on Laguna Beach. (C) on Andaman man & Nicobar Islands.

(B) on Lakshwadeep Islands. (D) at Kerala.

7.

A tide is: (A) The rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean water twice in a day (B) The huge waves which can destroy the harbours (C) Rise and fall f all of ocean water alternatively (D) Flooding of coastal areas by rising water 

8.

What do the cold currents do? (A) They carry water from polar latitudes to tropical latitudes (B) They carry water from lower latitudes to higher latitudes (C) They help in fish breeding (D) They help in navigation

9.

Which of the following is a warm current? (A) Labrador ocean current (C) Oyashio current

(B) Gulf Stream ocean current (D) Peru currents

The chemical name for common salt is (A) Potassium Chloride (C) Sodium Chloride

(B) Calcium Chloride (D) Magnesium Chloride

10.

11.

Why the world water day is celebrated?

12.

What are the major movements of the ocean water?

13.

Why people people do not sink in the saline water?

14.

How do the high tides help in navigation?

15.

What is a water cycle?

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15

DPP NO. 16 TOPIC : TRIBES NOMADS AND SETTLED COMMUNITIES 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

Akbar was contemporary of Gakkar chief  (A) Sib Singh (C) Aman Das

(B) Kamal Khan (D) Salbahan

The meaning of ëbhuiyansí ëbhuiyansí is (A) tenants

(B) landlords

(C) nomads

(D) rulers

Cheros were finally subdued by (A) Akbar (C) Raja Ajit Singh

(B) Raja Man Singh (D) Aurangzeb

In 1662, Mughal forces attacked Ahoms kingdom under  (A) Prince Khurram (C) Madho Singh

(B) Aurangzeb (D) Mir Jumla

In the Mughal period, Cheros were defeated by (A) Raja Todar Mal

(B) Raja Man Singh

(C) Raja Ajeet Singh

(D) Prince Salim

The deliberations, deliberations, to determine determine the status of Rathakaras is given in the inscription recovered from (A) Uyyakondan Udaiyar (C) Uyyakondan Udaipur

(B) Uyyakondan Uraiyur   (D) Uyyakondan Jaipur  

The Chaurasi were subdivided into (A) garhs (C) subas

(B) barhots (D) maujas

8.

In the 13th and 14th century, century, khokkars were influential in the (A) Punjab region (B) Himachal region (C) Delhi region (D) Rajasthan region

9.

In Ahom society, society, khel was referred to as (A) caste. (C) clan

(B) land (D) God

10.

Banjaras were used to carry grains to the city markets by (A) Sultan Alauddin Khalji (B) Sultan Muhammad Tughluq (C) Balban (D) Akbar  

11.

What is Shifting cultivation?

12.

Describe briefly the origin of Rajput.

13.

Give the characteristic features of Gond’s administrative system?

14.

Who were Adivasis?

15.

Write about the Banjara tribal communities.

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16

DPP NO. 17 TOPIC : GROWING UP AS BOYS AND GIRLS 1.

How the status of Women Wom en can be improved in the society ? (A) Through education (B) Financial Assistance (C) (C) Deny Denyin ing g them them soci social al reco recogn gnit itio ion n (D) (D) Prov Provid idin ing g them them limi limite ted d numb number er of job job oppo opport rtun unit itie ies s

2.

What are the steps taken by the women for their empowerment? (A) Campaigning (B) Raising awareness (C) Protesting (D) All of these

3.

Being a boy or a girl is an important part of one's (A) identity. (B) culture. (C) gift. (D) right.

4.

Choose the correct statement: (A) Societies do not make clear distinction between boys and girls (B) Boys enjoy more priviledges than girls (C) Men and women do enjoy the same status (D) Boys are more intelligent than girls

5.

Anganwadi caters to children in the age group of  (A) 0-6. (B) 1-6. (C) 0-5. (D) 1-5.

6.

The physical works that women in rural areas do are (A) washing clothes, cleaning and lifting up loads. (B) teaching and working in the office. (C) picking up children from school. (D) drive automobiles.

7.

The Samoan Islands are a part of a large group of small (A) province. (B) nation. (C) islands. (D) territory.

8.

In Samoan society, society, during 1920's children did not go to (A) temple. (B) fields. (C) church. (D) school.

9.

In 1920's, Samoan children used to learn many things from older children and (A) adults. (B) mothers. (C) teachers. (D) grand parents.

10.

On Samoan Islands, the most important activity was (A) agriculture. (B) hunting. (C) fishing. (D) food gathering.

11.

What is gender?

12.

What do you understanding by sexual inequality ?

13.

Give reasons, why boys are given more importance than girls in many societies? societies?

14.

Discuss any three major areas of discrimination discrimination against women in India.

15.

Write a note on gender inequalities found in economic fields.

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17

DPP NO. 18 TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILD LIFE 1.

The main trees that are found in tropical deciduous forest are (A) rose rosewo wood od,, ebon ebony y and and maho mahoga gany ny.. (C) (C) oak, oak, pine pine,, and and euca eucaly lypt ptus us.. (B) sal, teak, neem and shisham. (D) beech, ash and oak.

2.

Softwood trees are used for making (A) houses. (C) vehicles.

(B) furniture. (D) match boxes.

Tropical evergreen forests are also known as (A) trop ropical deciduous for forest. (C) tropical rain forest.

(B) tempe mperate evergreen forest. (D) temperate deciduous forest.

3.

4.

Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony and mahogany are found in (A) (A) tempe mperat rate evergr rgreen fore forest st.. (B) (B) trop tropic ical al deci decidu duou ous s fore forest st.. (C) tropical evergreen forest. (D) temperate deciduous forest.

5.

Mediterranean Vegetation Vegetation is found in: (A) Polar areas (B) Areas around the Mediterranean sea in Europe, Africa and Asia (C) Areas near the equator  (D) In the islands

6.

In which region do the shrubs and scrubs grow? (A) Region of heavy rain (B) Region of moderate rain (C) Region of less rain (D) Region of no rain

7.

Into how many categories is the natural vegetation generally classified? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4

(D) 5

8.

Why are Tropical Evergreen Forests called evergreen? (A) Because there is no particular dry season and the trees do not shed their leaves altogether  (B) The thick canopies of the closely spaced trees do not allow the sunlight to penetrate inside the forest even in the day time (C) Because the stems of all the trees are also green (D) Because the smaller plants remain green throughout the year 

9.

The Savannah grasslands of Africa are type of  (A) Tropical (B) Temperate

10.

(C) Mediterranean

In Brazil, Tropical Grasslands are locally known as (A) Savannah (B) Campos (C) Llanos

(D) Tundra

(D) Pampas

11.

Mention the two two factors on which which the growth growth of vegetation mostly depends?

12.

Name the two hardwood hardwood trees commonly commonly found in tropical tropical evergreen evergreen forests. forests. Ans. Rosewood, ebony, mahogany are common here.

13.

In which which part of the world, world, the tropical deciduous forests are found?

14.

What is meant by conservation?

15.

What do you mean by wildlife sanctuary?

Har dwo od tr ees lik e

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18

DPP NO. 19 TOPIC : DEVOTIONAL PATHS PATHS TO THE DIVINE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

By the word Mayaí, Shankara means (A) illusion. (C) a Goddess.

(B) devotion. (D) money.

The idea of bhakti was advocated in (A) Bhagavadgita. (C) Mahabharta.

(B) Ramayana. (D) Bible.

The Pulaiyar and the Panars were (A) brahmans. (C) untouchables.

(B) kshatriyas. (D) vaishyas.

Nayanars were devoted to (A) Buddha. (C) Vishnu.

(B) Shiva. (D) Durga.

The earliest example of Tamil Literature is (A) Sangam. (C) Prakrit.

(B) Pali. (D) Hindi.

6.

Bhakti saints of south drew upon the ideals of love and heroism as given in (A) Bhagvadgita. (B) Puranas. (C) Ramayana. (D) Sangam literature.

7.

Sakkubai Sakkuba i and Janeshwar belonged to (A) Bihar. (C) Delhi.

(B) Maharashtra. (D) Punjab.

8.

What did the saints of Maharashtra reject? (A) All forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth (B) The idea of renunciation (C) Living with fam ily earning their livelihood, while humbly serving fellow human beings in need (D) Both ëaí and ëbí

9.

Sufis were (A) Muslim mystics. (C) Spanish mystics.

(B) German mystics. (D) French mystics.

10.

The holy law developed by Muslim scholars is called (A) Hudud. (B) Shariat. (C) Hadis. (D) Fatwa.

11.

Why did people turn to Buddhism and Jainism during during this period?

12.

Who were the major deities worshipped by the people during the Common Common Era?

13.

Write about the emergence of new religious movements during during the seventh and ninth centuries.

14.

Explain Guru Nanak's Bhakti movement?

15.

Who was kabir and why did he bacome popular?

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19

DPP NO. 20 TOPIC : WOMEN CHANGE THE WORLD 1.

What was the provision of 2006 Law for women? (A) The law provided legal protection to women who face physical and mental violence within their homes (B) Every girl girl must be educated (C) Health facilities for women (D) Provision of early Marriage

2.

Name one of the means to spread awareness among women? (A) Campaigning (B) W riting Articles (C) Use of media (D) Joining hands with political parties

3.

What kind of stereotypes regarding women prevail in the society? (A) Women are capabl capable e of handl handling ing any job (B) Health Healthier ier than than men (C) Marriage is the not an ultimate aim of their life (D) Inability of women to handle to handle any job

4.

The language learnt by Ramabai on her own was (A) Pali. (B) Hindi. (C) Sanskrit.

(D) English.

5.

What is the objective objective of the Mission Mission set up by Ramabai at Khedgaon near Pune? (A) Discourage women not to be independent (B) To teach a variety of skills from carpentry to running a printing press (C) Encourage them to go for early marriage (D) Discouraged to pursue education

6.

What was was the prevalent belief regarding woman's educate in 1800? (A) If a woman was educated then she was titled as an untouchable (B) Education would bring bad luck to her husband, would lead to widowhood (C) Educated women would be a great help for the society (D) Education would enhance women's personaliy

7.

According to Rokeya Sakhawat, 'lady land' is a place where (A) women had the freedom to study, work and create inventions. (B) men had freedom to use guns. (C) women were not treated tr eated equally. equally. (D) freedom of women was curtailed.

8.

What was the dream that motivated Rashsundari to learn reading and writing? (A) She is reading the manuscript of Chaitanya Bhagabat (B) She is a lecturer of Kolkata University (C) She has been a scholar of Sanskrit (D) Writings of Valmiki

9.

The term Dalits refers to the people groped as the (A) Backwa kward Castes (BCs). (B) Other Backward Castes (OBCs). (C) Scheduled Castes (SCs). (D) Forward Castes (FCs).

10.

Name movement responsible for the women's upliftment? (A) Peasant's Movement (B) Men's Movement (C) W omen's Movement (D) Dalit's Movement

11.

Why was Rokeya prevented from learning English?

12.

How can the the gender wall in society be brought down?

13.

Discuss the contribution of Ramabai to women's education?

14.

Write a note on the efforts of Rashasundari Devi to educate herself.

15.

How does domestic violence affect society?

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20

DPP NO. 21 TOPIC : HUMAN ENVIRONMENT-SETTLEMENT, ENVIRONMENT-SETTLEMENT, TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION COMMUNICATION 1.

2.

Scattered settlement is mostly found in the (A) plains. (C) regions of extreme climat mate.

(B) coastal area. (D) along the river banks.

The highest roadways of the world is (A) Manali - Leh highway (C) Col de la Bonette Europe

(B) Golden Quadrilateral (D) Trail Ridge Road USA

3.

What is/are the characteristic(s) of houses in the regions that recieve heavy rainfall? (A) Houses have flat roof  (B) Houses are constructed on a raised platform or stilts (C) Houses are made of mud (D) Houses are very small

4.

The country with largest railway network in Asia is (A) Japan (B) China (C) India (D) Pakistan

5.

What is the word for the roads built underground? (A) overhead paths (B) Subways (C) Tunnels (D) Tracks

6.

The most commonly used means of transport is (A) roadways. (B) railways. (C) waterways. (D) airways.

7.

Temporary Settlement can be defined as the (A) Settlements Settlements which which are made out of mud (C) (C) Sett Settle lemen ments ts whic which h are are near near pond ponds s

8.

9.

(B) Settlements Settlements which which are occupied occupied for a short time (D) (D) Sett Settle lemen ments ts whic which h are are in urban urban area areas s

The Ganga - Brahmaputra river system, the Great Lakes in North America and the river Nile in Africa are the important . (A) Inland W aterways (B) Sea Routes (C) Under- Sea Railway Routes (D) Ports Satellite has helped us in (A) increasing foreign tourists. (C) weather weather forecastin forecasting g and and disaster disaster warning warning..

(B) bringing mor more rainfal fall. (D) checking checking populatio population n growth. growth.

10.

The place, where a building building or a settlement develops develops is called its (A) site. (B) position. (C) location. (D) spot.

11.

What do you understand by the term ësettlementí?

12.

What are rural settlements like?

13.

Name any four international airports in the world.

14.

What is the significance of sea routes?

15.

What are are the major advantages advantages of road transport?

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21

DPP NO. 22 TOPIC : THE MAKING OF THE REGIONAL CULTURES 1.

2.

3.

The author of Rasamanjari was (A) Bannabhatta. (C) Bhanudatta.

(B) Devadatta. (D) Kulukabhatta.

Kathak caste was traditionally worked as (A) dancers. (C) story tellers.

(B) drama players. (D) priests.

Lilatilakam deals with (A) grammar and poetics. (C) art and dance forms.

(B) nature and science. (D) plays and short stories.

4.

The Brahmanical authorities allowed the Brahmins of Bengal to eat (A) fish. (B) chicken. (C) mutton. (D) pork.

5.

The last Nawab of Awadh was (A) Saadat Khan. (C) Wajid Ali Shah.

(B) Ayam Ali Shah. (D) Birjis Qadir.

The term, Ras-lila was used to describe (A) dance forms. (C) folk plays.

(B) traditional paintings. (D) music form.

Jagannatha temple is located in the state of  (A) Orissa. (C) Bihar.

(B) Rajasthan. (D) Chhatisgarh.

6.

7.

8.

Since time immemorial, Bengali people are engaged in (A) trading. (B) fishing. (C) crafts. (D) weaving.

9.

The dance form popular in the state of Orissa is (A) Kathak. (C) Odissi.

10.

Match the following with the codes given below-: Column A  A. Bharatnatyam B. Kathakali C. Kuchipudi D. Manipuri (A) A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i) (C) A(i), B(iv), C(ii), D(iii)

(B) Kutchipuddi. (D) Bharatnatyam.

Column B (i) Manipur  Manipur  (ii) Tamil Nadu (iii) Andhra Pradesh (iv) Kerala (B) A(iii), B(i), C(ii), D(iv) (D) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i)

11.

Name the Mughal emperors who who patronised the miniature paintings.

12.

What was the Kangra School of painting?

13.

Define classical dances? Name some of the classical dances and their states?

14.

What is the literal meaning of Jagannatha?

15.

Why did all those who who conquer conquer Orissa attempted to gain control over the temple?

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22

DPP NO. 23 TOPIC : MARKETS AROUND US 1.

The Government of India buys grains from farmers at a (A) very low cost. (B) minimum support price. (C) profit price. (D) retailer price.

2.

A product reach us through a shopkeeper, behind him there is a big (A) factory. (B) weekly market. (C) money. (D) chain of markets.

3.

Mall is an enclosed (A) living area. (C) restaurant.

(B) shopping space. (D) cinema theatre.

Chain of markets mean (A) (A) a clus cluste terr of shop shoppi ping ng mall mall.. (C) smal mall retail shops.

(B) (B) seri series es of mark market ets s that that are are conn connec ecte ted d like like link links. s. (D) special market kets designed for challenged people.

The fast moving consumer good is (A) fridge. (C) newspaper.

(B) micro-oven. (D) dishwasher.

4.

5.

6.

Weekly markets, the neighbourhood market place and shopping mall are different types types of  (A) markets. (B) production unit. (C) cooperatives. (D) fair price shops.

7.

The famous wholesale market in the city of Delhi is (A) Azadpur. (B) India Gate. (C) Kalka. (D) Super market.

8.

An online shopping mall is called (A) facebook. (C) orkut.

(B) ebay. (D) twitter.

9.

What is the advantage of shops in neighbourhood? neighbourhood? (A) They are nearby to us and fulfill our daily needs (B) Goods on credit are available (C) Cheap rates (D) Variety of products

10.

What is the advantage of Chain Markets? (A) W hatever is produced in one place reaches the people everywhere. everywhere. (B) Only brand products are encouraged. (C) Chain markets are only in urban areas. (D) Non- availability of products to everyone.

11.

What are the benefits of a weekly market?

12.

What is a 'Shopping complex'?

13.

How are shops in the neighbourhood usefull.

14.

What is a 'putting out system'?

15.

What are weavers cooperatives?

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23

DPP NO. 24 TOPIC : HUMAN ENVIRONMENT INTERACTION- THE TROPICAL AND THE SUB-TROPICAL REGION 1.

Kaziranga National Park is located in the state of  (A) Assam. (B) Bihar. (C) Uttar Pradesh. (D) Kolkata.

2.

An important port on river Hooghly is (A) Mumbai.

(B) Kolkata.

(C) Goa.

(D) Chennai.

The one horned rhinoceros is found in the (A) Ganga plain. (C) coastal region.

(B) Brahmaputra plain. (D) Himalayas.

Varanasi Varanasi is located along the banks of river  (A) Yamuna. (C) Ganga.

(B) Godavari. (D) Brahamaputra.

Taj Mahal is located on the bank of river  (A) Ganga.

(B) Yamuna.

(C) Son.

(D) Chambal.

Some tributaries tributaries of river Ganga are (A) the the Ghag Ghaghra hra,, the the Son Son and and the the Kosi Kosi.. (C) the Tapi, the Mahanadi.

(B) (B) the the Kris Krishn hna, a, the the Kave Kaveri ri.. (D) the Luni and the Mahi.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

The Amazon basin is also referred to as the equatorial region because it (A) lies very clo close to the equator (B) ha thick flora

(C) has extreme reme climat mate (D) lies on the equator  

The bird found in the Amazon basin rainforest is (A) Ostrich

(B) Humming bird

(C) W eaver bird

(D) Peacock

In West Bengal and Assam the main cash crop that is grown is (A) coffee. (C) cocoa.

(B) maize. (D) tea.

10.

Number of persons living living in one one sq. km. of area is known as (A) population density. (B) population distribution. (C) population growth. (D) population explosion.

11.

What are the main crops of the Ganga ñ Brahmaputra plain? plain?

12.

Name the largest delta of the world?

13.

Describe the life of the people of Amazonian rain forest?

14.

The rain forests are depleting. Why ?

15.

What is slash and burn agriculture?

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24

DPP NO. 25 TOPIC : EIGHTEENTH - CENTURY POLITICAL FORMATIONS 1.

2.

Chauth was imposed by the (A) Deccan Sultans. (C) Sikhs.

(B) Nawabs. (D) Marathas.

Sikhs organised themselves into a number of bands called (A) Jathas. (B) Mathas. (C) Khalsa.

(D) Panth.

3.

The Sikhs of Punjab organized themselves into a political community in the (A) 17th century. (B) 16th century. (C) 15th century. (D) 14th century.

4.

The independent state of Jats was established by (A) Suraj Mal. (B) Churaman. (C) Jawahir Shah. (D) Rajaram.

5.

The group that was considered as the back bone of Maratha army was the (A) Kunbis. (B) Deshmukhs. (C) Pindaris.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

(D) Peshwa.

The leader of the Sikh revolt after 1708 AD was (A) Raja Ranjit Singh. (C) Banda Bahadur.

(B) Guru Govind Singh. (D) Raja Dilip Singh.

Marathas successfully raided Delhi in (A) 1721 AD. (C) 1731 AD.

(B) 1727 AD. (D) 1737 AD.

The Third battle of Panipat took place in (A) 1757. (C) 1761.

(B) 1758. (D) 1765.h

Jagat Seth was a banker in (A) Bharatpur. (C) Bengal.

(B) Gujrat. (D) Awadh.

The system of rakhi was introduced in (A) Awadh.

(B) Bengal.

(C) Punjab.

(D) Hyderabd.

11.

Who Wh o was the founder of Hyderabad?

12.

What were three prominent states that emerged after the decline of the Mughal empire?

13.

What were the reasons for the decline of Mughal Empire?

14.

Who was the founder of Awadh after the decline of the Mughal Empire?

15.

Who was the founder of the state of Bengal ?

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25

DPP NO. 26 TOPIC : STRUGGLES FOR EQUALITY 1.

The construction of the Tawa dam completed in the year  (A) 1978.

(B) 1976.

(C) 1967.

(D) 1963.

2.

The dam built on the Tawa river began began in 1958 and was completed in the year  year  (A) 1974. (B) 1975. (C) 1976. (D) 1978.

3.

Name the most important issue that affect economic and social equality in the country? (A) Dcreasing control of business houses on the media. (B) High value given to women and their work. (C) Low earnings made by small farmers who grow cotton. (D) Gender equality

4.

Universal Adult Franchise is a concept based on (A) moral right. (C) ethical values.

(B) political equality. (D) dirctive principles.

5.

Private contractors were given the rights rights for fishing in the Tawa reservoir in the year  year  (A) 1994. (B) 1993. (C) 1992. (D) 1991.

6.

Privatisation of health services had made it difficult for poor people to get good (A) doctors. (B) clinic. (C) medicine. (D) health care.

7.

Originating in the Mahadeo Hills of Chindwara Chindwara district, the Tawa flows through (A) Beetil. (B) Batal. (C) Beutl. (D) Betul.

8.

Lack of school facilities was the reason for drop out of girl students from the communities of  (A) Dalit, Adivasi and Muslim. (B) Hindus, Adivasi and Christian. (C) Jain, Buddha and Muslims. ms. (D) Dalit, Adi Adivasi and Hindus.

9.

What is/are is/are the reason(s) for existence of inequality in our country? (A) Poverty (B) Availability Availability of resources (C) Non discrimination on the basis of religion, caste and sex (D) Gender Equality

10.

The rights rights for fishing in 1994 were were given given by the government government to (A) forest dwellers. (C) private constructors.

(B) chindwara district residents. (D) rural women.

11.

What are some of the creative methods used by groups struggling for equality? equality?

12.

What role does the constitution constitution play in people's people's struggle for equality?

13.

What issue is the Tawa Matsya Sangh (TMS) fighting for?

14.

How can we we protect the rights of tribal people with regard to environment?

15.

Define Displacement.

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26

DPP NO. 27 TOPIC : LIFE IN THE TEMPERATE GRASSLANDS 1.

2.

The grassland that have mild climate is (A) Pampas. (C) Veld.

(B) Prairies. (D) Down.

The major crop of grasslands of Prairies is (A) wheat. (C) jute.

(B) maize. (D) paddy.

3.

Temperate grasslands of North America are known as (A) praries (B) pampas (C) velds (D) savvana

4.

Chinook is a

5.

(A) cool breeze. (C) type of Tsunami.

(B) hot wind. (D) type of a plant.

Velds means (A) tempera temperate te grassl grassland ands s of South South Africa. Africa. (C) grasslands of North Amer merica.

(B) tropic tropical al grassl grassland ands s of South South America America.. (D) gras rasslands of Asia.

6.

The coldest month experienced by people of Velds Velds is (A) June (B) July (C) August (D) September  

7.

Two of the most developed countries in the world are (A) USA and Canada. (B) Australia and France. (C) India and Pakistan.

(D) China and Japan.

8.

The most important occupation of the people living in the veld is (A) agriculture. (B) fishing. (C) sheep rearing. (D) None of these

9.

Chicago, Minneapolis, Indianapolis, Kansas and Denver are important cities of 

10.

(A) USA. (C) Australia.

(B) South Africa. (D) Canada.

Large cattle farms in Prairies is called (A) Ranches

(B) Bison

(C) Apache

(D) None of these

11.

What does the term 'Sea of Grassí denote?

12.

Who names the 'Velds'? 'Velds'?

13.

Which factors are responsible for the formation of grasslands in the world?

14.

What are the Prairies? Which two countries are covered by them?

15.

What factors make North North America the most industrialized region?

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27

DPP NO. 28 TOPIC : LIFE IN THE DESERTS 1.

2.

The worldís largest desert is situated in (A) Asia. (C) Australia.

(B) Africa. (D) South America.

The cold desert, Ladakh, is situated in (A) the Great Himalayas. (C) the Aravallis.

(B) the Andes. (D) the Alps.

3.

The height of Kargil situated in the Great Himalayas is (A) 5000m. (B) 3000m. (C) 4000m. (D) 1000m.

4.

The National Highway 1A connects Leh to Kashmir through (A) Rohtang pass. (B) Baralacha pass. (C) Lungalacha pass. (D) Zojila pass.

5.

Climate found in Sahara desert is (A) moderate. (C) rainy.

(B) extreme. (D) cloudy.

The worldís largest desert is (A) Kalahari desert. (C) Sahara desert.

(B) Gobi desert. (D) Thar desert.

6.

7.

8.

Animals like camels, hyenas, jackals, foxes, scorpions and many varieties of snakes and lizards are found in the (A) Sahara desert. (B) W estern Ghats of India. (C) Gobi desert. (D) Coastal areas of India. Al Azizia is located in the (A) Sahara desert. (C) Kalahari desert.

(B) Thar desert. (D) Gobi desert.

9.

The two groups of people living in the Sahara desert are (A) Bedouins and Tuaregs. (B) Apache and Crow. (C) Cree and Pawnee. (D) Crow and Cree.

10.

The Nile valley is located in (A) Egypt. (C) Libya.

11.

In which continent is the Sahara desert located?

12.

What mainly attracts people to Ladakh deserts?

13.

Describe the flora and fauna of Sahara deserts?

14.

Define Desert.

15.

Explain the geography of Ladakh ?

(B) Algeria. (D) Mauritania.

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28

 VIBRANT ACADEMY 

MENTAL ABILITY 

(India) Private Limited

CLASS VII 

DAILY DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES Direction (1 to 15) find the missing term. 1. 2. 3. 4.

5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

16, 19, 22, 25, ? (A) 27

(B) 28

(C) 29

(D) 25

67, 62, 57, ? , 47 (A) 52

(B) 53

(C) 54

(D) 50

4, 8, 16, ? , 64 (A) 30

(B) 33

(C) 32

(D) 35

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ? (A) 35

(B) 49

(C) 36

(D) 64

11, 15, 21, 29, ? (A) 38

(B) 35

(C) 37

(D) 39

2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ? (A) 25

(B) 14

(C) 16

(D) 17

1, 3, 5, 7, 7 , 9, 11, ? (A) 13

(B) 11

(C) 8

(D) 12

2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, ? (A) 10 (B) 14

(C) 16

(D) 20

4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, ? (A) 24

(B) 17

(C) 28

(D) 32

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ? (A) 81

(B) 49

(C) 36

(D) 28

(C) 5

(D) 14

1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96 96 (A) 4 (B) 32

(C) 64

(D) 96

2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41 (A) 6

(B) 17

(C) 23

(D) 32

3, 6, 10, 16, 21, 28 (A) 16

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 28

1, 9, 25, 50, 81 (A) 1

(B) 25

(C) 50

(D) 81

Direction (16 to 20) find the missing term. 11. 11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

2, 5, 7, 11, 14 (A) 7

(B) 11

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1

DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : ALPHABET ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING REPEATING SERIES Direction (1 to 5) f ind the missing term.  A, C, ?, G, I 1. (A) D (B) E 2.

3.

4.

5.

8.

(B) I

(C) J

(D) G

V, T, R, ?, N, ? (A) P, M

(B) O, L

(C) P, L

(D) O, M

CG, DI, ?, IP, MU (A) FM

(B) EL

(C) EM

(D) FL

(C) SQRP

(D) RSQP

(C) TQP

(D) YW U

(C) JHJ

(D) HIT

(B) JNM

(C) HPK

(D) LJO

(B) DEG

(C) FHI

(D) EFH

(C) FOU

(D) CNW

 AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, P QRS, ? (A) SRQP (B) SRPQ

DKY, DKY, FJW, HIT, HI T, JHS, LGQ (A) FJW (B) LGQ DVG, DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO (A) DVG

9.

CDF, DEG, DEG, EFH, EFH , FHI (A) CDF

10.

(D) H

Q, N, K, ?, E (A) H

Directions (6 to 10) Find the wrong term (s) : ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU 6. (A) ECA (B) JHF 7.

(C) F

ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS (A) ZLA

(B) BMY

Directions (11 to 15) 15) Which  Which sequence sequenc e of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other oth er will complete the given letter series ?  – bca – ca – c – b – 11. 11. (A) aabbc (B) abbbc (C) aabcc (D) abbac 12.

13.

14.

15.

a – abb – aa – ba – a – b (A) ababa (B) aabba

(C) aabab

(D) aaabb

abc – d – bc – d – b – cda (A) bacdc

(B) cdabc

(C) dacab

(D) dccbd

 – a a b b – a b b a – b (A) b a b

(B) a b a

(C) b b a

(D) b a a

a – b aa – b aa – b a (A) a a b

(B) b a b

(C) b b a

(D) b b b

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DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES Direction (1 to 15) find the missing term.

1. (A) 38

(B) 64

(C) 4

(D) 16

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 14

(A) 32

(B) 22

(C) 18

(D) 27

(A) 14

(B) 22

(C) 32

(D) 320

(A) 33

(B) 145

(C) 135

(D) 18

(A) 125

(B) 25

(C) 625

(D) 156

(A) 117

(B) 36

(C) 32

(D) 26

(A) 64

(B) 36

(C) 34

(D) 60

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

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9. (A) 64

(B) 81

(C) 100

(D) 125

(A) 262

(B) 274

(C) 320

(D) 132

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 40

(A) 48

(B) 9

(C) 44

(D) 64

(A) 184

(B) 210

(C) 241

(D) 425

10.

11. 11.

12.

13.

14.

4

7

3

2

416

749

309

?

(A) 304

(B) 104

(C) 204

(D) 404

(A) 120

(B) 100

(C) 125

(D) 64

15.

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DPP NO. 4 TOPIC : ALPHABET ALPHABET TEST 1.

 Arrange the given words words in the sequence in which which they occur in the dictionary dictionary and then choose the correct sequence. 1. Select 1. Select

2. Seldom 2. Seldom

(A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 2.

(B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3

(B) Segvan

5. Seller  5. Seller 

(C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

(D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

(C) Sajevar

(D) Sajewet

How many independent words can 'Stainless' 'Stainless' be divided into without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once ? (A) Nil

4.

4. Selfish 4. Selfish

In a telephone directory, which of the following names will appear in t he middle ? (A) Sajewat

3.

3. Send 3. Send

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

If the following words word s are arranged as found f ound in the dictionary, then what will be the fourth letter from fr om the left in the last word ? INTIMATION, INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION INSTIGATION (A) R

5.

1. SIGN

2.

SOLID

3. SCENE

4.

SIMPLE (B) 3, 1, 4, 2

(C) 3, 4, 1, 2

(D) 3, 4, 2, 1

(B) M

(C) O

(D) None of these

If the positions of the first and sixth sixt h letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged; similarly sim ilarly the positions of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from the right end after  rearrangement ? (A) C

8.

(D) I

W hich letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right ? (A) L

7.

(C) T

 Arrange the given words words in the order they occur in dictionary. dictionary.

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 6.

(B) O

(B) E

(C) F

(D) N

If the first and the fifth f ifth letters in the word ‘ORDINARY’ are interchanged, the second and the sixth, the third and the seventh and so on what will will be the fifth letter from the right end after rearrangem ent ? (A) R

9.

(C) Y

(D) N

If the first fi rst and second letters of o f the word ‘INORDINATE’ were were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letter, l etter, the fifth and sixth and so on, which letter would be eighth counting from right to l eft ? (A) A

10.

(B) I

(B) D

(C) N

(D) R

W hich letter will be the midway between between the fourteenth letter from the left end and nineteenth letter from the right end of the following alphabet?  A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (A) I

(B) K

(C) M

(D) G

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11. 11.

 Arrange the following following group such that when when arranged in a specific specific order, order, meaningful word is formed. V

A

H

Y

E

1

2

3

4

5

(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 12.

(B) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

(C) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4

(D) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

Find which one word can not be made from the letters of the given word. CORRESPONDING (A) DROPERS

13.

(B) SUPERIOR

(C) GRINDER

(D) DISCERN

Choose the one word which can be formed from the letters of the given word. RATIONALISATION (A) NATIONALISTIC

14.

(B) NATIONALIST

(C) SITUATION

(D) REALISATION

If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, the the city so formed is famous fam ous for  its : WILGARO (A) Locks

15.

(B) Steel Plant

(C) Temples

(D) Pottery

If the following scrambled letters are rearranged r earranged to form the name nam e of a city, which which letter will appear in the middle?  AIDMUR  AIDMURA A (A) M

(B) R

(C) U

(D) D

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DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : CODING-DECODING 1.

If in any code language, KUMAR is KUMAR is coded on LVNBS, LVNBS, How is EMOTIONAL coded EMOTIONAL coded in that language (A) FNQUJQBM

2.

(C) GNPUJPOBM

(D) GNQUJQOBM

In a code A is denoted by B, B by C, C by D, and so on till V then FRACTIONS is FRACTIONS is denoted in the same code by– (A) GSBDUJPOT

3.

(B) FNPUJPOBM

(B) GSBDVJPOT

(C) GSBDUJPQT

In a code BOY is BOY is written as $ ¶l and HOUR is HOUR is written as @

(D) GSBDUJOPT

£O than RUBY is RUBY is written in the indicating

language as – (A) O£$l 4.

(B) O$£l

(C) l$£O

(D) l£$O

In a code BOXER word BOXER word is written as AQWGQ then VISIT is VISIT is written as – (A) UKRKU (B) UKRKS (C) W KRKU

(D) W KRKS

5.

CONSTITUTION is written as SNOCUTITNOIT. SNOCUTITNOIT. How is DISTRIBUTION written DISTRIBUTION written in that In a certain code CONSTITUTION is code? (A) DI DISTRTUBTINO (B) TS TSIDUBIRNOIT (C) TS TSIDUIBRNOIT (D) DTTSRIBTINO

6.

VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written CHILDREN written in that code ? In a certain code language TEACHER is written written as as VGCEJGT. (A) EJKNFGTO

7.

(C) CDZTMFTR

(D) CFZSMFRT

(B) BBMBDQ

(C) DBODFS

(D) DZOBFQ

(B) MOBLIE

(C) MOIBLE

(D) MOBILE

If BOOK is BOOK is coded as 43, 43, what will be the code number for PEN ? PEN ? (A) 53

11. 11.

(B) EDZQMFRT

If RADIO is RADIO is written PYBGM then PYBGM then how would OQDKNG be OQDKNG be written in that code ? (A) MOBIEL

10.

(D) EJKNFTGP

NDSBIZOS, then CANCER is If MERCHANT is NDSBIZOS, (A) BZMBDQ

9.

(C) EJKNFHTP

If the code for ALLOWANCE is ZMKPVBMDD the ZMKPVBMDD the word DEARNESS would DEARNESS would be coded as (A) CFBAODTR

8.

(B) EJKNEGTP

(B) 33

(C) 35

(D) 43

RIPPLE  is written as 613382 and LIFE is LIFE is written as 8192. 8192. How is PILLER written in that In a certain code, RIPPLE is code ? (A) 318826

(B) 318816

(C) 618826

(D) 338816

12.

In a certain code DELHI is DELHI is written as 29874 CULCUTTA CULCUTTA is written as 35835661 then 35835661 then the word CALICUT will CALICUT will be coded as : (A) 3185463 (B) 3184635 (C) 3184563 (D) 3184356

13.

If watch is called room, room is called bag , bag  is  is called rain, rain is called air  and  and air  is  is called water , Which is used to carry the books.? (A) room

14.

(C) rain

(D) air  

If for Cloud is Cloud is said Rain for Rain for Rain is Rain is said Tree; Tree; for Tree is Tree is said Axe for Axe for Axe is Axe is said House and House and for House is House is Mason then from which of the following wood can be obtained ? said Mason then (A) Tree

15.

(B) bag

(B) Rain

(C) Axe

(D) House

If air  is  is called green, green , green is green is called blue, blue, blue is blue is called sky, sky, sky is sky is called yellow, yellow , yellow is called water  and water  is  is called pink then pink then what is the colour of clean sky ? sky ? (A) pink

(B) sky

(C) blue

(D) yellow

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DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST 1.

 Anil left left home and cycled cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right right and cycled 5 km & turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his home straight ? (A) 10 km

2.

(D) 7 km, W est

(B) North-west

(C) East

(D) North-east

(B) W est

(C) North

(D) South

(B) 14

(C) 21

(D) 23

(B) 8 kms.

(C) 6 kms.

(D) 5 kms.

(B) 6 kms.

(C) 7 kms.

(D) none of these

 Amit walks walks 2 km South, turned right right and walked 1 km, again turned north and walked 5 km; turned turned East and walked 5 km. How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 3 kms.

10.

(C) 7 km, East

 A man walks 9 km due East and then 12 km due South. How far is he from the starting point? (A) 15 kms.

9.

(B) 5 km, North-East

 Amar travels one one km due East ; then 5 km due south, then 2 km due East and finally 9 km due North. How far is from the starting point ? (A) 16 kms.

8.

(D) South-East

Mohan travels 7 km Eastwards, then he turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right again and travels 11 km. How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 5

7.

(C) North-W est

From his house, Rajan went 25 kms to the North. Then he turned West Wes t and covered 20 kms.Then he turned South and covered 15 Kms. Finally, turning to East, he covered 20 kms. In which direction was he from his house ? (A) East

6.

(B) South

I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. T hen I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I turn left and walk 10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which direction am I fr om the starting point? (A) North

5.

(D) 25 km

Kishen walks 10 km towards North. Form there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ? (A) 5 km, North

4.

(C) 20 km

 Amit faces towards to wards North.Turning to his right he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30 metres. Next, he moves m oves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally, Finally, he turns to the right and m oves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point ? (A) South-W est

3.

(B) 15 km

(B) 7 kms.

(C) 5 kms.

(D) 6 kms.

 A man was facing East. He took Three Thr ee paces forward, turned right, walked another two paces and then turned right again, took three paces and turned about. W hich direction was he last facing ? (A) East

(B) North

(C) South

(D) None of these

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11. 11.

If I stand on my head with my m y face pointing Northwards, in what direction will my right-hand point ? (A) East

12.

(B) W est

(C) North

(D) South

Kumar stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 metres and then turned Northwards and walked another 12 metres. How far was he then from the starting point ? (A) 12 metres

(B) 10 metres

(C) 9 metres

(D) 5 metres

13.

 A man walked walked 3 metres towards North, turned West and walked 2 metres then turned North and walked 1 metre and finally turned East and walked 5 metres. How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 5 m (B) 8 m (C) 10 m (D) 12 m

14.

I went 15 m to the North, then turned West and covered 10 m, then turned South, and covered 5 m then turned East and covered 10 m. In which direction am I now from my house ? (A) North

15.

(B) South

(C) East

(D) W est

'A' travelled Westwards Wes twards 5 km, turned left and travelled 3 km, turned right and travelled 9 km. He then travelled North 3 km. How far was 'A' from f rom the starting point now ? (A) 3 kms

(B) 5 km s

(C) 10 kms

(D) 14 kms

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DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : SEATING A ARRANGEMEN RRANGEMENT T & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST 1.

W ho among P, P, Q, R, S and T is in th the e exactly middle while standing in in a line ? (i) Q is to the im mediate right of T.

(ii) S is exactly between P and T.

(iii) Q is exactly between T and R. (A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) T

Directions : (2 to 4) Study the given information and answer the question that following. Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a Professor and the other is a Businessman. B usinessman. An Advocate Advocate is standing to the right of a student. A Author Author is to the immediate left of the Businessman. The Student is between the Professor an d the Advocate. 2.

Counting from the left the Author is at whichplace ? (A) First

3.

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

W hich of the following is in the exactly middle of the queue ? (A) Professor

4.

(B) Second

(B) Advocate

(C) Student

(D) Businessman

If Advocate and the Businessman exchange exchan ge their positions, also the Author and the Student, then who will be standing to the left of the student ? (A) Author

5.

(B) Businessm an

(C) Professor

(D) Advocate

Five persons were playing cards game sitting in a circle all facing the centre. Mukund was to the immediate left of Rajesh, Vijay was to the right of Anil and between Anil and Nagesh. Who was to the imm ediate right of Nagesh ? (A) Vijay

(B) Rajesh

(C) Anil

(D) Mukund

following information and answer the questions questions that follow : Directions : (6 to 8) Read 8) Read the following (i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. (ii) E is to the immediate left of D. (iii) C is exactly between A and B. (iv) F is between E and A. 6.

W ho is to the immediate left of B ? (A) A

7.

(D) E

(B) B

(C) D

(D) E

W hich of the above given statements is superfluous ? (A) (i)

9.

(C) D

W ho is to the immediate right of C ? (A) A

8.

(B) C

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) All are required.

How many 5's are 5's are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately preceded by 7 ? 8953253855687 335775365335738 (A) One

10.

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four  

In the following f ollowing number series how many 8’s are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which which are preceded and followed by it ? 824517284842282698454832843183 (A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

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11. 11.

How many W's are f ollowing series which are immediately followed by W but not immediately W's are there in the following preceded by K ? DWWDHKVDWZDWWWDDWKWWDKKDHC (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) None

12.

How many L’s L’s are there which do not have R preceding them and have T following them ? ZQSTLRMNQNRTUVXRLTASLTQRSLT (A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 5

Directions Directions : (13 to 15) 15) Study  Study the following following arrangement of symbols, letters and numbers to answer the questions q uestions given below it :  d = b F 2 § K S 7 5 # $ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 - Q G Ó 9 3 & T Y j 13.

How many such letters are there in the arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately imm ediately followed by a number, but not both ? (A) Three

14.

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) None of these

How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed followed by a consonant but not imm ediately preceded by a symbol ? (A) Nil

15.

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

 A is is shorter than B but much taller taller than E. C is the tallest tallest and D is shorter than A and taller than E. Which one is the shortest ? (A) A

(B) E

(C) B

(D) D

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DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : MATHEM MATHEMA ATICAL OPERATIONS 1.

If 'x' means '÷' , '–' means 'x', '÷' means ' +' and '+' means '–' then what will will be the value of  (3 – 15 ÷ 19 ) × 8 + 6 = ? (A) 8

2.

(B) 4

(C) 2

(D) –1

If 'A' means '+', 'B' means '–' , 'C' means 'x', then what will be be the value of ( 10C 4) A (4C4) B6=? (A) 60

(B) 56

(C) 50

(D) 46

ar e as given below : Directions : (3 to 4) Solve 4) Solve the questions if the symbols are x= – += ¸ ¸  = ×  – = + *= ¸ 3.

4.

5.

6.

8 2+2–7=? (A) 15

(B) 16

(C) 17

(D) 19

9 + 3¸3 – 8 * 2 = ? (A) 27

(B) 17

(C) 13

(D) 26

If ‘+’ means ‘ ¸ ’ ; ‘–’ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ m eans ‘–’, ‘ ¸ ’means ‘+’ then – 16 ¸  8 – 4 + 2 × 4 = ? (A) 16 (B) 44 (C) 28 If

(D) 32

means +, – means ¸ ,× means – and + means ×, then

32 ´ 8  8 ´ 2  = ? 4 + 18 ´ 8 + 9 ¸ 1 (A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 12

(D) None of these

7.

If ‘P’ means ‘+’ ; ‘R’ means me ans ‘x’ ; ‘S’ means ‘–’ ; T‘ m eans ‘ ¸ ’ then what is the value of  5 R 9 P 7 S 9 T 3 P 6=? (A) 54 (B) 128 (C) 59 (D) 55

8.

If a means ‘plus’, b means ‘minus’, c means ‘multiplied by’ and d means ‘divided by’ then 16c 12 b 6d 2a 17 = ? (A) 65

9.

(B) 55

(C) 216

(D) 206

If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘ ×’ means ‘—’, ‘ ¸ ’ means ‘+’ and ‘—’ means ‘ ¸ ’, then 175 – 25 ¸  5 + 20 × 3 + 10 = ? (A) 160

10.

(B) 77

(C) 2370

(D) 240

If + is x,– is +, x is ¸ and ¸ is –, then what what is the value of given equation 21 ÷ 8 + 2 – 12 × 3 = ? (A) 14

11. 11.

(B) 9

(C) 13.5

(D) 11

If – means ¸, + means ×, ÷ m eans –,× means +, then which of the following equations is correct? (A) 52 ¸ 4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36

(B) 43 × 7 ¸ 5 + 4 – 8 = 25

(C) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5 ¸ 3=  3= 420

(D) 36 – 12 × 6 ¸ 3 + 3= 60

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12

12.

If + means ×, × means –, – means ÷ and ÷ means + then 18 ÷ 4 + 3 × 2 – 2 = ? (A) 45

(B) 48

(C) 29

(D) 39

Directions : (13 to 15) Answer the questions questi ons on the basis of the information given below. If ‘$’ represents ‘+’, ‘ ’ represents ‘–’, ‘#’ represents ‘×’ and ‘@’ represents ‘/’ then answer the following questions based on the above given representation. 13.

14.

15.

What is the value of 4 # 3 $ 10 @ 5 $ 8 # 2 , 18 ? (A) 10 (B) 12

(C) 6.8

W hich of the following has the value equivalent equivalent of 5 $ 6 # 2 $ 8 @ 4 ? (A) 4 # 7 , 12  12 $ 2 # 1 (B) 8 # 2 , 3 $ 6 @ 3 (C) 8 @ 2 , 3 $ 6 # 3

(D) 11.2

(D) 4 $ 7 , 12 $ 2 # 1

W hich of the given values is greater than 7 $ 3 , 2 $ 12 @ 4 ? (A) 4 # 3 $ 6 @ 3 , 4 (C) 6 # 3 , 18  18 @ 2 $ 1 # 2

(B) 5 # 2 , 8 @ 4 $ 3 # 3 , 7 (D) 9 @ 3 $ 6 # 2 , 2 # 1

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13

DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : ANALOGY ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION CLASSIFICATION Direction : (1 to 4) In the following questions, questions, choose the words that show the same relationship relationship as given in the each questions.  in the same way as Leader  is  is related to 1. Captain is related to Soldier  in (A) Follower (B) Party (C) Vote (D) Chair   2.

‘Dog’ is related to ‘Puppy’ in the same way as ‘Donkey’ is related to (A) Foal (B) Colt (C) Calf (D) Filly

3.

Bank is related to 'Money' in 'Money' in the same way as 'Transport' is 'Transport'  is related (A) Goods (B) Road (C) Terrace

(D) Floor  

sam e way as 'Roof' is related to: 'Good' is related to 'Bad' in 'Bad' in the same (A) W all (B) Pillar (C) Terrace

(D) Floor  

India Gate : Delhi : : _______ : _______  (A) (A) Chicago : USA (B) (B) Albany : Ne New Yo York

(C) Agra : Taj Mahal

(D) Chandig digarh : Rock Garden

PUNJAB : AMRITSAR : : _____ : ______  (A) Golden Temple : Amritsar (C) India : Asia

(B) Moscow : Russia (D) Agra : Taj Mahal

7584 : 4251 : : 4673 : ? (A)1367 (B) 1340

(C)1531

(D) None of these

1236 : 6321 : : 8251 : ? (A) 1358 (B) 1628

(C) 1528

(D) 8152

4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

Directions  :

9.

(9 to 15) In the following questions, three out of the four alternatives are same in a certain way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong be long to the group. (A) Huge (B) Tiny (C) Heavy (D) Sm all

10.

(A) Silk

(B) Cotton

(C) Nylon

(D) W ool

11. 11.

(A) Triangle

(B) Tangent

(C) Square

(D) Rhombus

12.

(A) W ool

(B) Nylon

(C) Jute

(D) Cotton

13.

(A) July

(B) May

(C) June

(D) March

14.

(A) Gold

(B) Silver

(C) Bronze

(D) Zinc

15.

(A) Society

(B) Family

(C) Church

(D) Club

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14

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER WATER IMAGES & M ISCELLANEOUS 1.

W hat is the number of straight lines in the following figure ?

(A) 11 2.

(B) 7

(B) 14

(C) 8

(D) 9

(C) 16

(D) 15

Count the number of triangles triangles and squares in in the following following figure ?

(A) 28 triangles, 10 squares (C) 32 triangles, 10 squares 5.

(D) 17

How many squares are there in the following figure ?

(A) 13 4.

(C) 16

W hat is the number of rectangles in the following figure ?

(A) 6 3.

(B) 14

(B) 28 triangles, 8 squares (D) 32 triangles, 8 squares

Count the number of squares in the following figure ?

(A) 16

(B) 17

(C) 30

(D) 55

Directions : (6 to 7) In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image from alternatives A, B, C, and D of the figure (X).

6.

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15

7.

Directions : (8 to 10) In each of the following question, a figure marked (X) is followed by four figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) which show the possible water images of figure (X). Choose one out of these four  figures which shows the correct water image of the figure (X).

8. (X)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9. (X) (A)

10. (X)

(A)

Directions : (11 (11 to 12) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the question figure (X) is embedded.

11. 11.

12.

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16

Directions : Select a figure from the four alternatives, which which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would

complete the pattern.

13.

14.

15.

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17

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY

CLASS – VII (CBSE)

INDEX PHYSICS

–

1-2

CHEMISTRY

–

3

BIOLOGY

–

4

MATHEMATICS

–

5-8

SOCIAL SCIENCE

–

9 - 10

ENGLISH

–

11 - 14

MENTAL ABILITY

–

15 - 16

 VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited

PHYSICS 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

DPP - 01 TOPIC : MEASURE M EASUREMENT MENT 1.

C

2.

 A

3.

D

4.

D

5.

C

6.

 A

7.

B

8.

C

9.

D

10.

D

11.

D

12.

B

14.

B

15.

(i) 10 –2 (ii) 5 × 10 –9 (iii) 30.5 × 107 (iv) 28

5.

D

6.

C

7.

C

B

6.

 A

7.

D

15.

500 m

C

6.

C

7.

B

12.

5s

13.

1,200 s

DPP - 02 TOPIC : HEAT 1.

D

2.

C

3.

D

8.

D

9.

 A

10.

B

4.

C

DPP - 03 TOPIC : MOTION AND TIME 1.

 A

2.

D

3.

 A

4.

 A

5.

8.

 A

9.

C

10.

B

14.

19.44 m/s

DPP - 04 TOPIC : MOTION AND TIME 1.

D

2.

D

3.

B

4.

B

8.

B

9.

B

10.

C

11.

45 m/s

14.

60 km/hr 

15.

5 kgwt, 5 × 10 3 gwt , 50 N , 5 × 10 6 dyne

5.

DPP - 05 TOPIC : ELECTRICAL CURRENT AND ITS EFFECT 1.

B

2.

D

3.

D

8.

B

9.

 A

10.

D

4.

B

5.

 A

6.

B

7.

C

5.

 A

6.

 A

7.

B

5.

D

6.

B

7.

C

DPP - 06 TOPIC : LIGHT 1.

B

2.

D

3.

D

8.

 A

9.

D

10.

C

4.

 A

DPP - 07 TOPIC : SOUND 1.

B

2.

 A

3.

C

8.

D

9.

B,D

10.

B

4.

B

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1

DPP - 08 TOPIC : UNIVERSE 1.

D

2.

C

3.

C

8.

D

9.

D

10.

C

4.

C

5.

 A

6.

B

7.

C

5.

 A

6.

C

7.

C

 A

6.

C

7.

C

6.

 A

7.

C

DPP NO. 09 TOPIC : LIGHT 1.

 A

2.

D

3.

B

8.

 A

9.

B

10.

B

4.

D

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : MISCELLANEOUS 1.

B

2.

B

3.

B

8.

 A

9.

C

10.

C

4.

C

5.

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : WIND, STORMS AND CYCLONES 1.

 A

2.

B

3.

 A

8.

D

9.

C

10.

B

4.

 A

5.

D

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2

CHEMISTRY 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

GENERAL CHEMISTRY DPP NO. 01 TOPIC : LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY 1. 8.

C  A

2. 9.

D D

3. 10.

B B

4.

B

5.

C

6.

 A

7.

D

 A

6.

 A

7.

C

B

6.

D

7.

 A

 A

6.

C

7.

 A

 A

6.

D

7.

 A

C

6.

C

7.

D

B

7.

B

6.

 A

7.

C

6.

C

7.

D

DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1. 8.

C B

2. 9.

B D

3. 10.

D D

4.

 A

5.

DPP NO. 03 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1. 8.

C D

2. 9.

C B

3. 10.

D C

4.

B

5.

DPP NO. 04 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1. 8.

 A D

2. 9.

D C

3. 10.

 A C

4.

 A

5.

DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS 1. 8.

B D

2. 9.

C  A

3. 10.

B  A

4.

 A

5.

DPP NO. 06 TOPIC : FIBRE TO FABRIC 1. 8.

C B

2. 9.

 A B

3. 10.

B C

4.

C

5.

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES DPP NO. 07 TOPIC : HOW T HINGS REACT REACT WITH ONE ANOTHER 1. 8.

B D

2. 9.

B D

3. 10.

B C

4.

C

5.

B

6.

DPP NO. 08 TOPIC : HOW T HINGS REACT REACT WITH ONE ANOTHER 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

 A

8.

 A

9.

 A

10.

D

4.

C

5.

 A

WATER & WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT DPP NO. 09 TOPIC : WASTEWATER WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT 1. 8.

 A  A

2. 9.

D C

3. 10.

C D

4.

 A

5.

B

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3

BIOLOGY 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

DPP - 01 TOPIC : NUTRITION IN PLANTS 1.

D

2.

C

3.

D

8.

C

9.

C

10.

D

4.

C

5.

B

6.

D

7.

B

D

6.

C

7.

B

DPP - 02 TOPIC : NUTRITION IN ANIMALS 1.

B

2.

C

8.

 A

9.

 A

3.

B

10.

D

4.

C

5.

DPP - 03 TOPIC : WEA W EATHER THER CLIMATE AND ADAPTA ADAPTATIONS 1.

C

2.

B

3.

B

8.

D

9.

 A

10.

C

4.

C

5.

D

6.

D

7.

B

5.

C

6.

C

7.

C

 A

6.

 A

7.

 A

6.

C

7.

D

B

6.

C

7.

D

D

6.

B

7.

C

DPP - 04 TOPIC : SOIL 1.

D

2.

C

3.

C

8.

C

9.

D

10.

B

4.

C

DPP - 05 TOPIC : RESPIRATION 1.

B

2.

B

3.

D

8.

 A

9.

D

10.

B

4.

 A

5.

DPP - 06 TOPIC : TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS 1.

B

2.

D

3.

B

8.

C

9.

 A

10.

C

4.

B

5.

C

DPP - 07 TOPIC : REPRODUCTION IN PLANT 1.

B

2.

D

3.

C

8.

B

9.

 A

10.

C

4.

D

5.

DPP - 08 TOPIC : OUR FOREST 1.

C

2.

D

3.

C

8.

C

9.

B

10.

D

4.

 A

5.

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. " Ltd.  "A-14(A) A-14(A)"" Ro Road No No.1, IP IPIA, Ko Kota (R (Raj.) Ph Ph. 07 0744-2425408 (e (edge.vibrantacademy.com)

4

MATHEMATICS 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : INTEGERS 1.

C

2.

C

3.

C

4.

B

5.

B

6.

D

8.

D

9.

B

10.

B

11.

(i) 10

(ii) –1

(iii) 34

(iv) 109

12.

(i) (i) 99, 99, 10, 10, 5, 5, 0, 0, –1, –1, – 3, – 100 100

13.

(i) Commutativ Commutative e (ii) Associative

14.

(i) 0

(ii) 10

(iii) – 10

(iv) – 750

(v) 0

(vi) 42

(vii) – 24

(viii) – 1

(ix) – 5

(x) – 2

(xi) 301

(xii) 75

(xiii) 1

(xiv) 5

(xv) 0

7.

D

(ii) (ii) 89, 89, 70, 70, 54, 54, 0, 0, – 3, 3, – 99

DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : FRACTIONS AND DECIMALS 1.

 A

2.

B

3.

C

4.

8.

C

9.

C

10.

D

11.

13.

(i) (i) (a) (a) Rs. Rs. 3.3 3.35 5

(b) (b) Rs. Rs. 8.05 8.05

 A

53 33

5.

B

12.

2.68

6.

 A

7.

B

6.

B

7.

 A

12.

 –1 (i) 6

(ii)

6.

B

7.

(v) a +

1 a  = 25 4

(ii) (ii) 2.34 2.34,, 2.34 2.3400 005, 5, 2.34 2.341 15, 2.34 2.3450 50

(iii) 45mm = 4.5 cm = 0.045 m = 4.5 × 10 –5 km 14.

(i) 0.027

(ii) 0.333

(iii) 30.1

(iv) 2730

(v) 0.003

DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : RATIONAL NUMBER 1.

D

2.

8.

D

9.

14.

a = 16, b = 35

D

3.

D

4. 11.

C

10.

D

15.

(i) – 1

(ii) –

D 7

5

5. ,

4

5

,

C

1 2 3 , , 20 15 5

11 18

40 49 DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLE 1.

 A

2.

B

3.

B

8.

C

9.

 A

10.

B

11.

(i) x + y = 5

(ii) 5a = 60

12.

(i) m = 4

(ii) p =

13.

24

14.

(iii) 2x + 5y = 99

40 3

37, 39

4.

(iii) x = 15.

7 3

D

5.

B

(iv) x = y + 99

(iv) x = 0

(v) t =

3

D

4 5

(vi) t = – 13

price of chair Rs. 325 & price of table Rs. 400

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5

DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES 1.

B

2.

B

3.

 A

4.

C

8.

B

9.

C

10.

C

11.

(i) 25º, 65º

13.

x=2

14.

(i) COE & EOA ; EOA &  AOD,

 AOD

5.

C

6.

B

7.

B

(ii) 61º, 119º

12.

(178 – 4x)º

B

6.

C

7.

D

12.

x = 30º

C

7.

 A

B

7.

 A

D

7.

 A

15.

4x + 1

C

7.

& DOB

(ii) BOC & COA ; COA &  AOD (iii)  AOC & DOB ;  AOD & BOC DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : TRIANGLES 1.

D

2.

B

3.

D

4.

B

8.

 A

9.

C

10.

D

11.

x = 70º

13.

(a) ye yes (b) no

(e) no

(f) no

14.

(c) ye yes (d) no

5. 10 m

DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : CONGRUENCY OF TRIANGLES 1.

B

2.

B

3.

B

4.

B

8.

B

9.

C

10.

 A

12.

SSS, 40º

15.

(i) (i) yes (ii (ii) yes

5.

C

6.

14.

yes

DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : EXPONENTS 1.

B

2.

D

3.

C

4.

B

5.

B

9.

C

10.

13.

(i) x = 7

(ii) x = 6

15.

(i) 253125

(ii) 192x5

 A

11. 14.

(iii) 5

625

6. 14

81

8.

 A

12.

5   4

4 × 103 + 9 × 102 + 6 × 101 + 3 × 100

(iv) 1

(v) 2

(vi) 81

DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSIONS 1.

D

2.

C

3.

B

8.

C

9.

D

10.

D

11.

(i) trinomial

12.

(ii) monomial

4.

(iii) binomial

 – 4.5 x5 + 5x4 + 0.2 x2 – 7.3x – 5.7

13.

 A

5.

B

6.

(iv) monomial 9

14.

11xy2

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : RATIO AND PROPORTION 1.

D

2.

C

3.

B

8.

B

9.

C

10.

 A

11.

(i) 1 : 3

(ii) 69 : 12

(iii) 12 : 15

(iv) 13 : 20

12.

(i) 7 : 20

(ii) 7 : 3

(iii) 1 : 2 : 3

(iv) 4 : 3 : 2

13.

(i) x =

(ii) x = 10

14.

7 2

4.

B

5.

8 years, 12 years

 A

6.

C

(v) 1 : 20

15.

(i) and (ii)

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6

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : PERCENTAGE 1.

C

2.

 A

3.

 A

4.

 A

5.

B

6.

B

7.

8.

C

9.

B

10.

B

11.

200 200

12.

7100

13.

6 months

14.

C.P. of rice = Rs. 350 & C.P. of wheat = Rs. 275 , Loss = Rs. 9

15.

Rs. 1200

D

DPP NO. 12 TOPIC : PROFIT,LOSS AND DISCOUNT 1.

C

2.

C

3.

B

4.

B

5.

 A

8.

B

9.

C

10.

 A

11.

 A

12.

11%

13.

(i)

112 pages

16.

33.33%

140 % 3

(ii)

160 % 3

14.

6.

C

7.

B

17.

74.75 kg

B

7.

 A

DPP NO. 13 TOPIC : SIMPLE INTREST 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

D

4.

C

5.

8.

D

9.

D

10.

B

11.

Rs. 109.50

13.

15 years

14.

16%

15.

Rs. 8000

 A

6.

12.

Rs.13500

DPP NO. 14 TOPIC : STATISTICS-I 1.

D

2.

D

3.

B

8.

C

9.

B

10.

B

11.

(i) 9

(ii) 5

12.

p = 47

15.

(i) production of rice and wheat in different states (ii) U.P.

(iii) W.B.

4.

 A

14.

p = 20

(iv) U.P.

5.

 A

6.

 A

7.

 A

C

6.

D

7.

C

(ii) 27

(iii) 40.9

C

6.

(V) Maharashtra DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : STATISTICS-II 1.

C

2.

B

3.

 A

4.

B

8.

 A

9.

C

10.

B

11.

(i) 49 and 22

12.

(i) 44.5

13.

28

15.

(ii) 23

5.

(iv) 4

x=6

DPP NO. 16 TOPIC : PROBABILITY 1.

C

2.

B

3.

C

4.

8.

B

9.

B

10.

B

11.

13.

(i)

14.

(i)

15.

(i)

C

5.

B

7.

B

49

1 15

(ii)

9 20

1 2

14 15 6

(ii)

(ii)

100

20

1 5

3

(iii)

1 2

(iv)

(iii)

3 10

(iv)

20

4 5

4

(v)

(v)

5

4 5

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. " Ltd.  "A-14(A) A-14(A)"" Ro Road No No.1, IP IPIA, Ko Kota (R (Raj.) Ph Ph. 07 0744-2425408 (e (edge.vibrantacademy.com)

7

DPP NO. 17 TOPIC : MENSURATION 1.

C

2.

 A

3.

B

4.

C

8.

B

9.

D

10.

58 m

11.

51.2 m

13.

3.92 cm

14.

Rs. 528 528 15. 750 750 cm2

5.

B

6.

 A

7.

12.

32.25 m, 1040.0625 m 2

C

DPP NO. 18 TOPIC : SYMMETRY AND VISUALISING VISUALISING SOLID SHAPES 1.

C

2.

C

3.

B

4.

 A

8.

B

9.

C

10.

D

11.

60º

13.

(i) c

(ii) a

(iii) d

(iv) b

14.

(i) infinite

(ii) 4

(iii) 2 (iv) 3

(v)1

(vi) 2

15.

(i) 2D

(iii) 2D (iv) 3D (v) 2D

(ii) 3D

(vi) 3D

16.

5.

 A

(vii) 2

(viii) 8

6.

 A

7.

 A

20

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8

SOCIAL SCIENCE 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

DPP NO. 01 TOPIC : TRACING CHANGES THROUGH A THOSAND YEARS 1. 8.

 A D

2. 9.

 A B

3. 10.

D B

4.

B

5.

B

6.

C

7.

D

D

6.

C

7.

 A

A

6.

A

7.

A

 A

6.

B

7.

C

C

6.

 A

7.

 A

D

6.

B

7.

 A

DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : NEW KINGS AND KINGDOMS 1. 8.

D  A

2. 9.

B  A

3. 10.

 A B

4.

 A

5.

DPP NO. 03 TOPIC : ON EQUALITY 1. 8.

A A

2. 9.

B C

3. 10.

A A

4.

C

5.

DPP NO. 04 TOPIC : ENVIRONMENT 1.

D

2.

C

3.

 A

8.

C

9.

B

10.

 A

4.

B

5.

DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : INSIDE OUR EARTH 1. 8.

B  A

2. 9.

 A  A

3. 10.

 A B

4.

D

5.

DPP NO. 06 TOPIC : THE DELHI SULTANS 1. 8.

D  A

2. 9.

 A D

3. 10.

B D

4.

C

5.

DPP NO. 07 TOPIC : HOW THE STA STATE GOVERNMENT WORKS WORK S 1. 8.

B  A

2. 9.

B  A

 

3. 10.

C C

4.

 A

5.

 A

6.

B

7.

D

C

6.

 A

7.

 A

 A

6.

D

7.

 A

DPP NO. 08 TOPIC OUR CHANGING EARTH 1.

B

2.

 A

3.

 A

8.

B

9.

 A

10.

C

4.

C

5.

DPP NO. 09 TOPIC : THME T HME MUGHAL EMPIRE 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

C

8.

B

9.

C

10.

C

4.

 A

5.

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9

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : STATE GOVERNMENT AND ITS ROLE IN HEALTH 1. 8.

 A D

2. 9.

D D

3. 10.

B  A

4.

 A

5.

 A

6.

 A

7.

D

5.

 A

6.

B

7.

 A

6.

 A

7.

B

6.

 A

7.

 A

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : AIR 1.

D

2.

B

3.

 A

8.

 A

9.

B

10.

B

4.

D

DPP NO. 12 TOPIC : RULERS AND BUILDINGS 1.

C

2.

D

3.

B

8.

D

9.

 A

10.

 A

4.

 A

5.

B

DPP NO. 13 TOPIC : MEDIA AND ADVERTISEMENT 1. 8.

D B

2. 9.

C  A

3. 10.

B B

4.

B

5.

 A

DPP NO. 14 TOPIC : TOWNS, TRADERS AND CRAFTSPERSON’S 1. 8.

C  A

2. 9.

 A D

3. 10.

C C

4.

C

5.

 A

6.

C

7.

C

5.

 A

6.

C

7.

 A

6.

 A

7.

B

6.

 A

7.

C

6.

C

7.

B

6.

 A

7.

B

DPP NO. 15 TOPIC : WATER 1. 8.

 A  A

2. 9.

C B

3. 10.

B C

4.

B

\

DPP NO. 16 TOPIC : TRIBES NOMADS AND SETTLED COMMUNITIES 1. 8.

B  A

2. 9.

B C

3. 10.

D  A

4.

D

5.

B

DPP NO. 17 TOPIC : GROWING UP AS BOYS AND GIRLS 1. 8.

 A D

2. 9.

D  A

3. 10.

 A C

4.

B

5.

 A

DPP NO. 18 TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILD LIFE 1. 8.

B  A

2. 9.

D  A

3. 10.

C  A

4.

C

5.

B

DPP NO. 19 TOPIC : DEVOTIONAL PATHS TO THE DIVINE 1. 8.

 A D

2. 9.

 A  A

3. 10.

C B

4.

B

5.

 A

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10

ENGLISH 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

C

4.

C

5.

D

6.

B

7.

C

8.

C

9.

C

10.

 A

11.

 A

12.

B

13.

 A

14.

D

15.

 A DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : SENTENCES

1.

D

2.

D

3.

C

4.

D

5.

C

6.

C

7.

B

8.

 A

9.

 A

10.

 A

11.

 A

12.

C

13.

 A

14.

C

15.

D

16.

D

17.

C

18.

C

19.

B

20.

 A

DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : NOUNS 1.

C

2.

 A

3.

 A

4.

D

5.

B

6.

D

7.

D

8.

 A

9.

D

10.

B

11.

C

12.

 A

13.

 A

14.

 A

15.

C

16.

B

17.

 A

18.

B

19.

C

20.

C

DPP NO. 4 TOPIC : PRONOUNS 1.

 A

2.

 A

3.

C

4.

 A

5.

C

6.

D

7.

 A

8.

D

9.

D

10.

 A

11.

D

12.

 A

13.

C

14.

D

15.

C

16.

B

17.

C

18.

C

19.

B

20.

C

DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : ADJECTIVES 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

B

4.

C

5.

C

6.

D

7.

B

8.

 A

9.

 A

10.

B

11.

B

12.

 A

13.

B

14.

 A

15.

B

16.

B

17.

B

18.

C

19.

 A

20.

B

DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : DEGREE OF COMPARISION 1.

better 

2.

the fastest

3.

healthier 

4.

better 

5.

more

6.

the heaviest

7.

bigger 

8.

more comfortable

9.

the most untidy 10.

worse

11.

the longest

12.

more difficult

13.

the coldest

14.

hotter 

15.

prettiest

16.

most popular 

17.

taller, younger 

18.

the richest

19.

poorest

20.

better 

DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : VERBS 1.

B

2.

C

3.

C

4.

B

5.

 A

6.

D

7.

B

8.

D

9.

 A

10.

D

11.

 A

12.

D

13.

C

14.

 A

15.

C

16.

 A

17.

B

18.

D

19.

C

20.

 A

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11

DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : ADVERBS 1.

 A

2.

B

3.

C

4.

 A

5.

 A

6.

D

7.

D

8.

 A

9.

B

10.

C

11.

B

12.

 A

13.

 A

14.

C

15.

B

16.

C

17.

B

18.

C

19.

B

20.

C

DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

D

4.

 A

5.

 A

6.

 A

7.

C

8.

B

9.

 A

10.

D

11.

B

12.

C

13.

C

14.

D

15.

D

16.

C

17.

C

18.

 A

19.

B

20.

D

DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : DETERMINERS 1.

D

2.

D

3.

B

4.

C

5.

D

6.

 A

7.

 A

8.

B

9.

C

10.

D

11.

D

12.

B

13.

 A

14.

C

15.

C

16.

D

17.

D

18.

B

19.

 A

20.

D

DPP NO. 11 TOPIC : CONJUNCTIONS 1.

 A

2.

 A

3.

D

4.

C

5.

 A

6.

D

7.

B

8.

D

9.

D

10.

C

11.

D

12.

D

13.

C

14.

D

15.

B

16.

D

17.

C

18.

D

19.

C

20.

 A

6.

B

7.

D

DPP NO. 12 TOPIC : ACTIVE & PASSIVE VOICE 1.

 A

2.

B

3.

C

4.

 A

8.

B

9.

B

10.

B

1.

Food has been taken.

2.

You are asked ask ed to stand up.

3.

You are requested to have a seat.

4.

Let the door be opened.

5.

It is liked.

6.

Slogans are being shouted.

7.

 A mouse was was killed.

8.

Her grandpa’s death was being mourned.

10.

Let it be done by John.

9.

You are ordered to shut up.

5.

C

DPP NO. 13 TOPIC : DIRECT INDIRECT SPEECH 1.

B

2.

B

3.

B

4.

C

5.

C

6.

C

7.

C

8.

C

9.

D

10.

 A

11.

 A

12.

B

13.

D

14.

C

15.

D

16.

D

17.

B

18.

B

19.

C

20.

C

DPP NO. 14 TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD 1.

 A

2.

 A

3.

C

4.

 A

5.

C

6.

B

7.

B

8.

B

9.

C

10.

 A

11.

D

12.

D

13.

 A

14.

 A

15.

D

16.

 A

17.

B

18.

D

19.

 A

20.

 A

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12

DPP NO. 15 TOPIC : MODALS 1.

 A

2.

 A

3.

 A

4.

 A

5.

B

6.

B

7.

C

8.

D

9.

 A

10.

 A

11.

B

12.

D

13.

D

14.

D

15.

B

16.

D

17.

 A

18.

B

19.

B

20.

C

DPP NO. 16 TOPIC : PUNCTUATIONS 1.

D

2.

B

3.

B

4.

D

5.

B

6.

B

7.

B

8.

B

9.

C

10.

B

11.

C

12.

B

13.

 A

14.

B

15.

 A

16.

 A

17.

B

18.

 A

19.

B

20.

C

DPP NO. 17 TOPIC : ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION 1.

C

2.

D

3.

B

4.

B

5.

B

6.

B

7.

 A

8.

C

9.

B

10.

 A

11.

D

12.

 A

13.

D

14.

 A

15.

D

16.

 A

17.

B

18.

C

19.

 A

20.

C

DPP NO. 18 TOPIC : IDIOMS 1.

C

2.

B

3.

B

4.

D

5.

 A

6.

B

7.

B

8.

B

9.

B

10.

C

11.

D

12.

C

13.

B

14.

E

15.

 A

16.

C

17.

 A

18.

 A

DPP NO. 19 TOPIC : PHRASAL PHRASAL VERBS 1.

C

2.

 A

3.

 A

4.

D

5.

B

6.

 A

7.

 A

8.

B

9.

 A

10.

B

11.

 A

12.

C

13.

B

14.

C

15.

C

16.

C

17.

 A

18.

 A

19.

B

20.

B

DPP NO. 20 TOPIC : PROVERBS 1.

 A

2.

 A

3.

B

4.

D

5.

C

6.

D

7.

C

8.

C

9.

 A

10.

D

11.

 A

12.

B

13.

D

14.

 A

15.

C

16.

B

17.

C

18.

 A

19.

C

20.

B

DPP NO. 21 TOPIC : SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS 1.

 A

2.

C

3.

B

4.

 A

5.

D

6.

 A

7.

B

8.

 A

9.

C

10.

C

11.

 A

12.

C

13.

B

14.

D

15.

D

16.

B

17.

C

18.

C

19.

 A

20.

C

DPP NO. 22 TOPIC : JUMBLED WORDS 1.

The internet is accessed on televisions.

2.

We can carry laptop easily.

3.

It is important to eat breakfast.

4.

Education is about learning and teaching.

5.

Columbus discovered America.

6.

The room was being cleaned by Sharda.

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13

7.

The naughty boy broke the window pane.

8.

The battle was fought by soldiers.

9.

Who wrote Mahabharata? Mahabharata?

10.

The sweepers sweep the floor. f loor.

11.

It is caused by differences in air temperature.

12.

Warm air weighs less than cold air and so, it rises.

13.

Then , cooler air rushes in to take its place underneath, creating winds.

14.

The village is free from din and noise of the city. city.

15.

 Atmosphere there is open and crowd crowd free. DPP NO. 23 TOPIC : GAP FILLING

1.

(a) as

(b) whenever

(c) into

(d) either

(e) for

(f) could

(g) no

(h) that

2.

(a) about

(b) of

(c) in

(d) where

(e) anyone

(f) should

3.

(a) of

(b) was

(c) on

(d) most

(e) would

(f) under  

4.

(a) the

(b) and

( c ) in

(d) been

(e) after

(f) were

DPP NO. 24 TOPIC : OMISSION + ERROR SPOTING Omission 1.

2.

(a) all of

(b) have some tea

(c) Being the eldest

(d) wasn't enough milk

(e) very little butter

(f) prepare some tea

(g) enjoyed the tea

(h) wasn't any tea

(a) (a) Mac Macbe beth th did did not not

(b) (b) wit witc ches hes ha had pro promi mise sed d (c) (c) had had be been prov proved ed

(d) (d) mi mind beg began to

(e) It was only

(f) ambition started

(g) mind began to

(h) king was a

(a) in – at

(b) hiding – hidden

(c) tree – trees

(d) from – of  

(e) were – was

(f) be – being

(g) they – we

(h) which – whose

(a) for – but

(b) in– to

(c) a – the

(d) on – of  

(e) a – an

(j) over – out

(g) for – of

(h) with – to

Error Spoting 1.

2.

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14

MENTAL ABILITY 

 VIBRANT ACADEMY  (India) Private Limited

CLASS VII - CBSE 

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

ANSWER KEY

DPP NO. 1 TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES 1.

(B)

2.

(A)

3.

(C) (C)

4.

(C) (C)

5.

(D) (D)

6.

(D) (D)

7.

(A)

8.

(C) (C)

9.

(C) (C)

10.

(C) (C)

11.

(A)

12.

(D) (D)

13.

(C) (C)

14.

(A)

15.

(C) (C) DPP NO. 2 TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES

1.

(B)

2.

(A)

3.

(C) (C)

4.

(D) (D)

5.

(A)

6.

(C) (C)

7.

(D) (D)

8.

(B)

9.

(C) (C)

10.

(D) (D)

11.

(D) (D)

12.

(C) (C)

13.

(C) (C)

14.

(D) (D)

15.

(D) (D) DPP NO. 3 TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

1.

(C) (C)

2.

(C) (C)

3.

(B)

4.

(C) (C)

5.

(C) (C)

6.

(C) (C)

7.

(B)

8.

(A)

9.

(B)

10.

(A)

11.

(B)

12.

(C) (C)

13.

(A)

14.

(C) (C)

15.

(C) (C) DPP NO. 4 TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1.

(C) (C)

2.

(D) (D)

3.

(C) (C)

4.

(D) (D)

5.

(B)

6.

(D) (D)

7.

(D) (D)

8.

(C) (C)

9.

(D) (D)

10.

(B)

11.

(C) (C)

12.

(B)

13.

(B)

14.

(C) (C)

15.

(C) (C) DPP NO. 5 TOPIC : CODING-DECODING CODING-DECODING

1.

(B)

2.

(A)

3.

(A)

4.

(B)

5.

(B)

6.

(D) (D)

7.

(D) (D)

8.

(D) (D)

9.

(D) (D)

10.

(C) (C)

11.

(A)

12.

(D) (D)

13.

(C) (C)

14.

(C) (C)

15.

(B) DPP NO. 6 TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1.

(B)

2.

(D) (D)

3.

(B)

4.

(D) (D)

5.

(C) (C)

6.

(A)

7.

(D) (D)

8.

(A)

9.

(C) (C)

10.

(A)

11.

(B)

12.

(C) (C)

13.

(A)

14.

(A)

15.

(D) (D) DPP NO. 7 TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1.

(D) (D)

2.

(D) (D)

3.

(B)

4.

(B)

5.

(D) (D)

3.

(C) (C)

7.

(A)

8.

(D) (D)

9.

(C) (C)

10.

(D) (D)

11.

(C) (C)

12.

(C) (C)

13.

(D) (D)

14.

(B)

15.

(B)

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15

DPP NO. 8 TOPIC : MATHEMATICA MATHEMATICAL L OPERA O PERATIONS TIONS 1.

(C)

2.

(C) (C)

3.

(A)

4.

(C) (C)

5.

(C) (C)

6.

(B)

7.

(D) (D)

8.

(D) (D)

9.

(B)

10.

(B)

11.

(B)

12.

(C) (C)

13.

(B)

14.

(C) (C)

15.

(D) (D) DPP NO. 9 TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION

1.

(A)

2.

(A)

3.

(A)

4.

(D) (D)

5.

(B)

6.

(D) (D)

7.

(B)

8.

(C) (C)

9.

(C) (C)

10.

(C) (C)

11.

(B)

12.

(B)

13.

(C) (C)

14.

(C) (C)

15.

(C) (C) DPP NO. 10 TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1.

(B)

2.

(D) (D)

3.

(D) (D)

4.

(C) (C)

5.

(C) (C)

6.

(D) (D)

7.

(C) (C)

8.

(C) (C)

9.

(C) (C)

10.

(B)

11.

(B)

12.

(C) (C)

13.

(D) (D)

14.

(C) (C)

15.

(D) (D)

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