Biology test bank
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Chapter 01 Exploring Life and Science
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
The scientific study of life is called:
A. biology B. ecology C. anatomy D. biochemistry E. limnology 2.
A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an
A. community. B. population. C. organism. D. tissue. E. species. 3.
All of the ecosystems on the planet together are called the
A. atmosphere. B. hydrosphere. C. biosphere. D. lithosphere. E. stratosphere.
4.
In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an
A. organism. B. population. C. community. D. ecosystem. E. biosphere.
True / False Questions
5.
Organisms are composed of multiple cells. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called
A. an entity. B. an ecosystem. C. a biosystem. D. a community. E. a biosphere.
7.
All of the changes that occur from the time an egg is fertilized through childhood, adolescence and adulthood are called
A. metabolism. B. evolution. C. homeostasis. D. reproduction. E. development. 8.
Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis?
A. All living organisms are alike. B. Living organisms do not change much over time. C. Human beings and other animals acquire materials and energy when they eat food. D. It takes energy to maintain the organization of the cell. E. Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment. 9.
Viruses are not considered alive. Which of the following characteristics of living things do they lack?
A. Living things reproduce. B. Living things have an evolutionary history. C. Living things grow and develop. 10. Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today's horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept?
A. metabolism B. evolution C. development D. homeostasis E. reproduction
11. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of all living things?
A. Living things are organized. B. Living things acquire materials and energy. C. Living things contain a nucleus and organelles. D. Living things reproduce. E. Living things grow and develop. 12. The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example of
A. metabolism. B. homeostasis. C. response to stimuli. D. development. E. reproduction. 13. Choose the CORRECT order (1-5) of increasing complexity/organization.
A. (1) tissues, (2) organ systems, (3) cells, (4) organs, (5) organism B. (1) cells, (2) organ systems, (3) tissues, (4) organs, (5) organism C. (1) tissues, (2) organs, (3) organ systems, (4) cells, (5) organism D. (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism E. (1) organism, (2) organ systems, (3) organs, (4) tissues, (5) cells 14. The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called
A. evolution. B. homeostasis. C. levels of organization. D. biological classification. E. molecular diversification.
15. The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of
A. homeostasis. B. metabolism. C. evolution. D. reproduction. E. organization. 16. Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of
A. homeostasis. B. adaptation. C. metabolism. D. development. E. cellular organization. 17. The Domain Eukarya contain(s) ______ kingdom(s).
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 18. Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life?
A. communicative B. cultural C. instructional D. biological E. chemical
19. The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus. This organism belongs to the domain
A. Bacteria. B. Archaea. C. Eukarya. 20. Which organisms are most closely related to humans?
A. spiders B. earthworms C. parakeets D. meerkats E. snakes 21. A species has been discovered that is able to live in boiling hot springs. This organism most likely belongs to the domain
A. Archaea. B. Bacteria. C. Eukarya.
True / False Questions
22. Humans evolved from apes. True
False
23. Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. Humans clear forests to grow crops, and they build houses and cities. What are these an example of?
A. how humans modify the biosphere B. how humans preserve ecosystems C. the high value humans place on biodiversity D. the positive impact of humans on life on Earth E. how humans do not need the rest of life on Earth
True / False Questions
25. Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species. True
False
26. Humans have identified and named almost all of the almost 15 million species on Earth. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. ________ observations are supported by factual information while _______ observations involve personal judgment.
A. Subjective/analytical B. Objective/analytical C. Objective/subjective D. Objective/hypothetical E. Subjective/theoretical
28. Which of the following statements is an objective observation?
A. This milk tastes funny. B. This package is larger than that one. C. I like this picture. D. This mattress feels hard to me. E. I think I am going to be sick. 29. What is the unifying principle of the biological sciences?
A. Technology B. Anatomy C. Biochemistry D. Taxonomy E. Evolution 30. The tentative explanation to be tested is called
A. a theory. B. a hunch. C. a hypothesis. D. the data. E. the conclusion. 31. The information collected during the experiment or observation is called
A. a theory. B. a hunch. C. the hypothesis. D. the data. E. the conclusion.
32. Which of the following is not a basic theory of biology?
A. Theory of ecosystems B. Cell theory C. Gene theory D. Theory of evolution E. Theory of gravity 33. The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be
A. excess stomach acid. B. the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. C. drinking too much coffee. D. extreme stress. E. diets rich in meat products. 34. Which of the following statements is a hypothesis?
A. If students buy the university meal plan, then they will eat more vegetables. B. Ginny gained 5 lbs her freshman year. C. Blake failed the test. D. There are more calories in french fries than in colas. E. I like my biology class better than my other classes. 35. A controlled study when neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment, is called a/an
A. statistical study. B. double-blind study. C. variable study. D. adaptive study. E. blind study.
36. In an experiment designed to test the effect of temperature on goldfish respiration, the temperatures that were changed represent what type of variable?
A. control B. responding C. experimental D. correlative E. placebo 37. The purpose of informed consent is
A. to determine whether a patient is acceptable for a particular study. B. to ensure that the doctor does not know which patient is receiving the treatment. C. to decide whether a patient goes into the test group or the control group. D. to ensure the patient knows the risks and is volunteering. E. to determine whether the treatment works.
True / False Questions
38. If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment was successful. True
False
39. To make all subjects think they are receiving the same treatment, patients in the control group can receive a placebo.
True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
40. One of the difficulties with publication of research in scientific journals is that it
A. is technical and may be difficult for a layperson to read. B. is often out of context or misunderstood. C. is unverified and usually not referenced. D. displays bias. E. is designed to convince readers to purchase a product. 41. Which of the following URLs would you perhaps distrust in writing a scientific paper?
A. .com B. .gov C. .edu D. .org
True / False Questions
42. An important part of scientific research is repeatability. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
43. The standard error tells
A. how often the examiner made an error. B. how often the experimental variable was tested. C. the relationship between the control and test groups. D. whether or not the research has been published in a scientific journal. E. how uncertain a particular value is.
True / False Questions
44. A probability value of less than 5% in a scientific study is acceptable. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
45. Which of the following is an example of correlation without causation?
A. HPV can cause cervical cancer. B. Illegal drug use causes an increase in crime. C. Helicobacter pylori can cause ulcers. D. People who commit crimes also consume bread. E. Parents have children. 46. In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the
A. x axis. B. y axis.
Yes / No Questions
47. Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended. Her friend told her that it really helped her. Should Jessica accept this type of evidence? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
48. Choose the following interest group that should be held most responsible for the future roles of new scientific technologies.
A. Scientists B. Politicians C. Clergy D. Professionals E. Everyone 49. In conducting a review of the literature on the Internet, which of the following sources would be the least reliable?
A. The Centers of Disease Control B. The Cystic Fibrosis Foundation C. The National Institute of Health D. The Pasteur Institute E. Astrology and Medicine 50. After studying biology, it is hoped that you
A. will become an animal rights activist. B. will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth's. C. will get a high paying job as a biologist. D. will understand all there is to know about humans and biology. E. will dislike anything to do with biology.
True / False Questions
51. Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. Scientists who have a financial stake in a company are now required to state that when they do research. This is an example of
A. ethics in science. B. financial planning. C. a new business model. D. a biotechnology revolution. E. statistical significance. 53. Which of the following statements explains the atomic bomb and the benefit of nuclear physics to cancer therapy?
A. Science and technology are not risk free. B. Science and technology are wrong. C. Science and technology are good for mankind. D. Science and technology are value-neutral.
Chapter 01 Exploring Life and Science Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
The scientific study of life is called:
A. biology B. ecology C. anatomy D. biochemistry E. limnology Biology is the study of life.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
2.
A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an
A. community. B. population. C. organism. D. tissue. E. species. A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as an organism.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
3.
All of the ecosystems on the planet together are called the
A. atmosphere. B. hydrosphere. C. biosphere. D. lithosphere. E. stratosphere. The biosphere is the sphere that contains all life, made up of all Earth's ecosystems.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
4.
In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an
A. organism. B. population. C. community. D. ecosystem. E. biosphere. The alligators in a swamp are all members of one species and belong to a population.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
True / False Questions
5.
Organisms are composed of multiple cells. FALSE Some organisms are single cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called
A. an entity. B. an ecosystem. C. a biosystem. D. a community. E. a biosphere. An ecosystem includes populations of organisms interacting with each other and the physical environment.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
7.
All of the changes that occur from the time an egg is fertilized through childhood, adolescence and adulthood are called
A. metabolism. B. evolution. C. homeostasis. D. reproduction. E. development. Development includes the changes that occur in an organism throughout a lifetime.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate to living organisms. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
8.
Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis?
A. All living organisms are alike. B. Living organisms do not change much over time. C. Human beings and other animals acquire materials and energy when they eat food. D. It takes energy to maintain the organization of the cell. E. Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment. Homeostasis is the ability of living things to maintain an internal environment that operates under specific conditions.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate to living organisms. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
9.
Viruses are not considered alive. Which of the following characteristics of living things do they lack?
A. Living things reproduce. B. Living things have an evolutionary history. C. Living things grow and develop. Viruses can reproduce in that they make copies of themselves and they do have an evolutionary history. Viruses do not grow and develop.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
10.
Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today's horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept?
A. metabolism B. evolution C. development D. homeostasis E. reproduction Evolution is the process by which a species changes through time.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. Section: 01.01 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
11.
Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of all living things?
A. Living things are organized. B. Living things acquire materials and energy. C. Living things contain a nucleus and organelles. D. Living things reproduce. E. Living things grow and develop. Not all living things have a nucleus and organelles.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
12.
The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example of
A. metabolism. B. homeostasis. C. response to stimuli. D. development. E. reproduction. Movement in response to sunlight is an example of response to an external stimulus.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate to living organisms. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
13.
Choose the CORRECT order (1-5) of increasing complexity/organization.
A. (1) tissues, (2) organ systems, (3) cells, (4) organs, (5) organism B. (1) cells, (2) organ systems, (3) tissues, (4) organs, (5) organism C. (1) tissues, (2) organs, (3) organ systems, (4) cells, (5) organism D. (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism E. (1) organism, (2) organ systems, (3) organs, (4) tissues, (5) cells The levels of organization include: (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
14.
The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called
A. evolution. B. homeostasis. C. levels of organization. D. biological classification. E. molecular diversification. Evolution is the process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. Section: 01.01 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
15.
The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of
A. homeostasis. B. metabolism. C. evolution. D. reproduction. E. organization. Resistance in MRSA is an example of adaptation and evolution.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. Section: 01.01 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
16.
Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of
A. homeostasis. B. adaptation. C. metabolism. D. development. E. cellular organization. Adaptation provides members of a population with a better chance for survival. Fish scales are an adaptation to their environment.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. Section: 01.01 Topic: General
17.
The Domain Eukarya contain(s) ______ kingdom(s).
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five The four kingdoms in Domain Eukarya include: plants, fungi, animals, and protists.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
18.
Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life?
A. communicative B. cultural C. instructional D. biological E. chemical Cultural activities of humans include traditions, beliefs, and values.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere, and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
19.
The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus. This organism belongs to the domain
A. Bacteria. B. Archaea. C. Eukarya. Only domain Eukarya contains organisms that contain a nucleus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
20.
Which organisms are most closely related to humans?
A. spiders B. earthworms C. parakeets D. meerkats E. snakes All of these are animals. Only snakes, parakeets, and meerkats are vertebrates. Only meerkats are mammals, therefore meerkats are the most closely related to humans.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
21.
A species has been discovered that is able to live in boiling hot springs. This organism most likely belongs to the domain
A. Archaea. B. Bacteria. C. Eukarya. Archaea live in extreme environments.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
True / False Questions
22.
Humans evolved from apes. FALSE Today's apes are our evolutionary cousins. Humans did not evolve from apes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. Section: 01.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
23.
Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically. TRUE Humans are the only animals with this capacity.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.02.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere, and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
Humans clear forests to grow crops, and they build houses and cities. What are these an example of?
A. how humans modify the biosphere B. how humans preserve ecosystems C. the high value humans place on biodiversity D. the positive impact of humans on life on Earth E. how humans do not need the rest of life on Earth These are an example of how humans modify the biosphere, often to their own detriment.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.02.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere, and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Section: 01.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
25.
Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species. TRUE All living things on Earth are part of the biosphere. We are dependent on the rest of the biosphere and must preserve it.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere, and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Section: 01.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
26.
Humans have identified and named almost all of the almost 15 million species on Earth. FALSE Humans have only identified and named under 2 million species on Earth.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.02.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere, and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Section: 01.02 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
________ observations are supported by factual information while _______ observations involve personal judgment.
A. Subjective/analytical B. Objective/analytical C. Objective/subjective D. Objective/hypothetical E. Subjective/theoretical Objective observations are supported by factual information while subjective observations involve personal judgment.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
28.
Which of the following statements is an objective observation?
A. This milk tastes funny. B. This package is larger than that one. C. I like this picture. D. This mattress feels hard to me. E. I think I am going to be sick. Only the observation that one package is larger than another is objective--it can be measured. The rest of the statements rely on personal opinion.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
29.
What is the unifying principle of the biological sciences?
A. Technology B. Anatomy C. Biochemistry D. Taxonomy E. Evolution The unifying principle of the biological sciences is evolution.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
30.
The tentative explanation to be tested is called
A. a theory. B. a hunch. C. a hypothesis. D. the data. E. the conclusion. The hypothesis is a tentative explanation to be tested.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
31.
The information collected during the experiment or observation is called
A. a theory. B. a hunch. C. the hypothesis. D. the data. E. the conclusion. Data includes the information collected during the experiment or an observation.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
32.
Which of the following is not a basic theory of biology?
A. Theory of ecosystems B. Cell theory C. Gene theory D. Theory of evolution E. Theory of gravity The theory of gravity is not a biological theory. The law of gravity is found in physics.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
33.
The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be
A. excess stomach acid. B. the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. C. drinking too much coffee. D. extreme stress. E. diets rich in meat products. The bacterium Helicobacter pylori is a major contributor to stomach ulcers.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
34.
Which of the following statements is a hypothesis?
A. If students buy the university meal plan, then they will eat more vegetables. B. Ginny gained 5 lbs her freshman year. C. Blake failed the test. D. There are more calories in french fries than in colas. E. I like my biology class better than my other classes. If/then statements are often hypotheses. The other statements do not propose something that can be tested.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
35.
A controlled study when neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment, is called a/an
A. statistical study. B. double-blind study. C. variable study. D. adaptive study. E. blind study. In a double-blind study, neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
36.
In an experiment designed to test the effect of temperature on goldfish respiration, the temperatures that were changed represent what type of variable?
A. control B. responding C. experimental D. correlative E. placebo The temperatures are being changed by the researchers and are called the experimental variables.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
37.
The purpose of informed consent is
A. to determine whether a patient is acceptable for a particular study. B. to ensure that the doctor does not know which patient is receiving the treatment. C. to decide whether a patient goes into the test group or the control group. D. to ensure the patient knows the risks and is volunteering. E. to determine whether the treatment works. Informed consent ensures that subjects know details about the research and that their participation is voluntary.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
True / False Questions
38.
If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment was successful. FALSE If the control and test group show the same results, the treatment has no effect and the experiment is invalid.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
39.
To make all subjects think they are receiving the same treatment, patients in the control group can receive a placebo. TRUE A placebo is a treatment that appears to be the same as that administered to the test group but contains no medication.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
40.
One of the difficulties with publication of research in scientific journals is that it
A. is technical and may be difficult for a layperson to read. B. is often out of context or misunderstood. C. is unverified and usually not referenced. D. displays bias. E. is designed to convince readers to purchase a product. Scientific journals are often technical and difficult to read and understand for those outside of the field.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information.
Section: 01.03 Topic: General
41.
Which of the following URLs would you perhaps distrust in writing a scientific paper?
A. .com B. .gov C. .edu D. .org URLs that end in .com often represent companies that are intending to sell you a product and may not present trustworthy information.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03.03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
True / False Questions
42.
An important part of scientific research is repeatability. TRUE Another scientist should be able to repeat the experiment in a different location and get the same, or very similar, results.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03.03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information. Section: 01.03 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
43.
The standard error tells
A. how often the examiner made an error. B. how often the experimental variable was tested. C. the relationship between the control and test groups. D. whether or not the research has been published in a scientific journal. E. how uncertain a particular value is. The standard error is a statistical term that tells how uncertain a particular value is.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.04.03 Recognize the importance of statistical analysis to the study of science. Section: 01.04 Topic: General
True / False Questions
44.
A probability value of less than 5% in a scientific study is acceptable. TRUE This is acceptable, but keep in mind that the lower the p value, the less likely that results are due to chance.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.04.03 Recognize the importance of statistical analysis to the study of science. Section: 01.04 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
45.
Which of the following is an example of correlation without causation?
A. HPV can cause cervical cancer. B. Illegal drug use causes an increase in crime. C. Helicobacter pylori can cause ulcers. D. People who commit crimes also consume bread. E. Parents have children. Many people consume bread and consuming bread does not make you commit crimes.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.04.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph. Section: 01.04 Topic: General
46.
In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the
A. x axis. B. y axis. The experimental variable is plotted on the x or horizontal axis.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.04.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph. Section: 01.04 Topic: General
Yes / No Questions
47.
Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended. Her friend told her that it really helped her. Should Jessica accept this type of evidence? NO No, this is anecdotal, or testimonial evidence, and is not scientifically reliable.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 01.04.01 Explain the difference between anecdotal and testimonial data. Section: 01.04 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
48.
Choose the following interest group that should be held most responsible for the future roles of new scientific technologies.
A. Scientists B. Politicians C. Clergy D. Professionals E. Everyone Everyone should be held responsible for the future roles of new scientific technologies.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.05.02 Discuss the need for the general public to have a general understanding of science and its relationship to society. Section: 01:05 Topic: General
49.
In conducting a review of the literature on the Internet, which of the following sources would be the least reliable?
A. The Centers of Disease Control B. The Cystic Fibrosis Foundation C. The National Institute of Health D. The Pasteur Institute E. Astrology and Medicine The source Astrology and Medicine would be the least reliable.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.04.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph. Section: 01.04 Topic: General
50.
After studying biology, it is hoped that you
A. will become an animal rights activist. B. will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth's. C. will get a high paying job as a biologist. D. will understand all there is to know about humans and biology. E. will dislike anything to do with biology. After studying biology, it is hoped that you will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own wellbeing and the Earth's.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.05.02 Discuss the need for the general public to have a general understanding of science and its relationship to society. Section: 01:05 Topic: General
True / False Questions
51.
Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans. TRUE Technology, the application of scientific knowledge, offers us ways to improve our lives.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.05.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies. Section: 01:05 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
Scientists who have a financial stake in a company are now required to state that when they do research. This is an example of
A. ethics in science. B. financial planning. C. a new business model. D. a biotechnology revolution. E. statistical significance. A scientist who has a vested interest in the success of a product may not be honest in evaluating that product. This is an example of ethics in science.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.05.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies. Section: 01:05 Topic: General
53.
Which of the following statements explains the atomic bomb and the benefit of nuclear physics to cancer therapy?
A. Science and technology are not risk free. B. Science and technology are wrong. C. Science and technology are good for mankind. D. Science and technology are value-neutral. There are often risks and benefits to science and technology.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.05.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies. Section: 01:05 Topic: General
Chapter 01 Exploring Life and Science Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
17
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
18
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
7
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
5
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
6
Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things.
3
Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life.
7
Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate
3
to living organisms. Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution.
3
Learning Outcome: 01.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms.
5
Learning Outcome: 01.02.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere, and the role of culture in shap
6
ing that relationship. Learning Outcome: 01.03.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method.
8
Learning Outcome: 01.03.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test.
5
Learning Outcome: 01.03.03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information.
3
Learning Outcome: 01.04.01 Explain the difference between anecdotal and testimonial data.
1
Learning Outcome: 01.04.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph.
3
Learning Outcome: 01.04.03 Recognize the importance of statistical analysis to the study of science.
2
Learning Outcome: 01.05.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies.
3
Learning Outcome: 01.05.02 Discuss the need for the general public to have a general understanding of science and its re
2
lationship to society. Section: 01.01
16
Section: 01.02
10
Section: 01.03
16
Section: 01.04
6
Section: 01:05
5
Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
4
Topic: Evolution--Darwin
5
Topic: General
44
Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
The smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element is called
A. an isotope. B. a nucleus. C. an atom. D. a molecular bond. E. a neutrino. 2.
In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number
A. of electrons. B. of neutrons. C. of neutron and protons. D. of quarks. E. of neutrinos. 3.
Examine the section of the periodic table in Figure 2.1. Which element will behave similarly to C?
A. Ca B. S C. Ar D. Si E. Mg
4.
How many elements occur naturally?
A. 112 B. 92 C. 64 D. 32 E. 6 5.
The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of
A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons.
True / False Questions
6.
An element cannot be broken down by chemical means. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
Why is He over Ne in the periodic table? (Refer to Figure 2.1)
A. They both have the same atomic mass. B. They both have the same number of electrons in their outermost orbital. C. They both have a full outermost orbital. D. They both have the same atomic number. E. They both have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
8.
Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9. How many protons does it have?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 9 D. 13 9.
What is the symbol for sodium?
A. Na B. S C. So D. N E. Dm 10. An element has its outermost orbital full and contains more than 2 electrons. Which element is this?
A. He B. Ne C. C D. N E. O 11. Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of
A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. both protons and electrons. E. neutrinos.
12. Carbon dating is a common method employed in dating certain kinds of fossils. It is based upon the radioactive decay of an isotope of carbon (C14). Referring to the atomic number of carbon attained from figure 2.1, how many neutrons does C14 have?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 14 13. What is iodine 131, used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues, called?
A. A mixture B. A tracer C. An emulsion D. A colloid E. A sensor
True / False Questions
14. Radiation can produce both positive and negative effects for humans. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
15. A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called
A. an atomic unit. B. a molecule. C. a compound. D. an isotope. E. an ion. 16. Ca3(PO4)2 represents a/an
A. element. B. mixture. C. compound. D. isotope. E. atom. 17. Atoms that share electrons have what type of bonds?
A. covalent B. neutral C. hydrogen D. colloidal E. ionic 18. CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond?
A. covalent B. hydrogen C. polar D. non-polar E. ionic
True / False Questions
19. Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
20. Hydrogen bonds
A. result from the loss of neutrons by an atom. B. result in the formation of salts. C. involve the loss and gain of electrons. D. involve the sharing of electrons. E. are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily. 21. The reason water is polar is because
A. in polar molecules atoms share electrons evenly. B. the oxygen atom is larger than the hydrogen atom. C. hydrophilic molecules interact with water. D. hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water. E. there is a transfer of electrons from the hydrogen to the oxygen. 22. Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic?
A. Water is liquid at room temperature. B. Water has a high heat of vaporization. C. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. D. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. E. Water molecules are cohesive.
23. On a warm day in April, Tina jumped into the swimming pool. To her surprise the water was really cold. Which property of water did she discover?
A. Water molecules are cohesive. B. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C. Water possesses hydrogen bonds. D. Water is a polar molecule. E. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. 24. William noticed blood mysteriously climbing up a capillary tube. This is an example of which property of water?
A. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. B. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C. Water molecules are cohesive. D. Water has a high heat of vaporization. E. Water is a solvent. 25. In an acidic solution
A. the number of H+ is less than the number of OH-. B. the number of H+ is greater than the number of OH-. C. the number of H+ is equal to the number of OH-.
True / False Questions
26. A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. A solution containing 0.00001 moles of H+ has a pH of
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 11
True / False Questions
28. The presence of a buffer in our blood is an example of homeostasis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
29. Joining small molecules (monomers) together to form longer chains (polymers) requires a process called
A. a hydrolysis reaction. B. a dehydration reaction. C. monomerization. D. emulsification. E. disassembly. 30. Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells?
A. vitamins B. lipids C. proteins D. carbohydrates E. nucleic acids
True / False Questions
31. NaCl is not an organic molecule. True
False
32. A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
33. Sugars with three to seven carbon atoms are called
A. monosaccharides. B. disaccharides. C. trisaccharides. D. polysaccharides. E. steroids. 34. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
A. glucose B. fructose C. galactose D. maltose
35. What passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage?
A. Chitin B. Glucose C. Glycogen D. Starch E. Cellulose 36. Which polysaccharide is branched the most?
A. cellulose B. starch C. glycogen
True / False Questions
37. The main function of carbohydrates is for long-term energy storage. True
False
38. Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
39. Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that
A. they are all made of glucose. B. they contain the same number of side chains. C. they have the same types of bonds between the monomer units. D. they are all found in animals. E. they can all be digested by our bodies. 40. A fat contains how many fatty acids?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 41. How are fats, phospholipids, and steroids alike?
A. They are all solid at room temperature. B. They each contain a polar phosphate group. C. They each contain only 1 fatty acid. D. They do not dissolve in water. E. They all contain at least one carbon ring. 42. A fatty acid that contains only single bonds between the carbon atoms is considered
A. saturated. B. unsaturated. C. trans unsaturated.
True / False Questions
43. Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. The sex hormones belong to which category of lipids?
A. steroids B. fats C. oils D. triglycerides E. phospholipids 45. The membranes of cells are composed of
A. phospholipids. B. fats. C. oils. D. steroids. E. triglycerides.
True / False Questions
46. Fats and oils function well as energy-storage molecules because they contain carbon. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
47. The monomer unit of a protein is
A. fatty acids. B. amino acids. C. monosaccharides. D. polysaccharides. E. nucleic acids. 48. What makes each amino acid unique?
A. the central carbon B. the R group C. the amino group D. the carboxyl group 49. Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
A. quick energy B. support C. transport D. enzymes E. motion 50. An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure?
A. secondary B. primary C. tertiary D. quaternary
51. When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction,
A. a peptide bond is formed. B. the R groups are lost. C. water is added to begin the reaction. D. the carboxyl group of each join together. E. the amino group of each join together.
True / False Questions
52. All amino acids are alike in that their R groups are polar. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
53. The sides of the DNA ladder (backbone) are
A. alternating carbons and nitrogens. B. the R groups. C. the nitrogenous bases. D. alternating nitrogens and phosphates. E. sugars and phosphates. 54. When an ATP molecule is used to supply energy, which of the following occurs?
A. a phosphate bond is added B. a phosphate bond is broken C. oxygen is removed D. oxygen is added E. an adenine is added
55. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA?
A. cytosine B. thymine C. uracil D. guanine E. adenine 56. Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?
A. phosphate B. nitrogenous base C. 5 ring sugar D. an R group E. a pentose 57. A species has 29% of its DNA composed of the nucleotide containing guanine (G). What percent does the nitrogen base thymine (T) equal?
A. 58% B. 42% C. 21% D. 67% E. 29% 58. ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy
A. carbohydrate bonds. B. peptide bonds. C. lipid bonds. D. phosphate bonds. E. hydrogen bonds
True / False Questions
59. The function of RNA in the body is to store the genetic information in the nucleus. True
False
60. ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it is a type of electricity. True
False
Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
The smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element is called
A. an isotope. B. a nucleus. C. an atom. D. a molecular bond. E. a neutrino. An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
2.
In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number
A. of electrons. B. of neutrons. C. of neutron and protons. D. of quarks. E. of neutrinos. In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number of electrons.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
3.
Examine the section of the periodic table in Figure 2.1. Which element will behave similarly to C?
A. Ca B. S C. Ar D. Si E. Mg Si or silicon will behave similarly to carbon because they are in the same column.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
4.
How many elements occur naturally?
A. 112 B. 92 C. 64 D. 32 E. 6 There are 92 naturally occurring elements.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
5.
The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of
A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of protons.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
6.
An element cannot be broken down by chemical means. TRUE An element is one of the basic building blocks of matter and cannot be broken down by chemical means.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
Why is He over Ne in the periodic table? (Refer to Figure 2.1)
A. They both have the same atomic mass. B. They both have the same number of electrons in their outermost orbital. C. They both have a full outermost orbital. D. They both have the same atomic number. E. They both have the same number of protons in their nuclei. He has a full outermost orbital with 2 electrons. Ne has a full outermost orbital with 8 electrons.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
8.
Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9. How many protons does it have?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 9 D. 13 The atomic number gives the number of protons, so Be has 4 protons.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
9.
What is the symbol for sodium?
A. Na B. S C. So D. N E. Dm Na (short for natrium) is the symbol for sodium.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
10.
An element has its outermost orbital full and contains more than 2 electrons. Which element is this?
A. He B. Ne C. C D. N E. O He contains 2 electrons and Ne contains 10 electrons. Both have their outermost orbital filled.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
11.
Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of
A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. both protons and electrons. E. neutrinos. Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of neutrons.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
12.
Carbon dating is a common method employed in dating certain kinds of fossils. It is based upon the radioactive decay of an isotope of carbon (C14). Referring to the atomic number of carbon attained from figure 2.1, how many neutrons does C14 have?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 14 Carbon fourteen possesses two more neutrons than carbon twelve, for a total of 8 neutrons.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
13.
What is iodine 131, used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues, called?
A. A mixture B. A tracer C. An emulsion D. A colloid E. A sensor Tracers, such as iodine 131, can be used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
14.
Radiation can produce both positive and negative effects for humans. TRUE Radiation can be used beneficially but can also harm.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
15.
A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called
A. an atomic unit. B. a molecule. C. a compound. D. an isotope. E. an ion. Two or more atoms of the same type that combine are defined as a molecule.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
16.
Ca3(PO4)2 represents a/an
A. element. B. mixture. C. compound. D. isotope. E. atom. Ca3(PO4)2 represents a compound because it is a combination of different atoms.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
17.
Atoms that share electrons have what type of bonds?
A. covalent B. neutral C. hydrogen D. colloidal E. ionic Atoms that share electrons have covalent bonds.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
18.
CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond?
A. covalent B. hydrogen C. polar D. non-polar E. ionic CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of an ionic bond.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
19.
Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight. TRUE Water is the most abundant molecule in living organisms.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
20.
Hydrogen bonds
A. result from the loss of neutrons by an atom. B. result in the formation of salts. C. involve the loss and gain of electrons. D. involve the sharing of electrons. E. are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily. Hydrogen bonds are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily, but are very strong because there are so many of them.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.02.01 Describe how hydrogen bonds are formed. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
21.
The reason water is polar is because
A. in polar molecules atoms share electrons evenly. B. the oxygen atom is larger than the hydrogen atom. C. hydrophilic molecules interact with water. D. hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water. E. there is a transfer of electrons from the hydrogen to the oxygen. Because the oxygen is larger than the hydrogen, the electron spends more time circling the oxygen, and therefore, water is polar.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.01 Describe how hydrogen bonds are formed. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
22.
Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic?
A. Water is liquid at room temperature. B. Water has a high heat of vaporization. C. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. D. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. E. Water molecules are cohesive. Since frozen water is less dense than liquid water, ice, including icebergs, will float in liquid water.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
23.
On a warm day in April, Tina jumped into the swimming pool. To her surprise the water was really cold. Which property of water did she discover?
A. Water molecules are cohesive. B. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C. Water possesses hydrogen bonds. D. Water is a polar molecule. E. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. Water is a good temperature buffer because a great deal of energy is required to raise the temperature of water.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
24.
William noticed blood mysteriously climbing up a capillary tube. This is an example of which property of water?
A. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. B. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C. Water molecules are cohesive. D. Water has a high heat of vaporization. E. Water is a solvent. Water climbing up a capillary tube is an example of the cohesive nature of water.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
25.
In an acidic solution
A. the number of H+ is less than the number of OH-. B. the number of H+ is greater than the number of OH-. C. the number of H+ is equal to the number of OH-. In an acidic solution the number of H+ is greater than the number of OH-.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
26.
A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6. FALSE A pH of 7 actually has 10 times fewer H+ as a pH of 6.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
A solution containing 0.00001 moles of H+ has a pH of
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 11 This (0.00001 moles) is the same as 1 x 10-5 moles, so the pH would be 5.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
28.
The presence of a buffer in our blood is an example of homeostasis. TRUE A buffer maintains the pH within a normal range which is required for homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
29.
Joining small molecules (monomers) together to form longer chains (polymers) requires a process called
A. a hydrolysis reaction. B. a dehydration reaction. C. monomerization. D. emulsification. E. disassembly. Polymerization of monomers into polymers requires a process called a dehydration reaction.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.03.02 Describe the processes by which the organic molecules are assembled and disassembled. Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemistry
30.
Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells?
A. vitamins B. lipids C. proteins D. carbohydrates E. nucleic acids Vitamins are not one of the four categories of organic molecules unique to cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.03.01 List the four classes of organic molecules that are found in cells. Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
31.
NaCl is not an organic molecule. TRUE Organic molecules contain carbon and hydrogen and NaCl does not.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.03.01 List the four classes of organic molecules that are found in cells. Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemistry
32.
A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water. FALSE A hydrolysis reaction involves the addition of water.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.03.02 Describe the processes by which the organic molecules are assembled and disassembled. Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
33.
Sugars with three to seven carbon atoms are called
A. monosaccharides. B. disaccharides. C. trisaccharides. D. polysaccharides. E. steroids. Sugars with only three to seven carbon atoms are called simple sugars or monosaccharides.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.04.01 Summarize the basic chemical properties of a carbohydrate. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
34.
Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
A. glucose B. fructose C. galactose D. maltose All of these are single sugars except maltose which is a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.04.01 Summarize the basic chemical properties of a carbohydrate. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
35.
What passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage?
A. Chitin B. Glucose C. Glycogen D. Starch E. Cellulose Cellulose passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage because we are unable to break it down.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.04.04 Explain the importance of fiber in the diet. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
36.
Which polysaccharide is branched the most?
A. cellulose B. starch C. glycogen Glycogen has more side chains than the others.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 02.04.03 Compare the structure of simple and complex carbohydrates. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
37.
The main function of carbohydrates is for long-term energy storage. FALSE The main function of carbohydrates is for quick and short-term energy storage.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.04.02 State the roles of carbohydrates in human physiology. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
38.
Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen. TRUE We eat starchy foods, and the glucose enters the bloodstream. The liver then can store this glucose as glycogen.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.04.02 State the roles of carbohydrates in human physiology. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
39.
Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that
A. they are all made of glucose. B. they contain the same number of side chains. C. they have the same types of bonds between the monomer units. D. they are all found in animals. E. they can all be digested by our bodies. Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are all made of glucose molecules.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.04.03 Compare the structure of simple and complex carbohydrates. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry
40.
A fat contains how many fatty acids?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 A fat, or triglyceride, contains three fatty acids.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.05.01 Compare the structure of fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
41.
How are fats, phospholipids, and steroids alike?
A. They are all solid at room temperature. B. They each contain a polar phosphate group. C. They each contain only 1 fatty acid. D. They do not dissolve in water. E. They all contain at least one carbon ring. All lipids are insoluble in water.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.05.01 Compare the structure of fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
42.
A fatty acid that contains only single bonds between the carbon atoms is considered
A. saturated. B. unsaturated. C. trans unsaturated. If all the carbon atoms are connected by single bonds, the fatty acid is considered saturated.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.05.01 Compare the structure of fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
43.
Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin. TRUE Fats, such as lard and butter, are of animal origin, while oils, such as corn oil and soybean oil, are of plant origin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.05.01 Compare the structure of fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
The sex hormones belong to which category of lipids?
A. steroids B. fats C. oils D. triglycerides E. phospholipids The sex hormones are steroids.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.05.02 State the function of each class of lipids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
45.
The membranes of cells are composed of
A. phospholipids. B. fats. C. oils. D. steroids. E. triglycerides. Membranes are bilayers of phospholipids.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.05.02 State the function of each class of lipids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
46.
Fats and oils function well as energy-storage molecules because they contain carbon. FALSE Fats and oils function well as energy-storage molecules because they contain more energy per gram than other biological molecules. All organic molecules contain carbon.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.05.02 State the function of each class of lipids. Section: 02.05 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
47.
The monomer unit of a protein is
A. fatty acids. B. amino acids. C. monosaccharides. D. polysaccharides. E. nucleic acids. Proteins are composed of amino acids.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.06.02 Explain how amino acids are combined to form proteins. Section: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry
48.
What makes each amino acid unique?
A. the central carbon B. the R group C. the amino group D. the carboxyl group The R group for each amino acid is unique.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.06.01 Describe the structure of an amino acid. Section: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry
49.
Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
A. quick energy B. support C. transport D. enzymes E. motion Carbohydrates, not proteins, serve as a source of quick energy.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.06.03 Summarize the four levels of protein structure. Section: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry
50.
An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure?
A. secondary B. primary C. tertiary D. quaternary The secondary structure of a protein can be an alpha helix or a beta sheet.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.06.03 Summarize the four levels of protein structure. Section: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry
51.
When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction,
A. a peptide bond is formed. B. the R groups are lost. C. water is added to begin the reaction. D. the carboxyl group of each join together. E. the amino group of each join together. When two amino acids form a dipeptide, a peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group of one and the amino group of the other.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.06.02 Explain how amino acids are combined to form proteins. Section: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
52.
All amino acids are alike in that their R groups are polar. FALSE The R groups of an amino acid can be polar or nonpolar.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.06.01 Describe the structure of an amino acid. Section: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions
53.
The sides of the DNA ladder (backbone) are
A. alternating carbons and nitrogens. B. the R groups. C. the nitrogenous bases. D. alternating nitrogens and phosphates. E. sugars and phosphates. Sugars and phosphates make up the sides of the DNA ladder.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
54.
When an ATP molecule is used to supply energy, which of the following occurs?
A. a phosphate bond is added B. a phosphate bond is broken C. oxygen is removed D. oxygen is added E. an adenine is added A phosphate bond is broken when ATP is converted to ADP + phosphate + energy.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
55.
Which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA?
A. cytosine B. thymine C. uracil D. guanine E. adenine Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
56.
Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?
A. phosphate B. nitrogenous base C. 5 ring sugar D. an R group E. a pentose R groups are found in amino acids, not nucleotides.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
57.
A species has 29% of its DNA composed of the nucleotide containing guanine (G). What percent does the nitrogen base thymine (T) equal?
A. 58% B. 42% C. 21% D. 67% E. 29% Since G pairs with C and A pairs with T, the amount of the base thymine (T) would equal 21%.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
58.
ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy
A. carbohydrate bonds. B. peptide bonds. C. lipid bonds. D. phosphate bonds. E. hydrogen bonds ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy phosphate bonds.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
True / False Questions
59.
The function of RNA in the body is to store the genetic information in the nucleus. FALSE The function of DNA is to store genetic information in the nucleus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
60.
ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it is a type of electricity. FALSE ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it can be spent (like money or currency) to facilitate reactions.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.07.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions. Section: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry
Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
19
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
16
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
6
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
14
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
5
Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements.
5
Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom.
5
Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology.
4
Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds.
4
Learning Outcome: 02.02.01 Describe how hydrogen bonds are formed.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water.
4
Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological system
4
s. Learning Outcome: 02.03.01 List the four classes of organic molecules that are found in cells.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.03.02 Describe the processes by which the organic molecules are assembled and disassembled.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.04.01 Summarize the basic chemical properties of a carbohydrate.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.04.02 State the roles of carbohydrates in human physiology.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.04.03 Compare the structure of simple and complex carbohydrates.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.04.04 Explain the importance of fiber in the diet.
1
Learning Outcome: 02.05.01 Compare the structure of fats, phospholipids, and steroids.
4
Learning Outcome: 02.05.02 State the function of each class of lipids.
3
Learning Outcome: 02.06.01 Describe the structure of an amino acid.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.06.02 Explain how amino acids are combined to form proteins.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.06.03 Summarize the four levels of protein structure.
2
Learning Outcome: 02.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA.
5
Learning Outcome: 02.07.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions.
3
Section: 02.01
18
Section: 02.02
10
Section: 02.03
4
Section: 02.04
7
Section: 02.05
7
Section: 02.06
6
Section: 02.07
8
Topic: Chemistry
60
Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
________ are the fundamental units that make up all living things.
A. Compartments B. Cells C. Chromosomes D. Coelom E. Cristae 2.
The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its
A. extracellular matrix. B. function. C. nuclear size. D. surface area-to-volume ratio. E. genome size. 3.
Whose work proved conclusively that spontaneous generation of life from nonlife was not possible?
A. Louis Pasteur B. Charles Darwin C. John Ray D. Walther Flemming E. Georges Cuvier
4.
The reason that metabolizing cells are small in size is because
A. cells influence nearby cells to divide. B. the surface area of a cell must be able to accomplish nutrient/waste exchange. C. cells need to dissipate heat effectively. D. mitosis occurs before cells reach a certain size. E. cells need to communicate with adjacent cells. 5.
In developing embryos such as a chick, what restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements?
A. respiration B. catabolism C. anabolism D. cell division E. assimilation 6.
If a cell has a volume of 3nm, what are the surface area and the volume of the cell?
A. 24nm2, 8nm3 B. 38nm2, 16nm3 C. 54nm2, 27nm3 D. 64nm2, 24nm3 E. 18nm2, 6nm3 7.
What is the name of a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope?
A. negative B. dermatome C. thermograph D. micrograph E. chromatograph
8.
Viruses are not made up of cells. According to cell theory, this means what?
A. Viruses can cause disease. B. Cells come only from pre-existing cells. C. Cells can be infected by viruses. D. Viruses are not living. E. Cells and viruses are the same thing. 9.
Brett needs to distinguish two points that are 0.5 mm apart. What is the easiest way to do this?
A. Use an electron microscope. B. Use a light microscope. C. Use his eyes. 10. The light microscope has a resolving power of
A. 0.1 mm. B. 0.01 mm. C. 0.0001 mm. D. 0.000001 mm. E. 0.00000001 mm. 11. What type of microscopy provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object?
A. compound light microscope B. transmission electron microscope C. scanning electron microscope D. phase contrast microscope E. ultraviolet microscope 12. Angela would like to look at living algae from pond water. What type of microscope should she use?
A. compound light microscope B. transmission electron microscope C. scanning electron microscope
True / False Questions
13. Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--animals and plants. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
14. Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A. plasma membrane B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi body E. mitochondria
True / False Questions
15. Because bacteria are prokaryotes, they do not have DNA. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
16. The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a
A. plasma membrane. B. Sanger enclosure. C. hydrophobic membrane. D. dialysis membrane. E. mosaic membrane. 17. What is the name of the semifluid medium inside the cell?
A. nucleolus B. cytoplasm C. organelle D. cytoskeleton E. mitochondrion
True / False Questions
18. The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
19. The plasma membrane contains how many layers of phospholipids?
A. one B. two C. four D. eight E. sixteen
20. Paleontologists have discovered ancient prokaryotic fossils dated at over 3.5 billion years old. These fossils resemble prokaryotes that are capable of living in extreme conditions such as high temperature and salinity. What domain do these prokaryotes belong to?
A. Protists B. Protoctista C. Archaea D. Archetista E. Eukarya 21. All of the following are possible origins of cell organelles in eukaryotes EXCEPT
A. invagination of the plasma membrane to form endoplasmic reticulum. B. incorporation of engulfed heterotrophic bacteria to form mitochondria. C. incorporation of engulfed autotrophic cyanobacteria to form chloroplasts. D. a symbiotic relationship between a host cell and a prokaryote that was taken up but not destroyed. E. groups of prokaryotic cells begin to live in a small group sharing products of metabolism.
True / False Questions
22. Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
23. In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane, the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the _____________ heads are facing the outside environment and the ________________ tails are facing the interior of the membrane.
A. hydrophobic, hydrophilic B. hydrophilic, hydrophobic C. autotrophic, heterotrophic D. heterotrophic, autotrophic E. ectothermic, endothermic 24. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A. determines which substances enter and leave the cell B. serves as a boundary between the cell and its environment C. contains receptor sites which determine how the cell interacts with its environment D. contains the genetic information E. mark the cell as belonging to a particular individual 25. Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?
A. endosymbiont model B. fluid-mosaic model C. plasmagel-plasmasol model D. lock and key model E. induced-fit model 26. A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called
A. a protomembrane. B. a protosugar. C. a glycocalyx. D. a glycolipid. E. a glycoprotein.
27. Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability?
A. gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide B. ions C. large, polar molecules D. large, nonpolar molecules E. glycoproteins 28. The diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called
A. denaturation. B. osmosis. C. dispersion. D. dissociation. E. reconstitution. 29. During a hurricane, salt water invades fresh water marshes causing many of the plants to die. The plants are killed because the salt water solution is __________________ to the plants, drawing water from their cells.
A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. mesotonic D. oligotonic E. hypertonic 30. What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?
A. cell marker B. receptor C. support D. channel E. enzyme
31. A solution is at equilibrium across a plasma membrane. If 50 molecules enter the cell, how many molecules exit the cell?
A. 50 B. more than 50 C. fewer than 50 32. Often when a person is admitted to the hospital, an intravenous solution of normal saline is begun. Since this does not harm the patient, what is the tonicity of normal saline compared to your blood?
A. hypertonic B. isotonic C. hypotonic 33. A certain substance continues to enter the cell in the presence of a metabolic poison that disables the generation of energy by the cell. Where is the higher concentration of the substance?
A. outside the cell B. inside the cell 34. Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside the cell.
A. In a hypertonic solution, there are more particles inside the cell. B. In a hypotonic solution, there are more particles outside the cell. C. In an isotonic solution the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal. D. In a hypertonic solution, there is more water outside the cell. E. In a hypotonic solution, there is more water inside the cell. 35. Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened in the red blood cells?
A. The cells shrunk. B. The cells burst. C. The cells did not change.
36. The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy is known as what?
A. diffusion B. facilitated transport C. active transport D. osmosis E. crenation
True / False Questions
37. In the sodium potassium pump, sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
38. Which of the following does not utilize active transport?
A. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood B. concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland C. absorbing sugar in the gut D. water homeostasis in the kidneys E. movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells
39. Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with it's false feet or pseudopods. This process is known as
A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. facilitated transport. E. osmosis.
True / False Questions
40. During exocytosis, the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the plasma membrane. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Which of the following processes moves large molecules across a membrane in the opposite direction of the others?
A. exocytosis B. phagocytosis C. pinocytosis D. receptor-mediated endocytosis E. endocytosis
42. What cell structure is composed of a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion?
A. mitochondria B. vacuoles C. Golgi apparatus D. lysosomes E. endoplasmic reticulum 43. What is the obvious dark-stained structure within the nucleus that contains ribosomal RNA called?
A. nucleus B. nucleolus C. nuclear envelope D. nucleoplasm E. endoplasmic reticulum 44. The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is composed of
A. phospholipids. B. DNA and proteins. C. nucleoplasm. D. ribosomes. E. mitochondria.
True / False Questions
45. The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in your brain. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
46. How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope?
A. larger than a ribosome B. larger than the Golgi apparatus C. larger than the endoplasmic reticulum D. smaller than a ribosome E. smaller than a protein 47. If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to
A. form a spindle apparatus. B. synthesize proteins. C. respire oxidatively. D. break down fats. E. produce ATP. 48. What do the SER and RER have in common?
A. the presence of ribosomes B. the formation of transport vesicles C. the synthesis of phospholipids D. the synthesis of proteins E. the processing and modification of proteins 49. Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Golgi apparatus? If the Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then
A. vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. B. vesicles must travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus. C. the Golgi apparatus must be part of the endomembrane system. D. the Golgi apparatus must consist of 3 to 20 slightly curved sacs. E. the Golgi apparatus would contain proteins.
50. Which organelle can be likened to a post office?
A. nucleus B. nucleolus C. mitochondria D. endoplasmic reticulum E. Golgi apparatus 51. What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells?
A. nuclei B. nucleoli C. Golgi apparati D. lysosomes E. ribosomes 52. Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton?
A. intermediate filaments B. microtubules C. microbodies D. actin filaments E. centrosome 53. Centrosomes are associated with
A. ribosomes. B. mitochondria. C. chromosomes. D. microtubules. E. lysosomes.
54. Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton?
A. maintain a cell's shape B. process proteins C. anchor organelles D. move organelles E. move the entire cell
True / False Questions
55. A microtubule poison would interfere with mitosis and meiosis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
56. Which of the following diseases would you expect in someone with malfunctioning cilia?
A. recurrent respiratory infections B. heart attack C. urinary infections D. muscle paralysis E. brittle bones 57.
Why type of junction must there be between the cells of your bladder?
A. adhesion junctions B. gap junctions C. tight junctions D. channel junctions E. free junctions
True / False Questions
58. Cilia are composed of microtubules while flagella are composed of actin filaments. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
59. In an experiment in the laboratory, a small colored molecule is injected into one cells. Within minutes, the molecule has entered the adjacent cells. What type of junction connects these cells?
A. gap junctions B. free junctions C. adhesion junctions D. tight junctions E. actin junctions 60. What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called?
A. matrix B. cristae C. rugae D. lumen E. villi
61. The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the
A. matrix. B. cristae. C. rugae. D. effluvium. E. villi. 62. The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called
A. respiration. B. anabolism. C. photosynthesis. D. metabolism. E. reaction summary. 63. In a metabolic pathway, substrate Z is broken down to form product Y and X. Y is further broken down into products V and W. How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 64. Why is glycolysis believed to have evolved early in the history of life?
A. It breaks down sugar. B. It produces energy. C. It is present in most every type of cell. D. It does not require oxygen. E. It splits a 6-carbon molecule into two 3-carbon molecules.
65. Which of the following processes in the breakdown of glucose does not require oxygen?
A. glycolysis B. citric acid cycle C. electron transport chain
True / False Questions
66. Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
67. The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. The players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a __________________ build up in their muscles.
A. glucose B. alcohol C. carbon dioxide D. carbon monoxide E. lactate
True / False Questions
68. Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration, all living cells must contain mitochondria. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
69. If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis, what membrane of the mitochondrion represents the engulfing vesicle?
A. the outer mitochondrial membrane B. vacuole C. cristae D. matrix E. grana
True / False Questions
70. Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration. True
False
71. When ATP is broken down, heat is released. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
72. If you could remove all the phosphate in the cell, what would happen to the ATP cycle?
A. It would stop when all the ATP had been converted into ADP. B. It would stop when all the ADP had been converted into ATP. C. It would cycle faster because the lack of phosphate would drive the cycle. D. It would cycle faster because of the buildup of ATP. E. It would not affect the ATP cycle.
Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
________ are the fundamental units that make up all living things.
A. Compartments B. Cells C. Chromosomes D. Coelom E. Cristae Cells are the basic unit of structure and function of all living things.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
2.
The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its
A. extracellular matrix. B. function. C. nuclear size. D. surface area-to-volume ratio. E. genome size. The surface area of a cell reflects the ability to exchange materials and the volume reflects the cell's metabolic needs. As the volume increases in cells, the surface area decreases.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
3.
Whose work proved conclusively that spontaneous generation of life from nonlife was not possible?
A. Louis Pasteur B. Charles Darwin C. John Ray D. Walther Flemming E. Georges Cuvier Louis Pasteur proved that the spontaneous generation of life was not possible in 1864.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
4.
The reason that metabolizing cells are small in size is because
A. cells influence nearby cells to divide. B. the surface area of a cell must be able to accomplish nutrient/waste exchange. C. cells need to dissipate heat effectively. D. mitosis occurs before cells reach a certain size. E. cells need to communicate with adjacent cells. Cells stay small because the surface area of a cell is important in the exchange of materials.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
5.
In developing embryos such as a chick, what restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements?
A. respiration B. catabolism C. anabolism D. cell division E. assimilation Cell division restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
6.
If a cell has a volume of 3nm, what are the surface area and the volume of the cell?
A. 24nm2, 8nm3 B. 38nm2, 16nm3 C. 54nm2, 27nm3 D. 64nm2, 24nm3 E. 18nm2, 6nm3 The surface area is 6 x 3 nm x 3 nm or 54nm2. The volume is 3 nm x 3 nm x 3 nm or 27nm3.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
7.
What is the name of a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope?
A. negative B. dermatome C. thermograph D. micrograph E. chromatograph A micrograph is a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
8.
Viruses are not made up of cells. According to cell theory, this means what?
A. Viruses can cause disease. B. Cells come only from pre-existing cells. C. Cells can be infected by viruses. D. Viruses are not living. E. Cells and viruses are the same thing. The cell theory states that all living things are made of cells. Therefore, anything not made of cells is not living.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.01.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
9.
Brett needs to distinguish two points that are 0.5 mm apart. What is the easiest way to do this?
A. Use an electron microscope. B. Use a light microscope. C. Use his eyes. The human eye is capable of resolving two points 0.1 mm apart, so he can distinguish these two points with his eyes.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
10.
The light microscope has a resolving power of
A. 0.1 mm. B. 0.01 mm. C. 0.0001 mm. D. 0.000001 mm. E. 0.00000001 mm. The light microscope has a resolving power of 0.0001 mm.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
11.
What type of microscopy provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object?
A. compound light microscope B. transmission electron microscope C. scanning electron microscope D. phase contrast microscope E. ultraviolet microscope The scanning electron microscope (SEM) provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
12.
Angela would like to look at living algae from pond water. What type of microscope should she use?
A. compound light microscope B. transmission electron microscope C. scanning electron microscope Only the compound light microscope can be used to look at living specimens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
13.
Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--animals and plants. FALSE Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--the prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 03.02.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
14.
Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A. plasma membrane B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi body E. mitochondria Only the plasma membrane is present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
15.
Because bacteria are prokaryotes, they do not have DNA. FALSE Because bacteria are prokaryotes, they do not have a nucleus, but they do have DNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
16.
The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a
A. plasma membrane. B. Sanger enclosure. C. hydrophobic membrane. D. dialysis membrane. E. mosaic membrane. The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called the plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.02.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
17.
What is the name of the semifluid medium inside the cell?
A. nucleolus B. cytoplasm C. organelle D. cytoskeleton E. mitochondrion The cytoplasm is the semi-fluid internal medium found within the cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.02.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
18.
The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle. TRUE An organelle is any well-defined subcellular structure, so the cytoplasm is not an organelle. However, the cytoplasm does contain organelles.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.02.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
19.
The plasma membrane contains how many layers of phospholipids?
A. one B. two C. four D. eight E. sixteen The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer, so it consists of two layers of phospholipids.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
20.
Paleontologists have discovered ancient prokaryotic fossils dated at over 3.5 billion years old. These fossils resemble prokaryotes that are capable of living in extreme conditions such as high temperature and salinity. What domain do these prokaryotes belong to?
A. Protists B. Protoctista C. Archaea D. Archetista E. Eukarya It is believed that the ancient prokaryotic cells were members of domain Archaea.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.02.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. Section: 03.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
21.
All of the following are possible origins of cell organelles in eukaryotes EXCEPT
A. invagination of the plasma membrane to form endoplasmic reticulum. B. incorporation of engulfed heterotrophic bacteria to form mitochondria. C. incorporation of engulfed autotrophic cyanobacteria to form chloroplasts. D. a symbiotic relationship between a host cell and a prokaryote that was taken up but not destroyed. E. groups of prokaryotic cells begin to live in a small group sharing products of metabolism. Groups of prokaryotic cells do live together in groups and share products of metabolism but this is not considered part of how the first eukaryotic cells came to be.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.02.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. Section: 03.02 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
22.
Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells. TRUE The eukaryotic cell is believed to have evolved from the archaea.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. Section: 03.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
Multiple Choice Questions
23.
In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane, the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the _____________ heads are facing the outside environment and the ________________ tails are facing the interior of the membrane.
A. hydrophobic, hydrophilic B. hydrophilic, hydrophobic C. autotrophic, heterotrophic D. heterotrophic, autotrophic E. ectothermic, endothermic In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane, the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the hydrophilic heads are facing the outside environment and the hydrophobic tails are facing the interior of the membrane.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
24.
Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A. determines which substances enter and leave the cell B. serves as a boundary between the cell and its environment C. contains receptor sites which determine how the cell interacts with its environment D. contains the genetic information E. mark the cell as belonging to a particular individual The nucleus contains the genetic information. All of the rest are functions of the plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
25.
Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?
A. endosymbiont model B. fluid-mosaic model C. plasmagel-plasmasol model D. lock and key model E. induced-fit model The fluid-mosaic model is the current model of the membrane structure of a cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
26.
A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called
A. a protomembrane. B. a protosugar. C. a glycocalyx. D. a glycolipid. E. a glycoprotein. A short chain of sugar attached to a protein is called a glycoprotein.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
27.
Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability?
A. gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide B. ions C. large, polar molecules D. large, nonpolar molecules E. glycoproteins Gases and non-polar molecules can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.02 Distinguish between diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in the cell. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
28.
The diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called
A. denaturation. B. osmosis. C. dispersion. D. dissociation. E. reconstitution. Osmosis is a diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.02 Distinguish between diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in the cell. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
29.
During a hurricane, salt water invades fresh water marshes causing many of the plants to die. The plants are killed because the salt water solution is __________________ to the plants, drawing water from their cells.
A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. mesotonic D. oligotonic E. hypertonic
The salt water is a hypertonic solution which can cause the death of the marsh plants by drawing water out of their cells.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
30.
What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?
A. cell marker B. receptor C. support D. channel E. enzyme Molecules of cholesterol add support to the plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
31.
A solution is at equilibrium across a plasma membrane. If 50 molecules enter the cell, how many molecules exit the cell?
A. 50 B. more than 50 C. fewer than 50 The definition of equilibrium is as many molecules enter as leave the cell.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.03.02 Distinguish between diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in the cell. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
32.
Often when a person is admitted to the hospital, an intravenous solution of normal saline is begun. Since this does not harm the patient, what is the tonicity of normal saline compared to your blood?
A. hypertonic B. isotonic C. hypotonic Normal saline is isotonic to red blood cells in your blood.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 03.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
33.
A certain substance continues to enter the cell in the presence of a metabolic poison that disables the generation of energy by the cell. Where is the higher concentration of the substance?
A. outside the cell B. inside the cell Since active transport cannot be responsible for the movement of the substance into the cell, it must be following its concentration gradient. Therefore, it is more concentrated outside the cell.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.03.04 Compare passive- and active-transport mechanisms. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
34.
Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside the cell.
A. In a hypertonic solution, there are more particles inside the cell. B. In a hypotonic solution, there are more particles outside the cell. C. In an isotonic solution the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal. D. In a hypertonic solution, there is more water outside the cell. E. In a hypotonic solution, there is more water inside the cell. In isotonic solutions the water is equal inside and outside the cell.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
35.
Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened in the red blood cells?
A. The cells shrunk. B. The cells burst. C. The cells did not change. Cells placed in pure water would swell until they burst.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
36.
The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy is known as what?
A. diffusion B. facilitated transport C. active transport D. osmosis E. crenation Facilitated transport is the assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.04 Compare passive- and active-transport mechanisms. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
37.
In the sodium potassium pump, sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport. FALSE Sodium is pumped out of the cell while potassium is pumped into the cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.04 Compare passive- and active-transport mechanisms. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
Which of the following does not utilize active transport?
A. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood B. concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland C. absorbing sugar in the gut D. water homeostasis in the kidneys E. movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells Oxygen crosses the plasma membrane by simple diffusion. The rest utilize active transport.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.03.04 Compare passive- and active-transport mechanisms. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
39.
Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with it's false feet or pseudopods. This process is known as
A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. facilitated transport. E. osmosis. Phagocytosis involves the engulfing of an object by a cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
40.
During exocytosis, the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the plasma membrane. TRUE During exocytosis, the vesicle membrane fuses with the plasma membrane, so the phospholipids of the vesicle will end up in the plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.03.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Which of the following processes moves large molecules across a membrane in the opposite direction of the others?
A. exocytosis B. phagocytosis C. pinocytosis D. receptor-mediated endocytosis E. endocytosis Exocytosis moves substances out of the cell, while all the others move substances into the cell.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.03.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure
42.
What cell structure is composed of a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion?
A. mitochondria B. vacuoles C. Golgi apparatus D. lysosomes E. endoplasmic reticulum The Golgi apparatus is a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
43.
What is the obvious dark-stained structure within the nucleus that contains ribosomal RNA called?
A. nucleus B. nucleolus C. nuclear envelope D. nucleoplasm E. endoplasmic reticulum The nucleolus is an obvious dark-stained, RNA-rich structure housed in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.04.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
44.
The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is composed of
A. phospholipids. B. DNA and proteins. C. nucleoplasm. D. ribosomes. E. mitochondria. The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is chromatin, a combination of DNA molecules and proteins.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.04.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
45.
The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in your brain. TRUE Every cell in the body contains the same genes.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.04.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
46.
How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope?
A. larger than a ribosome B. larger than the Golgi apparatus C. larger than the endoplasmic reticulum D. smaller than a ribosome E. smaller than a protein Nuclear pores must be larger than a ribosome in order to allow ribosomes to exit the nucleus. Proteins can also exit through the pores. The Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum are far larger than the nuclear pores.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.04.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
47.
If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to
A. form a spindle apparatus. B. synthesize proteins. C. respire oxidatively. D. break down fats. E. produce ATP. If a cell lacked ribosomes it would not be able to engage in protein synthesis.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.04.03 Explain the role and location of the ribosomes. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
48.
What do the SER and RER have in common?
A. the presence of ribosomes B. the formation of transport vesicles C. the synthesis of phospholipids D. the synthesis of proteins E. the processing and modification of proteins Both the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum form transport vesicles.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
49.
Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Golgi apparatus? If the Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then
A. vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. B. vesicles must travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus. C. the Golgi apparatus must be part of the endomembrane system. D. the Golgi apparatus must consist of 3 to 20 slightly curved sacs. E. the Golgi apparatus would contain proteins. In order to be secretory, vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. Although vesicles do travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus, this does not apply to secretion, only to intracellular transport. The Golgi apparatus is part of the endomembrane system, does consist of 3-20 slightly curved sacs, and does contain proteins, but none of these apply to a secretory function.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
50.
Which organelle can be likened to a post office?
A. nucleus B. nucleolus C. mitochondria D. endoplasmic reticulum E. Golgi apparatus The Golgi apparatus is involved in processing, packaging, and secretion.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
51.
What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells?
A. nuclei B. nucleoli C. Golgi apparati D. lysosomes E. ribosomes Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes and are particular numerous in phagocytic white blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. Section: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure
52.
Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton?
A. intermediate filaments B. microtubules C. microbodies D. actin filaments E. centrosome Microbodies are not a part of the cytoskeleton.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.05.02 List the major protein fibers in the cytoskeleton. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
53.
Centrosomes are associated with
A. ribosomes. B. mitochondria. C. chromosomes. D. microtubules. E. lysosomes. Centrosomes are responsible for the regulation of microtubule assembly.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.05.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
54.
Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton?
A. maintain a cell's shape B. process proteins C. anchor organelles D. move organelles E. move the entire cell The cytoskeleton is not responsible for the processing of proteins.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.05.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
55.
A microtubule poison would interfere with mitosis and meiosis. TRUE Microtubules form spindle fibers during mitosis and meiosis, which assist the movement of chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.05.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
56.
Which of the following diseases would you expect in someone with malfunctioning cilia?
A. recurrent respiratory infections B. heart attack C. urinary infections D. muscle paralysis E. brittle bones The lack of cilia on the cells that line the respiratory tract would result in recurrent respiratory infections.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.05.03 State the role of flagella and cilia in human cells. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
57.
Why type of junction must there be between the cells of your bladder?
A. adhesion junctions B. gap junctions C. tight junctions D. channel junctions E. free junctions Tight junctions are necessary to contain fluids within a specific area.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.05.04 Compare the function of adhesion junctions, gap junctions, and tight junctions in human cells. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
58.
Cilia are composed of microtubules while flagella are composed of actin filaments. FALSE Both cilia and flagella are composed of microtubules.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.05.03 State the role of flagella and cilia in human cells. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
59.
In an experiment in the laboratory, a small colored molecule is injected into one cells. Within minutes, the molecule has entered the adjacent cells. What type of junction connects these cells?
A. gap junctions B. free junctions C. adhesion junctions D. tight junctions E. actin junctions Gap junctions serve as communication portals between cells, allowing easy movement between adjacent cells.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.05.04 Compare the function of adhesion junctions, gap junctions, and tight junctions in human cells. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure
60.
What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called?
A. matrix B. cristae C. rugae D. lumen E. villi The folds in the mitochondria are known as cristae.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cell Structure
61.
The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the
A. matrix. B. cristae. C. rugae. D. effluvium. E. villi. The matrix of the mitochondrion is a gel-like fluid.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cell Structure
62.
The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called
A. respiration. B. anabolism. C. photosynthesis. D. metabolism. E. reaction summary. Metabolism includes the sum of the chemical reactions that occur within a cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-generating pathways of the cell. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism
63.
In a metabolic pathway, substrate Z is broken down to form product Y and X. Y is further broken down into products V and W. How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five Two enzymes are needed: one to break down Z and one to break down Y.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-generating pathways of the cell. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism
64.
Why is glycolysis believed to have evolved early in the history of life?
A. It breaks down sugar. B. It produces energy. C. It is present in most every type of cell. D. It does not require oxygen. E. It splits a 6-carbon molecule into two 3-carbon molecules. Glycolysis is found in most every type of cell, therefore, it must have evolved early in the history of life.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration
65.
Which of the following processes in the breakdown of glucose does not require oxygen?
A. glycolysis B. citric acid cycle C. electron transport chain Glycolysis is anaerobic, because it requires no oxygen.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration
True / False Questions
66.
Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body. FALSE Other sugars as well as fats and proteins can be used as possible fuel for cellular respiration.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration
Multiple Choice Questions
67.
The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. The players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a __________________ build up in their muscles.
A. glucose B. alcohol C. carbon dioxide D. carbon monoxide E. lactate The reason for cramps and sore muscles complaints was that there was a lactate build up in their muscles due to anaerobic exercise.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration
True / False Questions
68.
Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration, all living cells must contain mitochondria. FALSE Prokaryotic cells carry out cellular respiration but they do not contain mitochondria. The elements of the respiratory pathway are present in the plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-generating pathways of the cell. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration
Multiple Choice Questions
69.
If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis, what membrane of the mitochondrion represents the engulfing vesicle?
A. the outer mitochondrial membrane B. vacuole C. cristae D. matrix E. grana The outer mitochondrial membrane would come from the engulfing vesicle. The cristae is the inner mitochondrial membrane and would have represented the original prokaryotic membrane.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cell Structure
True / False Questions
70.
Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration. FALSE Fermentation only produces 2 ATP while aerobic respiration produces 32 ATP.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration
71.
When ATP is broken down, heat is released. TRUE ATP breakdown releases heat and energy that can be used for metabolic work.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.04 Illustrate the stages of the ATP cycle.
Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism
Multiple Choice Questions
72.
If you could remove all the phosphate in the cell, what would happen to the ATP cycle?
A. It would stop when all the ATP had been converted into ADP. B. It would stop when all the ADP had been converted into ATP. C. It would cycle faster because the lack of phosphate would drive the cycle. D. It would cycle faster because of the buildup of ATP. E. It would not affect the ATP cycle. Without phosphate, ADP cannot be converted back to ATP. So the cycle would stop when all the ATP had been converted to ADP.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.06.04 Illustrate the stages of the ATP cycle. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism
Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
29
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
18
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
6
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
13
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
6
Learning Outcome: 03.01.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size.
4
Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells.
5
Learning Outcome: 03.02.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function.
4
Learning Outcome: 03.02.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.02.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the memb
5
rane. Learning Outcome: 03.03.02 Distinguish between diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in
3
the cell. Learning Outcome: 03.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane.
4
Learning Outcome: 03.03.04 Compare passive- and active-transport mechanisms.
4
Learning Outcome: 03.03.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.04.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic inform
4
ation. Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system.
5
Learning Outcome: 03.04.03 Explain the role and location of the ribosomes.
1
Learning Outcome: 03.05.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.05.02 List the major protein fibers in the cytoskeleton.
1
Learning Outcome: 03.05.03 State the role of flagella and cilia in human cells.
2
Learning Outcome: 03.05.04 Compare the function of adhesion junctions, gap junctions, and tight junctions in human cells
2
. Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion.
3
Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-
3
generating pathways of the cell. Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation
5
in energy generation. Learning Outcome: 03.06.04 Illustrate the stages of the ATP cycle.
2
Section: 03.01
12
Section: 03.02
10
Section: 03.03
19
Section: 03.04
10
Section: 03.05
8
Section: 03.06
13
Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
2
Topic: Cell Structure
60
Topic: Cellular Respiration
6
Topic: Metabolism
4
Chapter 04 Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Specialized cells that work together to perform a common function are called
A. membranes. B. organs. C. tissues. D. glands. E. organisms. 2.
Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type?
A. epithelial B. connective C. muscle D. nervous E. fat 3.
Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities?
A. epithelial tissue B. connective tissue C. muscular tissue D. nervous tissue E. vascular tissue
4.
Jacob looked up and saw the car. This information was relayed to him via what type of tissue?
A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscular D. Nervous E. Vascular 5.
Which of the following cells would have a greater probability of developing into cancer?
A. brain cells B. neurons C. epithelial cells D. muscle cells E. liver cells 6.
Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called
A. carcinomas. B. sarcomas. C. leukemias. D. lymphomas. E. blastomas. 7.
The three major components of connective tissue are
A. cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers. B. cells, fat, and protein fibers. C. cells, ground substance, and protein fibers. D. cells, ground substance, and enzymes. E. ground substance, enzymes, and protein fibers.
8.
What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues?
A. actin B. collagen C. keratin D. fibrinogen E. myosin 9.
It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome. Which type of fiber is affected in this disorder?
A. elastic fibers B. reticular fibers C. collagen fibers D. hyaline fibers E. ground fibers 10. What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?
A. bone and blood B. fibroblasts and matrix C. hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage D. adipose and cartilage E. loose fibrous and dense fibrous 11. Alison was looking at a tissue under the microscope. It had cells within lacuna and the matrix was glassy looking. What type of tissue is she looking at?
A. blood B. bone C. cartilage D. adipose E. areolar
12. Todd's father slipped a disk in his back. Dr. Foster explained to the family that the intervertebral disks are composed of
A. elastic cartilage. B. hyaline cartilage. C. composite cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. bone. 13. What characteristic can be used to differentiate bone and cartilage?
A. whether the matrix is solid or liquid B. the presence or absence of cells C. the flexibility of the matrix D. the presence of fibers in the matrix E. whether it is fibrous or specialized connective tissue
True / False Questions
14. The cells in bone tissue are found scattered throughout the matrix and are not connected to each other. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
15. What carries oxygen in the blood?
A. platelets B. serum C. plasma D. white blood cells E. red blood cells
True / False Questions
16. There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
17. The two components of blood are
A. red blood cells and plasma. B. platelets and plasma. C. white blood cells and red blood cells. D. formed elements and plasma. E. formed elements and platelets.
True / False Questions
18. Lymph contains no cells. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
19. As a result of an infection, which component of blood would increase?
A. platelets B. erythrocytes C. leukocytes D. plasma E. serum 20. Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the
A. bile. B. small intestines. C. large intestines. D. stomach. E. blood. 21. While observing cardiac muscle under the microscope for the first time, Jennifer noticed lines running perpendicular to the direction of the muscle. These lines are called
A. perpendicular plates. B. Volkman canals. C. Broca's area. D. Haversian canals. E. intercalated discs.
22. The stripes in skeletal muscle are due to the presence of
A. multiple nuclei per cell. B. actin and myosin filaments. C. intercalated discs. D. the branching of the cells. E. tendons connecting the muscle to bone. 23. In turning a page, you would mainly be using what type of muscle?
A. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle C. skeletal muscle
True / False Questions
24. Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts sending urine into the urethra. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. What type of tissue receives sensory input, integrates data, and conducts impulses?
A. Epithelial tissue B. Connective tissue C. Muscular tissue D. Nervous tissue E. Vascular tissue
26. The specialized cells in the nervous system that serve to conduct a signal are known as
A. neuroglia. B. neurons. C. dendrocytes. D. astrocytes. E. Schwann cells. 27. When you put your hand on a hot stove, ____ receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and ______ conduct nerve impulses.
A. astrocytes, oligodendrocytes B. axons, dendrites C. astrocytes, dendrites D. dendrites, axons E. dendrites, astrocytes 28. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain?
A. astrocytes B. microglia C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. axons
True / False Questions
29. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
30. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain?
A. astrocytes B. microglia C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. axons 31. Which two types of cells make myelin?
A. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells B. microglia and astrocytes C. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes D. microglia and oligodendrocytes E. Schwann cells and microglia 32. In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?
A. ependymal cells B. plasma membrane C. synovial membrane D. basement membrane E. transitional membrane 33. What type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch?
A. Pseudostratified epithelium B. Glandular epithelium C. Transitional epithelium D. Stratified epithelium E. Columnar epithelium
34. Gynecologists perform yearly pap smears for women. This procedure is important in early diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer?
A. breast cancer B. colon cancer C. cervical cancer D. pancreatic cancer E. liver cancer 35. One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary action of what type of specialized epithelia?
A. pseudostratified epithelium B. glandular epithelium C. cuboidal epithelium D. stratified epithelium E. columnar epithelium 36. ________ glands are considered ductless glands and ______ glands are contain ducts.
A. Exocrine, endocrine B. Transitional, exocrine C. Transitional, endocrine D. Endocrine, exocrine E. Sudoriferous, transitional
True / False Questions
37. Moving from the outside of the body, the first type of tissue encountered is epithelial tissue. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
38. The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function?
A. absorption B. secretion C. excretion D. removing debris 39. Which of the following is not a function of the integument?
A. protection from pathogen invasion B. inhibition of water loss C. regulation of body temperature D. synthesis of vitamin D E. production of white blood cells 40. Stretch marks are the result of tears in the integumentary layer that contains fibrous connective tissue, elastin, and collagen. What is this region of the integument called?
A. subcutaneous layer B. Langerhan layer C. epidermis D. hypodermis E. dermis 41. Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin?
A. fat--subcutaneous layer B. sense organs--dermis C. keratinization--epidermis D. nerves/blood vessels--epidermis E. hair follicle--dermis
42. Which of the following is responsible for the waterproofing of skin?
A. mucus B. keratin C. hyaline cartilage D. sweat E. wax 43. Which layer of the skin is responsible for tanning?
A. epidermis B. dermis C. subcutaneous layer 44. Which type of gland can become blocked and form a "blackhead?"
A. sudoriferous B. sweat C. endocrine D. sebaceous E. compound
True / False Questions
45. Skin accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
46. Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing?
A. immune system B. integumentary system C. cardiovascular system D. urinary system E. musculoskeletal system 47. Which of the following body systems is located in a specific cavity of the body?
A. urinary system B. skeletal system C. cardiovascular system D. muscular system E. immune system 48. What cavities develop from the ventral cavity?
A. cranial and vertebral B. thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic C. pelvic and abdominal D. cranial and thoracic E. cranial, vertebral, and thoracic 49. Which systems function in adjustment of the acid-base balance of the blood?
A. cardiovascular and muscular B. cardiovascular and urinary C. respiratory and urinary D. respiratory and skeletal E. muscular and skeletal
True / False Questions
50. The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane?
A. the lungs B. the heart C. the cavities of freely movable joints D. tubes of the digestive system E. the abdominal cavity 52. The pleurae would be found in which body system?
A. the respiratory system B. the cardiovascular system C. the muscular system D. the urinary system E. the skeletal system 53. What membrane is infected in meningitis?
A. the lining of the brain and spinal cord B. the lining of the lungs C. the lining of the heart D. the lining of the digestive tract E. the lining of the reproductive tract
54. The body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment is called
A. homeostasis. B. development. C. homogeneous. D. coordination. E. feedback. 55. Sweating is a physiological process that seeks to maintain
A. blood glucose levels. B. blood volume. C. urine levels. D. blood pH. E. body temperature.
True / False Questions
56. Only the nervous and endocrine systems are involved in homeostasis. True
False
57. If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body's temperature would continue to rise. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostasis?
A. constriction or dilation of blood vessels B. secretion of sweat glands C. shivering D. respiration rate E. the hypothalamus
True / False Questions
59. With a negative feedback system, the value in question will vary around the set point. True
False
Chapter 04 Organization and Regulation of Body Systems Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Specialized cells that work together to perform a common function are called
A. membranes. B. organs. C. tissues. D. glands. E. organisms. Tissues are specialized cells that together perform a common function.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
2.
Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type?
A. epithelial B. connective C. muscle D. nervous E. fat The basic tissue types include epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
3.
Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities?
A. epithelial tissue B. connective tissue C. muscular tissue D. nervous tissue E. vascular tissue Epithelial tissue covers body surfaces and lines cavities.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
4.
Jacob looked up and saw the car. This information was relayed to him via what type of tissue?
A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscular D. Nervous E. Vascular Nervous tissue receives stimuli and conducts nerve impulses.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
5.
Which of the following cells would have a greater probability of developing into cancer?
A. brain cells B. neurons C. epithelial cells D. muscle cells E. liver cells Cells that divide often, such as epithelial cells and blood cells, have a greater probability of developing into cancer.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
6.
Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called
A. carcinomas. B. sarcomas. C. leukemias. D. lymphomas. E. blastomas. Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called sarcomas.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
7.
The three major components of connective tissue are
A. cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers. B. cells, fat, and protein fibers. C. cells, ground substance, and protein fibers. D. cells, ground substance, and enzymes. E. ground substance, enzymes, and protein fibers. The three components of connective tissue are cells, ground substance, and protein fibers.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.02.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
8.
What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues?
A. actin B. collagen C. keratin D. fibrinogen E. myosin The protein collagen provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
9.
It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome. Which type of fiber is affected in this disorder?
A. elastic fibers B. reticular fibers C. collagen fibers D. hyaline fibers E. ground fibers In Marfan syndrome, there are mutations in the fibrillin gene, which produces a component of elastic fibers.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.02.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
10.
What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?
A. bone and blood B. fibroblasts and matrix C. hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage D. adipose and cartilage E. loose fibrous and dense fibrous Loose fibrous and dense fibrous tissues are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
11.
Alison was looking at a tissue under the microscope. It had cells within lacuna and the matrix was glassy looking. What type of tissue is she looking at?
A. blood B. bone C. cartilage D. adipose E. areolar Both bone and cartilage have cells in lacuna. Hyaline cartilage has a glassy-looking matrix.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.02.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
12.
Todd's father slipped a disk in his back. Dr. Foster explained to the family that the intervertebral disks are composed of
A. elastic cartilage. B. hyaline cartilage. C. composite cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. bone. The intervertebral disks are composed of fibrocartilage.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
13.
What characteristic can be used to differentiate bone and cartilage?
A. whether the matrix is solid or liquid B. the presence or absence of cells C. the flexibility of the matrix D. the presence of fibers in the matrix E. whether it is fibrous or specialized connective tissue In cartilage the matrix is flexible while in bone the matrix is rigid.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.02.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
14.
The cells in bone tissue are found scattered throughout the matrix and are not connected to each other. FALSE Although bone cells are scattered throughout the matrix they are still connected to each other and to the central canal.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
15.
What carries oxygen in the blood?
A. platelets B. serum C. plasma D. white blood cells E. red blood cells Red blood cells contain hemoglobin and carry oxygen in the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
16.
There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid. FALSE Blood is a fluid connective tissue and has a liquid matrix.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
The two components of blood are
A. red blood cells and plasma. B. platelets and plasma. C. white blood cells and red blood cells. D. formed elements and plasma. E. formed elements and platelets. Blood is composed of the formed elements (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) and plasma.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
18.
Lymph contains no cells. FALSE Lymph contains white blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
19.
As a result of an infection, which component of blood would increase?
A. platelets B. erythrocytes C. leukocytes D. plasma E. serum Because leukocytes are involved in protecting the body, their numbers go up in the case of an infection.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
20.
Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the
A. bile. B. small intestines. C. large intestines. D. stomach. E. blood. Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the small intestines.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
21.
While observing cardiac muscle under the microscope for the first time, Jennifer noticed lines running perpendicular to the direction of the muscle. These lines are called
A. perpendicular plates. B. Volkman canals. C. Broca's area. D. Haversian canals. E. intercalated discs. Intercalated discs, where cardiac muscle cells are bound end to end, are exclusive to cardiac muscle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Section: 04.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
22.
The stripes in skeletal muscle are due to the presence of
A. multiple nuclei per cell. B. actin and myosin filaments. C. intercalated discs. D. the branching of the cells. E. tendons connecting the muscle to bone. Actin and myosin have alternating light and dark bands that give skeletal muscle a striated appearance.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Section: 04.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
23.
In turning a page, you would mainly be using what type of muscle?
A. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle C. skeletal muscle In turning a page, you would mainly be using skeletal muscle.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Section: 04.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
24.
Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts sending urine into the urethra. TRUE Smooth muscle lines the bladder and is responsible for the ability to urinate.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Section: 04.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
What type of tissue receives sensory input, integrates data, and conducts impulses?
A. Epithelial tissue B. Connective tissue C. Muscular tissue D. Nervous tissue E. Vascular tissue Nervous tissue receives sensory input, integrates data, and conducts impulses.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
26.
The specialized cells in the nervous system that serve to conduct a signal are known as
A. neuroglia. B. neurons. C. dendrocytes. D. astrocytes. E. Schwann cells. Neurons are specialized cells that conduct a signal.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
27.
When you put your hand on a hot stove, ____ receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and ______ conduct nerve impulses.
A. astrocytes, oligodendrocytes B. axons, dendrites C. astrocytes, dendrites D. dendrites, axons E. dendrites, astrocytes Dendrites receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and axons conduct nerve impulses.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04.02 Describe the structure of a neuron. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
28.
Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain?
A. astrocytes B. microglia C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. axons Outside the brain, Schwann cells are the type of neuroglia that encircle long nerve fibers and form a myelin sheath.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
29.
Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? TRUE Outside the brain, Schwann cells are the type of neuroglia that encircle long nerve fibers and form a myelin sheath.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
30.
Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain?
A. astrocytes B. microglia C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. axons Outside the brain, Schwann cells are the type of neuroglia that encircle long nerve fibers and form a myelin sheath.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04.04.02 Describe the structure of a neuron. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
31.
Which two types of cells make myelin?
A. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells B. microglia and astrocytes C. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes D. microglia and oligodendrocytes E. Schwann cells and microglia Oligodendrocytes form the myelin sheaths around fibers in the brain and spinal cord while Schwann cells do so outside the brain.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. Section: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
32.
In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?
A. ependymal cells B. plasma membrane C. synovial membrane D. basement membrane E. transitional membrane In epithelial tissues, the basement membrane serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.05.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
33.
What type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch?
A. Pseudostratified epithelium B. Glandular epithelium C. Transitional epithelium D. Stratified epithelium E. Columnar epithelium Transitional epithelium forms the lining of the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.05.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
34.
Gynecologists perform yearly pap smears for women. This procedure is important in early diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer?
A. breast cancer B. colon cancer C. cervical cancer D. pancreatic cancer E. liver cancer A pap smear is an important procedure utilized to detect cervical cancer in women.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.05.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
35.
One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary action of what type of specialized epithelia?
A. pseudostratified epithelium B. glandular epithelium C. cuboidal epithelium D. stratified epithelium E. columnar epithelium Pseudostratified columnar epithelium, which contains upward beating cilia, is important in preventing harmful substances from entering the lungs.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.05.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
36.
________ glands are considered ductless glands and ______ glands are contain ducts.
A. Exocrine, endocrine B. Transitional, exocrine C. Transitional, endocrine D. Endocrine, exocrine E. Sudoriferous, transitional Endocrine glands are considered ductless glands and exocrine glands contain ducts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.05.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
37.
Moving from the outside of the body, the first type of tissue encountered is epithelial tissue. TRUE Epithelial tissue covers surfaces and lines body cavities.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.05.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function?
A. absorption B. secretion C. excretion D. removing debris Because food is absorbed from the small intestine, the epithelial lining is modified for absorption.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.05.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body. Section: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
39.
Which of the following is not a function of the integument?
A. protection from pathogen invasion B. inhibition of water loss C. regulation of body temperature D. synthesis of vitamin D E. production of white blood cells The integumentary system does not produce leukocytes or white blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.06.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
40.
Stretch marks are the result of tears in the integumentary layer that contains fibrous connective tissue, elastin, and collagen. What is this region of the integument called?
A. subcutaneous layer B. Langerhan layer C. epidermis D. hypodermis E. dermis Tears in the dermis results in stretch marks.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.06.02 Compare the function of the epidermis and dermis. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
41.
Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin?
A. fat--subcutaneous layer B. sense organs--dermis C. keratinization--epidermis D. nerves/blood vessels--epidermis E. hair follicle--dermis The epidermis is not associated with the nerves and the blood supply.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04.06.03 Identify the function of the accessory organs associated with the skin. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
42.
Which of the following is responsible for the waterproofing of skin?
A. mucus B. keratin C. hyaline cartilage D. sweat E. wax The protein keratin is important in waterproofing the skin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.06.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
43.
Which layer of the skin is responsible for tanning?
A. epidermis B. dermis C. subcutaneous layer Melanocytes are found in the epidermis, so tanning alters that layer.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 04.06.02 Compare the function of the epidermis and dermis. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
44.
Which type of gland can become blocked and form a "blackhead?"
A. sudoriferous B. sweat C. endocrine D. sebaceous E. compound Blackheads result from failure of the sebaceous glands to discharge their content known as sebum.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.06.03 Identify the function of the accessory organs associated with the skin. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
True / False Questions
45.
Skin accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human. TRUE Skin is the most conspicuous system in the body and accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.06.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
Multiple Choice Questions
46.
Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing?
A. immune system B. integumentary system C. cardiovascular system D. urinary system E. musculoskeletal system The role of the immune system is to protect us from infections.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body. Section: 04.07 Topic: General
47.
Which of the following body systems is located in a specific cavity of the body?
A. urinary system B. skeletal system C. cardiovascular system D. muscular system E. immune system The urinary system is located in the pelvic cavity while all the others occur throughout the body.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.07.02 Identify the major cavities of the human body. Section: 04.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
48.
What cavities develop from the ventral cavity?
A. cranial and vertebral B. thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic C. pelvic and abdominal D. cranial and thoracic E. cranial, vertebral, and thoracic The ventral cavity later divides into the thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavities.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07.02 Identify the major cavities of the human body. Section: 04.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
49.
Which systems function in adjustment of the acid-base balance of the blood?
A. cardiovascular and muscular B. cardiovascular and urinary C. respiratory and urinary D. respiratory and skeletal E. muscular and skeletal Both the respiratory and urinary system adjust the acid-base balance of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.07.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body. Section: 04.07 Topic: General
True / False Questions
50.
The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood. FALSE The cardiovascular system consists of the heart, the blood, and the vessels the blood moves through.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body. Section: 04.07 Topic: General
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane?
A. the lungs B. the heart C. the cavities of freely movable joints D. tubes of the digestive system E. the abdominal cavity Mucous membranes line the tubes of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 04.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
52.
The pleurae would be found in which body system?
A. the respiratory system B. the cardiovascular system C. the muscular system D. the urinary system E. the skeletal system The pleurae cover the lungs and thus would be part of the respiratory system.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.07.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 04.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
53.
What membrane is infected in meningitis?
A. the lining of the brain and spinal cord B. the lining of the lungs C. the lining of the heart D. the lining of the digestive tract E. the lining of the reproductive tract The meninges are the membranes found within the dorsal cavity, covering the brain and spinal cord. Meningitis is an infection of the meninges.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 04.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
54.
The body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment is called
A. homeostasis. B. development. C. homogeneous. D. coordination. E. feedback. Homeostasis the the body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment by adjusting its physiological processes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.08.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans. Section: 04.08 Topic: Homeostasis
55.
Sweating is a physiological process that seeks to maintain
A. blood glucose levels. B. blood volume. C. urine levels. D. blood pH. E. body temperature. Sweating cools the body and is part of the homeostatic control of body temperature.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04.08.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans. Section: 04.08 Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
56.
Only the nervous and endocrine systems are involved in homeostasis. FALSE All of the body systems are involved in maintaining homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.08.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans. Section: 04.08 Topic: Homeostasis
57.
If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body's temperature would continue to rise.
TRUE A positive feedback system results in an increasing change in the same direction.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04.08.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms. Section: 04.08 Topic: Homeostasis
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostasis?
A. constriction or dilation of blood vessels B. secretion of sweat glands C. shivering D. respiration rate E. the hypothalamus The respiration rate is involved in acid-base balance of the blood, not temperature regulation.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.08.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms. Section: 04.08
Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
59.
With a negative feedback system, the value in question will vary around the set point. TRUE When the value overshoots the set point, the system shuts off. When the value is under the set point, the system turns on. Therefore, the value will vary around the set point.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04.08.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms. Section: 04.08 Topic: Homeostasis
Chapter 04 Organization and Regulation of Body Systems Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
11
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
24
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
7
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
12
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
5
Learning Outcome: 04.01.01 List the four types of tissues.
6
Learning Outcome: 04.02.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 04.02.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage.
4
Learning Outcome: 04.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph.
6
Learning Outcome: 04.03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the b
4
ody. Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells.
5
Learning Outcome: 04.04.02 Describe the structure of a neuron.
2
Learning Outcome: 04.05.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body.
3
Learning Outcome: 04.05.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function.
4
Learning Outcome: 04.06.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin.
3
Learning Outcome: 04.06.02 Compare the function of the epidermis and dermis.
2
Learning Outcome: 04.06.03 Identify the function of the accessory organs associated with the skin.
2
Learning Outcome: 04.07.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body.
3
Learning Outcome: 04.07.02 Identify the major cavities of the human body.
2
Learning Outcome: 04.07.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each.
3
Learning Outcome: 04.08.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans.
3
Learning Outcome: 04.08.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms.
3
Section: 04.01
6
Section: 04.02
14
Section: 04.03
4
Section: 04.04
7
Section: 04.05
7
Section: 04.06
7
Section: 04.07
8
Section: 04.08
6
Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues
50
Topic: General
3
Topic: Homeostasis
6
Chapter 05 Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood Vessels
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What type of tissue is important in assisting the cardiovascular system by collecting excess tissue fluid and eventually returning it to the cardiovascular system?
A. pulmonary B. vascular C. lymphatic D. gastric E. urinary
True / False Questions
2.
Gas exchange is the only function of blood. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
In a city analogy, what is the cardiovascular system similar to?
A. roads B. government building C. grocery stores D. waste recycling plant E. power plant
4.
Which part of the body is often diseased in alcoholics due to exposure to alcohol?
A. liver B. stomach C. mouth D. esophagus E. large intestine 5.
What are the two components of the cardiovascular system?
A. heart and blood vessels B. arteries and heart C. veins and heart D. arteries and veins E. capillaries and veins 6.
The innermost layer of an artery is known as what?
A. mesothelium B. endothelium C. exothelium D. hyperthelium E. hypothelium 7.
Which of the following blood vessels are the only ones small, thin, and porous enough to exchange substances at the tissue level of organization?
A. arterioles B. capillaries C. venules D. small arteries E. veins
8.
What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood from the arteriole to the venule?
A. precapillary valve B. endothelium C. precapillary sphincter D. pericardium E. shunt valve 9.
When dissecting a specimen, Barry noticed that the arteries were thicker and more elastic than the veins. Why?
A. Veins return blood to the heart against gravity. B. Arteries contain a greater volume of blood. C. Veins have valves. D. Arteries are under greater pressure. E. Arteries have less smooth muscle than veins. 10. Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why?
A. It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. B. It rises because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. C. It falls because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. D. It rises because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. E. It stays the same because venules, not arterioles, control blood pressure.
True / False Questions
11. The walls of veins are thinner, so they cannot expand as greatly as arteries can. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
12. Choose the most correct statement concerning capillaries.
A. Networks of capillaries are called capillary nets. B. Almost all capillaries are open at the same time. C. The only site of nutrient, gas exchange, and waste exchange is the capillaries. D. Pre-capillary sphincters contract to increase capillary flow. E. The walls of capillaries contain smooth muscle. 13. What is the function of valves in the veins?
A. increase the rate of blood flow B. prevent the backward flow of blood C. regulation of blood pressure D. oxygenate the blood E. remove debris from the blood 14. At any one time, where is the majority of the blood found in the body?
A. veins B. lungs C. lymphatic vessels D. capillaries E. arteries 15. Dr. Ferguson explained that in a condition known as situs inversus, the internal organs are reversed in their orientation. Thus, the apex of the heart would be oriented to the ___.
A. middle B. right C. left D. front E. back
16. What is the name of the thick, membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart?
A. mesothelium B. endothelium C. pericardium D. myocardium E. epicardium 17. What are the upper chambers of the heart called?
A. atria B. auricles C. AV valves D. ventricles E. septa 18. What type of cell junctions are found in cardiac muscle tissue?
A. atria and auricles B. septae and chordae C. intercalated disks D. myocardium and pericardium E. gap junctions and desmosomes 19. The right ventricle is to the pulmonary trunk as the left ventricle is to the ___________.
A. aorta B. superior vena cava C. left pulmonary vein D. inferior vena cava E. left common carotid artery
20. What are known as the "strings of the heart?"
A. cingulated pectorale B. chordae tendinae C. corpus albicans D. corpus callosum E. choroid plexus 21. During open heart surgery, the first heart structure that would be cut into is the _____________.
A. myocardium B. left ventricle C. pericardium. D. right ventricle E. left atrium 22. A hospital laboratory technician injects a dye into a vein in your right arm. What is the first chamber of the heart the dye reaches?
A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle 23. Blood leaves which chamber of the heart to enter the lungs?
A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle
24. If the semilunar valve was blocked, where would blood accumulate?
A. lungs B. right atrium C. left atrium D. right ventricle E. left ventricle 25. The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" heart beat is due to what?
A. the closing of the AV valves B. the closing of the semilunar valves C. the right atrium contracting D. the left atrium contracting E. the relaxation of both atria
True / False Questions
26. The cardiac muscle is supplied with nutrients from the blood within the heart itself. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Which of the following heart tissues is not part of the internal conduction system of the heart?
A. atrioventricular bundle B. atrioventricular node C. Purkinje fibers D. sinoatrial node E. semilunar valve
28. What is considered the pacemaker of the heart?
A. medulla oblongata B. the sinoatrial node C. the atrioventricular node D. Purkinje fibers E. atrioventricular bundle 29. Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center?
A. cerebrum B. medulla oblongata C. cerebellum D. pons E. frontal lobe 30. Lisa receives a dose of epinephrine. What does this do to her heart rate?
A. increases it B. decreases it C. stops it D. does not alter it 31. What does an ECG record?
A. brain activity B. blood volume C. heart sounds D. hormonal changes E. electrical changes
32. Tina's heart began to beat much faster when it came to the scary scene in the movie. Which part of the nervous system causes the heart to beat faster when afraid?
A. peripheral B. parasympathetic C. somatic D. sympathetic E. axial 33. If your pulse is 70 beats per minute, how fast is your heart beating?
A. 140 beats per minute B. 35 beats per minute C. 70 beats per minute 34. Which of the following could be used to take a pulse?
A. radial vein B. radial artery C. inferior vena cava D. superior vena cava E. renal capillaries 35. Mrs. Hinson was informed that her blood pressure was 150/95. These numbers indicate that she has __________.
A. normal blood pressure B. prehypertension C. hypotension D. stage 1 hypertension E. stage 2 hypertension
36. What is the instrument called that is used to measure blood pressure?
A. stethoscope B. CPR C. sphygmomanometer D. ECG E. AED
True / False Questions
37. A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
38. A person who sits for hours on a long airplane flight will have problems will blood pooling below the knees. Why?
A. The valves in the leg veins don't work above a certain altitude. B. Blood pressure drops on long airplane flights. C. The respiratory pump is not helping blood return to the heart. D. The capillaries expand at high altitudes. E. The skeletal muscle pump is not helping blood return to the heart. 39. Normal blood pressure is 120/80. What is the top number called and what is happening in the heart?
A. systolic pressure, ejection of blood from the heart B. diastolic pressure, ejection of blood from the heart C. systolic pressure, ventricles are relaxing D. diastolic pressure, ventricles are relaxing E. diastolic pressure, atria are contracting, ventricles are relaxing
40. Where in the body is blood pressure the highest?
A. superior vena cava B. aorta C. inferior vena cava D. lung capillaries E. renal capillaries 41. Blood pressure ______ with distance from the left ventricle while the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels __________.
A. decreases, increases B. increases, decreases C. stays the same, decreases D. stays the same, increases E. decreases, stays the same 42. Why does blood move slowly in the capillaries in comparison to arterioles?
A. Capillaries are much wider than arterioles. B. Blood pressure is much higher in capillaries than in arterioles. C. There are many more capillaries than arterioles. D. Precapillary sphincters close shunting blood into capillaries. E. Capillaries are present in muscles while arterioles are not.
True / False Questions
43. Blood pressure plays a major role in returning blood to the heart. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. What is the largest artery in the systemic circuit?
A. femoral B. carotid C. pulmonary D. hepatic E. aorta 45. What system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver?
A. cephalic B. hepatic portal C. coronary D. celiac E. lymphatic 46. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?
A. right atrium B. right ventricle C. left atrium D. left ventricle
True / False Questions
47. The systemic circuit contains more blood at any one time than does the pulmonary circuit. True
False
48. The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. In the pulmonary circuit, veins carry oxygen-____ blood, and in the systemic circuit, veins carry oxygen-_____ blood.
A. rich, rich B. poor, poor C. rich, poor D. poor, rich
True / False Questions
50. All veins carry oxygen-poor blood. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. If fluid is leaving a capillary and entering the tissue, which of the following statements is true?
A. Red blood cells are able to leave the capillary. B. Plasma proteins are able to leave the capillary. C. Blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure. D. This is the venous end of the capillary. E. The net pressure is in.
True / False Questions
52. Tissue fluid leaving the arterial end of the capillary is balanced by tissue fluid entering the venous end of the capillary. True
False
53. Tissue fluid contains lower amounts of protein than does plasma. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. If a person is dehydrated, how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries?
A. It will have no effect. B. Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues. C. Oxygen will not leave the capillary and enter the tissues. D. Carbon dioxide will not leave the tissues and enter the capillary. E. Plasma proteins will be able to leave the capillary and enter the tissues. 55. What is the ballooning or bulging of a blood vessel called?
A. embolus B. aneurysm C. thrombus D. myocardial infarction E. stroke 56. The American Heart Association recommends a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol to prevent which disease?
A. hypotension B. aneurysm C. hypertension D. atherosclerosis E. infarction
57. Which of the following activities is not recommended for prevention of cardiovascular disease?
A. Know your cholesterol level. B. Take antioxidant vitamins (A, E, and C). C. Raise the LDL intake. D. Use olive and canola oil rather than butter/cream. E. Exercise moderately.
True / False Questions
58. Generally, there are no symptoms of hypertension. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
59. What drug may protect against having a first heart attack?
A. acetominophen B. aspirin C. ACE D. t-PA E. beta-blockers 60. What is a stent?
A. a cylinder of expandable metal mesh B. time spent in recovery after coronary bypass surgery C. a treatment for phlebitis D. an instrument that regulates the heartbeat E. a treatment to lower blood pressure
61. Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A. feeling of pressure in the chest B. dizziness C. nausea and vomiting D. diarrhea E. shortness of breath 62. What is a Jarvik 2000?
A. a cardioverter-defibrillator B. a left ventricular assist device C. a total artificial heart D. a heart pump inserted inside the left ventricle E. a form of coronary stent
Chapter 05 Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood Vessels Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What type of tissue is important in assisting the cardiovascular system by collecting excess tissue fluid and eventually returning it to the cardiovascular system?
A. pulmonary B. vascular C. lymphatic D. gastric E. urinary Lymphatic tissues are important in assisting the cardiovascular system by collecting excess tissue fluid and eventually returning it to the cardiovascular system.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.01.03 Explain the purpose of the lymphatic system in circulation. Section: 05.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
2.
Gas exchange is the only function of blood. FALSE The blood has many functions, of which gas exchange is only one.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.01.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. Section: 05.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
In a city analogy, what is the cardiovascular system similar to?
A. roads B. government building C. grocery stores D. waste recycling plant E. power plant The cardiovascular system is similar to the roads which transport goods between all of the other places in the city.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 05.01.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. Section: 05.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
4.
Which part of the body is often diseased in alcoholics due to exposure to alcohol?
A. liver B. stomach C. mouth D. esophagus E. large intestine The liver is often diseased because the liver removes toxins and chemicals from the blood. Excessive amounts of alcohol removed by the liver often damage the liver tissue.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.01.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. Section: 05.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
5.
What are the two components of the cardiovascular system?
A. heart and blood vessels B. arteries and heart C. veins and heart D. arteries and veins E. capillaries and veins The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood vessels.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.01.01 Identify the two components of the cardiovascular system. Section: 05.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
6.
The innermost layer of an artery is known as what?
A. mesothelium B. endothelium C. exothelium D. hyperthelium E. hypothelium The innermost layer of an artery is known as the endothelium.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
7.
Which of the following blood vessels are the only ones small, thin, and porous enough to exchange substances at the tissue level of organization?
A. arterioles B. capillaries C. venules D. small arteries E. veins Capillaries are narrow, microscopic tubes that are porous enough to allow for the exchange of substances at the tissue level of organization.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
8.
What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood from the arteriole to the venule?
A. precapillary valve B. endothelium C. precapillary sphincter D. pericardium E. shunt valve The precapillary sphincter shunts blood from the arteriole to the venule.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.02.02 Explain how blood flow is regulated in each of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
9.
When dissecting a specimen, Barry noticed that the arteries were thicker and more elastic than the veins. Why?
A. Veins return blood to the heart against gravity. B. Arteries contain a greater volume of blood. C. Veins have valves. D. Arteries are under greater pressure. E. Arteries have less smooth muscle than veins. Arteries are thicker and more elastic than veins because they are under greater pressure.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
10.
Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why?
A. It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. B. It rises because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. C. It falls because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. D. It rises because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. E. It stays the same because venules, not arterioles, control blood pressure. When arterioles dilate blood pressure falls because of the increase in the cross-sectional area of the vessels.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.02.02 Explain how blood flow is regulated in each of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
11.
The walls of veins are thinner, so they cannot expand as greatly as arteries can. FALSE The walls of veins are thinner, so they can expand to a greater extent than can arteries.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
12.
Choose the most correct statement concerning capillaries.
A. Networks of capillaries are called capillary nets. B. Almost all capillaries are open at the same time. C. The only site of nutrient, gas exchange, and waste exchange is the capillaries. D. Pre-capillary sphincters contract to increase capillary flow. E. The walls of capillaries contain smooth muscle. The only site of nutrient, gas exchange, and waste exchange is the capillaries.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
13.
What is the function of valves in the veins?
A. increase the rate of blood flow B. prevent the backward flow of blood C. regulation of blood pressure D. oxygenate the blood E. remove debris from the blood In the lower extremities, valves prevent the backflow of blood from occurring.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
14.
At any one time, where is the majority of the blood found in the body?
A. veins B. lungs C. lymphatic vessels D. capillaries E. arteries Veins can serve as a blood reservoir, holding about 70% of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
15.
Dr. Ferguson explained that in a condition known as situs inversus, the internal organs are reversed in their orientation. Thus, the apex of the heart would be oriented to the ___.
A. middle B. right C. left D. front E. back Normally, the apex of the heart is tilted to the left. In situs inversus the apex of the heart is tilted to the right.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
16.
What is the name of the thick, membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart?
A. mesothelium B. endothelium C. pericardium D. myocardium E. epicardium The pericardium is a thick, membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
17.
What are the upper chambers of the heart called?
A. atria B. auricles C. AV valves D. ventricles E. septa The atria are the upper collecting chambers of the heart.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
18.
What type of cell junctions are found in cardiac muscle tissue?
A. atria and auricles B. septae and chordae C. intercalated disks D. myocardium and pericardium E. gap junctions and desmosomes Gap junctions and desmosomes are types of cell junctions found in intercalated disks of the myocardium.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
19.
The right ventricle is to the pulmonary trunk as the left ventricle is to the ___________.
A. aorta B. superior vena cava C. left pulmonary vein D. inferior vena cava E. left common carotid artery The right ventricle pumps blood out through the pulmonary trunk. The left ventricle pumps blood out through the aorta.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.03.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
20.
What are known as the "strings of the heart?"
A. cingulated pectorale B. chordae tendinae C. corpus albicans D. corpus callosum E. choroid plexus The chordae tendinae are strong fibrous strings that serve to anchor the valves of the heart.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
21.
During open heart surgery, the first heart structure that would be cut into is the _____________.
A. myocardium B. left ventricle C. pericardium. D. right ventricle E. left atrium The heart is surrounded by a thick, membranous sac called the pericardium that would have to be cut through to reach the heart.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
22.
A hospital laboratory technician injects a dye into a vein in your right arm. What is the first chamber of the heart the dye reaches?
A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle The veins from the body empty into the right atrium.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.03.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
23.
Blood leaves which chamber of the heart to enter the lungs?
A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle Blood leaves the right ventricle and enters the lungs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
24.
If the semilunar valve was blocked, where would blood accumulate?
A. lungs B. right atrium C. left atrium D. right ventricle E. left ventricle The left ventricle contracts, sending blood through the semilunar valve into the aorta. If the valve were blocked, the blood would back up in the left ventricle.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.03.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
25.
The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" heart beat is due to what?
A. the closing of the AV valves B. the closing of the semilunar valves C. the right atrium contracting D. the left atrium contracting E. the relaxation of both atria The "lub" occurs when increasing pressure of blood inside a ventricle forces the cusps of the AV valves to slam shut.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
26.
The cardiac muscle is supplied with nutrients from the blood within the heart itself. FALSE The cardiac muscle receives oxygen and nutrients from the coronary arteries.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
Which of the following heart tissues is not part of the internal conduction system of the heart?
A. atrioventricular bundle B. atrioventricular node C. Purkinje fibers D. sinoatrial node E. semilunar valve Only the semilunar valve is not involved in the internal conduction system of the heart.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
28.
What is considered the pacemaker of the heart?
A. medulla oblongata B. the sinoatrial node C. the atrioventricular node D. Purkinje fibers E. atrioventricular bundle The sinoatrial node is called the pacemaker because it regulates heartbeat.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
29.
Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center?
A. cerebrum B. medulla oblongata C. cerebellum D. pons E. frontal lobe The medulla oblongata contains the cardiac control center.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
30.
Lisa receives a dose of epinephrine. What does this do to her heart rate?
A. increases it B. decreases it C. stops it D. does not alter it Epinephrine stimulates the heart to beat faster.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
31.
What does an ECG record?
A. brain activity B. blood volume C. heart sounds D. hormonal changes E. electrical changes An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a recording of the electrical changes that occur in myocardium during a cardiac cycle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
32.
Tina's heart began to beat much faster when it came to the scary scene in the movie. Which part of the nervous system causes the heart to beat faster when afraid?
A. peripheral B. parasympathetic C. somatic D. sympathetic E. axial The sympathetic nervous system causes the heart to beat faster in responses associated with "fight or flight."
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
33.
If your pulse is 70 beats per minute, how fast is your heart beating?
A. 140 beats per minute B. 35 beats per minute C. 70 beats per minute Normally, the pulse rate indicates the heart rate because the arterial walls pulse whenever the left ventricle contracts.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
34.
Which of the following could be used to take a pulse?
A. radial vein B. radial artery C. inferior vena cava D. superior vena cava E. renal capillaries It is customary to feel the pulse by placing several fingers on the radial artery. The rhythmic expansion and recoil of an arterial wall can be felt as a pulse in any artery that runs close to the body's surface.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
35.
Mrs. Hinson was informed that her blood pressure was 150/95. These numbers indicate that she has __________.
A. normal blood pressure B. prehypertension C. hypotension D. stage 1 hypertension E. stage 2 hypertension Stage 1 hypertension has a systolic number between 140 and 159, and a diastolic number between 90 and 99.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.04.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
36.
What is the instrument called that is used to measure blood pressure?
A. stethoscope B. CPR C. sphygmomanometer D. ECG E. AED A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to measure blood pressure.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
37.
A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal. FALSE This would be considered hypotension. Normal blood pressure is 120/80.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.04.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
A person who sits for hours on a long airplane flight will have problems will blood pooling below the knees. Why?
A. The valves in the leg veins don't work above a certain altitude. B. Blood pressure drops on long airplane flights. C. The respiratory pump is not helping blood return to the heart. D. The capillaries expand at high altitudes. E. The skeletal muscle pump is not helping blood return to the heart. The skeletal muscle pump functions every time a muscle contracts. If the person is not moving, the muscles do not contract, and the blood pools in the lower extremities.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
39.
Normal blood pressure is 120/80. What is the top number called and what is happening in the heart?
A. systolic pressure, ejection of blood from the heart B. diastolic pressure, ejection of blood from the heart C. systolic pressure, ventricles are relaxing D. diastolic pressure, ventricles are relaxing E. diastolic pressure, atria are contracting, ventricles are relaxing The highest arterial pressure is the top number, called the systolic pressure. This is reached during ejection of blood from the heart.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.04.02 Distinguish between systolic and diastolic pressure. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
40.
Where in the body is blood pressure the highest?
A. superior vena cava B. aorta C. inferior vena cava D. lung capillaries E. renal capillaries Blood pressure is highest in the aorta.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
41.
Blood pressure ______ with distance from the left ventricle while the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels __________.
A. decreases, increases B. increases, decreases C. stays the same, decreases D. stays the same, increases E. decreases, stays the same Blood pressure decreases with distance from the left ventricle because the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels increases.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
42.
Why does blood move slowly in the capillaries in comparison to arterioles?
A. Capillaries are much wider than arterioles. B. Blood pressure is much higher in capillaries than in arterioles. C. There are many more capillaries than arterioles. D. Precapillary sphincters close shunting blood into capillaries. E. Capillaries are present in muscles while arterioles are not. There are many more capillaries than arterioles and the increase in cross-sectional area causes a decrease in blood flow.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
43.
Blood pressure plays a major role in returning blood to the heart. FALSE Blood pressure plays only a small role in returning venous blood to the heart. Venous return is dependent on the skeletal muscle pump, the respiratory pump, and valves in veins.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries. Section: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
What is the largest artery in the systemic circuit?
A. femoral B. carotid C. pulmonary D. hepatic E. aorta The aorta is the largest artery in the systemic circuit.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.05.02 Identify the major arteries and veins of both the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
45.
What system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver?
A. cephalic B. hepatic portal C. coronary D. celiac E. lymphatic The hepatic portal system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.05.04 Explain the location and purpose of the hepatic portal system. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
46.
Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?
A. right atrium B. right ventricle C. left atrium D. left ventricle Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.05.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
47.
The systemic circuit contains more blood at any one time than does the pulmonary circuit. TRUE The systemic circuit is a much larger circuit and contains many more blood vessels. It contains more blood than does the pulmonary circuit.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 05.05.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
48.
The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava. TRUE The blood from the digestive tract travels through the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein before reaching the inferior vena cava.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 05.05.04 Explain the location and purpose of the hepatic portal system. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
In the pulmonary circuit, veins carry oxygen-____ blood, and in the systemic circuit, veins carry oxygen-_____ blood.
A. rich, rich B. poor, poor C. rich, poor D. poor, rich In the pulmonary circuit, the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood to the lungs. In the systemic circuit, veins carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.05.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
50.
All veins carry oxygen-poor blood. FALSE The pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood so this is not a true statement.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.05.03 Compare the oxygen content of the blood in the arteries and veins of the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Section: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
If fluid is leaving a capillary and entering the tissue, which of the following statements is true?
A. Red blood cells are able to leave the capillary. B. Plasma proteins are able to leave the capillary. C. Blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure. D. This is the venous end of the capillary. E. The net pressure is in. At the arterial end of the capillary, blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure, and tissue fluid leaves the capillary and enters the tissue.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.06.01 Describe the processes that move materials across the walls of a capillary. Section: 05.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
52.
Tissue fluid leaving the arterial end of the capillary is balanced by tissue fluid entering the venous end of the capillary. FALSE Some tissue fluid does not reenter the capillary and is collected by the lymphatic system.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.06.02 Explain what happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries. Section: 05.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System
53.
Tissue fluid contains lower amounts of protein than does plasma. TRUE Tissue fluid tends to contain all components of plasma, except much lower amounts of proteins, which are too large to readily pass out of the capillary.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.06.02 Explain what happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries. Section: 05.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
If a person is dehydrated, how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries?
A. It will have no effect. B. Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues. C. Oxygen will not leave the capillary and enter the tissues. D. Carbon dioxide will not leave the tissues and enter the capillary. E. Plasma proteins will be able to leave the capillary and enter the tissues. If a person is dehydrated, this will increase their osmotic pressure (more solutes dissolved in the liquid fraction of the blood). This would result in less water leaving the capillaries and entering the tissues.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 05.06.01 Describe the processes that move materials across the walls of a capillary. Section: 05.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System
55.
What is the ballooning or bulging of a blood vessel called?
A. embolus B. aneurysm C. thrombus D. myocardial infarction E. stroke An aneurysm is another name for a ballooning or bulging of a blood vessel.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
56.
The American Heart Association recommends a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol to prevent which disease?
A. hypotension B. aneurysm C. hypertension D. atherosclerosis E. infarction The AHA recommends such a diet to prevent the onset and development of atherosclerosis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.07.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
57.
Which of the following activities is not recommended for prevention of cardiovascular disease?
A. Know your cholesterol level. B. Take antioxidant vitamins (A, E, and C). C. Raise the LDL intake. D. Use olive and canola oil rather than butter/cream. E. Exercise moderately. Raising the low density lipoprotein level (LDL) is not recommended for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.07.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
58.
Generally, there are no symptoms of hypertension. TRUE Hypertension is sometimes called a silent killer, because there are no symptoms present.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.07.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
59.
What drug may protect against having a first heart attack?
A. acetominophen B. aspirin C. ACE D. t-PA E. beta-blockers There is evidence that aspirin protects against first heart attacks.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.07.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
60.
What is a stent?
A. a cylinder of expandable metal mesh B. time spent in recovery after coronary bypass surgery C. a treatment for phlebitis D. an instrument that regulates the heartbeat E. a treatment to lower blood pressure A stent is a cylinder of expandable metal mesh that is positioned inside a coronary artery.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
61.
Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A. feeling of pressure in the chest B. dizziness C. nausea and vomiting D. diarrhea E. shortness of breath All are symptoms of a heart attack except for diarrhea.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.07.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
62.
What is a Jarvik 2000?
A. a cardioverter-defibrillator B. a left ventricular assist device C. a total artificial heart D. a heart pump inserted inside the left ventricle E. a form of coronary stent The Jarvik 2000 is a pump inserted inside the left ventricle of the heart. It is powered by an external battery.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Chapter 05 Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood Vessels Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
19
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
21
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
11
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
8
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
3
Learning Outcome: 05.01.01 Identify the two components of the cardiovascular system.
1
Learning Outcome: 05.01.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system.
3
Learning Outcome: 05.01.03 Explain the purpose of the lymphatic system in circulation.
1
Learning Outcome: 05.02.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels.
7
Learning Outcome: 05.02.02 Explain how blood flow is regulated in each of the three types of blood vessels.
2
Learning Outcome: 05.03.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart.
6
Learning Outcome: 05.03.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart.
5
Learning Outcome: 05.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat.
7
Learning Outcome: 05.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins, arteries, and capillaries.
7
Learning Outcome: 05.04.02 Distinguish between systolic and diastolic pressure.
1
Learning Outcome: 05.04.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual.
3
Learning Outcome: 05.05.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits.
3
Learning Outcome: 05.05.02 Identify the major arteries and veins of both the pulmonary and systemic circuits.
1
Learning Outcome: 05.05.03 Compare the oxygen content of the blood in the arteries and veins of the pulmonary and sys
1
temic circuits. Learning Outcome: 05.05.04 Explain the location and purpose of the hepatic portal system.
2
Learning Outcome: 05.06.01 Describe the processes that move materials across the walls of a capillary.
2
Learning Outcome: 05.06.02 Explain what happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries.
2
Learning Outcome: 05.07.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans.
3
Learning Outcome: 05.07.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders.
5
Section: 05.01
5
Section: 05.02
9
Section: 05.03
18
Section: 05.04
11
Section: 05.05
7
Section: 05.06
4
Section: 05.07
8
Topic: Cardiovascular System
62
Chapter 06 Cardiovascular System: Blood
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not a function of blood?
A. transport B. defense C. regulation D. pumping 2.
The two major components of blood are
A. red blood cells and white blood cells. B. plasma and serum. C. plasma and red blood cells. D. formed elements and plasma. E. platelets and plasma. 3.
What are the most abundant plasma proteins that also establish the osmotic pressure of the plasma?
A. fibrinogens B. gamma globulins C. astrocytes D. albumins E. hemoglobin
4.
If there is a problem with clotting, what plasma protein may be involved?
A. fibrinogens B. gamma globulins C. alpha globulins D. albumins E. beta globulins 5.
When Jennifer had to receive a gamma globulin shot after being exposed to hepatitis, the gamma globulins were serving what function?
A. blood clotting agents B. transport molecules for cholesterol and iron C. antibodies D. osmoregulatory molecules E. transport molecules for glucose 6.
Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma?
A. dissolved O2 B. glucose C. urea D. albumin E. red blood cells 7.
Which of the following are actually cell fragments and not whole cells?
A. RBCs B. WBCs C. platelets D. albumins E. globulins
8.
RBCs are better known as ________ and WBCs are better known as ___________.
A. lymphocytes, monocytes B. erythrocytes, eosinophils C. leukocytes, erythrocytes D. erythrocytes, leukocytes E. macrophages, neutrophils 9.
What gives rise to all the formed elements of the blood?
A. megakaryocytes B. macrophages C. reticulocytes D. stem cells E. erythroblasts
True / False Questions
10. The most abundant component of plasma is water. True
False
11. Blood plays an important role in homeostasis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
12. What makes the blood red?
A. albumin B. hemoglobin C. fibrinogen D. globulins E. platelets 13. Mature human red blood cells
A. have a nucleus. B. are biconcave discs without a nucleus. C. are rare in the bloodstream. D. carry plasma. E. fight pathogens. 14. How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 15. Approximately how many oxygen molecules can a single RBC carry?
A. less than 10 B. one hundred C. one thousand D. one million E. one billion
16. What part of the hemoglobin molecule actually binds the oxygen molecule? What part binds carbon dioxide?
A. globin chain, globin chain B. heme, heme C. globin chain, heme D. heme, globin chain 17. How much carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma?
A. 0% B. 1% C. 5% D. 7% E. 10% 18. Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called
A. oxyhemoglobin. B. betahemoglobin. C. carbaminohemoglobin. D. alphahemoglobin. E. deoxyhemoglobin. 19. If your skin and the whites of your eyes appear yellow, what is not being excreted?
A. heme B. globin chains C. carbonic acid D. carbon dioxide E. biocarbonate ion
20. What hormone produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells?
A. carbonic anhydrase B. prolactin C. erythropoietin D. adrenalin E. lipase 21. A test for metal toxicity looks at the amount of metal present in the red blood cell membrane. How long ago could this metal poisoning have occurred?
A. a few days B. a week C. a month D. 3 months E. 6 months 22. If a person does not have enough iron in their diet, they may suffer from
A. acidosis. B. blood doping. C. hemolysis. D. anemia. E. jaundice.
True / False Questions
23. Red blood cells are unable to undergo mitosis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. The production of leukocytes is regulated by
A. rennin. B. erythropoietin. C. colony-stimulating factor. D. folic acid. E. prolactin. 25. Both red blood cells and white blood cells
A. are derived from the same original stem cell. B. have a nucleus. C. have hemoglobin. D. have mitochondria and other organelles. E. can carry carbon dioxide in the blood. 26. Which of the following are agranular leukocytes?
A. neutrophils and basophils B. lymphocytes and monocytes C. eosinophils and monocytes D. monocytes and neutrophils E. neutrophils and lymphocytes 27. In someone with terrible allergies, what leukocyte levels would be elevated?
A. neutrophil, eosinophil B. monocyte, megakaryocyte C. eosinophil, basophil D. lymphocyte, monocyte E. megakaryocyte, basophil
28. Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into
A. megakaryocytes. B. neutrophils. C. globulins. D. macrophages. E. fibrinogens. 29. B lymphocytes are associated with
A. antibody production. B. megakaryocyte breakdown. C. macrophage production. D. antigen production. E. allergic reactions.
True / False Questions
30. White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
31. Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to
A. produce antibodies. B. destroy pathogens. C. increase erythrocyte production. D. stimulate thrombin. E. produce platelets.
32. Robby could not produce the enzyme adenosine deaminase. As a result, he suffered from
A. mononucleosis. B. cystic fibrosis. C. sickle cell anemia. D. SCID. E. Graves disease. 33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
A. It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus. B. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands. C. There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation. D. Active EBV can be passed in saliva. E. The virus remains within a person's body for the rest of his/her life. 34. Mark suffers from nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets outside the marrow. This is called
A. thrombocytopenia. B. thromboembolism. C. hemophilia. D. prothrombin disease. E. sickle-cell anemia. 35. After blood clots, the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called
A. thrombin. B. fibrinogen. C. serum. D. lymph. E. plasma.
36. The vitamin necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation (found in green vegetables and released by intestinal bacteria) is
A. vitamin B. B. vitamin D. C. vitamin A. D. vitamin E. E. vitamin K. 37. The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of
A. leukocytes. B. erythrocytes. C. albumins. D. platelets. E. globulins. 38. The final reaction in blood clotting is
A. fibrinogen → fibrin. B. platelets → prothrombin activator. C. prothrombin → thrombin. D. plasmin → fibrin. E. fibrin → thrombin. 39. Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by
A. keeping the blood within the vessels. B. regulating body temperature. C. destroying pathogens. D. removing debris from the blood. E. maintaining the pH of the blood.
True / False Questions
40. Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Agglutination refers to the
A. production of antibodies. B. destruction of red blood cells. C. development of platelets. D. production of lymphocytes. E. clumping of red blood cells. 42. Jena and Seth could have a child with hemolytic disease of the newborn. Jena must be
A. Rh negative. B. Rh positive. 43. Robby has type B positive blood. His blood will contain
A. A and Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. B. A but no Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. C. B but no Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies. D. B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies. E. B and Rh antigens, and no antibodies. 44. Ray is considered a universal donor. His blood type is
A. O. B. A. C. B. D. AB.
45. Jeremy has type O negative blood. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion?
A. O negative only B. A positive, A negative, B positive, and B negative C. A positive and B positive D. AB positive only E. AB negative only 46. A person with O negative blood has what antigens on their red blood cells?
A. A only B. B only C. A and Rh D. B and Rh E. none
True / False Questions
47. A person will have antibodies against any blood antigens different from their own, regardless of whether they have had a transfusion or not. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
48. In which of the following scenarios would hemolytic disease of the newborn be a possibility?
A. Mom is Rh negative and dad is Rh positive. B. Both mom and dad are Rh negative. C. Both mom and dad are Rh positive. D. Mom is Rh positive and dad is Rh negative.
True / False Questions
49. If mom has already developed anti-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy, a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy. True
False
50. The ABO antigens and Rh antigens are the only blood groups considered before a transfusion. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common?
A. A and B antigens B. A antigens and Rh antigens, anti-B antibodies C. anti-B antibodies and Rh antigens D. A antigens, anti-B antibodies E. A antigens 52. What do type O negative and type AB positive blood have in common?
A. A and B antigens, no antibodies B. A antigens, anti-B antibodies C. B antigens, no antibodies D. no antibodies E. nothing
53. How does the muscular system benefit the blood?
A. protects the vessels B. keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels C. regulates the acid-base balance of the blood D. maintains blood volume E. produces the blood cells 54. Which body system does not dump some product into the blood?
A. the urinary system B. the muscular system C. the digestive system D. the respiratory system E. All body systems dump wastes into the blood
True / False Questions
55. Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
56. Which of the following is not a role the skeletal system plays in helping the cardiovascular system?
A. protects the heart B. produces blood cells C. regulates the contraction of the heart D. stores calcium for blood clotting E. assists muscles in movement of blood in veins
True / False Questions
57. Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation. True
False
Chapter 06 Cardiovascular System: Blood Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not a function of blood?
A. transport B. defense C. regulation D. pumping The major functions of the blood include transport, defense, and regulation. The heart does the pumping.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01.01 List the functions of blood in the human body. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
2.
The two major components of blood are
A. red blood cells and white blood cells. B. plasma and serum. C. plasma and red blood cells. D. formed elements and plasma. E. platelets and plasma. Formed elements and plasma are the two major components of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01.01 List the functions of blood in the human body. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
3.
What are the most abundant plasma proteins that also establish the osmotic pressure of the plasma?
A. fibrinogens B. gamma globulins C. astrocytes D. albumins E. hemoglobin Albumins are the most abundant plasma proteins and contribute by establishing the osmotic pressure of the plasma.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
4.
If there is a problem with clotting, what plasma protein may be involved?
A. fibrinogens B. gamma globulins C. alpha globulins D. albumins E. beta globulins Fibrinogens are plasma proteins that when activated aid in the proper clotting of blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
5.
When Jennifer had to receive a gamma globulin shot after being exposed to hepatitis, the gamma globulins were serving what function?
A. blood clotting agents B. transport molecules for cholesterol and iron C. antibodies D. osmoregulatory molecules E. transport molecules for glucose Gamma globulins serve as antibodies and will protect someone exposed to hepatitis.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
6.
Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma?
A. dissolved O2 B. glucose C. urea D. albumin E. red blood cells Red blood cells are part of the formed elements, not the plasma.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
7.
Which of the following are actually cell fragments and not whole cells?
A. RBCs B. WBCs C. platelets D. albumins E. globulins Platelets are cell fragments of whole cells called megakaryocytes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
8.
RBCs are better known as ________ and WBCs are better known as ___________.
A. lymphocytes, monocytes B. erythrocytes, eosinophils C. leukocytes, erythrocytes D. erythrocytes, leukocytes E. macrophages, neutrophils RBCs are better known as erythrocytes and WBCs are better known as leukocytes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
9.
What gives rise to all the formed elements of the blood?
A. megakaryocytes B. macrophages C. reticulocytes D. stem cells E. erythroblasts Multipotent stem cells give rise to all the formed elements of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
10.
The most abundant component of plasma is water. TRUE Water makes up 91% of plasma.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Section: 06.01
11.
Blood plays an important role in homeostasis. TRUE Blood is involved in regulation of many important functions, including body temperature, osmotic pressure, and acid-base balance.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01.01 List the functions of blood in the human body. Section: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Topic: Homeostasis
Multiple Choice Questions
12.
What makes the blood red?
A. albumin B. hemoglobin C. fibrinogen D. globulins E. platelets Hemoglobin is a pigment that makes red blood cells and blood red.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
13.
Mature human red blood cells
A. have a nucleus. B. are biconcave discs without a nucleus. C. are rare in the bloodstream. D. carry plasma. E. fight pathogens. Mature human red blood cells are biconcave discs without a nucleus.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
14.
How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 There are four globin chains in hemoglobin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
15.
Approximately how many oxygen molecules can a single RBC carry?
A. less than 10 B. one hundred C. one thousand D. one million E. one billion Each hemoglobin molecule can transport 4 molecules of oxygen and each red blood cell contains about 280 million hemoglobin molecules.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.02.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
16.
What part of the hemoglobin molecule actually binds the oxygen molecule? What part binds carbon dioxide?
A. globin chain, globin chain B. heme, heme C. globin chain, heme D. heme, globin chain The heme contains the iron that accepts oxygen. Carbon dioxide binds to the globin chain.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
17.
How much carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma?
A. 0% B. 1% C. 5% D. 7% E. 10% About 7% of the carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
18.
Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called
A. oxyhemoglobin. B. betahemoglobin. C. carbaminohemoglobin. D. alphahemoglobin. E. deoxyhemoglobin. Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called carbaminohemoglobin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
19.
If your skin and the whites of your eyes appear yellow, what is not being excreted?
A. heme B. globin chains C. carbonic acid D. carbon dioxide E. biocarbonate ion This is referred to as jaundice, caused by the failure of the liver to excrete heme.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
20.
What hormone produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells?
A. carbonic anhydrase B. prolactin C. erythropoietin D. adrenalin E. lipase The hormone erythropoietin produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
21.
A test for metal toxicity looks at the amount of metal present in the red blood cell membrane. How long ago could this metal poisoning have occurred?
A. a few days B. a week C. a month D. 3 months E. 6 months Red blood cells only live about 120 days, so the poisoning would have had to occur within the last 120 days.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
22.
If a person does not have enough iron in their diet, they may suffer from
A. acidosis. B. blood doping. C. hemolysis. D. anemia. E. jaundice. Anemia can be caused by an iron deficiency.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
23.
Red blood cells are unable to undergo mitosis. TRUE Red blood cells do not have a nucleus so they cannot undergo mitosis.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 06.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. Section: 06.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
The production of leukocytes is regulated by
A. rennin. B. erythropoietin. C. colony-stimulating factor. D. folic acid. E. prolactin. The production of leukocytes is regulated by colony-stimulating factor.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.03.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
25.
Both red blood cells and white blood cells
A. are derived from the same original stem cell. B. have a nucleus. C. have hemoglobin. D. have mitochondria and other organelles. E. can carry carbon dioxide in the blood. All of the formed elements in the blood originally came from the same type stem cell.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.03.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
26.
Which of the following are agranular leukocytes?
A. neutrophils and basophils B. lymphocytes and monocytes C. eosinophils and monocytes D. monocytes and neutrophils E. neutrophils and lymphocytes Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranular leukocytes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
27.
In someone with terrible allergies, what leukocyte levels would be elevated?
A. neutrophil, eosinophil B. monocyte, megakaryocyte C. eosinophil, basophil D. lymphocyte, monocyte E. megakaryocyte, basophil Eosinophils and basophils are elevated in those with allergies.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
28.
Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into
A. megakaryocytes. B. neutrophils. C. globulins. D. macrophages. E. fibrinogens. Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into macrophages.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
29.
B lymphocytes are associated with
A. antibody production. B. megakaryocyte breakdown. C. macrophage production. D. antigen production. E. allergic reactions. B lymphocytes are associated with antibody production.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
30.
White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days. FALSE Some white blood cells may only live for a few days but others can live for months or even years.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.03.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to
A. produce antibodies. B. destroy pathogens. C. increase erythrocyte production. D. stimulate thrombin. E. produce platelets. Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to physically destroy pathogens.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
32.
Robby could not produce the enzyme adenosine deaminase. As a result, he suffered from
A. mononucleosis. B. cystic fibrosis. C. sickle cell anemia. D. SCID. E. Graves disease. SCID, severe combined immunodeficiency disease, results from the lack of adenosine deaminase.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03.03 Describe some of the disorders associated with white blood cells. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
33.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
A. It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus. B. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands. C. There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation. D. Active EBV can be passed in saliva. E. The virus remains within a person's body for the rest of his/her life. Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which does not involve uncontrollable white blood cell proliferation.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.03.03 Describe some of the disorders associated with white blood cells. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System
34.
Mark suffers from nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets outside the marrow. This is called
A. thrombocytopenia. B. thromboembolism. C. hemophilia. D. prothrombin disease. E. sickle-cell anemia. Nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets outside the marrow is a condition called thrombocytopenia.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.04.03 Describe disorders associated with blood clotting. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
35.
After blood clots, the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called
A. thrombin. B. fibrinogen. C. serum. D. lymph. E. plasma. After blood clots, the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called serum.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
36.
The vitamin necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation (found in green vegetables and released by intestinal bacteria) is
A. vitamin B. B. vitamin D. C. vitamin A. D. vitamin E. E. vitamin K. Vitamin K is needed necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
37.
The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of
A. leukocytes. B. erythrocytes. C. albumins. D. platelets. E. globulins. The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of platelets.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
38.
The final reaction in blood clotting is
A. fibrinogen → fibrin. B. platelets → prothrombin activator. C. prothrombin → thrombin. D. plasmin → fibrin. E. fibrin → thrombin. The final reaction in blood clotting is fibrinogen → fibrin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
39.
Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by
A. keeping the blood within the vessels. B. regulating body temperature. C. destroying pathogens. D. removing debris from the blood. E. maintaining the pH of the blood. Coagulation keeps the blood within the vessels so that we do not bleed to death.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.04.01 Explain how blood clotting relates to homeostasis. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
40.
Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder. TRUE Hemophilia, which results in a deficiency in a clotting factor, is inherited and is therefore a genetic disorder.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.04.03 Describe disorders associated with blood clotting. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Agglutination refers to the
A. production of antibodies. B. destruction of red blood cells. C. development of platelets. D. production of lymphocytes. E. clumping of red blood cells. Agglutination refers to the clumping of red blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
42.
Jena and Seth could have a child with hemolytic disease of the newborn. Jena must be
A. Rh negative. B. Rh positive. There is a danger of hemolytic disease of the newborn when the mother is Rh negative, the father is Rh positive, and the baby is Rh positive. Therefore, Jena must be Rh negative.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 06.05.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
43.
Robby has type B positive blood. His blood will contain
A. A and Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. B. A but no Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. C. B but no Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies. D. B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies. E. B and Rh antigens, and no antibodies. Robby will possess both B antigens and Rh antigens on his red blood cells, and antibodies against A.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
44.
Ray is considered a universal donor. His blood type is
A. O. B. A. C. B. D. AB. Blood type O is the universal donor because it has no antibodies against A or B.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
45.
Jeremy has type O negative blood. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion?
A. O negative only B. A positive, A negative, B positive, and B negative C. A positive and B positive D. AB positive only E. AB negative only Jeremy cannot receive A positive or negative, B positive or negative, or AB positive or negative blood because he has antibodies against both A and B antigens.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.05.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
46.
A person with O negative blood has what antigens on their red blood cells?
A. A only B. B only C. A and Rh D. B and Rh E. none A person with O negative blood has no antigens on their red blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
47.
A person will have antibodies against any blood antigens different from their own, regardless of whether they have had a transfusion or not. TRUE The antibodies against blood antigens develop whether or not a person ever has a transfusion.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
48.
In which of the following scenarios would hemolytic disease of the newborn be a possibility?
A. Mom is Rh negative and dad is Rh positive. B. Both mom and dad are Rh negative. C. Both mom and dad are Rh positive. D. Mom is Rh positive and dad is Rh negative. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is only a possibility when mom is Rh negative and dad is Rh positive making the fetus Rh positive.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
True / False Questions
49.
If mom has already developed anti-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy, a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy. TRUE The purpose of a RhoGAM shot is to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. If they are already formed, the shot will not help.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.05.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
50.
The ABO antigens and Rh antigens are the only blood groups considered before a transfusion. FALSE There are other blood group incompatibilities possible, so before blood can be safely transfused it is necessary to physically combine donor blood with recipient blood on a glass slide and check for agglutination.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common?
A. A and B antigens B. A antigens and Rh antigens, anti-B antibodies C. anti-B antibodies and Rh antigens D. A antigens, anti-B antibodies E. A antigens Blood type A positive has A antigens, Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. Blood type AB negative has A antigens, B antigens, and anti-Rh antibodies. The only thing they have in common is A antigens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
52.
What do type O negative and type AB positive blood have in common?
A. A and B antigens, no antibodies B. A antigens, anti-B antibodies C. B antigens, no antibodies D. no antibodies E. nothing Type O negative blood has no antigens and anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies. Type AB positive blood has A, B, and Rh antigens, and no antibodies. They have nothing in common.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System
53.
How does the muscular system benefit the blood?
A. protects the vessels B. keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels C. regulates the acid-base balance of the blood D. maintains blood volume E. produces the blood cells Muscle contraction keeps blood moving through the heart and in the blood vessels, particularly the veins.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Section: 06.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis
54.
Which body system does not dump some product into the blood?
A. the urinary system B. the muscular system C. the digestive system D. the respiratory system E. All body systems dump wastes into the blood All tissues dump wastes into the blood, so all body systems are intimately involved with the blood.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 06.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Section: 06.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
55.
Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream. TRUE The lymphatic system helps maintain blood volume by collecting excess tissue fluid and returning it to the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Section: 06.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis
Multiple Choice Questions
56.
Which of the following is not a role the skeletal system plays in helping the cardiovascular system?
A. protects the heart B. produces blood cells C. regulates the contraction of the heart D. stores calcium for blood clotting E. assists muscles in movement of blood in veins The nervous system regulates the contraction of the heart.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Section: 06.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
57.
Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation. TRUE The endocrine system assists the cardiovascular system by producing hormones that regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Section: 06.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis
Chapter 06 Cardiovascular System: Blood Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
17
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
23
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
6
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
8
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
3
Learning Outcome: 06.01.01 List the functions of blood in the human body.
3
Learning Outcome: 06.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood.
8
Learning Outcome: 06.02.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport.
3
Learning Outcome: 06.02.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells.
4
Learning Outcome: 06.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production.
5
Learning Outcome: 06.03.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body.
3
Learning Outcome: 06.03.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes.
5
Learning Outcome: 06.03.03 Describe some of the disorders associated with white blood cells.
2
Learning Outcome: 06.04.01 Explain how blood clotting relates to homeostasis.
1
Learning Outcome: 06.04.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot.
4
Learning Outcome: 06.04.03 Describe disorders associated with blood clotting.
2
Learning Outcome: 06.05.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans.
6
Learning Outcome: 06.05.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion.
3
Learning Outcome: 06.05.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
3
Learning Outcome: 06.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain ho
5
meostasis. Section: 06.01
11
Section: 06.02
12
Section: 06.03
10
Section: 06.04
7
Section: 06.05
12
Section: 06.06
5
Topic: Cardiovascular System
56
Topic: Homeostasis
7
Chapter 07 Lymphatic System and Immunity
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What are organisms that are capable of causing disease called?
A. symbionts B. teratogens C. carcinogens D. mutagens E. pathogens 2.
A bacterium that is shaped like a basketball would be called a
A. coccus. B. bacillus. C. spirillus. 3.
The physician prescribed methicillin for Melissa's Staphylococcus infection. He explained to Melissa that certain bacteria such as the Gram positive forms are more sensitive to the "cillin" based drugs. The mode of action of the drug is to
A. inhibit ribosomal activity. B. interfere with the production of the bacterial cell wall. C. denature bacterial DNA. D. speed up bacterial metabolism. E. punch a hole in the cell membrane.
4.
What exist in some bacteria to prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells?
A. pili B. fimbrae C. flagella D. plasmids E. capsules 5.
What do eukaryotes have that prokaryotes do not?
A. ribosomes B. enzymes C. nucleus D. DNA E. cell membrane 6.
Which of the following contributes to the ability of a bacterium to resist antibiotics?
A. capsule B. nucleoid C. plasmid D. fimbriae E. flagellum
True / False Questions
7.
All bacteria are pathogens. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following is not a beneficial contribution of bacteria to humans?
A. decomposers in the environment B. important in the wine, cheese and bread industry C. useful in biotechnology D. symbionts in the digestive tract E. disease-causing agents 9.
From the outside moving in, what is the first structure of a bacterium encountered?
A. cell wall B. capsule C. cell membrane D. cytoplasm E. nucleoid 10. Choose the following statement that does not describe viruses.
A. They contain a protein coat called a capsid. B. They may contain genomic DNA or RNA. C. They are acellular. D. They are obligate intracellular parasites. E. They grow and develop.
True / False Questions
11. A virus does not contain ribosomes. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
12. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A. strep throat B. tuberculosis C. chicken pox D. gonorrhea E. syphilis 13. Prions cause degenerative diseases of what system?
A. cardiovascular B. digestive C. urinary D. lymphatic E. nervous 14. A prion consists of
A. DNA only. B. protein only. C. RNA only. D. DNA plus protein. E. DNA, RNA, and protein. 15. Which of the following is not one of the functions of the lymphatic system?
A. take up excess tissue fluid, return it to the bloodstream B. absorb fats in the intestines C. help the body defend against disease D. production, maintenance ,and distribution of lymphocytes E. calcium homeostasis
16. What is the name of the lymphatic vessels located in the small intestines?
A. tonsils B. nodes C. polyps D. adenoids E. lacteals 17. Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ?
A. spleen B. tonsil C. thymus D. liver E. red bone marrow 18. In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system?
A. one-way system B. contain valves C. take up excess tissue fluid D. dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction 19. Which of the lymphatic organs is also part of the skeletal system?
A. spleen B. thymus C. tonsils D. red marrow E. lymph nodes
20. Where does the lymphatic system empty into the cardiovascular system?
A. tonsils B. axillary lymph nodes C. inguinal lymph nodes D. thymus E. the right lymphatic duct 21. Where do T lymphocytes mature?
A. thymus B. thyroid C. spleen D. red bone marrow E. tonsil 22. If the lymph system did not do its job, what would be one of the consequences?
A. excess glucose in the blood stream B. slow reaction time to external stimuli C. inability to clot D. edema in the tissues E. jaundice
True / False Questions
23. The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. One set of the body's defenses are called "innate." In this context, this means
A. they act indiscriminately against all pathogens. B. they work very, very quickly. C. they only act internally. D. phagocytosis is involved. E. they are lost as we age. 25. Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen?
A. intact skin B. mucous membranes C. sebaceous secretions D. acid pH of stomach E. inflammatory response 26. How can normal flora be a barrier to entry?
A. They cause an inflammatory response that kills pathogenic bacteria upon contact. B. They phagocytize any pathogenic bacteria that attempt to infect. C. They use up nutrients and release wastes, preventing pathogenic bacteria from gaining a foothold. D. They release histamine which causes blood vessels to become permeable. E. They activate the complement system which punches holes in the invading pathogen. 27. What cell types are involved in the inflammatory response?
A. eosinophils and neutrophils B. eosinophils and basophils C. basophils and macrophages D. neutrophils and macrophages E. normal flora (bacteria mostly)
28. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
A. redness B. heat C. swelling D. pain E. difficulty breathing 29. Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?
A. neutrophils B. eosinophils C. basophils D. macrophages E. red blood cells
True / False Questions
30. Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
31. Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by
A. creating interferon. B. causing them to burst. C. inactivating their ribosomes. D. agglutinating them. E. destroying their nucleic acids.
32. The reason the complement system is called that is because it
A. is part of the inflammatory response. B. helps other immune responses. C. involves chemical barriers to entry. D. produces T and B cells. E. is composed of normal flora.
True / False Questions
33. The membrane attack complex of the complement system is not effective against viruses. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
34. T cells can recognize antigens because they
A. have enzymes which react with antigens. B. possess specific receptors. C. produce antibodies. D. possess fimbrae. E. become plasma cells. 35. Which of the following is in the correct order in the formation of antibodies?
A. antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; B cell activated; plasma cells form B. B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; plasma cells form C. plasma cells form; B cell activated; B cell divides; antigen binds to BCR D. antigen binds to BCR; B cell activated; B cell divides; plasma cells form E. plasma cells form; B cell divides; B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR
36. What is the definition of an antigen?
A. anything the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body B. a protein produced by plasma cells that attacks pathogens C. a type of white blood cell D. a part of the membrane attack complex of the complement system E. a form of immune deficiency
True / False Questions
37. The acquired defense system only recognizes and destroys cells with antigens that come from outside the body. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
38. What are the first antibodies produced by a plasma cell?
A. IgG B. IgE C. IgM D. IgD E. IgA 39. In antibody-mediated immunity where does the antigen first bind?
A. memory cell B. plasma cell C. BCR D. helper T cell E. TCR
40. Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics. Under these conditions, which antibody levels would be higher than normal?
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM E. IgE 41. What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes?
A. thyroid and tonsils B. tonsils and thymus C. thymus and bone marrow D. bone marrow and thyroid E. tonsils and bone marrow 42. Shaun was in need of a kidney transplant. What is the most important thing that needs to match between him and the kidney donor?
A. TCR B. MHC C. PCR D. HCG E. EKG 43. Cytotoxic T cells contain what type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens?
A. steroid B. interferon C. antioxidant D. complement E. perforin
44. In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen.
A. active, neutral B. passive, neutral C. active, passive D. passive, active E. neutral, active 45. What do "having the measles" and being vaccinated against the measles have in common?
A. They are both forms of active immunity. B. They are both forms of neutral immunity. C. They are both forms of passive immunity. D. They are both forms of an infection. E. They are both forms of an immune deficiency. 46. The RhoGAM shot (discussed in chapter 6) given to Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus is an example of what type of immunity?
A. active B. passive C. nonspecific D. general E. neutral 47. Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies?
A. They are produced by a variety of unrelated B cells. B. They are produced by a clone derived from a single T lymphocyte. C. They are produced by hybridomas. D. They are composed of antibodies with a variety of different variable regions. E. They are primarily produced by mast cells when a person has an allergy.
True / False Questions
48. Monoclonal antibodies can be used to treat cancer, identify infections, and determine if a woman is pregnant. True
False
49. If you were vaccinated against the mumps virus and later exposed to it, you would still be infected but it would not be as bad as if you had never been vaccinated. True
False
50. Cytokines are signaling molecules produced by hybridomas. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. Before working at the hospital, Beth was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis. If it were positive, the site of the test would become hardened and red. What type of response is this?
A. anaphylactic B. histamine C. immediate allergic D. delayed allergic E. B-cell mediated 52. When stung by a bee, Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock. This should be quickly treated with
A. epinephrine. B. histamine. C. cytokines. D. interferon. E. a vaccination.
53. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A. hay fever B. rheumatic fever C. rheumatoid arthritis D. systemic lupus erythematosus E. myasthenia gravis
True / False Questions
54. An allergic response is an over reaction of the immune system. True
False
55. In SCID, antibodies are missing but T cells function normally. True
False
56. All autoimmune diseases are caused by environmental factors such as viral infections. True
False
57. People with allergies do not produce IgE. True
False
Chapter 07 Lymphatic System and Immunity Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What are organisms that are capable of causing disease called?
A. symbionts B. teratogens C. carcinogens D. mutagens E. pathogens Pathogens are organisms such as viruses and bacteria that are capable of causing disease.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Viruses
2.
A bacterium that is shaped like a basketball would be called a
A. coccus. B. bacillus. C. spirillus. Cocci are spherical in shape.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
3.
The physician prescribed methicillin for Melissa's Staphylococcus infection. He explained to Melissa that certain bacteria such as the Gram positive forms are more sensitive to the "cillin" based drugs. The mode of action of the drug is to
A. inhibit ribosomal activity. B. interfere with the production of the bacterial cell wall. C. denature bacterial DNA. D. speed up bacterial metabolism. E. punch a hole in the cell membrane. Methicillin and other "cillin" drugs are used against certain bacteria because they interfere with the production of the cell wall.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
4.
What exist in some bacteria to prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells?
A. pili B. fimbrae C. flagella D. plasmids E. capsules Capsules exist in some bacteria and prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
5.
What do eukaryotes have that prokaryotes do not?
A. ribosomes B. enzymes C. nucleus D. DNA E. cell membrane Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus or other organelles.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
6.
Which of the following contributes to the ability of a bacterium to resist antibiotics?
A. capsule B. nucleoid C. plasmid D. fimbriae E. flagellum A plasmid often carries resistance genes for antibiotics.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
True / False Questions
7.
All bacteria are pathogens. FALSE Many bacteria are beneficial to humans and do not cause disease.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following is not a beneficial contribution of bacteria to humans?
A. decomposers in the environment B. important in the wine, cheese and bread industry C. useful in biotechnology D. symbionts in the digestive tract E. disease-causing agents Bacteria can cause disease in humans and other organisms, thereby harming humans.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
9.
From the outside moving in, what is the first structure of a bacterium encountered?
A. cell wall B. capsule C. cell membrane D. cytoplasm E. nucleoid The capsule is on the outside of the bacterium.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
10.
Choose the following statement that does not describe viruses.
A. They contain a protein coat called a capsid. B. They may contain genomic DNA or RNA. C. They are acellular. D. They are obligate intracellular parasites. E. They grow and develop. Viruses do not grow and develop.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. Section: 07.01 Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
11.
A virus does not contain ribosomes. TRUE Viruses depend on the host cell to provide ribosomes for protein translation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. Section: 07.01 Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
12.
Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A. strep throat B. tuberculosis C. chicken pox D. gonorrhea E. syphilis Chicken pox is caused by the Varicella zoster virus.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. Section: 07.01 Topic: Viruses
13.
Prions cause degenerative diseases of what system?
A. cardiovascular B. digestive C. urinary D. lymphatic E. nervous Prions cause degenerative diseases of the nervous system called spongiform encephalopathies.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. Section: 07.01 Topic: Viruses
14.
A prion consists of
A. DNA only. B. protein only. C. RNA only. D. DNA plus protein. E. DNA, RNA, and protein. A prion is a proteinaceous infectious particle, composed only of protein.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. Section: 07.01 Topic: Viruses
15.
Which of the following is not one of the functions of the lymphatic system?
A. take up excess tissue fluid, return it to the bloodstream B. absorb fats in the intestines C. help the body defend against disease D. production, maintenance ,and distribution of lymphocytes E. calcium homeostasis The lymphatic system is not responsible for calcium homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02.02 Summarize how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis. Section: 07.02 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Immune System
16.
What is the name of the lymphatic vessels located in the small intestines?
A. tonsils B. nodes C. polyps D. adenoids E. lacteals Lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are located in the small intestines.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
17.
Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ?
A. spleen B. tonsil C. thymus D. liver E. red bone marrow The liver is not a lymphatic organ.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
18.
In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system?
A. one-way system B. contain valves C. take up excess tissue fluid D. dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction Veins in the cardiovascular system do not take up excess tissue fluid.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
19.
Which of the lymphatic organs is also part of the skeletal system?
A. spleen B. thymus C. tonsils D. red marrow E. lymph nodes The red bone marrow is the site for the origin of all types of blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
20.
Where does the lymphatic system empty into the cardiovascular system?
A. tonsils B. axillary lymph nodes C. inguinal lymph nodes D. thymus E. the right lymphatic duct The right lymphatic duct returns lymph into the right subclavian vein.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02.03 Explain how the lymphatic system interacts with the circulatory system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
21.
Where do T lymphocytes mature?
A. thymus B. thyroid C. spleen D. red bone marrow E. tonsil The T lymphocytes mature in the thymus.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
22.
If the lymph system did not do its job, what would be one of the consequences?
A. excess glucose in the blood stream B. slow reaction time to external stimuli C. inability to clot D. edema in the tissues E. jaundice Because the lymphatic system collects excess tissue fluid, if it were not working, swelling (edema) would occur in the tissues.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07.02.02 Summarize how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis. Section: 07.02 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
23.
The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria. FALSE The spleen cleanses the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02.03 Explain how the lymphatic system interacts with the circulatory system. Section: 07.02 Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
One set of the body's defenses are called "innate." In this context, this means
A. they act indiscriminately against all pathogens. B. they work very, very quickly. C. they only act internally. D. phagocytosis is involved. E. they are lost as we age. "Innate" in this context means that these defenses act indiscriminately against all pathogens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.03.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
25.
Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen?
A. intact skin B. mucous membranes C. sebaceous secretions D. acid pH of stomach E. inflammatory response The inflammatory response occurs after the pathogen has entered the body.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.03.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
26.
How can normal flora be a barrier to entry?
A. They cause an inflammatory response that kills pathogenic bacteria upon contact. B. They phagocytize any pathogenic bacteria that attempt to infect. C. They use up nutrients and release wastes, preventing pathogenic bacteria from gaining a foothold. D. They release histamine which causes blood vessels to become permeable. E. They activate the complement system which punches holes in the invading pathogen. By their presence, resident bacteria or normal flora use up nutrients and release waste that make the environment inhospitable for invading pathogens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.03.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
27.
What cell types are involved in the inflammatory response?
A. eosinophils and neutrophils B. eosinophils and basophils C. basophils and macrophages D. neutrophils and macrophages E. normal flora (bacteria mostly) Neutrophils and macrophages are the main cells involved in the inflammatory response.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.03.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
28.
Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
A. redness B. heat C. swelling D. pain E. difficulty breathing The four signs of inflammation are redness, heat, swelling, and pain.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
29.
Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?
A. neutrophils B. eosinophils C. basophils D. macrophages E. red blood cells Monocytes become macrophages once they enter the tissues.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
30.
Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process. TRUE When an injury is not serious, the inflammatory response is short-lived and the healing process will quickly return the affected area to the normal state.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.03.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by
A. creating interferon. B. causing them to burst. C. inactivating their ribosomes. D. agglutinating them. E. destroying their nucleic acids. Certain complement proteins involved in the membrane attack complex kills foreign microbes by causing them to burst.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.03.03 Explain the role of the complement system. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
32.
The reason the complement system is called that is because it
A. is part of the inflammatory response. B. helps other immune responses. C. involves chemical barriers to entry. D. produces T and B cells. E. is composed of normal flora. The complement proteins "complement" certain other immune responses.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.03.03 Explain the role of the complement system. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
33.
The membrane attack complex of the complement system is not effective against viruses. TRUE Since viruses are not surrounded by a membrane, the membrane attack complex is ineffective against them.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07.03.03 Explain the role of the complement system. Section: 07.03 Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
34.
T cells can recognize antigens because they
A. have enzymes which react with antigens. B. possess specific receptors. C. produce antibodies. D. possess fimbrae. E. become plasma cells. T cells possess specific receptors that help them identify antigens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.04.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
35.
Which of the following is in the correct order in the formation of antibodies?
A. antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; B cell activated; plasma cells form B. B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; plasma cells form C. plasma cells form; B cell activated; B cell divides; antigen binds to BCR D. antigen binds to BCR; B cell activated; B cell divides; plasma cells form E. plasma cells form; B cell divides; B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR The correct order is: antigen binds to BCR; B cell activated; B cell divides; plasma cells form.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
36.
What is the definition of an antigen?
A. anything the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body B. a protein produced by plasma cells that attacks pathogens C. a type of white blood cell D. a part of the membrane attack complex of the complement system E. a form of immune deficiency Anything that the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body is called an antigen.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04.01 Explain the role of an antigen in the acquired defenses. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
37.
The acquired defense system only recognizes and destroys cells with antigens that come from outside the body. FALSE The acquired defense system will also recognize cancer cells with abnormal membrane proteins and destroy them.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04.01 Explain the role of an antigen in the acquired defenses. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
What are the first antibodies produced by a plasma cell?
A. IgG B. IgE C. IgM D. IgD E. IgA IgM antibodies are the first produced by a plasma cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.04.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
39.
In antibody-mediated immunity where does the antigen first bind?
A. memory cell B. plasma cell C. BCR D. helper T cell E. TCR The antigen first binds to the B-cell receptor (BCR) to activate antibody-mediated immunity.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.04.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
40.
Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics. Under these conditions, which antibody levels would be higher than normal?
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM E. IgE IgE antibody levels rise in an parasite infection and would therefore be higher than normal.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.04.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
41.
What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes?
A. thyroid and tonsils B. tonsils and thymus C. thymus and bone marrow D. bone marrow and thyroid E. tonsils and bone marrow Lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow and T lymphocytes travel to the thymus to mature.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
42.
Shaun was in need of a kidney transplant. What is the most important thing that needs to match between him and the kidney donor?
A. TCR B. MHC C. PCR D. HCG E. EKG The Major Histocompatibility Complex antigens must match to avoid rejection of the transplant.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
43.
Cytotoxic T cells contain what type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens?
A. steroid B. interferon C. antioxidant D. complement E. perforin Cytotoxic T cells contain perforin molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07.04 Topic: Immune System
44.
In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen.
A. active, neutral B. passive, neutral C. active, passive D. passive, active E. neutral, active In active immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens and in passive immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Section: 07.05 Topic: Immune System
45.
What do "having the measles" and being vaccinated against the measles have in common?
A. They are both forms of active immunity. B. They are both forms of neutral immunity. C. They are both forms of passive immunity. D. They are both forms of an infection. E. They are both forms of an immune deficiency. Active immunity involves making your own antibodies against an antigen, whether it is introduced via an infection or a vaccination.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.05.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Section: 07.05 Topic: Immune System
46.
The RhoGAM shot (discussed in chapter 6) given to Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus is an example of what type of immunity?
A. active B. passive C. nonspecific D. general E. neutral The RhoGAM shot is an example of passive immunity. It is an injection of serum that contains antibodies.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.05.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Section: 07.05 Topic: Immune System
47.
Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies?
A. They are produced by a variety of unrelated B cells. B. They are produced by a clone derived from a single T lymphocyte. C. They are produced by hybridomas. D. They are composed of antibodies with a variety of different variable regions. E. They are primarily produced by mast cells when a person has an allergy. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridomas.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.05.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity. Section: 07.05 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
48.
Monoclonal antibodies can be used to treat cancer, identify infections, and determine if a woman is pregnant. TRUE All of these are current uses of monoclonal antibodies.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity. Section: 07.05 Topic: Immune System
49.
If you were vaccinated against the mumps virus and later exposed to it, you would still be infected but it would not be as bad as if you had never been vaccinated. FALSE The purpose of a vaccination is to prevent an infection by causing active immunity.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07.05.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Section: 07.05
Topic: Immune System
50.
Cytokines are signaling molecules produced by hybridomas. FALSE Cytokines are produced by T lymphocytes, macrophages, and other cells. Hybridomas produce monoclonal antibodies.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.05.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity. Section: 07.05 Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
Before working at the hospital, Beth was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis. If it were positive, the site of the test would become hardened and red. What type of response is this?
A. anaphylactic B. histamine C. immediate allergic D. delayed allergic E. B-cell mediated The Mantoux skin test uses the delayed allergic response to indicate exposure to tuberculosis.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.06.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
52.
When stung by a bee, Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock. This should be quickly treated with
A. epinephrine. B. histamine. C. cytokines. D. interferon. E. a vaccination. Epinephrine counteracts the effects of histamine in anaphylactic shock.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.06.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
53.
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A. hay fever B. rheumatic fever C. rheumatoid arthritis D. systemic lupus erythematosus E. myasthenia gravis Hay fever is a hypersensitivity.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.06.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
54.
An allergic response is an over reaction of the immune system. TRUE Allergic responses are hypersensitivities (greater sensitivities).
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.06.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
55.
In SCID, antibodies are missing but T cells function normally. FALSE In severe combined immunodeficiency disease, both B and T cells are lacking.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.06.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
56.
All autoimmune diseases are caused by environmental factors such as viral infections. FALSE Autoimmune diseases can be genetic or environmental.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.06.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
57.
People with allergies do not produce IgE. FALSE People with allergies produce ten times more IgE than those people without allergies.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.06.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction. Section: 07.06 Topic: Immune System
Chapter 07 Lymphatic System and Immunity Summary Category
# of Questions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
13
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
25
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
2
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
13
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
4
Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
4
Learning Outcome: 07.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell.
5
Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Describe the structure of a general virus.
5
Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system.
5
Learning Outcome: 07.02.02 Summarize how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis.
2
Learning Outcome: 07.02.03 Explain how the lymphatic system interacts with the circulatory system.
2
Learning Outcome: 07.03.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses.
3
Learning Outcome: 07.03.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response.
4
Learning Outcome: 07.03.03 Explain the role of the complement system.
3
Learning Outcome: 07.04.01 Explain the role of an antigen in the acquired defenses.
2
Learning Outcome: 07.04.02 Summarize the process of antibody-
4
mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Learning Outcome: 07.04.03 Summarize the process of cell-
4
mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Learning Outcome: 07.05.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity.
4
Learning Outcome: 07.05.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity.
3
Learning Outcome: 07.06.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction.
4
Learning Outcome: 07.06.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases.
3
Section: 07.01
14
Section: 07.02
9
Section: 07.03
10
Section: 07.04
10
Section: 07.05
7
Section: 07.06
7
Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
9
Topic: Homeostasis
2
Topic: Immune System
43
Topic: Viruses
6
Chapter 08 Digestive System and Nutrition
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of following is not considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A. liver B. salivary glands C. small intestines D. pancreas E. gallbladder 2.
The process of mechanical digestion includes
A. breakdown of food particles by enzymes. B. physically making food smaller and easier to handle. C. churning of food in the muscular stomach. D. hydrolysis of nutrients. E. absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. 3.
Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A. to ingest food B. to digest food into small nutrients so that the molecules that can pass through membranes C. to absorb nutrient molecules D. to eliminate indigestible remains E. to protect against pathogens
4.
The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels, lymph, and nerves is called the
A. mucosa. B. submucosa. C. muscularis. D. serosa. E. diverticulum. 5.
What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract?
A. mouth, esophagus, pharynx, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, rectum, anus B. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus C. mouth, pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, rectum, large intestine, anus D. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus E. mouth, rectum, large intestine, small intestine, stomach, esophagus, pharynx, anus 6.
The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside layer outward in order are
A. submucosa, muscularis, mucosa, serosa. B. serosa, submucosa, muscularis, mucosa. C. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. D. muscularis, serosa, mucosa, submucosa. E. mucosa, muscularis, serosa, submucosa 7.
If your appendix bursts it may lead to a life threatening condition called
A. peritonitis. B. diverticulitis. C. rickets. D. osteoporosis. E. cirrhosis.
True / False Questions
8.
All of the accessory organs of the digestive system send secretions to the small intestine. True
9.
False
Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
10. The fleshy extension of the soft palate is known as the
A. epiglottis. B. uvula. C. pharynx. D. adenoid. E. cecum. 11. What prevents food from entering the nasal cavities?
A. tonsils B. mandible and maxilla C. hard and soft palate D. cheek E. salivary glands 12. The dentist explained that dental caries are caused by
A. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. B. yeast within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. C. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing proteins. D. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar. E. enzymes within the mouth metabolizing sugars.
13. Which of the following is not found in/on the tongue?
A. muscle B. dentin C. taste buds D. mucous membrane E. sensory receptors 14. Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ___________.
A. neurological disorders. B. peritonitis. C. vitamin deficiencies. D. cardiovascular disease. E. asthma.
True / False Questions
15. Swallowing consists of both a voluntary phase and a reflex action. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
16. What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth?
A. salivary lipase B. salivary protease C. salivary sucrase D. salivary amylase E. salivary lactase
17. Mr. Staub was rushed to the hospital because he had intense pain in his chest. After running tests on Mr. Staub it was determined that it was not suffering from a heart attack but from
A. diverticulitis. B. gastroesophageal reflux disease. C. gingivitis. D. peridontitis. E. inflammatory bowel syndrome. 18. The process that pushes food through the esophagus is called
A. peritoneum. B. periosteum. C. peristalsis. D. perineum. E. peridontal. 19. Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called
A. frenula. B. sphincters. C. cannula. D. anastomoses. E. buccinators.
True / False Questions
20. The glottis closes off the larynx so the bolus of food enters the esophagus and not the trachea. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. The primary function of the stomach is to
A. break down fats. B. store food, churn, and begin digestion. C. absorb major nutrients. D. package feces. E. eliminate water and tissue fluid. 22. What greatly increases the capacity of the stomach?
A. crypts B. lumens C. polyps D. rugae E. diverticula 23. Which of the following is not associated with the stomach?
A. alcohol absorption B. gastric glands C. rugae D. duodenum E. pepsin 24. The thick, soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called
A. bolus. B. pepsin. C. chyme. D. lacteal. E. lipase.
True / False Questions
25. The stomach is bounded on both ends by a sphincter. True
False
26. The small intestine is longer than the large intestine. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect?
A. Nuclease-DNA B. Lipase-fat C. Pepsin-protein D. Amylase-starch E. Trypsin-carbohydrates 28. Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH. Therefore, it must act in the
A. stomach. B. small intestine. C. mouth. D. large intestine. E. esophagus. 29. Which of the following is not associated with the small intestine?
A. many villi B. gastric pits C. brush border enzymes D. lacteals E. bile and lipase
30. What serves as an emulsifying agent in the small intestine?
A. lipase B. bile C. amylase D. pepsin E. maltase 31. The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as
A. mesenteries. B. lacteals. C. gastric glands. D. duodenal pits. E. microvilli. 32. The main symptoms of lactose intolerance are
A. internal bleeding and headaches. B. dehydration and itching. C. diarrhea and itching. D. diarrhea and bloating. E. shortness of breath and bloating. 33. When Sheree opened the abdominal cavity of her preserved frog, it seemed to be filled with a dark brown organ. This is the
A. liver. B. pancreas. C. gallbladder. D. stomach. E. large intestine.
34. Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
A. bile B. sodium bicarbonate C. amylase D. trypsin E. lipase 35. Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
A. It secretes bile through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. B. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and bile into the blood. C. It secretes secretin through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. D. It secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. E. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and secretin into the blood. 36. Which of the following is not a liver function?
A. It helps regulate blood cholesterol levels. B. It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine. C. It removes iron and certain vitamins from the blood and stores them. D. It removes poisonous substances from the blood and detoxifies them. E. It produces bile. 37. A serious genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis is often called the rusty organ disease and affects nearly 1.5 million Americans. The disorder causes increased absorption of intestinal iron. Which organ is responsible for iron homeostasis?
A. brain B. lungs C. liver D. gallbladder E. spleen
38. Why is bile a yellowish-greenish color?
A. It contains pancreatic juices. B. It contains bilirubin. C. It contains biliverdin. D. It contains chlorophyll. E. It contains cholesterol.
True / False Questions
39. The gallbladder produces bile. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
40. What type of hepatitis is usually acquired through blood transfusions or sexual contact?
A. B B. A C. C 41. Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the liver to increase its production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile?
A. GIP B. CCK C. HCl D. ATP E. NAD
True / False Questions
42. The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones. True
False
43. There is a hormone produced by the stomach that feeds back and acts on the stomach. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. The major portions of the large intestine include
A. the duodenum, cecum, and rectum. B. the jejunum, colon, and anus. C. the cecum, colon, rectum, and anus. D. the colon, duodenum, cecum, and rectum. E. the colon, anus, duodenum, and jejunum. 45. What is the major function of the colon?
A. digestion/absorption B. form feces C. churning foodstuffs D. passageway only E. eliminate iron
46. What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine?
A. absorb iron B. absorb fats C. produce vitamin B D. produce bile E. absorb water 47. Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count. What should the fisheries officers do?
A. Nothing. A high coliform count is normal. B. Nothing. This is good for oyster production. C. Shut down the bay. This is harmful to humans who eat the oysters. D. Shut down the bay. This is harmful to the oysters. 48. Small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon are called
A. cysts. B. villi. C. polyps. D. lacteals. E. wheals. 49. What is the relationship between Crohn's disease and inflammatory bowel disease?
A. Crohn's disease is one of the most common inflammatory bowel diseases. B. Inflammatory bowel disease is a type of Crohn's disease. C. They are two separate diseases but both affect only the colon. D. In Crohn's disease, the colon is affected, but in inflammatory bowel disease only the small intestine is affected. E. In Crohn's disease, small pouches form in the muscularis, while in inflammatory bowel disease, inflammation occurs throughout the digestive tract.
True / False Questions
50. Constipation can be treated by adding fiber to the diet. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. Bryan is 6' 2" and weighs 160 pounds. Calculate his BMI and determine his status based upon figure 8.11.
A. 25.2, healthy B. 20.5, healthy C. 32.4, obese D. 33.5, obese E. 27.6, overweight
True / False Questions
52. Today, obesity is often defined as having a body mass index of 20 or greater. True
False
53. The BMI is useful because it tells you how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue regardless of your fitness, bone structure, or gender. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet?
A. Carbohydrates are considered a "complete" nutrient. B. Some carbohydrates contain essential fatty acids. C. Some carbohydrates contain essential amino acids. D. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy for the body. E. Brain cells require glucose. 55. Which of the following will not reduce dietary lipids?
A. Remove skin from poultry. B. Broil rather than fry. C. Use butter instead of herbs and spices. D. Use lemon juice instead of salad dressing. E. Avoid packaged foods that contain hydrogenated fats. 56. Chad was concerned about eating foods with a high glycemic index because these foods
A. can cause LDL levels to increase. B. can cause HDL levels to decrease. C. can cause fatty acids to build up. D. can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose. E. can cause a sudden drop in blood glucose levels. 57. Which of the following is necessary for strong bones and teeth, nerve conduction, muscle contraction, and blood clotting?
A. calcium B. iron C. magnesium D. sodium E. sulfur
58. A diet rich in what vitamins may reduce the chance of free radicals that can cause health problems?
A. C and B12 B. C, E, and A C. D and C D. D, C, and E E. B12, C, and E 59. A deficiency in which mineral leads to thyroid deficiency?
A. iodine B. copper C. zinc D. selenium E. manganese 60. Which vitamin is fat soluble?
A. vitamin C B. vitamin E C. vitamin B6 D. vitamin B12 E. biotin
True / False Questions
61. When a nutrition labels states that something has "0" grams of trans fat, this might not mean there are no trans fats in the food. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
62. About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are
A. young men. B. older women. C. young women. D. older men.
Chapter 08 Digestive System and Nutrition Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of following is not considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A. liver B. salivary glands C. small intestines D. pancreas E. gallbladder The small intestines are part of the digestive system, not an accessory organ.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01.02 List the accessory organs and provide a function for each. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
2.
The process of mechanical digestion includes
A. breakdown of food particles by enzymes. B. physically making food smaller and easier to handle. C. churning of food in the muscular stomach. D. hydrolysis of nutrients. E. absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. The process of mechanical digestion includes physically making food smaller and easier to handle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
3.
Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A. to ingest food B. to digest food into small nutrients so that the molecules that can pass through membranes C. to absorb nutrient molecules D. to eliminate indigestible remains E. to protect against pathogens The immune system protects against pathogens.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
4.
The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels, lymph, and nerves is called the
A. mucosa. B. submucosa. C. muscularis. D. serosa. E. diverticulum. The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels, lymph, and nerves is called the submucosa.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
5.
What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract?
A. mouth, esophagus, pharynx, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, rectum, anus B. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus C. mouth, pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, rectum, large intestine, anus D. mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus E. mouth, rectum, large intestine, small intestine, stomach, esophagus, pharynx, anus The digestive system begins at the mouth and includes the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
6.
The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside layer outward in order are
A. submucosa, muscularis, mucosa, serosa. B. serosa, submucosa, muscularis, mucosa. C. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. D. muscularis, serosa, mucosa, submucosa. E. mucosa, muscularis, serosa, submucosa The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside in order are the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis, and the serosa.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.01.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
7.
If your appendix bursts it may lead to a life threatening condition called
A. peritonitis. B. diverticulitis. C. rickets. D. osteoporosis. E. cirrhosis. A burst appendix may lead to a life threatening condition called peritonitis.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
8.
All of the accessory organs of the digestive system send secretions to the small intestine. FALSE Only the gallbladder and pancreas send secretions to the small intestine.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.01.02 List the accessory organs and provide a function for each. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
9.
Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion. TRUE Mechanical digestion occurs in the mouth by chewing and by peristalsis of the smooth muscles in the stomach.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. Section: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
10.
The fleshy extension of the soft palate is known as the
A. epiglottis. B. uvula. C. pharynx. D. adenoid. E. cecum. The uvula is the fleshy extension of the soft palate.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
11.
What prevents food from entering the nasal cavities?
A. tonsils B. mandible and maxilla C. hard and soft palate D. cheek E. salivary glands The roof of the mouth, composed of the hard and soft palates, separate the oral cavity from the nasal cavities.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
12.
The dentist explained that dental caries are caused by
A. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. B. yeast within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. C. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing proteins. D. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar. E. enzymes within the mouth metabolizing sugars. Dental caries or cavities occur when bacteria within the mouth metabolize sugar.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
13.
Which of the following is not found in/on the tongue?
A. muscle B. dentin C. taste buds D. mucous membrane E. sensory receptors Dentin is found in teeth, not the tongue.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
14.
Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ___________.
A. neurological disorders. B. peritonitis. C. vitamin deficiencies. D. cardiovascular disease. E. asthma. Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to cardiovascular disease.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
15.
Swallowing consists of both a voluntary phase and a reflex action. TRUE Swallowing has a voluntary phase. However, once food or drink is pushed back far enough, swallowing becomes a reflex action.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
16.
What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth?
A. salivary lipase B. salivary protease C. salivary sucrase D. salivary amylase E. salivary lactase Salivary amylase initiates the process of starch digestion.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
17.
Mr. Staub was rushed to the hospital because he had intense pain in his chest. After running tests on Mr. Staub it was determined that it was not suffering from a heart attack but from
A. diverticulitis. B. gastroesophageal reflux disease. C. gingivitis. D. peridontitis. E. inflammatory bowel syndrome. GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) can also cause intense chest pain.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.02.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
18.
The process that pushes food through the esophagus is called
A. peritoneum. B. periosteum. C. peristalsis. D. perineum. E. peridontal. The rhythmic contractions of the digestive tract that allow movement of foodstuffs are called peristalsis.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
19.
Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called
A. frenula. B. sphincters. C. cannula. D. anastomoses. E. buccinators. Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called sphincters.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
20.
The glottis closes off the larynx so the bolus of food enters the esophagus and not the trachea. FALSE The epiglottis closes off the larynx.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. Section: 08.02 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
21.
The primary function of the stomach is to
A. break down fats. B. store food, churn, and begin digestion. C. absorb major nutrients. D. package feces. E. eliminate water and tissue fluid. The primary function of the stomach is to store food, churn, and begin digestion.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
22.
What greatly increases the capacity of the stomach?
A. crypts B. lumens C. polyps D. rugae E. diverticula The mucosa of the stomach has deep folds called rugae that greatly increase the capacity of the stomach.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
23.
Which of the following is not associated with the stomach?
A. alcohol absorption B. gastric glands C. rugae D. duodenum E. pepsin The duodenum is part of the small intestine, not the stomach.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
24.
The thick, soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called
A. bolus. B. pepsin. C. chyme. D. lacteal. E. lipase. The thick, soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called chyme.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
25.
The stomach is bounded on both ends by a sphincter. TRUE The lower gastroesophageal sphincter and the pyloric sphincter are found at either end of the stomach.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
26.
The small intestine is longer than the large intestine. TRUE The small intestine is about 18 feet in length while the large intestine is only about 4 1/2 feet in length.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect?
A. Nuclease-DNA B. Lipase-fat C. Pepsin-protein D. Amylase-starch E. Trypsin-carbohydrates Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that digests proteins.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.03.03 Explain how carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are processed by the small intestine. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
28.
Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH. Therefore, it must act in the
A. stomach. B. small intestine. C. mouth. D. large intestine. E. esophagus. Pepsin acts in the stomach.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
29.
Which of the following is not associated with the small intestine?
A. many villi B. gastric pits C. brush border enzymes D. lacteals E. bile and lipase Gastric pits are located in the stomach.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
30.
What serves as an emulsifying agent in the small intestine?
A. lipase B. bile C. amylase D. pepsin E. maltase In the small intestines, bile serves as an emulsifying agent.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
31.
The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as
A. mesenteries. B. lacteals. C. gastric glands. D. duodenal pits. E. microvilli. The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as lacteals.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
32.
The main symptoms of lactose intolerance are
A. internal bleeding and headaches. B. dehydration and itching. C. diarrhea and itching. D. diarrhea and bloating. E. shortness of breath and bloating. Lactose intolerance may cause diarrhea and bloating.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03.03 Explain how carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are processed by the small intestine. Section: 08.03 Topic: Digestive System
33.
When Sheree opened the abdominal cavity of her preserved frog, it seemed to be filled with a dark brown organ. This is the
A. liver. B. pancreas. C. gallbladder. D. stomach. E. large intestine. The largest gland in the body is the liver. It lies in the abdominal cavity.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Explain the function of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder during digestion. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
34.
Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
A. bile B. sodium bicarbonate C. amylase D. trypsin E. lipase The pancreas secretes all of these but bile.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.04.02 List the secretions of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
35.
Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
A. It secretes bile through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. B. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and bile into the blood. C. It secretes secretin through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. D. It secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. E. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and secretin into the blood. As an exocrine gland it secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct. As an endocrine gland it secretes insulin into the blood.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Explain the function of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder during digestion. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
36.
Which of the following is not a liver function?
A. It helps regulate blood cholesterol levels. B. It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine. C. It removes iron and certain vitamins from the blood and stores them. D. It removes poisonous substances from the blood and detoxifies them. E. It produces bile. The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Explain the function of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder during digestion. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
37.
A serious genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis is often called the rusty organ disease and affects nearly 1.5 million Americans. The disorder causes increased absorption of intestinal iron. Which organ is responsible for iron homeostasis?
A. brain B. lungs C. liver D. gallbladder E. spleen Since the liver removes iron from the blood, it is affected by hemochromatosis.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Explain the function of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder during digestion. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
38.
Why is bile a yellowish-greenish color?
A. It contains pancreatic juices. B. It contains bilirubin. C. It contains biliverdin. D. It contains chlorophyll. E. It contains cholesterol. The yellowish-green color of bile is due primarily to the presence of bilirubin.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.04.02 List the secretions of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
39.
The gallbladder produces bile. FALSE The liver produces bile which is stored in the gallbladder.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.04.02 List the secretions of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
40.
What type of hepatitis is usually acquired through blood transfusions or sexual contact?
A. B B. A C. C Hepatitis B is acquired through sexual contact, blood transfusions, or contaminated needles.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Explain the function of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder during digestion. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
41.
Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the liver to increase its production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile?
A. GIP B. CCK C. HCl D. ATP E. NAD CCK or cholecystokinin causes the liver to increase in production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.04.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
42.
The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones. TRUE The parasympathetic nervous system stimulate gastric secretions along with digestive hormones.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.04.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
43.
There is a hormone produced by the stomach that feeds back and acts on the stomach. TRUE Gastrin produced from the lower stomach feeds back to stimulate the upper part of the stomach to produce digestive juice.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08.04.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
The major portions of the large intestine include
A. the duodenum, cecum, and rectum. B. the jejunum, colon, and anus. C. the cecum, colon, rectum, and anus. D. the colon, duodenum, cecum, and rectum. E. the colon, anus, duodenum, and jejunum. The major portions of the large intestine include the cecum, colon, rectum, and anus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
45.
What is the major function of the colon?
A. digestion/absorption B. form feces C. churning foodstuffs D. passageway only E. eliminate iron The major function of the colon is to form feces.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
46.
What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine?
A. absorb iron B. absorb fats C. produce vitamin B D. produce bile E. absorb water Resident bacteria in the large intestine serve to produce vitamin B, as well as vitamin K, and breakdown indigestible material.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
47.
Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count. What should the fisheries officers do?
A. Nothing. A high coliform count is normal. B. Nothing. This is good for oyster production. C. Shut down the bay. This is harmful to humans who eat the oysters. D. Shut down the bay. This is harmful to the oysters. The officers should shut down the bay because this indicates fecal contamination of the water which could be harmful to people eating the oysters.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
48.
Small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon are called
A. cysts. B. villi. C. polyps. D. lacteals. E. wheals. Polyps are small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.05.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
49.
What is the relationship between Crohn's disease and inflammatory bowel disease?
A. Crohn's disease is one of the most common inflammatory bowel diseases. B. Inflammatory bowel disease is a type of Crohn's disease. C. They are two separate diseases but both affect only the colon. D. In Crohn's disease, the colon is affected, but in inflammatory bowel disease only the small intestine is affected. E. In Crohn's disease, small pouches form in the muscularis, while in inflammatory bowel disease, inflammation occurs throughout the digestive tract. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08.05.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
50.
Constipation can be treated by adding fiber to the diet. TRUE Diets that lack whole grain foods (and therefore fiber) can lead to constipation. Bulk laxatives, containing fiber, can reverse the situation.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.05.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. Section: 08.05 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
Bryan is 6' 2" and weighs 160 pounds. Calculate his BMI and determine his status based upon figure 8.11.
A. 25.2, healthy B. 20.5, healthy C. 32.4, obese D. 33.5, obese E. 27.6, overweight Bryan has a BMI of 20.5 which is considered healthy.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.06.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
52.
Today, obesity is often defined as having a body mass index of 20 or greater. FALSE The body mass index for obesity is 30 or greater.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
53.
The BMI is useful because it tells you how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue regardless of your fitness, bone structure, or gender. FALSE The BMI only gives you an idea of how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue. This can vary depending on your fitness, bone structure, or gender.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health.
Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet?
A. Carbohydrates are considered a "complete" nutrient. B. Some carbohydrates contain essential fatty acids. C. Some carbohydrates contain essential amino acids. D. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy for the body. E. Brain cells require glucose. Brain cells require glucose and are unable to convert fatty acids to glucose.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
55.
Which of the following will not reduce dietary lipids?
A. Remove skin from poultry. B. Broil rather than fry. C. Use butter instead of herbs and spices. D. Use lemon juice instead of salad dressing. E. Avoid packaged foods that contain hydrogenated fats. Using butter instead of herbs and spices is not recommended for reducing dietary lipids.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
56.
Chad was concerned about eating foods with a high glycemic index because these foods
A. can cause LDL levels to increase. B. can cause HDL levels to decrease. C. can cause fatty acids to build up. D. can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose. E. can cause a sudden drop in blood glucose levels. Eating foods with a high glycemic index can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
57.
Which of the following is necessary for strong bones and teeth, nerve conduction, muscle contraction, and blood clotting?
A. calcium B. iron C. magnesium D. sodium E. sulfur Calcium is important for all of these.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
58.
A diet rich in what vitamins may reduce the chance of free radicals that can cause health problems?
A. C and B12 B. C, E, and A C. D and C D. D, C, and E E. B12, C, and E Vitamins C, E, and A are believed to defend the body against free radicals and are therefore termed antioxidants.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
59.
A deficiency in which mineral leads to thyroid deficiency?
A. iodine B. copper C. zinc D. selenium E. manganese Iodine is required for thyroid hormone synthesis and too little results in a thyroid deficiency.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
60.
Which vitamin is fat soluble?
A. vitamin C B. vitamin E C. vitamin B6 D. vitamin B12 E. biotin Vitamin E is a fat soluble vitamin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
True / False Questions
61.
When a nutrition labels states that something has "0" grams of trans fat, this might not mean there are no trans fats in the food. TRUE If the amount of trans fats are less than 0.5 grams per serving, it can be listed on the label as "0 trans fat" even though there are some trans fats present.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
62.
About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are
A. young men. B. older women. C. young women. D. older men. Young women are most affected by anorexia nervosa.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System
Chapter 08 Digestive System and Nutrition Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
19
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
22
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
10
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
8
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
3
Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract.
4
Learning Outcome: 08.01.02 List the accessory organs and provide a function for each.
2
Learning Outcome: 08.01.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall.
3
Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing.
4
Learning Outcome: 08.02.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth, pharynx, and esophag
3
us. Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion.
6
Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion.
4
Learning Outcome: 08.03.03 Explain how carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are processed by the small intestine.
2
Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Explain the function of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder during digestion.
5
Learning Outcome: 08.04.02 List the secretions of the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder.
3
Learning Outcome: 08.04.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated.
3
Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine.
4
Learning Outcome: 08.05.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each.
3
Learning Outcome: 08.06.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health.
3
Learning Outcome: 08.06.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body.
9
Section: 08.01
9
Section: 08.02
11
Section: 08.03
12
Section: 08.04
11
Section: 08.05
7
Section: 08.06
12
Topic: Digestive System
62
Chapter 09 Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Ventilation includes
A. inspiration only. B. expiration only. C. both inspiration and expiration. 2.
What do inspiration and expiration have in common?
A. They both use the same pathways. B. The air travels in the same direction in both. C. They both end in the lungs. D. They both conduct air from the outside. E. They both remove wastes from the tissues.
True / False Questions
3.
The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body. True
4.
False
Inhalation is another word for inspiration. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system?
A. trachea B. pharynx C. esophagus D. bronchus E. nasal cavity 6.
Which part of the respiratory system is a skeletal muscle?
A. diaphragm B. lung C. trachea D. larynx E. glottis 7.
Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange?
A. bronchus B. larynx C. nasal cavity D. lungs E. diaphragm
True / False Questions
8.
The respiratory is unlike the digestive system in that air comes in and out the same opening. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
9.
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
A. bronchi B. nasal cavity C. epiglottis D. pharynx E. glottis 10. Which part of the pharynx is mismatched with its location?
A. nasopharynx--where the nasal cavities open above B. oropharynx--where the sinuses open C. laryngopharynx--where the pharynx opens into the larynx
True / False Questions
11. The pharynx contains the vocal cords. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
12. If it were not for the nasal cavity,
A. we would not be able to speak. B. more debris would enter the lungs. C. oxygen would not be exchanged in the alveoli. D. food would go down the wrong pipe. E. air would not be conducted to the lungs.
True / False Questions
13. The pharynx contains the tonsils that protect against invasion of inhaled foreign particles. True
False
14. The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal cords. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
15. When the glottis becomes narrower,
A. the pitch of sound goes up. B. the pitch of sound goes down.
True / False Questions
16. Sound is produced when air rushes into the lungs. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
17. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
A. bronchi B. lungs C. alveoli D. trachea E. larynx 18. Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system?
A. lungs B. bronchial tree C. trachea 19. Where in the lower respiratory tract would you find goblet cells?
A. bronchial tree B. trachea C. lungs
True / False Questions
20. The right lung is larger than the left lung. True
False
21. The trachea and upper bronchial tree are similar in that both are held open by cartilaginous rings. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
22. What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity?
A. pleura B. alveoli C. cartilaginous rings D. bone E. skeletal muscle 23. What is missing in infant respiratory distress syndrome?
A. bronchioles B. pleura C. one or more lobes of the lung D. alveoli E. surfactant
True / False Questions
24. The total cross sectional area of the alveoli is about the size of a textbook. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. What diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood?
A. oxygen B. carbon dioxide C. water
26. Which of the following is not a part of inspiration?
A. The pressure in the lungs increases. B. The rib cage moves up and out. C. The intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. D. The diaphragm contracts and moves down. E. Air rushes into the lungs.
True / False Questions
27. Muscle contraction is required for expiration. True
False
28. Humans inhale by negative pressure. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
29. Why is the actual flow of air into the alveoli during inspiration passive?
A. because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli B. because the lungs are surrounded by the thoracic wall C. because the alveoli have a very large surface area D. because the intercostal muscles are involved E. because the diaphragm is involved
30. The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the
A. vital capacity. B. tidal volume. C. inspiratory reserve volume. D. expiratory reserve volume. E. residual volume. 31. If you force inspiration, how much more air can you breath in than the tidal volume?
A. two times B. three times C. four times D. five times E. six times
True / False Questions
32. Some of the inhaled air never reaches the lungs. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
33. The vital capacity is equal to the
A. maximum amount of air breathed in. B. maximum amount of air breathed out. C. maximum amount of air breathed in and the maximum amount of air breathed out.
True / False Questions
34. You cannot increase the amount of air you exhale. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. Jesse is breathing at a rate of 15 ventilations per minute. This would be considered
A. hyperventilation. B. normal. C. hypoventilation. 36. Where is the respiratory control center located?
A. in the brain B. in the bronchi C. in the lungs D. in the aorta E. in the diaphragm
Yes / No Questions
37. Can you hold your breath until you die? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
38. How does the respiratory center control the diaphragm?
A. via the blood carbon dioxide level B. via the blood pH C. via the intercostal nerves D. via the phrenic nerve E. via the vagus nerve 39. When the pH of the blood becomes more acidic, the respiratory center
A. increases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. B. increases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing. C. decreases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. D. decreases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing.
True / False Questions
40. Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Carotid bodies and aortic bodies detect
A. blood pH. B. oxygen blood levels. C. oxygen tissue levels. D. stretching of the lungs. E. the residual volume. 42. How are internal and external respiration alike?
A. Both involve an exchange of gases. B. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the lungs. C. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the lungs. D. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the body's tissues. E. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the body's tissues.
True / False Questions
43. When you breathe into a paper bag after hyperventilating, you are decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as
A. carbonic anhydrase. B. bicarbonate ion. C. carbonic acid. D. a gas, carbon dioxide. E. reduced hemoglobin. 45. How does breathing at a very low rate affect the reaction H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 ?
A. pushes it to the right B. pushes it to the left C. does not affect it 46. Which way does the reaction H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 proceed in the lungs?
A. to the right B. to the left 47. Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase catalyze?
A. H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 B. H2CO3 → H2O + CO2
True / False Questions
48. Carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin are similar in that they are both enzymes involved in respiration. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. Which of the following infections does not affect a structure in the respiratory tract?
A. laryngitis B. strep throat C. tonsilitis D. otitis media E. bronchitis 50. "Strep throat" is caused by what type of infecting organism?
A. bacteria B. virus C. fungus D. worm E. protist
True / False Questions
51. One of the main symptoms of a sinus infection is hoarseness. True
False
52. Hoarseness without an upper respiratory infection could be a warning sign of cancer. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
53. Which of the following is not a lower respiratory infection?
A. tuberculosis B. pneumonia C. bronchitis D. pulmonary fibrosis 54. Upon X-ray, it could be seen that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid. What is the proper diagnosis for Josh's illness?
A. bronchitis B. emphysema C. asthma D. pulmonary fibrosis E. pneumonia 55. Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics?
A. pulmonary fibrosis B. pulmonary tuberculosis C. emphysema D. asthma
True / False Questions
56. The difference between a restrictive pulmonary disorder and an obstructive pulmonary disorder is that the in restrictive disorder the lungs have lost their elasticity and in an obstructive disorder air does not flow freely in the airways. True
False
57. Lung cancer, just like breast cancer, is more prevalent in women than in men. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. What is the correct order of the following steps in the progression of lung cancer in a smoker? 1. Cilia are lost. 2. There is a thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi. 3. Metastasis occurs. 4. A tumor forms. 5. Cells with atypical nuclei appear.
A. 1,2,3,4,5 B. 2,1,5,4,3 C. 5,1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4,3,5 E. 2,1,4,5,3
True / False Questions
59. Even if you quit smoking, the damage to your lungs is already done and they will not return to normal. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. Which of the following is not a symptom of emphysema?
A. The elastic recoil of the lungs is reduced. B. The surface area for gas exchange is reduced. C. The alveoli are distended and their walls damaged. D. The airways are inflamed and filled with mucus. E. The heart works harder to force more blood through the lungs.
Chapter 09 Respiratory System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Ventilation includes
A. inspiration only. B. expiration only. C. both inspiration and expiration. Ventilation is another term for breathing that includes both inspiration and expiration.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.01.01 Summarize the role of the respiratory system. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
2.
What do inspiration and expiration have in common?
A. They both use the same pathways. B. The air travels in the same direction in both. C. They both end in the lungs. D. They both conduct air from the outside. E. They both remove wastes from the tissues. Inspiration and expiration utilize the same pathway, just in opposite directions.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.01.02 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
3.
The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body. FALSE The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that carbon dioxide leaves the body and oxygen enters the body.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01.01 Summarize the role of the respiratory system. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
4.
Inhalation is another word for inspiration. TRUE Both inhalation and inspiration are terms to describe breathing in.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01.02 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system?
A. trachea B. pharynx C. esophagus D. bronchus E. nasal cavity The esophagus is part of the digestive system.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
6.
Which part of the respiratory system is a skeletal muscle?
A. diaphragm B. lung C. trachea D. larynx E. glottis The diaphragm is a skeletal muscle that functions in ventilation.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09.01.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
7.
Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange?
A. bronchus B. larynx C. nasal cavity D. lungs E. diaphragm The lungs contain alveoli which carry out gas exchange.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
8.
The respiratory is unlike the digestive system in that air comes in and out the same opening. TRUE In the respiratory system, air comes in and out of the nasal cavity. In the digestive system, food goes in the mouth and waste comes out the anus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.01.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
9.
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
A. bronchi B. nasal cavity C. epiglottis D. pharynx E. glottis The bronchi are part of the lower respiratory tract.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
10.
Which part of the pharynx is mismatched with its location?
A. nasopharynx--where the nasal cavities open above B. oropharynx--where the sinuses open C. laryngopharynx--where the pharynx opens into the larynx The oropharynx is where the oral cavity opens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.02.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
11.
The pharynx contains the vocal cords. FALSE The larynx, or voice box, contains the vocal cords.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 09.02.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
12.
If it were not for the nasal cavity,
A. we would not be able to speak. B. more debris would enter the lungs. C. oxygen would not be exchanged in the alveoli. D. food would go down the wrong pipe. E. air would not be conducted to the lungs. One of the functions of the nasal cavity is to filter the air and trap small particles so they don't enter the air passages.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.02.01 Summarize the role of the nose, pharynx, and larynx in respiration. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
13.
The pharynx contains the tonsils that protect against invasion of inhaled foreign particles. TRUE The tonsils form a protective ring at the junction of the oral cavity and the pharynx.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.02.01 Summarize the role of the nose, pharynx, and larynx in respiration. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
14.
The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal cords. FALSE The glottis is the slit between the vocal cords.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.02.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
15.
When the glottis becomes narrower,
A. the pitch of sound goes up. B. the pitch of sound goes down. The greater the tension, as when the glottis becomes narrower, the higher the pitch.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
16.
Sound is produced when air rushes into the lungs. FALSE Sound is produced when air is expelled from the lungs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx.
Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
A. bronchi B. lungs C. alveoli D. trachea E. larynx The larynx is part of the upper respiratory tract.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.03.01 Summarize the role of the trachea, bronchial tree, and lungs in respiration. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
18.
Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system?
A. lungs B. bronchial tree C. trachea The lungs contain the alveoli where gas exchange occurs between the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.03.01 Summarize the role of the trachea, bronchial tree, and lungs in respiration. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
19.
Where in the lower respiratory tract would you find goblet cells?
A. bronchial tree B. trachea C. lungs The goblet cells line the trachea and produce mucus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.03.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
20.
The right lung is larger than the left lung. TRUE The right lung has three lobes, and the left lung has two lobes, allowing room for the heart.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.03.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
21.
The trachea and upper bronchial tree are similar in that both are held open by cartilaginous rings. TRUE The upper bronchial tree and the trachea are both held open by cartilaginous rings.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.03.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
22.
What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity?
A. pleura B. alveoli C. cartilaginous rings D. bone E. skeletal muscle Each lung is enclosed by a serous membrane called a pleura (pl., pleurae).
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.03.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
23.
What is missing in infant respiratory distress syndrome?
A. bronchioles B. pleura C. one or more lobes of the lung D. alveoli E. surfactant The surfactant that prevents the alveoli from closing is missing in infant respiratory distress syndrome.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.03.03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
24.
The total cross sectional area of the alveoli is about the size of a textbook. FALSE The total cross sectional area of the alveoli is about the size of a tennis court.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03.03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
What diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood?
A. oxygen B. carbon dioxide C. water Oxygen flows from the air in the alveoli into the bloodstream.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03.03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. Section: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System
26.
Which of the following is not a part of inspiration?
A. The pressure in the lungs increases. B. The rib cage moves up and out. C. The intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. D. The diaphragm contracts and moves down. E. Air rushes into the lungs. During inspiration, the pressure in the lungs decreases.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 09.04.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
27.
Muscle contraction is required for expiration. FALSE Expiration is the passive part of ventilation when the muscles relax.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
28.
Humans inhale by negative pressure. TRUE The creation of a partial vacuum in the alveoli causes air to enter the lungs.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
29.
Why is the actual flow of air into the alveoli during inspiration passive?
A. because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli B. because the lungs are surrounded by the thoracic wall C. because the alveoli have a very large surface area D. because the intercostal muscles are involved E. because the diaphragm is involved Even though the creation of the negative pressure is active, the air flows in because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09.04.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
30.
The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the
A. vital capacity. B. tidal volume. C. inspiratory reserve volume. D. expiratory reserve volume. E. residual volume. The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is the tidal volume.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04.02 Define the terms tidal volume, vital capacity, and residul volume in relation to ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
31.
If you force inspiration, how much more air can you breath in than the tidal volume?
A. two times B. three times C. four times D. five times E. six times The tidal volume is 500 ml, whereas the forced inspiration volume adds approximately another 3000 ml to that.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09.04.03 Summarize the purpose of the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
32.
Some of the inhaled air never reaches the lungs. TRUE This air fills the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles which are considered dead air space.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04.02 Define the terms tidal volume, vital capacity, and residul volume in relation to ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
33.
The vital capacity is equal to the
A. maximum amount of air breathed in. B. maximum amount of air breathed out. C. maximum amount of air breathed in and the maximum amount of air breathed out. The vital capacity is equal to the maximum amount that can be moved in plus the maximum amount that can be moved out during a single breath.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04.02 Define the terms tidal volume, vital capacity, and residul volume in relation to ventilation. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
34.
You cannot increase the amount of air you exhale. FALSE You can increase expiration by contracting the abdominal and thoracic muscles.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04.03 Summarize the purpose of the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes. Section: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
35.
Jesse is breathing at a rate of 15 ventilations per minute. This would be considered
A. hyperventilation. B. normal. C. hypoventilation. Normally adults have a breathing rate of 12-20 ventilations per minute, so this would be considered normal.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
36.
Where is the respiratory control center located?
A. in the brain B. in the bronchi C. in the lungs D. in the aorta E. in the diaphragm The respiratory control center is located in the medulla oblongata of the brain.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
Yes / No Questions
37.
Can you hold your breath until you die? NO No. You can hold your breath until you pass out, and then your brain will take over respirations.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 09.05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
How does the respiratory center control the diaphragm?
A. via the blood carbon dioxide level B. via the blood pH C. via the intercostal nerves D. via the phrenic nerve E. via the vagus nerve The respiratory center communicates with the diaphragm via the phrenic nerve.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
39.
When the pH of the blood becomes more acidic, the respiratory center
A. increases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. B. increases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing. C. decreases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. D. decreases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing. The respiratory center increases both the rate and depth of breathing to remove more carbon dioxide from the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
40.
Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs. FALSE Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem, in the carotid arteries, and in the aorta.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Carotid bodies and aortic bodies detect
A. blood pH. B. oxygen blood levels. C. oxygen tissue levels. D. stretching of the lungs. E. the residual volume. Carotid bodies and aortic bodies are chemoreceptors that are sensitive to blood pH.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System
42.
How are internal and external respiration alike?
A. Both involve an exchange of gases. B. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the lungs. C. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the lungs. D. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the body's tissues. E. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the body's tissues. Both involve an exchange of gases. In external respiration, carbon dioxide diffuses into the lungs and oxygen into the blood, and in internal respiration, carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood and oxygen into the tissue.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
43.
When you breathe into a paper bag after hyperventilating, you are decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. TRUE You are increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood and therefore restoring a normal blood pH.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.06.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as
A. carbonic anhydrase. B. bicarbonate ion. C. carbonic acid. D. a gas, carbon dioxide. E. reduced hemoglobin. Carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate ions.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
45.
How does breathing at a very low rate affect the reaction H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 ?
A. pushes it to the right B. pushes it to the left C. does not affect it This pushes the reaction to the left and increases the pH of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.06.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
46.
Which way does the reaction H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 proceed in the lungs?
A. to the right B. to the left In the lungs, the reaction goes to the right and releases carbon dioxide into the lungs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
47.
Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase catalyze?
A. H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 B. H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the breakdown of carbonic acid to water and carbon dioxide.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06.03 Identify the role of carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin in respiration. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
48.
Carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin are similar in that they are both enzymes involved in respiration. FALSE Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme involved in respiration, but carbaminohemoglobin is hemoblogin bound to carbon dioxide.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.06.03 Identify the role of carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin in respiration. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
Which of the following infections does not affect a structure in the respiratory tract?
A. laryngitis B. strep throat C. tonsilitis D. otitis media E. bronchitis Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear. It is included in respiratory infections because it is often a complication seen in children with nasal infections.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.07.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
50.
"Strep throat" is caused by what type of infecting organism?
A. bacteria B. virus C. fungus D. worm E. protist "Strep throat" is caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.07.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
51.
One of the main symptoms of a sinus infection is hoarseness. FALSE Hoarseness is a symptom of laryngitis, not sinusitis. Symptoms of sinusitis include postnasal discharge and facial pain.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.07.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
52.
Hoarseness without an upper respiratory infection could be a warning sign of cancer. TRUE This is one of the warning signs of cancer and should be looked into by a physician.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.07.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
53.
Which of the following is not a lower respiratory infection?
A. tuberculosis B. pneumonia C. bronchitis D. pulmonary fibrosis Pulmonary fibrosis is a restrictive pulmonary disorder, but it is not an infection.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09.07.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
54.
Upon X-ray, it could be seen that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid. What is the proper diagnosis for Josh's illness?
A. bronchitis B. emphysema C. asthma D. pulmonary fibrosis E. pneumonia Pneumonia occurs when alveoli fill with pus and fluid making gas exchange difficult.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.07.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
55.
Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics?
A. pulmonary fibrosis B. pulmonary tuberculosis C. emphysema D. asthma Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by a bacterial infection and should be treated with antibiotics.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09.07.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
56.
The difference between a restrictive pulmonary disorder and an obstructive pulmonary disorder is that the in restrictive disorder the lungs have lost their elasticity and in an obstructive disorder air does not flow freely in the airways. TRUE Restrictive disorders include pulmonary fibrosis while obstructive disorders include asthma and chronic bronchitis.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.07.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
57.
Lung cancer, just like breast cancer, is more prevalent in women than in men. FALSE Lung cancer is more prevalent in men.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.07.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking, cancer, and emphysema. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
What is the correct order of the following steps in the progression of lung cancer in a smoker? 1. Cilia are lost. 2. There is a thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi. 3. Metastasis occurs. 4. A tumor forms. 5. Cells with atypical nuclei appear.
A. 1,2,3,4,5 B. 2,1,5,4,3 C. 5,1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4,3,5 E. 2,1,4,5,3 The first even appears to be thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi. This is followed by the loss of cilia, cells with atypical nuclei, and the formation of a tumor. Finally, metastasis occurs.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.07.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking, cancer, and emphysema. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
True / False Questions
59.
Even if you quit smoking, the damage to your lungs is already done and they will not return to normal. FALSE If the body tissues are not already cancerous, the lungs may return to normal over time.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.07.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking, cancer, and emphysema. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
Which of the following is not a symptom of emphysema?
A. The elastic recoil of the lungs is reduced. B. The surface area for gas exchange is reduced. C. The alveoli are distended and their walls damaged. D. The airways are inflamed and filled with mucus. E. The heart works harder to force more blood through the lungs. In chronic bronchitis, the airways are inflamed and filled with mucus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.07.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking, cancer, and emphysema. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System
Chapter 09 Respiratory System Summary Category
# of Questions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
14
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
23
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
4
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
14
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
5
Learning Outcome: 09.01.01 Summarize the role of the respiratory system.
2
Learning Outcome: 09.01.02 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration.
2
Learning Outcome: 09.01.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.02.01 Summarize the role of the nose, pharynx, and larynx in respiration.
2
Learning Outcome: 09.02.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function.
3
Learning Outcome: 09.02.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx.
3
Learning Outcome: 09.03.01 Summarize the role of the trachea, bronchial tree, and lungs in respiration.
2
Learning Outcome: 09.03.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.03.03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system.
3
Learning Outcome: 09.04.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.04.02 Define the terms tidal volume, vital capacity, and residul volume in relation to ventilation.
3
Learning Outcome: 09.04.03 Summarize the purpose of the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes.
2
Learning Outcome: 09.05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.05.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate.
3
Learning Outcome: 09.06.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.06.03 Identify the role of carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin in respiration.
2
Learning Outcome: 09.07.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.07.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders.
4
Learning Outcome: 09.07.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking, cancer, and emphysema.
4
Section: 09.01
8
Section: 09.02
8
Section: 09.03
9
Section: 09.04
9
Section: 09.05
7
Section: 09.06
7
Section: 09.07
12
Topic: Respiratory System
60
Chapter 10 Urinary System and Excretion
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
How are excretion and defecation alike?
A. Both are carried out by the urinary system. B. Both eliminate waste from the body. C. Both are carried out by the digestive system. D. Both involve the kidneys. E. Both involve the colon.
True / False Questions
2.
The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
A. excretion of metabolic wastes B. maintenance of water-salt balance C. maintenance of acid-base balance D. maintenance of blood glucose levels E. secretion of hormones
True / False Questions
4.
The kidneys convert vitamin D and thereby assist calcium homeostasis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Why does urine have an acidic pH?
A. The kidneys filter and excrete H+ from the blood. B. The kidneys produce H+ in the process of filtering the blood. C. The blood has an acidic pH and the kidneys produce urine similar to the pH of the blood. 6.
Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
A. urea B. erythropoietin C. ammonia D. creatinine E. uric acid
True / False Questions
7.
The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the pH of the blood. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following organs of the urinary system is not present in duplicate?
A. bladder B. kidney C. ureter 9.
What are the walls of a ureter composed of?
A. skeletal muscle and mucous membrane B. mucous membrane and fibrous connective tissue C. mucous membrane, smooth muscle, and fibrous connective tissue D. skeletal muscle, fibrous connective tissue, and cartilage E. fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, and mucous membrane 10. How many openings are there from the urinary bladder?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five
True / False Questions
11. The urethra is controlled by two sphincters, one composed of smooth muscle and one composed of skeletal muscle.
True
False
12. The urethra in females is much longer than in males. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
13. Which part of the urinary system is shared with the reproductive system in males?
A. bladder B. ureters C. kidneys D. urethra 14. Which of the following is not a region of the kidney?
A. hypothalamus B. cortex C. medulla D. pelvis 15. The collecting duct of the nephron originates in what region of the kidney and extends to what region of the kidney?
A. renal cortex to the renal medulla B. renal cortex to the renal pelvis C. renal medulla to the renal cortex D. renal medulla to the renal pelvis E. renal pelvis to the renal medulla
True / False Questions
16. The renal pyramids are located within the renal pelvis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
17. The renal pelvis is continuous with the
A. renal cortex. B. bladder. C. urethra. D. ureter. 18. Which of the following is not part of a nephron?
A. glomerular capsule B. proximal convoluted tubule C. loop of Henle D. collecting duct E. ureter
True / False Questions
19. Each nephron has its own collecting duct. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
20. What is located within the glomerular capsule?
A. the renal cortex B. the loop of Henle C. several collecting ducts D. a knot of capillaries E. the peritubular capillary network
True / False Questions
21. A nephron is a two-way system with glomerular filtrate traveling back and forth within the nephron. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
22. Place the parts of the nephron in order. 1. ascending limb of loop; 2. descending limb of loop; 3. proximal convoluted tubule; 4. glomerulus; 5. collecting duct; 6. distal convoluted tubule
A. 4,3,2,1,6,5 B. 1,2,3,4,5,6 C. 2,1,6,4,3,5 D. 1,2,4,3,6,5 E. 6,4,1,2,3,5
23. Which part of the nephron contains podocytes?
A. distal convoluted tubule B. proximal convoluted tubule C. ascending limb of loop D. descending limb of loop E. glomerular capsule
True / False Questions
24. Parts of the nephron are lined with epithelial cells containing large numbers of mitochondria to assist in diffusion. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. Which of the following does not filter out of the blood in the glomerulus?
A. plasma proteins B. water C. nitrogenous wastes D. salts E. nutrients 26. Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate?
A. diffusion down the concentration gradient B. glomerular blood pressure C. active transport D. secretion
True / False Questions
27. Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
28. List the three processes involved in the formation of urine in order. 1. tubular secretion; 2. tubular reabsorption; 3. glomerular filtration
A. 1,2,3 B. 3,2,1 C. 1,3,2 D. 2,3,1 E. 2,1,3 29. Which molecule is secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules?
A. water B. salt C. H+ D. nutrients E. plasma proteins 30. What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine?
A. glomerular filtration and tubular secretion B. glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption C. tubular secretion and tubular reabsorption
31. While glucose is filtered out at the glomerulus, none is excreted in the urine. What happens to the glucose?
A. It is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule. B. It is secreted at the proximal convoluted tubule. C. It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. D. It is secreted at the distal convoluted tubule. E. It is reabsorbed from the collecting duct.
True / False Questions
32. Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
33. Why does glucose appear in the urine of a diabetic?
A. The volume of urine is too great to filter. B. No glucose is filtered into the glomerular filtrate. C. The kidneys produce glucose in diabetes. D. The carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport. E. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle secretes glucose into the urine. 34. Which molecule is reabsorbed less than 50% during tubular reabsorption?
A. urea B. water C. sodium D. glucose E. amino acids
True / False Questions
35. Tubular reabsorption requires both passive and active modes of reabsorption. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
36. How is penicillin removed from the blood?
A. glomerular filtration B. tubular secretion C. tubular reabsorption 37. In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant, then the kidneys are like
A. the trucks that take the waste out of town. B. the people who produce the waste. C. trash cans where the waste is stored. D. the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant. 38. Which of the following does not assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes?
A. liver B. sweat glands C. muscles D. blood E. pancreas
True / False Questions
39. The kidneys interact with every other organ system of the human body in maintaining homeostasis. True
False
40. The reabsorption of water in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of salt. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. What hormones regulate the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted tubule?
A. creatinine and renin B. renin and aquaporin C. aquaporin and aldosterone D. aldosterone and renin E. creatinine and aldosterone 42. Which of the hormones involved in the regulation of water-salt balance is produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A. aldosterone B. renin C. ADH D. ANH
43. If you do not drink enough water, which hormone will the hypothalamus produce to regulate urine production?
A. renin B. ADH C. ANH D. aldosterone 44. What effect does ANH have on renin?
A. it inhibits its secretion B. it inhibits its production C. it promotes its secretion D. it promotes its production
True / False Questions
45. ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
46. If your blood pressure is high because of increased blood volume, what hormone will correct this?
A. renin B. ADH C. ANH D. aldosterone
47. Why is the urine yellow?
A. A breakdown product of hemoglobin is yellow. B. Urea is yellow. C. Uric acid is yellow. D. Creatinine is yellow. E. Renin is yellow. 48. The inner medulla of the kidney is ____________ to the loop of Henle and therefore water leaves the loop at the descending limb and collecting duct.
A. isotonic B. hypertonic C. hypotonic
True / False Questions
49. After running a marathon, it is best to drink water to restore what was lost due to heavy sweating. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
50. Why do some people not drink caffeinated beverages right before bedtime?
A. It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night. B. It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones. C. It may affect the ability to sleep but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary system.
51. What is the normal pH of blood?
A. neutral B. slightly basic C. slightly acidic 52. What effect does cellular respiration have on the pH of the blood?
A. It does not affect the pH. B. It raises the pH. C. It lowers the pH.
True / False Questions
53. The kidneys are much more powerful than the acid-base buffer and the respiratory center mechanisms are in controlling blood pH. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. What is an infection of the urinary bladder called?
A. cystitis B. urethritis C. pyelonephritis D. hemodialysis E. uremia
55. What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage?
A. burning upon urination B. extreme pain C. albumin or formed elements in the urine D. the absence of urination E. edema
True / False Questions
56. An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males. True
False
57. Females are more likely than males to get urinary tract infections due to the short length of the urethra and the proximity of the anal opening. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. In CAPD, what serves as the dialysis membrane?
A. the walls of the blood vessels B. a filter inside the instrument C. the kidneys themselves D. the peritoneum E. the pleural membrane
59. Why is the dialysate continually replaced in hemodialysis?
A. to maintain a favorable concentration gradient with the blood B. because it is easily infected C. because it enters the body and is absorbed D. because it is lost by urination
True / False Questions
60. The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low. True
False
Chapter 10 Urinary System and Excretion Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
How are excretion and defecation alike?
A. Both are carried out by the urinary system. B. Both eliminate waste from the body. C. Both are carried out by the digestive system. D. Both involve the kidneys. E. Both involve the colon. Excretion removes metabolic waste from the body while defecation removes undigested food and bacteria from the body.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
2.
The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism. FALSE Urea is a by-product of amino acid metabolism.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
A. excretion of metabolic wastes B. maintenance of water-salt balance C. maintenance of acid-base balance D. maintenance of blood glucose levels E. secretion of hormones The urinary system does not maintain blood glucose levels.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
4.
The kidneys convert vitamin D and thereby assist calcium homeostasis. TRUE This is another function of the kidneys. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption from the digestive tract.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Why does urine have an acidic pH?
A. The kidneys filter and excrete H+ from the blood. B. The kidneys produce H+ in the process of filtering the blood. C. The blood has an acidic pH and the kidneys produce urine similar to the pH of the blood. The kidneys remove and excrete excess H+ from the blood in order to maintain a blood pH of 7.4.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
6.
Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
A. urea B. erythropoietin C. ammonia D. creatinine E. uric acid Erythropoietin is a hormone secreted by the kidneys.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
7.
The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the pH of the blood. FALSE The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the water-salt balance of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following organs of the urinary system is not present in duplicate?
A. bladder B. kidney C. ureter There are two kidneys and two ureters, but only one bladder.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
9.
What are the walls of a ureter composed of?
A. skeletal muscle and mucous membrane B. mucous membrane and fibrous connective tissue C. mucous membrane, smooth muscle, and fibrous connective tissue D. skeletal muscle, fibrous connective tissue, and cartilage E. fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, and mucous membrane The three layers of the wall of a ureter are a mucous membrane, a smooth muscle layer, and a fibrous connective tissue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
10.
How many openings are there from the urinary bladder?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five There are three openings of the urinary bladder--one for the urethra and two for the ureters.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
11.
The urethra is controlled by two sphincters, one composed of smooth muscle and one composed of skeletal muscle. TRUE The smooth muscle sphincter is involuntarily controlled while the skeletal muscle one can be voluntarily controlled.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
12.
The urethra in females is much longer than in males. FALSE The urethra in males averages 20 cm long, while in females it measures 4 cm long.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function.
Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
13.
Which part of the urinary system is shared with the reproductive system in males?
A. bladder B. ureters C. kidneys D. urethra The urethra conducts urine for the urinary system and semen for the reproductive system in males.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System
14.
Which of the following is not a region of the kidney?
A. hypothalamus B. cortex C. medulla D. pelvis The hypothalamus is a region of the brain.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
15.
The collecting duct of the nephron originates in what region of the kidney and extends to what region of the kidney?
A. renal cortex to the renal medulla B. renal cortex to the renal pelvis C. renal medulla to the renal cortex D. renal medulla to the renal pelvis E. renal pelvis to the renal medulla The collecting duct originates in the renal cortex and extends to the renal pelvis.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.02.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
16.
The renal pyramids are located within the renal pelvis. FALSE The renal pyramids are located within the renal medulla.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
The renal pelvis is continuous with the
A. renal cortex. B. bladder. C. urethra. D. ureter. The renal pelvis is a central space that is continuous with the ureter.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
18.
Which of the following is not part of a nephron?
A. glomerular capsule B. proximal convoluted tubule C. loop of Henle D. collecting duct E. ureter The collecting duct empties into the ureter, but the ureter is not part of a nephron.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
19.
Each nephron has its own collecting duct. FALSE Several nephrons enter the same collecting duct.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
20.
What is located within the glomerular capsule?
A. the renal cortex B. the loop of Henle C. several collecting ducts D. a knot of capillaries E. the peritubular capillary network The glomerulus, a knot of capillaries, is located inside the glomerular capsule.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
21.
A nephron is a two-way system with glomerular filtrate traveling back and forth within the nephron. FALSE The nephron is a one way system. Filtrate moves from the glomerular capsule through the proximal convuluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
22.
Place the parts of the nephron in order. 1. ascending limb of loop; 2. descending limb of loop; 3. proximal convoluted tubule; 4. glomerulus; 5. collecting duct; 6. distal convoluted tubule
A. 4,3,2,1,6,5 B. 1,2,3,4,5,6 C. 2,1,6,4,3,5 D. 1,2,4,3,6,5 E. 6,4,1,2,3,5 Filtrate moves from the glomerulus to the proximal convoluted tubule, through the descending limb and then the ascending limb, and finally to the collecting duct.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
23.
Which part of the nephron contains podocytes?
A. distal convoluted tubule B. proximal convoluted tubule C. ascending limb of loop D. descending limb of loop E. glomerular capsule The podocytes cling to the capillary walls of the glomerulus within the glomerular capsule.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
24.
Parts of the nephron are lined with epithelial cells containing large numbers of mitochondria to assist in diffusion. FALSE Diffusion is a passive process and does not require energy. The mitochondria assist in active transport.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
Which of the following does not filter out of the blood in the glomerulus?
A. plasma proteins B. water C. nitrogenous wastes D. salts E. nutrients Plasma proteins do not move from the glomerulus into the filtrate.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
26.
Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate?
A. diffusion down the concentration gradient B. glomerular blood pressure C. active transport D. secretion Due to glomerular blood pressure, water and small molecules move from the glomerulus to the inside of the glomerular capsule as part of the filtrate.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate. Section: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
27.
Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole. FALSE Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the efferent arteriole.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
28.
List the three processes involved in the formation of urine in order. 1. tubular secretion; 2. tubular reabsorption; 3. glomerular filtration
A. 1,2,3 B. 3,2,1 C. 1,3,2 D. 2,3,1 E. 2,1,3 Glomerular filtration is followed by tubular reabsorption and then tubular secretion.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03.01 Summarize the three processes involved in the formation of urine. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
29.
Which molecule is secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules?
A. water B. salt C. H+ D. nutrients E. plasma proteins H+ is actively secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03.04 Explain the substances that are removed from the blood by tubular secretion. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
30.
What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine?
A. glomerular filtration and tubular secretion B. glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption C. tubular secretion and tubular reabsorption Substances are removed from the blood during glomerular filtration and tubular secretion.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10.03.01 Summarize the three processes involved in the formation of urine. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
31.
While glucose is filtered out at the glomerulus, none is excreted in the urine. What happens to the glucose?
A. It is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule. B. It is secreted at the proximal convoluted tubule. C. It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. D. It is secreted at the distal convoluted tubule. E. It is reabsorbed from the collecting duct. Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 10.03.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
32.
Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed. TRUE Approximately 180 liters of water are filtered per day and only 1.8 liters are excreted.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
33.
Why does glucose appear in the urine of a diabetic?
A. The volume of urine is too great to filter. B. No glucose is filtered into the glomerular filtrate. C. The kidneys produce glucose in diabetes. D. The carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport. E. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle secretes glucose into the urine. Because the level of glucose is so high in the blood and the carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport, excess glucose remains in the urine.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.03.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
34.
Which molecule is reabsorbed less than 50% during tubular reabsorption?
A. urea B. water C. sodium D. glucose E. amino acids Urea is only approximately 44% reabsorbed.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
35.
Tubular reabsorption requires both passive and active modes of reabsorption. TRUE Molecules like glucose and Na+ are actively absorbed whereas other molecules like Cl- are passively reabsorbed.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
36.
How is penicillin removed from the blood?
A. glomerular filtration B. tubular secretion C. tubular reabsorption Penicillin is actively transported from blood into the kidney tubule.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03.04 Explain the substances that are removed from the blood by tubular secretion. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System
37.
In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant, then the kidneys are like
A. the trucks that take the waste out of town. B. the people who produce the waste. C. trash cans where the waste is stored. D. the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant. The kidneys take the already prepared waste away from the body.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Urinary System
38.
Which of the following does not assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes?
A. liver B. sweat glands C. muscles D. blood E. pancreas The liver produces urea and muscles make creatinine. The blood carries these to the kidneys where they are eliminated. Sometimes urea can be excreted by the sweat glands in perspiration.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
39.
The kidneys interact with every other organ system of the human body in maintaining homeostasis. TRUE The kidneys play a major role in homeostasis in the body and interact with every other organ system.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
40.
The reabsorption of water in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of salt. FALSE The reabsorption of salt in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of water.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
What hormones regulate the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted tubule?
A. creatinine and renin B. renin and aquaporin C. aquaporin and aldosterone D. aldosterone and renin E. creatinine and aldosterone Aldosterone promotes ion exchange at the distal convoluted tubule and renin leads to secretion of aldosterone.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
42.
Which of the hormones involved in the regulation of water-salt balance is produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A. aldosterone B. renin C. ADH D. ANH Renin is produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus when blood volume falls too low for filtration to occur.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
43.
If you do not drink enough water, which hormone will the hypothalamus produce to regulate urine production?
A. renin B. ADH C. ANH D. aldosterone The hypothalamus produces ADH if our water intact has been too low.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
44.
What effect does ANH have on renin?
A. it inhibits its secretion B. it inhibits its production C. it promotes its secretion D. it promotes its production ANH inhibits the secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
45.
ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary. FALSE ANH is produced by the atria of the heart. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
46.
If your blood pressure is high because of increased blood volume, what hormone will correct this?
A. renin B. ADH C. ANH D. aldosterone ANH will cause excretion of Na+ followed by excretion of water and result in reduced blood volume.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
47.
Why is the urine yellow?
A. A breakdown product of hemoglobin is yellow. B. Urea is yellow. C. Uric acid is yellow. D. Creatinine is yellow. E. Renin is yellow. The pigment urochrome is a breakdown product of hemoglobin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
48.
The inner medulla of the kidney is ____________ to the loop of Henle and therefore water leaves the loop at the descending limb and collecting duct.
A. isotonic B. hypertonic C. hypotonic The inner medulla is hypertonic and thus draws water out of the loop.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
49.
After running a marathon, it is best to drink water to restore what was lost due to heavy sweating. FALSE It is best to drink sports drinks that contain sodium and water, both of which are lost due to heavy sweating.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
50.
Why do some people not drink caffeinated beverages right before bedtime?
A. It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night. B. It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones. C. It may affect the ability to sleep but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary system. Caffeine is a diurectic and increases the flow of urine.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
51.
What is the normal pH of blood?
A. neutral B. slightly basic C. slightly acidic Blood has a pH of 7.4, which is slightly basic.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.04.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
52.
What effect does cellular respiration have on the pH of the blood?
A. It does not affect the pH. B. It raises the pH. C. It lowers the pH. Cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide which combines with water to form carbonic acid, thereby lowering the pH of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
53.
The kidneys are much more powerful than the acid-base buffer and the respiratory center mechanisms are in controlling blood pH. TRUE Only the kidneys can rid the body of a wide range of acidic and basic substances and adjust the pH.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10.04.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
What is an infection of the urinary bladder called?
A. cystitis B. urethritis C. pyelonephritis D. hemodialysis E. uremia Cystitis is an infection of the urinary bladder.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. Section: 10.05 Topic: Urinary System
55.
What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage?
A. burning upon urination B. extreme pain C. albumin or formed elements in the urine D. the absence of urination E. edema One of the first signs of nephron damage is albumin, white blood cells, and/or red blood cells in the urine.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. Section: 10.05 Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
56.
An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males. TRUE An enlarged prostate gland, urinary tract infections, pH imbalances, or an intake of too much calcium can lead to kidney stones.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. Section: 10.05 Topic: Urinary System
57.
Females are more likely than males to get urinary tract infections due to the short length of the urethra and the proximity of the anal opening. TRUE Females are much more likely than males to get urinary tract infections. The opening to the urethra is likely to be contaminated with fecal material and it is very short, making it easier for pathogens to reach the bladder.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.05.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. Section: 10.05 Topic: Urinary System
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
In CAPD, what serves as the dialysis membrane?
A. the walls of the blood vessels B. a filter inside the instrument C. the kidneys themselves D. the peritoneum E. the pleural membrane The peritoneum serves as the dialysis membrane.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.05.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidney failure. Section: 10.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
59.
Why is the dialysate continually replaced in hemodialysis?
A. to maintain a favorable concentration gradient with the blood B. because it is easily infected C. because it enters the body and is absorbed D. because it is lost by urination Substances more concentrated in the blood diffuse into the dialysate and vice versa, so it is continuously replaced to maintain favorable concentration gradients.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.05.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidney failure. Section: 10.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
True / False Questions
60.
The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low. FALSE The success rate for a kidney transplant from a relative is 97%.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidney failure. Section: 10.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System
Chapter 10 Urinary System and Excretion Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
22
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
21
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
5
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
7
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
5
Learning Outcome: 10.01.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function.
6
Learning Outcome: 10.01.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system.
7
Learning Outcome: 10.02.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney.
4
Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each.
7
Learning Outcome: 10.03.01 Summarize the three processes involved in the formation of urine.
2
Learning Outcome: 10.03.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate.
3
Learning Outcome: 10.03.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules.
5
Learning Outcome: 10.03.04 Explain the substances that are removed from the blood by tubular secretion.
2
Learning Outcome: 10.04.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body.
7
Learning Outcome: 10.04.02 State the purpose of ADH, ANH, and aldosterone in homeostasis.
7
Learning Outcome: 10.04.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood.
3
Learning Outcome: 10.05.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes.
4
Learning Outcome: 10.05.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidne
3
y failure. Section: 10.01
13
Section: 10.02
12
Section: 10.03
11
Section: 10.04
17
Section: 10.05
7
Topic: Homeostasis
17
Topic: Urinary System
60
Chapter 11 Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which function of the skeleton do the rib cage, vertebral column, and skull represent?
A. support the body B. protect soft body parts C. produce blood cells D. store minerals and fats E. permit flexible body movement 2.
Which function of the skeletal system requires that the leg bones be the strongest in the body?
A. They support the entire body. B. They protect soft body parts. C. They produce blood cells. D. They store minerals and fat. E. They permit flexible body movement. 3.
Where, besides adipose tissue, is fat stored?
A. matrix of bone B. yellow bone marrow C. red bone marrow D. periosteum E. articular cartilage
True / False Questions
4.
Only certain bones in the fetus produce blood cells, but all the bones in the adult produce blood cells. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
From the outside of a long bone inside, what is the first tissue encountered?
A. compact bone B. spongy bone C. periosteum D. medullary cavity E. bone marrow 6.
What term is associated with spongy bone but not with compact bone?
A. canaliculi B. osteocytes C. trabeculae 7.
What is a canaliculus?
A. the large cavity inside a long bone B. a stress plate in spongy bone C. a fibrous connective covering of bone D. a small channel in the matrix of bone E. a type of bone forming cell
True / False Questions
8.
The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
9.
In bone the cells are called _________________ and in cartilage they are called ________________.
A. osteocytes, osteoblasts B. lacunae, osteocytes C. chondrocytes, lacunae D. osteoblasts, chondrocytes E. osteocytes, chondrocytes 10. What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones?
A. elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. hyaline cartilage 11. Jason broke his finger playing football, while Sean tore the cartilage in his knee playing basketball. Which one will heal faster and why?
A. Jason, bones have a blood supply and heal faster B. Jason, fingers bear less weight than knees do C. Sean, cartilage has a blood supply and heal faster D. Sean, knees can be immobilized easier than fingers
12. The epiglottis is a structure that needs to be strong but extremely flexible. What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis?
A. elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. hyaline cartilage D. bone E. muscle
True / False Questions
13. Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
14. Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?
A. the amount of sodium in the blood B. the amount of calcium in the blood C. the amount of sodium in the bone D. the amount of vitamin C in the blood E. the amount of vitamin D in the bone
True / False Questions
15. Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoclasts instead of osteoblasts. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
16. What two hormones are involved in regulating the blood calcium level?
A. calcitonin and renin B. renin and aldosterone C. renin and PTH D. aldosterone and PTH E. PTH and calcitonin 17. How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related?
A. Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures. B. Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures. C. Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function, but osteocytes work in the adult and osteoblasts work in the fetus. D. Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other. One builds up bone while the other absorbs it. E. Osteocytes are mature bone cells while osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer. 18. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?
A. Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum. B. Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone. C. As the cartilage models calcify, the chondrocytes die off. D. The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone. E. A band of cartilage remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center.
True / False Questions
19. As long as the growth plate remains, the limbs will keep increasing in length. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
20. Which bones develop by intramembranous ossification?
A. the long bones of the leg B. the long bones of the arms C. the ribs D. the fingers E. the skull 21. Arrange the steps of bone repair in order. 1. Remodeling; 2. Bony callus; 3. Hematoma; 4. Fibrocartilaginous callus
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 1,2,4,3 D. 3,4,2,1 E. 2,1,4,3 22. How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last?
A. 1-2 days B. 3-4 weeks C. 3-4 months D. 1-2 years E. more than 10 years
23. How is bone repair different from bone development?
A. A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred. B. Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but they are in bone development. C. Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair. D. Only spongy bone is built in bone repair while both spongy and compact bone are built in bone development. E. There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development.
True / False Questions
24. Jeremy had a simple break of his tibia because the bone was broken clear through. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. What criterion is used to categorize the skeleton into axial and appendicular?
A. whether the bones are weight bearing or not B. whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle C. whether the bones are flat or long D. whether the bones contain red bone marrow or yellow bone marrow E. whether the bones articulate with the pelvis or not 26. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
A. clavicle B. hyoid C. temporal D. rib E. vertebrae
27. Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone?
A. scapula B. maxilla C. hyoid D. coccyx E. temporal 28. Jill broke her cheekbone in an ice skating accident. Which bone did she break?
A. temporal bone B. mandible C. maxilla D. zygomatic bone E. frontal bone 29. How are the bones of the cranium named?
A. for their articulations with the vertebral column B. for whether they are formed from cartilage or not C. for their shape D. for their size E. for the lobes of the brain they protect 30. How many vertebrae are there?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 18 D. 24 E. 33
31. What is the name of the first cervical vertebra? Why?
A. atlas, Greek mythology B. atlas, it allows "yes" motion of the head C. axis, Roman mythology D. axis, it allows the "no" motion of the head E. sphinoid, Egyptian sphinx mythology
True / False Questions
32. The thoracic vertebrae are named that because the ribs attach there. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
33. The name of the "tailbone" is the
A. lumbar. B. sacrum. C. coccyx. D. sphinoid. E. axis. 34. What are the functions of the sinuses?
A. to drain fluid from the brain and to allow the brain to expand B. to give a resonant sound to the voice and to allow the brain to expand C. to lighten the skull and drain fluid from the brain D. to lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice E. to allow the brain to expand and to lighten the skull
35. What are the intervertebral disks made of?
A. bone B. skeletal muscle C. hyaline cartilage D. fibrocartilage E. elastic cartilage
True / False Questions
36. All 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back and the sternum in the front. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
37. Due to a back injury, Carla had several of her lumbar vertebrae fused together. How does this affect Carla?
A. She will have limited movement in that area. B. She will not be affected at all. C. She will need assistance in walking. D. She will be unable to stand upright. E. She will be unable to lie flat on her back. 38. Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs?
A. clavicle B. sternum C. scapula D. ulna E. humerus
39. Emma developed a rotator cuff injury. What part of her body is injured?
A. neck B. upper back C. shoulder D. lower back E. lower arm 40. How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 41. Which of the following is not part of the coxal bone?
A. patella B. ilium C. ischium D. pubis 42. The head of the radius is located at the
A. elbow. B. wrist. C. shoulder.
43. The humerus fits into what at the shoulder?
A. acetabulum B. clavicle C. acromion process D. glenoid cavity E. olecranon process
True / False Questions
44. It is not possible to tell whether skeletal remains are male or female. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
45. When you hit your "funny bone", what are you hitting?
A. olecranon process B. deltoid tuberosity C. acromion process D. head of ulna E. glenoid cavity 46. Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity. This is probably because Daniel
A. is a pianist. B. spends a lot of time playing video games. C. lifts heavy weights with his arms. D. plays basketball. E. is a runner.
47. Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body?
A. humerus B. pelvis C. tibia D. fibula E. femur 48. What holds the patella in place?
A. the lateral epicondyle B. the quadriceps tendon C. the medial condyle D. the lateral malleolus E. the greater trochanter
True / False Questions
49. There are phalanges in both the lower limb and upper limb. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
50. Which of the following is not a type of joint?
A. trochanter B. fibrous C. cartilaginous D. synovial
51. What of the following joints is a fibrous joint?
A. sutures between cranial bones B. ribs and sternum C. intervertebral disks D. elbow E. knee 52. Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable?
A. fibrous B. cartilaginous C. synovial 53. A ligament connects
A. cartilage to bone. B. muscle to bone. C. bone to bone. 54. Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint?
A. bursae B. menisci C. ligaments D. fibrocartilage E. fibrous capsule
True / False Questions
55. A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
56. Which part of a synovial joint is a fluid-filled sac?
A. symphysis B. suture C. synovial membrane D. menisci E. bursa 57. When you nod your head "yes", what type of movement are you using?
A. flexion and extension B. adduction and abduction C. rotation D. circumduction E. inversion 58. When you kick your foot out in front of you, what type of movement are you using?
A. adduction and abduction B. flexion and extension C. rotation D. eversion E. inversion 59. When Phillip was little, he worked on the outside edge of his feet. This is what type of movement?
A. rotation B. eversion C. inversion D. circumduction E. adduction and abduction
True / False Questions
60. A synovial joint allows for flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, and inversion and eversion, but not rotation and circumduction. True
False
Chapter 11 Skeletal System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which function of the skeleton do the rib cage, vertebral column, and skull represent?
A. support the body B. protect soft body parts C. produce blood cells D. store minerals and fats E. permit flexible body movement The rib cage protects internal organs. The skull protects the brain, and the vertebral column protects the spinal cord.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.01.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
2.
Which function of the skeletal system requires that the leg bones be the strongest in the body?
A. They support the entire body. B. They protect soft body parts. C. They produce blood cells. D. They store minerals and fat. E. They permit flexible body movement. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.01.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
3.
Where, besides adipose tissue, is fat stored?
A. matrix of bone B. yellow bone marrow C. red bone marrow D. periosteum E. articular cartilage Fat is stored in yellow bone marrow.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
4.
Only certain bones in the fetus produce blood cells, but all the bones in the adult produce blood cells. FALSE Only certain bones in the adult produce blood cells, but all the bones in the fetus produce blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
From the outside of a long bone inside, what is the first tissue encountered?
A. compact bone B. spongy bone C. periosteum D. medullary cavity E. bone marrow The periosteum is a layer of fibrous connective tissue that completely covers a long bone except for the articular cartilage at the bone's ends.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.01.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
6.
What term is associated with spongy bone but not with compact bone?
A. canaliculi B. osteocytes C. trabeculae Both spongy and compact bone have osteocytes and canaliculi, but only spongy bone has trabeculae.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.01.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
7.
What is a canaliculus?
A. the large cavity inside a long bone B. a stress plate in spongy bone C. a fibrous connective covering of bone D. a small channel in the matrix of bone E. a type of bone forming cell Tiny canals called canaliculi (sing., canaliculus) run through the matrix of bone.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
8.
The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone. TRUE The diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone and the medullary cavity is within it.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
9.
In bone the cells are called _________________ and in cartilage they are called ________________.
A. osteocytes, osteoblasts B. lacunae, osteocytes C. chondrocytes, lacunae D. osteoblasts, chondrocytes E. osteocytes, chondrocytes Cells in bone are called osteocytes while cells in cartilage are called chondrocytes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
10.
What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones?
A. elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. hyaline cartilage Hyaline cartilage is found at the ends of long bones, the nose, at the ends of the ribs, and in the larynx and trachea.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
11.
Jason broke his finger playing football, while Sean tore the cartilage in his knee playing basketball. Which one will heal faster and why?
A. Jason, bones have a blood supply and heal faster B. Jason, fingers bear less weight than knees do C. Sean, cartilage has a blood supply and heal faster D. Sean, knees can be immobilized easier than fingers Cartilage is lacking a blood supply and this makes it slow to heal.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.01.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
12.
The epiglottis is a structure that needs to be strong but extremely flexible. What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis?
A. elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. hyaline cartilage D. bone E. muscle The epiglottis is made of elastic cartilage.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
13.
Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime. TRUE Bones are able to respond to stress by changing size, shape, and strength throughout our lifetime.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
14.
Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?
A. the amount of sodium in the blood B. the amount of calcium in the blood C. the amount of sodium in the bone D. the amount of vitamin C in the blood E. the amount of vitamin D in the bone Bone serves as a storage reservoir for calcium and recycling allows the body to regulate the amount of calcium in the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
15.
Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoclasts instead of osteoblasts. FALSE Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoblasts (bone forming) instead of osteoclasts (bone absorbing).
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
16.
What two hormones are involved in regulating the blood calcium level?
A. calcitonin and renin B. renin and aldosterone C. renin and PTH D. aldosterone and PTH E. PTH and calcitonin PTH stimules osteoclasts while calcitonin has the opposite effect.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
17.
How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related?
A. Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures. B. Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures. C. Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function, but osteocytes work in the adult and osteoblasts work in the fetus. D. Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other. One builds up bone while the other absorbs it. E. Osteocytes are mature bone cells while osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer. When an osteoblast is surrounded by calcified matrix, it becomes an osteocyte.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.02.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
18.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?
A. Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum. B. Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone. C. As the cartilage models calcify, the chondrocytes die off. D. The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone. E. A band of cartilage remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center. The region of primary ossification is where osteoblasts lay down spongy bone in the interior of the bone.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 11.02.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
19.
As long as the growth plate remains, the limbs will keep increasing in length. TRUE The limbs keep increasing in length as long as growth plates, bands of cartilage, are still present.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
20.
Which bones develop by intramembranous ossification?
A. the long bones of the leg B. the long bones of the arms C. the ribs D. the fingers E. the skull Flat bones, such as the bones of the skull, develop by intramembranous ossification.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
21.
Arrange the steps of bone repair in order. 1. Remodeling; 2. Bony callus; 3. Hematoma; 4. Fibrocartilaginous callus
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 1,2,4,3 D. 3,4,2,1 E. 2,1,4,3 The order of bone repair is hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus, followed by a bony callus, and remodeling.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.02.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
22.
How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last?
A. 1-2 days B. 3-4 weeks C. 3-4 months D. 1-2 years E. more than 10 years The bony callus lasts about three to four months.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
23.
How is bone repair different from bone development?
A. A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred. B. Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but they are in bone development. C. Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair. D. Only spongy bone is built in bone repair while both spongy and compact bone are built in bone development. E. There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development. In some ways, bone repair parallels the development of a bone except that the first step, hematoma, indicates that injury has occurred.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 11.02.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
24.
Jeremy had a simple break of his tibia because the bone was broken clear through. FALSE A simple break means that the bone does not pierce the skin. A complete fracture occurs when the bone is broken clear through.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.02.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. Section: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
What criterion is used to categorize the skeleton into axial and appendicular?
A. whether the bones are weight bearing or not B. whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle C. whether the bones are flat or long D. whether the bones contain red bone marrow or yellow bone marrow E. whether the bones articulate with the pelvis or not If the bones lie on the midline of the body, they are part of the axial skeleton. If they are part of the girdles or hang from them, they are appendicular.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 11.03.01 Identify the bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
26.
Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
A. clavicle B. hyoid C. temporal D. rib E. vertebrae The clavicle is part of the appendicular skeleton.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03.01 Identify the bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
27.
Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone?
A. scapula B. maxilla C. hyoid D. coccyx E. temporal The hyoid bone is the only bone that does not articulate with another bone.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03.01 Identify the bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
28.
Jill broke her cheekbone in an ice skating accident. Which bone did she break?
A. temporal bone B. mandible C. maxilla D. zygomatic bone E. frontal bone The zygomatic bone forms the cheekbone.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.03.01 Identify the bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
29.
How are the bones of the cranium named?
A. for their articulations with the vertebral column B. for whether they are formed from cartilage or not C. for their shape D. for their size E. for the lobes of the brain they protect The bones of the cranium (frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal) have the same names as the lobes of the brain.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.03.01 Identify the bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
30.
How many vertebrae are there?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 18 D. 24 E. 33 There are 33 vertebrae.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
31.
What is the name of the first cervical vertebra? Why?
A. atlas, Greek mythology B. atlas, it allows "yes" motion of the head C. axis, Roman mythology D. axis, it allows the "no" motion of the head E. sphinoid, Egyptian sphinx mythology The first cervical vertebra, called the atlas, hold up the head. Atlas, of Greek mythology, held up the world.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
32.
The thoracic vertebrae are named that because the ribs attach there. TRUE There are twelve thoracic vertebrae named because they articulate with the ribs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
33.
The name of the "tailbone" is the
A. lumbar. B. sacrum. C. coccyx. D. sphinoid. E. axis. The tailbone is three to five fused vertebrae called the coccyx.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
34.
What are the functions of the sinuses?
A. to drain fluid from the brain and to allow the brain to expand B. to give a resonant sound to the voice and to allow the brain to expand C. to lighten the skull and drain fluid from the brain D. to lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice E. to allow the brain to expand and to lighten the skull The sinuses reduce the weight of the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
35.
What are the intervertebral disks made of?
A. bone B. skeletal muscle C. hyaline cartilage D. fibrocartilage E. elastic cartilage Between the vertebrae are intervertebral disks composed of fibrocartilage that acts as padding.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
36.
All 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back and the sternum in the front. FALSE While all 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back, only 7 pairs connect to the sternum in the front.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
37.
Due to a back injury, Carla had several of her lumbar vertebrae fused together. How does this affect Carla?
A. She will have limited movement in that area. B. She will not be affected at all. C. She will need assistance in walking. D. She will be unable to stand upright. E. She will be unable to lie flat on her back. The intervertebral disks allow the vertebrae to move as we bend forward, backward, and from side to side. If the vertebrae are fused together, this type of movement will be limited.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.03.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton. Section: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
38.
Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs?
A. clavicle B. sternum C. scapula D. ulna E. humerus The sternum is part of the axial skeleton.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
39.
Emma developed a rotator cuff injury. What part of her body is injured?
A. neck B. upper back C. shoulder D. lower back E. lower arm The rotator cuff attaches the humerus to the scapula at the shoulder region.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.04.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
40.
How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five The pelvic girdle consists of two large coxal bones.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
41.
Which of the following is not part of the coxal bone?
A. patella B. ilium C. ischium D. pubis The patella is the knee cap.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
42.
The head of the radius is located at the
A. elbow. B. wrist. C. shoulder. The head of the radius is located at the elbow.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
43.
The humerus fits into what at the shoulder?
A. acetabulum B. clavicle C. acromion process D. glenoid cavity E. olecranon process The humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs.
Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
44.
It is not possible to tell whether skeletal remains are male or female. FALSE The male and female pelves differ from each other and can be used to identify the sex of skeletal remains.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.04.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
45.
When you hit your "funny bone", what are you hitting?
A. olecranon process B. deltoid tuberosity C. acromion process D. head of ulna E. glenoid cavity Your "funny bone" is the olecranon process of the ulna.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
46.
Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity. This is probably because Daniel
A. is a pianist. B. spends a lot of time playing video games. C. lifts heavy weights with his arms. D. plays basketball. E. is a runner. The deltoid tuberosity on the humerus is where the deltoid muscle attaches. It increases in size with heavy lifting.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
47.
Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body?
A. humerus B. pelvis C. tibia D. fibula E. femur The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the body.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
48.
What holds the patella in place?
A. the lateral epicondyle B. the quadriceps tendon C. the medial condyle D. the lateral malleolus E. the greater trochanter The patella is held in place by the quadriceps tendon.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
49.
There are phalanges in both the lower limb and upper limb. TRUE The bones of the fingers and the toes are called phalanges.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
50.
Which of the following is not a type of joint?
A. trochanter B. fibrous C. cartilaginous D. synovial A trochanter is not a type of joint.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.05.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
51.
What of the following joints is a fibrous joint?
A. sutures between cranial bones B. ribs and sternum C. intervertebral disks D. elbow E. knee Many fibrous joints, such as the sutures between the cranial bones, are immovable.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.05.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
52.
Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable?
A. fibrous B. cartilaginous C. synovial Cartilaginous joints tend to be slightly movable.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.05.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones.
Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
53.
A ligament connects
A. cartilage to bone. B. muscle to bone. C. bone to bone. Ligaments connect bone to bone.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.05.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
54.
Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint?
A. bursae B. menisci C. ligaments D. fibrocartilage E. fibrous capsule Fibrocartilage is another type of joint. It is not found in a synovial joint.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
55.
A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint. FALSE A meniscus is a C-shaped piece of hyaline cartilage.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
56.
Which part of a synovial joint is a fluid-filled sac?
A. symphysis B. suture C. synovial membrane D. menisci E. bursa The bursae are fluid-filled sacs that ease friction in a joint.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
57.
When you nod your head "yes", what type of movement are you using?
A. flexion and extension B. adduction and abduction C. rotation D. circumduction E. inversion Nodding "yes" is flexion and extension.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.05.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
58.
When you kick your foot out in front of you, what type of movement are you using?
A. adduction and abduction B. flexion and extension C. rotation D. eversion E. inversion Kicking your foot out in front of you involves flexion and extension.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.05.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
59.
When Phillip was little, he worked on the outside edge of his feet. This is what type of movement?
A. rotation B. eversion C. inversion D. circumduction E. adduction and abduction Walking on the outside of your foot so that the sole of the foot turns inward is called inversion.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.05.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
60.
A synovial joint allows for flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, and inversion and eversion, but not rotation and circumduction. FALSE A synovial joint allows for all of these types of movement.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. Section: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Chapter 11 Skeletal System Summary Category
# of Questions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
13
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
23
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
13
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
8
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
3
Learning Outcome: 11.01.01 State the functions of the skeletal system.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.01.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.01.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.02.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.02.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.02.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.03.01 Identify the bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage.
5
Learning Outcome: 11.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column.
5
Learning Outcome: 11.03.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton.
3
Learning Outcome: 11.04.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles.
5
Learning Outcome: 11.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs.
7
Learning Outcome: 11.05.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones.
3
Learning Outcome: 11.05.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint.
4
Learning Outcome: 11.05.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint.
4
Section: 11.01
12
Section: 11.02
12
Section: 11.03
13
Section: 11.04
12
Section: 11.05
11
Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
60
Chapter 12 Muscular System
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What do smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle all have in common?
A. They are all uninucleated. B. They are all striated. C. They are all found in the walls of blood vessels. D. The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers. E. They all interlock at intercalated disks. 2.
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has multinucleated fibers?
A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle 3.
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which is voluntary?
A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle 4.
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which is not striated?
A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle
5.
What is found within the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle?
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. gap junctions C. dense connective tissue D. bone E. myoglobin
True / False Questions
6.
Because the heart beats continuously, cardiac fibers never relax completely. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscles?
A. pumping of blood throughout the body B. support C. movement of bones D. maintenance of body temperature E. protection of internal organs 8.
From the outside of a muscle coming in, the first thing encountered would be
A. fascia. B. fascicle. C. dense connective tissue. D. muscle fiber. E. myofibril.
9.
How are muscles attached to bone?
A. with ligaments B. with tendons C. with bursae 10. What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?
A. the triceps brachii B. the trapezius C. the masseter D. the pectoralis major E. the sartorius
True / False Questions
11. Muscles can only pull; they cannot push. True
False
12. The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
13. Which of the following is not a term that refers to how muscles work?
A. prime mover B. synergists C. antagonist D. synergism E. origin 14. What is the deltoid muscle shaped like?
A. a long thin line B. a square C. a triangle D. a circle E. a trapezoid 15. What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle?
A. large B. small C. huge D. long E. short 16. What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for blinking and winking?
A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. pectoralis major D. orbicularis oculi E. extensor digitorum
17. What information does the word rectus give you about a muscle?
A. the size of the muscle B. the attachment of the muscle C. the action of the muscle D. the shape of the muscle E. the direction of muscle fibers 18. Which of the following does not attach to the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A. rib B. clavicle C. sternum D. mastoid process 19. Which way does the adductor longus move the thigh?
A. away from the midline B. toward the midline C. in a circle D. in a cone E. towards the back 20. What is the biggest muscle (in terms of mass) in the body?
A. gluteus maximus B. sartorius C. stapedius D. quadriceps femoris E. latissimus dorsi
21. What does the word sarco mean?
A. large B. short C. muscle D. tubule E. smooth 22. Several of the structures in the muscle cell are given special names. For example, the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasm. Which of the following is truly a unique structure to muscle cells (not just a renamed one)?
A. cytoplasm B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. transverse (T) system E. plasma membrane 23. A muscle fiber is made up of many
A. muscle cells. B. T tubules. C. myofibrils. D. fascicles. E. bursa. 24. One sarcomere
A. extends from Z line to Z line. B. is composed of many myofibrils. C. contains only actin fibers. D. is composed of many muscle fibers. E. surrounds each muscle in the body.
25. What ion is responsible for initiating muscle contraction?
A. Mg2+ B. Ca2+ C. H+ D. ClE. Na+
True / False Questions
26. When a muscle contracts, the H zone almost disappears. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. The actin and myosin filaments _______________ when a muscle contracts.
A. shorten B. lengthen C. stay the same length 28. What supplies the energy for muscle contraction?
A. actin B. myosin C. tropomyosin D. ATP E. Ca2+
True / False Questions
29. Each actin molecule is shaped like a golf club, with a straight portion ending in a globular head. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
30. What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds?
A. Ca2+, tropomyosin shifts B. tropomyosin, the sarcomere relaxes C. acetylcholine, the sarcome shortens D. ATP, tropomyosin returns to normal position E. T tubules, the sarcomere shortens 31. What is the name of the small gap that separates the axon terminal of a nerve from the sarcolemma?
A. T tubule B. sliding filament C. synaptic cleft D. synaptic vesicle E. sarcoplasmic reticulum 32. When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal what happens next?
A. The muscle contracts. B. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter. C. An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft. D. H+ is pumped into the synaptic cleft. E. Myosin is released from the axon terminal.
True / False Questions
33. One motor neuron activates one muscle fiber. True
False
34. One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. Why is the innervation ratio in the ocular muscles one motor axon per 23 muscle fibers, whereas in the gastrocnemius muscle it is one motor axon per 1000 muscle fibers?
A. There are more nerves in the upper body than in the lower extremities. B. The ocular muscles require finer control than moving the legs. C. The innervation ratio has to do with the overall size of the muscle--the bigger the muscle, the fewer the muscle fibers per motor axon. D. The gastrocnemius muscle contracts much harder than the ocular muscles do. E. There are fewer muscle fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle than in the ocular muscles. 36. Which of the following is not a phase of a single muscle twitch?
A. stimulation period B. latent period C. contraction period D. relaxation period
37. What is happening during the latent period of a muscle twitch?
A. The muscle relaxes and returns to its former length. B. Fresh ATP binds to the myosin causing it to return to its resting position. C. ADP and phosphate are released, and the power stroke of the contraction occurs. D. The myosin-actin cross-bridges are broken and the sarcomere shortens. E. The neurotransmitter is diffusing across the synaptic cleft causing an electrical signal in the muscle cell. 38. Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues?
A. Its energy reserves are depleted. B. Stimulation continues. C. Tetanus is achieved. D. Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft. E. The muscle relaxes. 39. In good muscle tone, how many motor units are contracted?
A. none B. some C. all
True / False Questions
40. Contraction of a muscle requires all the motor units to be undergoing tetanic contraction. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Which of the following is not an energy source for muscle contraction?
A. glycogen B. triglycerides C. glucose D. fatty acids E. starch 42. Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction?
A. ATP in the blood B. ATP stored in the cell C. the creatine phosphate pathway D. fermentation E. aerobic respiration 43. Of the three pathways for obtaining ATP for muscle contraction, which one requires oxygen?
A. the creatine phosphate pathway B. fermentation C. respiration 44. Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle, which pathway do slow-twitch fibers prefer?
A. the creatine phosphate pathway B. fermentation C. aerobic respiration
True / False Questions
45. Jillian is a cross country runner. She has predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
46. Why are slow-twitch muscles dark?
A. They have many more myofibrils per motor unit than fast-twitch fibers. B. They are designed for strength and explosions of energy. C. They need less blood than fast-twitch fibers. D. They contain myoglobin. E. They have fewer mitochondria. 47. What is the name of a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction, often accompanied by pain?
A. bursitis B. sprain C. strain D. tic E. spasm 48. What is the difference between a tic and a spasm?
A. A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily. B. A tic is a strong, and very painful spasm, especially of the leg and foot. C. A tic is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. D. A tic is caused by the inflammation of a tendon, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. E. A tic refers to achy muscles, usually due to over exercise, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction.
True / False Questions
49. Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles, usually due to overuse. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
50. Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and extremities?
A. myalgia B. muscular dystrophy C. myasthenia gravis D. tendinitis E. bursitis 51. What do fibromyalgia and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis have in common?
A. The cause of both diseases is unknown. B. In both diseases, antibodies destroy acetylcholine receptors. C. Both are X-linked genetic diseases. D. Both can be cured with antibiotics. E. In both diseases, the protein dystrophin is absent. 52. What is the reservoir for Ca2+ in the body?
A. muscles B. bones C. liver D. brain E. blood
53. What two hormones regulate calcium homeostasis?
A. parathyroid hormone, tropomyosin B. acetylcholine, calcitonin C. parathyroid hormone, calcitonin D. acetylcholine, tropomyosin E. parathyroid hormone, testosterone
True / False Questions
54. The endocrine system, nervous system, muscular and skeletal systems, cardiovascular systems, urinary system, and digestive system are all involved in calcium homeostasis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
55. Which of the following does not occur when you are very, very cold?
A. More blood flows to the surface of the body. B. Smooth muscle contracts inside the blood vessels supplying the skin. C. The arrector pili muscles contract. D. Shivering occurs. E. You get goose bumps.
56. What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract?
A. Your head nods "yes". B. Your leg kicks out. C. The hairs on your skin stand on end. D. The blood from your skin is rerouted to your core. E. You tap your finger. 57. Which part of the cardiovascular system does not include muscle?
A. heart B. arteries C. veins D. capillaries
True / False Questions
58. Temperature sensitive neurons in the skin are responsible for initiating shivering. True
False
59. If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. The skeletal system assists the cardiovascular system by
A. altering the pH of the blood. B. activating vitamin D needed for calcium absorption. C. producing hormones for calcium homeostasis. D. pumping the blood. E. producing the blood cells.
Chapter 12 Muscular System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What do smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle all have in common?
A. They are all uninucleated. B. They are all striated. C. They are all found in the walls of blood vessels. D. The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers. E. They all interlock at intercalated disks. The cells of all three types of muscle tissues are called muscle fibers.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
2.
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has multinucleated fibers?
A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle Only skeletal muscle has multinucleated fibers.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
3.
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which is voluntary?
A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle Skeletal muscle is voluntary.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
4.
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which is not striated?
A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle Smooth muscle is not striated.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
5.
What is found within the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle?
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. gap junctions C. dense connective tissue D. bone E. myoglobin Gap junctions are found at intercalated disks to permit contracts to spread quickly,.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01
Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
6.
Because the heart beats continuously, cardiac fibers never relax completely. FALSE Cardiac fibers relax completely between contractions, which prevents fatigue.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscles?
A. pumping of blood throughout the body B. support C. movement of bones D. maintenance of body temperature E. protection of internal organs Cardiac muscle makes up the heart that pumps blood throughout the body.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
8.
From the outside of a muscle coming in, the first thing encountered would be
A. fascia. B. fascicle. C. dense connective tissue. D. muscle fiber. E. myofibril. Muscles are covered with fascia, a type of connective tissue.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
9.
How are muscles attached to bone?
A. with ligaments B. with tendons C. with bursae Tendons connect muscles to bone. Bursae act as a cushion in the connection.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
10.
What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?
A. the triceps brachii B. the trapezius C. the masseter D. the pectoralis major E. the sartorius The biceps brachii and triceps brachii are a pair of antagonistic muscles.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
11.
Muscles can only pull; they cannot push. TRUE Muscles can only contract and pull on the bone they are attached to.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
12.
The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone. TRUE The origin is on the stationary bone while the insertion is on the bone that moves.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
13.
Which of the following is not a term that refers to how muscles work?
A. prime mover B. synergists C. antagonist D. synergism E. origin Synergism is not a term that refers to muscle movement.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
14.
What is the deltoid muscle shaped like?
A. a long thin line B. a square C. a triangle D. a circle E. a trapezoid The Greek letter delta looks like a triangle and the deltoid is shaped like a triangle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
15.
What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle?
A. large B. small C. huge D. long E. short
Brevis means short and is used to indicate the size of a muscle.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
16.
What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for blinking and winking?
A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. pectoralis major D. orbicularis oculi E. extensor digitorum The orbicularis oculi is around the eye and is responsible for blinking and winking.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
17.
What information does the word rectus give you about a muscle?
A. the size of the muscle B. the attachment of the muscle C. the action of the muscle D. the shape of the muscle E. the direction of muscle fibers
Rectus means straight and gives information about the direction of the muscle fibers.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
18.
Which of the following does not attach to the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A. rib B. clavicle C. sternum D. mastoid process The sternocleidomastoid does not attach to a rib.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
19.
Which way does the adductor longus move the thigh?
A. away from the midline B. toward the midline C. in a circle D. in a cone E. towards the back The adductor longus adducts the thigh, or moves it toward the midline. It also raises the thigh.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
20.
What is the biggest muscle (in terms of mass) in the body?
A. gluteus maximus B. sartorius C. stapedius D. quadriceps femoris E. latissimus dorsi The gluteus maximus which makes up the buttocks is the largest muscle in the body.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
21.
What does the word sarco mean?
A. large B. short C. muscle D. tubule E. smooth The word sarco means muscle.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
22.
Several of the structures in the muscle cell are given special names. For example, the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasm. Which of the following is truly a unique structure to muscle cells (not just a renamed one)?
A. cytoplasm B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. transverse (T) system E. plasma membrane The T system is not found in other types of cells.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.02.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
23.
A muscle fiber is made up of many
A. muscle cells. B. T tubules. C. myofibrils. D. fascicles. E. bursa. A muscle fiber is made up of many myofibrils divided into sarcomeres.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
24.
One sarcomere
A. extends from Z line to Z line. B. is composed of many myofibrils. C. contains only actin fibers. D. is composed of many muscle fibers. E. surrounds each muscle in the body. A sarcomere extends between two dark vertical lines called Z lines.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.02.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
25.
What ion is responsible for initiating muscle contraction?
A. Mg2+ B. Ca2+ C. H+ D. ClE. Na+ Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate muscle contraction.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
26.
When a muscle contracts, the H zone almost disappears. TRUE The H zone is the area in the center of the sarcomere that almost disappears when the muscle contracts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
The actin and myosin filaments _______________ when a muscle contracts.
A. shorten B. lengthen C. stay the same length The actin and myosin filaments stay the same length when a muscle contracts. They just slide past each other.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
28.
What supplies the energy for muscle contraction?
A. actin B. myosin C. tropomyosin D. ATP E. Ca2+ ATP supplies the energy necessary for muscle contraction.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
29.
Each actin molecule is shaped like a golf club, with a straight portion ending in a globular head. FALSE Each myosin molecule is shaped like a golf club.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
30.
What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds?
A. Ca2+, tropomyosin shifts B. tropomyosin, the sarcomere relaxes C. acetylcholine, the sarcome shortens D. ATP, tropomyosin returns to normal position E. T tubules, the sarcomere shortens Troponin binds to Ca2+ and this results in a shift of the tropomyosin threads, exposing myosin-binding sites.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
31.
What is the name of the small gap that separates the axon terminal of a nerve from the sarcolemma?
A. T tubule B. sliding filament C. synaptic cleft D. synaptic vesicle E. sarcoplasmic reticulum The small gap is called a synaptic cleft. The entire region is called a neuromuscular junction.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
32.
When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal what happens next?
A. The muscle contracts. B. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter. C. An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft. D. H+ is pumped into the synaptic cleft. E. Myosin is released from the axon terminal. The synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, into the synaptic cleft.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.02.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
33.
One motor neuron activates one muscle fiber. FALSE One motor neuron can stimulate from a few to several muscle fibers of a muscle because each axon has several branches.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction. Section: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
34.
One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law. TRUE All the muscle fibers in a motor unit are stimulated at once. They all either contract or do not contract.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 12.03
Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
35.
Why is the innervation ratio in the ocular muscles one motor axon per 23 muscle fibers, whereas in the gastrocnemius muscle it is one motor axon per 1000 muscle fibers?
A. There are more nerves in the upper body than in the lower extremities. B. The ocular muscles require finer control than moving the legs. C. The innervation ratio has to do with the overall size of the muscle--the bigger the muscle, the fewer the muscle fibers per motor axon. D. The gastrocnemius muscle contracts much harder than the ocular muscles do. E. There are fewer muscle fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle than in the ocular muscles. The ocular muscles require much finer control than moving the legs.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.03.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
36.
Which of the following is not a phase of a single muscle twitch?
A. stimulation period B. latent period C. contraction period D. relaxation period A stimulation period is not a phase of a muscle twitch.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
37.
What is happening during the latent period of a muscle twitch?
A. The muscle relaxes and returns to its former length. B. Fresh ATP binds to the myosin causing it to return to its resting position. C. ADP and phosphate are released, and the power stroke of the contraction occurs. D. The myosin-actin cross-bridges are broken and the sarcomere shortens. E. The neurotransmitter is diffusing across the synaptic cleft causing an electrical signal in the muscle cell. All of the activities that begin a contraction are occurring.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.03.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
38.
Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues?
A. Its energy reserves are depleted. B. Stimulation continues. C. Tetanus is achieved. D. Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft. E. The muscle relaxes. Tetanus is maximal sustained contraction and does not occur during muscle fatigue.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.03.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
39.
In good muscle tone, how many motor units are contracted?
A. none B. some C. all In good muscle tone, some motor units are always contracted, but not enough to cause movement.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 12.03.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
40.
Contraction of a muscle requires all the motor units to be undergoing tetanic contraction. FALSE Some motor units are contracting maximally while others are resting, allowing sustained contractions to occur.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.03.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Which of the following is not an energy source for muscle contraction?
A. glycogen B. triglycerides C. glucose D. fatty acids E. starch Muscles store glycogen and triglycerides for use as energy and acquire glucose and fatty acids from the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.03.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
42.
Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction?
A. ATP in the blood B. ATP stored in the cell C. the creatine phosphate pathway D. fermentation E. aerobic respiration Muscles do not get ATP from the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.03.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
43.
Of the three pathways for obtaining ATP for muscle contraction, which one requires oxygen?
A. the creatine phosphate pathway B. fermentation C. respiration Aerobic respiration requires a supply of oxygen.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.03.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
44.
Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle, which pathway do slow-twitch fibers prefer?
A. the creatine phosphate pathway B. fermentation C. aerobic respiration Slow-twitch fibers prefer to use aerobic respiration for their ATP source.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. Section: 12.03
Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
45.
Jillian is a cross country runner. She has predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers. TRUE Slow-twitch muscle fibers are aerobic, have steady power, and have endurance--all required for cross country running.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.03.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
46.
Why are slow-twitch muscles dark?
A. They have many more myofibrils per motor unit than fast-twitch fibers. B. They are designed for strength and explosions of energy. C. They need less blood than fast-twitch fibers. D. They contain myoglobin. E. They have fewer mitochondria. Slow-twitch fibers are dark because they contain myoglobin, the respiratory pigment found in muscles.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.03.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
47.
What is the name of a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction, often accompanied by pain?
A. bursitis B. sprain C. strain D. tic E. spasm A spasm is a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction, often accompanied by pain.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.04.01 Distinguish between common muscle conditions such as strains and sprains. Section: 12.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
48.
What is the difference between a tic and a spasm?
A. A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily. B. A tic is a strong, and very painful spasm, especially of the leg and foot. C. A tic is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. D. A tic is caused by the inflammation of a tendon, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. E. A tic refers to achy muscles, usually due to over exercise, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily, but only with great effort.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.04.01 Distinguish between common muscle conditions such as strains and sprains. Section: 12.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
49.
Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles, usually due to overuse. FALSE Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition whose symptoms include achy pain, tenderness, and stiffness of muscles.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.04.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia, muscular dystrophy, and myasthenia gravis. Section: 12.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
50.
Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and extremities?
A. myalgia B. muscular dystrophy C. myasthenia gravis D. tendinitis E. bursitis These symptoms describe the disease myasthenia gravis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.04.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia, muscular dystrophy, and myasthenia gravis. Section: 12.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
51.
What do fibromyalgia and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis have in common?
A. The cause of both diseases is unknown. B. In both diseases, antibodies destroy acetylcholine receptors. C. Both are X-linked genetic diseases. D. Both can be cured with antibiotics. E. In both diseases, the protein dystrophin is absent. The cause of ALS and fibromyalgia are both unknown at this time.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.04.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia, muscular dystrophy, and myasthenia gravis. Section: 12.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
52.
What is the reservoir for Ca2+ in the body?
A. muscles B. bones C. liver D. brain E. blood The skeleton acts as a reservoir for calcium.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.05.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
53.
What two hormones regulate calcium homeostasis?
A. parathyroid hormone, tropomyosin B. acetylcholine, calcitonin C. parathyroid hormone, calcitonin D. acetylcholine, tropomyosin E. parathyroid hormone, testosterone Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are involved in calcium homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
54.
The endocrine system, nervous system, muscular and skeletal systems, cardiovascular systems, urinary system, and digestive system are all involved in calcium homeostasis. TRUE The endocrine system produces hormones that regulate calcium content of the bones. The bones store calcium needed for muscle contraction and nerve impulse conduction. The red bone marrow stores calcium for blood clotting and keeps blood moving in the body delivering hormones to the various locations. The urinary system activates vitamin D needed for calcium absorption. The digestive system absorbs calcium and vitamin D from food.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.05.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
55.
Which of the following does not occur when you are very, very cold?
A. More blood flows to the surface of the body. B. Smooth muscle contracts inside the blood vessels supplying the skin. C. The arrector pili muscles contract. D. Shivering occurs. E. You get goose bumps. When you are very, very cold, less blood flows to the surface of the body in order to keep the core of the body, where the vital organs are, warm.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.05.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
56.
What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract?
A. Your head nods "yes". B. Your leg kicks out. C. The hairs on your skin stand on end. D. The blood from your skin is rerouted to your core. E. You tap your finger. The arrector pili muscles are tiny bundles of smooth muscle attached to the hair follicles that cause the hairs to stand up.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.05.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
57.
Which part of the cardiovascular system does not include muscle?
A. heart B. arteries C. veins D. capillaries The capillaries do not contain a layer of muscle.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.05.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory system. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
True / False Questions
58.
Temperature sensitive neurons in the skin are responsible for initiating shivering. FALSE These neurons are located in the hypothalamus of the brain.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.05.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
59.
If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart. TRUE The skeletal muscles aid in the process of venous return by pushing blood back toward the heart. If you lock your knees, there is a shortage of blood returning to the heart and you may pass out.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.05.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory system.
Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
The skeletal system assists the cardiovascular system by
A. altering the pH of the blood. B. activating vitamin D needed for calcium absorption. C. producing hormones for calcium homeostasis. D. pumping the blood. E. producing the blood cells. The red bone marrow of the skeletal system produces the blood cells.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.05.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory system. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
Chapter 12 Muscular System Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
14
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
18
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
3
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
18
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
7
Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each.
7
Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle.
6
Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body.
7
Learning Outcome: 12.02.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber.
4
Learning Outcome: 12.02.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction.
6
Learning Outcome: 12.02.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction
3
. Learning Outcome: 12.03.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage.
4
Learning Outcome: 12.03.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction.
3
Learning Outcome: 12.03.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction.
3
Learning Outcome: 12.03.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
3
Learning Outcome: 12.04.01 Distinguish between common muscle conditions such as strains and sprains.
2
Learning Outcome: 12.04.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia, muscular dystrophy, and myasthenia gravis.
3
Learning Outcome: 12.05.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis.
3
Learning Outcome: 12.05.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis
3
. Learning Outcome: 12.05.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory s
3
ystem. Section: 12.01
20
Section: 12.02
13
Section: 12.03
13
Section: 12.04
5
Section: 12.05
9
Topic: Homeostasis
9
Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System
60
Chapter 13 Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
The spinal cord belongs to the
A. peripheral nervous system. B. central nervous system. 2.
The central nervous system is protected by
A. bone. B. muscle. C. fibrous cartilage. D. hyaline cartilage. E. elastic cartilage.
True / False Questions
3.
The division between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system is based on the anatomical differences between cells in the two locations. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
A. receive sensory input B. cushion and protect soft tissue C. perform information processing D. perform integration E. generate motor output 5.
Which of the following is mismatched?
A. sensory nerves--afferent B. motor nerves--efferent C. somatic motor nerves: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands D. somatic sensory nerves--skin, muscles, joints, special senses E. visceral sensory nerves--body organs 6.
Which of the following is not a type of neuron?
A. sensory B. interneuron C. motor D. neuroglia
True / False Questions
7.
The cells of the nervous tissue are all neurons, cells that transmit nerve impulses. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched?
A. cell body-short extensions that receive impulses B. axon-conducts nerve impulses C. dendrite-contains the nucleus and other organelles 9.
Which one of the following is entirely located within the central nervous system?
A. sensory neuron B. sensory receptor C. motor neuron D. effector E. interneuron 10. Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS?
A. Schwann cells B. myelin sheath C. axon D. dendrite E. node of Ranvier 11. Which of the following types of nerves is not covered by a protective myelin sheath?
A. long axons B. gray matter of the CNS C. white matter of the CNS D. nerve fibers within the PNS
True / False Questions
12. The gap where there is no myelin sheath around a nerve fiber is called a node of Ranvier. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
13. Why is the outside of a neuron positively charged?
A. because sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane B. because calcium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane C. because potassium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane D. because sodium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane E. because chloride ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane 14. Depolarization of the neuron occurs when
A. the potassium gates open and potassium moves outside the cell. B. the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium inside the cell. C. sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell. D. the sodium-potassium pumps moves potassium inside the cell. E. water moves to the outside of the cell and chloride ions follow.
True / False Questions
15. The action potential in a neuron is an all-or-nothing event. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
16. The entire action potential (depolarization and repolarization) occurs in a matter of
A. milliseconds. B. seconds. C. minutes. 17. What ensures the one-way direction of an action potential?
A. As soon as the action potential has passed by, that portion of the axon undergoes a short refractory period. B. Action potentials are self-propagating. C. Conduction of an action potential is an all-or-none event. D. An action potential at one node causes an action potential at the next node. E. An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly. 18. Which conducts an action potential faster and why?
A. myelinated fibers, the action potential moves through the myelin which allows it to travel faster B. myelinated fibers, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another C. unmyelinated fibers, the absence of myelin allows the action potential to travel faster D. unmyelinated fibers, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another E. unmyelinated fibers, the ions can move in and out of the cell faster without the myelin coating
True / False Questions
19. The intensity of a message is determined by how many action potentials are generated within a given time. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
20. Place the events in the transmission of an action potential in the correct order. 1. An action potential begins in the receiving neuron. 2. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. 3. An action potential arrives at an axon terminal. 4. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal. 5. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron. 6. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane. 7. Neurotransmitters molecules bind to the membrane of the receiving neuron.
A. 1,2,6,7,4,3,5 B. 3,5,6,2,7,4,1 C. 3,4,6,2,7,5,1 D. 2,3,6,7,4,5,1 E. 7,6,5,3,4,2,1 21. Which of the following could happen to the neurotransmitter once it binds to the receiving membrane receptors?
A. reabsorbed by the sending membrane B. absorbed by the receiving membrane in order to start the action potential C. stays bound to the receiving membrane D. released back into the synaptic cleft where it builds up 22. Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
A. acetylcholine B. serotonin C. glutamate D. GABA E. ATP
True / False Questions
23. There are only two types of neurotransmitters: acetylcholine for excitation and norepinephrine for inhibition. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. What is the summing up of the excitatory and inhibitory signals by a neuron called?
A. integration B. addition C. polarization D. depolarization E. firing 25. Which of the following statements is not true concerning acetylcholine's function?
A. Acetylcholine has an excitatory effect on smooth muscle and glands. B. Acetylcholine is active in both the CNS and PNS. C. In the PNS, acetylcholine excites skeletal muscle. D. In the PNS, acetylcholine inhibits cardiac muscle. E. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from the receiving cell's membrane.
True / False Questions
26. When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the central nervous system?
A. The central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord and the brain. B. The brain and spinal cord contain only white matter--myelinated axons that run together in bundles. C. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by bone. D. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by meninges. E. The spaces around the brain and spinal cord are filled with fluid.
True / False Questions
28. The spinal cord extends from the base of the brain through a large opening in the skull called the inferior ventricle. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
29. Which of the following statements is not true concerning spinal nerves?
A. The ventral root contains motor fibers exiting the gray matter. B. The dorsal root contains sensory fibers entering the gray matter. C. Spinal nerves are considered part of the CNS. D. The dorsal and ventral roots join before the spinal nerve leaves the vertebral canal. E. The spinal nerves project from the cord through intervertebral foramina.
True / False Questions
30. The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the gray matter. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
31. Which of the following is not a part of the brain?
A. corpus callosum B. central canal C. cerebrum D. cerebellum E. pons 32. The cerebrum is associated with the
A. two lateral ventricles. B. third ventricle. C. fourth ventricle. 33. Which is the largest part of the brain?
A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. diencephalon D. cerebellum E. cerebrum
True / False Questions
34. The brain stem contains the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. The thalamus is on the receiving end for all sensory input except the
A. sense of smell. B. visual sense. C. sense of hearing. D. somatosensory information. E. memory and emotions. 36. Wernicke's area is associated with
A. reflex centers for controlling heartbeat. B. sexual arousal. C. the ability to ride a bike. D. the sense of smell. E. the ability to speak. 37. Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebral hemisphere?
A. reticular B. frontal C. parietal D. temporal E. occipital 38. Which of the following functions is not associated with the frontal lobe?
A. primary motor area B. primary visual area C. premotor area D. motor speech (Broca's) area E. prefrontal area
39. Which of the following statements concerning the primary motor area is not true?
A. The area that controls the thumb, fingers, and hand is larger than the area controlling the leg. B. The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus. C. Control of muscles responsible for facial movements take up a large portion of the primary motor area. D. Voluntary commands to skeletal muscles begin in the primary motor area. E. The primary motor area is in the cerebellum. 40. The primary somatosensory area receives sensory input from
A. the sense of touch. B. the sense of taste. C. the sense of vision. D. the sense of hearing. E. the sense of smell.
True / False Questions
41. The structures of the limbic system are linked together because of their position within the cerebrum even though they have a variety of functions. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
42. Which of the following is part of the limbic system?
A. spinal cord B. primary somatosensory area C. amygdala D. reticular formation E. cerebellum 43. What type of memory is involved in learning to ride a bike?
A. short-term memory B. long-term memory C. semantic memory D. episodic memory E. skill memory 44. When a student crams for a test at 3 in the morning before the test, the information usually goes into
A. skill memory. B. episodic memory. C. semantic memory. D. long-term memory. E. short-term memory. 45. Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning?
A. hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories B. long-term potentiation and memory storage C. semantic memory and numbers D. episodic memory and persons E. prefrontal area and where memories are used
True / False Questions
46. The left hemisphere of the brain is more involved in verbal functions than the right hemisphere. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
47. What type of memory does language depend upon?
A. short-term B. semantic C. episodic D. skill
True / False Questions
48. The two types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system are cranial nerves and spinal nerves. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. Place the following steps in the correct order for a reflex arc. 1. Sensory neurons pass signals to interneurons. 2. Nerve signals travel along motor fibers to an effector. 3. Sensory receptors generate nerve signals. 4. Interneurons synapse with motor neurons. 5. There is a response to the stimulus.
A. 3,4,1,2,5 B. 2,1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,4,5 D. 3,1,4,2,5 E. 2,4,1,3,5 50. Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is not true?
A. Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves. B. The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals. C. Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves, while some are only motor fibers. Others are mixed. D. Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head, neck, and face. E. The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve. 51. The somatic division of the PNS controls all of the following except
A. skin. B. skeletal muscles. C. tendons. D. heart muscle. 52. In what way are the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic autonomic motor pathway similar?
A. Both innervate glands and organs. B. Both innervate the skeletal muscles. C. Both utilize two neurons per message. D. Both use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. E. Both are voluntary.
53. In which way are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic system similar?
A. Both utilize two neurons per message. B. In both the preganglionic neuron is shorter than the postganglionic neuron. C. Both use norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter. D. Both arise from the sacral spinal nerves. E. Both are associated with the relaxed state (rest-and-digest).
True / False Questions
54. The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
55. Which of the following is a neuromodulator?
A. substance P B. GABA C. acetylcholine D. dopamine E. serotonin 56. How does caffeine work?
A. increases the amount of neurotransmitter at a synapse B. interferes with or decreases the action of a neurotransmitter C. replace or mimic a neurotransmitter D. replace or mimic a neuromodulator E. promote the action of a neurotransmitter
True / False Questions
57. Dopamine plays a central role in the working of the brain's built-in reward circuit. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. How is alcohol classified?
A. stimulant B. depressant C. psychoactive 59. Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?
A. cocaine B. alcohol C. heroin D. marijuana 60. Which two drugs are in the same category?
A. nicotine and alcohol B. nicotine and heroin C. alcohol and heroin D. cocaine and marijuana E. marijuana and heroin
61. Long term use of __________ results in damage to the frontal lobes, a decrease in overall brain size, and an increase in the size of the ventricles.
A. alcohol B. nicotine C. cocaine D. heroin E. marijuana 62. Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms?
A. weight gain, poor cognitive performance, irritability B. cardiac and/or respiratory arrest, sudden death C. apathy, euphoria, hallucinations D. addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections E. anxiety, jitters, insomnia, headaches
Chapter 13 Nervous System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
The spinal cord belongs to the
A. peripheral nervous system. B. central nervous system. The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system, along with the brain.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
2.
The central nervous system is protected by
A. bone. B. muscle. C. fibrous cartilage. D. hyaline cartilage. E. elastic cartilage. The brain is protected by the skull and the spinal cord is protected by the vertebral column.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
3.
The division between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system is based on the anatomical differences between cells in the two locations. FALSE The division between the CNS and the PNS is arbitrary.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
A. receive sensory input B. cushion and protect soft tissue C. perform information processing D. perform integration E. generate motor output The nervous system does not cushion and protect soft tissue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
5.
Which of the following is mismatched?
A. sensory nerves--afferent B. motor nerves--efferent C. somatic motor nerves: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands D. somatic sensory nerves--skin, muscles, joints, special senses E. visceral sensory nerves--body organs The somatic motor nerves send signals to skeletal muscles.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
6.
Which of the following is not a type of neuron?
A. sensory B. interneuron C. motor D. neuroglia Neuroglia are cells that support and nourish neurons.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
7.
The cells of the nervous tissue are all neurons, cells that transmit nerve impulses. FALSE Neuroglia, which support and nourish neurons, are also part of nervous tissue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched?
A. cell body-short extensions that receive impulses B. axon-conducts nerve impulses C. dendrite-contains the nucleus and other organelles The axon conducts nerve impulses, while the cell body contains the nucleus and other organelles, and the dendrites are short extensions that receive impulses.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
9.
Which one of the following is entirely located within the central nervous system?
A. sensory neuron B. sensory receptor C. motor neuron D. effector E. interneuron An interneuron lies entirely within the CNS.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
10.
Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS?
A. Schwann cells B. myelin sheath C. axon D. dendrite E. node of Ranvier Schwann cells are a type of neuroglia found only in the PNS.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
11.
Which of the following types of nerves is not covered by a protective myelin sheath?
A. long axons B. gray matter of the CNS C. white matter of the CNS D. nerve fibers within the PNS The gray matter of the CNS is gray because it contains no myelinated axons.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
12.
The gap where there is no myelin sheath around a nerve fiber is called a node of Ranvier. TRUE The nodes of Ranvier are the gaps in the myelin sheath.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
13.
Why is the outside of a neuron positively charged?
A. because sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane B. because calcium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane C. because potassium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane D. because sodium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane E. because chloride ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane Positively charged sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane, resulting in a positive charge on the outside of the cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
14.
Depolarization of the neuron occurs when
A. the potassium gates open and potassium moves outside the cell. B. the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium inside the cell. C. sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell. D. the sodium-potassium pumps moves potassium inside the cell. E. water moves to the outside of the cell and chloride ions follow. Depolarization occurs when the sodium gates open and sodium flows inside the axon.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
15.
The action potential in a neuron is an all-or-nothing event. TRUE Once the threshold is reached, the action potential happens automatically and completely. If the threshold voltage is never reached, the action potential does not occur.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
16.
The entire action potential (depolarization and repolarization) occurs in a matter of
A. milliseconds. B. seconds. C. minutes. An action potential takes 3-4 milliseconds to complete.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
17.
What ensures the one-way direction of an action potential?
A. As soon as the action potential has passed by, that portion of the axon undergoes a short refractory period. B. Action potentials are self-propagating. C. Conduction of an action potential is an all-or-none event. D. An action potential at one node causes an action potential at the next node. E. An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly. Due to the short refractory period during which the axon is unable to conduct, the action potential propagates in just one direction.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.01.04 Summarize the propagation of an action potential across a neuron. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
18.
Which conducts an action potential faster and why?
A. myelinated fibers, the action potential moves through the myelin which allows it to travel faster B. myelinated fibers, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another C. unmyelinated fibers, the absence of myelin allows the action potential to travel faster D. unmyelinated fibers, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another E. unmyelinated fibers, the ions can move in and out of the cell faster without the myelin coating Saltatory conduction, where the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next, is much faster than in unmyelinated fibers.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
19.
The intensity of a message is determined by how many action potentials are generated within a given time. TRUE An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly. The more action potentials, the more intense the message.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
20.
Place the events in the transmission of an action potential in the correct order. 1. An action potential begins in the receiving neuron. 2. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. 3. An action potential arrives at an axon terminal. 4. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal. 5. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron. 6. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane. 7. Neurotransmitters molecules bind to the membrane of the receiving neuron.
A. 1,2,6,7,4,3,5 B. 3,5,6,2,7,4,1 C. 3,4,6,2,7,5,1 D. 2,3,6,7,4,5,1 E. 7,6,5,3,4,2,1 The action potential arrives at an axon terminal. Calcium enters and the synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane. Neurotransmitter molecules are released into the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the membrane of the receiving neuron. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron, and an action potential begins.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.01.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
21.
Which of the following could happen to the neurotransmitter once it binds to the receiving membrane receptors?
A. reabsorbed by the sending membrane B. absorbed by the receiving membrane in order to start the action potential C. stays bound to the receiving membrane D. released back into the synaptic cleft where it builds up The neurotransmitter can be reabsorbed by the sending membrane or it can be broken down.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
22.
Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
A. acetylcholine B. serotonin C. glutamate D. GABA E. ATP ATP is the energy currency of the cell, not a neurotransmitter.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
23.
There are only two types of neurotransmitters: acetylcholine for excitation and norepinephrine for inhibition. FALSE There are more than 100 substances known or suspected to be neurotransmitters.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
What is the summing up of the excitatory and inhibitory signals by a neuron called?
A. integration B. addition C. polarization D. depolarization E. firing Integration is the summing up of excitatory and inhibitory signals.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
25.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning acetylcholine's function?
A. Acetylcholine has an excitatory effect on smooth muscle and glands. B. Acetylcholine is active in both the CNS and PNS. C. In the PNS, acetylcholine excites skeletal muscle. D. In the PNS, acetylcholine inhibits cardiac muscle. E. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from the receiving cell's membrane. Acetylcholine has an excitatory or an inhibitory effect on smooth muscle or glands, depending on their location.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.01.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
26.
When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation. FALSE Depending on the nature of the neurotransmitter, the response can be toward excitation or toward inhibition.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the central nervous system?
A. The central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord and the brain. B. The brain and spinal cord contain only white matter--myelinated axons that run together in bundles. C. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by bone. D. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by meninges. E. The spaces around the brain and spinal cord are filled with fluid. The CNS also contains gray matter--cell bodies and short, nonmyelinated fibers.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
28.
The spinal cord extends from the base of the brain through a large opening in the skull called the inferior ventricle. FALSE The spinal cord extends through a large opening in the skull called the foramen magnum.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
29.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning spinal nerves?
A. The ventral root contains motor fibers exiting the gray matter. B. The dorsal root contains sensory fibers entering the gray matter. C. Spinal nerves are considered part of the CNS. D. The dorsal and ventral roots join before the spinal nerve leaves the vertebral canal. E. The spinal nerves project from the cord through intervertebral foramina. Spinal nerves are outside of the spinal cord and are considered part of the PNS.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
30.
The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the gray matter. TRUE The gray matter is centrally located and shaped like the letter H. The white matter surrounds the gray matter.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
Which of the following is not a part of the brain?
A. corpus callosum B. central canal C. cerebrum D. cerebellum E. pons The central canal is located within the spinal cord.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
32.
The cerebrum is associated with the
A. two lateral ventricles. B. third ventricle. C. fourth ventricle. The cerebrum is associated with the two lateral ventricles.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
33.
Which is the largest part of the brain?
A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. diencephalon D. cerebellum E. cerebrum The cerebrum is the largest portion of the brian in humans.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
34.
The brain stem contains the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata. TRUE These three sections make up the brain stem.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
35.
The thalamus is on the receiving end for all sensory input except the
A. sense of smell. B. visual sense. C. sense of hearing. D. somatosensory information. E. memory and emotions. The thalamus receives all sensory input except the sense of smell.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
36.
Wernicke's area is associated with
A. reflex centers for controlling heartbeat. B. sexual arousal. C. the ability to ride a bike. D. the sense of smell. E. the ability to speak. Wernicke's and Broca's areas are involved in the ability to speak.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
37.
Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebral hemisphere?
A. reticular B. frontal C. parietal D. temporal E. occipital The reticular formation is found in the brain stem.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
38.
Which of the following functions is not associated with the frontal lobe?
A. primary motor area B. primary visual area C. premotor area D. motor speech (Broca's) area E. prefrontal area The primary visual area is associated with the occipital lobe.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
39.
Which of the following statements concerning the primary motor area is not true?
A. The area that controls the thumb, fingers, and hand is larger than the area controlling the leg. B. The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus. C. Control of muscles responsible for facial movements take up a large portion of the primary motor area. D. Voluntary commands to skeletal muscles begin in the primary motor area. E. The primary motor area is in the cerebellum. The primary motor area is in the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.02.04 Distinguish between the functions of the primary motor and the primary somatosensory areas of the brain. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
40.
The primary somatosensory area receives sensory input from
A. the sense of touch. B. the sense of taste. C. the sense of vision. D. the sense of hearing. E. the sense of smell. Sensory information from the skin and skeletal muscles arrive at the primary somatosensory area. The other primary sensations (taste, vision, hearing, and smell) are located in other areas of the cerebral cortex.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.04 Distinguish between the functions of the primary motor and the primary somatosensory areas of the brain. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
41.
The structures of the limbic system are linked together because of their position within the cerebrum even though they have a variety of functions. FALSE The limbic system is a functional grouping rather than an anatomical one.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.03.01 Identify the structures of the limbic system. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
42.
Which of the following is part of the limbic system?
A. spinal cord B. primary somatosensory area C. amygdala D. reticular formation E. cerebellum The amygdala is one of the significant structures within the limbic system.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.03.01 Identify the structures of the limbic system. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
43.
What type of memory is involved in learning to ride a bike?
A. short-term memory B. long-term memory C. semantic memory D. episodic memory E. skill memory Riding a bicycle is a type of skill memory.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
44.
When a student crams for a test at 3 in the morning before the test, the information usually goes into
A. skill memory. B. episodic memory. C. semantic memory. D. long-term memory. E. short-term memory. Cramming usually results in only short-term memory.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.03.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
45.
Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning?
A. hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories B. long-term potentiation and memory storage C. semantic memory and numbers D. episodic memory and persons E. prefrontal area and where memories are used The amygdala seems to be responsible for fear conditioning and associating danger with sensory stimuli received from various parts of the brain.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.03.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
46.
The left hemisphere of the brain is more involved in verbal functions than the right hemisphere. TRUE The left hemisphere is verbal, logical, analytical, and rational.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.03.02 Explain how the limbic system is involved in memory, language, and speech. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
47.
What type of memory does language depend upon?
A. short-term B. semantic C. episodic D. skill Language depends on semantic memory.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03.02 Explain how the limbic system is involved in memory, language, and speech. Section: 13.03 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
48.
The two types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system are cranial nerves and spinal nerves. TRUE The PNS contains the nerves. Cranial nerves arise from the brain and spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
Place the following steps in the correct order for a reflex arc. 1. Sensory neurons pass signals to interneurons. 2. Nerve signals travel along motor fibers to an effector. 3. Sensory receptors generate nerve signals. 4. Interneurons synapse with motor neurons. 5. There is a response to the stimulus.
A. 3,4,1,2,5 B. 2,1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,4,5 D. 3,1,4,2,5 E. 2,4,1,3,5 Sensory receptors in the skin generate nerve signals that move along sensory fibers toward the spinal cord. Sensory neurons pass signals on to many interneurons. Some of the interneurons synapse with motor neurons. Nerve signals travel along these motor fibers to an effector, which brings about a response to the stimulus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.04.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
50.
Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is not true?
A. Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves. B. The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals. C. Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves, while some are only motor fibers. Others are mixed. D. Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head, neck, and face. E. The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve. Humans have 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.04.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
51.
The somatic division of the PNS controls all of the following except
A. skin. B. skeletal muscles. C. tendons. D. heart muscle. Cardiac muscle is controlled by the autonomic division of the PNS.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04.02 Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
52.
In what way are the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic autonomic motor pathway similar?
A. Both innervate glands and organs. B. Both innervate the skeletal muscles. C. Both utilize two neurons per message. D. Both use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. E. Both are voluntary. Both the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic division of the autonomic motor pathway use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.04.02 Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
53.
In which way are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic system similar?
A. Both utilize two neurons per message. B. In both the preganglionic neuron is shorter than the postganglionic neuron. C. Both use norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter. D. Both arise from the sacral spinal nerves. E. Both are associated with the relaxed state (rest-and-digest). Both utilize two neurons per message.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.04.03 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic division. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
54.
The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ. FALSE The postganglionic fiber is short because the ganglia lie near or within the organ.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04.03 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic division. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
55.
Which of the following is a neuromodulator?
A. substance P B. GABA C. acetylcholine D. dopamine E. serotonin Substance P is a neuromodulator. The rest are neurotransmitters.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
56.
How does caffeine work?
A. increases the amount of neurotransmitter at a synapse B. interferes with or decreases the action of a neurotransmitter C. replace or mimic a neurotransmitter D. replace or mimic a neuromodulator E. promote the action of a neurotransmitter Caffeine interferes with the effects of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the brain.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
57.
Dopamine plays a central role in the working of the brain's built-in reward circuit. TRUE The neurotransmitter dopamine is essential for mood regulation and plays a central role in the reward circuit.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
How is alcohol classified?
A. stimulant B. depressant C. psychoactive In the central nervous system, alcohol acts as a depressant.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
59.
Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?
A. cocaine B. alcohol C. heroin D. marijuana Nicotine and cocaine are both stimulants.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
60.
Which two drugs are in the same category?
A. nicotine and alcohol B. nicotine and heroin C. alcohol and heroin D. cocaine and marijuana E. marijuana and heroin Both alcohol and heroin are depressants.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the nervous system.
Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
61.
Long term use of __________ results in damage to the frontal lobes, a decrease in overall brain size, and an increase in the size of the ventricles.
A. alcohol B. nicotine C. cocaine D. heroin E. marijuana Alcohol affects the brain as described, and this brain damage is manifested by permanent memory loss, amnesia, confusion, apathy, disorientation, or lack of motor coordination.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.03 List the long-term effects of drug use on the body. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
62.
Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms?
A. weight gain, poor cognitive performance, irritability B. cardiac and/or respiratory arrest, sudden death C. apathy, euphoria, hallucinations D. addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections E. anxiety, jitters, insomnia, headaches Long term effects of heroin use are addiction and various infections because of shared needles.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.03 List the long-term effects of drug use on the body. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System
Chapter 13 Nervous System Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
18
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
26
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
1
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
11
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
6
Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard t
5
o location and function. Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each.
7
Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential.
6
Learning Outcome: 13.01.04 Summarize the propagation of an action potential across a neuron.
1
Learning Outcome: 13.01.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse.
3
Learning Outcome: 13.01.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters.
4
Learning Outcome: 13.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each.
5
Learning Outcome: 13.02.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain.
3
Learning Outcome: 13.02.04 Distinguish between the functions of the primary motor and the primary somatosensory areas
2
of the brain. Learning Outcome: 13.03.01 Identify the structures of the limbic system.
2
Learning Outcome: 13.03.02 Explain how the limbic system is involved in memory, language, and speech.
2
Learning Outcome: 13.03.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system.
3
Learning Outcome: 13.04.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex.
3
Learning Outcome: 13.04.02 Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.
2
Learning Outcome: 13.04.03 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic division
2
. Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system.
3
Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the
3
nervous system. Learning Outcome: 13.05.03 List the long-term effects of drug use on the body.
2
Section: 13.01
26
Section: 13.02
14
Section: 13.03
7
Section: 13.04
7
Section: 13.05
8
Topic: Nervous System
62
Chapter 14 Senses
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
When blood pressure increases, what type of sensory receptor detects this?
A. an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor B. an exteroceptor called a osmoreceptor C. an exteroceptor called a nociceptor D. an interoceptor called a baroreceptor E. an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor
True / False Questions
2.
Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
Where are thermoreceptors located?
A. aorta and vena cava B. muscles, joints, and tendons C. hypothalamus and skin D. nasal cavity and tongue E. semicircular canals of the ear
4.
What type of exteroceptors are located in the ear?
A. mechanoreceptors B. chemoreceptors C. photoreceptors D. thermoreceptors
True / False Questions
5.
All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in
A. hearing sounds. B. seeing lights. C. both hearing sounds and seeing lights.
True / False Questions
7.
Taste and smell are similar in that both respond to some sort of pressure. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
The summing up of nerve signals by _____________________ is called __________________.
A. the reticular activating system, perception B. the cerebral cortex, sensation C. sensory receptors, sensation D. the cerebral cortex, perception E. sensory receptors, integration 9.
When you entered the room, there was a faint smell of smoke, but after about an hour, you no longer noticed the smell. What happened?
A. sensory reception B. sensory adaptation C. mechanoreception D. nociception E. thermoreception 10. Which part of the brain is involved in sensory adaptation?
A. ventricles B. cerebellum C. medulla oblongata D. pons E. thalamus 11. What type of receptor is involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone and, thereby, the body's equilibrium and posture?
A. proprioceptors B. cutaneous receptors C. pain receptors D. chemoreceptors E. nociceptors
True / False Questions
12. Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
13. Order the steps involved in the activity of a muscle spindle: 1. Muscle spindle is stretched. 2. Reflex action occurs. 3. Contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle. 4. Nerve signals are generated. 5. The muscle relaxes. 6. The muscle's length increases.
A. 1,6,2,4,5,3 B. 2,3,1,4,5,6 C. 5,6,1,4,2,3 D. 2,1,6,3,4,5 E. 5,1,2,4,3,6 14. Which of the following is not a type of cutaneous receptor?
A. Merkel disks B. Meissner corpuscles C. Krause end bulbs D. Pacinian corpuscles E. Golgi tendon organs
15. Which of the following cutaneous receptor is mismatched with its function?
A. Pacinian corpuscles, fine touch B. Meissner corpuscles, fine touch C. Krause end bulbs, fine touch D. Ruffini endings, pressure E. free nerve endings, temperature
True / False Questions
16. Sensory receptors of the skin are very distinct--each one has its own function. True
False
17. Cold receptors are free nerve endings while warmth receptors are Merkel disks. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
18. Why does a heart attack radiate pain in the left shoulder and arm?
A. The left shoulder and arm are the first to lose their blood supply and begin to hurt. B. Sometimes, stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin. C. The nerves that innervate the heart go through the left shoulder and arm before going to the spinal cord. D. Damage to the heart muscle results in a flood of inflammatory products carried by the blood stream to the left shoulder and arm first.
True / False Questions
19. Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical, thermal, or electrical stimuli, or toxic substances. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
20. Taste cells and the carotid bodies are alike in that both
A. are chemoreceptors. B. are found in the mouth. C. utilize pressure to activate sensory receptors. D. respond to distant stimuli. E. respond to changes in pH. 21. Taste buds
A. are located on the tongue, hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis. B. are responsible for 100% of what we perceive as "taste." C. respond to over 100 different types of taste. D. are actually naked nerve endings. E. have a direct connection with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and memory. 22. The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor?
A. sweet B. savory C. sour D. salty E. bitter
True / False Questions
23. There are many more olfactory cells than there are taste buds. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. In what way are the senses of taste and smell different?
A. Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting cells and elongated cells. B. Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli. C. Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated. D. There are 100s of different tastes while only 5 different smell families. E. The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex.
True / False Questions
25. Papillae occur along the walls of the taste buds on the tongue. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
26. Which of the following statements is not true concerning olfactory cells?
A. Olfactory cells are located in the roof of the nasal cavity. B. Olfactory cells are modified neurons. C. Each olfactory cell has only one out of several hundred different types of receptor proteins. D. Each olfactory cell has its own individual neuron leading to the olfactory bulb. E. Olfactory cells end in a tuft of about five cilia.
True / False Questions
27. The receptor proteins for odor molecules are actually located on cilia. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
28. Nerve signals from taste buds go primarily to the __________ while those for olfactory cells go primarily to the ___________.
A. hypothalamus, thalamus B. thalamus, hypothalamus C. temporal lobe, parietal lobe D. spinal cord, cerebral cortex E. parietal lobe, temporal lobe
True / False Questions
29. Memories are often elicited by smell. True
False
30. One third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
31. Which of the following is not a layer or coat of the eye?
A. sclera B. choroid C. retina D. aqueous humor 32. The rod and cone cells are located within which layer of the eye?
A. sclera B. choroid C. retina 33. Which of the following structures of the eye does not touch the lens?
A. cornea B. suspensory ligaments C. aqueous humor D. vitreous humor
34. Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply?
A. sclera B. choroid C. retina 35. What controls the shape of the lens?
A. ciliary muscle B. cornea C. iris D. pupil E. fovea centralis
True / False Questions
36. As you try to focus on a far away object, the lens of the eye becomes round and thick. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
37. When the ciliary muscle is relaxed, the suspensory ligament is
A. taut and the lens is flattened. B. relaxed and the lens is flattened. C. taut and the lens is rounded. D. relaxed and the lens is rounded.
38. Which of the following statements is not true concerning rod and cone cells?
A. Both have an outer segment jointed to an inner segment by a short stalk. B. Both contain a deep purple pigment called rhodopsin. C. Both have pigment molecules embedded in the membrane of the outer segment. D. Both contain retinal, a derivative of vitamin A. E. Both have synaptic vesicles at the synaptic endings of the inner segment.
True / False Questions
39. It is just a myth that eating carrots will improve your night vision. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
40. What is the correct order of cells within the retina starting in the posterior compartment and ending in the choroid?
A. rod and cone cell layer, bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer B. sclera, rod and cone cell layer, ganglion cell layer C. bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera D. ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer E. ganglion cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera
41. Many rod cells share one bipolar cell but cone cells do not. Certain cone cells synapse with only one ganglion cell. What are the consequences of this arrangement?
A. Rod cells distinguish color better than cone cells. B. Cone cells are better up close, while rod cells are better far away. C. Rod cells are better up close, while cone cells are better far away. D. Rod cells distinguish more detail than cone cells. E. Cone cells distinguish more detail than rod cells. 42. Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females?
A. astigmatism B. farsightedness C. nearsightedness D. red green color blindness
True / False Questions
43. Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. In farsightedness,
A. the cornea is uneven. B. rays do not focus evenly. C. rays focus in front of the retina. D. the eyeball is shorter than normal. E. a concave lens corrects vision.
45. Which of the following is part of the middle ear?
A. pinna B. auditory canal C. malleus D. cochlea E. semicircular canals
True / False Questions
46. All of the parts of the inner ear are concerned with equilibrium. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
47. What structures, in order, are responsible for hearing, starting with a sound wave?
A. auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea B. cochlea, tympanic membrane, auditory canal, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window C. tympanic membrane, incus, stapes, malleus, oval window, cochlea, auditory canal D. auditory canal, oval window, stapes, incus, malleus, tympanic membrane, cochlea E. tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, auditory canal, cochlea, oval window 48. Which of the following is found within the cochlea?
A. stapes B. spiral organ C. tympanic membrane D. semicircular canals E. incus
True / False Questions
49. Hearing actually results from the bending of stereocilia. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
50. How can you tell the difference between a tuba and a flute?
A. Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. B. The brain interprets pitches based on the strength of the sound waves. C. Lower pitches cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate while higher pitches vibrate the vestibular canal. D. Lower pitches activate all three bones of the middle ear, while higher pitches only activate one or two. E. The cochlear nerve fires more frequently for higher pitches and less frequently for lower pitches.
True / False Questions
51. The louder a pitch, the more the basilar membrane vibrates. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are
A. mechanoreceptors. B. chemoreceptors. C. nociceptors D. thermoreceptors E. pain receptors
True / False Questions
53. The brain receives input from the proprioceptors, the eyes, and the vestibular nerve to help maintain our equilibrium.
True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. Rotational and gravitational equilibrium both involve all of the following except
A. stereocilia. B. hair cells. C. calcium carbonate granules. D. a gelatinous substance within a chamber. E. the vestibular nerve.
55. Which of the following is involved in rotational equilibrium?
A. otoliths B. saccule C. utricle D. ampulla E. kinocilium 56. Which of the following is not involved in gravitational equilibrium?
A. vestibular nerve B. saccule C. utricle D. otoliths E. cupula
True / False Questions
57. If you get seasick, the rotational equilibrium pathway is confused. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. If stereocilia move toward the kinocilium, which of the following occurs?
A. Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve. B. The cupula begins to move in the same direction. C. Fluid within the semicircular canal flows over and displaces the cupula. D. The otoliths in the utricle return to their resting position. E. The data is sent to the medulla oblongata for processing.
True / False Questions
59. Gravitational equilibrium is responsible for detecting up and down movements of the head. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. The utricle is especially sensitive to what type of movements?
A. back and forth B. up and down C. standing upside D. spinning around
Chapter 14 Senses Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
When blood pressure increases, what type of sensory receptor detects this?
A. an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor B. an exteroceptor called a osmoreceptor C. an exteroceptor called a nociceptor D. an interoceptor called a baroreceptor E. an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor Interoceptors receive stimuli from inside the body. Baroreceptors respond to changes in pressure.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
2.
Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor. TRUE Nociceptors (pain receptors) are a type of chemoreceptor that respond to chemicals released by damaged tissues.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
Where are thermoreceptors located?
A. aorta and vena cava B. muscles, joints, and tendons C. hypothalamus and skin D. nasal cavity and tongue E. semicircular canals of the ear Thermoreceptors are located in the hypothalamus and skin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
4.
What type of exteroceptors are located in the ear?
A. mechanoreceptors B. chemoreceptors C. photoreceptors D. thermoreceptors Hair cells in the inner ear are mechanoreceptors.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
5.
All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals. TRUE All sensory receptors do initiate nerve signals. The sensation that results depends on the part of the brain receiving the nerve signals.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.02 Distinguish between perception and sensation. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in
A. hearing sounds. B. seeing lights. C. both hearing sounds and seeing lights. Stimulation of the mechanoreceptors would eventually arrive in the visual cortex if the nerves were switched. Therefore, the result would be seeing lights.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.01.02 Distinguish between perception and sensation. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
7.
Taste and smell are similar in that both respond to some sort of pressure. FALSE Taste and smell both involve chemoreceptors which respond to chemical stimuli.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
The summing up of nerve signals by _____________________ is called __________________.
A. the reticular activating system, perception B. the cerebral cortex, sensation C. sensory receptors, sensation D. the cerebral cortex, perception E. sensory receptors, integration Before sensory receptor initiate nerve signals, they also carry out integration, the summing up of signals.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
9.
When you entered the room, there was a faint smell of smoke, but after about an hour, you no longer noticed the smell. What happened?
A. sensory reception B. sensory adaptation C. mechanoreception D. nociception E. thermoreception Sensory adaptation, a decrease in response to a continuing stimulus, occurred.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.01.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
10.
Which part of the brain is involved in sensory adaptation?
A. ventricles B. cerebellum C. medulla oblongata D. pons E. thalamus The thalamus is the gatekeeper that passes on information to the cerebral cortex.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. Section: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System
11.
What type of receptor is involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone and, thereby, the body's equilibrium and posture?
A. proprioceptors B. cutaneous receptors C. pain receptors D. chemoreceptors E. nociceptors Proprioceptors are mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone, equilibrium, and posture.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
12.
Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch. FALSE Golgi tendon organs are found in tendons and decrease muscle contraction. They are a type of proprioceptor.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.02.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
13.
Order the steps involved in the activity of a muscle spindle: 1. Muscle spindle is stretched. 2. Reflex action occurs. 3. Contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle. 4. Nerve signals are generated. 5. The muscle relaxes. 6. The muscle's length increases.
A. 1,6,2,4,5,3 B. 2,3,1,4,5,6 C. 5,6,1,4,2,3 D. 2,1,6,3,4,5 E. 5,1,2,4,3,6 When the muscle relaxes and its length increases, the muscle spindle is stretched and nerve signals are generated. A reflex action then occurs, which results in contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.02.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
14.
Which of the following is not a type of cutaneous receptor?
A. Merkel disks B. Meissner corpuscles C. Krause end bulbs D. Pacinian corpuscles E. Golgi tendon organs Golgi tendon organs are a type of proprioceptor.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
15.
Which of the following cutaneous receptor is mismatched with its function?
A. Pacinian corpuscles, fine touch B. Meissner corpuscles, fine touch C. Krause end bulbs, fine touch D. Ruffini endings, pressure E. free nerve endings, temperature Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to pressure.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.02.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
16.
Sensory receptors of the skin are very distinct--each one has its own function. FALSE It appears that the receptors of the skin are somewhat, but not completely, specialized.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.02.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
17.
Cold receptors are free nerve endings while warmth receptors are Merkel disks. FALSE Both cold and warmth receptors are free nerve endings, but the two types have no known structural differences.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.02.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
18.
Why does a heart attack radiate pain in the left shoulder and arm?
A. The left shoulder and arm are the first to lose their blood supply and begin to hurt. B. Sometimes, stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin. C. The nerves that innervate the heart go through the left shoulder and arm before going to the spinal cord. D. Damage to the heart muscle results in a flood of inflammatory products carried by the blood stream to the left shoulder and arm first. This is called referred pain. Stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin, as well as the internal organs.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.02.03 Explain the role of nociceptors and summarize the type of sensory input that they detect. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
19.
Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical, thermal, or electrical stimuli, or toxic substances. TRUE Any of these can cause inflammation and result in the release of chemicals by damaged tissues that activate the nociceptors.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02.03 Explain the role of nociceptors and summarize the type of sensory input that they detect. Section: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
20.
Taste cells and the carotid bodies are alike in that both
A. are chemoreceptors. B. are found in the mouth. C. utilize pressure to activate sensory receptors. D. respond to distant stimuli. E. respond to changes in pH. Both taste cells and carotid bodies are chemoreceptors.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
21.
Taste buds
A. are located on the tongue, hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis. B. are responsible for 100% of what we perceive as "taste." C. respond to over 100 different types of taste. D. are actually naked nerve endings. E. have a direct connection with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and memory. The approximately 3000 taste buds are located primarily on the tongue, but also on the hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
22.
The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor?
A. sweet B. savory C. sour D. salty E. bitter Umami allows us to enjoy the savory flavors of certain cheeses, beef, and mushrooms.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
23.
There are many more olfactory cells than there are taste buds. TRUE There are between 10 and 20 million olfactory cells and approximately 3000 taste buds.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
In what way are the senses of taste and smell different?
A. Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting cells and elongated cells. B. Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli. C. Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated. D. There are 100s of different tastes while only 5 different smell families. E. The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex. A "weighted average" of all taste messages is used by the brain as the perceived taste. An odor contains many odor molecules, which activate a characteristic combination of receptor proteins.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
25.
Papillae occur along the walls of the taste buds on the tongue. FALSE Taste buds occur along the walls of the papillae on the tongue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning olfactory cells?
A. Olfactory cells are located in the roof of the nasal cavity. B. Olfactory cells are modified neurons. C. Each olfactory cell has only one out of several hundred different types of receptor proteins. D. Each olfactory cell has its own individual neuron leading to the olfactory bulb. E. Olfactory cells end in a tuft of about five cilia. Nerve fibers from similar olfactory cells lead to the same neuron in the olfactory bulb.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.03.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
27.
The receptor proteins for odor molecules are actually located on cilia. TRUE Each olfactory cell ends in a tuft of about five olfactory cilia, which bear receptor proteins for odor molecules.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
28.
Nerve signals from taste buds go primarily to the __________ while those for olfactory cells go primarily to the ___________.
A. hypothalamus, thalamus B. thalamus, hypothalamus C. temporal lobe, parietal lobe D. spinal cord, cerebral cortex E. parietal lobe, temporal lobe Taste signals reach the taste cortex, located primarily in the parietal lobe, while the olfactory cortex is located in the temporal lobe.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03.03 Summarize how the brain receives taste and odor information. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
29.
Memories are often elicited by smell. TRUE The olfactory bulbs have direct connections with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and memory.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.03.03 Summarize how the brain receives taste and odor information. Section: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System
30.
One third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information. TRUE Researchers estimate that at least a third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye.
Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
Which of the following is not a layer or coat of the eye?
A. sclera B. choroid C. retina D. aqueous humor The aqueous humor fills the eye but is not one of the layers of the eye.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
32.
The rod and cone cells are located within which layer of the eye?
A. sclera B. choroid C. retina Rod cells and cone cells are located within the retina.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
33.
Which of the following structures of the eye does not touch the lens?
A. cornea B. suspensory ligaments C. aqueous humor D. vitreous humor The cornea does not touch the lens. The suspensory ligaments hold the lens, which separates the anterior compartment filled with aqueous humor from the posterior compartment filled with vitreous humor.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
34.
Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply?
A. sclera B. choroid C. retina The middle layer, the choroid, contains an extensive blood supply, and its dark pigment absorbs stray light rays.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
35.
What controls the shape of the lens?
A. ciliary muscle B. cornea C. iris D. pupil E. fovea centralis The ciliary muscle within the ciliary body controls the shape of the lens.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.04.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
36.
As you try to focus on a far away object, the lens of the eye becomes round and thick. FALSE As you view a distant object, the ciliary muscle relaxes, and the lens remains relatively flat.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.04.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
37.
When the ciliary muscle is relaxed, the suspensory ligament is
A. taut and the lens is flattened. B. relaxed and the lens is flattened. C. taut and the lens is rounded. D. relaxed and the lens is rounded. When the ciliary muscle is relaxed, this causes the suspensory ligament to become taut and the lens remains flattened.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.04.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
38.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning rod and cone cells?
A. Both have an outer segment jointed to an inner segment by a short stalk. B. Both contain a deep purple pigment called rhodopsin. C. Both have pigment molecules embedded in the membrane of the outer segment. D. Both contain retinal, a derivative of vitamin A. E. Both have synaptic vesicles at the synaptic endings of the inner segment. Rod cells contain rhodopsin but cone cells do not.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.04.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
39.
It is just a myth that eating carrots will improve your night vision. FALSE Carrots are rich in vitamin A, so it is true that eating carrots can improve your night vision.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.04.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
40.
What is the correct order of cells within the retina starting in the posterior compartment and ending in the choroid?
A. rod and cone cell layer, bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer B. sclera, rod and cone cell layer, ganglion cell layer C. bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera D. ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer E. ganglion cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera The ganglion cell layer is innermost (next to the posterior compartment), followed by the bipolar cell layer, and the rod and cone cell layer. The sclera is not part of the retina.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
41.
Many rod cells share one bipolar cell but cone cells do not. Certain cone cells synapse with only one ganglion cell. What are the consequences of this arrangement?
A. Rod cells distinguish color better than cone cells. B. Cone cells are better up close, while rod cells are better far away. C. Rod cells are better up close, while cone cells are better far away. D. Rod cells distinguish more detail than cone cells. E. Cone cells distinguish more detail than rod cells. Cone cells, in general, distinguish more detail than rod cells due to the arrangement of the neural connections.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.04.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
42.
Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females?
A. astigmatism B. farsightedness C. nearsightedness D. red green color blindness Red green color blindness is caused by a genetic mutation that affects 5-8% of the male population.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
43.
Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close. FALSE Nearsighted people can see close objects better than they can see objects at a distance.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.04.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
In farsightedness,
A. the cornea is uneven. B. rays do not focus evenly. C. rays focus in front of the retina. D. the eyeball is shorter than normal. E. a concave lens corrects vision. In farsightedness, the eyeball is shorter than normal and rays focus behind the retina when viewing close objects.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.04.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System
45.
Which of the following is part of the middle ear?
A. pinna B. auditory canal C. malleus D. cochlea E. semicircular canals The malleus is a bone in the middle ear.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.05.01 Identify the structures of the ear that are involved in hearing. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
46.
All of the parts of the inner ear are concerned with equilibrium. FALSE The semicircular canals and the vestibule are concerned with equilibrium, but the cochlea is concerned with hearing.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.05.01 Identify the structures of the ear that are involved in hearing. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
47.
What structures, in order, are responsible for hearing, starting with a sound wave?
A. auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea B. cochlea, tympanic membrane, auditory canal, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window C. tympanic membrane, incus, stapes, malleus, oval window, cochlea, auditory canal D. auditory canal, oval window, stapes, incus, malleus, tympanic membrane, cochlea E. tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, auditory canal, cochlea, oval window Sound waves enter the auditory canal and strike the tympanic membrane. This causes the malleus, incus, and stapes to vibrate. The malleus strikes the oval window, which passes pressure to the fluid of the cochlea.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.05.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
48.
Which of the following is found within the cochlea?
A. stapes B. spiral organ C. tympanic membrane D. semicircular canals E. incus The sense organ for hearing, called the spiral organ, is located in the cochlear canal.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.05.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
49.
Hearing actually results from the bending of stereocilia. TRUE Stereocilia of the hair cells embedded in the tectorial membrane bend, and this initiates nerve signals that are interpreted as sound.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.05.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
50.
How can you tell the difference between a tuba and a flute?
A. Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. B. The brain interprets pitches based on the strength of the sound waves. C. Lower pitches cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate while higher pitches vibrate the vestibular canal. D. Lower pitches activate all three bones of the middle ear, while higher pitches only activate one or two. E. The cochlear nerve fires more frequently for higher pitches and less frequently for lower pitches. Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. The spiral organ responds to low pitches near the tip and to higher pitches near the base.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.05.03 Describe the pathway of sensory information from the ear to the brain. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
51.
The louder a pitch, the more the basilar membrane vibrates. TRUE Loud noises cause the fluid within the vestibular canal to exert more pressure and the basilar membrane to vibrate to a greater extent.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.05.03 Describe the pathway of sensory information from the ear to the brain. Section: 14.05 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are
A. mechanoreceptors. B. chemoreceptors. C. nociceptors D. thermoreceptors E. pain receptors Mechanoreceptors are located within the inner ear and are responsible for our sense of balance.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.06.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
53.
The brain receives input from the proprioceptors, the eyes, and the vestibular nerve to help maintain our equilibrium. TRUE All three of these provide information to the brain about our equilibrium.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.06.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
Rotational and gravitational equilibrium both involve all of the following except
A. stereocilia. B. hair cells. C. calcium carbonate granules. D. a gelatinous substance within a chamber. E. the vestibular nerve. Only gravitational equilibrium involves calcium carbonate granules called otoliths.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.06.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
55.
Which of the following is involved in rotational equilibrium?
A. otoliths B. saccule C. utricle D. ampulla E. kinocilium Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.06.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
56.
Which of the following is not involved in gravitational equilibrium?
A. vestibular nerve B. saccule C. utricle D. otoliths E. cupula The cupula is involved in rotational equilibrium.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
57.
If you get seasick, the rotational equilibrium pathway is confused. FALSE Seasickness is a result of confusion in the gravitational equilibrium pathway.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.06.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
If stereocilia move toward the kinocilium, which of the following occurs?
A. Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve. B. The cupula begins to move in the same direction. C. Fluid within the semicircular canal flows over and displaces the cupula. D. The otoliths in the utricle return to their resting position. E. The data is sent to the medulla oblongata for processing. Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve and the brain interprets these as motion.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.06.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
True / False Questions
59.
Gravitational equilibrium is responsible for detecting up and down movements of the head. TRUE Gravitational equilibrium detects movement in the vertical or horizontal planes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.06.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
The utricle is especially sensitive to what type of movements?
A. back and forth B. up and down C. standing upside D. spinning around The utricle is especially sensitive to horizontal or back and forth movements and the bending of the head.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.06.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System
Chapter 14 Senses Summary Category
# of Questions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
5
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
27
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
8
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
12
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
8
Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to.
5
Learning Outcome: 14.01.02 Distinguish between perception and sensation.
2
Learning Outcome: 14.01.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.02.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.02.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor.
4
Learning Outcome: 14.02.03 Explain the role of nociceptors and summarize the type of sensory input that they detect.
2
Learning Outcome: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell.
5
Learning Outcome: 14.03.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.03.03 Summarize how the brain receives taste and odor information.
2
Learning Outcome: 14.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye.
5
Learning Outcome: 14.04.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.04.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision.
4
Learning Outcome: 14.04.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.05.01 Identify the structures of the ear that are involved in hearing.
2
Learning Outcome: 14.05.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.05.03 Describe the pathway of sensory information from the ear to the brain.
2
Learning Outcome: 14.06.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.06.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium.
3
Learning Outcome: 14.06.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium.
3
Section: 14.01
10
Section: 14.02
9
Section: 14.03
10
Section: 14.04
15
Section: 14.05
7
Section: 14.06
9
Topic: Nervous System
60
Chapter 15 Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
How are the nervous system and the endocrine system alike?
A. They both utilize axons and synapses. B. They both regulate the activities of other systems. C. They both utilize glands. D. They both respond very rapidly to stimuli. E. They both have an very prolonged response to stimuli.
True / False Questions
2.
The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
Which of the following statements about hormones is not true?
A. Hormones are secreted by axons. B. Hormones are carried by the bloodstream. C. It takes time to deliver hormones to the cells. D. The effects of hormones are long lasting. E. Hormones are targeted to specific organs within the body.
True / False Questions
4.
Both endocrine and exocrine glands have ducts. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Which of the following is an exocrine gland?
A. parathyroids B. salivary glands C. thymus D. testes E. adrenal gland 6.
Which of the following organs also produce hormones, even though that is not a primary function of the organ?
A. heart B. testes C. ovaries D. adrenal cortex E. thyroid 7.
Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
A. because it produces both a neurotransmitter and a hormone B. because it produces more than one hormone C. because it produces at least one hormone that is delivered through a duct and one that is delivered to the bloodstream D. because it has an outer cortex and an inner medulla E. because it is located within the abdominal cavity with ties to the gastrointestinal system
8.
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
A. dudodenum B. pituitary C. adrenal D. pineal E. thymus
True / False Questions
9.
Although other animals produce pheromones, humans have not been shown to make them. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
10. Which of the following is the basis for steroid hormones?
A. cholesterol B. peptides C. proteins D. glycoproteins E. modified amino acids 11. Which organ does not produce steroid hormones?
A. pineal gland B. adrenal cortex C. ovaries D. testes
12. Peptide hormones
A. are able to pass through the membrane and bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm. B. bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane. C. act much more slowly than steroid hormones. D. initiate gene expression. E. are composed of a complex of 4 carbon rings. 13. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hypothalamus?
A. The hypothalamus acts as the link between the nervous and endocrine systems. B. The hypothalamus regulates the internal environment of the body. C. The hypothalamus communicates with the somatic nervous system. D. The hypothalamus controls the glandular secretions of the pituitary gland. E. The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.
True / False Questions
14. The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary communicate via a portal system. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
15. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the anterior pituitary?
A. prolactin B. growth hormone C. thyroid stimulating hormone D. adrenocorticotropic hormone E. oxytocin
16. Which of the following hormones is mis-paired with its target organ?
A. TSH--thyroid B. FSH--gonads C. ACTH--adrenal cortex D. LH--kidney E. Gonadotropic hormones--testes and ovaries 17. Some of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary have an effect on other glands. Which of the following does not?
A. LH B. ACTH C. growth hormone D. TSH E. gonadotropic hormone 18. How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar?
A. Both are controlled by the hypothalamus. B. Both produce three or more hormones. C. Both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system. D. Both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones. E. Both produce hormones that control other glands. 19. Which of the following hormones is controlled by positive feedback?
A. prolactin B. oxytocin C. growth hormone D. antidiuretic hormone E. gonadotropic hormone
20. Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone?
A. Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary. B. The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence. C. Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism. D. Too much growth hormone results in giantism. E. Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems.
True / False Questions
21. Giants usually have poor healthy because they often have diabetes mellitus. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
22. How many iodine atoms are in thyroxine?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 23. The thyroid gland is located
A. in the neck. B. in the brain. C. on top of the kidneys. D. near the ovaries or testes. E. near the small intestines.
24. The hormone produced by the parathryoid gland influences the blood level of what to rise?
A. sodium B. phosphate C. calcium D. glucose E. cholesterol 25. Which of the following is not involved in blood calcium homeostasis?
A. bones B. thyroid gland C. parathyroid glands D. kidneys E. posterior pituitary 26. Which of the following does not act to increase the amount of calcium in the blood?
A. bones B. calcitonin C. kidneys D. intestines E. parathyroid hormone 27. Parathyroid hormone also activates ___________ in the kidneys.
A. vitamin D B. vitamin C C. vitamin B D. cholesterol E. calcium
28. A person with congenital hypothroidism will exhibit what symptoms?
A. myxedema B. exopthalmic goiter C. simple goiter D. short and stocky, possible mental retardation E. tetany 29. What are the symptoms of myxedema?
A. an eye that protrudes from the eye socket B. a mass in the throat C. lethargy, weight gain, puffiness D. tremors in the hands, shaking, balance difficulties E. difficulty with speech, blurred vision 30. Which of the following is not produced by the adrenal glands?
A. epinephrine B. norepinephrine C. glucagon D. glucocorticoids E. mineralocorticoids 31. Where are the adrenal glands located?
A. in the brain B. in the neck C. on top of the kidneys D. near the ovaries/testes E. near the small intestine
True / False Questions
32. Both the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex are under control of hormones produced by the anterior pituitary hormone and hypothalamus. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
33. The adrenal medulla controls the short term response to stress by
A. raising blood glucose levels. B. breaking down protein and fat. C. reducing inflammation. D. suppressing immune cells. E. increasing blood volume.
True / False Questions
34. The adrenal cortex provides a slower but long-term stress response in comparison to the adrenal medulla. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release?
A. Glucose is not broken down. B. The immune cells are suppressed. C. Inflammation is reduced. D. Proteins and fat are broken down. E. Blood volume and pressure increase. 36. Which of the following is a glucocorticoid?
A. norepinephrine B. epinephrine C. aldosterone D. cortisol E. renin 37. Which of the following is not a symptom of Addison disease?
A. low blood pressure B. bronzing of the skin C. mild infections can lead to death D. loss of sodium and water E. increased blood sugar levels 38. Which of the following statements about the pancreas is not true?
A. The pancreatic islets are the exocrine tissue. B. The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon. C. The pancreas is located near the small intestine. D. The pancreas is not under pituitary control. E. The pancreas is a fish-shaped organ.
True / False Questions
39. Right after eating a candy bar, insulin secretion would occur. True
False
40. It is possible to distinguish exocrine from endocrine tissue in the pancreas under the light microscope. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. When insulin is secreted, what happens?
A. Tissue stores of glucose are depleted. B. Adipose tissue breaks down fat. C. The liver breaks down glycogen. D. The blood glucose level rises. E. Glucose is taken up by the cells. 42. Which of the following is not involved in blood glucose homeostasis?
A. liver B. muscle C. adipose tissue D. stomach E. glucagon
True / False Questions
43. Glycogen can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels, but fat cannot be. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar?
A. The number of glucose carriers is too low in both. B. The blood glucose levels are very high in both. C. The body does not produce insulin in both. D. The body does not produce glucagon in both. E. Both are a result of obesity.
True / False Questions
45. Most of the diabetics in the United States have type 1 diabetes. True
False
Yes / No Questions
46. Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
47. Which gland produces melatonin?
A. testes B. thymus gland C. pineal gland D. ovaries E. adrenal glands 48. Where is the thymus gland located?
A. in the neck B. in the brain C. in the chest D. near the ovaries/testes E. on top of the kidneys 49. Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its producing gland?
A. ovaries--follicle-stimulating hormone B. ovaries--estrogen C. thymus gland--thymosins D. pineal gland--melatonin E. testes--androgens
True / False Questions
50. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is involved in the regulation of both the testes and the ovaries. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. What is the function of melatonin?
A. regulate blood glucose levels B. regulate blood calcium levels C. aid in the differentiation of T lymphocytes D. control the daily sleep-wake cycle E. control the color of the skin 52. Which of the following secretes erythropoietin?
A. kidney B. heart C. small intestine D. thymus E. thalamus 53. Which hormone triggers satiety?
A. epinephrine B. follicle-stimulating hormone C. prostaglandins D. erythropoietin E. leptin
True / False Questions
54. The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
55. Jamie suffers from heartburn. Sometimes this can be treated with
A. mineralocorticoids. B. prostaglandins. C. aldosterone. D. thymosin. E. luteinizing hormone. 56. Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the reproductive system?
A. adrenal gland B. hypothalamus C. anterior pituitary D. testes/ovaries E. nervous system
True / False Questions
57. In comparing the functions of the nervous and endocrine system in controlling the body, the nervous system is better able to respond to changes in the external environment. True
False
Yes / No Questions
58. Are there any systems that the nervous and endocrine systems do not control? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
59. Which system does the hypothalamus belong to?
A. the nervous system B. the endocrine system C. both the nervous and the endocrine system
True / False Questions
60. Usually you are consciously aware of the governance of your internal organs by the nervous and endocrine system. True
False
Chapter 15 Endocrine System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
How are the nervous system and the endocrine system alike?
A. They both utilize axons and synapses. B. They both regulate the activities of other systems. C. They both utilize glands. D. They both respond very rapidly to stimuli. E. They both have an very prolonged response to stimuli. Both the nervous and endocrine system regulate the activities of other systems.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.01.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
2.
The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system. TRUE The endocrine produces hormones that have a slower, more prolonged response than the nervous system.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
Which of the following statements about hormones is not true?
A. Hormones are secreted by axons. B. Hormones are carried by the bloodstream. C. It takes time to deliver hormones to the cells. D. The effects of hormones are long lasting. E. Hormones are targeted to specific organs within the body. Hormones are secreted by glands, not axons. Neurotransmitters are secreted by axons.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.01.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
4.
Both endocrine and exocrine glands have ducts. FALSE Exocrine glands have ducts but endocrine glands secrete their products into the bloodstream.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Which of the following is an exocrine gland?
A. parathyroids B. salivary glands C. thymus D. testes E. adrenal gland The salivary glands secrete their product into the mouth by way of the salivary ducts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
6.
Which of the following organs also produce hormones, even though that is not a primary function of the organ?
A. heart B. testes C. ovaries D. adrenal cortex E. thyroid The kidneys, GI tract, and heart produce hormones, although that is not the primary function of these organs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01.03 Identify the organs and glands of the endocrine system. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
7.
Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
A. because it produces both a neurotransmitter and a hormone B. because it produces more than one hormone C. because it produces at least one hormone that is delivered through a duct and one that is delivered to the bloodstream D. because it has an outer cortex and an inner medulla E. because it is located within the abdominal cavity with ties to the gastrointestinal system An exocrine gland delivers its product through a duct and an endocrine gland delivers its product to the bloodstream. The pancreas has both.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.01.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
8.
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
A. dudodenum B. pituitary C. adrenal D. pineal E. thymus The duodenum is not an endocrine gland.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.01.03 Identify the organs and glands of the endocrine system. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
9.
Although other animals produce pheromones, humans have not been shown to make them. FALSE Humans make pheromones too.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
10.
Which of the following is the basis for steroid hormones?
A. cholesterol B. peptides C. proteins D. glycoproteins E. modified amino acids Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
11.
Which organ does not produce steroid hormones?
A. pineal gland B. adrenal cortex C. ovaries D. testes Only the adrenal cortex, ovaries, and testes produce steroid hormones.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. Section: 15.01
Topic: Endocrine System
12.
Peptide hormones
A. are able to pass through the membrane and bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm. B. bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane. C. act much more slowly than steroid hormones. D. initiate gene expression. E. are composed of a complex of 4 carbon rings. Peptide hormones bind to receptors in the plasma membrane to exert their effect.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.01.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. Section: 15.01 Topic: Endocrine System
13.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hypothalamus?
A. The hypothalamus acts as the link between the nervous and endocrine systems. B. The hypothalamus regulates the internal environment of the body. C. The hypothalamus communicates with the somatic nervous system. D. The hypothalamus controls the glandular secretions of the pituitary gland. E. The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. The hypothalamus communicates with the autonomic nervous system.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.02.01 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
14.
The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary communicate via a portal system. TRUE A portal system, consisting of two capillary systems connected by a vein, lies between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.02.01 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
15.
Which of the following hormones is not produced by the anterior pituitary?
A. prolactin B. growth hormone C. thyroid stimulating hormone D. adrenocorticotropic hormone E. oxytocin Oxytocin is secreted by the hypothalamus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.02.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
16.
Which of the following hormones is mis-paired with its target organ?
A. TSH--thyroid B. FSH--gonads C. ACTH--adrenal cortex D. LH--kidney E. Gonadotropic hormones--testes and ovaries LH, luteinizing hormone, stimulates the gonads.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.02.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
17.
Some of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary have an effect on other glands. Which of the following does not?
A. LH B. ACTH C. growth hormone D. TSH E. gonadotropic hormone Growth hormone promotes skeletal and muscular growth and does not act on another gland.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.02.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
18.
How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar?
A. Both are controlled by the hypothalamus. B. Both produce three or more hormones. C. Both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system. D. Both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones. E. Both produce hormones that control other glands. Both the anterior and posterior pituitary are controlled by the hypothalamus.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.02.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
19.
Which of the following hormones is controlled by positive feedback?
A. prolactin B. oxytocin C. growth hormone D. antidiuretic hormone E. gonadotropic hormone Oxytocin is controlled by positive feedback, which brings about an effect of ever increasing intensity.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.02.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
20.
Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone?
A. Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary. B. The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence. C. Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism. D. Too much growth hormone results in giantism. E. Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems. Growth hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.02.03 Summarize the conditions produced by excessive and inadequate levels of growth hormone. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
21.
Giants usually have poor healthy because they often have diabetes mellitus. TRUE Growth hormone has a secondary effect on the blood sugar level, and so giants usually have diabetes mellitus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.02.03 Summarize the conditions produced by excessive and inadequate levels of growth hormone. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
22.
How many iodine atoms are in thyroxine?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five Thyroxine contains four iodine atoms.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.03.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for each. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System
23.
The thyroid gland is located
A. in the neck. B. in the brain. C. on top of the kidneys. D. near the ovaries or testes. E. near the small intestines. The thyroid gland is located in the neck, attached to the trachea.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.03.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for each. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System
24.
The hormone produced by the parathryoid gland influences the blood level of what to rise?
A. sodium B. phosphate C. calcium D. glucose E. cholesterol Parathyroid hormone, produced by the parathyroid gland, causes the blood calcium level to rise.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for each. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System
25.
Which of the following is not involved in blood calcium homeostasis?
A. bones B. thyroid gland C. parathyroid glands D. kidneys E. posterior pituitary All are involved in blood calcium homeostasis except for the posterior pituitary.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.03.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calcium homeostasis. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
26.
Which of the following does not act to increase the amount of calcium in the blood?
A. bones B. calcitonin C. kidneys D. intestines E. parathyroid hormone Calcitonin causes bones to take up calcium from the blood, thereby decreasing blood levels.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.03.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calcium homeostasis. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
27.
Parathyroid hormone also activates ___________ in the kidneys.
A. vitamin D B. vitamin C C. vitamin B D. cholesterol E. calcium PTH also activates vitamin D in the kidneys which then promotes calcium reabsorption by the kidneys.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.03.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calcium homeostasis. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
28.
A person with congenital hypothroidism will exhibit what symptoms?
A. myxedema B. exopthalmic goiter C. simple goiter D. short and stocky, possible mental retardation E. tetany Congenital hypothyroidism results in individuals who are short and stocky, and if thyroid hormone therapy is not begun with the first two months of life, possible mental retardation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System
29.
What are the symptoms of myxedema?
A. an eye that protrudes from the eye socket B. a mass in the throat C. lethargy, weight gain, puffiness D. tremors in the hands, shaking, balance difficulties E. difficulty with speech, blurred vision Myxedema results in lethargy, weight gain, loss of hair, slower pulse rate, lowered body temperature, and thickness and puffiness of the skin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System
30.
Which of the following is not produced by the adrenal glands?
A. epinephrine B. norepinephrine C. glucagon D. glucocorticoids E. mineralocorticoids The pancreas produces glucagon.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.04.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a function for each. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
31.
Where are the adrenal glands located?
A. in the brain B. in the neck C. on top of the kidneys D. near the ovaries/testes E. near the small intestine The adrenal glands sit atop the kidneys.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.04.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a function for each. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
32.
Both the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex are under control of hormones produced by the anterior pituitary hormone and hypothalamus. FALSE The adrenal medulla is under nervous system control.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a function for each. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
33.
The adrenal medulla controls the short term response to stress by
A. raising blood glucose levels. B. breaking down protein and fat. C. reducing inflammation. D. suppressing immune cells. E. increasing blood volume. The adrenal medulla controls a short term response to stress by producing epinephrine and norepinephrine. One of the results of these is that the blood glucose level rises.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04.02 Explain how the adrenal cortex is involved in the stress response. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
34.
The adrenal cortex provides a slower but long-term stress response in comparison to the adrenal medulla. TRUE Nervous stimulation causes the adrenal medulla to provide a rapid but short-term stress response.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04.02 Explain how the adrenal cortex is involved in the stress response. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
35.
Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release?
A. Glucose is not broken down. B. The immune cells are suppressed. C. Inflammation is reduced. D. Proteins and fat are broken down. E. Blood volume and pressure increase. Mineralocorticoids cause a blood volume and pressure increase due to their role in sodium homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
36.
Which of the following is a glucocorticoid?
A. norepinephrine B. epinephrine C. aldosterone D. cortisol E. renin Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that is active in the stress response.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.04.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
37.
Which of the following is not a symptom of Addison disease?
A. low blood pressure B. bronzing of the skin C. mild infections can lead to death D. loss of sodium and water E. increased blood sugar levels In Addison disease, glucose cannot be replenished.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System
38.
Which of the following statements about the pancreas is not true?
A. The pancreatic islets are the exocrine tissue. B. The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon. C. The pancreas is located near the small intestine. D. The pancreas is not under pituitary control. E. The pancreas is a fish-shaped organ. The pancreatic islets are the endocrine tissue and produce insulin and glucagon.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.05.01 Explain why the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
39.
Right after eating a candy bar, insulin secretion would occur. TRUE Insulin is secreted when the blood glucose level is high.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.05.02 List the hormones produced by the pancreas and provide a function for each. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
40.
It is possible to distinguish exocrine from endocrine tissue in the pancreas under the light microscope. TRUE The light microscope shows that the pancreas has two types of cells. Refer to Figure 15.16.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.05.01 Explain why the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
When insulin is secreted, what happens?
A. Tissue stores of glucose are depleted. B. Adipose tissue breaks down fat. C. The liver breaks down glycogen. D. The blood glucose level rises. E. Glucose is taken up by the cells. Insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.05.02 List the hormones produced by the pancreas and provide a function for each. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
42.
Which of the following is not involved in blood glucose homeostasis?
A. liver B. muscle C. adipose tissue D. stomach E. glucagon The stomach is not involved in blood glucose homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.05.03 Describe how the pancreatic hormones help maintain blood glucose homeostasis. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
43.
Glycogen can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels, but fat cannot be. FALSE Both fat and glycogen can be broken down to raise blood glucose levels.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.05.03 Describe how the pancreatic hormones help maintain blood glucose homeostasis. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar?
A. The number of glucose carriers is too low in both. B. The blood glucose levels are very high in both. C. The body does not produce insulin in both. D. The body does not produce glucagon in both. E. Both are a result of obesity. In diabetes, the body's cells are unable to take up glucose and so blood glucose levels are high in both.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.05.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
45.
Most of the diabetics in the United States have type 1 diabetes. FALSE Most have type 2 diabetes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.05.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
Yes / No Questions
46.
Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic? YES These individuals take daily insulin injections. If the amount of insulin is too great, the blood sugar level may drop (hypoglycemia).
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.05.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Section: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
47.
Which gland produces melatonin?
A. testes B. thymus gland C. pineal gland D. ovaries E. adrenal glands The pineal gland produces melatonin, primarily at night.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs, thymus, and pineal gland, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
48.
Where is the thymus gland located?
A. in the neck B. in the brain C. in the chest D. near the ovaries/testes E. on top of the kidneys The thymus gland lies just beneath the sternum in the chest.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs, thymus, and pineal gland, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
49.
Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its producing gland?
A. ovaries--follicle-stimulating hormone B. ovaries--estrogen C. thymus gland--thymosins D. pineal gland--melatonin E. testes--androgens The pituitary gland produces follicle-stimulating hormone.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs, thymus, and pineal gland, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
50.
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is involved in the regulation of both the testes and the ovaries. TRUE Gonadotropin-releasing hormone, GnRH, is produced by the hypothalamus and controls both testes and ovaries.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs, thymus, and pineal gland, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
What is the function of melatonin?
A. regulate blood glucose levels B. regulate blood calcium levels C. aid in the differentiation of T lymphocytes D. control the daily sleep-wake cycle E. control the color of the skin Melatonin is involved in circadian rhythms, daily rhythms such as the sleep-wake cycle.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs, thymus, and pineal gland, and provide a function for each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
52.
Which of the following secretes erythropoietin?
A. kidney B. heart C. small intestine D. thymus E. thalamus The kidneys secrete erythropoietin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
53.
Which hormone triggers satiety?
A. epinephrine B. follicle-stimulating hormone C. prostaglandins D. erythropoietin E. leptin Leptin is a protein hormone produced by adipose tissue that signals satiety or fullness.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.06.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
True / False Questions
54.
The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine. FALSE Cramping of the uterus is due to the effect of prostaglandins.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
55.
Jamie suffers from heartburn. Sometimes this can be treated with
A. mineralocorticoids. B. prostaglandins. C. aldosterone. D. thymosin. E. luteinizing hormone. Prostaglandins can reduce gastric secretions and have been used to treat gastric reflux.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.06.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Section: 15.06 Topic: Endocrine System
56.
Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the reproductive system?
A. adrenal gland B. hypothalamus C. anterior pituitary D. testes/ovaries E. nervous system All of the above control the reproductive system except the adrenal gland.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.07.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body. Section: 15.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
57.
In comparing the functions of the nervous and endocrine system in controlling the body, the nervous system is better able to respond to changes in the external environment. TRUE The nervous system often has automatic responses to external stimuli as well as sensory receptors that provide us with information about the external environment.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.07.01 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to external changes in the body. Section: 15.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
Yes / No Questions
58.
Are there any systems that the nervous and endocrine systems do not control? NO No. The nervous and endocrine systems control all of the other systems and maintain homeostasis.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15.07.01 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to external changes in the body. Section: 15.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
Multiple Choice Questions
59.
Which system does the hypothalamus belong to?
A. the nervous system B. the endocrine system C. both the nervous and the endocrine system The hypothalamus belongs to both the nervous and the endocrine systems. It is often referred to as a neuroendocrine organ.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.07.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body. Section: 15.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
True / False Questions
60.
Usually you are consciously aware of the governance of your internal organs by the nervous and endocrine system. FALSE The governance of the internal organs usually occurs below the level of consciousness.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.07.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body. Section: 15.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis
Chapter 15 Endocrine System Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
15
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
22
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
3
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
11
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
9
Learning Outcome: 15.01.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.01.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.01.03 Identify the organs and glands of the endocrine system.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.01.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones.
4
Learning Outcome: 15.02.01 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.02.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and provide a func
5
tion for each. Learning Outcome: 15.02.03 Summarize the conditions produced by excessive and inadequate levels of growth hormone.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.03.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for
3
each. Learning Outcome: 15.03.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calc
3
ium homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.03.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the thyroid and parathyroid glands.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.04.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a functio
3
n for each. Learning Outcome: 15.04.02 Explain how the adrenal cortex is involved in the stress response.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.04.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.05.01 Explain why the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.05.02 List the hormones produced by the pancreas and provide a function for each.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.05.03 Describe how the pancreatic hormones help maintain blood glucose homeostasis.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.05.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs, thymus, and pineal gland, and provide a fun
5
ction for each. Learning Outcome: 15.06.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system.
4
Learning Outcome: 15.07.01 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to external changes in the bod
2
y. Learning Outcome: 15.07.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body
3
. Section: 15.01
12
Section: 15.02
9
Section: 15.03
8
Section: 15.04
8
Section: 15.05
9
Section: 15.06
9
Section: 15.07
5
Topic: Endocrine System
60
Topic: Homeostasis
10
Chapter 16 Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
When does the reproductive system begin to function fully?
A. at birth B. before puberty C. when puberty is complete D. when there has been intercourse E. after menopause
True / False Questions
2.
All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females. True
3.
False
Females undergo puberty earlier than males. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
Which of the following is not a function of the genitals?
A. produce gametes B. transport gametes C. protect zygote D. produce FSH and LH E. produce androgens/estrogens
Yes / No Questions
5.
In males, is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
How many chromosomes does a sperm contain?
A. 1 B. 23 C. 24 D. 46 E. 48 7.
Which type of cell division is called the "duplication division"?
A. mitosis B. meiosis
True / False Questions
8.
A zygote contains 46 chromosomes. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
9.
Meiosis is to gametes as fertilization is to
A. zygote. B. chromosome. C. egg. D. sperm. E. mitosis.
True / False Questions
10. All of the cells in the body, except for sperm and eggs, have 46 chromosomes. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
11. Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
A. testes B. bladder C. epididymides D. prostate gland E. urethra 12. Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system?
A. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland C. urethra D. vas deferens E. testes 13. Which of the following contributes to the semen?
A. bulbourethral gland B. epididymides C. urethra D. penis 14. Which of the following is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection?
A. nitrous oxide B. cGMP C. smooth muscle D. blood E. urethra
15. Which of the following are not found in the testes?
A. follicle B. Sertoli cells C. spermatozoa D. seminiferous tubules E. interstitial cells
True / False Questions
16. Sperm cannot develop at body temperature (37 degrees Celsius). True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
17. The end result of meiosis I is
A. spermatogonia. B. primary spermatocytes. C. secondary spermatocytes. D. spermatids. E. spermatozoa. 18. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hormonal control over the male reproductive system?
A. The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone. B. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females. C. These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship. D. Luteinizing hormone controls the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules. E. The interstitial cells produce testosterone.
19. What is the function of inhibin?
A. It inhibits the secretion of GnRH. B. It inhibits meiosis. C. It inhibits the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. D. It binds with testosterone and inhibits it. E. It binds with the Sertoli cells and inhibits the production of sperm. 20. Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its function?
A. GnRH--stimulates the anterior pituitary B. Testosterone--brings about male secondary sexual characteristics C. FSH--stimulates the hypothalamus D. LH--controls the production of testosterone E. Inhibin--blocks GnRH and FSH secretion 21. Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is not present in pairs?
A. uterus B. ovary C. oviduct 22. Which of the following is part of the external genital organs of the female?
A. cervix B. glans clitoris C. vagina D. ovary E. oviduct
23. How long does an egg live if it is not fertilized?
A. less than 1 hour B. 1-5 hours C. 6-24 hours D. 2-3 days E. 14 days
True / False Questions
24. The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. Where does fertilization of the egg usually occur?
A. ovary B. abdominal cavity C. fimbria D. oviduct E. vagina 26. A "Pap test" checks for cancer of the
A. ovary. B. oviduct. C. uterus. D. cervix. E. vagina.
27. During implantation, the zygote can be found
A. in the endometrium. B. in the oviduct. C. in the abdominal cavity. D. in the labium majora. E. in the labium minora. 28. How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?
A. 2 times normal B. 3 times normal C. 4 times normal D. 5 times normal E. 6 times normal 29. Which layer of the endometrium is the functional layer and what does it do?
A. the innermost layer, basal layer of reproducing cells B. the innermost layer, grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy C. the outermost layer, basal layer of reproducing cells D. the outermost layer, grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy
True / False Questions
30. The pH of the vagina is basic because that is the pH sperm prefer. True
False
31. The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
32. What is present within a follicle?
A. the labia B. mucus-secreting glands C. an oocyte D. the clitoris E. vaginal cleft
True / False Questions
33. If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it never finishes meiosis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
34. Following ovulation, the follicle
A. becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones. B. disappears immediately. C. becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle. D. becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte. E. becomes a polar body.
35. When does the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (nonpregnant) occur?
A. days 1-5 B. days 1-13 C. days 6-13 D. day 14 E. days 15-28 36. The product(s) of meiosis I in oogenesis is/are
A. a primary oocyte. B. a secondary oocyte. C. a polar body. D. 1 primary oocyte and 1 polar body. E. 1 secondary oocyte and 1 polar body. 37. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the estrogen spike at the end of the follicular phase?
A. It has a positive feedback effect on the hypothalamus. B. It has a positive feedback effect on the pituitary gland. C. Gonadotrophic releasing hormone from the hypothalamus decreases. D. It is followed by a surge of LH. E. It is followed by ovulation. 38. Which of the following is not a result of estrogen?
A. body hair distribution B. fat distribution C. breast development D. milk production E. the uterine cycle
39. Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle?
A. days 1-5 B. days 1-13 C. days 6-13 D. days 15-28
True / False Questions
40. If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels fall to almost zero. True
False
41. The placenta, which sustains the developing embryo and fetus, originates only from maternal tissue. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
42. Which form of birth control is 100% effective?
A. abstinence B. natural family planning C. male condom D. birth control pills E. hormone patch
43. Put the following methods of contraception in order from most effective to least effective: 1. hormone pill 2. female condom 3. spermicide 4. male condom
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 2,3,4,1 D. 3,2,4,1 E. 1,4,2,3 44. Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not allow the fertilized embryo to implant?
A. diaphragm B. cervical cap C. intrauterine device D. cervical shield E. female condom
True / False Questions
45. A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the vas deferens so that sperm are unable to reach the seminal fluid. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
46. What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males?
A. low sperm count B. body weight C. pelvic inflammatory disease D. endometriosis E. tubal ligation 47. What does being overweight have to do with infertility in women?
A. Leptin levels are higher which impacts GnRH and FSH. B. The oviducts are blocked. C. Uterine tissue is located outside of the uterus causing pain and structural abnormalities. D. Follicles are larger than normal and many mature at one time. E. The uterus is displaced and the zygote has difficulty implanting. 48. During IVF, where does conception occur?
A. in the vagina B. in the uterus C. in the oviducts D. in the laboratory 49. How does GIFT differ from IVF?
A. The sperm come from a stranger. B. The eggs and sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after being brought together. C. A woman is contracted and paid to carry the baby. D. A single sperm is injected into an egg. E. Fertility drugs are used to obtain the eggs.
50. Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
A. gonorrhea B. chlamydia C. HIV/AIDS D. syphilis
True / False Questions
51. Treatment for genital herpes can cure the disease. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. What causes genital warts?
A. bacteria B. virus C. fungi D. parasite 53. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated drinking water?
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. G
54. All of the following are viral infections, except
A. hepatitis. B. chlamydia. C. warts. D. herpes. E. HIV/AIDS. 55. Which of the following is a protist that causes an STD?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans E. Gardnerella vaginosis 56. Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the vulva/vagina?
A. yeast infection B. trichomoniasis C. gonorrhea D. genital warts E. genital herpes
True / False Questions
57. STDs caused by viruses can be effectively treated with antibiotics. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD?
A. hepatitis B. papillomavirus C. syphilis D. yeast infection E. gonorrhea
True / False Questions
59. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a "silent" disease--there are essentially no symptoms. True
False
Yes / No Questions
60. Is bacterial vaginosis (BV) always a result of sexual transmission? Yes
No
Chapter 16 Reproductive System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
When does the reproductive system begin to function fully?
A. at birth B. before puberty C. when puberty is complete D. when there has been intercourse E. after menopause The reproductive system functions fully after puberty.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
2.
All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females. FALSE The reproductive systems are quite different in males and females.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.01.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
3.
Females undergo puberty earlier than males. TRUE Females undergo puberty between the ages of 10 and 14 while males are 12 to 16 years of age.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.01.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
Which of the following is not a function of the genitals?
A. produce gametes B. transport gametes C. protect zygote D. produce FSH and LH E. produce androgens/estrogens The anterior pituitary produces FSH and LH which affect the genitals.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.01.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
Yes / No Questions
5.
In males, is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females? NO No. Males have nothing analogous to a uterus.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16.01.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
How many chromosomes does a sperm contain?
A. 1 B. 23 C. 24 D. 46 E. 48 Sperm contain the haploid number or 23 chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
7.
Which type of cell division is called the "duplication division"?
A. mitosis B. meiosis Mitosis is the duplication division because it produces 2 identical daughter cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle.
Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
8.
A zygote contains 46 chromosomes. TRUE A zygote results from the union of a sperm with 23 chromosomes and an egg with 23 chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
9.
Meiosis is to gametes as fertilization is to
A. zygote. B. chromosome. C. egg. D. sperm. E. mitosis. Meiosis results in the formation of gametes. Fertilization results in the formation of a zygote.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
10.
All of the cells in the body, except for sperm and eggs, have 46 chromosomes. FALSE Red blood cells lack a nucleus and therefore have 0 chromosomes. Liver cells often have multiple copies of each chromosome and therefore have 69 or more chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
11.
Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
A. testes B. bladder C. epididymides D. prostate gland E. urethra The bladder is part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
12.
Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system?
A. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland C. urethra D. vas deferens E. testes The urethra is part of both the male reproductive system and urinary system.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.02.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
13.
Which of the following contributes to the semen?
A. bulbourethral gland B. epididymides C. urethra D. penis The bulbourethral gland makes the seminal fluid gelatinous.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
14.
Which of the following is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection?
A. nitrous oxide B. cGMP C. smooth muscle D. blood E. urethra The urethra is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection even though it is the pathway through which the sperm are ejaculated.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.02.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
15.
Which of the following are not found in the testes?
A. follicle B. Sertoli cells C. spermatozoa D. seminiferous tubules E. interstitial cells Follicles are found in ovaries, not testes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
16.
Sperm cannot develop at body temperature (37 degrees Celsius). TRUE Sperm cannot develop at this temperature and therefore testes are located in the scrotum which hangs below the body and helps to regulate the temperature of the testes.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.02.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
The end result of meiosis I is
A. spermatogonia. B. primary spermatocytes. C. secondary spermatocytes. D. spermatids. E. spermatozoa. Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to produce secondary spermatocytes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
18.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hormonal control over the male reproductive system?
A. The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone. B. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females. C. These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship. D. Luteinizing hormone controls the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules. E. The interstitial cells produce testosterone. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) promotes the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16.02.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
19.
What is the function of inhibin?
A. It inhibits the secretion of GnRH. B. It inhibits meiosis. C. It inhibits the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. D. It binds with testosterone and inhibits it. E. It binds with the Sertoli cells and inhibits the production of sperm. Inhibin blocks the secretion of GnRH and FSH.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
20.
Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its function?
A. GnRH--stimulates the anterior pituitary B. Testosterone--brings about male secondary sexual characteristics C. FSH--stimulates the hypothalamus D. LH--controls the production of testosterone E. Inhibin--blocks GnRH and FSH secretion FSH promotes the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16.02.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System
21.
Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is not present in pairs?
A. uterus B. ovary C. oviduct There are 2 ovaries and 2 oviducts, but only 1 uterus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
22.
Which of the following is part of the external genital organs of the female?
A. cervix B. glans clitoris C. vagina D. ovary E. oviduct The glans clitoris is part of the external genitals of the female.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
23.
How long does an egg live if it is not fertilized?
A. less than 1 hour B. 1-5 hours C. 6-24 hours D. 2-3 days E. 14 days An egg lives approximately 6 to 24 hours, unless fertilization occurs.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
24.
The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries. TRUE The oviducts are near the ovaries and have finger-like projections that sweep over the ovaries.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
Where does fertilization of the egg usually occur?
A. ovary B. abdominal cavity C. fimbria D. oviduct E. vagina The egg is usually fertilized in the oviduct.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
26.
A "Pap test" checks for cancer of the
A. ovary. B. oviduct. C. uterus. D. cervix. E. vagina. Early detection of cervical cancer is possible by means of a Pap test.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
27.
During implantation, the zygote can be found
A. in the endometrium. B. in the oviduct. C. in the abdominal cavity. D. in the labium majora. E. in the labium minora. The zygote implants in the lining of the uterus, called the endometrium.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
28.
How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?
A. 2 times normal B. 3 times normal C. 4 times normal D. 5 times normal E. 6 times normal The uterus is approximately 5 cm wide in its usual state. It stretches to over 30 cm wide to accommodate a growing fetus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
29.
Which layer of the endometrium is the functional layer and what does it do?
A. the innermost layer, basal layer of reproducing cells B. the innermost layer, grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy C. the outermost layer, basal layer of reproducing cells D. the outermost layer, grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy The innermost endometrial lining is the functional layer. It varies in thickness according to a monthly reproductive cycle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
30.
The pH of the vagina is basic because that is the pH sperm prefer. FALSE The pH of the vagina is acidic. However, sperm do prefer a basic pH provided by seminal fluid.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System
31.
The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate. TRUE As opposed to males where the urethra carries both sperm and urine (but not simultaneously), in females the urethra carries only urine, and the vagina serves only the reproductive system.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Section: 16.03
Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
32.
What is present within a follicle?
A. the labia B. mucus-secreting glands C. an oocyte D. the clitoris E. vaginal cleft An ovary contains many follicles, and each one contains an immature egg called an oocyte.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.04.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
33.
If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it never finishes meiosis. TRUE Meiosis II is completed only if the oocyte is first fertilized by a sperm cell.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04.02 Describe the process of oogenesis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
34.
Following ovulation, the follicle
A. becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones. B. disappears immediately. C. becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle. D. becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte. E. becomes a polar body. The follicle develops into a corpus luteum, a glandlike structure.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
35.
When does the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (nonpregnant) occur?
A. days 1-5 B. days 1-13 C. days 6-13 D. day 14 E. days 15-28 The follicular phase lasts from days 1 to 13.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
36.
The product(s) of meiosis I in oogenesis is/are
A. a primary oocyte. B. a secondary oocyte. C. a polar body. D. 1 primary oocyte and 1 polar body. E. 1 secondary oocyte and 1 polar body. The product of meiosis I is a secondary oocyte and the first polar body.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.04.02 Describe the process of oogenesis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
37.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the estrogen spike at the end of the follicular phase?
A. It has a positive feedback effect on the hypothalamus. B. It has a positive feedback effect on the pituitary gland. C. Gonadotrophic releasing hormone from the hypothalamus decreases. D. It is followed by a surge of LH. E. It is followed by ovulation. GnRH from the hypothalamus increases.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
38.
Which of the following is not a result of estrogen?
A. body hair distribution B. fat distribution C. breast development D. milk production E. the uterine cycle Prolactin is responsible for milk production.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
39.
Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle?
A. days 1-5 B. days 1-13 C. days 6-13 D. days 15-28 Menstruation is considered days 1 to 5 of the uterine cycle
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
40.
If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels fall to almost zero. FALSE If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels rise and stay high.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
41.
The placenta, which sustains the developing embryo and fetus, originates only from maternal tissue. FALSE The placenta originates from both maternal and fetal tissue.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
42.
Which form of birth control is 100% effective?
A. abstinence B. natural family planning C. male condom D. birth control pills E. hormone patch Only abstinence, refraining from sexual intercourse, is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
43.
Put the following methods of contraception in order from most effective to least effective: 1. hormone pill 2. female condom 3. spermicide 4. male condom
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 2,3,4,1 D. 3,2,4,1 E. 1,4,2,3 Hormone pills are 98% effective. A male condom is 89% effective. A female condom is 79% effective. Spermicides are 50-80% effective.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.05.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
44.
Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not allow the fertilized embryo to implant?
A. diaphragm B. cervical cap C. intrauterine device D. cervical shield E. female condom An intrauterine device (IUD) prevents the fertilized embryo from implanting.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.05.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
45.
A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the vas deferens so that sperm are unable to reach the seminal fluid. FALSE A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the oviducts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
46.
What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males?
A. low sperm count B. body weight C. pelvic inflammatory disease D. endometriosis E. tubal ligation Low sperm count is the most frequent cause of infertility in males.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05.02 Explain the causes of infertility. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
47.
What does being overweight have to do with infertility in women?
A. Leptin levels are higher which impacts GnRH and FSH. B. The oviducts are blocked. C. Uterine tissue is located outside of the uterus causing pain and structural abnormalities. D. Follicles are larger than normal and many mature at one time. E. The uterus is displaced and the zygote has difficulty implanting. Leptin levels are higher in overweight women, and this impacts GnRH and FSH levels.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.05.02 Explain the causes of infertility. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
48.
During IVF, where does conception occur?
A. in the vagina B. in the uterus C. in the oviducts D. in the laboratory IVF stands for in vitro fertilization, and conception occurs in laboratory glassware.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05.03 Describe how the use of assisted reproductive technologies can increase the chances of conceiving a child. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
49.
How does GIFT differ from IVF?
A. The sperm come from a stranger. B. The eggs and sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after being brought together. C. A woman is contracted and paid to carry the baby. D. A single sperm is injected into an egg. E. Fertility drugs are used to obtain the eggs. GIFT is exactly the same as in vitro fertilization, except the eggs and the sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after they have been brought together.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05.03 Describe how the use of assisted reproductive technologies can increase the chances of conceiving a child. Section: 16.05 Topic: Reproductive System
50.
Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
A. gonorrhea B. chlamydia C. HIV/AIDS D. syphilis HIV/AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
51.
Treatment for genital herpes can cure the disease. FALSE Treatment for genital herpes slows the replication of the virus, but cannot eliminate it from the person's body.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
What causes genital warts?
A. bacteria B. virus C. fungi D. parasite A virus, human papillomavirus, causes genital warts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
53.
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated drinking water?
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. G Hepatitis A is usually acquired from sewage-contaminated drinking water.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
54.
All of the following are viral infections, except
A. hepatitis. B. chlamydia. C. warts. D. herpes. E. HIV/AIDS. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
55.
Which of the following is a protist that causes an STD?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans E. Gardnerella vaginosis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a protist.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
56.
Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the vulva/vagina?
A. yeast infection B. trichomoniasis C. gonorrhea D. genital warts E. genital herpes Trichomoniasis is characterized by those symptoms.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
57.
STDs caused by viruses can be effectively treated with antibiotics. FALSE Only STDs caused by bacteria are curable with antibiotics.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD?
A. hepatitis B. papillomavirus C. syphilis D. yeast infection E. gonorrhea A chancre indicates the site of infection of the organism that causes syphilis.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
True / False Questions
59.
Pelvic inflammatory disease is a "silent" disease--there are essentially no symptoms. FALSE Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a very painful condition.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
Yes / No Questions
60.
Is bacterial vaginosis (BV) always a result of sexual transmission? NO How bacterial vaginosis is acquired is not well understood, but females who are not sexually active get BV as well.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System
Chapter 16 Reproductive System Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
9
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
27
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
3
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
16
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
5
Learning Outcome: 16.01.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans.
5
Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle.
5
Learning Outcome: 16.02.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 16.02.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis.
3
Learning Outcome: 16.02.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system.
3
Learning Outcome: 16.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each.
11
Learning Outcome: 16.04.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage.
3
Learning Outcome: 16.04.02 Describe the process of oogenesis.
2
Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle.
5
Learning Outcome: 16.05.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of
4
an egg by a sperm cell. Learning Outcome: 16.05.02 Explain the causes of infertility.
2
Learning Outcome: 16.05.03 Describe how the use of assisted reproductive technologies can increase the chances of con
2
ceiving a child. Learning Outcome: 16.06.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caus
6
ed by bacteria. Learning Outcome: 16.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs.
5
Section: 16.01
10
Section: 16.02
10
Section: 16.03
11
Section: 16.04
10
Section: 16.05
8
Section: 16.06
11
Topic: Reproductive System
60
Chapter 17 Development and Aging
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not associated with the egg?
A. corona radiata B. acrosome C. zona pellucida D. cortical granule E. fertilization membrane 2.
Which of the following gives the correct order of layers the sperm crosses when entering the egg?
A. corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane B. zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata C. oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata, zona pellucida D. corona radiata, oocyyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida E. zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane
True / False Questions
3.
During fertilization, several sperm penetrate the corona radiata. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm?
A. tail B. middle piece C. head 5.
The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the
A. pronuclei. B. zona pellucida. C. corona radiata. D. cortical granule cells. E. outer cell mass. 6.
Which part of the sperm contains the chromosomes?
A. tail B. middle piece C. head
True / False Questions
7.
Once the cortical granules release their enzymes, the corona radiata becomes the fertilization membrane. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following is involved in the prevention of polyspermy?
A. acrosome of the sperm B. depolarization of the egg's plasma membrane C. fusion of the sperm and egg nucleus D. changes within the corona radiata 9.
Which of the following occurs during the embryonic stage of development?
A. Chorion appears. B. Nose, eyes, and ear become noticeable. C. Testes descend into scrotum. D. Heartbeat can be heard. E. Fingernails appear.
True / False Questions
10. At the end of the embryonic period, the embryo is about 12 inches long. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
11. The nervous system develops enough to permit reflex actions during which period of development?
A. pre-embryonic B. embryonic C. fetal
12. When does the heart begin to develop?
A. one week B. three weeks C. five weeks D. seven weeks E. nine weeks 13. Embryonic development begins with
A. fertilization. B. the first cell division. C. the development of the blastocyst. D. implantation. E. gastrulation. 14. Which of these is associated with pre-embryonic development?
A. morula B. embryonic disk C. gastrulation D. primary germ layers E. formation of the umbilical cord 15. The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the
A. mesoderm. B. endoderm. C. chorion. D. allantois. E. blastula.
16. At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layers?
A. when it begins cleavage B. when the nervous system develops C. when it forms the gastrula D. when it forms the inner cell mass E. when it becomes recognizable as human 17. Which of the following is not derived from the endoderm?
A. epithelial lining of digestive tract B. epithelial lining of respiratory tract C. glands of the digestive tract D. lining of the urinary bladder E. urinary system
True / False Questions
18. The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
19. When cells take on specific structure and function, this is called
A. cleavage. B. growth. C. morphogenesis. D. differentiation. E. fertilization.
20. The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the
A. digestive system. B. cardiovascular system. C. respiratory system. D. nervous system. E. reproductive system.
True / False Questions
21. The 4 cell stage of development is almost twice the size of the 2 cell stage of development. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
22. When cells begin to move in the embryo in relation to other cells, this is called
A. cleavage. B. growth. C. morphogenesis. D. differentiation. E. fertilization.
True / False Questions
23. The names of the extraembryonic membranes are derived from their function in animals that produce shelled eggs. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. What does that in humans?
A. chorion B. allantois C. yolk sac D. amnion 25. The amnion is to the amniotic fluid as the allantois is to the
A. blood cell precursors. B. chorionic villi. C. umbilical blood vessels. D. amniotic cavity. E. yolk. 26. The _______ is the first embryonic membrane to appear, and it is the first site of ___________.
A. amnion, umbilical cord formation B. yolk sac, placenta development C. chorion, neural system development D. allantois, amniotic fluid formation E. yolk sac, blood cell formation
True / False Questions
27. The blood of the mother and the fetus mix in the placenta. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
28. What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy?
A. placenta B. hypothalamus C. anterior pituitary D. posterior pituitary E. ovaries 29. Does a woman ovulate during pregnancy? Why or why not?
A. No. She has no more follicles in the ovaries. B. No, because negative feedback on the hypothalamus prevents new follicles from maturing. C. No, because the developing embryo prevents any new blastulas from implanting. D. Yes, because the uterine cycle continues to function. E. Yes, because the ovarian cycle continues to function.
True / False Questions
30. Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
31. Which of the following would be considered a poor health practice for a woman planning to get pregnant or already pregnant?
A. updating all vaccinations B. treating all sexually transmitted diseases C. obtaining more folic acid D. eating enough to feed two people E. moderate exercise 32. Which of the following is present in the fetus but not in an adult human?
A. ductus arteriosus B. pulmonary vein C. left atrium D. superior vena cava E. internal iliac artery 33. The umbilical arteries carry
A. oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus. B. oxygen-rich blood to the placenta. C. oxygen-poor blood to the developing fetus. D. oxygen-poor blood to the placenta. 34. How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar?
A. They are both present in an adult human. B. They both carry blood to the lungs. C. They both connect to the superior vena cava. D. They both carry oxygen-rich blood. E. They both connect to the placenta.
35. When does the mother first begin to feel the fetus move?
A. 1-2 months B. 3-4 months C. 5-7 months D. 7-9 months 36. The white, greasy, cheeselike substance that covers the skin is called
A. lanugo. B. fontanels. C. vernix caseosa. D. foramen ovale. E. ductus arteriosus.
True / False Questions
37. Fetal development includes the third through ninth months of development. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
38. Which of the following is not true concerning the fetus during the third month of development?
A. Bone begins to be replaced with cartilage in certain areas of the skeleton. B. The nose, eyes, and ears are present. C. Fingernails, nipples, eyelashes, eyebrows, and hair on the head appear. D. Head growth slows down as the rest of the body increases in length. E. It is possible to distinguish males from females.
True / False Questions
39. The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
40. Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts?
A. epididymis B. urogenital groove C. cloaca D. Mullerian ducts E. Wolffian ducts 41. If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome but a defective SRY gene, they will develop
A. into a female because testosterone is not present. B. into a male because testosterone is not present. C. into a female because testosterone is present. D. into a male because testosterone is present. 42. Which of the following is not a chief effect of progesterone?
A. increased uterine blood flow B. relaxation of smooth muscle C. reduced uterine motility D. reduced maternal immune response to fetus
43. Which of the following is not involved in the increase in blood volume in a pregnant woman?
A. progesterone B. artery expansion C. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism D. an increase in blood oxygen levels E. sodium and water retention 44. Which of the following problems is not associated with pregnancy?
A. lordosis B. lower back pain C. gastrointestinal reflux D. incontinence E. impotence 45. Why would you predict that the blood carbon dioxide levels in a pregnant woman would fall?
A. She has trouble breathing due to the expanding uterus. B. The fetus is removing carbon dioxide from her blood. C. The maternal oxygen levels are also falling. D. This creates a favorable concentration gradient between the fetal and maternal blood. E. The bronchial tubes relax. 46. What occurs during stage 3 of labor?
A. The cervix dilates. B. The baby is born. C. Effacement occurs. D. The amniotic sac ruptures. E. The placenta is expelled.
True / False Questions
47. Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor. True
False
48. When the uterus begins to contract, it is almost time for the baby to be born. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. Which of the following does not occur prior to or during stage 1 of labor?
A. bloody show B. effacement C. uterine contractions D. breaking water E. dislodging of the placenta
Yes / No Questions
50. Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer. Is she ready to give birth? Yes
No
True / False Questions
51. Development ceases at birth. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. Which of the following defines "aging"?
A. progressive changes from infancy until death B. the loss of function of various body systems C. the onset of sexual maturity D. the development of disease or disability E. the failure to thrive 53. Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria?
A. genetic in origin B. whole-body process C. extrinsic factors 54. If Dan lives longer than his father did because Dan takes better care of himself than his father did, this supports which theory of aging?
A. genetic in origin B. whole-body process C. extrinsic factors
True / False Questions
55. Menopause in women and andropause in men occur for very different reasons. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
56. What is the leading cause of death today?
A. cardiovascular disorders B. stroke C. accidents D. suicide E. cancer 57. Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older?
A. Pigmented blotches appear on the skin. B. There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer. C. The number of elastic fibers decreases. D. There is an increase in the number of oil glands. E. There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur. 58. Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow?
A. More neural cells are lost as we age. B. Females undergo menopause. C. Ventilation of the lungs is reduced. D. The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before. E. The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited.
True / False Questions
59. Few neural cells in the cerebral cortex are lost during the normal aging process. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. How do males and females differ as they age?
A. Females undergo menopause but males do not undergo any changes in their reproductive hormone levels. B. Males can continue to produce sperm until death but females do not continue to produce eggs. C. Males develop urinary incontinence but females do not. D. Males lose skeletal muscle mass but females tend to gain muscle mass. E. Females dehydrate faster than males do.
Chapter 17 Development and Aging Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not associated with the egg?
A. corona radiata B. acrosome C. zona pellucida D. cortical granule E. fertilization membrane The acrosome is part of the sperm, not the egg.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
2.
Which of the following gives the correct order of layers the sperm crosses when entering the egg?
A. corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane B. zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata C. oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata, zona pellucida D. corona radiata, oocyyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida E. zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane The sperm first makes its way through the corona radiata, then through the zona pellucida, and finally across the oocyte plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
3.
During fertilization, several sperm penetrate the corona radiata. TRUE Several sperm do penetrate the corona radiata, but only one penetrates the zona pellucida.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm?
A. tail B. middle piece C. head Mitochondria are located in the middle piece of the sperm.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
5.
The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the
A. pronuclei. B. zona pellucida. C. corona radiata. D. cortical granule cells. E. outer cell mass. The follicular cells that adhere to the outside of the egg are called the corona radiata.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
6.
Which part of the sperm contains the chromosomes?
A. tail B. middle piece C. head The head contains the nucleus and the acrosome.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
7.
Once the cortical granules release their enzymes, the corona radiata becomes the fertilization membrane. FALSE The zona pellucida becomes the fertilization membrane.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 17.01.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
Which of the following is involved in the prevention of polyspermy?
A. acrosome of the sperm B. depolarization of the egg's plasma membrane C. fusion of the sperm and egg nucleus D. changes within the corona radiata As soon as a sperm touches an egg, the egg's plasma membrane depolarizes. This prevents the binding of any other sperm.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm. Section: 17.01 Topic: Animal Development
9.
Which of the following occurs during the embryonic stage of development?
A. Chorion appears. B. Nose, eyes, and ear become noticeable. C. Testes descend into scrotum. D. Heartbeat can be heard. E. Fingernails appear. The nose, eyes, and ears are noticeable at about the 5th week.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
10.
At the end of the embryonic period, the embryo is about 12 inches long. FALSE At the end of the embryonic period, the embryo is approximately 1.5 inches long.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
11.
The nervous system develops enough to permit reflex actions during which period of development?
A. pre-embryonic B. embryonic C. fetal At 6-8 weeks, the nervous system is developed well enough to permit reflex actions.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
12.
When does the heart begin to develop?
A. one week B. three weeks C. five weeks D. seven weeks E. nine weeks The heart begins to develop in the third week and continues into the fourth week.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
13.
Embryonic development begins with
A. fertilization. B. the first cell division. C. the development of the blastocyst. D. implantation. E. gastrulation. Embryonic development begins at implantation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
14.
Which of these is associated with pre-embryonic development?
A. morula B. embryonic disk C. gastrulation D. primary germ layers E. formation of the umbilical cord The morula, a ball of cells, forms early during pre-embryonic development.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
15.
The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the
A. mesoderm. B. endoderm. C. chorion. D. allantois. E. blastula. The nervous system develops from ectoderm and the skeleton develops from mesoderm.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.02.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
16.
At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layers?
A. when it begins cleavage B. when the nervous system develops C. when it forms the gastrula D. when it forms the inner cell mass E. when it becomes recognizable as human Gastrulation involves morphogenesis and the formation of three germ layers.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
17.
Which of the following is not derived from the endoderm?
A. epithelial lining of digestive tract B. epithelial lining of respiratory tract C. glands of the digestive tract D. lining of the urinary bladder E. urinary system The urinary system forms from mesoderm.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
18.
The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation. FALSE The inner cell mass becomes the embryonic disk after gastrulation.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.02.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
19.
When cells take on specific structure and function, this is called
A. cleavage. B. growth. C. morphogenesis. D. differentiation. E. fertilization. Differentiation occurs when cells take on a specific structure and function.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02.01 Recognize how cleavage, growth, morphogenesis, and differentiation all play a role in development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
20.
The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the
A. digestive system. B. cardiovascular system. C. respiratory system. D. nervous system. E. reproductive system. The nervous system is the first system to become visibly differentiated.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02.01 Recognize how cleavage, growth, morphogenesis, and differentiation all play a role in development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
21.
The 4 cell stage of development is almost twice the size of the 2 cell stage of development. FALSE Cleavage results in an increase in the number of cells without an increase in size of the embryo.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.02.01 Recognize how cleavage, growth, morphogenesis, and differentiation all play a role in development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
22.
When cells begin to move in the embryo in relation to other cells, this is called
A. cleavage. B. growth. C. morphogenesis. D. differentiation. E. fertilization. Morphogenesis is the shaping of the embryo, and is first evident when certain cells move in relation to other cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02.01 Recognize how cleavage, growth, morphogenesis, and differentiation all play a role in development. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
23.
The names of the extraembryonic membranes are derived from their function in animals that produce shelled eggs. TRUE The names of these membranes are derived from their functions in birds.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. What does that in humans?
A. chorion B. allantois C. yolk sac D. amnion The chorion develops into the fetal half of the placenta and provides the embryo with nourishment and oxygen.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
25.
The amnion is to the amniotic fluid as the allantois is to the
A. blood cell precursors. B. chorionic villi. C. umbilical blood vessels. D. amniotic cavity. E. yolk. The amnion contains the amniotic fluid while the allantois contains the umbilical blood vessels.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
26.
The _______ is the first embryonic membrane to appear, and it is the first site of ___________.
A. amnion, umbilical cord formation B. yolk sac, placenta development C. chorion, neural system development D. allantois, amniotic fluid formation E. yolk sac, blood cell formation The yolk sac is the first embryonic membrane to appear and it is the first site of blood cell formation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
27.
The blood of the mother and the fetus mix in the placenta. FALSE The blood of the mother and the fetus never mix because exchange takes place across the villi.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.03.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
28.
What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy?
A. placenta B. hypothalamus C. anterior pituitary D. posterior pituitary E. ovaries The placenta is the source of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
29.
Does a woman ovulate during pregnancy? Why or why not?
A. No. She has no more follicles in the ovaries. B. No, because negative feedback on the hypothalamus prevents new follicles from maturing. C. No, because the developing embryo prevents any new blastulas from implanting. D. Yes, because the uterine cycle continues to function. E. Yes, because the ovarian cycle continues to function. A woman does not ovulate during pregnancy because of negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary which prevents any new follicles from maturing.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.03.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
30.
Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes. FALSE Most birth defects are the result of poor health practices during pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.03.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
Which of the following would be considered a poor health practice for a woman planning to get pregnant or already pregnant?
A. updating all vaccinations B. treating all sexually transmitted diseases C. obtaining more folic acid D. eating enough to feed two people E. moderate exercise To a certain point a woman needs to consume more calories, but her food intake should not become excessive or she will gain too much weight and so will the baby.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.03.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
32.
Which of the following is present in the fetus but not in an adult human?
A. ductus arteriosus B. pulmonary vein C. left atrium D. superior vena cava E. internal iliac artery The ductus arteriosus enables the blood to bypass the lungs.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.03.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
33.
The umbilical arteries carry
A. oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus. B. oxygen-rich blood to the placenta. C. oxygen-poor blood to the developing fetus. D. oxygen-poor blood to the placenta. The umbilical arteries carry oxygen-poor blood to the placenta.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.03.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
34.
How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar?
A. They are both present in an adult human. B. They both carry blood to the lungs. C. They both connect to the superior vena cava. D. They both carry oxygen-rich blood. E. They both connect to the placenta. Both the umbilical vein and the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood (which is unusual for veins).
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.03.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
35.
When does the mother first begin to feel the fetus move?
A. 1-2 months B. 3-4 months C. 5-7 months D. 7-9 months During the fifth through seventh months the mother begins to feel movement.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
36.
The white, greasy, cheeselike substance that covers the skin is called
A. lanugo. B. fontanels. C. vernix caseosa. D. foramen ovale. E. ductus arteriosus. The vernix caseosa is a white, greasy, cheeselike substance that probably protects the skin from the amniotic fluid.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
37.
Fetal development includes the third through ninth months of development. TRUE Fetal development follows embryonic development and lasts from the third through the ninth month of development.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
Which of the following is not true concerning the fetus during the third month of development?
A. Bone begins to be replaced with cartilage in certain areas of the skeleton. B. The nose, eyes, and ears are present. C. Fingernails, nipples, eyelashes, eyebrows, and hair on the head appear. D. Head growth slows down as the rest of the body increases in length. E. It is possible to distinguish males from females. At the beginning of the third month, cartilage begins to be replaced by bone as ossification centers appear.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
39.
The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization. TRUE Sex is determined by the chromosomal make-up (XX for females, XY for males) which is determined at the moment of fertilization.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
40.
Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts?
A. epididymis B. urogenital groove C. cloaca D. Mullerian ducts E. Wolffian ducts The male genital ducts develop from the Wolffian ducts.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
41.
If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome but a defective SRY gene, they will develop
A. into a female because testosterone is not present. B. into a male because testosterone is not present. C. into a female because testosterone is present. D. into a male because testosterone is present. A defective SRY gene would not allow the production of testosterone and the fetus would develop into a female.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development
42.
Which of the following is not a chief effect of progesterone?
A. increased uterine blood flow B. relaxation of smooth muscle C. reduced uterine motility D. reduced maternal immune response to fetus Increased uterine blood flow is a chief effect of estrogen.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 17.04.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
43.
Which of the following is not involved in the increase in blood volume in a pregnant woman?
A. progesterone B. artery expansion C. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism D. an increase in blood oxygen levels E. sodium and water retention All of these have an effect on increasing blood volume except the blood oxygen levels, which change little during pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.04.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
44.
Which of the following problems is not associated with pregnancy?
A. lordosis B. lower back pain C. gastrointestinal reflux D. incontinence E. impotence Impotence is a male problem and is not associated with pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.04.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
45.
Why would you predict that the blood carbon dioxide levels in a pregnant woman would fall?
A. She has trouble breathing due to the expanding uterus. B. The fetus is removing carbon dioxide from her blood. C. The maternal oxygen levels are also falling. D. This creates a favorable concentration gradient between the fetal and maternal blood. E. The bronchial tubes relax. A favorable concentration gradient allows carbon dioxide to flow from the fetal blood into the maternal blood at the placenta.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.04.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
46.
What occurs during stage 3 of labor?
A. The cervix dilates. B. The baby is born. C. Effacement occurs. D. The amniotic sac ruptures. E. The placenta is expelled. The afterbirth is expelled during the third stage of birth.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
47.
Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor. TRUE Oxytocin is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
48.
When the uterus begins to contract, it is almost time for the baby to be born. FALSE The uterus has contractions throughout pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
Which of the following does not occur prior to or during stage 1 of labor?
A. bloody show B. effacement C. uterine contractions D. breaking water E. dislodging of the placenta The disloding of the placenta does not occur until stage 3 of labor.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
Yes / No Questions
50.
Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer. Is she ready to give birth? YES Yes.This is considered the onset of true labor.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17.04 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
51.
Development ceases at birth. FALSE Humans continue to develop through infancy, childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.05.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
Which of the following defines "aging"?
A. progressive changes from infancy until death B. the loss of function of various body systems C. the onset of sexual maturity D. the development of disease or disability E. the failure to thrive Aging is defined as progressive changes from infancy until eventual death.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.05.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
53.
Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria?
A. genetic in origin B. whole-body process C. extrinsic factors The current mitochondrial hypothesis of aging suggests that aging is genetic in origin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.05.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
54.
If Dan lives longer than his father did because Dan takes better care of himself than his father did, this supports which theory of aging?
A. genetic in origin B. whole-body process C. extrinsic factors The extrinsic factors theory of aging states that much of what we attribute to aging is instead due to years of poor health habits.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 17.05.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
55.
Menopause in women and andropause in men occur for very different reasons. FALSE Both menopause and andropause occur for similar reasons. The ovaries and tests do not respond to hormones produced by the anterior pituitary.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.05.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
56.
What is the leading cause of death today?
A. cardiovascular disorders B. stroke C. accidents D. suicide E. cancer Cardiovascular disorders are the leading cause of death today.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.05.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
57.
Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older?
A. Pigmented blotches appear on the skin. B. There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer. C. The number of elastic fibers decreases. D. There is an increase in the number of oil glands. E. There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur. The number of oil glands decreases as we age, and the skin tends to crack.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.05.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
58.
Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow?
A. More neural cells are lost as we age. B. Females undergo menopause. C. Ventilation of the lungs is reduced. D. The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before. E. The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited. As the blood flow to the liver is reduced, the liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.05.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
True / False Questions
59.
Few neural cells in the cerebral cortex are lost during the normal aging process. TRUE New studies have shown this to be true. This means that cognitive skills remain unchanged.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.05.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
How do males and females differ as they age?
A. Females undergo menopause but males do not undergo any changes in their reproductive hormone levels. B. Males can continue to produce sperm until death but females do not continue to produce eggs. C. Males develop urinary incontinence but females do not. D. Males lose skeletal muscle mass but females tend to gain muscle mass. E. Females dehydrate faster than males do. Males can continue to produce some sperm until death but females do not produce eggs past menopause.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.05.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Section: 17.05 Topic: Animal Development
Chapter 17 Development and Aging Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
17
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
21
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
3
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
11
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
8
Learning Outcome: 17.01.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 17.01.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm.
4
Learning Outcome: 17.02.01 Recognize how cleavage, growth, morphogenesis, and differentiation all play a role in devel
4
opment. Learning Outcome: 17.02.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each.
4
Learning Outcome: 17.02.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers.
4
Learning Outcome: 17.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-
6
embryonic and embryonic development. Learning Outcome: 17.03.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development.
5
Learning Outcome: 17.03.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta.
3
Learning Outcome: 17.03.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months.
7
Learning Outcome: 17.04.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy.
4
Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
5
Learning Outcome: 17.05.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age.
5
Learning Outcome: 17.05.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body.
5
Section: 17.01
8
Section: 17.02
18
Section: 17.03
15
Section: 17.04
9
Section: 17.05
10
Topic: Animal Development
60
Chapter 18 Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
How many chromosome pairs does a human have?
A. 23 B. 25 C. 46 D. 50 E. 92 2.
Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype?
A. white blood cells B. red blood cells C. epithelial cells D. smooth muscle cells E. skeletal muscle cells 3.
In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged in order from
A. largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end. B. smallest to largest, with the sex chromosomes at the end. C. largest to smallest, including the sex chromosomes. D. smallest to largest, including the sex chromosomes.
4.
From a karyotype you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether
A. a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred. B. a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes. C. one chromosome was missing. D. there were three copies of a chromosome present. E. a particular gene contained a mutation.
True / False Questions
5.
In a karyotype, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
Two sister chromatids are held together at the
A. centromere. B. spindle. C. aster. D. telomere. E. autosome. 7.
From Figure 18.1 it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes contains how many chromatids?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. six
8.
When is chorionic villi sampling generally performed?
A. 1-2 weeks of pregnancy B. 3-4 weeks of pregnancy C. 5-8 weeks of pregnancy D. 8-12 weeks of pregnancy E. 12-16 weeks of pregnancy 9.
Which of the following is not a reason chorionic villi sampling is used to determine the fetal karyotype?
A. The results of the karyotype can be obtained ealrier than with an amniocentesis. B. There is no danger to the fetus in removing chorionic villi. C. The chorion is the fetal part of the placenta. D. Prospective parents want to know whether a chromosomal abnormality exists in the fetus. E. It is relatively to remove chorionic villi with a suction tube.
Yes / No Questions
10. Jessica and Nathan just found out they are pregnant. The doctor estimates it has been 6 weeks since her last menstruation. Can they have an amniocentesis done now? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
11. What are the two parts of the cell cycle?
A. apoptosis and interphase B. mitosis and cytokinesis C. nucleus and cytoplasm D. mitosis and meiosis E. interphase and cell division 12. Which of the following is not a stage of interphase?
A. cytokinesis B. G1 C. G2 D. S 13. How are G1 and G2 different?
A. The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2. B. The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2. C. In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2 it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division. D. The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1. E. Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2.
True / False Questions
14. The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour, plus or minus about 5 minutes. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
15. When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?
A. during G1 of interphase B. during S of interphase C. during G2 of interphase D. during mitosis E. during cytokinesis 16. Which comes first: mitosis or cytokinesis?
A. mitosis B. cytokinesis 17. How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike?
A. Both involve the nucleus. B. Both involve mitochondria. C. Both involve division. D. Both involve apoptosis. E. Both involve DNA synthesis. 18. What happens at the G2 checkpoint?
A. The cell makes a commitment to divide. B. The cell receives external signals to divide. C. The cell checks that the DNA has replicated. D. The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly. E. The cell enters G0. 19. At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?
A. G1 and G2 B. G1 and mitotic C. G2 and mitotic
True / False Questions
20. External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle?
A. stimulate it B. inhibit it 22. During development from a zygote to a child, what cell division process occurs?
A. mitosis B. meiosis
True / False Questions
23. When a child is born, mitosis ceases to function. True
False
24. Following mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. If a cell has 4 pair of chromosomes, after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 26. Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle?
A. sister chromatid B. nucleolus C. nuclear membrane D. aster E. centromere 27. Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?
A. interphase B. prophase C. metaphase D. anaphase E. telophase 28. At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase
29. At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes?
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase 30. At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"?
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase 31. In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear/disappear?
A. prophase and metaphase B. metaphase and anaphase C. prophase and anaphase D. anaphase and telophase E. prophase and telophase 32. Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow?
A. microtubules B. intermediate filaments C. actin filaments
True / False Questions
33. There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
34. In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells?
A. 1,2 B. 1,4 C. 2,2 D. 2,4 E. 2,8
True / False Questions
35. If an organism does not undergo meiosis, then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
36. If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32
37. In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur?
A. prophase I B. prophase II C. metaphase I D. metaphase II E. anaphase I 38. In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?
A. metaphase I B. metaphase II C. anaphase I D. anaphase II E. interkinesis 39. When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?
A. prophase I B. prophase II C. anaphase I D. anaphase II E. telophase I
True / False Questions
40. Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 42. Independent alignment creates genetic variation. This is associated with which stage of meiosis?
A. prophase I B. metaphase I C. prophase II D. metaphase II E. anaphase II
True / False Questions
43. Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
44. If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate, then you are looking at
A. mitosis. B. meiosis.
45. If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone
A. mitosis. B. meiosis. 46. Which division of meiosis is like mitosis?
A. meiosis I B. meiosis II 47. In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?
A. Both occur continuously from puberty on. B. Both result in 4 daughter cells. C. Both result in cells with half the chromosome number. D. Both are arrested in prophase I. E. Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies.
True / False Questions
48. In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis, one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis?
A. One follows directly after the other. B. There is usually a pause of about 1 hour. C. It varies, but on the order of years.
True / False Questions
50. If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it does not complete meiosis II. True
False
51. All the products of oogenesis are the same size. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are
A. primary spermatocytes. B. secondary spermatocytes. C. spermatids. D. spermatazoa. 53. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4
54. Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?
A. 1,3 B. 2,2 C. 3,1 D. 2,1 E. 1,2 55. Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?
A. short stature B. eyelid fold C. flat face D. stubby fingers E. indeterminate genitalia 56. Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?
A. elevated levels of purines in the blood B. increased tendency toward leukemia C. increased tendency toward cataracts D. accelerated rate of aging 57. Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?
A. Turner syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Jacobs syndrome D. Down syndrome E. Williams syndrome
58. How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike?
A. Both have only two X chromosomes. B. Both have only two Y chromosomes. C. Both have three sex chromosomes. D. Both have one sex chromosome. E. Both have only 45 chromosomes.
True / False Questions
59. In a translocation, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?
A. deletion B. duplication C. translocation D. inversion
Chapter 18 Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
How many chromosome pairs does a human have?
A. 23 B. 25 C. 46 D. 50 E. 92 A human cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
2.
Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype?
A. white blood cells B. red blood cells C. epithelial cells D. smooth muscle cells E. skeletal muscle cells Red blood cells do not have a nucleus and thus cannot be used for a karyotype.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.01.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
3.
In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged in order from
A. largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end. B. smallest to largest, with the sex chromosomes at the end. C. largest to smallest, including the sex chromosomes. D. smallest to largest, including the sex chromosomes. In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged by size from largest to smallest with the sex chromosomes separate.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
4.
From a karyotype you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether
A. a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred. B. a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes. C. one chromosome was missing. D. there were three copies of a chromosome present. E. a particular gene contained a mutation. You can see chromosome structure in a karyotype but not gene mutations.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.01.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
5.
In a karyotype, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids. TRUE When a karyotype is done, the chromosomes have already duplicated and appear as two sister chromatids.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.01.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
Two sister chromatids are held together at the
A. centromere. B. spindle. C. aster. D. telomere. E. autosome. Sister chromatids are held together at the centromere.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
7.
From Figure 18.1 it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes contains how many chromatids?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. six Each homologue contains 2 chromatids, so a homologous pair contains 4 chromatids.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.01.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
8.
When is chorionic villi sampling generally performed?
A. 1-2 weeks of pregnancy B. 3-4 weeks of pregnancy C. 5-8 weeks of pregnancy D. 8-12 weeks of pregnancy E. 12-16 weeks of pregnancy Chorionic villi sampling is usually performed from the eighth to the twelfth week of pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
9.
Which of the following is not a reason chorionic villi sampling is used to determine the fetal karyotype?
A. The results of the karyotype can be obtained ealrier than with an amniocentesis. B. There is no danger to the fetus in removing chorionic villi. C. The chorion is the fetal part of the placenta. D. Prospective parents want to know whether a chromosomal abnormality exists in the fetus. E. It is relatively to remove chorionic villi with a suction tube. There is a small risk (0.8%) of spontaneous abortion with CVS.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.01.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Yes / No Questions
10.
Jessica and Nathan just found out they are pregnant. The doctor estimates it has been 6 weeks since her last menstruation. Can they have an amniocentesis done now? NO No. They must wait until between the 15th and 17th week of pregnancy.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.01.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis. Section: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
11.
What are the two parts of the cell cycle?
A. apoptosis and interphase B. mitosis and cytokinesis C. nucleus and cytoplasm D. mitosis and meiosis E. interphase and cell division The cell cycle consists of interphase and cell division.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
12.
Which of the following is not a stage of interphase?
A. cytokinesis B. G1 C. G2 D. S Cytokinesis is part of mitosis, not interphase.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
13.
How are G1 and G2 different?
A. The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2. B. The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2. C. In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2 it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division. D. The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1. E. Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2. In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA, while in G2, the cell synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.02.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
14.
The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour, plus or minus about 5 minutes. FALSE The amount of time the cell takes for interphase varies widely.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
15.
When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?
A. during G1 of interphase B. during S of interphase C. during G2 of interphase D. during mitosis E. during cytokinesis The DNA is duplicated during the S phase of interphase.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.02.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
16.
Which comes first: mitosis or cytokinesis?
A. mitosis B. cytokinesis Mitosis, the division of the DNA, precedes cytokinesis, the division of the cytoplasm.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
17.
How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike?
A. Both involve the nucleus. B. Both involve mitochondria. C. Both involve division. D. Both involve apoptosis. E. Both involve DNA synthesis. Both mitosis and cytokinesis involve division. In mitosis the DNA divides while in cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
Learning Outcome: 18.02.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
18.
What happens at the G2 checkpoint?
A. The cell makes a commitment to divide. B. The cell receives external signals to divide. C. The cell checks that the DNA has replicated. D. The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly. E. The cell enters G0. At the G2 checkpoint, the cell verifies that the DNA has replicated.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
19.
At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?
A. G1 and G2 B. G1 and mitotic C. G2 and mitotic The cell checks for the integrity of the DNA in G1 before the DNA is replicated and in G2 before it undergoes division.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
20.
External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle. TRUE The cell cycle can be controlled externally by hormones and growth factors.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
21.
How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle?
A. stimulate it B. inhibit it Proto-oncogenes stimulate the cell cycle.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.02.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
22.
During development from a zygote to a child, what cell division process occurs?
A. mitosis B. meiosis Mitosis is responsible for new cells in the developming embryo, fetus, and child.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.03.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
23.
When a child is born, mitosis ceases to function. FALSE Mitosis continues throughout the lifetime, replacing tissues and healing damage.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.03.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
24.
Following mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. TRUE The purpose of mitosis is to make two cells with the same number and types of chromosomes as the cell that divides.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
If a cell has 4 pair of chromosomes, after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 Each will have 4 pair, or 8 chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.03.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
26.
Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle?
A. sister chromatid B. nucleolus C. nuclear membrane D. aster E. centromere The aster is an array of microtubules at the poles that make up part of the mitotic spindle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
27.
Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?
A. interphase B. prophase C. metaphase D. anaphase E. telophase Interphase is not part of mitosis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
28.
At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase The chromosomes first appear during prophase.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
29.
At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes?
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase The sister chromatids split during anaphase and become chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
30.
At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"?
A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase During anaphase, the chromosomes are being pulled apart by the spindle apparatus attached at the centromere. The centromere moves toward the poles trailing the arms of the chromosome behind, looking like a "V".
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
31.
In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear/disappear?
A. prophase and metaphase B. metaphase and anaphase C. prophase and anaphase D. anaphase and telophase E. prophase and telophase The nuclear membrane disappears in prophase and reappears in telophase.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
32.
Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow?
A. microtubules B. intermediate filaments C. actin filaments Actin filaments form a contractile ring that forms the cleavage furrow.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03.03 State the purpose of cytokinesis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
33.
There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA. TRUE Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm and organelles. It is not exact.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.03.03 State the purpose of cytokinesis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
34.
In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells?
A. 1,2 B. 1,4 C. 2,2 D. 2,4 E. 2,8 In meiosis there are 2 divisions resulting in 4 daughter cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04.01 State the purpose of meiosis. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
True / False Questions
35.
If an organism does not undergo meiosis, then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction. TRUE Sexual reproduction is dependent on the reduction division of meiosis.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.04.01 State the purpose of meiosis. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
Multiple Choice Questions
36.
If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 After meiosis it will have 4 chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.04.01 State the purpose of meiosis. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
37.
In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur?
A. prophase I B. prophase II C. metaphase I D. metaphase II E. anaphase I Synapsis occurs when the chromosomes first appear in prophase I.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
38.
In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?
A. metaphase I B. metaphase II C. anaphase I D. anaphase II E. interkinesis Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
39.
When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?
A. prophase I B. prophase II C. anaphase I D. anaphase II E. telophase I The centromeres divide in anaphase II when the sister chromatids separate.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
True / False Questions
40.
Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction. TRUE In sexual reproduction the daughter cells are not identical to the parent cell as they are in asexual reproduction, therefore, there is more genetic variation in sexual reproduction.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 There would be 24, or 16 possible combinations.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.04.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
42.
Independent alignment creates genetic variation. This is associated with which stage of meiosis?
A. prophase I B. metaphase I C. prophase II D. metaphase II E. anaphase II Independent alignment occurs when the homologues line up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
True / False Questions
43.
Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change. TRUE Those individuals with a genetic variation that allows them to survive after an environmental change will pass on their genes.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.04.04 Discuss the potential evolutionary benefits of meiosis over asexual reproduction. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis
Multiple Choice Questions
44.
If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate, then you are looking at
A. mitosis. B. meiosis. If there are only 8 structures then the chromosomes are lined up as homologous pairs. Only in meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.05.01 Distinguish between meiosis and mitosis with regard to the number of divisions and the number and chromosome content of the resulting cells. Section: 18.05 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Topic: Meiosis
45.
If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone
A. mitosis. B. meiosis. In mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.05.01 Distinguish between meiosis and mitosis with regard to the number of divisions and the number and chromosome content of the resulting cells. Section: 18.05 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Topic: Meiosis
46.
Which division of meiosis is like mitosis?
A. meiosis I B. meiosis II Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.05.02 Contrast the events of meiosis I and meiosis II with the events of mitosis.
Section: 18.05 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Topic: Meiosis
47.
In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?
A. Both occur continuously from puberty on. B. Both result in 4 daughter cells. C. Both result in cells with half the chromosome number. D. Both are arrested in prophase I. E. Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies. Both are forms of meiosis in which the daughter cells contain half the chromosome number.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.05.04 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with regard to occurrence and the number of functional gametes produced by each process. Section: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis
True / False Questions
48.
In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis, one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte. FALSE In spermatogenesis, 4 sperm form from one primary spermatocyte, while in oogenesis, 1 egg forms form one oocyte.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.05.04 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with regard to occurrence and the number of functional gametes produced by each process. Section: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis?
A. One follows directly after the other. B. There is usually a pause of about 1 hour. C. It varies, but on the order of years. The cells are arrested in prophase I and do not complete metaphase I until after puberty upon ovulation.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.05.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Section: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis
True / False Questions
50.
If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it does not complete meiosis II. TRUE Fertilization is required for the completion of meiosis II in oogenesis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.05.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Section: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis
51.
All the products of oogenesis are the same size. FALSE The polar body(ies) are much smaller as the egg receives all of the cytoplasm.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.05.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Section: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are
A. primary spermatocytes. B. secondary spermatocytes. C. spermatids. D. spermatazoa. The primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce two secondary spermatocytes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.05.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Section: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis
53.
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 All 4 daughter cells will be abnormal.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.06.01 Explain how nondisjunction produces monosomy and trisomy chromosome conditions. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
54.
Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?
A. 1,3 B. 2,2 C. 3,1 D. 2,1 E. 1,2 Two cells will be normal, one cell will have an extra copy (trisomy), and one cell will have a missing copy (monosomy).
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.06.01 Explain how nondisjunction produces monosomy and trisomy chromosome conditions. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
55.
Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?
A. short stature B. eyelid fold C. flat face D. stubby fingers E. indeterminate genitalia Down syndrome individuals include all of the above symptoms except for indeterminate genitalia.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.06.02 Describe the causes and consequences of trisomy 21. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
56.
Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?
A. elevated levels of purines in the blood B. increased tendency toward leukemia C. increased tendency toward cataracts D. accelerated rate of aging The gene for mental retardation, dubbed the Gart gene, causes an increased level of purines in the blood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.06.02 Describe the causes and consequences of trisomy 21. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
57.
Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?
A. Turner syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Jacobs syndrome D. Down syndrome E. Williams syndrome In Turner syndrome, the individual has only one sex chromosome, an X. The other X chromosome is missing.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.06.03 List the major syndromes associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
58.
How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike?
A. Both have only two X chromosomes. B. Both have only two Y chromosomes. C. Both have three sex chromosomes. D. Both have one sex chromosome. E. Both have only 45 chromosomes. In Klinefelter syndrome, the sex chromosomes are XXY while in Jacobs syndrome, the sex chromosomes are XYY. In both cases there are three sex chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.06.03 List the major syndromes associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
True / False Questions
59.
In a translocation, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece. TRUE In a translocation, a portion of a chromosome is moved, but there are no deletions or duplications.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.06.04 Describe the effects of deletions, duplications, translocations, and inversions on chromosome structure. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?
A. deletion B. duplication C. translocation D. inversion In cri du chat syndrome, chromosome 5 is missing the end piece.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.06.04 Describe the effects of deletions, duplications, translocations, and inversions on chromosome structure. Section: 18.06 Topic: Meiosis
Chapter 18 Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance Summary Category
# of Ques tions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
12
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
27
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
9
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
7
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
5
Learning Outcome: 18.01.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype.
4
Learning Outcome: 18.01.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids.
3
Learning Outcome: 18.01.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis.
3
Learning Outcome: 18.02.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each.
5
Learning Outcome: 18.02.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis.
2
Learning Outcome: 18.02.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle.
4
Learning Outcome: 18.03.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis.
4
Learning Outcome: 18.03.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis.
6
Learning Outcome: 18.03.03 State the purpose of cytokinesis.
2
Learning Outcome: 18.04.01 State the purpose of meiosis.
3
Learning Outcome: 18.04.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage.
3
Learning Outcome: 18.04.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation.
3
Learning Outcome: 18.04.04 Discuss the potential evolutionary benefits of meiosis over asexual reproduction.
1
Learning Outcome: 18.05.01 Distinguish between meiosis and mitosis with regard to the number of divisions and the numbe
2
r and chromosome content of the resulting cells. Learning Outcome: 18.05.02 Contrast the events of meiosis I and meiosis II with the events of mitosis.
1
Learning Outcome: 18.05.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
4
Learning Outcome: 18.05.04 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with regard to occurrence and the numb
2
er of functional gametes produced by each process. Learning Outcome: 18.06.01 Explain how nondisjunction produces monosomy and trisomy chromosome conditions.
2
Learning Outcome: 18.06.02 Describe the causes and consequences of trisomy 21.
2
Learning Outcome: 18.06.03 List the major syndromes associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes.
2
Learning Outcome: 18.06.04 Describe the effects of deletions, duplications, translocations, and inversions on chromosome s
2
tructure. Section: 18.01
10
Section: 18.02
11
Section: 18.03
12
Section: 18.04
10
Section: 18.05
9
Section: 18.06
8
Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
36
Topic: Meiosis
27
Chapter 19 Cancer
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells that distinguishes it from normal cells?
A. Cancer cells lack differentiation. B. Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei. C. Cancer cells utilize mitosis to divide. D. Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate. E. Cancer cells form tumors. 2.
The ends of the chromosomes are "capped" with special repetitive DNA sequences called
A. radiata. B. telomeres. C. centromeres. D. oncogenes. E. suppressor genes. 3.
Contact inhibition means that
A. there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be. B. cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors. C. cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit. D. when cells come in contact with a neighbor, they stop dividing. E. cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels.
True / False Questions
4.
Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Which of the following is not a stage in carcinogenesis?
A. initiation B. promotion C. progression D. differentiation
True / False Questions
6.
A benign tumor is not dangerous because it cannot metastasize. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with metastasis?
A. The internal cytoskeleton is disorganized. B. The cancer cells lack intact actin filament bundles. C. Invasive cancer cells are sperm-shaped. D. Cancer cells produce proteinase enzymes. E. The low oxygen content in the middle of a tumor may turn on genes for angiogenesis.
8.
Proto-oncogenes
A. code for proteins that promote the cell cycle. B. promote apoptosis. C. become tumor suppressor genes when mutated. D. are considered "loss-of-function" mutations. E. code for angiogenic growth factors. 9.
Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene?
A. the gene for cyclin D B. growth factor receptor genes C. the gene that codes for Ras proteins D. growth factor genes E. the gene for p53
True / False Questions
10. Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
11. If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated, which of the following is not true?
A. Apoptosis is less likely to occur. B. The cell cycle continues when it should not. C. A "gain-of function" mutation has occurred. D. Genes that encode enzymes that repair DNA are not turned on. E. Genes that stop the cell cycle are not turned on.
12. How many Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime?
A. all B. 1 in 2 C. 1 in 3 D. 1 in 4 E. 1 in 5 13. Cancers of epithelial tissues are called
A. leukemias. B. sarcomas. C. carcinomas. D. lymphomas. E. blastomas. 14. What is the most common cancer found in males?
A. colon and rectum B. urinary bladder C. melanoma of the skin D. oral cavity E. prostate 15. What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males?
A. prostate B. lung and bronchus C. colon and rectum D. pancreas E. esophagus
16. Hodgkin lymphomas develop from
A. cells of the liver and spleen. B. all types of white blood cells. C. B or T cells. D. mutated B cells. E. bladder epithelial cells. 17. Which is responsible for more cancer deaths in women: breast, colon and rectum, pancreas, or ovary?
A. breast B. colon and rectum C. pancreas D. ovary 18. Which accounts for more cancer deaths in males: bladder, pancreas, esophagus, or prostate?
A. bladder B. pancreas C. esophagus D. prostate
True / False Questions
19. Both heredity and environmental risk factors come into play in the development of cancer. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
20. What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer?
A. RB B. RET C. p53 D. cyclin D E. BRCA1
True / False Questions
21. If you only inherit one mutated copy of BRCA1 and the other copy is normal, you will not develop breast cancer. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
22. What do BRCA1 and RB have in common?
A. Both cause breast cancer. B. Both cause eye cancers. C. Both are oncogenes. D. Both are tumor suppressors. E. Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits.
True / False Questions
23. In the case of a proto-oncogene like RET, both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer. True
False
24. A carcinogen is not a mutagen. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. Which of the following is not a type of ionizing radiation?
A. ultraviolet radiation B. radon gas C. nuclear fuel D. X-rays
True / False Questions
26. Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation, such as the energy given off by cell phones, causes cancer. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Which of the following is not found in tobacco smoke?
A. vinyl chloride B. N-nitrosonornicotine C. asbestos D. benzo(a)pyrene 28. Which of the following is not a protective behavior that will help prevent cancer?
A. Don't use tobacco. B. Increase consumption of salt-cured, smoked, and nitrite-cured foods. C. Don't sunbathe. D. Avoid radiation. E. Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family.
True / False Questions
29. Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
30. Which of the following dietary changes will not reduce your risk of developing cancer?
A. Increase your consumption of dark green, leafy vegetables, carrots, and various fruits. B. Avoid obesity. C. Decrease your consumption of high-fiber foods. D. Drink alcohol only in moderation. E. Avoid ham and sausage.
31. Which of the following is not one of the seven warning signs?
A. a cut that bleeds B. change in bowel or bladder habits C. thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere D. indigestion or difficulty swallowing E. obvious change in wart or mole
True / False Questions
32. The earlier a cancer is detected, the more likely it can be effectively treated. True
False
33. Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
34. The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals, which spell out the word CAUTION. The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in
A. skin coloring. B. bowel or bladder habits. C. sensitivity to heat or cold. D. sleep habits. E. eating habits.
True / False Questions
35. If you have one of the seven warning signals in CAUTION, this means that you have cancer. True
False
36. Melanoma is the most serious form of skin cancer. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
37. Which of the following is not one of the things to watch for in a mole?
A. asymmetry B. irregular border C. a solid color, usually brown D. larger than 6 mm E. elevated above the skin surface 38. A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter. How big is 6 mm approximately?
A. just barely visible, about the size of a pin prick B. about the same as one of the letters in this question C. about the size of a pencil eraser D. about the size of a nickel E. about the size of a quarter 39. A Pap test looks for what type of cancer?
A. skin cancer B. esophageal cancer C. bladder cancer D. cervical cancer E. colon cancer
40. Which of the following tests is not used to screen for colon cancer?
A. blood test B. digital examination C. flexible sigmoidoscopy D. fecal occult blood test
True / False Questions
41. If you receive the new vaccine against HPV, then you do not need to get Pap tests anymore. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
42. How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps, knots, or changes?
A. daily B. once a week C. once a month D. once every 6 months E. once a year 43. Which type of test is particularly useful in analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone?
A. X-ray B. CAT scan C. MRI D. PSA E. Pap test
44. Which two tests are done for prostate cancer?
A. mammography, fecal occult blood test B. digital rectal examination, Pap test C. PSA, testicle self-examination D. digital rectal examination, PSA E. testicle self-examination, fecal occult blood test 45. When should screening for colorectal cancer begin?
A. in 20s B. in 30s C. in 40s D. in 50s E. in 60s 46. What type of test is a CEA test?
A. self-examination B. a type of prostate cancer test C. a type of cervical cancer test D. a genetic test E. a tumor marker test 47. What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer?
A. PAP test B. PSA test C. CEA test D. genetic test E. tumor marker test
True / False Questions
48. If the gene for telomerase is turned off in a cell, this is an indication this is a cancer cell. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. Which of the following is not a standard therapy for cancer treatment?
A. immunotherapy B. surgery C. radiation therapy D. chemotherapy 50. Unfortunately, the cancer in Ted's body had spread to multiple sites. Which is the most viable treatment option to handle Ted's cancer?
A. surgery B. radiation therapy C. chemotherapy
True / False Questions
51. Ionizing radiation both causes cancer and can be used to treat cancer. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. Which treatment does not work for leukemia?
A. surgery B. radiation therapy C. chemotherapy 53. Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of chemotherapy?
A. nausea, vomiting B. dry, red, irritated skin and/or blisters C. diarrhea D. fatigue and weakness E. weight loss and hair loss 54. Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapy?
A. alkylating agents B. antimetabolites C. antitumor antibiotics D. bone marrow transplants E. mitotic inhibitors 55. Taxol is used to treat what type of cancer?
A. leukemia B. lymphoma C. testicular cancer D. colon cancer E. ovarian cancer
56. What is the survival rate for children with childhood leukemia?
A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 80% E. 99%
True / False Questions
57. Melacine, used against melanoma, is a type of cancer vaccine. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
58. Which of the following is not a type of immunotherapy?
A. cancer vaccines B. anti-p53 engineered adenovirus C. cytokine therapy D. monoclonal antibodies E. genetically engineered antigen presenting cells
True / False Questions
59. Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells. True
False
60. When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells, the cells are killed. True
False
Chapter 19 Cancer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells that distinguishes it from normal cells?
A. Cancer cells lack differentiation. B. Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei. C. Cancer cells utilize mitosis to divide. D. Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate. E. Cancer cells form tumors. Both cancerous and normal cells use mitosis to divide.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
2.
The ends of the chromosomes are "capped" with special repetitive DNA sequences called
A. radiata. B. telomeres. C. centromeres. D. oncogenes. E. suppressor genes. Telomeres are repetitive DNA sequences that cap the ends of the chromosomes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
3.
Contact inhibition means that
A. there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be. B. cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors. C. cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit. D. when cells come in contact with a neighbor, they stop dividing. E. cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels. Contact inhibition is a characteristic of normal cells. When they come in contact with a neighboring cell, they stop dividing.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
4.
Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans. FALSE Each type of cancer is different. Cancer is over a hundred different diseases. Statistics say that it will affect one in three Americans.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
Which of the following is not a stage in carcinogenesis?
A. initiation B. promotion C. progression D. differentiation Cancer cells are undifferentiated. Differentiation is a stage in development, not carcinogenesis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
6.
A benign tumor is not dangerous because it cannot metastasize. FALSE Even though a benign tumor cannot metastasize it can still cause damage if it presses on normal tissue or restricts the blood supply of normal tissue.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with metastasis?
A. The internal cytoskeleton is disorganized. B. The cancer cells lack intact actin filament bundles. C. Invasive cancer cells are sperm-shaped. D. Cancer cells produce proteinase enzymes. E. The low oxygen content in the middle of a tumor may turn on genes for angiogenesis. Angiogenesis is not associated with the ability of a cell to metastasize, although it is an important aspect of cancer cells.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
8.
Proto-oncogenes
A. code for proteins that promote the cell cycle. B. promote apoptosis. C. become tumor suppressor genes when mutated. D. are considered "loss-of-function" mutations. E. code for angiogenic growth factors. Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that promote the cell cycle and prevent apoptosis.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.01.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
9.
Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene?
A. the gene for cyclin D B. growth factor receptor genes C. the gene that codes for Ras proteins D. growth factor genes E. the gene for p53 The gene for p53 encodes a tumor suppressor, not a proto-oncogene.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.01.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
10.
Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car. FALSE Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the brake of a car because they inhibit acceleration through the cell cycle.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
11.
If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated, which of the following is not true?
A. Apoptosis is less likely to occur. B. The cell cycle continues when it should not. C. A "gain-of function" mutation has occurred. D. Genes that encode enzymes that repair DNA are not turned on. E. Genes that stop the cell cycle are not turned on. A mutated tumor suppressor gene is a "loss-of-function" mutation.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.01.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
12.
How many Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime?
A. all B. 1 in 2 C. 1 in 3 D. 1 in 4 E. 1 in 5 One in three Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
13.
Cancers of epithelial tissues are called
A. leukemias. B. sarcomas. C. carcinomas. D. lymphomas. E. blastomas. Cancers of the epithelial tissues are called carcinomas.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
14.
What is the most common cancer found in males?
A. colon and rectum B. urinary bladder C. melanoma of the skin D. oral cavity E. prostate Prostate cancer accounts for 25% of cancers in males.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
15.
What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males?
A. prostate B. lung and bronchus C. colon and rectum D. pancreas E. esophagus Lung and bronchus cancers account for 30% of cancer deaths in males.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
16.
Hodgkin lymphomas develop from
A. cells of the liver and spleen. B. all types of white blood cells. C. B or T cells. D. mutated B cells. E. bladder epithelial cells. Hodgkin lymphomas develop from mutated B cells.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
17.
Which is responsible for more cancer deaths in women: breast, colon and rectum, pancreas, or ovary?
A. breast B. colon and rectum C. pancreas D. ovary Breast cancer accounts for 15% of cancer deaths in women. Colon and rectum accounts for 9%, while pancreas accounts for 6% and ovary accounts for 5%.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
18.
Which accounts for more cancer deaths in males: bladder, pancreas, esophagus, or prostate?
A. bladder B. pancreas C. esophagus D. prostate Prostate cancer accounts for 9% of cancer deaths in males. Pancreas accounts for 6%, esophagus accounts for 4%, and bladder accounts for 3%.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
19.
Both heredity and environmental risk factors come into play in the development of cancer. TRUE Although our understanding of cancer is incomplete, scientists know that both heredity and environmental risk factors play a role.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02.01 Explain how heredity and the environment may both contribute to cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
20.
What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer?
A. RB B. RET C. p53 D. cyclin D E. BRCA1 The first gene associated with breast cancer was discovered in 1990 and named BRCA1.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.02.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
21.
If you only inherit one mutated copy of BRCA1 and the other copy is normal, you will not develop breast cancer. FALSE BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor. It takes the loss of both copies of the gene to cause cancer. However, if each cell in the body already has one mutated copy of BRCA1, the likelihood of another mutation is increased. So, although the development of breast cancer is not guaranteed, it is more likely. It certainly is not impossible.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.02.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
22.
What do BRCA1 and RB have in common?
A. Both cause breast cancer. B. Both cause eye cancers. C. Both are oncogenes. D. Both are tumor suppressors. E. Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits. Both BRCA1 and RB are tumor suppressors. It takes the inactivation of both copies to cause cancer.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.02.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
23.
In the case of a proto-oncogene like RET, both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer. FALSE In the case of proto-oncogenes, only one copy of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer. This is what is meant by a "gain-of-function" mutation.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.02.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
24.
A carcinogen is not a mutagen. FALSE A mutagen is an agent that causes mutations. A carcinogen is a chemical that causes cancer by being mutagenic. So a carcinogen is also a mutagen.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
Which of the following is not a type of ionizing radiation?
A. ultraviolet radiation B. radon gas C. nuclear fuel D. X-rays Ultraviolet radiation is not a type of ionizing radiation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer.
Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
26.
Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation, such as the energy given off by cell phones, causes cancer. TRUE Although there has been a great deal of public concern, no evidence has been found to link nonionizing radiation with cancer.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
Which of the following is not found in tobacco smoke?
A. vinyl chloride B. N-nitrosonornicotine C. asbestos D. benzo(a)pyrene Although asbestos can increase the risk of cancer, it is not found in tobacco smoke.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
28.
Which of the following is not a protective behavior that will help prevent cancer?
A. Don't use tobacco. B. Increase consumption of salt-cured, smoked, and nitrite-cured foods. C. Don't sunbathe. D. Avoid radiation. E. Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family. One should decrease the consumption of salt-cured, smoked, and nitrite-cured foods.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
29.
Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers. FALSE Epstein-Barr virus is associated with Burkitt lymphoma. Human papillomavirus is associated with cervical cancers.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
30.
Which of the following dietary changes will not reduce your risk of developing cancer?
A. Increase your consumption of dark green, leafy vegetables, carrots, and various fruits. B. Avoid obesity. C. Decrease your consumption of high-fiber foods. D. Drink alcohol only in moderation. E. Avoid ham and sausage. Studies show that a high-fiber diet may protect against colon cancer.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
31.
Which of the following is not one of the seven warning signs?
A. a cut that bleeds B. change in bowel or bladder habits C. thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere D. indigestion or difficulty swallowing E. obvious change in wart or mole A sore that does not heal is one of the signs, but a cut that bleeds is normal.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
32.
The earlier a cancer is detected, the more likely it can be effectively treated. TRUE This is why scientists are working on ways to detect cancer earlier.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
33.
Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis. FALSE Diagnosis of cancer before metastasis is difficult.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
34.
The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals, which spell out the word CAUTION. The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in
A. skin coloring. B. bowel or bladder habits. C. sensitivity to heat or cold. D. sleep habits. E. eating habits. The "C" in CAUTION stands for a change in bowel or bladder habits.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. Section: 19.03
Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
35.
If you have one of the seven warning signals in CAUTION, this means that you have cancer. FALSE These signs do not necessarily mean that you have cancer. However, they are an indication that something is wrong and a medical professional should be consulted.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
36.
Melanoma is the most serious form of skin cancer. TRUE Of the various types of skin cancer, melanoma is the most serious form.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
37.
Which of the following is not one of the things to watch for in a mole?
A. asymmetry B. irregular border C. a solid color, usually brown D. larger than 6 mm E. elevated above the skin surface Normally moles are a solid color. If the color varies from one area to another, this is a warning sign.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
38.
A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter. How big is 6 mm approximately?
A. just barely visible, about the size of a pin prick B. about the same as one of the letters in this question C. about the size of a pencil eraser D. about the size of a nickel E. about the size of a quarter The diameter of a pencil eraser is about 6 mm.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
39.
A Pap test looks for what type of cancer?
A. skin cancer B. esophageal cancer C. bladder cancer D. cervical cancer E. colon cancer A Pap test removes a sample of cells from the cervix to examine for cervical cancer.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
40.
Which of the following tests is not used to screen for colon cancer?
A. blood test B. digital examination C. flexible sigmoidoscopy D. fecal occult blood test A blood test is used to detect leukemia, but not colon cancer. Each of the other three is done.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
41.
If you receive the new vaccine against HPV, then you do not need to get Pap tests anymore. FALSE Any woman who chooses to receive the new HPV vaccine should still get regular Pap tests because the vaccine does not protect against all types of HPV that cause cervical cancer, and the vaccine does not protect against any HPV infections she may already have.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
42.
How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps, knots, or changes?
A. daily B. once a week C. once a month D. once every 6 months E. once a year A woman should check her breasts for any lumps, knots, or changes once a month, about one week after her period.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
43.
Which type of test is particularly useful in analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone?
A. X-ray B. CAT scan C. MRI D. PSA E. Pap test An MRI is a type of imaging technique that is particularly useful for analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone, such as tumors of the brain or spinal cord.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
44.
Which two tests are done for prostate cancer?
A. mammography, fecal occult blood test B. digital rectal examination, Pap test C. PSA, testicle self-examination D. digital rectal examination, PSA E. testicle self-examination, fecal occult blood test Screening for prostate cancer involves a digital rectal examination and a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
45.
When should screening for colorectal cancer begin?
A. in 20s B. in 30s C. in 40s D. in 50s E. in 60s The various colorectal screening tests should begin at age 50 years.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
46.
What type of test is a CEA test?
A. self-examination B. a type of prostate cancer test C. a type of cervical cancer test D. a genetic test E. a tumor marker test CEA stands for carcinoembryonic antigen test. It is a type of tumor marker test used to detect any relapses of colon cancer.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
47.
What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer?
A. PAP test B. PSA test C. CEA test D. genetic test E. tumor marker test A genetic test looks for mutations in proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes that increase the likelihood that someone will develop cancer.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
48.
If the gene for telomerase is turned off in a cell, this is an indication this is a cancer cell. FALSE Telomerase, the enzyme that keeps telomeres a constant length in cells, is turned off in normal cells but is active in cancer cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
Which of the following is not a standard therapy for cancer treatment?
A. immunotherapy B. surgery C. radiation therapy D. chemotherapy Immunotherapy is considered a new advance in the treatment of cancer.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
50.
Unfortunately, the cancer in Ted's body had spread to multiple sites. Which is the most viable treatment option to handle Ted's cancer?
A. surgery B. radiation therapy C. chemotherapy Chemotherapy is the only treatment that will be able to address cancer in multiple sites throughout the body.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
51.
Ionizing radiation both causes cancer and can be used to treat cancer. TRUE Ionizing radiation causes chromosomal breakage and cell cycle disruption. This can cause cancer, but it can also be used as a treatment for cancer cells.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
Which treatment does not work for leukemia?
A. surgery B. radiation therapy C. chemotherapy Surgery does not work for cancers of the blood.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
53.
Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of chemotherapy?
A. nausea, vomiting B. dry, red, irritated skin and/or blisters C. diarrhea D. fatigue and weakness E. weight loss and hair loss Radiation therapy often causes dry, red, irritated skin and/or blisters at the site of treatment.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
54.
Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapy?
A. alkylating agents B. antimetabolites C. antitumor antibiotics D. bone marrow transplants E. mitotic inhibitors Bone marrow transplants are often done in conjunction with chemotherapy, but they are not a type of chemotherapy.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
55.
Taxol is used to treat what type of cancer?
A. leukemia B. lymphoma C. testicular cancer D. colon cancer E. ovarian cancer Taxol is used to treat advanced ovarian cancers, as well as breast, head, and neck tumors.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
56.
What is the survival rate for children with childhood leukemia?
A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 80% E. 99% The survival rate for children with childhood leukemia is 80%.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
57.
Melacine, used against melanoma, is a type of cancer vaccine. TRUE A vaccine, called Melacine, contains broken melanoma cells from two different sources.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Multiple Choice Questions
58.
Which of the following is not a type of immunotherapy?
A. cancer vaccines B. anti-p53 engineered adenovirus C. cytokine therapy D. monoclonal antibodies E. genetically engineered antigen presenting cells Anti-p53 engineered adenovirus is a type of gene therapy against cancer.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
True / False Questions
59.
Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells. FALSE Antiangiogenic drugs break up the network of new capillaries in the vicinity of a tumor.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
60.
When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells, the cells are killed. FALSE Expression of the p53 gene seems to trigger cell death only in cancer cells. Elevating the p53 level in a normal cell doesn't do any harm.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
Chapter 19 Cancer Summary Category
# of Question s
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
15
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
22
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
8
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
9
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
6
Learning Outcome: 19.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells.
7
Learning Outcome: 19.01.02 Distinguish between a proto-
4
oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Learning Outcome: 19.01.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated.
7
Learning Outcome: 19.02.01 Explain how heredity and the environment may both contribute to cancer.
1
Learning Outcome: 19.02.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer.
4
Learning Outcome: 19.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer.
7
Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer.
5
Learning Outcome: 19.03.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual.
13
Learning Outcome: 19.04.01 Describe how radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery may all be used to treat cance
8
r. Learning Outcome: 19.04.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer.
4
Section: 19.01
18
Section: 19.02
12
Section: 19.03
18
Section: 19.04
12
Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
60
Chapter 20 Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?
A. genotype B. phenotype C. gamete D. probability E. autosomal
True / False Questions
2.
When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing their genotype. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
When describing someone as "lactose intolerant", you are describing their
A. genotype. B. phenotype.
4.
Which of the following would not be a possible way to list someone's genotype?
A. BB B. Bb C. AB D. bb E. AA
True / False Questions
5.
While a locus refers to a unit of heredity, a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
An allele is to a gene, as a locus is to a
A. gamete. B. phenotype. C. chromosome. D. genotype. E. unit of heredity. 7.
Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype?
A. AA B. Aa C. AaBb D. aabb
8.
Which of the following is a dominant allele?
A. A B. a C. AA D. ab E. Ab 9.
There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: 5 finger allele and 6 finger allele. When both the 5 finger allele and the 6 finger allele are present in the same individual, the individual has 6 fingers on the hands. Which allele is dominant?
A. 5 fingers B. 6 fingers 10. Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
A. Aa B. Ab C. aB D. ab E. aa 11. There is a single gene that controls the ability to taste PTC paper. The ability to taste is dominant to the inability to taste. If you can taste the paper, it is very bitter. Which of the following genotypes can taste the paper?
A. only PP B. both PP and Pp C. both PP and pp D. only Pp E. only pp
12. Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it). Which thumb is on top? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top. If you have the genotype "tt", which thumb is on top?
A. left B. right 13. Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele?
A. A B. b C. AA D. Aa E. bb
True / False Questions
14. If the mother's genotype is aa, all of her eggs will be identical for this trait. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
15. Dad has a genotype of AaBb. How many different kinds of sperm can he produce?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five
16. Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?
A. ff x ff B. Gg x gg C. AAbb x Aabb D. AAbb x aaBB E. Ss x ss 17. Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous dominant?
A. Aa x aa B. AA x AA C. aa x aa D. Aa x AA
True / False Questions
18. The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
19. If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads, for example), you use the
A. product rule. B. sum rule.
True / False Questions
20. Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used involve the product rule. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. The probability of tossing a coin and having it be heads or tails is
A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 1 D. 0 22. In a cross of Ff x Ff, the probability of having a dominant phenotype is
A. 1/4. B. 1/3. C. 1/2. D. 2/3. E. 3/4. 23. In a cross of Ss x Ss, the probability of having a heterozygous genotype is
A. 1/4. B. 1/3. C. 1/2. D. 2/3. E. 3/4.
24. In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?
A. 0. B. 1/4. C. 1/2. D. 3/4. E. 1. 25. In a dihybrid cross, what is the probability that the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant phenotypes?
A. 1/16. B. 3/16. C. 6/16. D. 9/16. E. 1. 26. In a dihybrid cross, if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1, what are the genotypes of the parents?
A. GgRr x ggrr B. GGRR x ggrr C. GgRr x GgRr D. Gg x Rr E. GG x RR 27. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal recessive disorder pedigree?
A. Heterozygotes have an affected phenotype. B. Affected children can have unaffected parents. C. Two affected parents will always have affected children. D. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. E. Affected individuals with homozygous unaffected mates will have unaffected children.
28. In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by
A. an open circle. B. a shaded circle. C. an open square. D. a shaded square. E. a square with a line through it.
True / False Questions
29. If two parents who are unaffected have a child that is affected, then the parents are both considered bearers. True
False
Yes / No Questions
30. Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
31. Julie has a genetic disorder. Julie and her husband, Shane, have three children, none of which have the genetic disorder. How is this disorder most likely inherited?
A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive
32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?
A. Affected children will usually have unaffected parents. B. Heterozygotes are affected. C. Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child. D. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. 33. Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disorder?
A. Marfan syndrome B. Tay-Sachs disease C. cystic fibrosis D. sickle cell disease 34. Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A?
A. cystic fibrosis B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Huntington disease D. sickle-cell disease E. Marfan syndrome
True / False Questions
35. It is estimated that there are fewer than 100 genetic diseases caused by single gene mutations in humans. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
36. Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin?
A. cystic fibrosis B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Marfan syndrome D. Huntington disease E. sickle-cell disease
True / False Questions
37. Even though sickle-cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder, the heterozygote can express some variation of the recessive phenotype. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
38. Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder?
A. Marfan syndrome B. sickle-cell disease C. cystic fibrosis D. Tay-Sachs disease E. Huntington disease
39. Which of the following traits/disorders is controlled by multiple genes?
A. skin color B. Tay-Sachs disease C. ABO blood type D. familial hypercholesterolemia E. curly hair 40. In the inheritance of skin color example in the book, which genotype would have the same phenotype as AaBb?
A. AABB B. AABb C. AaBB D. AAbb E. Aabb
True / False Questions
41. The definition of a multifactorial trait is one in which more than one set of alleles is involved. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
42. How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?
A. autosomal recessive B. autosomal dominant C. incompletely dominant D. codominant E. sex-linked dominant
43. There is a trait with two alleles. One allele codes for blue while the other allele codes for yellow. If this trait is inherited in a codominant manner, what color will the offspring be?
A. blue B. yellow C. green D. blue and yellow striped 44. Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial?
A. alcoholism B. suicide risk C. cleft lip/palate D. diabetes E. ABO blood type
True / False Questions
45. Most polygenic traits show discrete phenotypes when plotted on a graph. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
46. Of the three possible alleles for the ABO blood type, each individual can have how many?
A. one B. two C. three
47. If an individual has the A phenotype, how many different genotypes can they possess?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 48. If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood, what phenotypes can their children be?
A. all type A B. all type B C. types A and O D. types B and O E. all 4 types 49. What is the genotype of a person with type O blood?
A. IAIA B. IAIB C. IAi D. IBi E. ii
Yes / No Questions
50. Can a man with type O blood be the father of a child with type A blood? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
51. Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait?
A. A B. IA C. XB D. a E. i 52. Which of the following represents the genotype of a male who is color-blind?
A. XBXB B. XBXb C. XbXb D. XbY E. XBY
True / False Questions
53. Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. A male receives his X linked alleles from his
A. mother. B. father.
55. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree?
A. An affected son can have normal parents. B. If a female has the trait, her father must also have it. C. The characteristic often skips a generation. D. More females than males are affected. E. If a woman has the characteristic, all of her sons will have it.
Yes / No Questions
56. Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
57. Which of the following X-linked recessive disorders is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles?
A. Fragile X B. Duchenne's C. color blindness D. hemophilia 58. How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar?
A. Both exhibit a late onset in life. B. Both are trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders. C. Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis. D. Both cause autism. E. Both are found only in males.
59. If a mother is color-blind and her husband is not, which of the following children are not possible?
A. normal daughter B. normal son C. color-blind son
True / False Questions
60. In an X-linked dominant trait, affected males pass the trait only to daughters. True
False
Chapter 20 Patterns of Genetic Inheritance Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?
A. genotype B. phenotype C. gamete D. probability E. autosomal The genetic make-up of an individual is called the genotype.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.01.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
2.
When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing their genotype. FALSE You are describing their phenotype, or the physical appearance of the trait.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
When describing someone as "lactose intolerant", you are describing their
A. genotype. B. phenotype. Lactose intolerant is a description of the characteristic of the individual, therefore, it is a phenotype.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
4.
Which of the following would not be a possible way to list someone's genotype?
A. BB B. Bb C. AB D. bb E. AA A genotype usually involves 2 of the same letters--either both capitalized, both lower case, or one of each.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.01.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
5.
While a locus refers to a unit of heredity, a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome. FALSE A gene refers to a unit of heredity, while a locus refers to a specific position on a chromosome.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.01.02 Define allele, gene, dominant, and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
6.
An allele is to a gene, as a locus is to a
A. gamete. B. phenotype. C. chromosome. D. genotype. E. unit of heredity. An allele is an alternate form of a gene, while a locus is a specific position on a chromosome.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 20.01.02 Define allele, gene, dominant, and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
7.
Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype?
A. AA B. Aa C. AaBb D. aabb Recessive phenotypes are represented by lower case letters.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.03 Given the genotype of an individual, identify the phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
8.
Which of the following is a dominant allele?
A. A B. a C. AA D. ab E. Ab An allele is represented by a single, capitalized letter.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.02 Define allele, gene, dominant, and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
9.
There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: 5 finger allele and 6 finger allele. When both the 5 finger allele and the 6 finger allele are present in the same individual, the individual has 6 fingers on the hands. Which allele is dominant?
A. 5 fingers B. 6 fingers When both alleles are present, the dominant allele is expressed while the recessive allele is hidden.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 20.01.02 Define allele, gene, dominant, and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
10.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
A. Aa B. Ab C. aB D. ab E. aa A heterozygous genotype is indicated by two of the same letters, one capital and one lower case.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.02 Define allele, gene, dominant, and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
11.
There is a single gene that controls the ability to taste PTC paper. The ability to taste is dominant to the inability to taste. If you can taste the paper, it is very bitter. Which of the following genotypes can taste the paper?
A. only PP B. both PP and Pp C. both PP and pp D. only Pp E. only pp Both Pp and Pp genotypes would be able to taste the bitter taste of PTC paper.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.03 Given the genotype of an individual, identify the phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
12.
Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it). Which thumb is on top? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top. If you have the genotype "tt", which thumb is on top?
A. left B. right The genotype "tt" would be the recessive phenotype, so the right thumb would be on top.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01.03 Given the genotype of an individual, identify the phenotype. Section: 20.01 Topic: Inheritance
13.
Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele?
A. A B. b C. AA D. Aa E. bb A gamete only has one allele for a particular trait and the dominant allele would be a capital letter.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
14.
If the mother's genotype is aa, all of her eggs will be identical for this trait. TRUE SInce the mother only has 1 type of allele (lower case a), all of her eggs will be identical for this trait.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
15.
Dad has a genotype of AaBb. How many different kinds of sperm can he produce?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five Dad can produce four different types of gametes (sperm): AB, Ab, aB, and ab.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
16.
Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?
A. ff x ff B. Gg x gg C. AAbb x Aabb D. AAbb x aaBB E. Ss x ss A dihybrid cross involves two different sets of alleles that are not identical to each other.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
17.
Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous dominant?
A. Aa x aa B. AA x AA C. aa x aa D. Aa x AA A type of cross involves a dominant phenotype (unknown genotype) crossed with a homozygous recessive.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
18.
The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square. TRUE Reginald Punnett introduced the Punnett square in his genetic classes in 1909.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
19.
If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads, for example), you use the
A. product rule. B. sum rule. The product rule gives the chance of two different events (the two coins being tossed) occurring simultaneously.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
20.
Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used involve the product rule. FALSE Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used, such as "heads or tails," involve the use of the sum rule.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
21.
The probability of tossing a coin and having it be heads or tails is
A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 1 D. 0 The probability of tossing a coin and having it be either heads or tails is 1. The probability of it being tails is 1/2 and the probability of it being heads is 1/2, and the sum rule is involved (1/2 + 1/2 = 1).
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
22.
In a cross of Ff x Ff, the probability of having a dominant phenotype is
A. 1/4. B. 1/3. C. 1/2. D. 2/3. E. 3/4. Three out of four of the offspring will have a dominant phenotype.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
23.
In a cross of Ss x Ss, the probability of having a heterozygous genotype is
A. 1/4. B. 1/3. C. 1/2. D. 2/3. E. 3/4. Two out of four of the offspring, or 1/2, will have a heterozygous genotype.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
24.
In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?
A. 0. B. 1/4. C. 1/2. D. 3/4. E. 1. None of the offspring will exhibit the recessive phenotype.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
25.
In a dihybrid cross, what is the probability that the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant phenotypes?
A. 1/16. B. 3/16. C. 6/16. D. 9/16. E. 1. Nine out of sixteen of the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant traits phenotypically.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
26.
In a dihybrid cross, if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1, what are the genotypes of the parents?
A. GgRr x ggrr B. GGRR x ggrr C. GgRr x GgRr D. Gg x Rr E. GG x RR A dihybrid would involve a individual with the genotype GgRr. In order to have a 1:1:1:1 ratio, the other parent must be homozygous recessive for both traits.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance
27.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal recessive disorder pedigree?
A. Heterozygotes have an affected phenotype. B. Affected children can have unaffected parents. C. Two affected parents will always have affected children. D. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. E. Affected individuals with homozygous unaffected mates will have unaffected children. In an autosomal recessive disorder, heterozygotes have an unaffected phenotype.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
28.
In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by
A. an open circle. B. a shaded circle. C. an open square. D. a shaded square. E. a square with a line through it. Affected individuals are shaded, and a male is represented by a square.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
29.
If two parents who are unaffected have a child that is affected, then the parents are both considered bearers. FALSE Two parents who are unaffected but are heterozygous for a recessive disorder are considered carriers.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
Yes / No Questions
30.
Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child? YES Yes, if they are heterozygous and the child inherits the recessive allele from both parents.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
Julie has a genetic disorder. Julie and her husband, Shane, have three children, none of which have the genetic disorder. How is this disorder most likely inherited?
A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive If this is an autosomal recessive disorder, then Julie's genotype is aa. If Shane's genotype is AA, none of their children will have the genetic disorder. If Shane's genotype is Aa, then half of their children may be affected. If this were an autosomal dominant disorder, then Julie's genotype is AA or Aa. Shane would be aa. Then either all or half of their children would be affected.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
32.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?
A. Affected children will usually have unaffected parents. B. Heterozygotes are affected. C. Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child. D. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. Affected children will usually have an affected parent.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
33.
Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disorder?
A. Marfan syndrome B. Tay-Sachs disease C. cystic fibrosis D. sickle cell disease Marfan syndrome is inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
34.
Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A?
A. cystic fibrosis B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Huntington disease D. sickle-cell disease E. Marfan syndrome Tay-Sachs disease is due to the lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
35.
It is estimated that there are fewer than 100 genetic diseases caused by single gene mutations in humans. FALSE It is estimated that there are over 4000 identified genetic disorders caused by single gene mutations in humans.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
36.
Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin?
A. cystic fibrosis B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Marfan syndrome D. Huntington disease E. sickle-cell disease Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
37.
Even though sickle-cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder, the heterozygote can express some variation of the recessive phenotype. TRUE Sickle-cell heterozygotes have sickle-cell traits in which the blood cells are normal unless they experience dehydration or mild oxygen deprivation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
38.
Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder?
A. Marfan syndrome B. sickle-cell disease C. cystic fibrosis D. Tay-Sachs disease E. Huntington disease Huntington disease is caused by the base sequence CAG repeated over and over again in the protein huntingtin.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance
39.
Which of the following traits/disorders is controlled by multiple genes?
A. skin color B. Tay-Sachs disease C. ABO blood type D. familial hypercholesterolemia E. curly hair Skin color is controlled by several sets of alleles. It is a polygenic trait.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance, codominance, and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
40.
In the inheritance of skin color example in the book, which genotype would have the same phenotype as AaBb?
A. AABB B. AABb C. AaBB D. AAbb E. Aabb There are 2 dominant alleles in AaBb and in AAbb. Both would have the same medium brown phenotype.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.04.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance, codominance, and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
41.
The definition of a multifactorial trait is one in which more than one set of alleles is involved. FALSE A multifactorail trait is a polygenic trait that is also influenced by the environment.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
42.
How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?
A. autosomal recessive B. autosomal dominant C. incompletely dominant D. codominant E. sex-linked dominant Familial hypercholesterolemia is an incompletely dominant disorder.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.04.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance, codominance, and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
43.
There is a trait with two alleles. One allele codes for blue while the other allele codes for yellow. If this trait is inherited in a codominant manner, what color will the offspring be?
A. blue B. yellow C. green D. blue and yellow striped Both colors would be present, so the offspring would be blue and yellow striped.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.04.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance, codominance, and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
44.
Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial?
A. alcoholism B. suicide risk C. cleft lip/palate D. diabetes E. ABO blood type ABO blood type is not a polygenic trait influenced by the environment.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
45.
Most polygenic traits show discrete phenotypes when plotted on a graph. FALSE Most polygenic traits show a continuous distribution of phenotypes when plotted on a graph. See Figure 20.13.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
46.
Of the three possible alleles for the ABO blood type, each individual can have how many?
A. one B. two C. three Because each individual is diploid, each can only carry 2 alleles.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
47.
If an individual has the A phenotype, how many different genotypes can they possess?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five The individual can be IAIA or IAi.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 20.04.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
48.
If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood, what phenotypes can their children be?
A. all type A B. all type B C. types A and O D. types B and O E. all 4 types If both parents are heterozygous, all four blood types are possible: A, B, O, and AB.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 20.04.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
49.
What is the genotype of a person with type O blood?
A. IAIA B. IAIB C. IAi D. IBi E. ii The person's genotype will be ii.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
Yes / No Questions
50.
Can a man with type O blood be the father of a child with type A blood? YES Yes, if the mother has A blood and the child is heterozygous (IAi).
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.04.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait?
A. A B. IA C. XB D. a E. i A sex-linked trait is shown as the letter attached to the X chromosome.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
52.
Which of the following represents the genotype of a male who is color-blind?
A. XBXB B. XBXb C. XbXb D. XbY E. XBY A male who is color-blind would have an X chromosome with a "b" allele and a Y chromosome.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.05.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
53.
Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome. TRUE Very few Y-linked alleles have been found on the much smaller Y chromosome.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
A male receives his X linked alleles from his
A. mother. B. father. Males have only one X chromosome and it is inherited from their mother. Fathers only pass on their Y chromosome to their sons.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
55.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree?
A. An affected son can have normal parents. B. If a female has the trait, her father must also have it. C. The characteristic often skips a generation. D. More females than males are affected. E. If a woman has the characteristic, all of her sons will have it. In an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree, more males than females are affected.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
Yes / No Questions
56.
Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons? NO No, all of her sons would inherit their X chromosome with the defective allele from mom.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
Multiple Choice Questions
57.
Which of the following X-linked recessive disorders is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles?
A. Fragile X B. Duchenne's C. color blindness D. hemophilia Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
58.
How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar?
A. Both exhibit a late onset in life. B. Both are trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders. C. Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis. D. Both cause autism. E. Both are found only in males. Both diseases involve repeats of three nucleotides.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
59.
If a mother is color-blind and her husband is not, which of the following children are not possible?
A. normal daughter B. normal son C. color-blind son If the mother is color-blind, all of the sons will be color-blind.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
True / False Questions
60.
In an X-linked dominant trait, affected males pass the trait only to daughters. TRUE Since daughters must inherit an X chromosome from their fathers, they would receive an X chromosome with the dominant trait.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance
Chapter 20 Patterns of Genetic Inheritance Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
10
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
18
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
18
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
10
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
4
Learning Outcome: 20.01.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype.
4
Learning Outcome: 20.01.02 Define allele, gene, dominant, and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance.
5
Learning Outcome: 20.01.03 Given the genotype of an individual, identify the phenotype.
3
Learning Outcome: 20.02.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one- and two-trait crosses.
8
Learning Outcome: 20.02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cros
6
s. Learning Outcome: 20.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait.
6
Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive
6
genetic disorders. Learning Outcome: 20.04.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance, codominance, and incomplete dominance differ from
4
simple one-trait crosses. Learning Outcome: 20.04.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype.
3
Learning Outcome: 20.04.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype.
5
Learning Outcome: 20.05.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance.
4
Learning Outcome: 20.05.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait.
6
Section: 20.01
12
Section: 20.02
14
Section: 20.03
12
Section: 20.04
12
Section: 20.05
10
Topic: Inheritance
60
Chapter 21 DNA Biology and Technology
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not a requirement for the genetic material of the cell?
A. It must be able to replicate. B. It must be able to store information. C. It must be able to undergo mutations. D. It must be able to change conformations. E. It must be able to provide genetic variability. 2.
Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?
A. phosphate, nitrogen base B. phosphate, amino acids C. fatty acids, sugars D. amino acids, nitrogen base E. nitrogen base, fatty acid 3.
Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?
A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. nucleotides D. carbohydrate rings E. steroid rings
4.
The bases in DNA are complementary. A always binds with
A. A. B. C. C. G. D. T. 5.
Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?
A. The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate. B. The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure. C. The two strands are considered parallel. D. The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix. E. A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C.
True / False Questions
6.
Mitochondria also contain DNA. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
DNA replication is considered
A. conservative. B. semiconservative. C. dispersive. D. relaxed. E. stringent.
8.
What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication?
A. It unzips the double-stranded DNA. B. It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. C. It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together. D. It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing. E. It folds the DNA into a coiled structure. 9.
What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand?
A. DNA polymerase B. DNA helicase C. DNA replicase D. DNA ligase E. DNA telomerase 10. In what way are DNA and RNA similar?
A. Both contain C, A, and G. B. Both contain deoxyribose. C. Both contain U, C, and G. D. Both are single stranded. E. Both form a double helix.
True / False Questions
11. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
12. Both DNA and RNA are
A. found in the cytoplasm. B. transcribed. C. translated. D. found in the nucleus. E. considered the genetic material of the cell. 13. Which of the following is a coding RNA?
A. small RNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. mRNA 14. Which of the following is not a type of small RNA?
A. snoRNAs B. tRNA C. snRNAs D. miRNAs E. siRNAs
True / False Questions
15. The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
16. All of the RNAs
A. can be found in the ribosomes. B. are translated into proteins. C. are transcribed from DNA. D. function within the nucleus. E. interact with amino acids. 17. How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50 E. over 100 18. Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins?
A. enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions B. neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system C. antibodies for the immune system D. storage form for genetic information E. hormones to change cellular activity 19. Which of the following is not an amino acid?
A. glycine B. tryptophan C. alanine D. valine E. uracil
True / False Questions
20. To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. The 3-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a/an
A. codon. B. transcriptome. C. initiator. D. mutation. E. transposon. 22. The start codon for translation is a
A. UAG. B. UAA. C. AAA. D. AUG. E. AGU. 23. In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG, what will be the first amino acid incorporated?
A. alanine B. glutamine C. methionine D. valine E. glycine
24. What enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA?
A. helicase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. ligase E. protease
True / False Questions
25. As the RNA is being made, it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
26. Which of the following is not a type of mRNA processing?
A. adding a cap B. cleaving off the methionine C. adding a tail D. removing the introns E. splicing
True / False Questions
27. Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
28. Which of the following is not true regarding ribosomes?
A. They are composed of two subunits. B. They contain both RNA and protein. C. They contain an A site and a P site. D. They translate RNA into protein. E. They function within the nucleus. 29. Which structure contains the anticodon?
A. the mRNA B. the large ribosomal subunit C. the small ribosomal subunit D. the tRNA E. the rRNA 30. If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted?
A. CCA, proline B. GGU, proline C. GGT, glycine D. ACC, threonine E. UGG, tryptophan 31. Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?
A. The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA. B. The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. C. The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time. D. The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA. E. One of the three stop codons is reached.
32. How many stop codons are there for translation?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 33. How many codons are there for leucine?
A. two B. three C. four D. five E. six
True / False Questions
34. When the sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA is translated, the corresponding protein will be arginine-asparaginealanine-arginine. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-asparatate-glycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred.
A. GUUAAGAGG B. GCCGACGGC C. CACCGCCGA D. GAUGGUGCU E. UUUUAAUGG 36. Which of the following is not a level of regulation for gene expression?
A. Pretranscriptional B. Transcriptional C. Posttranscriptional D. Pretranslational E. Translational 37. Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control?
A. The chromosomes must decondense. B. Transcription factors help initiate transcription. C. The mRNA is processed before it leaves the nucleus. D. The life expectancy of the mRNA molecules vary. E. The polypeptide product is folded to form its functional conformation. 38. Which of the following is not true about transcription factors?
A. Transcription factors are DNA-binding proteins. B. Transcription factors are considered external cell regulators. C. There are many different types of transcription factors. D. Specialization of cells is determined/influenced by which transcription factors are active in the cell. E. Genes code for transcription factors.
39. How does modern day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides?
A. radioactivity B. dye terminator chemicals C. DNA breakage D. laser E. by eye
True / False Questions
40. It only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 base-pair sections of DNA. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Which of the following statements about PCR is not true?
A. PCR stands for "polymerizing copies of RNA". B. PCR can create millions of copies of a segment of DNA in a test tube. C. PCR uses DNA polymerase. D. The amount of DNA doubles with each replication cycle. E. The target is repeatedly replicated.
True / False Questions
42. One of the disadvantages of PCR is that it requires large amounts of starting material. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
43. Which of the following is not an application of PCR?
A. study evolutionary history B. study mummies C. crime scene investigations D. treat cancer E. detect a genetic disorder 44. Place the following steps in order for the cloning of a gene. 1. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid. 2.A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA. 3. The bacterium makes a product. 4. Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid. 5. The plasmid replicates on its own.
A. 2,1,4,5,3 B. 1,2,3,4,5 C. 3,1,2,4,5 D. 5,1,4,3,2 E. 1,3,2,4,5 45. Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning?
A. host cell B. vector C. restriction enzyme D. dyes attached to nucleotides E. "sticky" ends
True / False Questions
46. Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called analytical products. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
47. Which of the following is not a desirable trait for a genetically engineered plant?
A. disease resistant B. salt sensitive C. improved yield D. modified wood pulp E. drought tolerant 48. Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology that promotes the health of plants?
A. hepatitis B vaccine B. insulin C. clotting factor VIII D. growth hormone E. frost-minus substances 49. How is the recombinant product procured from transgenic bacteria? Transgenic goats?
A. eat them, from growth media B. from growth media, drink milk C. eat them, eat them D. drink milk, drink milk E. from growth media, from growth media
True / False Questions
50. Mouse models for human diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, have been created by recombinant DNA technology. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
51. When was the Human Genome Project completed?
A. 1999 B. 2001 C. 2003 D. 2005 E. 2010 52. How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?
A. 1% B. 50% C. 90% D. 99% E. 99.9% 53. How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain?
A. 3 billion; 80,000 B. 1 million; 1 million C. 20,500; 80,000 D. 80,000; 20,500 E. 125 million; 1 million
True / False Questions
54. More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
55. What is the goal of functional genomics?
A. to determine all of the human genome sequence B. to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans C. to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being D. to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact E. to carry out gene therapy for human diseases 56. Researchers found 3 genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that, when compared to our human genes, have given us insight into our evolution. What were those three genes?
A. genes for speech development, hearing, and smell B. genes for chest size, cranial size, and leg length C. genes for taste, opposable thumbs, and bipedalism D. genes for speech development, opposable thumbs, and leg length E. genes for food preference, bipedalism, and cranial size 57. How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse?
A. 1% B. 10% C. 35% D. 85% E. 99%
58. Which of the following is not studied in the field of proteomics?
A. protein-protein interactions B. protein concentration in a cell C. which genes give rise to which proteins D. cellular location of particular proteins E. chemical modifications of proteins
True / False Questions
59. In ex vivo gene therapy, therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics?
A. to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and proteomics B. to input DNA and protein sequences into a computer C. to model the three-dimensional shape of cellular proteins D. to obtain the sequence of all the noncoding regions of the DNA E. to insert genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder
Chapter 21 DNA Biology and Technology Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following is not a requirement for the genetic material of the cell?
A. It must be able to replicate. B. It must be able to store information. C. It must be able to undergo mutations. D. It must be able to change conformations. E. It must be able to provide genetic variability. In order to be the genetic material, DNA does not need to change conformations.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
2.
Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?
A. phosphate, nitrogen base B. phosphate, amino acids C. fatty acids, sugars D. amino acids, nitrogen base E. nitrogen base, fatty acid Phosphates and nitrogen bases, along with sugars, are found in the monomer unit of DNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
3.
Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?
A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. nucleotides D. carbohydrate rings E. steroid rings Nucleotides are the monomer unit of DNA.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
4.
The bases in DNA are complementary. A always binds with
A. A. B. C. C. G. D. T. A always binds with T.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
5.
Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?
A. The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate. B. The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure. C. The two strands are considered parallel. D. The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix. E. A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C. The two DNA strands are considered antiparallel. i.e., they run in opposite directions.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
6.
Mitochondria also contain DNA. TRUE Mitochondria contain a small, circular chromosome of DNA.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
DNA replication is considered
A. conservative. B. semiconservative. C. dispersive. D. relaxed. E. stringent. DNA replication is considered semiconservative because each DNA molecule is composed of one old strand and one new strand.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.02 Explain the process of DNA replication. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
8.
What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication?
A. It unzips the double-stranded DNA. B. It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. C. It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together. D. It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing. E. It folds the DNA into a coiled structure. To complete replication, the enzyme ligase seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
9.
What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand?
A. DNA polymerase B. DNA helicase C. DNA replicase D. DNA ligase E. DNA telomerase DNA polymerase is responsible for the process of DNA replication.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
10.
In what way are DNA and RNA similar?
A. Both contain C, A, and G. B. Both contain deoxyribose. C. Both contain U, C, and G. D. Both are single stranded. E. Both form a double helix. Both DNA and RNA contain C, A, and G.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.01.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
11.
The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose. TRUE DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid while RNA stands for ribonucleic acid.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
12.
Both DNA and RNA are
A. found in the cytoplasm. B. transcribed. C. translated. D. found in the nucleus. E. considered the genetic material of the cell. Both DNA and RNA can be found in the nucleus.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
13.
Which of the following is a coding RNA?
A. small RNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. mRNA The coding RNA is messenger RNA (mRNA), which is translated into protein.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
14.
Which of the following is not a type of small RNA?
A. snoRNAs B. tRNA C. snRNAs D. miRNAs E. siRNAs Transfer RNA (tRNA) is not a type of small RNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
15.
The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. FALSE The "r" stands for ribosomal because this type of RNA is associated with the ribosomes.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
16.
All of the RNAs
A. can be found in the ribosomes. B. are translated into proteins. C. are transcribed from DNA. D. function within the nucleus. E. interact with amino acids. All RNAs are transcribed from a DNA template.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology
17.
How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50 E. over 100 There are twenty different amino acids commonly found in proteins.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
18.
Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins?
A. enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions B. neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system C. antibodies for the immune system D. storage form for genetic information E. hormones to change cellular activity DNA, not proteins, serves as the storage form for genetic information.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
19.
Which of the following is not an amino acid?
A. glycine B. tryptophan C. alanine D. valine E. uracil Uracil is a base found in a nucleotide, not an amino acid.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
20.
To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA.
FALSE To replicate something is to make an identical copy. To transcribe is to make a faithful copy, but it is not identical. DNA is transcribed into RNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
21.
The 3-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a/an
A. codon. B. transcriptome. C. initiator. D. mutation. E. transposon. The 3-base sequence in the mRNA molecule is called a codon.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
22.
The start codon for translation is a
A. UAG. B. UAA. C. AAA. D. AUG. E. AGU. The start codon is AUG.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
23.
In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG, what will be the first amino acid incorporated?
A. alanine B. glutamine C. methionine D. valine E. glycine The first amino acid incorporated is always methionine because that is the amino acid incorporated for the start codon AUG.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
24.
What enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA?
A. helicase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. ligase E. protease RNA polymerase transcribes DNA into RNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
25.
As the RNA is being made, it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation. FALSE The RNA must first be processed before it can leave the nucleus for the cytoplasm.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
Which of the following is not a type of mRNA processing?
A. adding a cap B. cleaving off the methionine C. adding a tail D. removing the introns E. splicing There are no methionines in RNA so this is not a step in the processing of a mRNA.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
27.
Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus. FALSE Exons in mRNAs are spliced back together again and exit the nucleus.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
28.
Which of the following is not true regarding ribosomes?
A. They are composed of two subunits. B. They contain both RNA and protein. C. They contain an A site and a P site. D. They translate RNA into protein. E. They function within the nucleus. Translation by the ribosomes occurs in the cytoplasm and on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
29.
Which structure contains the anticodon?
A. the mRNA B. the large ribosomal subunit C. the small ribosomal subunit D. the tRNA E. the rRNA The tRNA contains the anticodon that pairs with the codon.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
30.
If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted?
A. CCA, proline B. GGU, proline C. GGT, glycine D. ACC, threonine E. UGG, tryptophan If the codon is CCA, then proline will be inserted. The sequence of the anticodon is GGU.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
31.
Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?
A. The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA. B. The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. C. The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time. D. The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA. E. One of the three stop codons is reached. The first step in initiation of translation is that the mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
32.
How many stop codons are there for translation?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five There are three stop codons for translation: UAA, UAG, and UGA.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
33.
How many codons are there for leucine?
A. two B. three C. four D. five E. six There are six codons for leucine: UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, and CUG.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
True / False Questions
34.
When the sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA is translated, the corresponding protein will be arginine-asparaginealanine-arginine. FALSE Initiation must begin at AUG so the sequence would be methionine-glutamine-glycine.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.02.02 Interpret a sequence of DNA nucleotides. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
35.
Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-asparatateglycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred.
A. GUUAAGAGG B. GCCGACGGC C. CACCGCCGA D. GAUGGUGCU E. UUUUAAUGG CAC/CGC/CGA could give rise to the above amino acid sequence.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.02.02 Interpret a sequence of DNA nucleotides. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology
36.
Which of the following is not a level of regulation for gene expression?
A. Pretranscriptional B. Transcriptional C. Posttranscriptional D. Pretranslational E. Translational Pretranslational is not considered a form of regulation for gene expression. Those mechanisms that occur after the RNA is made but before the protein is made are called posttranscriptional.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Gene Regulation
37.
Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control?
A. The chromosomes must decondense. B. Transcription factors help initiate transcription. C. The mRNA is processed before it leaves the nucleus. D. The life expectancy of the mRNA molecules vary. E. The polypeptide product is folded to form its functional conformation. Pretranscriptional control are things that occur before transcription begins. The uncoiling or decondensing of the chromosomes is one type of pretranscriptional control.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Gene Regulation
38.
Which of the following is not true about transcription factors?
A. Transcription factors are DNA-binding proteins. B. Transcription factors are considered external cell regulators. C. There are many different types of transcription factors. D. Specialization of cells is determined/influenced by which transcription factors are active in the cell. E. Genes code for transcription factors. Transcription factors are internal and bind to DNA. They may be influenced by external cell regulators.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Gene Regulation
39.
How does modern day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides?
A. radioactivity B. dye terminator chemicals C. DNA breakage D. laser E. by eye Modern day sequencing involves dyes attached to the nucleotides and use of a laser to detect the different dyes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.03.01 Recognize the importance of DNA sequencing to the study of biology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
True / False Questions
40.
It only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 base-pair sections of DNA. TRUE With the advent of automated DNA sequencing, it only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 basepair sections of DNA.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.03.01 Recognize the importance of DNA sequencing to the study of biology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Which of the following statements about PCR is not true?
A. PCR stands for "polymerizing copies of RNA". B. PCR can create millions of copies of a segment of DNA in a test tube. C. PCR uses DNA polymerase. D. The amount of DNA doubles with each replication cycle. E. The target is repeatedly replicated. PCR stands for "polymerase chain reaction."
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
True / False Questions
42.
One of the disadvantages of PCR is that it requires large amounts of starting material. FALSE One of the advantages of PCR is that it only requires a very small amount of DNA to begin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
Multiple Choice Questions
43.
Which of the following is not an application of PCR?
A. study evolutionary history B. study mummies C. crime scene investigations D. treat cancer E. detect a genetic disorder PCR can be used to detect cancer, but it is not a treatment for cancer.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
44.
Place the following steps in order for the cloning of a gene. 1. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid. 2.A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA. 3. The bacterium makes a product. 4. Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid. 5. The plasmid replicates on its own.
A. 2,1,4,5,3 B. 1,2,3,4,5 C. 3,1,2,4,5 D. 5,1,4,3,2 E. 1,3,2,4,5 The correct order is: a restriction enzyme is used to cleave human DNA and plasmid DNA. DNA ligase is used to seal foreign DNA into the opening created in the plasmid. Some of the bacterial cells take up the recombinant plasmid. Gene cloning occurs as the plasmid replicates on it own. The bacterium makes a product that it could not make before.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
45.
Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning?
A. host cell B. vector C. restriction enzyme D. dyes attached to nucleotides E. "sticky" ends Dyes attached to nucleotides are involved in DNA sequencing, not cloning.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
True / False Questions
46.
Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called analytical products. FALSE Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called transgenic organisms.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
Multiple Choice Questions
47.
Which of the following is not a desirable trait for a genetically engineered plant?
A. disease resistant B. salt sensitive C. improved yield D. modified wood pulp E. drought tolerant Salt tolerant crops are a desirable trait for a genetic engineering.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
48.
Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology that promotes the health of plants?
A. hepatitis B vaccine B. insulin C. clotting factor VIII D. growth hormone E. frost-minus substances Bacteria that live on plants have been converted to frost-minus bacteria in order to make new frost-resistant crops.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
49.
How is the recombinant product procured from transgenic bacteria? Transgenic goats?
A. eat them, from growth media B. from growth media, drink milk C. eat them, eat them D. drink milk, drink milk E. from growth media, from growth media Usually the recombinant product from bacteria is procured from the growth media, while the recombinant product from goats is procured by drinking the milk.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
True / False Questions
50.
Mouse models for human diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, have been created by recombinant DNA technology. TRUE By inserting an allele such as the one that causes cystic fibrosis, a mouse with a phenotype similar to a human with cystic fibrosis can be isolated and studied.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology
Multiple Choice Questions
51.
When was the Human Genome Project completed?
A. 1999 B. 2001 C. 2003 D. 2005 E. 2010 The Human Genome Project was completed in 2003.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
52.
How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?
A. 1% B. 50% C. 90% D. 99% E. 99.9% Humans are 99.9% identical in DNA sequence to each other.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
53.
How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain?
A. 3 billion; 80,000 B. 1 million; 1 million C. 20,500; 80,000 D. 80,000; 20,500 E. 125 million; 1 million Researchers thought the genome would contain 80,000 to 140,000 genes. It appears to contain only 20,500.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
True / False Questions
54.
More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins. FALSE Less than 2% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
Multiple Choice Questions
55.
What is the goal of functional genomics?
A. to determine all of the human genome sequence B. to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans C. to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being D. to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact E. to carry out gene therapy for human diseases The purpose of functional genomics is to determine how our 20,5000 genes function and how together they form a human being.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.04.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
56.
Researchers found 3 genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that, when compared to our human genes, have given us insight into our evolution. What were those three genes?
A. genes for speech development, hearing, and smell B. genes for chest size, cranial size, and leg length C. genes for taste, opposable thumbs, and bipedalism D. genes for speech development, opposable thumbs, and leg length E. genes for food preference, bipedalism, and cranial size Interestingly, the genes for speech, hearing, and smell found on chromosome 22 have been identified and compared with their counterparts in humans.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
57.
How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse?
A. 1% B. 10% C. 35% D. 85% E. 99% Surprisingly, our DNA sequence is 85% similar to that of a mouse.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
58.
Which of the following is not studied in the field of proteomics?
A. protein-protein interactions B. protein concentration in a cell C. which genes give rise to which proteins D. cellular location of particular proteins E. chemical modifications of proteins Genomics studies genes, while proteomics studies the structure, function, and interaction of cellular proteins.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.04.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
True / False Questions
59.
In ex vivo gene therapy, therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule. FALSE In in vivo gene therapy, therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.04.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics?
A. to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and proteomics B. to input DNA and protein sequences into a computer C. to model the three-dimensional shape of cellular proteins D. to obtain the sequence of all the noncoding regions of the DNA E. to insert genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder Bioinformatics seeks to find meaningful patterns in the data generated from DNA and protein sequencing.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.04.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics. Topic: Genomics
Chapter 21 DNA Biology and Technology Summary Category
# of Questions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
19
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
22
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
4
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
12
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
3
Learning Outcome: 21.01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
8
Learning Outcome: 21.01.02 Explain the process of DNA replication.
1
Learning Outcome: 21.01.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA.
3
Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell.
4
Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein.
20
Learning Outcome: 21.02.02 Interpret a sequence of DNA nucleotides.
2
Learning Outcome: 21.03.01 Recognize the importance of DNA sequencing to the study of biology.
2
Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning.
5
Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology.
5
Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project.
4
Learning Outcome: 21.04.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics.
3
Learning Outcome: 21.04.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics.
3
Section: 21.01
16
Section: 21.02
22
Section: 21.03
12
Section: 21.04
9
Topic: Biotechnology
12
Topic: Gene Regulation
3
Topic: Genomics
10
Topic: Molecular Biology
35
Chapter 22 Human Evolution
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What is the name of the hypothesis that states that the very first living thing came from nonliving chemicals?
A. cell theory B. chemical evolution C. Darwinian evolution D. speciation E. organic chemistry
True / False Questions
2.
The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today. True
3.
False
By 15 billion years ago, the solar system was in place. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
The early atmosphere of Earth consisted mainly of
A. hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. B. oxygen, water vapor, and carbon monoxide. C. water vapor, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide. D. hydrogen, carbon monoxide, nitrogen. E. water vapor, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide. 5.
Which of the following was not an energy source on early Earth?
A. volcanoes B. meteorites C. lightning D. ozone layer E. ultraviolet radiation 6.
What was the energy source Miller used in his 1953 experiment to replicate Earth's early environment?
A. electric spark B. heat C. ultraviolet radiation D. gamma radiation E. sunlight
True / False Questions
7.
Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
What evidence contributed to the formulation of the RNA-first hypothesis?
A. RNA was formed in MIller's experiment. B. RNA continues to evolve chemically today. C. More primitive cells, such as archaea, use an RNA only information system. D. RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing. E. Protocells contain only RNA and lipids. 9.
Which piece of evidence would strongly support the RNA-first hypothesis?
A. finding a protocell that could carry on metabolism as well as reproduce B. discovering a way to make RNA more stable than DNA C. finding a mechanism whereby proteins could assemble DNA out of free nucleotides D. being able to build microspheres that contain only protein and RNA E. finding a living organism that uses RNA as its genetic material
True / False Questions
10. Both the RNA-first and the protein-first hypotheses must propose a manner for DNA to become the genetic material as it is today. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
11. Biological evolution is the process whereby
A. humans descended from apes. B. species change through time. C. living cells arose from nonliving chemicals. D. prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells. E. only the strongest survive. 12. What is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its environment?
A. culture B. selection C. analogy D. adaptation E. homology
True / False Questions
13. There are two important aspects to biological evolution: descent from a common ancestor and the fossil record. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
14. According to the textbook, what evidence is the best evidence for biological evolution?
A. fossil record B. biogeographical evidence C. anatomical evidence D. biochemical evidence
15. What type of rock preserves fossils well?
A. sedimentary rock B. igneous rock C. metamorphic rock
Yes / No Questions
16. Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
17. What is someone who searches for and researches fossils called?
A. entomologist B. physicist C. paleontologist D. geologist E. ecologist 18. Which of the following statements concerning the order of evolving organisms is not true?
A. Unicellular eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes. B. Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants. C. Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants. D. Reptiles preceded the amphibians. E. Fishes evolved before terrestrial animals.
True / False Questions
19. We do not have any fossils of unicellular prokaryotes. The first organisms to appear in the fossil record are unicellular eukaryotes. True
False
20. There are no transitional fossils between different groups. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. What did Darwin conclude from the observation that there are no rabbits in South America?
A. Rabbits cannot live in South America because it is too warm. B. Rabbits cannot live in South America because they do not have a good food source. C. Rabbits evolved somewhere else and had no means of reaching South America. D. Rabbits were originally found in South America but went extinct. E. Rabbits in South America evolved into guinea pigs and thus are no longer present. 22. The fact that marsupials are not as diverse in South America as they are in Australia would be classified as what type of evidence for evolution?
A. biogeographical B. anatomical C. biochemical D. fossil record
True / False Questions
23. All vertebrate forelimbs are the same in that they are used for the same form of locomotion. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
24. Which of the following is not a vestigial structure?
A. pelvic girdle and legs in whales B. wings for flight in most birds C. piloerectors in humans D. pelvic girdle in snakes E. tailbone in humans
True / False Questions
25. Closer biochemical structures suggest a closer evolutionary relationship. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
26. What type of evidence for evolution would arise from a comparison of the DNA sequence of humans and monkeys?
A. biogeographical B. anatomical C. biochemical D. fossil record
27. The wings of birds and insects are _____________ structures.
A. analogous B. homologous
True / False Questions
28. The flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird are homologous structures. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
29. If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles, and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles, this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change?
A. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics 30. If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles, and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles, this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change?
A. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics
True / False Questions
31. Chinese cabbage, brussels sprouts, and kohlrabi are all derived from a single species via artificial selection. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
32. Which of the following is the Phylum classification for humans?
A. Eukarya B. Animalia C. Chordata D. Mammalia E. Primates 33. What characteristics separate the Class Mammalia from other animals in the Phylum Chordata?
A. bipedal locomotion and an upright stance B. heterotrophic and multicellular C. a dorsal tubular nerve cord and notochord D. vertebrates with hair and mammary glands E. develop brain and tool use 34. On what basis was life divided into three domains?
A. rRNA sequence data B. cytochrome c sequence data C. mitochondrial DNA sequence data D. the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles
True / False Questions
35. To study recent evolutionary events, researchers use mitochondrial DNA sequences because mitochondrial DNA changes occur frequently. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
36. Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans?
A. monkeys B. lemurs C. tarsiers D. lorises 37. Which of the following is not a similarity between humans and apes?
A. three different types of cone cells B. opposable big toe C. powerful and precise grip D. smaller portion of the brain devoted to smell E. reduced reproductive rate 38. What happens in chimps and humans when the snout is shortened considerably?
A. The sense of smell is dramatically reduced. B. The eyes move to the front and allow for stereoscopic vision. C. This allows for the development of a chin. D. Canine teeth are lost. E. Vocalization becomes possible.
39. Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton?
A. The human foot has an arch while the ape foot does not. B. The human's femur angles inward to the knees while the ape's femur angles out a bit. C. The human spine is S-shaped while the ape spine has a slight curve. D. The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee. E. The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans but are free-floating in apes.
Yes / No Questions
40. Does the spine of both a human and chimpanzee exit the skull in the same manner? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Which term is used to include only the gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans and their closest extinct relatives?
A. anthropoid B. hominid C. hominine D. hominin E. homo 42. What relationship do humans have with apes?
A. They are our ancestors. B. We both share a common ancestor.
43. Which of the following is not an important anatomical features for determining if a fossil is a hominin?
A. absence of sharp canines B. bipedal posture C. flat face D. brain size E. absence of a chin 44. Place these in the correct order from least related to humans to most closely related to humans. 1. new world monkeys; 2. gibbons; 3. lemurs; 4. gorillas; 5. chimpanzees
A. 1,2,3,4,5 B. 3,1,2,4,5 C. 3,2,4,1,5 D. 2,4,3,1,5 E. 5,1,4,3,2 45. What is the earliest fossil hominin?
A. Sahelanthropus tchadensis B. Australopithecus robustus C. Australopithecus africanus D. Ardipithecus kadabba E. Ardipithecus ramidus 46. The first australopithecine fossils were unearthed in
A. Europe. B. North America. C. South America. D. Asia. E. Southern Africa.
True / False Questions
47. Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
48. Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecine?
A. walked on all fours, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs B. walked upright, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs C. walked on all fours, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs D. walked upright, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs 49. What were the two different types of australopithecines?
A. erect, knuckle-walker B. carnivorous, omnivorous C. arboreal, terrestrial D. gracile, robust E. hunting, gathering 50. Which of the following is not a species within the genus Homo?
A. Homo erectus B. Homo habilis C. Homo ramidus D. Homo sapiens E. Homo floresiensis
51. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning Homo habilis?
A. They had not yet developed tools. B. They have a brain size about 45% larger than A. afarensis. C. The cheek teeth are smaller than even those of the gracile australopithecines. D. The portions of the brain associated with speech were enlarged. E. They may have been the first to develop culture. 52. Which of the following is inconsistent with what is known about Homo erectus?
A. H. erectus walked erect and probably had a striding gait like ours. B. H. erectus had a larger brain and a flatter face than Homo habilis. C. H. erectus was much shorter than Homo species had been up to this time. D. H. erectus babies were born in an immature state that required an extended period of care. E. H. erectus fossils have been found in Africa, Asia, and Europe.
True / False Questions
53. Homo habilis was the first hominid to use fire. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. How does Homo erectus differ from Homo ergaster?
A. H. erectus evolved into H. ergaster and was supplanted by H. ergaster. B. The fossils looks very similar but H. erectus is an Asian form and H. ergaster is the African form. C. H. erectus essentially looks like modern humans while H. ergaster is very apelike. D. H. erectus and H. ergaster are identical except that H. erectus had tools and fire and H. ergaster did not. E. H. erectus walked upright whle H. ergaster still walked on all fours.
55. According to the multiregional continuity hypothesis, where did modern humans evolve?
A. Asia, Africa, and Europe B. North and South America C. Europe and North America D. only in Africa E. only in Asia
True / False Questions
56. In the out-of-Africa hypothesis, there was interbreeding between the ancestors of modern humans on three continents. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
57. According to the out-of-Africa hypotehsis, when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia?
A. 1000 years before present B. 10,000 years before present C. 100,000 years before present D. 1 million years before present E. 5 million years before present
58. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Neandertals?
A. They had massive brow ridges. B. They are considered H. sapiens. C. The pubic bone was long compared to ours. D. The brain size was larger than ours. E. They were heavily muscled.
True / False Questions
59. The oldest fossils to be designated Homo sapiens are the Cro-Magnons. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
60. According to Bergmann's rule,
A. hominins such as Cro-Magnons were capable of symbolic thinking because they buried their dead with flowers. B. plants and animals that live at the same time evolve together. C. animals in colder regions have bulkier body builds. D. variation exists because of genetic inheritance. E. the longer two populations have been separated, the more genetically disparate they will be.
Chapter 22 Human Evolution Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What is the name of the hypothesis that states that the very first living thing came from nonliving chemicals?
A. cell theory B. chemical evolution C. Darwinian evolution D. speciation E. organic chemistry Chemical evolution suggests that a complexity of chemicals produced the first cells on primitive Earth.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
True / False Questions
2.
The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today. TRUE The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today. It would have had little, if any, oxygen.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.01.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
3.
By 15 billion years ago, the solar system was in place. FALSE The solar system was in place 4.6 billion years ago. The Big Bang occurred 13.75 billion years ago.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
The early atmosphere of Earth consisted mainly of
A. hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. B. oxygen, water vapor, and carbon monoxide. C. water vapor, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide. D. hydrogen, carbon monoxide, nitrogen. E. water vapor, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide. The primitive atmosphere would have consisted mostly of water vapor, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide, with little, if any, oxygen.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.01.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
5.
Which of the following was not an energy source on early Earth?
A. volcanoes B. meteorites C. lightning D. ozone layer E. ultraviolet radiation All of the above were energy sources on the early Earth except for the ozone layer.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
6.
What was the energy source Miller used in his 1953 experiment to replicate Earth's early environment?
A. electric spark B. heat C. ultraviolet radiation D. gamma radiation E. sunlight Miller circulated a solution past an electrical spark to simulate the early Earth's conditions.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.01.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
True / False Questions
7.
Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution. FALSE Miller's experiment showed that inorganic chemicals may form organic molecules in the presence of a strong energy source, even if oxygen is not present.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22.01.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
Multiple Choice Questions
8.
What evidence contributed to the formulation of the RNA-first hypothesis?
A. RNA was formed in MIller's experiment. B. RNA continues to evolve chemically today. C. More primitive cells, such as archaea, use an RNA only information system. D. RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing. E. Protocells contain only RNA and lipids. When it was discovered that RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing, then researchers proposed that perhaps RNA could have carried out the processes of life commonly associated today with DNA and proteins.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.01.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
9.
Which piece of evidence would strongly support the RNA-first hypothesis?
A. finding a protocell that could carry on metabolism as well as reproduce B. discovering a way to make RNA more stable than DNA C. finding a mechanism whereby proteins could assemble DNA out of free nucleotides D. being able to build microspheres that contain only protein and RNA E. finding a living organism that uses RNA as its genetic material If scientists could find a living organism that uses RNA as its genetic material that would provide evidence for an RNA-first hypothesis.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.01.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
True / False Questions
10.
Both the RNA-first and the protein-first hypotheses must propose a manner for DNA to become the genetic material as it is today. TRUE How the first cell acquired both DNA and enzymatic proteins is an issue for both the RNA-first and the protein-first hypotheses.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life
Multiple Choice Questions
11.
Biological evolution is the process whereby
A. humans descended from apes. B. species change through time. C. living cells arose from nonliving chemicals. D. prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells. E. only the strongest survive. Biological evolution is defined as the processes whereby species changes through time.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
12.
What is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its environment?
A. culture B. selection C. analogy D. adaptation E. homology An adaptation is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its environment.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
True / False Questions
13.
There are two important aspects to biological evolution: descent from a common ancestor and the fossil record. FALSE Descent from a common ancestor and adaptation to the environment are the two important aspects of biological evolution.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
14.
According to the textbook, what evidence is the best evidence for biological evolution?
A. fossil record B. biogeographical evidence C. anatomical evidence D. biochemical evidence The fossil record provides the best evidence for evolution. These show actual remains of species that lived on Earth at least 10,000 years ago up to billions of years ago.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
15.
What type of rock preserves fossils well?
A. sedimentary rock B. igneous rock C. metamorphic rock Most fossils are found embedded in or recently eroded from sedimentary rock.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Yes / No Questions
16.
Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish? NO Usually the soft parts of an animal are consumed or decomposed and do not form fossils. Fossils of jellyfish are relatively rare.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
What is someone who searches for and researches fossils called?
A. entomologist B. physicist C. paleontologist D. geologist E. ecologist Paleontologists are researchers who search for and study fossils.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
18.
Which of the following statements concerning the order of evolving organisms is not true?
A. Unicellular eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes. B. Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants. C. Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants. D. Reptiles preceded the amphibians. E. Fishes evolved before terrestrial animals. Amphibians preceded the reptiles, including the dinosaurs.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
True / False Questions
19.
We do not have any fossils of unicellular prokaryotes. The first organisms to appear in the fossil record are unicellular eukaryotes. FALSE The first signs of life in the fossil record are unicellular prokaryotes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
20.
There are no transitional fossils between different groups. FALSE There are many transitional fossils that have characteristics of two different groups.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
21.
What did Darwin conclude from the observation that there are no rabbits in South America?
A. Rabbits cannot live in South America because it is too warm. B. Rabbits cannot live in South America because they do not have a good food source. C. Rabbits evolved somewhere else and had no means of reaching South America. D. Rabbits were originally found in South America but went extinct. E. Rabbits in South America evolved into guinea pigs and thus are no longer present. Darwin proposed that life-forms evolved in a particular locale before they spread out. Therefore, you would expect a different mix of plants and animals whenever geography separates continents, islands, or seas.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
22.
The fact that marsupials are not as diverse in South America as they are in Australia would be classified as what type of evidence for evolution?
A. biogeographical B. anatomical C. biochemical D. fossil record Biogeography is the study of the distribution of plants and animals in different places throughout the world.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
True / False Questions
23.
All vertebrate forelimbs are the same in that they are used for the same form of locomotion. FALSE Vertebrate forelimbs are used for flying, swimming, climbing, swinging, and running. They are all the same in that they have the same sets of bones organized in similar ways, despite their dissimilar functions.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
24.
Which of the following is not a vestigial structure?
A. pelvic girdle and legs in whales B. wings for flight in most birds C. piloerectors in humans D. pelvic girdle in snakes E. tailbone in humans Vestigial structures are anatomical features that are fully developed in one group of organisms but that are reduced and may have no function in similar groups. Wings for flight in most birds serve a function.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
True / False Questions
25.
Closer biochemical structures suggest a closer evolutionary relationship. TRUE This is the assumption behind biochemical evidence for evolution.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
What type of evidence for evolution would arise from a comparison of the DNA sequence of humans and monkeys?
A. biogeographical B. anatomical C. biochemical D. fossil record DNA base sequences and amino acid sequences of proteins are compared in biochemical evidence for evolution.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
27.
The wings of birds and insects are _____________ structures.
A. analogous B. homologous Analogous structures share the same function but are not constructed similarly and do not share a common ancestry.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02.03 Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
True / False Questions
28.
The flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird are homologous structures. TRUE These structures share the same pattern of bones because they are descendent from a common vertebrate ancestor.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.02.03 Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
29.
If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles, and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles, this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change?
A. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics This would support Jean-Baptist Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics. However, the evidence does not support this mechanism.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
30.
If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles, and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles, this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change?
A. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics This would support Jean-Baptist Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics. However, the evidence does not support this mechanism.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
True / False Questions
31.
Chinese cabbage, brussels sprouts, and kohlrabi are all derived from a single species via artificial selection. TRUE Humans help carry out artificial selection when they breed plants and animals and select for desired traits.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 22.02.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin
Multiple Choice Questions
32.
Which of the following is the Phylum classification for humans?
A. Eukarya B. Animalia C. Chordata D. Mammalia E. Primates Humans belong to the Phylum Chordata.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.03.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. Section: 22.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics
33.
What characteristics separate the Class Mammalia from other animals in the Phylum Chordata?
A. bipedal locomotion and an upright stance B. heterotrophic and multicellular C. a dorsal tubular nerve cord and notochord D. vertebrates with hair and mammary glands E. develop brain and tool use The Class Mammalia is characterized by vertebrates with hair and mammary glands.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.03.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. Section: 22.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics
34.
On what basis was life divided into three domains?
A. rRNA sequence data B. cytochrome c sequence data C. mitochondrial DNA sequence data D. the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles Life was divided into three domains on the basis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequence data.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.03.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. Section: 22.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics
True / False Questions
35.
To study recent evolutionary events, researchers use mitochondrial DNA sequences because mitochondrial DNA changes occur frequently. TRUE Mitochondrial DNA data are used to idetermine the evolutionary history of modern man.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22.03.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. Section: 22.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics
Multiple Choice Questions
36.
Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans?
A. monkeys B. lemurs C. tarsiers D. lorises Monkeys and apes are in the anthropoid group. The others are within the prosimian group.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.03.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates. Section: 22.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
37.
Which of the following is not a similarity between humans and apes?
A. three different types of cone cells B. opposable big toe C. powerful and precise grip D. smaller portion of the brain devoted to smell E. reduced reproductive rate Apes have an opposable big toe but humans do not.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.03.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates. Section: 22.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
38.
What happens in chimps and humans when the snout is shortened considerably?
A. The sense of smell is dramatically reduced. B. The eyes move to the front and allow for stereoscopic vision. C. This allows for the development of a chin. D. Canine teeth are lost. E. Vocalization becomes possible. With the shortening of the snout, the eyes can move to the front of the head. This allows for depth perception.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.03.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates. Section: 22.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
39.
Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton?
A. The human foot has an arch while the ape foot does not. B. The human's femur angles inward to the knees while the ape's femur angles out a bit. C. The human spine is S-shaped while the ape spine has a slight curve. D. The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee. E. The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans but are free-floating in apes. In both humans and apes the ribs attach to the vertebral column.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.03.03 Compare the structure of chimpanzee and human skeletons and list the adaptations in humans that make upright walking possible. Section: 22.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Yes / No Questions
40.
Does the spine of both a human and chimpanzee exit the skull in the same manner? NO The human spin exits from the skull's center while the ape spine exits from the rear of the skull.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.03.03 Compare the structure of chimpanzee and human skeletons and list the adaptations in humans that make upright walking possible. Section: 22.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Which term is used to include only the gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans and their closest extinct relatives?
A. anthropoid B. hominid C. hominine D. hominin E. homo The term hominine is now used to include only the gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans and their closest extinct relatives.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.04.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
42.
What relationship do humans have with apes?
A. They are our ancestors. B. We both share a common ancestor. One common misconception is that humans evolved from apes. This is not possible because we are living on Earth at the same time. Humans and apes are thought to have shared a common apelike ancestor.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.04.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
43.
Which of the following is not an important anatomical features for determining if a fossil is a hominin?
A. absence of sharp canines B. bipedal posture C. flat face D. brain size E. absence of a chin Hominins have a more pronounced chin than do apes because the human jaw is shorter than that of the apes.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.04.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
44.
Place these in the correct order from least related to humans to most closely related to humans. 1. new world monkeys; 2. gibbons; 3. lemurs; 4. gorillas; 5. chimpanzees
A. 1,2,3,4,5 B. 3,1,2,4,5 C. 3,2,4,1,5 D. 2,4,3,1,5 E. 5,1,4,3,2 The least related are the lemurs. This is followed by the new world monkeys and the gibbons. The gorillas are further from us than the chimpanzees.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.04.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
45.
What is the earliest fossil hominin?
A. Sahelanthropus tchadensis B. Australopithecus robustus C. Australopithecus africanus D. Ardipithecus kadabba E. Ardipithecus ramidus
Sahelanthropus tchadensis is dated from 7 MYA when the ape and human lineages split.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.04.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
46.
The first australopithecine fossils were unearthed in
A. Europe. B. North America. C. South America. D. Asia. E. Southern Africa. The first australopithecine to be discovered was unearthed in southern Africa by Raymond Dart in the 1920s.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.04.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
True / False Questions
47.
Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time. TRUE The term mosaic evolution is applied when different body parts change at different rates as is the case with humans.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.04.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Multiple Choice Questions
48.
Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecine?
A. walked on all fours, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs B. walked upright, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs C. walked on all fours, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs D. walked upright, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs Limb anatomy suggests that australopithecines walked upright. However, the proportions of the limbs are apelike in that the forelimbs are longer than the hindlimbs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.04.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
49.
What were the two different types of australopithecines?
A. erect, knuckle-walker B. carnivorous, omnivorous C. arboreal, terrestrial D. gracile, robust E. hunting, gathering Some australopithecines were slight and termed gracile, while others were more powerful and termed robust.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.04.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. Section: 22.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
50.
Which of the following is not a species within the genus Homo?
A. Homo erectus B. Homo habilis C. Homo ramidus D. Homo sapiens E. Homo floresiensis All are species within the genus except ramidus. The correct name is Ardipithicus ramidus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.05.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
51.
Which of the following is not a true statement concerning Homo habilis?
A. They had not yet developed tools. B. They have a brain size about 45% larger than A. afarensis. C. The cheek teeth are smaller than even those of the gracile australopithecines. D. The portions of the brain associated with speech were enlarged. E. They may have been the first to develop culture. The stone tools made by Homo habilis were rather crude, but they did exhibit tool use.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22.05.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
52.
Which of the following is inconsistent with what is known about Homo erectus?
A. H. erectus walked erect and probably had a striding gait like ours. B. H. erectus had a larger brain and a flatter face than Homo habilis. C. H. erectus was much shorter than Homo species had been up to this time. D. H. erectus babies were born in an immature state that required an extended period of care. E. H. erectus fossils have been found in Africa, Asia, and Europe.
H. erectus was much taller than the hominids that came before.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22.05.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
True / False Questions
53.
Homo habilis was the first hominid to use fire. FALSE
Homo erectus was the first hominid to use fire.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.05.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
How does Homo erectus differ from Homo ergaster?
A. H. erectus evolved into H. ergaster and was supplanted by H. ergaster. B. The fossils looks very similar but H. erectus is an Asian form and H. ergaster is the African form. C. H. erectus essentially looks like modern humans while H. ergaster is very apelike. D. H. erectus and H. ergaster are identical except that H. erectus had tools and fire and H. ergaster did not. E. H. erectus walked upright whle H. ergaster still walked on all fours. Although all fossils assigned the name H. erectus are similar in appearance, there are some slight differences. It has been proposed that the Asian form should be called H. erectus and the African form H. ergaster.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.05.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
55.
According to the multiregional continuity hypothesis, where did modern humans evolve?
A. Asia, Africa, and Europe B. North and South America C. Europe and North America D. only in Africa E. only in Asia The multiregional continuity hypothesis proposes that H. sapiens evolved separately in Asia, Africa, and Europe.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.05.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
True / False Questions
56.
In the out-of-Africa hypothesis, there was interbreeding between the ancestors of modern humans on three continents. FALSE This is a tenant of the multiregional continuity hypothesis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.05.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Multiple Choice Questions
57.
According to the out-of-Africa hypotehsis, when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia?
A. 1000 years before present B. 10,000 years before present C. 100,000 years before present D. 1 million years before present E. 5 million years before present According to the out-of-Africa proposal, H. sapiens evolved from H. erectus only in Africa and migrated to Europe and Asia about 100,000 years before present.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.05.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
58.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Neandertals?
A. They had massive brow ridges. B. They are considered H. sapiens. C. The pubic bone was long compared to ours. D. The brain size was larger than ours. E. They were heavily muscled. Neandertals are considered H. neandertalensis, not H. sapiens.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.05.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
True / False Questions
59.
The oldest fossils to be designated Homo sapiens are the Cro-Magnons. TRUE Cro-Magnons have a thoroughly modern appearance and are the oldest fossils to be designated H. sapiens.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.05.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Multiple Choice Questions
60.
According to Bergmann's rule,
A. hominins such as Cro-Magnons were capable of symbolic thinking because they buried their dead with flowers. B. plants and animals that live at the same time evolve together. C. animals in colder regions have bulkier body builds. D. variation exists because of genetic inheritance. E. the longer two populations have been separated, the more genetically disparate they will be. Bergmann's rule correlates body shape and environmental conditions. It states that animals in colder regions of their range have a bulkier body build.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.05.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons. Section: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation
Chapter 22 Human Evolution Summary Category
# of Questi ons
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
18
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
21
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
3
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
14
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
4
Learning Outcome: 22.01.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere.
4
Learning Outcome: 22.01.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet.
3
Learning Outcome: 22.01.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses.
3
Learning Outcome: 22.02.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution.
3
Learning Outcome: 22.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record, biogeography, and anatomical and biochemical evidence all su
13
pport the concept of biological evolution. Learning Outcome: 22.02.03 Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure.
2
Learning Outcome: 22.02.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution.
3
Learning Outcome: 22.03.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution.
4
Learning Outcome: 22.03.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates.
3
Learning Outcome: 22.03.03 Compare the structure of chimpanzee and human skeletons and list the adaptations in human
2
s that make upright walking possible. Learning Outcome: 22.04.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins.
5
Learning Outcome: 22.04.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution.
4
Learning Outcome: 22.05.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus.
5
Learning Outcome: 22.05.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-
3
Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. Learning Outcome: 22.05.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons.
3
Section: 22.01
10
Section: 22.02
21
Section: 22.03
9
Section: 22.04
9
Section: 22.05
11
Topic: Evolution--Darwin
21
Topic: Evolution--Speciation
25
Topic: Origins of Life
10
Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics
4
Chapter 23 Global Ecology and Human Interferences
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following defines an ecosystems?
A. a group of organisms of the same species interacting together B. all of the living organisms in an area interacting together C. all living organisms and the nonliving environment interacting together D. aspects of the nonliving environment interacting together E. all the places on Earth where living organisms can be found
True / False Questions
2.
The bottom of the ocean floor is not considered part of the biosphere because no sunlight reaches it. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
What two characteristics define a biome?
A. temperature and the types of plants found there B. amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there C. temperature and rainfall D. latitude and rainfall E. altitude and temperature
4.
The conditions that define a tropical grassland, such as a savanna, are
A. low to high temperatures and low annual rainfall. B. high temperatures and moderate/seasonal rainfall. C. low average temperature but moderate rainfall. D. high average temperature and large amounts of annual rainfall. E. low to high temperatures and large amounts of annual rainfall. 5.
What is another name for the taiga?
A. savanna B. tropical rain forest C. prairie D. coniferous forest E. tundra
True / False Questions
6.
The richest marine ecosystems are those in the open water where large fish abound. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
From the North Pole south, what is the first type of ecosystem encountered?
A. coniferous forests B. prairies C. temperate forests D. taiga E. tundra
8.
Which of the following is not an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
A. decomposers B. soil type C. amount of rainfall D. temperature E. amount of sunlight 9.
What is another name for autotrophs?
A. herbivores B. carnivores C. omnivores D. producers E. detritus feeders 10. Timothy has become a vegan. He does not eat any meat, eggs, milk, or cheese. How would Timothy be classified?
A. producer B. herbivore C. carnivore D. omnivore E. detritus feeder 11. What kind of an organism is an earthworm?
A. producer B. herbivore C. carnivore D. omnivore E. detritus feeder
True / False Questions
12. Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
13. What do autotrophs require in order to produce food for themselves and all the heterotrophs?
A. sunlight, inorganic nutrients B. sunlight, organic nutrients C. an energy source, water D. an energy source, inorganic nutrients E. heat, water 14. Which term is analogous to the word "niche"?
A. address B. job description C. properties D. needs E. desires
True / False Questions
15. To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem. True
False
16. Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
17. All of the energy in an ecosystem eventually becomes
A. sunlight. B. feces. C. heat. D. detritus. E. body mass. 18. How much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a carnivore?
A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 50% E. 90% 19. Which is the following functions of an herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore?
A. excretion B. defecation C. growth and reproduction D. cellular respiration E. death
True / False Questions
20. Almost 100% of the energy taken in by plants from the sun is available to an ecosystem. True
False
21. Life on Earth is dependent on a continued input of energy from the sun. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
22. What is at the beginning of a grazing food chain?
A. detritus B. earthworms C. beetles D. shrews E. leaves 23. What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain?
A. leaves B. detritus C. birds D. earthworms E. shrews 24. What does the word "trophic" mean?
A. energy B. niche C. web D. feeding E. biomass
True / False Questions
25. A detrital food web and a grazing food web are separate because each starts at a different level. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
26. If the first-level carnivores consumes 500 kg of herbivore tissue, how much is available to the second-level carnivores?
A. 500 kg B. 100 kg C. 50 kg D. 10 kg E. 5 kg 27. Which of the following organisms is a secondary consumer?
A. leaves B. caterpillars C. sparrows D. hawks 28. Which of the following is on the same trophic level as a rabbit?
A. deer B. snake C. fox D. hawk E. beetle
Yes / No Questions
29. Do all ecological pyramids actually look like a pyramid? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
30. What is the advantage of constructing an ecological pyramid based on biomass?
A. Aquatic ecosystem pyramids actually look like pyramids. B. Size of the various organisms is eliminated as a factor. C. This includes the detrital food web as well as the grazing food web in one pyramid. D. This takes into account nutrient cycling as well as energy flow. E. This eliminates the need to include producers in the pyramid.
True / False Questions
31. Most ecosystems contain quaternary consumers. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
32. Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is a sedimentary cycle?
A. carbon B. nitrogen C. phosphorus
True / False Questions
33. A biogeochemical cycle involves only the abiotic components of an ecosystem and describes how chemicals circulate through those components. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
34. The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle?
A. reservoir B. exchange pool C. biotic community 35. Minerals in rocks are considered what type of component of a chemical cycle?
A. reservoir B. exchange pool C. biotic community
Yes / No Questions
36. Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
37. What is the reservoir for the water cycle?
A. ocean B. lakes and rivers C. rainfall D. aquifers 38. Hail and snow are considered
A. evaporation. B. precipitation. C. runoff. D. transpiration. E. aquifers.
True / False Questions
39. When water evaporates from the ocean, it leaves the salts behind. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
40. What is the loss of water from plants called?
A. runoff B. precipitation C. evaporation D. transpiration E. transference
41. Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining?
A. aquifers B. standing water (lakes and ponds) C. groundwater table D. ocean E. runoff 42. Once of the consequences of building roads, parking lots, and buildings is
A. increased evaporation from the ocean. B. decreased precipitation over the oceans and the land. C. increased transpiration of plants in the vicinity. D. increased runoff into nearby streams, lakes, wetlands, or the ocean. E. a decrease in the level of the water table. 43. What is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle?
A. the ocean B. carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C. plants D. algae E. soil
True / False Questions
44. Organisms that live in an aquatic environment get their carbon from calcium carbonate shells on the bottom instead of from carbon dioxide in the environment. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
45. How is carbon dioxide made available to living organisms?
A. by breathing B. by cellular respiration C. by photosynthesis D. by combustion E. by decay 46. What is the direct source of carbon for algae?
A. calcium carbonate B. calcium chloride C. bicarbonate D. carbon dioxide E. carbon monoxide
True / False Questions
47. There is no reservoir of carbon for the carbon cycle. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
48. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A. oxygen B. carbon dioxide C. methane D. nitrous oxide E. hydrofluorocarbons
49. The ratio between the uptake of carbon dioxide by photosynthesis and the release of carbon dioxide by respiration is approximately
A. one (i.e., about the same). B. 2 (i.e., twice as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). C. 5 (i.e., five times as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). D. 0.5 (i.e., half as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). E. 0.1 (i.e., one tenth as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). 50. Which of the following is not an effect of global warming?
A. rise in sea level B. expansion of forests in the temperate zones C. melting of glaciers D. wetter coastal regions E. flooding of coastal agricultural land
True / False Questions
51. The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution. True
False
52. Water vapor contributes to global warming. True
False
53. There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. Which of the following is a legume involved in housing nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A. ferns B. oak trees C. grass D. beans E. roses 55. How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle?
A. Both are gaseous cycles. B. Both require photosynthesis to utilize the chemical. C. Both are lost to the atmosphere during cellular respiration. D. Both are stored in fossil fuels. E. Neither has a reservoir in nature. 56. What is involved in the process of denitrification?
A. conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonium B. conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrate C. conversion of ammonium to nitrate D. conversion of nitrite to nitrate E. conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas 57. How does phosphate enter the soil?
A. conversion in the atmosphere due to lightning B. precipitation from clouds C. weathering of rocks D. photosynthesis E. cellular respiration
True / False Questions
58. Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
59. Cultural eutrophication can be caused by
A. respiration and transpiration. B. mercury from industrial sources. C. bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste. D. detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants. E. biological magnification.
True / False Questions
60. Biological magnification occurs as organisms get larger due to increased water, air, and soil pollution. True
False
Chapter 23 Global Ecology and Human Interferences Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
Which of the following defines an ecosystems?
A. a group of organisms of the same species interacting together B. all of the living organisms in an area interacting together C. all living organisms and the nonliving environment interacting together D. aspects of the nonliving environment interacting together E. all the places on Earth where living organisms can be found Ecosystems are specific areas where organisms interact among themselves and with the physical and chemical environment.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
2.
The bottom of the ocean floor is not considered part of the biosphere because no sunlight reaches it. FALSE Any place where organisms are found on planet Earth is part of the biosphere.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
3.
What two characteristics define a biome?
A. temperature and the types of plants found there B. amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there C. temperature and rainfall D. latitude and rainfall E. altitude and temperature A biome is defined by the temperature and rainfall.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
4.
The conditions that define a tropical grassland, such as a savanna, are
A. low to high temperatures and low annual rainfall. B. high temperatures and moderate/seasonal rainfall. C. low average temperature but moderate rainfall. D. high average temperature and large amounts of annual rainfall. E. low to high temperatures and large amounts of annual rainfall. Tropical grasslands, such as savannas, have high temperatures and moderate/seasonal rainfall.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
5.
What is another name for the taiga?
A. savanna B. tropical rain forest C. prairie D. coniferous forest E. tundra The taiga is a type of coniferous forest.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
6.
The richest marine ecosystems are those in the open water where large fish abound. FALSE The richest marine ecosystems are those near the coasts. These are often called the nursery of the sea.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
From the North Pole south, what is the first type of ecosystem encountered?
A. coniferous forests B. prairies C. temperate forests D. taiga E. tundra The tundra is the frigid region bordering the North Pole.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
8.
Which of the following is not an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
A. decomposers B. soil type C. amount of rainfall D. temperature E. amount of sunlight Decomposers are living organisms, so they are not part of the abiotic component of an ecosystem.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
9.
What is another name for autotrophs?
A. herbivores B. carnivores C. omnivores D. producers E. detritus feeders Autotrophs are also called producers, because they produce their own food.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
10.
Timothy has become a vegan. He does not eat any meat, eggs, milk, or cheese. How would Timothy be classified?
A. producer B. herbivore C. carnivore D. omnivore E. detritus feeder Timothy is a herbivore, an organism that only eats plants or algae.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
11.
What kind of an organism is an earthworm?
A. producer B. herbivore C. carnivore D. omnivore E. detritus feeder An earthworm is a detritus feeder because it consumes decomposing particles of organic matter.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
12.
Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients. TRUE Decomposers release inorganic substances that are taken up by plants once more and reenter the biotic elements of an ecosystem.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
13.
What do autotrophs require in order to produce food for themselves and all the heterotrophs?
A. sunlight, inorganic nutrients B. sunlight, organic nutrients C. an energy source, water D. an energy source, inorganic nutrients E. heat, water Autotrophs require a source of energy, although not necessarily sunlight, and inorganic nutrients.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
14.
Which term is analogous to the word "niche"?
A. address B. job description C. properties D. needs E. desires A niche is the role of an organism in an ecosystem, analogous to its job description.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01.03 Define the term niche. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
15.
To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem. TRUE Descriptions of a niche include how an organism gets its food, so "producer" would be a niche description.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.03 Define the term niche. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
16.
Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem. FALSE Chemicals cycle through an ecosystem, but energy flows one way and is eventually lost.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
All of the energy in an ecosystem eventually becomes
A. sunlight. B. feces. C. heat. D. detritus. E. body mass. All of the energy of an ecosystem is eventually converted to heat that dissipates in the environment.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
18.
How much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a carnivore?
A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 50% E. 90% Only approximately 10% of the energy taken in by a herbivore is passed on to the carnivore. Therefore, approximately 90% of the energy is lost.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
19.
Which is the following functions of an herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore?
A. excretion B. defecation C. growth and reproduction D. cellular respiration E. death Growth and reproduction provide food energy for the carnivores. Death, excretion, and defecation provide food energy for the detritus feeders, and cellular respiration provides heat lost to the environment.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
20.
Almost 100% of the energy taken in by plants from the sun is available to an ecosystem. FALSE Only approximately 55% of the original energy absorbed by plants is available to an ecosystem.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
21.
Life on Earth is dependent on a continued input of energy from the sun. TRUE Because energy dissipates and is lost, life on Earth requires a continued input of energy from the sun.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
22.
What is at the beginning of a grazing food chain?
A. detritus B. earthworms C. beetles D. shrews E. leaves A grazing food chain begins with producers.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.02.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
23.
What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain?
A. leaves B. detritus C. birds D. earthworms E. shrews The second level would be an organism that feeds on detritus, such as an earthworm.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.02.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
24.
What does the word "trophic" mean?
A. energy B. niche C. web D. feeding E. biomass The word "trophic" meeds feeding. Things on the same trophic level play the same role (producers, primary consumers, etc.).
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.02.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
25.
A detrital food web and a grazing food web are separate because each starts at a different level. FALSE Detrital and grazing food webs are connected because members of detrital food webs may become food for aboveground carnivores.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.02.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
26.
If the first-level carnivores consumes 500 kg of herbivore tissue, how much is available to the second-level carnivores?
A. 500 kg B. 100 kg C. 50 kg D. 10 kg E. 5 kg The so-called 10% rule states that only about 10% of the energy of one trophic level is available to the next trophic level.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
27.
Which of the following organisms is a secondary consumer?
A. leaves B. caterpillars C. sparrows D. hawks The sparrows are the secondary consumer. The caterpillars are the primary consumer.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
28.
Which of the following is on the same trophic level as a rabbit?
A. deer B. snake C. fox D. hawk E. beetle A deer is on the same trophic level because a deer is also a primary consumer.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Yes / No Questions
29.
Do all ecological pyramids actually look like a pyramid? NO No, because in some instances, such as aquatic ecosystems, the herbivores may have greater biomass than the producers. The algae are producers and they reproduce rapidly but are also consumed at a high rate.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
30.
What is the advantage of constructing an ecological pyramid based on biomass?
A. Aquatic ecosystem pyramids actually look like pyramids. B. Size of the various organisms is eliminated as a factor. C. This includes the detrital food web as well as the grazing food web in one pyramid. D. This takes into account nutrient cycling as well as energy flow. E. This eliminates the need to include producers in the pyramid. This eliminates size as a factor because biomass is the number of organisms multiplied by the weight of organic matter contained in one organism.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
31.
Most ecosystems contain quaternary consumers. FALSE Very few ecosystems contain quaternary consumers because there is just not enough energy left by the time an organism gets to that trophic level.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
32.
Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is a sedimentary cycle?
A. carbon B. nitrogen C. phosphorus The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle because phosphorus is absorbed from the soil by plants.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
33.
A biogeochemical cycle involves only the abiotic components of an ecosystem and describes how chemicals circulate through those components. FALSE A biogeochemical cycle involves not only the abiotic, but the biotic components of an ecosystem.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
34.
The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle?
A. reservoir B. exchange pool C. biotic community An exchange pool is a source from which organisms generally take chemicals, such as the atmosphere or soil.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
35.
Minerals in rocks are considered what type of component of a chemical cycle?
A. reservoir B. exchange pool C. biotic community A reservoir is a source normally unavailable to producers, such as minerals in rocks or calcium carbonate shells on ocean bottoms.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 23.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Yes / No Questions
36.
Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities? YES Human activities remove chemicals from reservoirs and exchange pools and make them available to the biotic community. In this way the biogeochemical cycles are upset.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
37.
What is the reservoir for the water cycle?
A. ocean B. lakes and rivers C. rainfall D. aquifers The ocean is the source of water for Earth.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
38.
Hail and snow are considered
A. evaporation. B. precipitation. C. runoff. D. transpiration. E. aquifers. Water that falls from the clouds over Earth is known as precipitation, even if it is not in liquid form.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
39.
When water evaporates from the ocean, it leaves the salts behind. TRUE Water that evaporates from the ocean leaves the salts behind, resulting in freshwater precipitation over land.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
40.
What is the loss of water from plants called?
A. runoff B. precipitation C. evaporation D. transpiration E. transference Transpiration is the evaporation of water from plants.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
41.
Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining?
A. aquifers B. standing water (lakes and ponds) C. groundwater table D. ocean E. runoff Groundwater mining is the withdrawal of water from aquifers.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
42.
Once of the consequences of building roads, parking lots, and buildings is
A. increased evaporation from the ocean. B. decreased precipitation over the oceans and the land. C. increased transpiration of plants in the vicinity. D. increased runoff into nearby streams, lakes, wetlands, or the ocean. E. a decrease in the level of the water table. Clearing vegetation from land and building on it prevents percolation and increases runoff of water into nearby streams, lakes, wetlands, or the ocean.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
43.
What is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle?
A. the ocean B. carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C. plants D. algae E. soil Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
44.
Organisms that live in an aquatic environment get their carbon from calcium carbonate shells on the bottom instead of from carbon dioxide in the environment. FALSE Both terrestrial and aquatic organisms get their carbon from carbon dioxide in the environment.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
45.
How is carbon dioxide made available to living organisms?
A. by breathing B. by cellular respiration C. by photosynthesis D. by combustion E. by decay Photosynthesis allows producers to incorporate carbon into nutrients used by autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
46.
What is the direct source of carbon for algae?
A. calcium carbonate B. calcium chloride C. bicarbonate D. carbon dioxide E. carbon monoxide Carbon dioxide from the air combines with water to produce bicarbonate ion that is the source of carbon for algae.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
47.
There is no reservoir of carbon for the carbon cycle. FALSE Reservoirs for carbon include living and dead organisms, such as trees and fossil fuels.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
48.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A. oxygen B. carbon dioxide C. methane D. nitrous oxide E. hydrofluorocarbons Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
49.
The ratio between the uptake of carbon dioxide by photosynthesis and the release of carbon dioxide by respiration is approximately
A. one (i.e., about the same). B. 2 (i.e., twice as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). C. 5 (i.e., five times as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). D. 0.5 (i.e., half as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). E. 0.1 (i.e., one tenth as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). The transfer rates of these two is about even.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
50.
Which of the following is not an effect of global warming?
A. rise in sea level B. expansion of forests in the temperate zones C. melting of glaciers D. wetter coastal regions E. flooding of coastal agricultural land Dryer inland conditions will result in the loss of forests in the temperate zones.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
51.
The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution. TRUE Although this does not sound like a large increase, this much increase causes significant changes on Earth.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
52.
Water vapor contributes to global warming. TRUE Water vapor forms clouds that reradiate heat back to Earth.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
53.
There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen. TRUE Nitrogen gas makes up about 78% of the atmosphere.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
Which of the following is a legume involved in housing nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A. ferns B. oak trees C. grass D. beans E. roses Beans are a type of legume that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
55.
How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle?
A. Both are gaseous cycles. B. Both require photosynthesis to utilize the chemical. C. Both are lost to the atmosphere during cellular respiration. D. Both are stored in fossil fuels. E. Neither has a reservoir in nature. Both the nitrogen and the carbon cycles are gaseous cycles.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.03.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
56.
What is involved in the process of denitrification?
A. conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonium B. conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrate C. conversion of ammonium to nitrate D. conversion of nitrite to nitrate E. conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas Denitrification is the conversion of nitrate back to nitrogen gas, which enters the atmosphere.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
57.
How does phosphate enter the soil?
A. conversion in the atmosphere due to lightning B. precipitation from clouds C. weathering of rocks D. photosynthesis E. cellular respiration The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle in which the slow weathering of rocks places phosphate ions in the soil.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
58.
Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins. FALSE Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is part of phospholipids, ATP, DNA, and RNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Multiple Choice Questions
59.
Cultural eutrophication can be caused by
A. respiration and transpiration. B. mercury from industrial sources. C. bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste. D. detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants. E. biological magnification. Cultural eutrophication is due to an increase in the supply of phosphate and nitrogen in water.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
True / False Questions
60.
Biological magnification occurs as organisms get larger due to increased water, air, and soil pollution. FALSE Biological magnification occurs as toxic chemicals pass along a food chain and become increasingly concentrated with each higher consumer level.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
Chapter 23 Global Ecology and Human Interferences Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
17
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
26
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
4
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
11
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
2
Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere.
7
Learning Outcome: 23.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem.
6
Learning Outcome: 23.01.03 Define the term niche.
2
Learning Outcome: 23.01.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem.
6
Learning Outcome: 23.02.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web.
4
Learning Outcome: 23.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass
6
at each level. Learning Outcome: 23.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary.
5
Learning Outcome: 23.03.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle.
6
Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle.
10
Learning Outcome: 23.03.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this
4
cycle. Learning Outcome: 23.03.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication.
4
Section: 23.01
21
Section: 23.02
10
Section: 23.03
29
Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems
60
Chapter 24 Human Population, Planetary Resources, and Conservation
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What is the current world's population?
A. almost 1 billion people B. almost 3 billion people C. almost 5 billion people D. almost 7 billion people E. almost 10 billion people 2.
What is the definition of biotic potential?
A. a relatively slow (lag) population growth B. maximum growth rate under ideal conditions C. maximum population the environment can sustain D. the birthrate or natality E. the deathrate or mortality
True / False Questions
3.
The carrying capacity of Earth for humans is approximately 8 billion people. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
How is the growth rate of a population determined?
A. birth rate B. death rate C. birth rate minus death rate D. birth rate times death rate E. birth rate divided by death rate 5.
If the birthrate is 22 per 1000 per year and the death rate is 8 per 1000 per year, what is the population growth rate?
A. 2.2% B. 0.8% C. 1.4% D. 14% E. 22%
True / False Questions
6.
Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people). True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
In order to have a negative population growth rate,
A. the birthrate must exceed the death rate. B. the biotic potential of the population must increase. C. the death rate must exceed the birth rate. D. the carrying capacity for the population must increase. E. only replacement reproduction can occur.
8.
Currently the world population growth is at 1.2%. If the birthrate is 19.86 per 1000 (2009 estimate), what is the death rate?
A. 19.86 B. 7.86 C. 12 D. 1.2 E. 78.6
True / False Questions
9.
The more-developed countries have typically always had low population increases. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
10. What does the population growth for the United States look like?
A. increasing B. decreasing C. leveling off 11. The population growth in less-developed countries is
A. modestly increasing. B. dramatically increasing. C. negative. D. leveling off.
12. What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why?
A. It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war. B. It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war. C. It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine. D. It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II.
True / False Questions
13. More women in the LDCs are entering the reproductive years than older women are leaving them. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
14. The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like
A. a pyramid. B. an inverted pyramid. C. a rectangle. 15. If there are more women in the postreproductive years than in the reproductive years, and more women in the reproductive years than in the prereproductive years, what does the age structure diagram look like?
A. a pyramid B. an inverted pyramid C. a rectangle
True / False Questions
16. If each couple only has two children, zero population growth will take place immediately. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
17. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A. land B. solar energy C. fossil fuels D. minerals 18. Define an ecological footprint.
A. the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs B. the amount of food a person needs to eat C. the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs D. the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live E. the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs 19. Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint?
A. drive an energy-efficient car B. eat more beef C. live in a smaller home D. turn down the thermostat in the winter E. do not water the lawn
True / False Questions
20. At least 40% of the world population lives within 100 km (60 miles) of a coastline. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. Which of the following is not an issue for coastal areas?
A. loss of habitat for organisms B. loss of buffer zone for storms C. desertification D. pollution E. erosion 22. How much of Earth's land mass is already desert?
A. 1% B. 10% C. 40% D. 50% E. 65%
True / False Questions
23. The soil in the tropics is very rich and fertile and makes excellent land for agriculture. True
False
24. It is considered a human right for people to have clean drinking water. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
25. Most of the freshwater in the world is used for
A. drinking. B. bathing. C. irrigation. D. watering lawns. E. industrial needs.
True / False Questions
26. Overall, there is not enough water on the face of the Earth to meet the human population needs for water. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. Which of the following is considered a benefit of a dam?
A. electricity use B. alter river flow C. loss of water by evaporation D. seepage into underlying rock beds E. sediment buildup
28. Which of the following is not associated with groundwater depletion?
A. subsidence B. sinkholes C. saltwater intrusion D. lowering of the water table E. sediment buildup 29. Which of the following is not a harmful practice of modern farming?
A. heavy use of pesticides and herbicides B. polyculture planting C. heavy use of fertilizers D. generous irrigation E. increased fuel consumption
True / False Questions
30. Planting the same crop in straight rows prevents soil erosion. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
31. How many more people could be fed on grain than on meat?
A. 20 times B. 10 times C. 5 times D. 3 times E. 2 times
True / False Questions
32. "Green revolution" plants caused many ecological problems. True
False
33. In MDCs, many people do not eat enough protein. True
False
34. One of the best things you can do personally to help the environment is to cut down on your consumption of meat. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. What do hydropower and wind power have in common?
A. Both require the building of dams. B. Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions. C. Both are renewable energy sources. D. Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels. E. Both require the use of photovoltaic cells. 36. Wind is to a wind farm as what is to hydropower?
A. falling water B. solar energy C. hydrogen gas D. steam E. hot salt
37. Minerals are what type of resource?
A. renewable B. nonrenewable 38. What organization oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste sites in the United States?
A. NIH B. NSF C. USDA D. EPA E. USGS 39. Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish?
A. herbicide contamination B. mercury contamination C. pesticide contamination D. lead contamination E. PCB contamination 40. Which organism is more likely to suffer due to biological magnification?
A. earthworm B. caterpillar C. minnow D. pelican E. algae
True / False Questions
41. Decorative plants and exotic pets often suffer from overexploitation. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
42. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to the loss of biodiversity?
A. alien species B. increased carrying capacity C. pollution D. overexploitation E. disease 43. Which of the following is an alien species that has invaded the United States?
A. bass B. oak trees C. wolves D. kudzu E. buffalo
True / False Questions
44. Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
45. Which of the following is an indirect, as opposed to a direct, value of biodiversity?
A. medical use B. food C. consumptive use D. ecotourism 46. What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common?
A. They are all involved with the biogeochemical cycles. B. They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems. C. They provide pleasure and relaxation for humans. D. They all depend on an individual species. E. They all undo some harm that humans have done. 47. Which of the following would be an example of an organism that provides direct benefit by consumptive use value?
A. armadillos B. rosy periwinkle C. wheat D. rice E. trees 48. Which of the following medicinal value pairings is mismatched?
A. rosy periwinkle--leukemia B. armadillo--leprosy C. viruses--antibiotics D. fungus--penicillin E. horseshoe crabs--limulus amoebocyte lysate
Yes / No Questions
49. Is it important to save the wild relatives of our current crop plants, even at great cost? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
50. Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true?
A. Globally, they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide. B. They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and airconditioning. C. In forests, they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater. D. They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes. E. They retain soil and prevent soil erosion.
True / False Questions
51. A sustainable society is one that provides all of the goods and services desired by humans. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
52. Which of the following would not be considered an unsustainable practice of society?
A. reduction in population growth rate B. eating more meat than vegetables C. using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes D. using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides E. deforestation and desertification
True / False Questions
53. The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overconsumption. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
54. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society?
A. multi-use farming B. integrated pest management C. mass transit D. draining of wetlands for housing E. recycling and composting 55. How long does it take for a plastic grocery bag to degrade?
A. 1-2 weeks B. 1-2 months C. a year D. 10-20 years E. more than 50 years 56. Which of the following is an urban, not a rural, sustainability plan?
A. use low-flow or trickle irrigation B. plant cover crops C. use green roofs D. use integrated pest management E. plant multipurpose trees
57. Which of the following is not a sustainability practice designed to conserve water?
A. use sediment traps for storm drains B. use low-flow or trickle irrigation C. build retention ponds D. use nonporous surfaces for parking lots E. use green roofs
True / False Questions
58. When calculating the gross national product, economists consider whether an activity is environmentally harmful. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
59. Which of the following criteria of value are mismatched?
A. cultural value--language and history B. option value--preserving for the future C. educational value--experience of nature D. aesthetic value--agricultural use E. use value--entrance fees
True / False Questions
60. Measures that include noneconomic indicators are most likely better at revealing our quality of life than is the gross national product. True
False
Chapter 24 Human Population, Planetary Resources, and Conservation Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
What is the current world's population?
A. almost 1 billion people B. almost 3 billion people C. almost 5 billion people D. almost 7 billion people E. almost 10 billion people The current world's population is almost 7 billion people.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to human population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
2.
What is the definition of biotic potential?
A. a relatively slow (lag) population growth B. maximum growth rate under ideal conditions C. maximum population the environment can sustain D. the birthrate or natality E. the deathrate or mortality Biotic potential is the maximum growth rate under ideal conditions.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to human population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
True / False Questions
3.
The carrying capacity of Earth for humans is approximately 8 billion people. FALSE The carrying capacity of Earth for humans has not been determined. Some estimate it may be 50-100 billion people. Others believe we have already exceeded it.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to human population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
Multiple Choice Questions
4.
How is the growth rate of a population determined?
A. birth rate B. death rate C. birth rate minus death rate D. birth rate times death rate E. birth rate divided by death rate The growth rate of a population is determined by considering the difference between the number of persons born per year and the number who die per year.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate, death rate, and the annual growth rate of a population. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
5.
If the birthrate is 22 per 1000 per year and the death rate is 8 per 1000 per year, what is the population growth rate?
A. 2.2% B. 0.8% C. 1.4% D. 14% E. 22% The growth rate is 22-8 divided by 1000 times 100 or 1.4%.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate, death rate, and the annual growth rate of a population. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
True / False Questions
6.
Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people). FALSE Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as per 1000 people.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate, death rate, and the annual growth rate of a population. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
Multiple Choice Questions
7.
In order to have a negative population growth rate,
A. the birthrate must exceed the death rate. B. the biotic potential of the population must increase. C. the death rate must exceed the birth rate. D. the carrying capacity for the population must increase. E. only replacement reproduction can occur. In order for the growth rate to be negative, the death rate must be larger than the birthrate.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate, death rate, and the annual growth rate of a population. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
8.
Currently the world population growth is at 1.2%. If the birthrate is 19.86 per 1000 (2009 estimate), what is the death rate?
A. 19.86 B. 7.86 C. 12 D. 1.2 E. 78.6 The death rate must be 7.86. 19.86-17.86=12, divided by 1000, times 100 = 1.2%.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate, death rate, and the annual growth rate of a population. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
True / False Questions
9.
The more-developed countries have typically always had low population increases. FALSE The more-developed countries did not always have low population increases. Between 1850 and 1950, they doubled their populations.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
Multiple Choice Questions
10.
What does the population growth for the United States look like?
A. increasing B. decreasing C. leveling off The population of the United States continues to increase. Much of the continued population growth is due to immigration.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
11.
The population growth in less-developed countries is
A. modestly increasing. B. dramatically increasing. C. negative. D. leveling off. The population growth in less-developed countries is dramatically increasing.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
12.
What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why?
A. It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war. B. It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war. C. It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine. D. It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II. The death rate in LDCs decreased following WWII because of the introduction of modern medicine.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
True / False Questions
13.
More women in the LDCs are entering the reproductive years than older women are leaving them. TRUE This is why LDCs are experiencing a population momentum.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
Multiple Choice Questions
14.
The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like
A. a pyramid. B. an inverted pyramid. C. a rectangle. The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like a rectangle because there are approximately the same number of women in the prereproductive, reproductive, and postreproductive years.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
15.
If there are more women in the postreproductive years than in the reproductive years, and more women in the reproductive years than in the prereproductive years, what does the age structure diagram look like?
A. a pyramid B. an inverted pyramid C. a rectangle The age structure diagram would look like an inverted pyramid because the postreproductive years are on top, the reproductive years are in the middle, and the prereproductive years are at the bottom.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
True / False Questions
16.
If each couple only has two children, zero population growth will take place immediately. FALSE This is called replacement reproduction and will not have the desired effect because in the LDCs more young women are entering the reproductive years than older women leaving them.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology
Multiple Choice Questions
17.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A. land B. solar energy C. fossil fuels D. minerals Renewable resources are capable of being naturally replenished. Solar energy is an example.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
18.
Define an ecological footprint.
A. the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs B. the amount of food a person needs to eat C. the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs D. the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live E. the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs An ecological footprint involves all of the resources, food, water, land, energy, and minerals, a person uses to meet their needs.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
19.
Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint?
A. drive an energy-efficient car B. eat more beef C. live in a smaller home D. turn down the thermostat in the winter E. do not water the lawn Eating vegetables as opposed to beef utilizes fewer resources and reduces your ecological footprint.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.02.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
20.
At least 40% of the world population lives within 100 km (60 miles) of a coastline. TRUE This leads to significant environmental issues and the numbers are expected to increase.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
21.
Which of the following is not an issue for coastal areas?
A. loss of habitat for organisms B. loss of buffer zone for storms C. desertification D. pollution E. erosion Desertification is the conversion of semiarid land to desertlike conditions. This is not a problem in coastal regions although all of the others are.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
22.
How much of Earth's land mass is already desert?
A. 1% B. 10% C. 40% D. 50% E. 65% 40% of Earth's lands are already deserts.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
23.
The soil in the tropics is very rich and fertile and makes excellent land for agriculture. FALSE The soil in the tropics is often thin and nutrient-poor because all the nutrients are tied up in the trees and other vegetation.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
24.
It is considered a human right for people to have clean drinking water. TRUE This is considered one of the basic human rights.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
25.
Most of the freshwater in the world is used for
A. drinking. B. bathing. C. irrigation. D. watering lawns. E. industrial needs. Worldwide, 70% of freshwater is used to irrigate crops.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02
Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
26.
Overall, there is not enough water on the face of the Earth to meet the human population needs for water. FALSE The needs of the human population overall do not exceed the renewable supply. However, this is not the case in certain regions.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
Which of the following is considered a benefit of a dam?
A. electricity use B. alter river flow C. loss of water by evaporation D. seepage into underlying rock beds E. sediment buildup Some 65 countries obtain over half of their electricity from dams.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
28.
Which of the following is not associated with groundwater depletion?
A. subsidence B. sinkholes C. saltwater intrusion D. lowering of the water table E. sediment buildup Sediment buildup is a problem associated with dams, not with groundwater depletion.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
29.
Which of the following is not a harmful practice of modern farming?
A. heavy use of pesticides and herbicides B. polyculture planting C. heavy use of fertilizers D. generous irrigation E. increased fuel consumption Polyculture, the planting of two or more different crops in the same area, is a helpful farming practice.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
30.
Planting the same crop in straight rows prevents soil erosion. FALSE This type of farming, which allows the use of large farming machines, leads to one of the highest rates of soil erosion.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
31.
How many more people could be fed on grain than on meat?
A. 20 times B. 10 times C. 5 times D. 3 times E. 2 times Ten times as many people could be fed on grain as on meat.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
32.
"Green revolution" plants caused many ecological problems. TRUE Green revolution plants are called high responders because they need high levels of fertilizer, water, and pesticides to produce a high yield.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
33.
In MDCs, many people do not eat enough protein. FALSE In MDCs, many people have more than enough protein in their diets.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
34.
One of the best things you can do personally to help the environment is to cut down on your consumption of meat. TRUE Raising livestock accounts for many of the environmental problems associated with farming. Consuming less meat reduces those concerns.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
35.
What do hydropower and wind power have in common?
A. Both require the building of dams. B. Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions. C. Both are renewable energy sources. D. Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels. E. Both require the use of photovoltaic cells. Both hydropower and wind power are types of renewable energy.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
36.
Wind is to a wind farm as what is to hydropower?
A. falling water B. solar energy C. hydrogen gas D. steam E. hot salt Wind is what generates the energy in a wind farm and falling water is what generates energy in hydropower.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
37.
Minerals are what type of resource?
A. renewable B. nonrenewable Minerals are nonrenewable raw materials in the Earth's crust.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and energy.
Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
38.
What organization oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste sites in the United States?
A. NIH B. NSF C. USDA D. EPA E. USGS The Environmental Protection Agency, EPA, oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste disposal sites in the US.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.03 Provide an example of biological magnification. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
39.
Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish?
A. herbicide contamination B. mercury contamination C. pesticide contamination D. lead contamination E. PCB contamination The EPA recommends that pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish due to the presence of mercury contamination from coal burning, mining, and incineration of medical waste.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.02.03 Provide an example of biological magnification. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
40.
Which organism is more likely to suffer due to biological magnification?
A. earthworm B. caterpillar C. minnow D. pelican E. algae Top predators, such as predatory birds like pelicans, are more likely to suffer from biological magnification.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.02.03 Provide an example of biological magnification. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
41.
Decorative plants and exotic pets often suffer from overexploitation. TRUE Many of these are taken illegally and populations of these are declining.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.03.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
42.
Which of the following is not a factor contributing to the loss of biodiversity?
A. alien species B. increased carrying capacity C. pollution D. overexploitation E. disease All of these contribute to loss of biodiversity except for increased carrying capacity. Loss of habitat results in decreased carrying capacity.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
43.
Which of the following is an alien species that has invaded the United States?
A. bass B. oak trees C. wolves D. kudzu E. buffalo Kudzu is a vine from Japan imported to help prevent soil erosion. It now covers much of the South.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.03.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
44.
Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource. FALSE Fish are a renewable resource if harvesting does not exceed the ability of the fish to reproduce.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
45.
Which of the following is an indirect, as opposed to a direct, value of biodiversity?
A. medical use B. food C. consumptive use D. ecotourism Ecotourism is a type of indirect value of biodiversity.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
46.
What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common?
A. They are all involved with the biogeochemical cycles. B. They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems. C. They provide pleasure and relaxation for humans. D. They all depend on an individual species. E. They all undo some harm that humans have done. Ecosystems provide many useful services for modern humans. Our very survival depends on the functions that ecosystems perform for us.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.03.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
47.
Which of the following would be an example of an organism that provides direct benefit by consumptive use value?
A. armadillos B. rosy periwinkle C. wheat D. rice E. trees Many trees are still felled in the natural environment for their wood.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
48.
Which of the following medicinal value pairings is mismatched?
A. rosy periwinkle--leukemia B. armadillo--leprosy C. viruses--antibiotics D. fungus--penicillin E. horseshoe crabs--limulus amoebocyte lysate Various bacteria, not viruses, are the source of certain antibiotics such as tetracycline and streptomycin.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
Yes / No Questions
49.
Is it important to save the wild relatives of our current crop plants, even at great cost? YES If our genetically similar (monoculture) crops were infected with a new disease, they may be decimated. Wild relatives of these current crop plants could provide genes that conveyed resistance to the new disease.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.03.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
50.
Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true?
A. Globally, they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide. B. They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and airconditioning. C. In forests, they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater. D. They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes. E. They retain soil and prevent soil erosion. Decomposers, not trees, break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.03.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
51.
A sustainable society is one that provides all of the goods and services desired by humans. FALSE A sustainable society is able to provide the same amount of goods and services for future generations as it does at present.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
52.
Which of the following would not be considered an unsustainable practice of society?
A. reduction in population growth rate B. eating more meat than vegetables C. using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes D. using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides E. deforestation and desertification A reduction in population growth rate would lead to a sustainable society.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24.04.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
53.
The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overconsumption. FALSE The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overpopulation.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.04.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
54.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society?
A. multi-use farming B. integrated pest management C. mass transit D. draining of wetlands for housing E. recycling and composting Wetlands need to be restored and preserved, not drained.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
55.
How long does it take for a plastic grocery bag to degrade?
A. 1-2 weeks B. 1-2 months C. a year D. 10-20 years E. more than 50 years Plastic grocery bags may take 10-20 years to degrade so one of the things you can do to help is to use cloth or mesh bags for groceries.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.04.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
56.
Which of the following is an urban, not a rural, sustainability plan?
A. use low-flow or trickle irrigation B. plant cover crops C. use green roofs D. use integrated pest management E. plant multipurpose trees Green roofs are a suggestion for urban settings. Green roofs involve planting a wild garden on tops of buildings.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
57.
Which of the following is not a sustainability practice designed to conserve water?
A. use sediment traps for storm drains B. use low-flow or trickle irrigation C. build retention ponds D. use nonporous surfaces for parking lots E. use green roofs Porous surfaces for parking lots will allow these surfaces to reflect less heat and soak up rainwater runoff.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
58.
When calculating the gross national product, economists consider whether an activity is environmentally harmful.
FALSE The gross national product considers the total costs of all manufacturing, production, and services, but it does not necessarily consider whether an activity is environmentally harmful.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.04.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
59.
Which of the following criteria of value are mismatched?
A. cultural value--language and history B. option value--preserving for the future C. educational value--experience of nature D. aesthetic value--agricultural use E. use value--entrance fees Aesthetic value is appreciating an area or creature for its beauty and/or contribution to biodiversity, not for its use as food.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24.04.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
True / False Questions
60.
Measures that include noneconomic indicators are most likely better at revealing our quality of life than is the gross national product. TRUE The index of sustainable economic welfare does take into account other forms of value and attempts to consider the quality of life.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.04.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology
Chapter 24 Human Population, Planetary Resources, and Conservation Summary Category
# of Questio ns
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
18
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
24
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
7
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
5
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
6
Learning Outcome: 24.01.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to h
3
uman population growth. Learning Outcome: 24.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate, death rate, and the annual growth rate of a popula
5
tion. Learning Outcome: 24.01.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-
8
developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Learning Outcome: 24.02.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each.
3
Learning Outcome: 24.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land, water, food, and ener
18
gy. Learning Outcome: 24.02.03 Provide an example of biological magnification.
3
Learning Outcome: 24.03.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis.
4
Learning Outcome: 24.03.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity.
3
Learning Outcome: 24.03.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity.
3
Learning Outcome: 24.04.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society.
4
Learning Outcome: 24.04.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments.
3
Learning Outcome: 24.04.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life.
3
Section: 24.01
16
Section: 24.02
24
Section: 24.03
10
Section: 24.04
10
Topic: Conservation Biology
44
Topic: Population Ecology
16
Infectious Diseases Supplement
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
If an epidemic is confined to a local area, it is usually called
A. an opportunistic infection. B. a pandemic. C. an outbreak. D. a slow infection. E. a chronic infection. 2.
HIV/AIDS and tuberculosis are both examples of current
A. outbreaks. B. epidemics. C. pandemics. D. opportunistic infections. E. acute infections.
True / False Questions
3.
A disease is called an epidemic if people all over the world have the same disease. True
False
Yes / No Questions
4.
There are normally 1-2 cases of measles per month in a particular city. However, in the month of September, there were 15 cases. Is this an epidemic? Yes
No
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
What type of cells does HIV infect?
A. helper T cells B. B cells C. liver cells D. epithelial cells E. basophils 6.
How does HIV know what cells to infect?
A. It can infect any cell it comes in contact with. B. It can only infect cells on the surface of the body where the temperature is lower. C. It can only infect cells that are actively growing and dividing. D. It infects cells with a particular surface receptor. E. It only infects cells with that line the reproductive tract. 7.
When was the first documented case of AIDS in the United States?
A. 1884 B. 1924 C. 1959 D. 1969 E. 1982
8.
In which phase of an HIV infection is the person typically asymptomatic?
A. acute phase (A) B. chronic phase (B) C. AIDS (C) 9.
Why would an HIV test be negative within the first 2-3 weeks of an HIV infection?
A. because there is no HIV virus in the blood B. because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood C. because there are no symptoms D. because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm3 E. because there are no opportunistic infections yet 10. Patient X has 150 CD4 T-cells per mm3. What phase of an HIV infection is this patient in?
A. acute phase (A) B. chronic phase (B) C. AIDS (C)
True / False Questions
11. The vast majority of new HIV infections are in people under the age of 15. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
12. Which of the following diseases is categorized as an opportunistic infection found in AIDS patients?
A. prolonged diarrhea B. yeast infections of the mouth or vagina C. cervical dysplasia D. shingles E. Kaposi's sarcoma
True / False Questions
13. Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
14. In the "kitchen-sink model" for AIDS, what does the sink's drain represent?
A. the destruction of CD4 T-cells by the virus B. the production of new CD4 T-cells C. the amplification of virus in the blood D. the destruction of virus by the immune system E. the wide variety of possible opportunistic infections
True / False Questions
15. There is no cure for AIDS. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
16. The HIV virus contains a genome composed of
A. double stranded DNA. B. single stranded RNA. C. double stranded RNA. D. single stranded RNA. 17. Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material?
A. matrix B. capsid C. nucleocapsid D. protease 18. Place the steps in the HIV life cycle in the correct order. 1. Assembly; 2. Integration; 3. Entry; 4. Fusion; 5. Attachment; 6. Budding; 7. Biosynthesis and cleavage; 8. Reverse transcription
A. 1,3,2,4,5,7,6,8 B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 C. 8,1,7,2,6,3,5,4 D. 4,6,3,7,2,8,1,5 E. 5,4,3,8,2,7,1,6 19. Which of the following is not important for making HIV a retrovirus?
A. reverse transcriptase B. RNA genome C. an envelope obtained from the host D. the production of viral DNA
20. Which of the following is important for the attachment stage of the HIV life cycle?
A. acquisition of an envelope from the host B. gp120 spike proteins C. cleavage of the proteins by protease D. integration of the viral DNA into the host genome E. uncoating 21. Of the following modes of HIV transmission, which is the least common mode and rare in many countries?
A. transfusions of infected blood B. vaginal/rectal intercourse with an infected person C. needle sharing among IV drug users D. babies born to HIV infected women E. oral-genital contact with an infected person
True / False Questions
22. The envelope of the HIV virus is actually part of the host cell plasma membrane. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
23. HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people across the globe. This is due to
A. both cellular and antibody-mediated responses. B. the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome. C. HIV's high rate of mutation. D. the fact that HIV targets T-cells. E. the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection.
True / False Questions
24. A vaccine for HIV would be the cure for AIDS science has been looking for. True
False
25. The rhesus monkey is the ideal animal model for AIDS vaccine testing. True
False
26. As of yet, there have been no Phase III vaccine trials for an HIV vaccine. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
27. On average, how long has the immune system been able to successfully and effectively delay the onset of AIDS in 60% of people who are HIV infected?
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 5 years D. 10 years E. 20 or more years
True / False Questions
28. AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
29. Tuberculosis is caused by a
A. virus. B. bacterium. C. fungi. D. protist. E. worm. 30. What are the symptoms of a TB infection?
A. rash over the trunk, fever B. opportunistic infections, chronic diarrhea C. bad cough, chest pain, coughing up blood or sputum D. runny nose, sore throat, post-nasal drip E. lethargy, general malaise 31. How long does the treatment for TB take?
A. 1-2 days B. 1-2 weeks C. 1 month D. 2 months E. 6+ months 32. How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread?
A. via airborne droplets B. contaminated food or water C. sexual intercourse D. IV drug abuse E. blood transfusions
33. The organism that causes malaria is a
A. virus. B. bacterium. C. protist. D. fungi. E. worm. 34. How is malaria spread?
A. via airborne droplets B. by blood transfusions C. sexual intercourse D. breast feeding E. mosquitoes
True / False Questions
35. Unlike AIDS, both tuberculosis and malaria can be cured. True
False
36. The drugs that treat malaria can be used prophylactically, or before infection. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
37. Where does the life cycle of the Plasmodium protist take place?
A. mosquito B. human C. both mosquito and human 38. Most people with malaria exhibit chills and fevers every 48-72 hours. This is due to
A. reinfection with new Plasmodium. B. the bursting of the red blood cells in the body. C. the formation of Plasmodium gametes within the body. D. the fusion of the male and female Plasmodium gametes to form new organisms. E. waves of activity by the body's B- and T-cells. 39. An emerging disease is one that
A. is newly recognized in the last two decades. B. has suddenly caused an epidemic. C. is now present on multiple continents. D. can infect both humans and animals. E. can be transmitted in multiple ways.
True / False Questions
40. Streptococcus is now considered to be a reemerging pathogen. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
41. Why is Helicobacter pylori considered an emerging disease?
A. It is highly antibiotic resistant. B. Ulcers were not known to have an infectious cause until recently. C. It is now present on all of the continents. D. It can jump from humans to pigs and back again. E. It had declined in the 1960s but appears to be back again.
True / False Questions
42. SARS is thought to have arisen in China due to the consumption of civets. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
43. Legionnaires' disease emerged in 1976 due to
A. exposure to wild monkeys. B. consuming horseshoe bats. C. mutation of the influenza virus. D. contamination of an air-conditioning system. E. abuse of antibiotics. 44. Once SARS appeared in China, how long did it take for it to reach nine other countries/provinces via air travel?
A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 1 year D. 2 years E. 5 years
45. How long did it take for bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin?
A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 4 years D. 10 years E. 25 years
True / False Questions
46. People can become resistant to antibiotics. True
False
47. The uses of antibiotics does not cause antibiotic resistance, it just selects for those organisms that are already resistant. True
False
48. There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold. True
False
Multiple Choice Questions
49. Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics?
A. Discontinue the antibiotics when you feel better. B. Do not take antibiotics for a viral infection. C. Do not save unused antibiotics. D. Do not skip doses of antiobiotic. E. Take the antibiotics only for the infection for which they were prescribed.
50. How many different "lines" of antibiotics do we have against TB?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 or more 51. What do MDR TB and MRSA have in common?
A. They are both transmitted by mosquito bites. B. They both cause tuberculosis. C. They are both multiple drug resistant bacteria. D. Infections with both of these have declined dramatically in recent years. E. They are both viruses.
True / False Questions
52. MRSA can be fatal. True
False
Infectious Diseases Supplement Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1.
If an epidemic is confined to a local area, it is usually called
A. an opportunistic infection. B. a pandemic. C. an outbreak. D. a slow infection. E. a chronic infection. If the epidemic is confined to a local area, it is usually called an outbreak.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.01 Distinguish between an outbreak, epidemic, and pandemic. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System
2.
HIV/AIDS and tuberculosis are both examples of current
A. outbreaks. B. epidemics. C. pandemics. D. opportunistic infections. E. acute infections. These, along with malaria and influenza are all examples of current pandemics.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.01 Distinguish between an outbreak, epidemic, and pandemic. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
3.
A disease is called an epidemic if people all over the world have the same disease. FALSE A disease is called an epidemic if there are more cases of the disease than expected in a certain area for a certain period.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.01 Distinguish between an outbreak, epidemic, and pandemic. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System
Yes / No Questions
4.
There are normally 1-2 cases of measles per month in a particular city. However, in the month of September, there were 15 cases. Is this an epidemic? YES Yes. An epidemic is defined as more cases of the disease than expected in a certain area for a certain period.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: S.01.01 Distinguish between an outbreak, epidemic, and pandemic. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
5.
What type of cells does HIV infect?
A. helper T cells B. B cells C. liver cells D. epithelial cells E. basophils HIV infects helper T cells and macrophages.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
6.
How does HIV know what cells to infect?
A. It can infect any cell it comes in contact with. B. It can only infect cells on the surface of the body where the temperature is lower. C. It can only infect cells that are actively growing and dividing. D. It infects cells with a particular surface receptor. E. It only infects cells with that line the reproductive tract. HIV infects cells with a particular surface receptor. It binds to this receptor and then gains entry to the cell.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
7.
When was the first documented case of AIDS in the United States?
A. 1884 B. 1924 C. 1959 D. 1969 E. 1982 The first documented case in the United States was a 15-year-old male who died in Missouri in 1969.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
8.
In which phase of an HIV infection is the person typically asymptomatic?
A. acute phase (A) B. chronic phase (B) C. AIDS (C) A person in category A typically has no apparent symptoms.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
9.
Why would an HIV test be negative within the first 2-3 weeks of an HIV infection?
A. because there is no HIV virus in the blood B. because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood C. because there are no symptoms D. because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm3 E. because there are no opportunistic infections yet THe HIV test is an antibody test and it generally takes an average of 25 days before there are detectable levels of HIV antibodies in body fluids.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
10.
Patient X has 150 CD4 T-cells per mm3. What phase of an HIV infection is this patient in?
A. acute phase (A) B. chronic phase (B) C. AIDS (C) This patient has AIDS.
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
11.
The vast majority of new HIV infections are in people under the age of 15. FALSE Nearly 20% of the 2.5 million new HIV infections are in people under the age of 15.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
12.
Which of the following diseases is categorized as an opportunistic infection found in AIDS patients?
A. prolonged diarrhea B. yeast infections of the mouth or vagina C. cervical dysplasia D. shingles E. Kaposi's sarcoma Kaposi's sarcoma is an opportunistic illness that categorizes an HIV infection as AIDS.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
13.
Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient. FALSE Persons with AIDS die from one or more opportunistic diseases rather than from the HIV infection.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
14.
In the "kitchen-sink model" for AIDS, what does the sink's drain represent?
A. the destruction of CD4 T-cells by the virus B. the production of new CD4 T-cells C. the amplification of virus in the blood D. the destruction of virus by the immune system E. the wide variety of possible opportunistic infections The sink's faucet is the production of new CD4 T-cells and the sink's drain is the destruction of the CD4 T-cells. As long as the body can produce enough new CD4 T-cells to keep pace with the destruction, the person has a healthy immune system that can deal with the infection.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
15.
There is no cure for AIDS. TRUE Although there is still no cure for AIDS, many people with HIV infection are living longer, healthier lives due to antiretroviral therapy.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
16.
The HIV virus contains a genome composed of
A. double stranded DNA. B. single stranded RNA. C. double stranded RNA. D. single stranded RNA. The genome of HIV consists of two single strands of RNA.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
17.
Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material?
A. matrix B. capsid C. nucleocapsid D. protease The protease is an enzyme within the HIV core.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
18.
Place the steps in the HIV life cycle in the correct order. 1. Assembly; 2. Integration; 3. Entry; 4. Fusion; 5. Attachment; 6. Budding; 7. Biosynthesis and cleavage; 8. Reverse transcription
A. 1,3,2,4,5,7,6,8 B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 C. 8,1,7,2,6,3,5,4 D. 4,6,3,7,2,8,1,5 E. 5,4,3,8,2,7,1,6 The correct order is attachment, fusion, entry, reverse transcription, integration, biosynthesis and cleavage, assembly, and budding.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
19.
Which of the following is not important for making HIV a retrovirus?
A. reverse transcriptase B. RNA genome C. an envelope obtained from the host D. the production of viral DNA A retrovirus has an RNA genome and must use reverse transcription to convert its RNA into viral DNA.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
20.
Which of the following is important for the attachment stage of the HIV life cycle?
A. acquisition of an envelope from the host B. gp120 spike proteins C. cleavage of the proteins by protease D. integration of the viral DNA into the host genome E. uncoating The gp120 spike proteins on the surface of HIV are required to bind to the CD4 receptor on the surface of the Tcell for attachment.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
21.
Of the following modes of HIV transmission, which is the least common mode and rare in many countries?
A. transfusions of infected blood B. vaginal/rectal intercourse with an infected person C. needle sharing among IV drug users D. babies born to HIV infected women E. oral-genital contact with an infected person In countries where the blood supply is screened for HIV, transmission of HIV by transfusion is very rare.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
22.
The envelope of the HIV virus is actually part of the host cell plasma membrane. TRUE The HIV envelope is acquired during budding of the virus through the host cell plasma membrane.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
23.
HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people across the globe. This is due to
A. both cellular and antibody-mediated responses. B. the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome. C. HIV's high rate of mutation. D. the fact that HIV targets T-cells. E. the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection. The strain differences are due to HIV's high rate of mutation. This makes it difficult to make a vaccine against HIV.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
24.
A vaccine for HIV would be the cure for AIDS science has been looking for. FALSE Vaccines do not cure diseases, they prevent people from being infected in the first place.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
25.
The rhesus monkey is the ideal animal model for AIDS vaccine testing. FALSE Scientists do not have an ideal animal model for AIDS vaccine testing.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: S.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
26.
As of yet, there have been no Phase III vaccine trials for an HIV vaccine. FALSE A Phase III trail of the RV 144 HIV vaccine was conducted from 2003 to 2009 in Thailand.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
27.
On average, how long has the immune system been able to successfully and effectively delay the onset of AIDS in 60% of people who are HIV infected?
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 5 years D. 10 years E. 20 or more years The immune system in 60% of HIV infected people can delay the onset of AIDS an average of ten years.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
True / False Questions
28.
AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption. FALSE Tuberculosis (TB) used to be called consumption.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
29.
Tuberculosis is caused by a
A. virus. B. bacterium. C. fungi. D. protist. E. worm. Tuberculosis is caused by the rod-shaped bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
30.
What are the symptoms of a TB infection?
A. rash over the trunk, fever B. opportunistic infections, chronic diarrhea C. bad cough, chest pain, coughing up blood or sputum D. runny nose, sore throat, post-nasal drip E. lethargy, general malaise Symptoms of TB include a bad cough, chest pain, and coughing up blood or sputum.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
31.
How long does the treatment for TB take?
A. 1-2 days B. 1-2 weeks C. 1 month D. 2 months E. 6+ months It takes at least 6 months to kill all the Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the body.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
32.
How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread?
A. via airborne droplets B. contaminated food or water C. sexual intercourse D. IV drug abuse E. blood transfusions
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread via airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
33.
The organism that causes malaria is a
A. virus. B. bacterium. C. protist. D. fungi. E. worm. The causative agent of malaria is Plasmodium sp., a protist.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists
34.
How is malaria spread?
A. via airborne droplets B. by blood transfusions C. sexual intercourse D. breast feeding E. mosquitoes The parasite that causes malaria is spread by the female Anopheles mosquito.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists
True / False Questions
35.
Unlike AIDS, both tuberculosis and malaria can be cured. TRUE Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists Topic: Viruses
36.
The drugs that treat malaria can be used prophylactically, or before infection. TRUE Antimalarial drugs can be used prophylactically. They do not prevent the initial infection but they prevent the development of the parasites in the blood.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria.
Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists
Multiple Choice Questions
37.
Where does the life cycle of the Plasmodium protist take place?
A. mosquito B. human C. both mosquito and human Half of the Plasmodium life cycle occurs in the human and the remainder happens in the mosquito.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists
38.
Most people with malaria exhibit chills and fevers every 48-72 hours. This is due to
A. reinfection with new Plasmodium. B. the bursting of the red blood cells in the body. C. the formation of Plasmodium gametes within the body. D. the fusion of the male and female Plasmodium gametes to form new organisms. E. waves of activity by the body's B- and T-cells. The red blood cell stage of the infection is cyclic and every 48-72 hours the red blood cells burst.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists
39.
An emerging disease is one that
A. is newly recognized in the last two decades. B. has suddenly caused an epidemic. C. is now present on multiple continents. D. can infect both humans and animals. E. can be transmitted in multiple ways. An emerging disease is one that is newly recognized in the last two decades.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.02.01 Define the term emerging disease. Section: S.02 Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
40.
Streptococcus is now considered to be a reemerging pathogen. TRUE Due to increased resistance to antibiotics, Streptococcus is now considered to be a reemerging pathogen.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.02.01 Define the term emerging disease. Section: S.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
Multiple Choice Questions
41.
Why is Helicobacter pylori considered an emerging disease?
A. It is highly antibiotic resistant. B. Ulcers were not known to have an infectious cause until recently. C. It is now present on all of the continents. D. It can jump from humans to pigs and back again. E. It had declined in the 1960s but appears to be back again. Ulcers have been known throughout human history but it was not known that they could be caused by
Helicobacter pylori until recently.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.02.01 Define the term emerging disease. Section: S.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
42.
SARS is thought to have arisen in China due to the consumption of civets. TRUE Civets, a type of exotic cat, are considered a delicacy in China. It is thought that the civets were possibly infected by exposure to horseshoe bats.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.02.02 List some examples of emerging diseases. Section: S.02 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
43.
Legionnaires' disease emerged in 1976 due to
A. exposure to wild monkeys. B. consuming horseshoe bats. C. mutation of the influenza virus. D. contamination of an air-conditioning system. E. abuse of antibiotics. Bacteria thrived in the cooling tower used as the water source for the air-conditioning system in a hotel.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.02.02 List some examples of emerging diseases. Section: S.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
44.
Once SARS appeared in China, how long did it take for it to reach nine other countries/provinces via air travel?
A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 1 year D. 2 years E. 5 years The first cases of SARS were reported November 16, 2002. By the end of February, 2003, SARS had reached nine countries/provinces mostly via air travel.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.02.02 List some examples of emerging diseases. Section: S.02 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
45.
How long did it take for bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin?
A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 4 years D. 10 years E. 25 years Within 4 years of the introduction of penicillin in 1943, bacteria began developing resistance to it.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Section: S.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
46.
People can become resistant to antibiotics. FALSE Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics and people can harbor those bacteria, but people do not become resistant to antibiotics.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Section: S.03 Topic: Immune System
47.
The uses of antibiotics does not cause antibiotic resistance, it just selects for those organisms that are already resistant. TRUE Development of antibiotic resistance is a form of natural selection. Antibiotic use does not cause the resistance, it just selects those organisms that are already resistant.
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Section: S.03 Topic: Immune System
48.
There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold. TRUE Antibiotics are useful against bacterial infections, not viral infections. The common cold is caused by a virus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Section: S.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses
Multiple Choice Questions
49.
Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics?
A. Discontinue the antibiotics when you feel better. B. Do not take antibiotics for a viral infection. C. Do not save unused antibiotics. D. Do not skip doses of antiobiotic. E. Take the antibiotics only for the infection for which they were prescribed. It is unwise to discontinue the antibiotics when you feel better.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Section: S.03 Topic: Immune System
50.
How many different "lines" of antibiotics do we have against TB?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 or more Currently we have first-line and second-line antibiotics for TB. If the organism is resistant to both of these, treatment options are limited.
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: S.03.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA. Section: S.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
51.
What do MDR TB and MRSA have in common?
A. They are both transmitted by mosquito bites. B. They both cause tuberculosis. C. They are both multiple drug resistant bacteria. D. Infections with both of these have declined dramatically in recent years. E. They are both viruses. MDR TB stands for multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and MRSA stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus.
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: S.03.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA. Section: S.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
True / False Questions
52.
MRSA can be fatal. TRUE Infections with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus can be fatal, especially if there are no antibiotics available to treat the infection.
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S.03.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA. Section: S.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System
Infectious Diseases Supplement Summary Category
# of Questions
Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
14
Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
20
Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
2
Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze
7
Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
9
Learning Outcome: S.01.01 Distinguish between an outbreak, epidemic, and pandemic.
4
Learning Outcome: S.01.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection.
11
Learning Outcome: S.01.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle.
7
Learning Outcome: S.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination.
5
Learning Outcome: S.01.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria.
11
Learning Outcome: S.02.01 Define the term emerging disease.
3
Learning Outcome: S.02.02 List some examples of emerging diseases.
3
Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic.
5
Learning Outcome: S.03.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA.
3
Section: S.01
38
Section: S.02
6
Section: S.03
8
Topic: Bacteria and Archaea
14
Topic: Immune System
52
Topic: Protists
6
Topic: Viruses
27
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