Biology Question Bank for Highschool

Very Similar

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MODEL TEST PAPER for AFMC 2007 Time: 2 hr s

M a x i m u m M a r k s : 200

Instructions: 1. This question paper contains 200 questions: 50 questions of Physics, 50 of Chemistry, 50 of Biology and 50 of General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning & English. 2. For every correct answer 1 marks will be credited to your account, 1/4 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer and no marks will be awarded for unattempted questions. 3. Use of Trigonometric table, Calculator or any other helping device is restricted. 4. Useful data : At.wt./ Mol.wt. : K M n 0 4 : 158; Cu : 63.5; NaOH : 40; HC1: 36.5; Mg : 24; H : 1; He : 4; C : 12; N : 14; O : 16: Na : 23; P : 31; S : 32; CI : 35.5; Ca : 40; Zn : 65; Ag : 108.

Atomic No : H : 1; He ; 2: Li : 3; Be : 4; B : 5, C : 6; N : 7; O : 8; F : 9; Na : 11: Mg : 12; A1 : 13; Si : 14; Fe : 26; Co : 27; Ni : 28; Cu : 29: Zn : 30: Rb : 37 C o n s t a n t s : g = 10m/s-. R = 8.3 J R - ' m o V or 0.0821 atm /K-'mol ', e = 1.6 x 10 m,~ 9.11 x 10-" kg. 5. Fill in your answers in the given response sheet.

PHYSICS

(c) 300 m/s

1. The unit of voltage is (a) joule/coulomb (b) joule (c) joule x coulomb (d) none of these 2. 6th (a) (c)

If a body starts from rest and travels 120 cm in the second then what is the acceleration ? 0.20 m/s 2 (b) 0.027 m/s 2 0.218 m/s(d) 0.30 m/s 2

3.

An

J(4gR/3)

object

is

projected

with

a

velocity

from earth. The velocity of the object, at the

maximum height reached by it, will be (a)

figR/3

(c)

figR

(b)

JgR/3

(d) zero

4. Which of the following cannot be resultant of the vectors of magnitude 5 and 10 ? (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 2 5. 5g is (a) (c)

A force of 50 dynes is acting on a body of mass which is at rest, for an interval of 3 sec, then impulse 0.15 x K H Ns 1.5 x 10-3 Ns

(b) 0.98 x 10~3 Ns (d) 2.5 x 10~3 Ns

6. A particle is projected with 200 m/s at an angle 60°. At highest point, it explodes into three particles of equal masses. One goes vertically upward with velocity of 100 m/s, second particle goes vertically downward with same velocity, then what is velocity of third one ? (a) 120 m/s (b) 100 m/s 38 ""'BIOLOGY TODAY | JANUARY '07

w

C, N0 = 6.023 x 1 0 2 \ m,, = 1.6 x 1 0 2 7 kg.

(d) 200 m/s

7. A wire suspended vertically from one of iis ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is (a) 0.2 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 0.1 J 8. The initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass M is a),. A small sphere of mass m is attached gently on edge of the disc. The final angular velocity of the disc will be (M + m) 0), (M+m)to, (b) (a) M m m M to, (0, (c) w (d) i M+m J~' {M+m 9. A bend in a level road has radius of 80 m. Find ihe maximum speed which a car turning the bend without skidding. (Given jj. = 0.25). (a) 24 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 14 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s 10, Moment of inertia of a uniform rod of length L and mass M, about an axis passing through LI4 from one end and perpendicular to its length is (a) (c)

11 ML48'""

2 (b) 1-ML 48 ML (d) w ~Y2

11. W h o a m o n g the f o l l o w i n g gave first experimental value of G ? (a) Cavendish (b) Copernicus

Ihe

37

(c) Brook Taylor

(d) none of these

(a) 7t/5 sec

(b) 271 sec

(c) 20n sec

(d) 5tc sec

12. A simple pendulum has a time period T] when on the earth's surface, and T2 when taken to a height R above the earth's surface, where R is the radius of the earth.

21. A transverse wave is represented by the equation • 2n y = ^ 0 s i n — (vt-x) . For what value of A. the maximum

The value of y

particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity? (a) \ = y0/2 (b) X = ny0 (c) X = 2y0 (d)X = V4

(a) 1

is

(b) 72

(c) 4

(d)2

13. R.M.S. velocity of a gas is v at temperature T. If temperature is increased two times, then R.M.S. velocity becomes (a) 0.5 v (b) ,/2 v (c) v (d)3v 14. A ball is falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows decrease 0.1% in its volume at the bottom. What is the bulk modulus of the material of the ball ? (a) 19.6 x 10s N/m 2 (b) 19.6 x 10"10 N/m 2 2 (c) 19.6 x 10'° N/m (d) 19.6 x 10"8 N/m 2 15. A wooden cube first floats inside water when a 200 g mass is placed on it. When the mass is removed the cube is 2 cm above water level. The side of cube is (a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm 16. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Rate of diffusion is faster in gases than in liquids and solids equal to solids, liquids and gases faster in liquids than in solids and gases faster in solids than in liquids and gases

17. For a gas, the difference between the two principal specific heats is 4150 J/kg K. What is the specific heat of the gas at constant volume if the ratio of specific heats is 1.4 ? (a) 5186 J/kg K (b) 10375 J/kg K (c) 1660 J/kg K (d) 8475 J/kg K 18. If a ball of 80 kg mass hits an ice cube and temperature of ball is 100°C, how much ice becomes water ? Specific heat of ball is 0.2 cal/gram °C. (a) 20 g (b) 2 g (c) 200 g (d) 20 x 103g 19. The time period of simple pendulum is doubled, when (a) the mass of the bob is doubled (b) its length is made four times (c) the mass of the bob and the length of pendulum is doubled (d) its length is doubled 20. The kinetic energy of a particle, executing S.H.M. is 16 J when it is in its mean position. If the amplitude of oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12 kg, the time period of its oscillation is

38

22. When two tuning forks A and B are sounded together, X beats/sec are heard. Frequency of A is n. Now when one prong of fork B is loaded with a little wax, the no. of beat/sec decreases. The frequency of fork B is (a) n + X (b )n-X (c) n - X2 (d) n - 2X 23. Putting a dielectric substance between two plates of a condenser, the capacity, potential and potential energy respectively (a) increases, decreases, decreases (b) decreases, increases, increases (c) increases, increases, increases (d) decreases, decreases, decreases 24. An a-particle and a proton are accelerated through same potential difference from rest. Find the ratio of their final velocity (a) 4 : 1

(b) 1 : 1

(c)

(d)

1:72

1:2

25. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 80 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is (a) zero (b) 80 V (c) 800 V (d) 8 V 26. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to V volt source, then energy stored is equal to (a) CV (b) CV2 (c) 27. (a) (b) (c) (d)

2n

cv-

(d) Ucv 2

2

In fig. the current passing through 6 Q resistor is 0.4 A 6 £2 — W W , 0.48 A 1.2 A 0.72 A 4£2 1 0.80 A —WW

28. A 100 W, 200 V bulb is connected to a 160 volt supply. The actual power consumed would be (a) 64 W (b) 80 W (c) 100 W (d) 125 W 29. A thermoelectric refrigerator works on (a) Joule effect (b) Seebeck effect (c) Peltier effect (d) thermionic emission " " ' B I O L O G Y T O D A Y | JANUARY '07 38

30. A metallic wire of 40 £2 resistance is drawn to double its length. Its new resistance will be (a) 20 Q (b) 80 Q (c) 160 Q (d) 320 Q 31. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohm is shunted by a wire of 2 ohm. If the total current is 1 ampere, the part of it passing through the shunt will be (a) 0.3 A (b) 0.8 A (c) 0.2 A (d) 0.5A 32. The ratio of time period of a-particle to that of proton circulating in the same uniform magnetic field is (a) 72Tl (b) 1:72 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 33. When a magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field, it experiences (a) a force and a torque (b) only a force (c) only a torque (d) neither a force nor a torque 34. What is the self inductance of a coil which produces 5 V, when current in it changes from 3 A to 2 A in one millisecond ? (a) 5000 H (b) 5 mH (c) 50 H (d) 5 H 35. In an A.C. circuit, the potential difference across an inductance and resistance joined in series are respectively 16 V and 20 V. The total potential difference across the circuit is (a) 20 V (b) 25.6 V (c) 31.9 V (d) 53.5 V 36. Which of the following wave have the maximum wavelength ? (a) X-rays (b) infra red (c) ultra violet rays (d) radiowaves 37. The resolving power of a telescope whose lens has a diameter of 1.22 m for a wavelength of 5000 A is (a) 2 x 10 s (b) 2 x 106 2 (c) 2 x 10 (d) 2 x 104 38. If an i n t e r f e r e n c e pattern has m a x i m u m and minimum intensity in the ratio of 36 : 1, then what will be the ratio of amplitudes ? (a) 6 : 7 (b) 7 : 4 (c) 4 : 7 (d) 7 : 5 39. Huygeif s wave theory of light cannot explain (a) diffraction (b) interference (c) polarization (d) photoelectric effect 40. The focal length of convex mirror is 30 cm and the size of image is quarter of the object, then the distance of the object from the mirror is 38" " ' B I O L O G YTODAY | JANUARY '07

(a) 90 cm (c) 30 cm

(b) 60 cm (d) 40 cm

41. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of combination is (a) - 1 . 5 D (c) + 6.5 D

(b) - 6 . 5 D (d) + 6.67 D

42. The rest mass of a photon is (a)

^

fa c he

T

,.. (b)

fa c2

(d) zero

43. The most important characteristic of electron in the production of X-rays is (a) charge of electron (b) mass of electron (c) revolution of electron around the nucleus (d) speed of electron 44. 450 (a) (c)

The energy of a photon of light of wavelength nm is 4.4 x 10"' 9 J (b) 2.5 x l o M 9 J 17 K25 x 10~ J (d) 2.5 x 10-'7 J

45. A positron has the same mass as (a) proton (b) a-particle (c) neutron (d) electron 46. If half life of radioactive atom is 2.3 days, then its decay constant would be (a) 0.1 days"1 (b) 0.2 days"1 1 (c) 0.3 days" (d) 2.3 days ' 47. Maximum penetrating power is that of (a) a-rays (b) X-rays (c) y-rays (d} P-rays 48. When Ge crystal are doped with phosphorus atom then it becomes (a) insulator (b) p-type (c) «-type (d) super-conductor 49. In a p-n-p transistor working as a common-base amplifier, current gain is 0.96 and emitter current is 7.2 mA. The base current is (a) 0.4 mA (b) 0.2 mA (c) 0.29 mA (d) 0.35 mA 50. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Optical fibres uses the phenomenon of total internal reflection refraction dispersion scattering

39

CHEMISTRY 51. T h e r e a c t i o n C H 3 - CH = C H , + HBr CH 3 CHBrCH 3 is an example of (a) free radical reaction (b) electrophilic substitution (c) electrophilic addition (d) nucleophilic addition 52. In which of the following case Kp is less than K? (a) 2SO, + O, (b) PCI.

- 2S03 PCI, + Cl2

(c) N, + O,

2NO

(d) H, + Cl2

2HC1.

53. If a mixture containing 3 moles of hydrogen and I mole of nitrogen is converted completely into ammonia, the ratio of initial and final volumes at the same temperature and pressure would be (a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1. 54. Hybridisation state of I in IClt is (a) clsp2 (b) sp (c) sp2 55. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(d) sp3

High boiling point of water is due to its high specific heat hydrogen bonding high dielectric constant low dissociation constant

56. Select the simplest alkane which exhibits optical isomerisms. (a) CMS (b)C,H6 (c) C 7 H 16 (d) C,H, 57. An organic compound is fused with fusion mixture and extracted with HNO,. The extract gives yellow precipitate with ammonium molybdate. It shows the presence of which element ? (a) P (b) As (c) both P and As (d) may be P or As or both 58. Identify Z in the sequence, CH,-CH,CH =CH,-

HBr/H 2 Q, C 2 H 5 0 - Na +

(a)

CH - C M - C H2 - O - CH2- CH, I CH,

(b)

CH — CH— C H - O - C H - CH,

(c)

CH - (CI L ) , - 0 - C H - C H ,

(d)

CH,-(CH 2 ) 4 —O—CH3

CH,

38

->Z

59. To which one of the following, Dalton's law of partial pressure is not applicable ? (a) S 0 2 & C 0 2 at room temperature (b) N, & H, at room temperature (c) S 0 2 & 0 2 at room temperature (d) HC1 & NH 3 at room temperature 60. Which one of the following pairs of isomers is not metamers ? (a) CH 3 - O - C,H 7 and C,H S - O - C,H 5 (b) CH 3 CH, CH, CH,OH and CH 3 - O - C,H ? (c) CH 3 - 0 ~ - C 3 H 7 and CH 3 - O - CHCH, " (d) none of the above q j 61. Which one of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomers ? (a) 2-butene (b) 2-butyne (c) 2-butanol (d) butanal 62. A gas cannot be liquefied if (a) forces of attraction are low under ordinary conditions (b) f o r c e s of attraction are high under o r d i n a r y conditions (c) f o r c e s of attraction are zero u n d e r o r d i n a r y conditions (d) forces of attraction either high or low under ordinary conditions 63. Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns white due to the formation of (a) N a 2 0 (b) Na,CO, (c) N a H C 0 3 (d) NaOH 64. (CH 3 ) 3 CMgCl on reaction with D , 0 gives (a) (CH 3 ) 3 CD (b) (CH 3 ) 3 OD (c) (CD 3 ) 3 CD (d) (CD 3 ) 3 OD 65. When chlorobenzene is treated with NH, in the presence of C u 2 0 at 202°C and 60 atm pressure, the product formed would be (a) benzene diazonium salt (b) benzyl amine (c) aniline (d) none of the above 66. Silver nitrate solution is kept in brown bottles in laboratory because (a) it reacts with ordinary white bottles (b) brown bottles cut the passage of light through it (c) brown bottles do not react with it (d) ordinary bottles catalyse its decomposition 67. CH = CH -

0,/NaQH

Zn/CH.C.OOH

is " " ' B I O L O G Y T O D A Y | JANUARY '07 40

(a) CH,OH - CH,OH (c) CH~COOH ~

(b) CH,CH 2 OH (d) CH,OH

68. An example of amino acid containing benzene ring is (a) tyrosine (b) serine (c) alanine (d) lysine 69. Highest pH(14) is given by (a) 0.1 M NaOII (b) IN HC1 (d) I N N a O H | c ) 0.1 M H 2 S0 4 70. The maximum number of Srf-electrons having spin quantum number s = + 1/2 are (a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 5 (d) none 71. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Setting of cement is an exothermic process endothermic process neither endothermic nor exothermic may be exothermic or endothermic

(a) paracetamol (c) insulin

(b) aspirin (d) none of these

80. A super saturated solution is a metastable state of solution in which solute concentration (a) is equal to the solubility of that substance in water (b) exceeds than its solubility (c) less than its solubility (d) continuously change 81. Which electrolyte is least effective in causing coagulation of +ve ferric hydroxide sol ? (a) KBr (b) K 2 S0 4 (c) K.CrO, (d) K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 82. The gas which is supporter of combustion is (a)

NH3

(b)N,0

(c)

N0

2

(d) N 2 O S

83. Which of the following hormones contains iodine? (a) adrenaline (b) testosterone (c) thyroxine (d) insulin

72. The blue colour produced on adding H „ 0 , to acidified K,Cr n O ? is due to the formation of (a) CrO s " " (b) Cr 2 0 3 (c) CrOV (d) Cr0 3

84. In the |3-particle emission, the daughter nuclide will be (a) isobar of parent (b) isotone of parent (c) isotope of parent (d) isomer of parent.

73. (a) (b) (c) (d)

85. In the reaction: H 2 S 2H+ + S3", when NH 4 OH is added, then (a) concentration of S"~ decreases (b) S2 is precipitated (c) concentration of increases (d) no action takes places.

Benzoyl chloride does not react with primary or secondary amine aliphatic compound aromatic compound carboxylic acids

74. P,0, is an anhydride of (a) H > 0 4 (b) H,PO, (c) HPO, (d) none of these 75. Which of the following is not affected by the temperature? (a) normality (b) molarity (c) formality (d) molality 76. Which of the following metal cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solutions of their salts ? (a) Ag and Mg (b) Ag and A1 (c) Mg and Al (d) Cu and Cr

86. The solubility product of a binary weak electrolyte is 4 x 10~10 at 298 K. It's solubility in mol dm"3 at the same temperature is (a) 8 x 10"10 (b) 16 x 10-20 5 (c) 4 x 10~ (d) 2 x io~5 87. For the reaction,N 2 0,

2 N O , + - | o , . Given

dt d

^

^ = K 2 [N 2 0 5 ] and

d[ 0 2 ] 20,] — - / v=3 LXi 3>[ N 2 v

77. BF, acts as acid according to (a) Lewis (b) Bronsted (c) Arrhenius (d) none of these

The relation in between Kv A'0 and is (a) 2 K v = K2 = 4A'3 (b) AT, = K2 = K3 (c) 2A', = 4K2 = K3 (d) none of these

78. The Cannizzaro's reaction is not given by (a) trimethvlacetaldehyde (b) acetaldehvde (c) benzaldehyde (d) formaldehyde

88. Reagent used to distinguish H , 0 2 and 0 3 is (a) PbS (b) starch and iodine (c) KMn0 4 (d) bleaching powder

79. Which of the following drugs is used as an analgesic and antipyretic drug?

89. To make PVC a flexible plastic, the additive used is called

38 ""'BIOLOGY TODAY | JANUARY '07

41

VERY SIMILAR

MODEL TEST PAPER

CBSE-PMT

1. Give one or two scientific words for the following sentences. (a) Term applied to the barrel s h a p e d structure organised at the equatorial plane during telophase which helps in cell plate formation. (b) Ribonucleoprotein complex formed between two synapsed homologous chromosomes. (c) The stage in cell cycle when energy source is stored for completion of cell division. (d) The radial arrangement of microtubules around a centriole pair at the beginning of prophase. (e) Time interval between two successive division. 2. R e f e r the table given below and a n s w e r the following questions. Site

Actions

Anterior pituitary Inhibits secretion of growth hormone & thyrotropin Inhibits secretion of insulin, Pancreas g l u c a g o n and p a n c r e a t i c polypeptide Gastro-intestinal tract

Inhibits secretion of gut hormones (gastrin, secretin, VIP etc); gastric acid & pepsin; decreases blood flow, motility and c a r b o h y d r a t e absorption; increases water and electrolyte absorption

(a) W h i c h h o r m o n e is r e s p o n s i b l e f o r the given physiological effects? (b) The h o r m o n e is secreted f r o m X u n d e r the stimulation of Y. Identify X and Y. 3. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Briefly describe the following terms. Clitellum Cnidoblast Statocyst Oncosphere Sporozoite.

28" " B I O L O G YTODAY | APRIL 07 ,

a i ns) 4. (i)

The given statements are related to evolution. Characteristics acquired by an organism during its life time are inherited by its offsprings (ii) Organisms are products of a history of descent with modification (iii) Evolutionary change is brought about by natural selection (iv) The goal of evolution is to adapt organisms to the environment. A n s w e r the q u e s t i o n s a c c o r d i n g to t h e given statements. (a) T h e t h e o r y of e v o l u t i o n p r e s e n t e d in D a r w i n ' s "The origin of species" depends on the c o n c l u s i o n s of which of the given statements? (b) Which statements(s) best rejects Lamarck's theory of evolution? 5. Answer the following questions. (a) Explain where on the body, hair has important functions and describe these functions. (b) Which three cranial n e r v e s are i n v o l v e d in g u s t a t i o n , and w h e r e are their e f f e c t o r s located? (c) N a m e the h o r m o n e s a s s o c i a t e d with the reabsorption of both water an x

(b)

(d)

(C)

(d)

7

" 5 9. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen. The ratio C / C y of the mixture is (a) 1.4 (b) 1.54 (c) 1.59 (d) 1.62 10. What will be time period of the displaced body of mass m ? (a)

mun §

3A S

1*

(c)

6. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become (a) 10 hrs (b) 20 hrs (c) 40 hrs (d) 80 hrs

11. The phase difference between two points separated by 0.8 m in a wave of frequency 120 Hz is 0.5ti. The wave velocity is (a) 144 m/s (b) 256 m/s (c) 384 m/s (d) 720 m/s

7. The Y o u n g ' s m o d u l u s of brass and steel are respectively 1010 N/m 2 and 2 * 1010 N/m 2 . A brass wire

12. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window of thickness 4 mm, whose refractive index is 1.5, is

MT

B I O L O G Y T O D A Y | FEBRUARY '07

37

(a) (c)

2 x 10"8 sec 2 x 10"" sec

(b) 2 x 108 sec (d) 2 * 10" sec

13. The division of wavefront, to obtain coherent sources, is employed in (a) Fresnel's biprism (b) Michelson's interferometer (c) Newton's rings (d) all of the above 14. In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 x 10 -3 m 2 and the distance between the plates is 3 mm. Find the capacitance of the capacitor. (a) 25 pF (b) 20 pF (c) 18 pF (d) 15 pF 15. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is (a) 1 A (b) 2 A 6Q (c) 4 A (d) 6 A 16. The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple is 620°C and the neutral temperature is 300°C. What is the temperature of cold junction ? (a) 320°C (b) 20°C (c) -20°C (d) 40°C 17. A wire carrying current I and other carrying current 21 in the same direction produce a magnetic field B at the mid point. What will be the field when 21 wire is switched off ? (a) B/2 (b)2B (c) B (d) 4B 18. The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499. Permeability of vacuum is 471 x 10~7 TmA - 1 . Permeability of the material of the rod in TmA" 1 is (a) Tt x 10"4 (b) 2n x 10"4 4 (c) 37t x 10(d) 47t x 10~4

(c) (d)

diffraction and reflection diffraction and photoelectric effect

22. An X-ray photon has a wavelength 0.01 A. Its momentum (in kg-ms - 1 ) is (a) 6.63 x 10-22 (b) 3.3 x 10' 32 32 (c) 6.63 x lO" (d) 5.3 x.10" 32 23. The binding energies per nucleon of deuteron (, H 2 ) and helium atom ( 2 He 4 ) are 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV. If two deuteron atoms react to form a single helium atom, then the energy released is (a) 13.9 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV (c) 23.6 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV 24. What is the voltage gain in a common-emitter amplifier, where input resistance is 3 Q and load resistance is 24 £2? (Take (3 = 0.6) (a) 8.4 (b) 4.8 (c) 2.4 (d) 1.2 . 25. In the Boolean algebra A.B equals (a) A+B

(b) JTb

(C)

A - B

(d) a.B

26. W h i c h p r o f i l e is a t r u e r e p r e s e n t a t i o n chemisorption?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

of

27. Which of the following molecules is most suitable to disperse benzene in water? O

19. Voltage in the secondary coil of a transformer does not depend upon (a) voltage in the primary coil (b) ratio of number of turns in the two coils (c) frequency of the source (d) both (a) and (b) 20. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be (a) 1.25 (b) 0.125 (c) 0.8 (d) 0.4 21. The dual nature of light is exhibited by (a) photoelectric effect (b) refraction and interference

38

(d)

CI

28. Which of the following reactions is used to make a fuel cell? (a) C d ( . v ) + 2 N i ( O H ) 3 W CdO w + 2Ni(OH) 2 ( „ + H 2 0 w MT

B I O L O G Y TODAY | FEBRUARY '07 38

(b)

P b w + P b O , w - 2H 2 S0 4 2PbS04W + 2H20

(c) (d)

2H, ( 2Few

+

°2(K) 2 H , 0 (/) 0 2 (,,, + 4H + (u 2Fe 2+ w ) + 2 H , 0

COOH (/)

(/) .

29. When w-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product (s) obtained is (are) OH (a)

OH

V - CH-CH

(b)

(c)

COO"

CH2OH

COO

CH2OH

(d)

(c) OH

6

34. The conjugate base of OH" is (a) -I 2 0 (b)O(c) 0 2 ~ (d)02 Which of the following carbides on treatment with 35. water evolves methane? (a) CaC 2 (b) A14C3 (c) B 4 C (d) SiC 36. In the accompanied diagram the ideal behaviour of a solution is shown by the line (s)

OH OH (d)

p - i H ^ H - , , (a) AD CI

CI

30. Which one of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration? (a) Cr 3+ , Fe 3+ (b) Fe 3+ , Mn 2+ 3+ 3+ (c) Fe , Co (d) Sc 3+ , Cr 3+ . 31. A hydride of nitrogen which is acidic is (a) NH, (b) N 2 H 4 (C) N 2 H 2 (d) N 3 H 32. Among the following compounds, the one that undergoes deprotonation most readily in the presence of a base, to form a carbanion, is O O (a)

AA O ¥

(b)

MeO

OMe O

A A

v x (c) MeO'' (d) ^ v 33. In the following four compounds, the one which is a functional isomer of the set of other three is

CHO

CHO & (a) MT

(c) CD

(d) AD, CB and CD

9 2 8 + yN-> A R L + 2$ + The number of neutrons in the element L is (a) 142 (b) 144 (c) 140 (d) 146 38. 3-phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product) (a) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH(Br)CH 3 (b) C 6 H 5 CH(Br)CH 2 CH 3 (c) C 6 H 5 CH,CH 2 CH 2 Br (d) C 6 H 5 CH(Br)CH=CH 2 39. Among the following the dissociation constant is highest for (a)

C 6 H 5 OH

(b) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH

(c)

CH 3 C = CH

(d) CH 3 NH 3 + C1"

40. The van der Waal's parameters for gases W, X, Y and Z are given in the table.

o y 0

(b) CB

37. Consider the following nuclear reactions

(b)

B I O L O G Y TODAY | FEBRUARY '07

Gas W X Y Z

a (atm L2 mol - 2 ) 4.0 8.0 6.0 12.0

b (L mol- 1 ) 0.027 0.030 0.032 0.027

Which one of these gases has the highest critical temperature? (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z 41. Which one of the following acids will undergo easy thermal decarboxylation?

39

(a) (c)

C f H 5 COCH 2 COOH CgH 5 CHOHCOOH

«o

48. Which bond angle 9 would result in the maximum dipole m o m e n t f o r the t r i a t o m i c m o l e c u l e XYZ as shown in figure? (a) 90° (b) 120° (c) 150°

(« QT '

49. Density ratio of 0 2 and H 2 is 16 : 1. The ratio of their r.m.s velocities will be (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 16 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 16 : 1

(b) C 6 H 5 COCOOH (d) C 6 H 5 CHNH 2 COOH

42. The strongest base among the following is (a) •N"

(c)

H 43. Boiling CuCl, with excess of copper turnings and concentrated HC1 gives (a) CuCl (s) (b) Cu 2 0 ( s )

(c) [cucy44. (a) (c)

Set containing isoelectronic species is , N O + , CN~, Of C 0 2 , N 0 2 . O,, N 2 O s

(b) C O , N O , 0 2 , C N

CH, CH,CH,0

Na + + CH, - C - Br CH,

CH,

(c)

I H 2 S0 4 ,A C H , - C - OH + HO - C2H5 — — 1 — o CH,

CH, I ' (d) C H - C - Br + HO - C l f C H , I CH, 47. The heat of neutralization of a strong base and a strong acid is 57 kJ. The heat released when 0.5 mole of H N O , solution is added to 0.20 moles of NaOH solution, is (a) 11.4 kJ (b) 34.7 kJ (c) 23.5 kJ (d) 58.8 kJ

40

CH3COOH •

SOCI,

Benzene Anhy. A1C1, HCN

The structure of S would be OH I

(d) CO, C 0 2 , N O , N 0 2

46. For the preparation of /-butyl ethyl ether, which method/reaction is to be preferred? CH, i (a) CH,CH, — Br + N a ' O - C - CH, * I CH,

(d) 180°

In a set of reactions acetic acid yield a product S

(d) [cucy-

45. The emf of the following Daniel cell at 298 K is . Zn | Z n S 0 4 (0.01 M) 11 CuS0 4 (1.0 M) | Cu When concentration of ZnS0 4 is 1.0M and that of CuS0 4 is 0.01 M, the emf changed to E2. What is the relationship between E, and (a) £ , > E2 ' (b) £, < E2 (c) £ , = E2 (d) E2 = 0*E2

(b)

50.

8

(a)

COOH

tor]•C—COOH

(b)

CH,

(c)

OH I CH,-C-CH3

cor

CN

(d)

C H — C— CH, OH CN I C— CH, I OH

51. Which of the following have typically coenocytic mycelium? (a) chlorophyceae (b) phycomycetes (c) lichens (d) liverworts 52. In Pinus, the third tier of embryonal cells from below is known as (a) rosette tier (b) suspensor tier (c) embryonal tier (d) free-nuclear tier 53. The first heart sound is produced when (a) semilunar pressure and valve snap shut (b) interventricular pressure decreases (c) diastole begins (d) bicuspid and tricuspid valve close quickly 54. In most biological systems, two electrons and two protons are removed. The process is known as (a) decarboxylation (b) dehydrogenation (c) deamination (d) carboxylation 55. Despite high level of heterozygosity, the progeny derived from seed of a cross pollinated plant was found to be c o m p l e t e l y u n i f o r m . O n e r e a s o n f o r this phenomenon is (a) induced mutation (b) apomixis (c) parthenocarpy (d) polyploidy MT

BIOLOGY TODAY | FEBRUARY '07 40

56. The four daughter cells derived from a single meiosis differ from each other due to (a) independent assortment of chromosomes only (b) crossing over only (c) difference in chromosome number (d) crossing over as well as independent assortment of chromosomes 57. Biological weathering of rock initially brought about by lichens that are (a) foliose (b) crustose (c) leprose (d) fruticose 58. In earthworm, the arrangement of blood vessels is (a) different in last fifteen segments (b) different in first thirteen segments (c) same throughout the body (d) different in the middle thirteen segments 59. In a m a m m a l i a n s p e r m , s p i r a l l y a r r a n g e d mitochondria around the axial filament are present in the region of (a) its principal piece of the tail (b) its middle piece (c) its head portion (d) end-piece of the tail 60.

'Horn toad' is a/an

(a) (c)

reptile

61. in a (a) (c)

The release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas, mammal, is stimulated by secretin (b) enterokinase trypsinogen (d) cholecystokinin

fish

(b) amphibia (d) mammal

62. Blood calcium level can be increased by the administration of (a) thyroxine (b) parathormone (c) glucagon (d) calcitonin 63. The sporophyte dependent upon gametophyte is found in (a) bryophytes (b) fungi (c) algae (d) pteridophytes 64. The genes for antibiotic resistance are found in (a) cell wall (b) nucleus (c) chromosome (d) plasmid 65. In photosynthesis, splitting of water and release of oxygen occurs during (a) carboxylation phase (b) red drop (c) photolysis (d) photophosphorylation MT

B I O L O G Y TODAY | FEBRUARY '07

66. The feathery stigma is present in (a) Caesalpinia (b) pea (c) wheat (d) Datura

innoxia

67. The ribozyme is a RNA (a) with extra phosphate (b) without phosphate (c) without sugar (d) with enzymatic activity 68. "Crown gall" is caused by (a) Envinia (b) Agrobacterium (c) Mycobacterium (d) Clostridium 69. Which of the following pairs belong to the category of cold blooded animals? (a) snakes and birds (b) bat and rats (c) frog and snakes ,(d) birds and monkey 70. Lateral ventricle and diocoel of brain (third ventricle) are connected by (a) foramen magnum (b) foramen of monro (c) occipital foramen (d) aqueduct of Sylvius 71. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Stratum lucidum is found in dermis and secrete keratin epidermis and situated below stratum corneum dermis and release keratin epidermis and originates from hair follicle

72. The oxygen dissociation curve is (a) parabola (b) slope (c) sigmoid (d) straight line 73. Biologically, marriage is prohibited between (a) R l r boy and R l r girl (b) Rh + boy and R l r girl (c) Rh + boy and Rh + girl (d) R l r boy and Rh + girl 74. The environmental factor that influences the elongation of polypeptide chain is (a) humidity (b) oxygen (c) light (d) temperature 75. Thick cuticles on leaves are typical of plants growing in (a) dry habitats (b) warm habitats (c) wet habitats (d) cool habitats 76. Mendel's dihybrid cross ratio is (a) 12 : 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 15 : 1 77. Which of the following is a protective device? (a) symbiosis (b) competition (c) camouflage (d) commensalism 78. The pressure by which root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil is (a) ion exchange (b) osmosis

41

(c)

DPD

(d) turgor pressure

79. (a) (c)

Meristele of fern is amphicribal collateral

(b) radial (d) leptocentric

80. An excessive enlargement of diseased organ, due to an increase in the number of cells, is called (a) necrosis (b) hyperplasia (c) hypertrophy (d) damping off 81. Which of the following organelle does not contain RNA? (a) nucleolus (b) plasmalemma (c) chromosome (d) ribosome 82. Chemical transmission of nerve impulses from one neuron to another, or from a neuron to a muscle by (a) cholecystokinin (b) acetylcholine (c) cholesterol (d) all of these 83. hills (a) (c)

Which fossil man has been known from Shivalik in India? Sinanthropus (b) Ramapithecus Pithecanthropus (d) Zinjanthropus

84. Fat is converted into fatty acid and glycerol by which of the following enzyme? (a) ptyalin (b) lipase (c) amylase (d) trypsin 85. If a sporangium is derived from a single cell, it is called (a) heterosporangiate (b) eusporangiate (c) leptosporangiate (d) none of these 86. and (a) (c)

Protective layer of radicle during seed germination endosperm formation is suspensor (b) coleorhiza coleoptile (d) plumule

87. A gene, which affects the character of another gene, not located on similar locus of t h e h o m o l o g o u s chromosome is called (a) complementary gene (b) epistatic gene (c) duplicate gene (d) supplementary gene. 88. The thermal algae can survive in a hot water spring at (a) 80°C (b) 70°C (c) 60°C (d) 90°C 89. Genetic transfer through viruses is called (a) conjugation (b) transduction (c) sexduction (d) transformation

42

90. Two sister chromatids are attached with (a) chromocentre (b) spindle fibre (c) centromere (d) chromatid 91. The largest type of nematocysts in Hydra are (a) atrichous isorhiza (b) penetrants (c) volvent (d) holotrichous isorhiza 92. How much energy is consumed from one trophic level to another trophical level? (a) 15% (b) 10% (c) 5% (d) 20% 93. Hermit crab and sea anemone relationship is (a) mutualism (b) symbiosis (c) commensalism (d) none of these 94. Which of the following amino acids is present in ornithine cycle? (a) glycine & methionine (b) arginine & citruline (c) valine & cystine (d) none of these 95. (a) (b) -(c) (d)

'Ozone hole' refers to reduction in the thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere reduction in ozone layer in stratosphere hole in the ozone layers increased concentration of ozone

96. Most common ovule having funiculus lying close to the micropyle is called (a) anatropous (b) campylotropous (c) circinotropous (d) amphitropous 97. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Euploidy is best explained by one chromosome less than the haploid set exact multiples of a haploid set of chromosome one chromosome more than the haploid set one chromosome more than the diploid set

98. Isotopes used f o r p r o v i n g s e m i c o n s e r v a t i v e replication of DNA are (a) N14 and P31 (b) N14 and N 15 14 14 (c) N anc C (d). C' 4 and P 31 99. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Bordeaux mixture, a fungicide consists o f M g S 0 4 + Ca (OH)j copper sulphate + calcium hydroxide magnesium hydroxide copper sulphate + sodium hydroxide

100. Resin duct of si gymnospermous stem is an example* of (a) big vacuole (b) intercellular space (c) lysigenous cavity (d) schizogenous cavity MT

B I O L O G Y TODAY | FEBRUARY'0742

Section - B Direction : In the following items more than o n e of the a n s w e r s given may be correct. Select the correct a n s w e r s and mark it according to the code. Code :

(a)

I. 2 and 3 are correct

(b)

1 and 2 are correct

101. If L, C, R represent inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively, the c o m b i n a t i o n s having dimensions of frequency are ( 1 ) 1 /JCL

(2) L/C

(3) R1L

(4) R.C

102. Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed, at different angles 0, and 9 2 to the horizontal. Their times of flight are and /2 and they have the same horizontal range. Then (1) t J h = tan 6, (2)e, + e2 = 90 o (3) ti / sinG, = t2 / sin9 2 (4) f, / t2 = tan8 2 103. When you carry a body from floor and keep it on table, work done does not depend on (1) time taken in doing so (2) path chosen (3) weight of the body (4) height of the table 104. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Inside a uniform spherical shell gravitational field is zero gravitational potential is zero gravitational potential is constant gravitational field is constant

105. The torque required to produce a unit twist in a solid bar of length / and radius r is (1) directly proportional to r 2 (2) directly proportional to r 4 (3) inversely proportional to r2 (4) inversely proportional to / 106. If a sample of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in liquid, then the (1) relative density of metal is 7 (2) relative density of metal is 3 (3) relative density of liquid is 3 (4) relative density of liquid is (1/3) 107. If a , P and y are coefficients of linear, superficial and volume expansion respectively, then (1) (P/a) = (1/2) (2) (P/y) = (2/3) (3) (p/a) = (y/p) (4) (y/a) = (3/1) 108. Which o f the f o l l o w i n g f u n c t i o n s are path independent? (1) gravitational potential energy (2) heat (3) internal energy (4) work MT

BIOLOGY TODAY | FEBRUARY '07

(c) 2 and 4 are correct

(d) 1 and 3 are correct

109. Which of the following will not show the change in their time period when they are taken to moon? (1) a simple pendulum (2) a torsional pendulum (3) a physical pendulum (4) a spring-mass system 110. A wave is represented by the equation y = ^ 1 0 * r + 1 5 1 t f + - J , w h e r e x is in metre and t is in second. The expression represents (1) a wave travelling in the negative x-direction having a wavelength 0.2 m (2) a wave travelling in the negative x-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s (3) a wave travelling in the positive ^-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s (4) a wave travelling in the positive x-direction having a wavelength 0.2 m 111. Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have charge densities of a , - o and o respectively. The potentials of A, B and Care (1)

(a-b

(2) VB =

'J \b

'a2

+ c)c A b -¥c +e a

(3)

v

(4)

VA=V„ =Ff =— [a + b + c}G

c = — e

112. A parallel plate air capacitor is connected, to a battery. The quantities charge, voltage, electric field and energy associated with the capacitor are given by go, V0, E0, and U0, respectively. A dielectric slab is n o w introduced to fill the space between the plates with the battery still in connection. The corresponding quantities now given by Q, V, £ and U are related to the previous ones as (1) V> V0 (2)Q>Q0 ( 3 ) £ > £0 (4) U> U0 113. The balanced Wheatstone bridge is shown in figure. If P is made 11 £2 then which of the following condition will not balance the Wheatstone bridge again ?

43

o=ioon -^WWv

/>=10Q WAA.

(1) (3)

R=20t2 S=200£2 R increases by 2 Q (2) S increases by 20 Q O increases by 10 Q (4) RS = 2200

114. In the network shown above, points A,

B,

C

are

at(70V)10Q

S4

20Q

potentials of 70, zero ^ and 10 V respectively. (1) point D is at a potential of 40 V "-»(iov) (2) the currents in the sections AD, DB and DC are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1 (3) point D is at a potential of 20 V (4) the currents in the sections AD, DB and DC are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 115. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? both Peltier and Joule effects are reversible both Peltier and Joule effects are irreversible Joule effect is reversible, whereas Peltier effect is irreversible Joule effect is irreversible, whereas Peltier effect is reversible

116. A long s t r a i g h t c o n d u c t o r , / A carrying a current 1, is bent to form an almost c o m p l e t e circular loop of radius r on it. The magnetic field at / M the centre of the loop (1) is directed out of the paper (2) is directed into the paper Mi 2r! (4)

121. When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A undergoes a radioactive decay process (1) both Z and A will decrease, if the process is a decay (2) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is P + decay. (3) Z and A will remain unchanged, if the process is y decay (4) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is P~ decay 122. An e~ in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = to n = n2. The time period of the e~ in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of «, and n 2 are (1) n, = 4, « 2 = 2 (2) «, = 8, M2 = 2 (3) «, = 6, n2 = 3 (4) «, = 8, n2 = 1

B9-

H H

A

(1) 0 (4) A n r 2

118. An LC c i r c u i t has c a p a c i t a n c e C, = C and inductance'/., = L. A second circuit has C 2 = C/2 and L2 = 2 L and a third circuit has C 3 = 2 C and L3 = 1/2. All the three capacitors are charged to the same potential V, and then made to oscillate. Then (1) maximum current is greatest in second circuit (2) maximum current is greatest in third circuit (3) maximum current is greatest in first circuit (4) angular frequency of oscillation is same for all the three circuits

44

120. Resolving power of reflecting type telescope increases with (1) decrease in wavelength of incident light (2) increase in wavelength of incident light (3) increase in diameter of objective mirror (4) decrease in diameter of objective mirror

123. To get an output Y = 1 from circuit of figure the input must be

M has magnitude | 2r

117. Units of magnetic moment are (1) A m 2 (2) JT-' (3) JT

119. In Young's double slit experiment the interference pattern is found to have an intensity ratio between the bright and dark fringes as 9. This implies (1) the intensities at the screen due to two slits are 5 and 4 units (2) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 and 1 units (3) the amplitude ratio is 3 (4) the amplitude ratio is 2

B

c

1

0

(2) 1

0

1

(3) (4)

0

0

1

1

1 0

124. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon should be doped to make a p-type semiconductor are those of (1) aluminium (2) antimony (3) boron (4) phosphorus 125. According to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, for the electron in the n th allowed orbit, the (1) linear momentum is proportional to (1/h) (2) the kinetic energy is proportional to (1/h 2 ) (3) the angular momentum is proportional to n (4) radius is proportional to n MT

BIOLOGY TODAY | FEBRUARY '07 44

126. Which of the following will react with aldehydes, ketones and nitrosobenzene? (1) N H 2 - N H 2 (2) N H 2 - O H (3) Grigrard's reagent (4) benzyl chloride 127. For which of the following reactions change of enthalpy equals to the change in internal energy? (I) H, + I, - » 2HI (2) P C l 5 f e ) P C l 3 ( g ) + Cl2(g) (3) C (s) + 0 2 ( g ) - > C0 2 f e ) (4) 2 H 2 0 2 - » 2 H , 0 + 0 2 128. (1) (2) (3) (4)

In to to to to

a nuclear reactor, heavy water is used provide high speed neutrons reduce the speed of neutrons capture neutrons produced by nuclear fission transfer the heat from the nuclear reactor

129. Which of the following reactions do not lead to the formation of colloidal solution? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Cu + HgCl 2 —» CuCl 2 + Hg Cu + CuCl 2 2 CuCl 2 Mg + CO, - > 2 MgO + C 2 H N 0 3 + 3 H 2 S - ) 3 S + H 2 0 + 2 NO

130. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following is/are true? sucrose is a non reducing sugar glucose is oxidised by Fehling solution fructose is not oxidised by H N 0 3 fructose is oxidised by bromine water

131. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of sodium acetate and acetic acid in water sodium chloride and hydrochloric acid in water ammonia and ammonium chloride in water ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water

132. Which of the following will increase the formation of ammonia? N 2( ,)+3H 2fe) 2NH 3te) ; AH = - x kJ (1) increase of temperature (2) increase of pressure (3) decrease of pressure (4) addition of nitrogen

135. Strong heating of Me 2 N-P (3) a plot of log P versus log V is not linear at constant temperature (4) a plot of P versus 1 / F is linear at c o n s t a n t temperature 138. Which observation/s will be correct about the major products X and Y of the following reaction? ,D

so2ci2 >X peroxide

(1)

(2)

Xis

ale. KOH/A

Xis D

D

D

D

;

133. 100 ml of 0.5M hydrazoic acid (HN3, Ka = 3.6 x 10"4) and 400 ml of 0.1M cyanic acid (HOCN, Ka = 8 * 10"4) are mixed. Which of the following is (are) true for the final solution? (1) [ H + ] = 1 0 - 2 M (2) [N3~] = 3 , 6 x 10- 3 M (3) [OCN-] = 4.571 x lO"3 M (4) [H + ] = 1.4 x 10" 2 M

(3) 7 is D

D

139. Keto enol tautomerism is observed in (1) C 6 H 5 CHO (2) C 6 H 5 COCH 3 (3) C 6 H 5 COC 6 H 5 (4) C 6 H 5 COCH 2 COCH 3 140. Aqueous solution of KI dissolves molecular iodine to form a complex KI 3 . It contains (1)

K 3+ ions

(2) K + ions

(3)

I" ions

(4)

IJ ions

(1)

C10 4 "

(2) BF 3

141. Which of the following reactions is feasible as per given chemical equations?

(3)

SOJ

(4) CO; 2 -

(1)

134. Which of the following species are hypervalent?

MT

BIOLOGY TODAY | FEBRUARY '07

CF3I + OH

—»CF3H + IO~ (a(/)

45

(2)

Rb[ICl,]

RbCl + ICl

(3)

R,SiCI,

(4)

all the above are feasible reactions

hydr0lySIS

> R2Si(OH)2—>

(3) R,Si=0

142. Under Wolf-Kishner reduction conditions, the conversions which may be brought about are (1) benzophenone into diphenylmethane (2) benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol (3) cyclohexanone into cyclohexane (4) cyclohexanone into cyclohexanol 143. Diborane undergoes reactions with (I) trimethylamine (2) ammonia (3) carbon monoxide (4) carbon dioxide 144. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) correct? (1) the co-ordination number of each type of ion in CsCI crystal is 8 (2) a metal that crystallises in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12 (3) in Schottky defect, density of crystal alters, while in Frenkel defect, density remains constant (4) in both Schottky defect and Frenkel defect density of crystals remains constant 145. Which of the following pairs of ions can be separated by H,S in dilute HC1? (1) Zn 2+ , Cu 2+ (2) Bi 3+ , Sn 2+ 2+ 2+ (3) Mn , Hg (4) Cu 2+ , Cd 2+ 146. 10.78 g of H 3 P 0 4 in 550 ml solution is 0.40 N. Thus this acid (1) has concentration 0.2 M (2) has been neutralised to P 0 4 2 (3) gives 2H + ion (4) has been neutralised to H 2 P0 4 ~ 147. When pent-2-yne is treated with H 2 0 / H + / H g 2 + t h e products formed are (1) CHjCOCHJ CH 2 CH 3 (2) CH 3 CH 2 COCH 2 CH 3 (3) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 COOH + HCOOH (4) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 COOH 148. W h i c h of t h e f o l l o w i n g s t a t e m e n t s [Fe(H 2 0) 5 N0] 2 + are correct? (1) oxidation state of Fe i s + 1 (2) coordination number of Fe is 6 (3) charge on N O is +1 (4) oxidation state of Fe is +2

about

149. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) wrong? (1) if the value of I - 1, the electron distribution is spherical (2) the shape of the orbitals is given by magnetic quantum number

46

(4)

the magnetic quantum number always has a positive value angular momentum of Is, 2s, 3s electrons are equal

150. Which of the f o l l o w i n g are o r g a n o m e t a l l i c compounds? (1) Zn (CN) 2 (2) Ni (CO) 4 (3) N i C 0 3 (4) K[PtCl 3 (C 2 H 5 )] 151. The largest gland in the body, lying immediately under the diaphragm & below the right ribs, plays an important roles in many metabolic processes. Like, (1) it detoxifies the blood by removing & metabolizing poisonous substances (2) process of uric acid formation takes place in this gland (3) it stores glucose as glycogen and breaks down glycogen to glucose between meals to maintain a constant glucose concentration in the blood (4) it brings about the conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin 152. W h e n m a n i n h a l e s air c o n t a i n i n g n o r m a l concentration of oxygen as well as carbon monoxide he suffers from suffocation because (1) carbon monoxide reacts with oxygen, which is thus removed from the air entering the lung (2) haemoglobin combines with carbon monoxide instead of oxygen & the product cannot dissociate (3) carbon monoxide affects the nerves of lungs (4) amount of haemoglobin available for oxygen transport is reduced 153. If Henle's loop were absent from the mammalian n e p h r o n , then which of t h e f o l l o w i n g cannot be expected ? (1) there will be no urine formation (2) there will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed (3) the urine will be more concentrated (4) the urine will be more dilute 154. If a h u m a n f e m a l e s t a r t s d e v e l o p i n g m a l e characteristics like beard, degeneration of uterus & ovaries, enlargement of clitoris etc. then the correct reason for such characters are (1) over production of estrogen (2) over production of progesterone (3) damage to posterior pituitaiy (4) over production of adrenal androgens 155. Human body regularly loses cells in the region of (1) skin surface (2) lining layer of gut (3) red blood cells (4) nails MT

BIOLOGY TODAY | FEBRUARY '07 46

156. Which of the following characteristics belongs to cleavage ? (1) decrease in size of blastomeres (2) rapid mitotic cell divisions (3) interphase is very short duration (4) differentiation of blastomeres 157. To prepare DNA for replication, a series of proteins aids in the unwinding and separation of the double stranded molecules. These proteins are (1) reverse transcriptase (2) DNA single stranded binding protein (SSBs) (3) ptyalin (4) primase 158. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following matching pair are correct ? chancroid Haemophilus ducrei syphilis — Treponema pallidum genital warts Trichomonas vaginalis chlamydia human papilloma virus

159. Which of the f o l l o w i n g matched ? (1) elephant (2) wild ass (3) great Indian bustard (4) flamingo -

pairs are incorrectly Ranthambore Dachigam Assam Rann of Kutch

160. Mesozoic era (1) is an era of geologic time between the paleozoic and the coenozoic spanning the time between 248 & 65 millions years ago (2) is also called age of trilobites (3) term was coined by John Phillips in 1840 (4) word is from Greek and it means old life 161. Which of the following statements are correct ? (1) in 1983 C y c l o s p o r i n e b e c a m e t h e f i r s t immunosuppressive drug licensed for transplant recipient (2) the first successful organ transplant was a kidney transplant performed in 1954 in Botson (3) multiple sclerosis is a progressive disease of the autonomous nervous system caused by antibodies that attack the meninges (4) B cells produce a large clone of plasma soon after it is formed 162. Dopper images can help the physician to see and evaluate (1) the presence of an antigen or antibody in a sample by antigen - antibody interaction (2) blockage to blood flow (such as clots) (3) cancers of lungs, liver & pancreas (4) build up of plaque inside the vessel 163. Adipose tissue is a connective tissue present MT

B I O L O G Y TODAY | FEBRUARY '07

beneath the skin, around the kidneys, in mesentry & bone marrow. Besides adipocytes it contains (1) fibroblast (2) macrophages (3) collagen fibres (4) ossein 164. Of the following, what do both mitochondria and chloroplast have in common ? (1) DNA is present (2) ATP is produced (3) ribosomes are present (4) RNA is present 165. Which of the following represent the connecting link on the basis of anatomy ? (1) Archaeopteryx between reptiles & birds (2) lung fish between amphibians & birds (3) duck billed platypus between reptiles & mammals (4) Seymoria between reptiles & birds 1 6 6 . W h i c h of t h e f o l l o w i n g e f f e c t s are d u e to parasympathetic nervous system which maintains those conserving functions that restore the organism during period of tranquillity ? (1) increases heart rate (2) decreases heart rate (3) increases contractility (4) glycogen synthesis 167. Marfan syndrome results in abnormally long and distensible extremities, abnormally distensible skin and a high incidence of vascular aneurysms. This syndrome (1) involves defective collagen cross linking (2) is a connective tissue disorder (3) is a malformation of chromosome 18 specifically the part of it that is used by body to manufacture connective tissue (4) is a vascular tissue disorder 168. Male reproductive organs of cockroach are (1) utricular gland (2) collaterial gland (3) conglobate gland (4) telson 169. (1) (2) (3)

A trait found in all mammals is/are seven cervical vertebrae placenta hair (4) parotoid gland

170. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Framework elements takes part in synthesis of protoplasm synthesis of cell wall synthesis of nucleoplasm formation of storage products

171. Nucleotides, porphyrins, polypeptides and other biochemical developed nonenzymatically in early broth due to (1) oxygen free atmosphere (2) low temperature (3) irradiated environment (4) oxygen rich atmosphere

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172. Which of the following mechanisms are important in the death of erythrocytes in human body ? (1) phagocytosis (2) hemolysis (3) mechanical damage (4) blood clotting 173. When a mosquito takes a blood meal from a person infected with malaria, which of the following is / are not ingested by it ? (1) sporozoites (2) merozoites (3) male & female gametes (4) male & female gametocyte 174. Which of the following are poisonous snake ? (1) kraits (2) python (3) sea snake (4) double headed snake 175. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Oedema is due to increased permeability of capillary walls reduced return of lymph decreased capillary pressure decreased permeability of capillary walls

176. Antitranspirants are substances that are employed for reducing the rate of transpiration. They include (1) phenylmercuric acetate (2) abscisic acid (3) IAA (4) morphine 177. Necrosis, that is death of cells in plants is caused by the deficiency of a number of elements as (1) phosphorous (2) nitrogen (3) potassium (4) copper 178. Dark phase or carbon assimilation in plants occur by the following modes as (1) pentose phosphate pathway (2) cyclic photophosphorylation (3) Calvin cycle (4) Hatch Slack cycle 179. Which of the following reactions are intermediate steps of glycolysis ? (1) F - 6 - P — > F - 1 , 6 BP (2) 1, 3 - bis PGA —> 3 PGA (3) 2 PGA - > PEP (4) acetyl CoA + OAA —> citric acid 180. In hemitropous ovule, the body of the ovule lies at right angle to funiculus and chalaza and micropyle lie on the same straight line. This is characteristic of (1) ranunculaceae (2) primulaceae (3) magnoliaceae (4) orchidaceae 181. Cytokinin, a growth hormone, affect plant growth by regulating (1) prevention of senescence (2) overcome dormancy (3) cell division (4) bolting

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182. Measurement of growth in plants can be done by (1) auxanometer (2) crescograph (3) potometer (4) hygrometer 183. The f o l l o w i n g characteristics are typical f o r troprical evergreen forests (1) 200 - 350 cm of rainfall/year (2) diversity and productivity is maximum (3) soil is highly leached and so poor in nutrients (4) there is hot summer and cold winters 184. Project tiger started in 1973, due to decrease in number of tiger population protected tigers. The national park that include tiger project are (1) Corbett national park (2) Ranthambore national park (3) Bandipur national park (4) Kaziranga national park 185. Which of the following characters are not shown by hydrophytes ? (1) have fleshy organs that store water and mucilage (2) leaves show heterophylly (3) have n e g a t i v e l y g e o t r o p i c r o o t s c a l l e d pneumatophores (4) possess special air storage parenchyma called aerenchyma 186. (1) (2) (3)

The diseases caused by fungi in plants are tobacco mosaic disease wilt of pigeon pea citrus canker (4) late blight of potato

187. Triticum aestivum or b r e a d w h e a t is an allohexaploid plant (6n = 42, AABBDD) obtained by crossing the following plants. (1) Aegilops Squarossa (2) Triticum dicoccum (3) Aegilops speltoides (4) Raphanus sativus 188. Bacillus thuringiensis is an important tool in biotechnology. Which of the following are true for the organism? (1) its gene has been used to produce Bt cotton (2) it is used to obtain an insecticide called thurioside (3) hirudin protein is present in the organism ( 4 ) ' its spores are used as bioweapon to produce anthrax 189. Which among the following represents the floral formula of family liliaceae ? (1) ©«? P ^ A , + 3 G a , (2) ©