Chemical Bonding Resonance

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TEST - 6 COURSE NAME : VIKAAS (JA) & VIPUL (JB)

COURSE CODE : CLINIC CLASSES

TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2014 Date : 26-02-2013

Duration : 1 Hour

Max. Marks : 80

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

CHEMISTRY (CHEMICAL BONDING - 1) INSTRUCTIONS 2.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

3.

Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

4.

The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

5.

Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

6.

Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

7.

Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS : Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS. 8.

Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).

9.

Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen.

10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total. 11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer. 12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS. 13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final. C. Question paper format and Marking scheme : 14. The question paper consists of 1 parts. The part consists of Two Sections. 15. For each question in Section–I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section–II, you will be awarded 5 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

A. General : 1. This Question Paper contains 22 questions.

CHEMISTRY

PART - II : CHEMISTRY Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type This section contains 15 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1.

The number of p-bp repulsion present in ClF3 at nearly 90º angle. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3

(D) 4

2.

The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species NF3, BF3, PF5 and [SiF6]2– is: (A) sp2, sp3, sp3d2, sp3d (B) sp3, sp2, sp3d, sp3d2 2 3 3 3 2 (C) sp , sp , sp d, sp d (D) sp3, sp2, sp3d2, sp3d3

3.

In which of the following sets the central atom of each member involves sp3 hybridisation ? (A) O4– , Cl4– , F4+ (B) XeO3 , XeO4 , XeF4 (C) SO3, SO32– , SO42– (D) PCl4+ , BF4– , ClO4–

4

In which of the following groups all the members have linear shape ? (A) NO2 , N3–, ICl2+ (B) N3– , I3– , NO2+ (C) XeF2, C2H2, SO2

(D) CO2, BeCl2, SnCl2

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

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5.

Which reactions involves a change in the electron–pair geometry (i.e. hybridisation) for the under lined geometry ? (A) BF3 + F–  BF4– (B) NH3 + H+  NH4+ (C) 2 SO2 + O2  2 SO3 (D) H2O + H+  H3O+

6.

How many types of bond length are present in oxalate ion ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3

(D) 4

7.

When PCl5(g) is heated, two chlorine atoms are dissociated from two positions which are (A) one axial and one equitorial (B) Both axial (C) Both equitorial (D) From any of two positions out of five positions

8.

Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds ? (A) CH4 (B) H2O2 (C) NH4Cl

(D) none

9.

The average charge on each O atom and average bond order of I–O bond in IO65– is(A) –1 and 1.67 (B) – 5/6 and 1.67 (C) –5/6 and 1.33 (D) –5/6 and 1.167

10.

In O2F2, which of the following statement is incorrect. (A) O–F bond length in O2F2 is longer than O–Fbond length in OF2. (B) The O.N. of oxygen in O2F2 is +1. (C) The O–O bond length in O2F2 is longer than O–O bond length in H2O2. (D) None of these

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

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11.

Amongst the following, the total number of species which does/do not exist is : SF6, BF63–, SF4, OF4, AlF63–, PH5, PCl5, NCl5, SCl6 (A) 9 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

12.

The number of P—O—P bonds in tricyclic metaphosphoric acid is : (A) zero

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

13.

In NO3– ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are (A) 2,2 (B) 3,1 (C) 1,3 (D) 4,0

14.

Which of the following arrangements is correct on the basis of the increasing p-character of the hybrid orbitals of the central atoms in the following : (I) ClO2– (II) CS2 (III) SnCl2 (A) I > III > II (B) II > I > III (C) I > II > IIII (D) III > I > II

15.

An ionic bond A+ B– is most likely to be formed when : (A) the ionization energy of A is high and the electron affinity of B is low (B) the ionization energy of A is low and the electron affinity of B is high (C) the ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is high (D) the ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is low

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

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SECTION - II

Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

16.

Which of the following species are correctly matched with their geometries according to the VSEPR theory? (A) BrF6+  octahedral. (B) SnCl5–  trigonal bipyramidal. – (C) ClF2  linear. (D) IF4+  see-saw.

17.

There is S–S linkage in : (A) S2O32– (B) S2O42–

(C) S2O52–

(D) S2O72–

18.

Select that pair(s) in which bond angle of first member is less than second one. (A) BrO3–, ClO3– (B) AsI3, SbI3 (C) SbBr3, SbI3 (D) NF3, NH3

19.

Which of the following statement is true for IO2F2– ? (A) The electrons are located at the corners of a trigonal bipyramidal but one of the equatorial pairs is unshared. (B) It has sp3d hybridisation and is T–shaped. (C) Its structure is similar to SF4. (D) It has sp3d hybridisation and is See-saw in shape.

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

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20.

Which of the following are not isomorphous to each other (A) BaSO4 and KMnO4 (B) KNO3 and NaClO4 (C) K2CO3 and K2SO3 (D) Na2CO3 and Mg(NO3)2

21.

Which of the factors affect bondlength ? (A) Size of atoms making the bond (B) Bond order (C) Oxidation number of central atom (D) Percentage s-character in the orbitals used in making the bond

22.

To which of the following species is the octet rule is not applicable ? (A) BrF5 (B) SF6 (C) IF7 (D) CO2

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

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