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JEE Main & Advamced | AIPMT | BOARDS | OLYMPIAD | NTSE

FOUNDATION COURSE For Classes 8, 9 & 10 Class 8

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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Changes in the Mode and Pattern in SOF Level 2 Exams for year 2014- 2015 Exam Date : 7th and 8th February 2015. Kindly coordinate with your school coordinator for exact date and center for exam. Write to [email protected] for any query related to it. Mode of exam : NCO/ NSO/ IMO Level 2 for the academic year 2014-15 will be an Online Test Pattern of the exams : National Cyber Olympiad Class 3 to 4

5 to 12

Section

No. of Questions Marks per Question

Computers & IT Achievers Section Grand Total Computers & IT Achievers Section Grand Total

30 5 35 45 5 50

1 2 1 3

Total Marks 30 10 40 45 15 60

NATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD Class 3 to 4

5 to 10

11 and 12

Section

No. of Questions Marks per Question

Science Achievers Section Grand Total Science Achievers Section Grand Total Physics & Chemistry Achievers Section Mathematics/Biology Grand Total

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1 2 1 3 1 3 1

Total Marks 30 10 40 45 15 60 25 15 20 60

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5 to 12

Section Mathematics Achievers Section Grand Total Mathematics Achievers Section Grand Total

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1 2 1 3

Total Marks 30 10 40 45 15 60

14th

LEVEL - 2 Year 2011-12

2 

| 14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 

MENTAL ABILITY  1. 

Two numbers are chosen  from 1 to 5. The probability for the two numbers to be consecutive is ____.  (A) 

2. 

1  5 

(C)  3 

(D)  3/4 

(B)  –2/3 

(C)  2/3 

(D) 

(C)  1 

(D)  2 

37  3 

(B) 

2 

(B)  4x B 3s 

(C)  4x C 3s 

(D)  4x D 3s 

(B)  Nineteenth 

(C)  Eighteenth 

(D)  None of these 

(B)  40 years 

(C)  30 years 

(D)  35 years 

In a certain code language, '3a, 2b, 7c' means 'truth is eternal'; '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'enmity is not  eternal'  and  '9a,  4d,  2b,  8c'  means  'truth  does  not  perish'.  Which  of  the  following  means  'enmity'  in that  language?  (A)  3a 

9. 

(B)  2 

The present age of a father is equal to the sum of ages of his 5 children. Eight years hence the sum  of the ages of his children will be six years less than twice the age of their father. Find the present  age  of  the  father.  (A)  45 years 

8. 

4  5 

Mohit  correctly  remembers  that  his  father's  birthday  is  not  after  eighteenth  of  April.  His  sister  correctly  remembers that  their father's  birthday is  before twentieth  but  after  seventeenth  of April.  On  which  day  in April  was  their  father's  birthday  ?  (A)  Seventeenth 

7. 

(D) 

If A stands for  'not equal  to', B  stands for 'greater than', C stands  for 'not  less than', D stands  for  'equal  to',  E  stands  for  'not  greater  than',  F  stands  for  'less  than',  then  according  to  the  given  premises  (4x  F  5y)  and  (5y  E  3s),  which  of  the  following  inferences  is  correct?  (A)  4x A 3s 

6. 

1 10 

If  sinq +  sin 2q =  1,  cos 2q +  cos 4q =  (A)  0 

5. 

(C) 

One  of  the  roots  of  x(3x 2  –  19)  =  2(x 2  –  11)  is  in  the  form a + b c  .  Find  the  value  of  a.  (A)  1 

4. 

2  5 

What  should  be  added  to  5cos 2 45°  +  4(sin 4 60°  +  cos 4 30°)  –  3(tan 2 60°  –  tan 2 45°)  to  get  3 ?  (A)  –3/4 

3. 

(B) 

(B)  7c 

(C)  8b 

(D)  9a 

20  years  ago, when my parents got married, their average age was 23 years. Now  the average  age  of  my  family  consisting  of  myself  and  my  parents  is  34  years.  What  is  my  present  age?  (A)  12 years 

(B)  16 years 

(C)  36 years 

(D)  6 years 

10.  If the numbers from 5 to 85 which are exactly divisible by 5 are arranged in descending order, which  would  come  at  the  eleventh  place  from  the  bottom?  (A)  55 

(B)  45 

(C)  50 

(D)  60 

11.  The  digits  of  a  positive  integer,  having  three  digits  are  in  A.P.  and  their  sum  is  15.  The  number  obtained  by  reversing  the  digits  is  594  less  than  the  original  number.  Find  the  number.  (A)  582 

(B)  852 

(C)  258 

(D)  825

3 

14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 | 

12.  A  conical  vessel  of  radius  6  cm  and  height  8  cm  is  filled  with  water. A  sphere  is lowered into the water  and its size is such that when it touches the sides of  the conical vessel, it is just immersed. How much water will remain in the cone  after  the  overflow? 

8 cm 

6 cm 

(A)  182.89 cm 3  (B)  113.14 cm 3  (C)  188.57 cm 3  (D)  None of these 

13.  PQRS  is  a  straight  line.  R  is  the  midpoint  of  QS  and  Q  is  the  midpoint  of  PS.  S  is  (6,  5)  and  R  is  (3,  5).  Find  the  coordinates  of  P.  (A)  (0, 5) 

(B)  (–6, 5) 

(C)  (–3, 4) 

(D)  (–5, 6) 

14.  The minimum number of colours  required  to paint all the  sides  of a cube  so that  no two adjacent  faces  may  have  the  same  colours,  is  ____.  (A)  1 

(B)  2 

(C)  3 

(D)  6 

15.  A  plane  is  observed  to  be  approaching  the  airport.  It  is  at  a  distance  of  12  km  from  the  point  of  observation and makes an angle of elevation of 60°. Find its height above the ground in kilometres.  (A)  10.392 km 

(B)  11.398 km 

(C)  14.893 km 

(D)  12.613 km 

SCIENCE  16.  Which  of  the  following  graphs  correctly  represents  the  variation  of  acceleration  due  to  gravity(g)  with  distance  (d)  from  the  centre  of  the  earth? 

(A) 

g 

(B)  d 

g 

g 

(C)  d 

(D) 

g  d 

d 

17.  Read  the  following  statements  and  mark  the  correct  option.  Statement 1 : The possibility of an electric bulb fusing is higher at the time of switching on and off.  Statement  2  :  Inductive  effect  produces  a  surge  at  the  time  of  switch­off  and  switch  on.  (A)  Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.  (B)  Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.  (C)  Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. 

(D)  Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 

DIRECTION (Q.Nos. 18 & 19) : A potential difference of 12 V is causing electrons to flow through a wire  so  that  20  ×  10 20  electrons  pass  a  point  in  the  wire  in  1  minute.  18.  The  charge  which  passes  the  point  in  1  minute,  if  the  charge  of  each  electron  is  1.6  ×  10 –19  C.  (A)  16 C 

(B)  320 C 

(C)  40 C 

(D)  42 C 

(C)  0.48 A 

(D)  5.3 A 

19.  The  electric  current  in  the  wire  is  ____.  (A)  0.35 A 

(B)  0.43 A 

20.  In  the  given  smooth  curved  road,  if  a  particle  is  released  from  A  then  _____.  (A)  Kinetic energy at B must be mgh  (B)  Kinetic energy at B may be zero  (C)  Kinetic energy at B must be less than mgh  (D)  None of these

m  A 

h  B 

4 

| 14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 

2 and 3 are the three positions where the image of object may be seen. 

X 

object 

21.  The  figure  shows  an  object  placed  in  front  of  a  plane  mirror  XY.  1, 

1  2 

P 

Observer  P  is  able  to  see  the  image  at  2.  Where  does  the  observer  Q 

Q  see  the  image  of  the  object?  (A)  1 

(B)  2 

(C)  3 

Y 

3 

(D)  1 and 3 

22.  A bullet of mass m moving with a velocity v, strikes a wooden block of mass M and gets embedded  in  the  block  which  was  initially  at  rest.  The  final  speed  of  the  system  is  ____.  (A) 

M  v  m+M

(B) 

æ m  ö (C)  çè m + M ø÷ v 

m  v  M +m

æ M + m ö ÷ v  (D)  ç è M ø

23.  A man who wears glasses of power 3 D must hold a newspaper at least 25 cm away to see the print  clearly.  If he  took off the glasses and still wanted clear vision then at what  distance he must hold  the newspaper?  (A)  1 m 

(B)  2 m 

(C)  3 m 

(D)  4 m 

24.  Many  houses  have  an  electricity  meter  that  is  read  so  that  the  cost  of  the  electricity  used  by  the  customer  may  be  calculated.  What  does  the  electricity  meter  record?  (A)  Charge 

(B)  Current 

(C)  Energy 

(D)  Power 

25.  ABCD  is  a  square  loop  made  of  a  uniform  conducting  wire.  The  current  enters  the  loop  at  A  and  leaves  at  B.  The  magnetic  field  is  _____. 

D 

C 

A 

B 

(A)  Zero only at the centre of the loop  (B)  Maximum at the centre of the loop  (C)  Zero at all points outside the loop  (D)  Zero at all points inside the loop 

26.  Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not  ultimately  derived  from  the  Sun's  energy?  (A)  Geothermal energy 

(B)  Wind energy 

(C)  Nuclear energy 

(D)  Biomass 

27.  Match  column  I  with  column  II  and  select  the  correct  option  from  the  codes  given  below.  Column I 

Column II 

® 2Fe  +  3CO 2  (a)  Fe 2O    3  +  3CO ¾¾ D

(i) 

Displacement reaction 

(b)  ZnCO 3 ¾¾® ZnO  +  CO 2  light (c)  H 2O    2   (aq)  ¾¾¾® H 2  +  O 2 

(ii)  Redox reaction 

¾¾® 2NaOH  +  H 2  (d)  2Na  +  2H 2O  

(iv)  Photochemical reaction 

(iii)  Thermal decomposition 

(A)  (a) ­ (i), (b) ­ (iii), (c) ­ (iv), (d) ­ (ii) 

(B)  (a) ­ (ii), (b) ­ (iv), (c) ­ (iii), (d) ­ (i) 

(C)  (a) ­ (iii), (b) ­ (iv), (c) ­ (i), (d) ­ (ii) 

(D)  (a) ­ (ii), (b) ­ (iii), (c) ­ (iv), (d) ­ (i) 

28.  A few elements  in the order of decreasing reactivity are : K > Ca > Mg > Fe >  H > Sb > Au. Identify  the incorrect  statement.  (A)  Au is the weakest reducing agent. 

(B)  K is the strongest oxidising agent. 

(C)  The oxide of tin can be reduced with hydrogen.  (D)  Ca displaces hydrogen from water more easily than Fe.

5 

14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 |  Waste gases  Slaked lime  Rotating shaft  with blades 

29.  The given figure shows the  plant for the formation of  an  important compound  X. Identify  X.  (A)  Washing soda  (B)  Common salt 

Chlorine 

(C)  Baking powder 

X 

(D)  Bleaching powder  30.  Which  of  the  following  is(are)  true  when  HCl  (g)  is  passed  through  water?  I. 

It  does  not  ionise  in  the  solution  as  it  is  a  covalent  compound. 

II. 

It  ionises in  the  solution. 

III.  It  gives  both  hydrogen  and hydroxyl  ion  in  the  solution.  IV.  It  forms  hydronium  ion  in  the  solution  due  to  the  combination  of  hydrogen  ion  with  water  molecule.  (A)  I only 

(B)  III only 

(C)  II and IV 

(D)  III and IV 

31.  Naresh  took  three  test  tubes  labelled  as  X,  Y  and  Z.  Then he placed two iron nails in each of the test tube  and added 10 mL of cold water to test tube X, 10 mL 

Air  Layer of oil 

Air 

boiled water to test tube Y. Then he added 1 mL vegetable  oil to test tube Y and poured 2 g of anhydrous CaCl 2  to  test  tube Z.  He  allowed  all  the  three test  tubes  to 

Boiled water  Iron  nails 

Unboiled  water 

stand for few days. After a few days he did not observe 

Anhydrous  CaCl 2 

X 

Y 

Z 

corrosion in  (A)  Only Y 

(B)  Y and Z 

(C)  X and Y 

(D)  X, Y and Z 

32.  Read  the  following  statements  and  select  the  correct  option.  Statement  1  :  Aluminium can  be extracted  from anhydrous  aluminium  chloride.  Statement  2  :  AlCl 3  is  a  covalent  compound.  (A)  Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.  (B)  Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.  (C)  Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. 

(D)  Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true. 

33.  Two compounds X and Y have same molecular formula, C 6H    1 2 . Compound X is saturated while Y is  unsaturated. What  are the names of  the  compounds X  and Y? What  type of  reactions  compounds  X  and Y  are  expected  to  undergo  respectively?  (A)  Hexane, Hexene; Addition, Substitution 

(B)  Hexene, Hexane; Addition, Substitution 

(C)  Cyclohexane, Hexene; Addition, Substitution 

(D)  Cyclohexane, Hexene; Substitution, Addition 

34.  Identify  Q  and  S.  (A)  Q = Chloroethene, S = Ester  (B)  Q = Chloroethene, S = Ethanoic acid  (C)  Q = Chloroethane, S = Ester  (D)  Q = Chloroethane, S = Ethanoic acid

C2H6 + Cl 2 

sunlight 

Q  aq. KOH 

C2H5 OH 

[O]  K 2 Cr 2 O 7 

R 

C2H5 OH 

S 

6 

| 14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 

35.  The element carbon occurs in 3 allotropic forms X, Y and Z. X is formed of hexagonal arrays placed  in layers one above the other, while Y has a rigid three­dimensional structure. Z has carbon atoms  arranged  in  football  shape.  Identify  X, Y  and  Z.  (A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 

X  Graphite  Fullerene  Coke  Graphite 

Y  Coke  Coke  Graphite  Diamond 

Z  Diamond  Graphite  Fullerene  Fullerene  Periodic properties 

36.  Observe the map carefully. Identify  P,  Q,  R  and  S.  P  (A)  Group 

Q  Period 

increases 

R 

S 

Period 

Group 

P 

decreases  Ionisation potential  increases  decreases 

(B)  Group 

Period 

Group 

decreases 

Atomic size 

Electron affinity 

Q 

increases 

Period  decreases  Electronegativity,  increases  non­metallic nature 

(C)  Period 

Group 

Group 

Period  R 

(D)  Period 

Group 

Period 

Group 

increases 

Electropositivity/  decreases  Metallic nature 

S 

decreases  Oxidising property  increases 

37.  X  and  Y  are  two  elements  having  similar  properties  which  obey  Newland’s  law  of  octaves.  The  minimum  and  the  maximum  number  of  elements  in  between  X  and  Y  respectively  are  (A)  6 and 8 

(B)  6 and 13 

(C)  7 and 15 

(D)  8 and 14 

38.  Two groups of students are given  5 g of iron  filings and   3 g of sulphur  powder each.  Group X  is  asked to mix and crush the mixture. Group Y is asked to mix, crush and heat the mixture strongly.  The resulting molten mass is then left to cool. Both the groups were asked to separate the components  by  using  magnet.  Which  group  will  be  able  to  do  so?  (A)  Group X 

(B)  Group Y 

(C)  Both X and Y 

(D)  Neither X nor Y 

39.  Refer  the  given  graph  and  answer  the  following  question.  (i)  The population of tiger decreases because there were more deaths than  births.  (ii)  The population of tiger decreases because there were more births than  deaths.  (iii)  The  population  of  tiger  decreases  because  the  population  of  deers  increases.  (iv)  The population of tiger decreases because of a deadly disease, infecting the deer population.  Which of the given statements is/are correct ?  (A)  (i) only 

(B)  (i) & (iv) 

(C)  (ii) & (iii) 

40.  In the given food web an insecticide is sprayed to kill  the  caterpillars.  In  which  organisms  will  the  highest  level of insecticide accumulate after a period of time ?  (A)  Foxes  Rabbits  (B)  Hawks  (C)  Mice  (D)  Sparrows

(D)  (i), (iii) & (iv)  Hawks 

Foxes 

Sparrows 

Mice 

Goldfinches 

Grains 

Hogweed 

Aphids 

China rose  plants 

Caterpillars 

Mulberry  trees 

7 

14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 | 

41.  Match  Column  I  with  Column  II  and  select  the  correct  option  from  the  codes  given  below.  Column I  Column II  (a)  Growth  of  pollen  tube  towards  embryo  sac  (i)  Thigmonasty  (b)  Opening of  flower  (ii)  Siesmonasty  (c)  Turgor movement  (iii)  Epinasty  (d)  Bending  of  tentacles  of  Drosera  over  the  insect  (iv)  Chemotropism  (A)  a­(i), b­(ii), c­(iii), d­(iv) 

(B)  a­(iv), b­(iii), c­(ii), d­(i) 

(C)  a­(ii), b­(iii), c­(i), d­(iv) 

(D)  a­(iii), b­(iv), c­(ii), d­(i) 

42.  The given diagram shows a section through the human heart. What happens when blood is pumped  to  the  lungs  ?  3  2  4  Valve  Vessel through which blood  1  action  passes to the lungs  (A)  b closes 

3 

(B)  b opens 

4 

(C)  a closes 

2 

(D)  a opens 

1 

a 

b 

43.  Match  Column  I  with  Column  II  and  select  the  correct  option  from  the  codes  given  below.  Column I  Column II  (a)  Condom  (i)  Stops ovulation  (b)  Diaphragm  (ii)  Prevents implantation  (c)  IUD  (iii)  Collects semen during ejaculation  (d)  Oral contraceptive  (iv)  Stops  eggs  from  reaching  the  uterus  (e)  Tubectomy  (v)  Prevents  sperms  from  entering  the  uterus  (A)  a­(v), b­(iii), c­(ii), d­(i), e­(iv) 

(B)  a­(iii), b­(v), c­(ii), d­(i), e­(iv) 

(C)  a­(iii), b­(v), c­(ii), d­(iv), e­(i) 

(D)  a­(iii), b­(ii), c­(v), d­(i), e­(iv)  Funiculus 

44.  Which  of  the  following  parts  in  the  given  figure  are  labelled  incorrectly  ?  (A)  Synergids, funiculus & antipodal cells  (B)  Synergids, nucellus & antipodal cells  (C)  Synergids, funiculus & embryo sac  (D)  Synergids & antipodal cells 

Nucellus  Synergids  Embryo sac  Antipodal  cells 

45.  Which  of  the  following  statements  is  correct  ?  (A)  Mendel's experiments gave us the mechanism for the inheritance of traits from one generation to the next.  (B)  Mendel's findings remained unknown until these were rediscovered by Hugo de Vries in 1900.  (C)  Natural selection is based on the isolation of natural populations and selective breeding of organisms.  (D)  Both (A) & (B)  46.  Which  of  the  following  is  an  incorrect  match  ?  Column I  (Examples) 

Column II  (Connecting links) 

(A)  Egg laying mammals 

Reptiles & mammals 

(B)  Lung fish 

Fishes & amphibians 

(C)  Peripatus 

Annelida & Arthropoda 

(D)  Archaeopteryx 

Birds & mammals

8 

| 14 th  NSO | Level­II | Class 10 

47.  Rohit categorized the functions of different lobes of cerebral hemisphere as given in the table below.  Group A 

Group B 

Group C 

Smell,  touch,  temperature  Auditory reception  and conscious association 

Group D 

Muscular activities  Visual reception 

Which of the following have the correct headings for the given table ?  Group A 

Group B 

Group C 

Group D 

(A)  Temporal lobe 

Parietal lobe 

Frontal lobe 

Occipital lobe 

(B)  Temporal lobe 

Parietal lobe 

Occipital lobe 

Frontal lobe 

(C)  Parietal lobe 

Temporal lobe 

Frontal lobe 

Occipital lobe 

(D)  Parietal lobe 

Temporal lobe 

Occipital lobe 

Frontal lobe 

48.  Bolting in some plants is induced by artificial treatment with which of the following plant hormones?  (A)  Ethylene 

(B)  Auxin 

(C)  Abscisic acid 

(D)  Gibberellin 

49.  Which  structure  out  of  (i),  (ii),  (iii)  and  (iv)  marked  in  the  given  figure  of  the  epidermal  peel  of  leaf  should  be  labelled  as  stoma  ?  (A)  (i)  (B)  (ii) 

(i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv) 

(C)  (iii)  (D)  (iv)  50.  Khadins,  Bundhis, Ahars  and  Kattas  are  traditional  means  of  _____.  (A)  Grain storage 

(B)  Wood storage 

(C)  Water harvesting 

SPACE  FOR  ROUGH  WORK

(D)  Soil conservation 

15th

LEVEL - 2 Year 2012-13

2

| 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10

MENTAL ABILITY 1.

Both the roots of the equation (x – a)(x – b) + (x – b)(x – c) + (x – c) (x – a) = 0 are real but they are equal only when ________. (B) a = b = c

(C)

a =c b



(A) 2b = a + c

(D) a – b = 2c

2.

A reservoir is in the shape of a frustum of a right circular cone. It is 8 m across at the top and



4 m across at the bottom. It is 6 m deep, its capacity is ________. (A) 224 m3 (B) 176 m3 (C) 225 m3

3.

Ashwini, Priya, Sudha, Rani, Meera, Geeta and Mukta are sitting around a circle facing the centre.

(D) 484 m3

Ashwini is third to the left of Mukta and to the immediate right of Rani. Priya is second to the left

of Geeta, who is not an immediate neighbour of Meera. Who is to the immediate right of Priya? (A) Meera (B) Sudha (C) Mukta (D) Ashwini

4.

Calculate the value of mode for the following frequency distribution. Class

1 - 4 5 - 8 9 - 12 13 - 16 17 - 20 21 - 24 25 - 28 29 - 32 33 - 36 37 - 40

Frequency

2

5

8

9

12

14

14

15

13

11



(A) 24.5

5.

If secθ = x +



(A) 2x

6.

In the given diagram, O is the centre of the circle and AC is the diameter. If ∠ADB = 120° and the

(B) 26 1 , then secq + tanq = ________. 4x 1 (B) 2x

(C) 23.5

(D) 29.3

(C) – 2x

(D) Both (A) and (B)

radius of the circle is 6 cm, what is the area of the D ABC?

(A) 18 3 cm2



(B) 24 3 cm2 (C) 27 cm2 (D) Data insufficient

7.

A factory kept increasing its output by the same percentage every year. Find the percentage if it



is known that the output is doubled in the last two years. (A) 50(1 ± 3 )% (B) 100( −1 + 2 )% (C) 50%

8.

The sum of the first six terms of an A.P. is 42. The ratio of the 10th term to the 30th term of A.P.



1 . Find the 40th term of the A.P. 3 (A) –60 (B) 20

9.

Four points A(6, 3), B(–3, 5), C(4, –2) and D(x, 3x) are given in such way that

(D) 84%

is



find x. 11 3 (A) , 8 8

(B)

11 −3 , 8 8

(C) 39

(C)

−11 3 , 8 8

(D) 80

(D)

area(∆DBC ) 1 = , area(∆ABC ) 2

−11 −3 , 8 8

10. Find the values of k for which the following system of equations have infinitely many solutions.

2x + 3y = 7 ; (k + 1) x + (2k – 1)y = 4k + 1 (A) 5

(B) 7

(C) 2

(D)

9 4

3

15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10 |

11. In the given figure, CD is a direct common tangent to two circles intersecting each other at A and

B, then ∠CAD + ∠CBD = ______. (A) 120° (B) 90° (C) 360° (D) 180°

12. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 6 cm contains milk. This milk is to be filled into cylindrical shaped small bottles of diameter 6 cm and height 1 cm. How many bottles will be needed to empty

the bowl? (A) 36

(B) 27

(C) 16

(D) 4

13. Cards with numbers 2 to 101 are placed in a box. A card is selected at random from the box. Find the probability that the selected card has a number which is a perfect square.

(A)

11 100

(B)

1 10

(C)

7 100

(D)

9 100

14. A ladder rests against a wall at an angle a to the horizontal. Its foot is pulled away from the wall through a distance a, so that it slides a distance b down the wall making an angle b with the



horizontal. Then, cosα − cosβ = ______. sinβ − sinα a+b (A) (B) 2a + b 2

(C)

a b

(D) 1

15. Showing a photograph Rajeev told Shweta, "His mother is the only daughter of your father." How

is Shweta related to the man in the photograph? (A) Aunt (B) Mother (C) Wife

(D) Daughter

science 16.

What happens to light as it passes from glass into air ? (A) Its frequency decreases because its speed decreases. (B) Its frequency increases because its speed increases. (C) Its wavelength decreases because its speed decreases. (D) Its wavelength increases because its speed increases.

17. In the given figure, a cell is connected in series with an ammeter and three resistors 10 W, 20 W and 30 W. The circuit can be completed by a movable contact M.

When M is connected to X, the ammeter reads 0.6 A.



What is the ammeter reading when M is connected to Y ? (A) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A (C) 0.3 A

A

10 

20  X

M

30 

Y

(D) 0.6 A

18. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: A current carrying loop placed in a uniform magnetic field experiences no net force.



Statement 2: The net charge on a current carrying loop is zero.



(A) (B) (C) (D)

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statements 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

| 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10

4

19. Two spherical mirrors (convex and concave) having the same focal length of

36 cm are arranged so that their optical axes coincide. The separation between



the mirrors is 1 m. At what distance from the concave mirror should an object



be placed so that its images formed by the concave and convex mirror



independently are identical in size ? (A) 86 cm in front of concave mirror (C) 56 cm in front of concave mirror

O 1m

(B) 76 cm in front of the concave mirror (D) None of these

20. A weather forecasting plastic balloon of volume 15 m 3 contains hydrogen of density 0.09 kg m–3. The volume of the equipment carried by the balloon is negligible compared to its own volume. The mass of the empty balloon alone is 7.15 kg. The balloon is floating in air of density 1.3 kg m–3.

The total mass of floating body is ________. (a) 22 kg (b) 19.5 kg

(c) 11 kg

(d) 8.5 kg

21. A juggler usually tosses balls vertically to a height H. To what height must they be tossed if they

are to spend twice as much time in the air ? (A) 4 H (B) 2 H

22.

An optician while testing the eyes finds the vision of a patient to be 6/12. By this he means that (A) The person can read the letters of 6 inches from a distance of 12 m. (B) The person can read the letters of 12 inches from 6 m. (C) The person can read the letters from 6 m which the normal eye can read from 12 m. (D) The focal length of eye lens had become half that of the normal eye.

(C) H

(D) H / 2

23. The electric light switch for a bathroom is sometimes fitted on the wall outside the bathroom.

Why is this safer than fitting the switch on the wall inside the bathroom ? (A) The heat from the light affects the switch. (B) The person in the bathroom may be electrocuted if water enters the switch. (C) The switch is less likely to be damaged outside the bathroom. (D) The warm air in the bathroom causes the switch to overheat.

24. Fusion reaction is also known as ______. (A) Chemical reaction (C) Thermonuclear reaction

(B) Elastic reaction (D) Photonuclear reaction

25. A stream of electrons is projected horizontally to the right. A straight conductor carrying a current is supported parallel to the electron stream and above it. If the current in the conductor is from

left (A) (C) (D)

to right, what will be the effect on the electron stream ? The electron stream will be pulled upwards. (B) The electron stream will be pulled downwards. The electron stream will be retarded. The electron stream will speedup towards the right.

26. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 5 m and with uniform speed 5 m s –1. What will

be the average acceleration when the particle completes half revolution ? (A) 10p m s–2 (B) 10/p m s–2 (C) 10 m s–2 (D) Zero

27. Balance the given reaction and find the values of w, x, y and z. Also, identify the type of reaction.

w Potassium bromide(aq) + x Barium iodide(aq) → y Potassium iodide(aq) + z Barium bromide(aq)

(A) 1, 1, 1, 1; Double displacement reaction (C) 2, 1, 2, 1; Double displacement reaction

(B) 1, 1, 1, 1; Decomposition reaction (D) 2, 1, 2, 1; Decomposition reaction

5

15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10 |

28. Coloured petals of some flowers indicate the presence of acid or base in a solution. Example of

such flowers is (A) Hydrangea

(B) Petunia

(C) Geranium

(D) All of these

29. Study the given table carefully. Substances

Blue litmus solution

Phenolphthalein

Methyl orange

China rose indicator

1.

Wasp's sting

Red

Colourless

Red

Red

2.

Lime water

No change

Pink

Yellow

Green

3.

Spinach

No change

Pink

Yellow

Green

4.

Window cleaner

Red

Colourless

Red

Red

5.

Curd

Red

Colourless

Red

Red



Which of them shows the incorrect change in the colour of indicator s? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 5 (C) 1, 2 and 3

30.

The (1) (3) (5)





Identify the gases evolved in the above reactions. (A) (1, 5) - CO2, (2) - H2, (3) - Cl2 and H2, (4) - Cl2 (B) (1, 3) - H2 and Cl2, (2) - H2, (4) - Cl2, (5) - CO2 (C) (1) - CO2 and Cl2, (2, 5) - H2, (3) - Cl2, (4) - H2 and Cl2 (D) (1) - H2 and Cl2, (2, 4) - H2, (3, 4) - Cl2

31.

In which reaction does the product have more carbon atoms than the underlined reactant s? (A) A carboxylic acid produced from an alcohol and an oxidising agent. (B) An ester produced from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol. (C) A salt produced from a carboxylic acid and sodium carbonate. (D) Carbon dioxide produced from the complete combustion of propane in oxygen.



following reactions evolve gases along with other products. NaHCO3 + HCl (2) NaOH + Zn NaCl + H2O (4) MnO2 + HCl CH4 + O2

(D) 1, 3 and 4

32. The formulae of four covalent molecules are given.

1.

H2O

2.

CO2

3.

CH3OH

4.

CH3COOH



In which pair of molecules does oxygen form at least one double bond? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

33. An ester of molecular formula C4H8O2 was produced by the reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid.

Alcohols



Acids

1

Methanol

Propanoic acid

2

Ethanol

Ethanoic acid

3

Propanol

Methanoic acid

Which of the following could be the alcohol and the acid ? (A) 2 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. Many properties of an element and its compounds can be predicted from the position of that

element in the periodic table. What property could not be predicted in this way ? (A) The acidic or basic nature of its oxide (B) The formula of its oxide (C) The number of isotopes it has (D) Its metallic or non-metallic properties

| 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10

6

35. Elements X and Y are in group VII of the periodic table. X is a liquid while Y is a solid at room

temperature. Which statement is correct ? 1. Atoms of Y have more protons than atoms of X. 2. Molecules of Y have more atoms than molecules of X. – 3. Y displaces X from aqueous solution of X ions. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3

(D) All of them

36. How many different chlorides in total could be prepared by the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid with the following substances ?

(A) 1

Copper, Magnesium, Silver, Zinc carbonate (B) 2 (C) 3

(D) 4

37. The diagram shows some parts of the periodic table with few elements. Identify the set of two

elements which combine together to form a covalent compound with a formula of the type XY 3. 1 (A) 2 and 3 7 4 (B) 4 and 6 5 2 (C) 5 and 7 3 6 (D) 1 and 7

38. Which metal when attached to an iron pipe immersed in sea water, would prevent rusting of the

iron ? (A) Copper

(B) Lead

(C) Magnesium

(D) Silver

39. The organisms shown in figure can be grouped into two separate groups based on their mode of nutrition.



Which of the following options is correct regarding this? (A) P is an autotroph whereas Q, R and S are heterotrophs. (B) P and R show intracellular digestion while Q and S show extracellular digestion. (C) P and Q are autotrophs while R and S are heterotrophs. (D) P shows intracellular digestion while Q, R and S show extracellular digestion.

40. Read the following statements with respect to the given diagram.

(i) A major amount of carbohydrates is digested in P.



(ii) Chief fat digesting enzyme is present in R.



(iii) Digestion of proteins and fats starts in T.



(iv) Enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin are produced in S.



(v) Enzyme responsible for curdling of milk is present in P. Which of the above statements are correct?



(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B) (ii) and (v)



(C) (iii), (iv) and (v)

(D) (ii), (iv) and (v)



41. When the Fallopian tubes in a woman are cut and tied, ______. (A) She becomes sterile (B) She stops ovulating (C) She stops producing sex hormones (D) The embryo cannot get implanted in the uterus

7

15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10 |

42. Nidhi set up an experiment as shown in the figure. At the start of the experiment, water level in the passing tube was at X, but later on it reached the point Y. Which process occurring in the seeds has lead to the observed change?

(A) Aerobic respiration

(B) Anaerobic respiration



(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Transpiration

43. Refer the given figure which shows a section of plant roots

having a root hair. Which of the following statements is correct for absorption of water to occur ? (A) The water potential of the soil water is zero. (B) The water potential of cell Z is the lowest. (C) The water potential of cell Y is higher than cell X. (D) The water potential of cell Y is lower than cell Z.

44. Refer the given figure which shows part of the urinary system of a mammal.

Liquids pass through tubes X, Y and Z in the directions shown by the arrows. The volume of liquid passing through Y in a day is (A) Greater than that passing through X. (B) Less than that passing through Z. (C) Much less than that passing through X but slightly greater than that passing through Z. (D) Slightly less than that passing through X but much greater than that passing through Z.

45. Refer the given diagram of a typical dicotyledonous seed with

a labelled part Q. Which of the following is correct regarding it? (A) Part Q is well laden with nutrients and serves as a food reserve. (B) The first two leaves seen in a seedling are always formed by part Q. (C) Part Q gives rise to the stem, leaves and parts of shoot system of the new plant. (D) Both (B) and (C)

46. Read the following statements. I. In a food chain, there is multidirectional flow of energy from sun to producers, consumers and decomposers. II. Shorter food chains provide more energy as compared to longer food chains. III. In an ecosystem, no food chain is independent. IV. If 100 joules of energy is available at the producer level, then amount of energy present at the level of secondary consumers is 10 joules. Which of these statements are correct? (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I and IV 47. Match phytohormones in Column - I with their respective functions in Column - II and select the

correct option from the codes given below. Column - I Column - II a. Cytokinins (i) Closing of stomata during stress conditions b. Gibberellins (ii) Elongation of stem c. Ethylene (iii) Ripening of fruits d. Abscisic acid (iv) Cell division and cell enlargement (A) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) (B) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) (C) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i) (D) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

| 15th NSO | Level-II | Class 10 48.

8

Read the given statements that Mohit has made during a conversation. (i) I have a strong feeling of hatred for Sudhir. I just cannot tolerate him. (ii) I cannot control sneezing when I enter a dusty place. (iii) I can ride a bicycle in a steady, straight line. (iv) I withdrew my hand when I touched the hot kettle. Refer the given figure and select the correct match of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) that are functionally associated with parts labelled as W, X, Y and Z of the human brain. (A) W - (ii) (B) X - (iii) (C) Y - (i) (D) Z - (iii)

49. The given figure shows structure of forelimbs of different organisms which are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Which of the following is incorrect regarding this?

(A) Q and R both are adapted for the same function i.e., flying, thus they are analogous organs.



(B) P and S both have same basic structural plan, thus they are homologous organs. (C) P and Q are adapted for different functions i.e., swimming and flying respectively thus they are analogous organs. (D) None of these



50. The given figure shows a Kundi i.e., a traditional rainwater

harvesting system used in India. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this? (A) Surface view of the entire structure resembles an upturned cup put on a saucer. (B) X is made up of an impervious material in order to prevent percolation of rainwater into the ground. (C) The Kundi technology was developed by people of Rajasthan's Thar desert. (D) This technology can be further improved by removing W and Y as they reduce the amount of rainwater reaching the storage well. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16th

LEVEL - 2 Year 2013-14

16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

2

Mental Mental Ability ability 1. 2.

3.

Solve the quadratic equation by factorization :

A. B. C. D.



A.



B.



C.



D.

8.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT while constructing a triangle similar to a given triangle 5 of the corresponding PQR with its sides equal to 3 sides of DPQR.



(i)



(ii) Locate 5 points (the greater of 5 and 3 in



(iii) Join Q3 (the 3rd point, 3 being smaller of 3 and 5 5 in ) to P and draw a line through Q5 parallel to Q3R, 3 intersecting the extended line segment QR at R′.

–2, 7 3, – 4 5, 2 8, 2

A man is employed to count ` 10710. He counts at the rate of ` 180 per minute for half an hour. After this he counts at the rate of ` 3 less every minute than the preceding minute. Find the time taken by him to count the entire amount. A. 98 minutes B. 73 minutes C. 89 minutes D. 50 minutes In the given figure, there are two concentric circles with centre O of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. From an external point P, tangents PA and PB are drawn to these circles. If AP = 12 cm, find the length of BP. A.

7 3 cm



B. C. D.

8 10 cm

4.

If a two digit number is chosen at random, then the probability that the number chosen is a multiple of 3, is 3 7 A. B. 10 25

4 3 cm 4 10 cm

1 3

D.

1 30



C.

5.

Find the circumcentre of the triangle whose vertices are (–2, 3), (2, –1) and (4, 0).



A.

3 5  ,  2 2

B.

3 5  ,  5 2



C.

3 5  ,  2 3

D.

4 5  ,  5 2

6.

The angle of elevation foot of a tower is 60° of the top of the tower 30°. If the tower is 50 of the hill? A. 200 m C. 150 m



Select a figure from amongst the Answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures.

1 1 1 1 + + = ( x − 1)( x − 2) ( x − 2)( x − 3) ( x − 3)( x − 4) 6





7.

of the top of a hill at the and the angle of elevation from the foot of the hill is m high, what is the height B. D.

170 m 180 m

Draw any ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to the vertex P. 5 ) Q1 , 3 Q2 , Q3, Q4 and Q5 on QX so that QQ1 = Q1Q2 = Q 2 Q 3 = Q 3 Q 4 = Q 4 Q5

(iv) Draw a line through R′ parallel to PR intersecting the extended line segment PQ at P′. Then P′QR′ is the required triangle. A. Only (i) B. Both (i) and (iii) C. Only (iii) D. Only (iv)

9.

Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follows. (i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members in a family in which there are two married couples. (ii) D is brother of F. Both D and F are lighter than B. (iii) B is mother of D and lighter than E. (iv) C, a lady, is neither heaviest nor the lightest in the family. (v) E is lighter than C. (vi) The grandfather in the family is the heaviest. How is E related to F? A. Grandmother B. Brother C. Father D. Mother

3

16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

10. Select the figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in figure (X).

Figure (X)

A.



C.



14. In DABC, ∠B = 90°, AB = 12 cm and AC = 15 cm. D and E are points on AB and AC respectively such that ∠AED = 90° and DE = 3 cm.

B.



A.



C.

3 3−π

, 2π a

B.

3 3−π , 2π a 2

D.

3 3

Find

ar (quadrilateral BCED ) . ar (DABC )



A.

8 9



B.

7 3



C.

4 3



D.

9 7

D.

11. From a piece of paper in the shape of a regular hexagon, sectors of circles with the centre at the vertices are removed as shown in the figure. Find the fraction of the piece of paper left. Also, find the perimeter of the piece of paper left in terms of a side of the hexagon (Take side of regular hexagon = a).



13. Which of the following statements is true? A. The probability of an impossible event is 0. B. The probability of an event (E) is a number P(E) such that 0 < P(E) < 1 C. An event having only one outcome is called classical event. D. For any event E, P(E) + P(E) = 0

3 − 3π 3 3 2 −π 3 3

, ,

2 3

15. There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the options that would replace the question mark (?) in figure (4).

πa

3 πa 2

12. The digits of the following five numbers are written in reverse order and five new numbers are obtained. 513 726 492 865 149 Which of the following will be the middle digit of the third number from the top when the new numbers are arranged in descending order? A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8



A.



B.



C.



D.

Science 16. Four situations in figure shows how forces act on a block that lies on frictionless floor. If the force magnitudes are chosen properly, in which situations is it possible that the block is moving with a constant velocity? A.



B.





D.

C.







17. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : It is not possible to photograph a virtual image. Statement-2 : An image is said to be virtual if the reflected or refracted rays are diverging in nature. A. Both statements-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1. B. Both statements-1 and 2 are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1. C. Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false. D. Both statements-1 and 2 are false.

16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

4

18. The figure shows the current I in a single loop. Circuit with a battery B and a resistor R and wires of negligible resistance. At points a, b and c rank the electric potential. A. Va > Vb > Vc B. Vb > Va = Vc C. Vc > Va = Vb D. Vb > Vc > Va 19. The figure shows, the circular paths of two particles that travel at the same speed  in a uniform magnetic field B, which is directed into the page. One particle is a proton, the other is an electron. Then A. The electron follows bigger circle. B. The electron follows the smaller circle. C. Both the circles follow by electron only. D. Information not sufficient. 20. Bulb B1 (100 W - 250 V) and bulb B2(100 W-200 V) are connected across 250 V. What is potential drop across B2 ?

A. B. C. D.

25. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 are inclined at angle q as shown in the figure. A ray of light 1, which is parallel to M1 strikes M2 and after two reflections, the ray 2 becomes parallel to M2 . The angle q is

A. B. C. D.

26. Which of the following elements does not form a chloride with the formula MCl ?

A.

39 19 T



B.

7 3R



C.

23 11 Q



D.

40 20 S

22. If a small part separates from an orbiting satellite, the part will A. Fall to the earth directly B. move in a spiral and reach the earth after a few rotations C. Continue to move in the same orbit as the satellite D. Move farther away from the earth gradually. 23. Current I flows through a conductor connected across a voltage source. Now the resistance of the conductor is reduced to half its initial value and connected across the same voltage source. In doing so the heating effect in the conductor will become A. Half B. Double C. One-fourth D. Four times 24. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the sun’s energy? A. Geothermal energy B. Wind energy C. Fossil fuels D. Biomass



27. The electronic configurations of six elements, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are as follows. Elements U V W X Y Z

200 V 250 V 98 V 48 V

21. A vertical straight conductor carries a current vertically upwards. A point P lies to the east of it at a small distance and another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The magnetic field at P is A. Greater than at Q B. Same as at Q C. Less than at Q D. Greater or lesser than that at Q, depending upon the strength of current.

0° 30° 45° 60°



Electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 2, 8 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 2 2, 6 2, 8, 8, 2

Which of the following is incorrect statement? A. Element V does not react with U, W, X, Y and Z. B. Compounds UW, ZY, U2Y show high melting and boiling points. C. Compounds XW2 , XY and ZW2 are insoluble in water but soluble in kerosene. D. Compounds UW and U2Y do not conduct electricity in solid state.

28. Observe the following reaction . X 2 Z + Y2 X 2 + Y2 Z If Z represents an oxygen atom, then identify the correct option. A. Substance gets oxidised is Y2Z. B. Substance gets reduced is X2Z. C. Substance gets oxidised is Y2. D. Both B and C. 29. Which of the following hydrocarbons will undergo substitution reactions? (i) C2H6

(iv) A. B. C. D.

(ii) C4H6



CH4 (v) C4H10 (i) and (iv) only (ii), (iii) and (vi) only (i), (iv) and (v) only (iii) and (v) only

(iii) C3H6 (vi) C3H4

5

16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

30. Given below is the structural formula of compound formed of X, Y and Z elements. X is tetravalent element and exhibits catenation property. Y belongs to group 16 and period 2. Z is the only non-metal present in the reactivity series. The next member of homologous series of the above compound is A. CH3CHO B. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO C. CH3CH2CH2CHO D. None of these. 31. Nikita and Tarun arranged the given set up of experiment separately.



Both have performed the above experiment with two different solutions (Y ). If in case of Nikita, solution (Y ) is dilute hydrochloric acid and in case of Tarun, solution (Y ) is sodium hydroxide then compounds formed are______ and ______ respectively. A. Na2ZnO2 and ZnCl2 B. ZnCl2 and Na2ZnO2 C. ZnSO4 and Na2ZnO2 D. ZnCl2 and ZnO

32. Different metals P, Q, R, M and T are dipped in different salt solutions one by one and the observations are recorded in the form of given table. Observe the table carefully. P

Q

R

M

T

T2SO4











QSO4 P2SO4 MSO4 RSO4

   

   

   

   

   





 No reaction  Displacement

Identify the metal which is more reactive than P but less reactive than T. A. M only B. R only C. Q only D. Both M and Q

33. Observe the following schematic representation carefully.



Identify the type of reaction. A. Displacement reaction B. Combination reaction C. Double displacement reaction D. Both (A) and (C).

34. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct ? CuO(s) + 2HCl(dil.) CuCl2(aq) + H2O(l) (i) CuCl2 is blue-green coloured solution. (ii) CuO is an acidic oxide. (iii) This is a neutralisation reaction. (iv) CuO is a basic oxide. A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. All the statements are correct. 35. An element M belongs to the group 1 and period 3 of the modern periodic table. Out of the following statements, which is true about 'M'? A. It forms an acidic oxide having formula M2O3. B. It is a non-metal. C. It is highly electropositive in nature. D. It has a valency of three. 36. Mendel studied the inheritance patterns of 12 different pairs of characters of the pea plant. He could ascertain the independent assortment for only 7 of these 12 pairs of characters by repeated experiments. What can be deduced from this? A. The pea plant could have at least seven pairs of chromosomes. B. The pea plant can have a maximum of seven pairs of chromosomes. C. The pea plant has exactly seven pairs of chromosomes. D. The pea plant can have haploid chromosome number between 7 and 12 only. 37. In an individual X, the part labelled P was found to function normally while the part labelled Q was atrophied. In another individual Y, both the parts labelled P and Q were found to be underdeveloped. If adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is administered to these individuals as a remedy, it will be effective in_______. A. Individual X alone B. Individual Y alone C. Both individuals X and Y D. Neither individual X nor Y

16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

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38. Twenty small populations of a species, each polymorphic for a given locus (T, t) were bred in captivity. In 10 of them, the population size was kept constant by random removal of individuals, while other 10 were allowed to increase their population size. After several generations it was observed that in 7 of the size restricted populations only T was present, in the remaining 3 only t was present. In the growing populations 8 retained their polymorphism and in 2 only t was observed. The experiment illustrates_______. A. Genetic drift which is more likely in small populations B. Genetic drift which is more likely in large populations C. Density dependent selection against T D. Density dependent selection against t

41. The diagram gives information about blood pressures in various parts of the circulatory system during the cardiac cycle. At which point a, b, c or d, does the semi-lunar valve of the aorta close?

39. Select the option which fills in the blanks (a, b, c, d) in the following paragraph with a proper combination of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), wherein (i) represents longer, (ii) represents shorter, (iii) represents prevents, and (iv) represents induces. Short day (SD) plants flower when night lengths are a than a critical dark period. Interruption of the dark period by a brief light treatment b flowering in SD plants. Long day (LD) plants flower when night length is c than a critical period. Shortening of the night with a brief light treatment d flowering in LD plants. a b c d A. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) C. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) D. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)



40. In the given graph, a Hibiscus plant has been exposed to a certain wavelength of light for 2 days. At which wavelength a, b, c or d, has the Hibiscus plant been exposed that resulted in closure of stomata because guard cells became flaccid?



A. B. C. D.

d b c a

A. B. C. D.

b a d c

42. Hay is boiled in water and cooled. Some pond water, containing only heterotrophic protozoa, is added to it and kept in the dark for a long time. Which of the following statements regarding this is incorrect? (i) The ecosystem may undergo succession but finally all organisms will die or go into resting stages. (ii) Succession will occur, eventually reaching a steady state in which energy flow is maintained. (iii) The energy of the system will be maximum in the beginning. (iv) Heterotrophic succession of protozoa will occur with increase in total biomass. A. (i) and (iv) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (ii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iii) 43. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below Column I Column II (a) Bhagirathi River (i) Surangams (b) Khejri trees (ii) Chipko movement (c) From Gangotri to (iii) Bhandaras and tals Bay of Bengal (d) Tehri-Garhwal (iv) River Ganga (e) Maharashtra (v) Tehri Dam (f) Kerala (vi) Amrita Devi Bishnoi a b c d e f A. (i) (vi) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v) B. (v) (ii) (iv) (vi) (iii) (i) C. (v) (vi) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) D. (i) (ii) (iv) (vi) (iii) (v)

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16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

44. The given diagram shows a part of a food-web. Which of the following is a pyramid of numbers based on this food-web?





A.







C.



B.



D.



45. Which one of the following statements is correct in explaining the feedback control mechanisms regulating the reproductive cycles in human female? A. Whereas a slow rise of progesterone inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH, high concentration of progesterone have the opposite effect and stimulates the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary. B. Whereas high concentration of estrogen inhibits the secretion of pituitary gonadotropins, low concentration of estrogen have the opposite effect and stimulates the secretion of gonadotropins by acting on the hypothalamus to increase its output of GnRH. C. Whereas low concentration of GnRH stimulates the release of LH and FSH, high concentration of GnRH have the opposite effect and inhibits the secretion of LH and FSH. D. Whereas the lower concentration of prolactin inhibits the secretion of estrogen, higher concentration of prolactin have opposite effect and stimulates the release of estrogen.

Achievers Section Direction (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions. Strength of an acid solution or a basic solution can be determined by knowing the hydrogen ion concentrations in them, using a pH scale. (i) Neutral solution has pH 7. (ii) Acidic solution has pH less than 7. (iii) Basic solution has pH more than 7. The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to hydrogen (H+) ion concentration in it. 46. Five students, Ankit, Nitin, Deepika, Gunjan and Pooja were given test tubes having solutions with pH 1.2, 13.5, 10.0, 7.4 and 2.2 respectively. The correct order of decreasing OH – ion concentration in these solutions is A. Ankit > Pooja > Gunjan > Deepika > Nitin B. Nitin > Gunjan > Ankit > Pooja > Deepika C. Deepika > Gunjan > Pooja > Nitin > Ankit D. Nitin > Deepika > Gunjan > Pooja > Ankit 47. Teacher told three students Renuka, Bhawna and Seema to test their saliva with pH paper before and after having their lunch. Identify the correct observations from the following. A. Bhawna observed that pH paper turned red and recorded pH value of 2.3 – 2.5 before having lunch. B. Seema observed that pH paper turned yellow and recorded pH value of 5.6 – 5.8 after having lunch.



C. Renuka observed that pH paper turned green and recorded pH value of 7.4 – 7.9 before having lunch. D. Observations made by both Renuka and Seema were correct.

48. Which of the diagrams shown in figure most closely shows the variation in kinetic energy of the earth as it moves once around the sun in its elliptical orbit?



A.



B.



C.



D.





16th NSO | Class-10 | Level 2

8

49. The graph below shows change in air-pressure in the lungs of a person during respiration.





A. B. C. D.

(i), (iv) and (vi) (ii), (iii) and (v) (ii), (iii) and (vi) (i), (iii) and (v)

50. Refer the given figures and select the correct option.



Which of the following statements regarding this are correct? (i) The regions between R to T and P to Q indicates inhalation. (ii) The region between R to T indicates inhalation. (iii) At Q, the state of the rib cage is downward and shape of the diaphragm is dome shaped. (iv) At Q, the state of the rib cage is upward and shape of the diaphragm is flattened. (v) The distance between P and T will decrease and between H and Q will increase in a person doing vigorous exercise. (vi) The distance between P and T will increase and between H and Q will decrease in a person doing vigorous exercise.



A.



B.



C.



D.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

The part labelled W produces the male gamete equivalent to female gamete produced by the part Q. The parts X, Y and Q produces egg cell, pollen and ovum respectively. The function of part P is same as part Z while of part S is same as part V. Development of respective embryos occur inside parts X and R.

ANSWER KEYS 14 th  NSO  1.  8.  15.  22.  29.  36.  43.  50. 

(A)  (C)  (A)  (C)  (D)  (B)  (B)  (C) 

2.  9.  16.  23.  30.  37.  44. 

(B)  (B)  (C)  (A)  (C)  (B)  (D) 

3.  10.  17.  24.  31.  38.  45. 

(B)  (A)  (A)  (C)  (B)  (A)  (D) 

4.  11.  18.  25.  32.  39.  46. 

(C)  (B)  (B)  (B)  (D)  (B)  (D) 

5.  12.  19.  26.  33.  40.  47. 

(A)  (C)  (D)  (C)  (D)  (B)  (C) 

6.  13.  20.  27.  34.  41.  48. 

(C)  (B)  (A)  (D)  (C)  (B)  (D) 

7.  14.  21.  28.  35.  42.  49. 

(C)  (C)  (B)  (B)  (D)  (C)  (C) 

5.  12.  19.  26.  33.  40.  47. 

(D)  (C)  (A)  (B)  (D)  (B)  (C) 

6.  13.  20.  27.  34.  41.  48. 

(A)  (D)  (C)  (C)  (C)  (A)  (B) 

7.  14.  21.  28.  35.  42.  49. 

(B)  (C)  (A)  (D)  (A)  (A)  (C) 

5.  12.  19.  26.  33.  40.  47. 

(A)  (C)  (B)  (D)  (C)  (C)  (D) 

6.  13.  20.  27.  34.  41.  48. 

(C)  (A)  (C)  (C)  (B)  (D)  (D) 

7.  14.  21.  28.  35.  42.  49. 

(C)  (A)  (B)  (D)  (C)  (C)  (B) 

15 th  NSO  1.  8.  15.  22.  29.  36.  43.  50. 

(B)  (D)  (B)  (C)  (D)  (B)  (B)  (D) 

2.  9.  16.  23.  30.  37.  44. 

(B)  (B)  (D)  (B)  (A)  (B)  (C) 

3.  10.  17.  24.  31.  38.  45. 

(C)  (A)  (B)  (C)  (B)  (C)  (D) 

4.  11.  18.  25.  32.  39.  46. 

(A)  (D)  (B)  (B)  (C)  (A)  (B) 

16 th  NSO  1.  8.  15.  22.  29.  36.  43.  50. 

(A)  (C)  (A)  (C)  (C)  (A)  (C)  (D)

2.  9.  16.  23.  30.  37.  44. 

(C)  (C)  (B)  (B)  (C)  (D)  (D) 

3.  10.  17.  24.  31.  38.  45. 

(D)  (D)  (B)  (A)  (B)  (A)  (B) 

4.  11.  18.  25.  32.  39.  46. 

(C)  (A)  (B)  (D)  (C)  (D)  (D)