Biology Question Bank for AIPMT

Biology—Its Meaning and Relevance to Mankind 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

10.

11. 12.

13. 14. 15. 16.

The cultures of Alexander Fleming consisted of (A) Streptococcus (B) Staphylococcus (C) Bacillus (D) Clostridium. Observation of destruction of bacterial culture by invasion of fungus lead to the discovery of (A) Penicillin (B) Chloromycetin (C) Erythromycin (D) Bacterin. Teleology is (A) Doctrine of purpose (B) Finding reason for a natural phenomenon (C) Finding God’s will in natural phenomena (I)) All the above. The first step in scientific study is (A) Preliminary examination (B) Hypothesis (C) Identification of problem (D) Observation. In scientific study observation is followed by (A) Hypothesis (B) Identification of prob1em (C) Preliminary examination (D) Repeated observation. Which is not based on predictive generalization or repeatable experimentation? (A) Hypothesis (B) Theory (C) Principle (D) Law. Hypothesis is (A) Intelligent guess (B) Reasoned explanation (C) Based on previous knowledge (D) All of above. Theory is (A) Generalisation supported by experiment (B) Capable of making valid predictions (D) Capable of obtaining repeatable results (D) AU the above. Which is true? (A) Theory is based on experiment while hypothesis is related to observation. (B) Theory is related to observation while hypothesis is based upon experiment. (C) Theory is an intelligent guess while hypothesis is related to observation (D) Theory is related to science while hypothesis is connected to theology. Control experiment is (A) Experiment under fully controlled conditions (B) Experiment in which all parameters are recorded (C) Experiment without material under test (D) Experiment with optimum material under test. Which one is liable to change with new discoveries? (A) Hypothesis (B) Theory (C) Scientific fact (D) Scientific principle. Scientific method is procedure of (A) Observation and hypothesis (B) Observation, hypothesis and testing (C) Observation, hypothesis, testing and theorising (D) Observation and publication; Darwin correlated variations observed in nature to variations found in (A) Human society (B) Breeding domesticated animals (C) Breeding crop plants (D) Caged animals. Hypothesis under test is called (A) Working hypothesis (B) Preliminary hypothesis (C) Preliminary experimentation (D) Critical hypothesis. Ginkgo is (A) Evergreen (B) Deciduous (C) Phylloclade (D) Semi ever green. In his experimentation to disapprove spontaneous generation, Pasteur used as control experiment (A) Flasks without broth (B) Flasks with swan necks (C) Flasks with straight necks (D) Flasks without necks.

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

33. 34. 35. 36. 37.

Louis Pasteur proved life to come from life in (A) 1852 (B) 1862 (C) 1882 (D) 1896. Living cells were first observed by (A) Robert Hooke (B) Schleiden (C) Schwann (D) Leeuwenhoek. The first statement about cell theory was made by (A) Dujardm (B) Lamarck (C) Schwann (D) Schleiden. Applied science uses (A) Knowledge of basic science (B) Technology (C) Microbes (D) Both A and B. Electron microscope is based on knowledge of (A) Electromagnetic theory (B) Resolution of glass lenses (C) Magnification of glass lenses (D) Refraction of light. Rice originated in (A) Indo-Gangetic plain (B) Narbada Valley (C) Coast along Bay of Bengal (D) Coast along Arabian sea. Cultivation of Rice started in India around (A) 3000 years ago (B) 4000 years ago (C) 6000 years ago (D) 8000 years ago. Early centres of Rice cultivation in India were (A) Mohindergarh (B) Mehargarh (C) Mahagarh (D) Both Wand C. Number of rice varieties developed by ancient Indians was (A) 1,00,000 (B) 40,000 (C) 21,000 (D) 10,000. Ancient Indian medical man who performed rhinoplasty and ophthalmic surgery was (A) Atreya (B) Agnivesa (C) Susrata (D) Caraka. Rhinoplasty is (A) Plastic surgery of nose (B) Plastic surgery of face (C) Surgery of pinna (D) Surgery of chest. Who performed cataract extraction for the first time? (A) Caraka (B) Dhanvantri (C) Ashwanikumars (D) Susrata. Aristotle is considered (A) Father of Biology (B) Father of Zoology (C) Father of Embryology (D) All the above. Scala Naturae was written by (A) Hippocrates (B) Thales (C) Aristotle (D) Theophrastus. Number of animals studied by Aristotle was (A) 1000 (B) 500 (C) 250 (D) 100. ‘Great Chain of Being’ is (A) Biblian concept of origin of life (B) Hierarchical arrangement of organisms by Aristotle (C) Hierarchical arrangement of animals by Theophrastus (D) Origin of life by Thales. The scientist to first separate shark from mammals was (A) Aristotle (B) Galen (C) Vesalius (D) William Harvey. Dolphin was placed amongst mammals by (A) Hippocrates (B) Empedocles (C) Thales (D) Aristotle. Aristotle studied (A) Gymnosperms (B) Chick embryology(C) Human anatomy (D) Human medicine. Aristotle wrote (A) Historia Animalium (B) De Partil Animalium (C) De Generatione Animalium (D) All the above. Aristotle belonged to (A) England (B) France (C) Greece (D) Belgium.

38.

39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57.

Vasalius is called father of anatomy because he (A) Studied anatomy of several plants (B) Reinvestigated human anatomy (C) Investigated anatomy of many animals (D) Used microscope for the study of internal structure. Pumping activity of heart was found out by (A) Andreas Vesalius (B) William Harvey (C) Malpighi (D) Leeuwenhoek. William Harvey discovered (A) Blood circulation (B) Blood capillaries (C) Heart valves (D) All the above. “Micrographia” was written by (A) Antony Van Leeuwenhoek (B) Carolus Linnacus (C) Virchow (D) Robert Hooke. Robert Hooke discovered cells in (A) 1665 (B) 1695 (C) 1735 (D) 1765. Leeuwenhoek was (A) Dutch biologist (B) Dutch cloth merchant (C) British naturalist (D) British amateur scientist. Microscope used by Leeuwenhoek, was (A) Simple (B) Compound (C) Dark phase (D) Interphase. Linnaeus is known as (A) Father of cytology (B) Father of taxonomy (C) Father of binomial nomenclature (D) Both B and C. Number of plants described by Linnaeus is (A) 15000 (B) 13291 (C) 5900 (D) 2781 Fossil extinct bird-like reptiles were first found out by (A) Leonardo da vinei(B) Seward (C) Cuvier (D) Sahani. Pasteur proved (A) Spontaneous generation (B) Life from life (C) Struggle for existence (D) Enzyme induced fermentation. Vaccine developed by Pasteur was against (A) Chicken Pox (B) Anthrax (C) Rabies (D) Both B and C. Pasteurisation is a (A) Sterilisation technique (B) Immunisation technique (C) Fermentation technique (D) None of the above. Which marked the beginning of science of genetics? (A) Mendel’s experiments on Pea (B) Theory of germ plasm (C) Rediscovery of Mendel’s findings (D) Chromosomal theory of inheritance. Who proposed chromosomal theory of inheritance? (A) Boveri and Sutton (B) Bateson and Punnet (C) Morgan (D) Avery. William Bateson (A) Discovered linkage (B) Discovered complementary of genes (C) Coined the term genetics (D) All the above. Morgan discovered (A) Criss cross inheritance (B) Crossing over (C) Gene maps (D) All the above. The fungus contaminant of Staphylococcus culture of Fleming was (A) Aspergillus flavus (B) Claviceps purpurea (C) Penicillium notatum (D) Penicillium ch Who discovered that genes are made of DNA? (A) Sutton (B) Avery et. al. (C) Watson and Crick (D) Benzer. Coil of life is (A) Chromosome (B) Chromatin (C) DNA (D) RNA.

58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76.

The term molecular biology was coined by (A) Avery et. al. (B) Watson and Crick (C) Khorana (D) Astbury. Khorana got Nobel Prize in (A) 1958 (B) 1968 (C) 1978 (D) 1982. Scientists who shared Nobel Prize with Khorana for interpretation of genetic code were (A) Nirenberg and Holley (B) Watson and Crick (C) Cohen and Boyer (D) Wilmut and Campbell. Norman Borlaug was given Nobel Prize in 1970 for (A) Discovery of dwarf Rice (B) Development of dwarf wheat varieties (C) Ushering in green revolution (D) Both B and C. Human genome project was launched by (A) Khorana and others (B) Bhabha Institute (C) U.S. Department of Energy and National Institute of Health (D) NASA. Human genome project was launched in (A) 1980 (B) 1987 (C) 1990 (D) 1993. Human genome contains base pairs (A) 2 5 million (B) 25 million (C) 27 million (D) 3 billion: Number of genes present in human genome is (A) 15, 000 (B) 22, 000 (C) 27, 000 (D) 30, 000. Quinine is obtained from (A) Cinnamomum (B) Cinchona (C) Andrographis (D) Strychnos Kalmegh is obtained from (A) Andrographis paniculäta (B) Anogeissus latifolia (C) Cassia artemesioides (D) Stiychnos nurvomica. On seeing a snake, the prey becomes motionless because (A) It is hypnotized (B) It is anaesthetized (C) Instinct to avoid being noticed (D) Both A and B. Snakes do not blink at their prey because of (A) Instinct to prevent escape of prey (B) Abseuce of eye lids (C) Immobile eye lids (D) Both A and C. Snakes dance to the tune of snake charmer because (A) They are charmed by music (B) Snake charmer’s flute is very meloidus (C) They are trained like other pets (D) They change position with the change in position of the flute. Snakes visit cattle sheds for (A) Suckling milk from teats of cattle (B) Drinking spilled milk (C) Sharing cattle feed (D) Search of rats. Carnivorous plants feed on (A) Small worms and insects (B) Rats and mice (C) Birds (D) All animals including humans. Ronald Ross discovered female Anopheles to be vector of malaria while serving in (A) Chennai (B) Kolkata (C) Pune (D) Bangalore. AIDS does not spread through (A) Common syringes and needles (B) Blood transfusion (C) Sexual contact (D) Sharing meals. Amniotic fluid contains cells (A) Amniocytes (B) Foetal skin cells (C) White blood corpuscles (D) Both A and B. Amniocentesis is used for knowing (A) Chromosome aberrations (B) Health of foetus (C) Growth of cancer (D) All the above.

77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83.

84. 85. 86. 87.

88.

89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94.

Sex determination of foetus is banned because it leads to (A) Malformation (B) Infections and diseases (C) Chromosome aberrations (D) Female foeticide. Commercial rearing of honey bees is (A) Sericulture (B) Silviculture (C) Entomology (D) Apiculture. Horticulture deals with management of (A) Farms (B) Orchardsand gardens (C) Trees and shrubs (D) Forests. Manufacture of artificial limbs and pace makers is connected with (A) Biotechnology (B) Biomedical engineering (C) Medical transcription (D) Occupational therapy. Diagnosis and treatment of mental illness belongs to science of (A) Psychiatry (B) Psychology (C) Medical transcription (D) Pathology. Which one belongs to computing systems? (A) Bioinformatics (B) Computational biology (D) Computer simulation (D) All the above. Branch of professional stream that uses living organisms or their products for obtaining useful substances at the molecular level is (A) Genetic engineering (B) Microbiology (C) Biotechnology (D) Olericulture. Synthesis of antibiotics belongs to (A) Biotechnology (B) Microbiology (C) Parasitology (D) Sericulture. Science connected .with identification in criminal activities and law (A) Medical transcription (B) Pathology (C) Forensic science (D) Computational biology. The technique used in correct identification of individuals and relations is (A) Forensic science (B) Human reproductive biology (C) Microbiology . (D) DNA finger printing Profession related to writing down patient’s history, treatment, therapeutic and other procedures, diagnosis, etc is (A) Medical transcription (B) Medicine (C) Pharmacy (D) Pharmacology. Computer simulation deals with (A) Simulation models of biological structures and systems (B) Graphical, multidimensional and multimedia presentation of physiological phenomena (C) Storing, modelling and data basing of biological information (D) All the above. Science of raising improved varieties without gene manipulation is (A) Breeding biology (B) Horticulture (C) Sericulture (D) Olericulture. Advising persons and patients on nutritional requirements is connected with (A) Medicine (B) Nursing (C) Dietetics (D) Phisiotheraphy. Odontology deals with (A) Care and treatment of defective teeth (B) Care and treatment of oral cavity (C) Repair and treatment of jaw structure (D) All the above. Paediatrics deals with care and cure of diseases of (A) Children (B) All ages (C) Accident cases (D) Humans caused by parasites. Veterinary science is connected with care and treatment of (A) Injuries (B) Patients which cannot be managed through routine medicine (C) Crop plants (D) Animals. Treatment of cancerous growths and tumours with radioactive substances is (A) Radiology (B) Radiotherapy (C) Nuclear medicine (D) Both B and C

95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101.

Treating body defects with heat, massage or exercise is domain of (A) Pathology (B) Radiotherapy (C) Physiotherapy (D) Biomedical engineering. Gynaecology deals with care and problems of (A) Infants (B) Female reproductive biology (C) Male reproductive biology (D) Hormones. Developing skills for treating mental and physical debilities is (A) Pharmacology (B) Occupational therapy (C) Pathology (D) Physiotherapy. Animal husbandry deals with (A) Breeding of farm animals (B) Care and treatment of animals (C) Rearing animals for profit (D) Rearing, management and breeding of farm animals Caring, diagnosis and cure of eye diseases is (A) Orthopaedics (B) Ophthalmology (C) Pathology (D) Anthology. Branch of biology dealing with diagnosis and repair of bones and joints is (A) Orthopaedics (B) Paediatrics (C) Physiotherapy (D) Radiotherapy. Compounding and dispensing of drugs is (A) Pharmacy (B) Pharmacology (C) Nursing (D) Medicine

Revision Questions from Completive Exams 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111.

112. 113.

Vegetable cultivation comes under (A) Horticulture (B) Agriculture (C) Olericulture (D) Floriculture. Circulation of blood was discovered by and father of blood circulation is (A) William Harvey (B) Karl Landsteiner (C) Watson and Crick (D) Bose. Rearing of bees is (A) Horticulture (B) Apiary (C) Apiculture (D) Poultry Branch of science connected with diagnosis, prevention and cure of mental disorders is (A) Psychiatry (B) Psychlology (C) Neurology (D) Neuropsychiatry. Mexican dwarf developed by (A) Saliani (C) Borlaug (C) Borlaug (D) Neuropsychiatry. Scientist associated with Indian Palaeobotany is (A) P. Maheswari (B) Birbal Sahni (C) M.O.P. Iyengar (D) Swaminathan Genetic engineering is connected with (A) Development of transgenic plants (B) Development of vaccination (C) Gene therapy (D) All the above. The phrase omnis cellula e cellula was given by (A) Virchow (B) Pasteur (C) Schleiden and Schwann (D) Brown. Utilisation of living organisms for human welfare is (A) Ecobiology (B) Applied biology (C) Basic biology (D) Biophysics. In 1928, a scientist discovered the first effective antibiotic. Scientist and antibiotics are (A) Fleming  streptomycin (B) Fleming  penicillin 2000) (C) Waksman  pemcillin (D) Waksman  streptomycin. Apiculture is rearing of (A) Silkworm (B) Bacteria (C) Apex culture (D) Honey Bees. Which one of the following sequences is correct? (A) Problem defining, hypothesis, observation, experiment (B) Observation, hypothesis, problem defining, experiment (C) Observation, problem defining, hypothesis, experiment (D) Experiment, hypothesis, problem defining, observation.

114. 115. 116.

117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123.

124. 125. 126.

127. 128.

Arrangement of atoms and molecular groups in DNA and RNA can be studied through (A) Spectrophotometer (B) X-ray diffraction (C) Histochemistry (D) Centrifugation For solving a scientific problem which is not correct? (A) Hypotheses are formulated (B) Each hypothesis is subjected to experimentation (C) No control experiment is set up (D) Observation is made directly or indirectly. Given below are assertion and reason. PoINt out if both are correct and reason is correct explanation (A), Both are true but reason is not correct explanation (B), Assertion is true but reason is false (C), Both are wrong (D) Assertion: Study of biology requires basic knowledge of chemistry and physics. Reason: Living organisms are made of atoms and molecules which follow chemical and physical laws. (A) (B) (C) (D) Kalpa Vriksha is (A) Banyan (C) Fig (B) Coconut (D) Date. Aquaculture does not include (B.H.U 2003) (A) Prawns (B) Pisces (C) Silkworm (D) Shell fishery Nonpoisonous leeches were used for preventing the clotting of blood in the post operative cases during 600 B.C. by (A) Atrey (B) Charaka Samhita (C) Taittirya (D) Susrata Samhita A prediction made by a scientist based on his observation is known as (A) Hypothesis (B) Theory (C) Principle (D) Law. Aristotle is connected with (A) Biogenetic law (B) Scala Naturae (C) Parallelism (D) Catastrophism Amniocentesis is employed for diagnosis of (A) Brain disease (B) Heart disease (C) Spina bifida (D) Hereditary defects Select the false statement (A) Pasteur developed vaccine against anthrax (B) Susrata Samhita describes classification of plants and animals. (C) Dhanwantari is regarded father of ancient Indian medicine. (D) Pasteur provided experimental evidence in support of theory of spontaneous generation. Nobel Prize of 1970 was awarded to (A) Robert W. Holley (B) Norman E. Boilaug (C) Avery (D) Watson and Crick. Most widely used bioweapon is (A) Pseudomonas putida (B) Bacillus anthracis (C) Bacillus subtilis (D) None of the above. Which is correct (A) Snakes can hypnotise their prey because they do not blink their eyes (B) Snakes play on flutes as they like hearing good music (C) Snakes suckle cows when they are in forest (D) Snakes do not prey becomes fear.blink their eyes but the motionless because of In september 2001, a bioweapon used in America was (A) Polio virus (B) Anthrax (C) AIDS virus (D) Botulinum A biological weapon is (A) Brazzein (B) Anthrax (C) AIDS virus (D) Botulinum

ANSWER – KEY 1. (B) 11. (B) 21. (A) 31. (B) 41. (D) 51. (C) 61. (D) 71. (D) 81. (A) 91. (D) 101. (A) 111. (B) 121. (B)

2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122.

(A) (C) (C) (B) (A) (A) (C) (A) (D) (A) (C) (D) (D)

3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93. 103. 113. 123.

(A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (D) (C) (B) (C) (D) (A) (C) (D)

4. 14. 24. 34. 44. $4. 64. 74. 84. 94. 104. 114. 124.

(D) (A) (D) (D) (A) (D) (D) (D) (A) (D) (C) (B) (B)

5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105. 115. 125.

(B) (B) (A) (B) (D) (C) (D) (D) (C) (C) (A) (C) (B)

6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96. 106. 116. 126.

(A) (C) (C) (D) (C) (B) (B) (A) (D) (B) (C) (A) (D)

7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127.

(D) (B) (A) (C) (C) (C) (A) (D) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B)

8. 18. 28. 38. 4$. 58. 6$. 78. 88. 98. 108. 118. 128.

(D) (D) (D) (B) (B) (D) (C) (D) (D) (D) (D) (C) (D)

9. (A) 19. (D) 29. (D) 39. (B) 49. (D) 59. (B) 69. (B) 79. (B) 89. (A) 99. (B) 109. (A) 119. (D)

10. (C) 20. (D) 30. (C) 40. (A) 50. (A) 60. (A) 70. (D) 80. (B) 90. (C) 100. (A) 110. (B) 120. (A)

What is living 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

Maintenance of favourable internal environment of living beings is called (A) Homeostasjs (B) Metabolism (C) Adaptation. (D) Irritability. Changes in structure and function of living beings with age are (A) Adaptations (B) Order (C) Metabolism (D) Development. A fundamental requirement of every living organism is (A) Evolution (B) Order (C) Energy (D) Growth Growth, development and functioning living body is due to (A) Order (B) Homeostasis (C) Metabolism (D) Adaptations. Which type of organisation is found in only living beings (A) Atomic (B) Molecular (C) Mixture (D) Subcellular. In living beings atoms are arranged to form (A) Molecules (B) Compounds (C) Biomolecules (D) Mixture. Living and nonliving resemble each other in their organisation upto (A) Atomic level (B) Molecular level (C) Crystal level (D) Mixture level. Amoeba and Euglena have an organization upto (A) Cellular level (B) Tissue level (C) Organ level (0) Organ system level. Organisation formed by individuals of a species is (A) Population (B) Community (C) Ecosystem (D) All the above. Supra-organismic organisation occurs in (A) Nonliving world (B) Both nonliving and living worlds (C) Universe (D) Biosphere and its components. Organisation formed by populations of different species is (A) Ecosystem (B) Community (C) Biome (D) Biosphere. The arrangement and coordination of smaller components into larger ones is (A) Aggregation (B) Interaction (C) Organisation (D) Co-ordination The lowest level of organisation found in living beings is (A) Population (B) Individual (C) Atomic (D) Molecular. Organisation levels in living beings are (A) Subcellular  Cellular  Individual  Community  POpulation (B) Atomic  Molecular  Subcellular  Cellular  Tissue Organ  Individual (C) Individual  Population  Organ system  Tissue  Cellular Molecular  Atomic (D) Atomic  Molecular  Tissue Individual  Ecosystem  Community.

15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

Organisation above the level of organism is (A) Conceptual (B) Physical (C) Biochemical (D) Ecological. Biosphere is made up a number of (A) Landscapes (B) Species (C) Communities (D) Populations. Communities and their non-living environments constitute (A) Biomes (B) Physico-chemical organisation (C) Ecosystems (D) Biochemical ecology. Organismic biology is related to the study of (A) Tissues (B) Organs (C) Organ systems (D) All the above. Living and nonliving objects of nature (A) Have similar materials (B) Obey same physico-chemical laws (C) Both A and B (D) Have same materials but obey different physico-chemical and biochemical laws. Number of elements essential for life is (A) 95 (B) 45 (C) 25 (D) 14. The most abudant 6 elements found in living beings are (A) C, H, N, O, P and S (B) C, H, N, O, Ca and Na (C) C, H, O, K, Na and Mg (D) C, Ca, O, H, Mg and Mn. The six major elements constitute body mass (A) 85% (B) 92% (C) 98% (D) 99.4% Trace element iodine has (A) Little value as nutrient (B) Moderate value as nutrient (C) Easily replaceable with fluonne (D) Immense value as nutrient. Iodine is a component of (A) Nitrate reductase (B) Hormone thyroxine (C) Hormone TSH (D) Nitrogenase. Sharing of valence electrons produces a chemical bond called (A) Covalent bond (B) Hydrogen bond (C) Ionic bond (D) All the above. In water, two atoms of hydrogen are linked to one atom of oxygen by (A) Double bond (B) Multiple covalent bond (C) Triple bond (D) Hydrogen bond. Polar covalent bonds occur in (A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Nitrogen (D) Water. In water the shared electrons are displaced towards (A) One hydrogen atom (B) Both the hydrogen atoms alternately (C) Hydrogen and oxygen atom alternately (D) Towards oxygen atom only. In water ô charge is present over (A) Oxygen atom (B) One hydrogen (C) Both the hydrogen atoms (D) Both hydrogen and oxygen atoms. As compared to covalent bond, the strength of hydrogen bond is (A) 1% (B) 10% (C) 20% (D) 50%. Hydrogen bond is established between (A) Nonpolar interaction between 2 electroneutral atoms of different molecules (B) Nonpolar interaction between two electroneutral atoms of the same molecule (C) Partially electropositive hydrogen atom of one molecule and partially electronegative atom of another molecule (D) Partially electronegative hydrogen atom and partially electropositive atom of same or different molecule.

32.

33. 34. 35.

36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

47. 48. 49. 50.

Strength of a cellulose microfibril is due to (A) Strong numerous covalent bonds amongst different molecules (B) Numerous weak hydrogen bonds amongst adjacent cellulose molecules (C) Numerous strong ionic bonds amongst cellulose molecules (D) All the above. Chemical signals to brain by receptor molecules establish (A) Weak bonds (B) Strong bonds (C) Permanent bonds (D) Both B and C. Receptor molecules transmitting signals to brain separate (A) After initiation of response (B) Before initiation of response (C) Before completion of response (D) After completion of response. Hydrogen bonds amongst water molecules have bestowed the property of (A) Liquid with ability to flow (B) High viscosity, high specific heat and high heat of vaporisation (C) High boiling point and low freezing point (D) All the above. The ionic compound with salt crystals is (A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Sodium chloride (D) Water. Salt concentration of blood is (A)0.9gm/100ml (B)100mg/100ml (C) 9 gm /100ml (D) 500 mg/100 nil. Saline drip is given to patients suffering from (A) Dehydration (B) Low blood pressure (C) Weakness (D) Both A and B. Which is responsible for impulse conduction in a nerve fibre (A) Cl’ ions (B) Na ions (C) Glucose (D) DNA. Chloride ion is required for (A) Nerve conduction (B) Photolysis of water (C) Active transport through cell membrane (D) All the above. Counter-current system of kidneys is maintained by (A) Chloride (B) Glucose (C) Sodium (D) Sucrose. Water remains liquid between to 100°C (A) 40 to 900C (B)  40C to 1000C (C) 100 to 110° (D) 600 to i60° Life originated in (A) Lithosphere (B) Hydrosphere (C) Atmosphere (D) All the above. Percentage of water in the body of a living being like human is (A) 10  20% (B) 50% (C) 7080% (D) 90  95%. In contact with water, phospholipids form (A) Rounded aggregates (B) Monolayer (C) Bilayer (D) All the above. Water has (A) High surface tension and low thermal conductivity (B) Low surface tension and low thermal conductivity (C) High surface tension and high thermal conductivity (D) High surface tension and low thermal conductivity. In living systems water is involved as a chemical in (A) Photosynthesis and respiration (B) Synthesis of polymers (C) Hydrolysis of biochemicals (D) All the above. Water is reagent in (A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Nerve conduction (D) Glycogenesis. Water is end product in (A) Glycogenolysis (B) Hydrostatic skeleton (C) Respiration (D) Carbon assimilation. Proteins and DNA attain their 3-dimensional reactive configuration in contact with (A) Lipids (B) Sugars (C) Zymogens (D) Water.

51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71.

Which one is body lubricant (A) Pectin (B) Amino acids (C) Cutin (D) Water. Formation of glycogen from glucose is (A) Hydrolytic splitting (B) Dehydration synthesis (C) Glycogenolysis (D) Gluconeogensis. A hydration shell is produced by water molecules around (A) Cations (B) Anions (C) Polar non-electrolytes (D) All the above. Water molecules form shell around cations by establishing bonds with the help of (A) Hydrogen atoms (B) Oxygen atoms (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Once dissolved in water, ions of an electrolyte do not reassociate due to (A) Mutual repulsion (B) Viscosity of water (C) Hydration shells (D) Hydrogen bonds. Common respiratory substrate of living beings is (A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) Sucrose (D) Glucose. Energy available from respiratory substrate in the absence of oxygen is (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 25% (D) 50%. Aquatic organisms obtain oxygen from (A) Photolysis of water (B) Dissolved fraction (C) Air (D) All the above. A micromolecule is (A) Glucose (B) Glycogen (C) Starch (D) Protein. A macromolecule is (A) Amino acid (B) Nucleotide (C) Cellulose (D) Water. Lipids are (A) Inorganic micromolecules (B) Organic micromolecules (C) Inorganic macromolecules (D) Organic macromolecules. Hydrates of carbon are (A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Nucleic acids. Glucose is a (A) Monosaccharide (B) Double sugar (C) Disaccharide (D) Both B and C. Carbohydrates store energy in (A) Carbon atoms (B) Hydrogen atoms (C) Chemical bonds (D) Hydrogen bonds. Chitin is (A) Structural oligosaccharide (B) Structural polysaccharide (C) Reserve polysaccharide (D) Reserve oligosaccharide. A storage polysaccharide is (A) Sucrose (B) Cellulose (C) Starch (D) Starch and glycogen. Lipids are (A) Hydrophilic (B) Hydrophobic (C) Hydroneutral (D) All the above. Triglycerides are (A) Prostaglandins (B) Steroids (C) Terpenes (D) Neutral fats. Number of fatty acids present in phospholipid is a (A) Numerous (B) Three (C) Two (D) One. In a phospholipid the phosphate group esterified to (A) Nitrogen containing group (B) Chlorine containing group (C) Sulphur containing group (D) Sugar. Oil is (A) Steroid (B) Phospholipid (C) Neutral fat (D) Terpene.

72.

73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93.

Phospholipids possess (A) One polar head and one nonpolar tail (B) One polar head and two hydrophobic tails (C) Two polar heads and one hydrophobic tail (D) One hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail. Common steroid is (A) Hydrocortisol (B) Cholesterol (C) Stillbesterol (D) Stigmasterol. Steroids are constituents of (A) Cell membranes (B) Vitamin D (C) Some hormones (D) All the above. 20-carbon fatty acids which act as local messengers are (A) Prostaglanclins (B) Polyterpenes (C) Steroids (D) Phospholipids. Number of amino acids taking part in protein synthesis is (A) 500 (B) 200 (C) 120 (D) 20.  NH2 group is called (A) Amino (B) Hydroxyl (C) Carbonyl (D) Aldehyde. Carboxyl group of an amino acid is (A)  CHO (B)  CO (C)  COOH (D)  OH.  CONH is called (A) Ionic bond (B) Amide bond (C) Peptide bond (D) Both B and C. An amino acid possesses (A)  NH2 and  COOH groups (B)  NH2  COOH,  H and side group (C)  NH2  COOH and side group (D),  NH2  COOH and  H group. In haemoglobin, the adjacent polypeptide chains are held together by (A) Covalent bonds (B) Hydrogen bonds (C) Both covalent and hydrogen bonds (D) Ionic bonds. In hormone insulin, the two polypeptides are joined together by (A) Ionic bonds (B) Covalent bonds (C) Hydrogen bonds (D) Both B and C Percentage of dry weight constituted by proteins in a living organism is (A) 9% (B) 12% (C) 29% (D) 50%. A transport protein is (A) Insulin (B) Imniunoglobulin (C) Haemoglobin (D) Actin. A structural protein is (A) Immunoglobulin (B) Actin and myosin (C) Collagen (D) Both B and C. Antibodies are (A) Enzymes (B) Immunoglobulins (C) Structural proteins (D) Transport proteins. Nucleic acids are (A) Two types (B) Polynucleotides (C) Heteropolymers (D) All of these. C-base of nucleotide is (A) Cysteine (C) Cytosine (B) Cystine (D) Serine. G-base of nucleotide is (A) Guanine (B) Glycine (C) Glutamic acid (D) Glutaniine. Uracil of RNA is replaced by in DNA (A) Guanine (B) Adenine (C) Thymine (D) Cytosine. Which ones are purines (A) Adenine and cytosine (B) Guanine and cytosine (C) Adenine and guanine (D) Cytosine and thymine. Which ones are pyrünidines (A) Cytosine, Thymine and Adenine (B) Adenine, Guanine and Cytosine (C) Cytosine, Guanine and Thymine (D) Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil. Ribose is a (A) Hexose sugar (B) Pentose sugar (C) Tetrose sugar (D) Triose sugar.

94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114.

5-carbon sugars of nucleic acids are (A) PGA and D1HAP (B) Glucose and fructose (C) Ribose and deoxyribose (D) Lactose and maltose. Deoxyribose is a pentose sugar found in (A) RNA (B) Free nucleotides (C) Nucleotides of DNA (D) Both B and C. Deoxyribose differs from ribose sugar in (A) Having one extra oxygen (B) One extra hydrogen (C) One oxygen less (D) One hydrogen less. Nitrogen bases of nucleotides are attached to (A) Sugar molecules (B) Phosphate radicals(C) One another (D) All the above. DNA is generally (A) Single stranded (B) Double stranded (C) Triple stranded (D) Quadruple stranded. Which one is double helix? (A) RNA (B) Haemoglobin (C) DNA (D) Insulin. Cross rungs of double helix of DNA are formed of (A) Sugar molecules (B) Phosphate radicals (C) Complementary nitrogen bases (D) Similar nitrogen bases. The two chains of DNA double helix are held together by (A) Oxygen bonds (B) Peptide bonds (C) Covalent bond (D) Hydrogen bonds. A cell that manufactures energy is (A) Meristematic cell (B) Photosynthetic cell (C) Digestive cell (D) None. All cells use energy (A) Radiant energy (B) Chemical energy (C) Thermal energy (D) Mechanical energy. Stored energy is (A) Kinetic energy (B) Activation energy (C) Potential energy (D) Free energy. Wherever stored energy is present, the potential exists for (A) Work (B) Entropy (C) Exchange of materials will environment (D)All the above In biological systems flow of energy occurs through (A) Loss of electrons (B) Gain of electrons (C) Both A and B (D) Photons. Total energy present in a biological system is called (A) Kinetic energy (B) Activation energy (C) Entropy (D) Enthalpy. To start, every biochemical reaction is (A) Exergonic (B) Endergonic (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Activation energy is required for (A) Bringing reactants together (B) Destablisation of bonds of reactants (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Spontaneous reactions are (A) Endergonic (B) Exergonic (C) Energy neutral (D) Exer-endergonic reactions. Entropy is (A) Orderliness (B) Randomness (C) Catabolism (D) Anabolism Entropy develops due to (A) Dissipation of energy (B) Collision of particles (C) Breakage of linkages (D) All the above. Universe is (A) Closed system (B) Open system (C) Receiving constant supply of energy (D) Dissipating energy continuously. Energy transfers or transformations are never 100% efficient. This is due to (A) Entropy (B) Homeostasis (C) Aggregation (D) Adaptation.

115.

116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124.

125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 131. 131. 132. 133.

Steady state is represented by (A) Getting raw materials (B) Intake of food and energy (C) Intake of materials and energy, elimination of wastes and dissipation of energy (D) Removal of waste products and intake of raw materials. The sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in living systems is called (A).C4abolism (B) Anabolism (C) Metabolism ‘ (D) Photometabolism. Biochemical reactions of metabolic pathways are directed by (A) Enzymes (B) RNA (C) DNA (D) Substrates. An example of destructive metabolism (catabolism) is (A) Photosynthesis (B) Respiration (C) Glycogenesis (D) Both B and C. Anabolism is (A) Sum total of metabolic reactions (B) Destructive metabolism (C) Constructive metabolism (D) Glycogenolysis. Photosynthesis is an example of (A) Anabolism (B) Breakdown reactions (C) Catabolism (D) Exergonic reactions. A major regulatory mechanism for multistep reactions is (A) Presence of inhibitors (B) Availability of activators (C) Feed-back mechanism (D) All the above. Regulatory sites present over the enzymes are called (A) Active sites (B) Catalytic groups (C) Buttressing groups (D) Allosteric sites. Allosteric sites are of (A) One type (B) Two types (C) Three types (D) Four types. Homeostasis is (A) Maintenance of dynamic constancy of internal environment (B) Maintenance of static constancy of internal environment (C) Maintaining favourable internal environment despite changes in external environment (D) Both A and C. Homeostasis is maintained by (A) Transport system (B) Favourable changes in extracellular fluid (C) Hormonal signals (D) All the above. Homeostasis is disturbed when (A) It is cold outside (B) It is hot outside (C) We fall ill (D) We perform strenuous exercise. Ectothermic organisms are (A) Plants (B) Invertebrates (C) Lower vertebrates (D) All the above. The organisms which do not retain thermal energy produced during exergonic reactions are called (A) Warm blooded (B) Ectothermic (C) Endotbermic (D) Both B and C. Organisms which are more economical and conserve energy are (A) Ectothermic (B) Homeothermous (C) Endothermic (D) Sword fishes. Endothermic fishes are (A) Sword fishes (B) Tuna Fish (C) Both A and B (D) None. Endothermic organisms are (A) Fishes (B) Reptiles (C) Amphibians (D) Birds and maxnm4s. Ectothermic animals are also called (A) Cold blooded (B) Poikilothermic (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. In endothermic organisms, the body temperature is (A) Constant (B) Often higher than that of environment (C) Not allowed to become low due to insulating devices (D) All the above.

134. 135. 136.

137. 138.

139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151.

If the external environment is hot, the body of endothermic organisms does not become hot due to (A) Evaporation of water (B) Vasoconstriction of superficial blood vessels (C) Vasodilation of superficial blood vessels (D) Both A and B. Thermostat and internal thermoreceptors are located in (A) Medulla oblongata (B) Hypothalamus (C) Anterior pituitary (D) Cerebrum. Thermoreceptors present in the skin are (A) Warm receptors below the epidermis and cold receptors in dermis (B) Warm receptors in epidermis and cold receptors below the epidermis (C) Cold receptors in epidermis and warm receptors below epidermis (D) Cold receptors below the epidermis and warm receptors in dermis. Homeothermy in humans is maintained through (A) Negative feed-back loop (B) Thermoreceptors (C) Cold receptors (D) Warm receptors. If the external temperature is low (A) Warm receptors are activated (B) Cold receptors are inhibited (C) Thermostat becomes operational ordering vasocontriction of peripheral vessels and stimulation of skeletal muscles (D) Thermostat becomes operational ordering vasodilation of peripheral vessels and activation of sweat gland Growth occurs due to synthesis of (A) Protoplasmic substance (B) Apoplasrnic substances (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Apoplasmic growth is through the formation (A) Cell walls and cell junctions (B) Matrix and fibres of connective tissue (C) intake of water (D) Both A and B. Conversion of blastula into gastrula is (A) Cleavage (B) Morphogenesis (C) Differentiation (D) Reproduction. Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is (A) Mimicry (B) Predation (C) Adaptation (D) Camouflage. Long term adapt4on is (A) Inheritable (B) Permanent (C) Formed due to evolution (D) All the above. Which organ remains functional for a few hours after clinical death? (A) Heart (B) Kidneys (C) Eyes (D) All the above. Which of the birds hovers over a flower for sucking nectar or catching insects without sitting over it (A) Humming bird (B) Sandpiper (C) Hornbill (D) Parrot. Flowers of Opiuys müscifera resemble (A) Male Colpa (B) Female Colpa (C) Male Housefly (D) Female Housefly. In birds long term adaptation is (A) Pneumatic bones (B) Wings from fore-limbs (C) Formation of beak (D) All the above. Clinical death is noted from (A) Stoppage of breathing (B) Stoppage of heart beat (C) Wide pupil without photoreaction (D) All the above. What is legal death (A) Biological death (B) Clinical death (C) Death when revival is not possible. (D) Both B and C. A dead but protective animal structure is (A) Feathers (B) Nails and claws (C) Skin surface (D) All the above. Many desert plants possess

152. 153. 154. 156. 157. 155. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172.

(A) Succulent leaves or stems (B) Reduced stems or leaves (C) Spines (D) All the above. Succulence of desert plants is due to (A) Storage of water (B) Presence of mucilage (C) Both A and B (D) Absence of mechanical tissues. Night blooming flowers are (A) Reddish or yellowish coloured (B) Scented and white coloured (C) Nonscented and blue coloured (D) Purplish coloured and scented. Flowers visited by humming birds are (A) Odourless and reddish-yellowish (B) Scented and reddish-yellowish (C) Scented and differently coloured (D) Nonscented and differently coloured. A complex formed .by deoxyribose sugar, phosphate anti nitrogen base is (A) Amino acid (B) Polypeptide (C) Nucleoside D) Nucleotide. Adenine is (A) Punne (B) Pyrimidine (C) Nuclàoside (D) Nucleotide. The simplest amino acid is (A) Glycine (B) Lysine. (C) Tyrosine (D) Aspartic acid. ‘A nudeôtidè is formed of (A) Purine; pyrimidine and phosphate (B) Purine, sugar and phosphate (C) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (D) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate. Which are purines (A) Adenine and guanine (B) Adenine and thymine (C) Cytosine and thymine (D) Cytosine and guanine. Steroid is (A) Cholesterol (B) Thyroxine (C) Vitamin A (D) Fatty acid ester. Peptide linkage is (A)  CO  NH  (B)  CO  NH2 (C)  COOH NH2 (D)  CH = N  Water protects organisms from thermal shock due to its high (A) Thermal conductivity (B) Latent heat (C) Dielectric constant (D) All the above. In RNA, thymine is replaced by (A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Cytosine (D) Uracil. Which one is found only in RNA? (A) Cytosine (B) Adenine (C) Uracil (D) Guanine. Starch is polymer of (A) Fructose (B) Glucose (C) Sucrose (D) Maltose. Purine bases of DNA are (A) A and C (B) A and C (C) C and T (D) A and U. The two strands of DNA are held together by bonds of (A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon. Glycogen is a polymer of (A) Galactose (B) Glucose (C) Fructose (D) Sucrose. Nitrogen bases of DNA are (A) ATUC (B) UTGC (C) ATGC (D) AUGC. Nucleic acids are made of (A) Nucleotides (B) Nucleosides (C) Amino acids (D) Proteins. Nucleotide base present in DNA but not in RNA is (A) Cytosine (B) Uracil (C) Thymine (D) Guanine Phenomenon of organisms resembling. others. for escaping from enemies is (A) Adaptation (B) Mimicry (C) Homology (D) Analogy.

173.

Homeostasis is (A) Tendency to charge with change in environment (B) Tendency to resist change (C) Disturbance inregulatory control (D) Plants and animal extracts used in homeopathy. 174. Sweating is meant for (A) Killing of skin bacteria (B) Regulation of body temperature (C) Removal of excess salt (D) Removal of excess water. 175. Cholesterol is (A) Monosaccharide (B) Protein (C) Sterol (D) Wax 176. An orchid resembling the female of an insect so as to be able to get pollinated is due to phenomenon of (A) Mimicry (B) Pseudocopulation (C) Pseudopollination (D) Pseudoparthenocarpy 177. Maintenance of internalfavourable conditions despite changesin external environment is (A) Enthalpy (B) Homoeostasis (C) Entropy (D) Steady state. 178. Saline dip is given to patient suffering from cholera& (A) Na+ ions help in retention of water in body tissues (B) NaCl is involved in supply of energy (C) NaC1 furnishes most of cell fuel (D) Na+ impairs nerve impulses involved in transmission of pain sensation. 179. Total heat content of a system is (A) Free energy (B) Enthalpy (C) Entropy (D) Kinetic energy. 180. A person exposed to cold environment does not show (A) Shivering (B) Vasoconstriction of peripheral vessels (C) Increased secretion of thyroid and adrenal medula (D) Increased heart beat and volume per stroke. 181. Which is correct about energy changes in living cells? (A) First energy transfer, then energy transformation (B) First energy transformation, then energy transfer (C) Both occur discontinuously (D) Both occur continuously 182. Which one is not an adaptation? (A) Hibernation (B) Cell division (C) Phototropism (D) Geotropism. 183. Animals not possessing a fixed temperature are called (A) Homeotherms (B) Stenotherms (C) Poikilotherms (D) Heterothernis. 184. Mimicry is meant for (A) Concealment (B) Offence (C) Defence (D) Both B and C. 185. Which one is incorrect (A) New individuals replace the dead ones (B) Homeostasis produces a self regulated steady state (C) Most homeostatic mechanisms operate through feed-back systems (D) Cell obtains instructions for divisions from a hereditary protein. 186. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true and the reason is correct explanation (A), both are true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion is true but reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Living systems are closed systems. Reason. Energy of living organisms cannot be lost or gained from environment. (A) (B) (C) (D)

187.

188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201.

202.

Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true and the reason is correct explanation (A), both are true but reason is not .correct explanation (B), assertion is true but reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Death is regarded as the most regulatory process on earth. Reason. It avoids over-crowding caused by continuous reproduction (A) (B) (C) (D) Thanatology is the science that deals with (A) Death in all its aspects (B) Solving paternity of child (C) Identification of living (D) Detection of lie. Cold blooded animals are (A) Homeotherms (B) Eurytherms (C) Poikilotherms (D) Endotherms Body temperature is regulated by (A) Lungs, muscles and skin (B) Skin only (C) Circulatory system (D) Skeletal system The smallest unit of life is (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Cell (D) Protein. During the occurrence of a spontaneous process, free energy (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Is not liberated (D) Remains constant. Living steady state has a self regulatory mechanism called (A) Homeothermy (B) Feedback mechanism (C) Homozygosity (D) Homeostasis. Energy flow and energy transformations of a living system follow (A) Law of limiting factors (B) Law of thermodynamics (C) Liebig’s law of minimum (D) Biogenetic law Highest level of biological and ecological organisation is (A) Biome (B) Ecosystem (C) Landscape (D) Biosphere. During cold, hairs are raised to near vertical position by (A) Hair follicles (B) Arrector pili (C) Capillary plexus (D) Sebaceous glands. Animals spending winter in dormant condition is referred to (A) Aestivation (B) Camouflage (C) Hibernation (D) Mimicry Energy transfers or transformations are never 100% efficient due to (A) Entropy (B) Homeostasis (C) Catabolism (D) Anabolism Metabolism is (A) Release of energy (B) Gain of energy (C) Release or gain of energy (D) Catabolism of a reaction. Biological organisation begins at (A) Cellular level (B) Atomic level (C) Organismic level (D) Submicroscopic molecular level. A living organism can be unexceptionally differentiated from a nonliving thing on the basis of its ability for (A) Reproduction (B) Growth and movement (C) Responsiness to touch (D) Interaction with environment and progressive evolution An example of negative feed back loop in humans is (A) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food (B) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles in cold (C) Secretion of tears on dust particles falling in eyes. (D) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot

203.

204.

205. 206.

207. 208. 209.

Match the columns Carp 102 years Cobra 47 years Giant 152 years Giant Tortoise 28 years Swan 123 years (A) 1 b, 2  d, 3  e, 4  c, 5  a (B) 1  a, 2  d, 3  c, 4  e, 5  b (C) 1  b, 2  c, 3  d, 4  e, 5  a (D) 1  a, 2  c, 3  b, 4  e, 5  d Which one is correctly matched? (A) Tears  Excretion of salts (B) Sweat  Termoregulation (C) Saliva  Testing food (D) Statolith  Sexual attraction. Animals with built-in thermostat are (A) Biothermic (B) Oligothermic (C) Poikilothermic (D) Hoineothermic. Select correct answers and mark the code (A) 1, 2, 3 correct (B) 1 and 2 correct (C) 2 and 4 correct (D) 1 and 3 correct. Cells regulate their activity through 1. Flow of energy 2. Flow of materials 3. Flow of information 4. Flow of smoke. (A) (B) (C) (D) Which one is positive feed back mechanism? (A) Sexual stimulation (B) Aliosteric inhibition (C) Blood pressure (D) Perspiration. Amount of usable energy available for work at uniform temperature and pressure is (A) Enthalpy (B) Free energy (C) Activation energy (D) Spontaneous energy Biowar employs (A) Mustard oil (B) Brazzein (C) Maryosa (D) Pathogens

1. (A) 11. (B) 21. (A) 31. (C) 41. (C) 51. (D) 61. (D) 71. (C) 81. (B) 91. (C) 101. (D) 111. (B) 121. (C) 131. (D) 141. (B) 151. (D) 161. (A) 171. (C) 181. (D) 191. (C) 201. (A)

2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122. 132. 142. 152. 162. 172. 182. 192. 202.

(D) (C) (C) (B) (A) (B) (A) (B) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B)

3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93. 103. 113. 123. 133. 143. 153. 163. 173. 183. 193. 203.

(C) (C) (D) (A) (C) (D) (A) (B) (D) (B) (B) (A) (B) (D) (D) (B) (B) (B) (C) (D) (A)

4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 14. 84. 94. 104. 114. 124. 134. 144. 154. 164. 174. 184. 194. 204.

(C) (B) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (D) (C) (C) (C) (A) (D) (C) (B) (A) (C) (B) (A) (B) (B)

ANSWER – KEY 5. (D) 6. (C) 15. (D) 16. (A) 25. (A) 26. (B) 35. (D) 36. (C) 45. (C) 46. (C) 55. (C) 56. (D) 65. (B) 66. (D) 75. (A) 76. (D) 85. (D) 86. (B) 95. (C) 96. (C) 105. (A) 106. (C) 115. (C) 116. (C) 125. (D) 126. (C) 135. (B) 136. (A) 145. (A) 146. (B) 155. (A) 156. (B) 165. (B) 166. (A) 175. (C) 176. (A) 185. (D) 186. (D) 195. (D) 196. (B) 205. (D) 206. (A)

7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127. 137. 147. 157. 167. 177. 187. 197. 207.

(B) (C) (D) (A) (D) (A) (B) (A) (D) (A) (D) (A) (D) (A) (D) (A) (C) (B) (A) (C) (C)

8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68. 78. 88. 98. 108. 118. 128. 138. 148. 158. 168. 178. 188. 198. 208.

(A) (D) (D) (D (B) (B) (D) (C) (C) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (A) (A) (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69. 79. 89. 99. 109. 119. 129. 139. 149. 159. 169. 179. 189. 199. 209.

(A) (C) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C) (D) (A) (C) (C) (C) (A) (C) (A) (A) (C) (B) (C) (C) (B)

10. (D) 20. (C) 30. (B) 40. (B) 50. (D) 60. (C) 70. (A) 80. (B) 90. (C) 100. (C) 110. (B) 120. (A) 130. (C) 140. (D) 150. (D) 160. (A) 170. (A) 180. (D) 190. (A) 200. (D)

SYSTAMATICS 1. 2. 3.

4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Systernatics is (A) Identification (B) Nomenclature (C) Relationships and classification (D) All the above. Taxonomy is connected with (A) Collection of plants and animals (B) Classification of organisms (C) Identification,. nomenclature and classification of organisms (D) All the above. Classification deals with (A) Identification of organisms (B) Arranging organisms into groups (C) Arranging organisms in herbaria and museums (D) Naming, identification and grouping of organisms. The term taxonomy was coined by (A) D Candoile (B) Theophrastus (C) Pliny (D) Linnaeus. The book which has left the maximum influence on the thinking of taxonomists is (A) Species Planterum (B) Origin of Species (C) Systema Naturae (D) Historia Plantarum. New Systematics differs from Classical Systematics in employing (A) Experimental Taxonomy (B) Biochemical and Cytotaxonomy (C) All biological parameters (D) Numerical Taxonomy. Karyotaxonomy is a component of (A) Cytotaxonomy (B) Experimental Taxonomy (C) Biochemical Taxonomy (D) Numerical Taxonomy. Taxonomy is important in agriculture because it helps in (A) Identification of plant pests (B) Identification of weeds (C) Identification of pathogens (D) All the above. The term taxon was given by (A) Meyer (B) Linnaeus (C) Laniarck (D) D Candolle For classification of angiosperms floral characters are preferred over vegetative characters because (A) Reproductive axis shows a large degree of prominent variations (B) Floral characters show less variations than vegetative traits (C) Shape of flower is diagnostic feature in many families (D) it is more handy to study floral features than vegetative characters. Father of Botany is (A) Hippocrates (B) Aristotle (C) Plato (D) Theophrastus. Classical systematics beievea in (A) Cytological studies (B) Fixity of species (C) Dynamic nature of species (D) Genetic studies. Study of only one or a few organisms for obtaining knowledge about species/higher group is (A) Nominalistic concept (B) Classical systematics (C) Typological concept (D) New systematics. Phylogenetic system differs from a natural system in its stress on (A) Anatomical details (B) Physiological traits (C) Morphological details (D) Origin and evolutionary trends. A genus with a single species is (A) Monotypic (B) Typical (C) Atypical (D) Polytypic. Number of obligate categories is (A)9 (B)7 (C) S (D) 3.

17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22. 23. 24.

25.

26. 27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

Hierarchy of categories was introduced by (A) Linnaeus (B) Dc Candolie (C) Bauhin (D) John Ray. Maizeisa (A) Category (B) Taxonomic category(C) Taxon (D) Species. Which is not a category? (A) Ecotype (B) Species (C) Genus (D) Order. Binomial nomenclature is (A) Not applicable to cyanobacteria (B) Not accepted by a number of countries (C) Universal with one specific name to each organism (D) Universal with two specific names to each organism. Two organisms with different correlated morphological characters belong to (A) One biological species (B) One taxononuc species (C) Two biological species (D) Two taxonomic species. ICBN is connected with (A) Correct nomenclature of animals (B) Correct nomenclature of plants (C) Correct nomenclature of biochemicals (D) All the above. ICZN was adopted in (A) 1960 (B) 1970 (C) 1964 (D) 1974. In an artificial system of classification (A) A large number of characters are taken into consideration (B) Correlated characters are more important (C) Physiological characters are relied upon (D) One or a few morphological characters are considered. Species is (A) Group of individuals occurring in a geographical area (B) Population of one type (C) Population or populations of individuals with similar genotypic and phenotypic traits (D) Population or populations of interbreeding individuals. Organisms are classified to (A) Know their distribution (B) Establish relationships (C) Know their major traits (D) Study evolution. Holotype is a specimen (A) Nomenclatural type used by author (B) Nomenclatural type when the original is missing (C) Nomenclatural type when the lectotype is missing (D) Synonym of paratype. Lectotype is (A) Duplicate of holotype (B) Specimen described along with holotype (C) Specimen cited by author without making one holotype (D) Speciment selected from original material for nomenclatural type when there is no holotype. Isotype is a specimen (A) Duplicate of holotype (B) bescribed alongwith holotype (C) Nomenclatural type when the original is missing (D) Cited by author when there is no holotype. Neotype is (A) Nomenclatural type from original material (B) Nomenclatural type when the original material is missing (C) One of the two or more specimens cited by author (D) New species discovered by a scientist. Die Naturlichen Pflanzenfamilien was written by

(A) Linnaeus 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

40. 41. 42.

43. 44. 45.

46. 47. 48. 49.

(B) Hutchinson

(C) Engler and Prantl

(D) D Candolle.

Genera Ptantwum was written by (A) Hutchinson (B) Bessey (C) Engler and Pranti (D) Benthani and Hooker. Several genera resembling one another in their major anatomical and reproductive characters are placed together in (A) Species (B) Genus (C) Family (D) Order. Name the taxonomist who wrote Species Plantarum and Systema Naturae (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) John Ray (C) Linnaeus (D) De Candolle. Who developed the concept of phylogeny? (A) Linnaeus (B) Lamarck (C) Hippocrates (D) Ernst Haeckel. The scientist who first gave the dynamic concept of species (A) Julian Huxley (B) Linnaeus (C) Lamarck (D) John Ray. Who is father of taxonomy? (A) Linnaeus (B) Lamarck (C) Parasara (D) Darwin. Typological concept of species was given by (A) Mendel (B) Aristotle and Plato (C) John Ray (D) Hutchinson. ICVN is (A) International Code of Veterinary Nomenclature (B) International Code of Viral Nomenclature (C) International Code of Vertebrata Nomenclature (D) International Code of Vermes Nomenclature. Classification reflecting the evolutionary inter-relationships of organisms is called (A) Phylogenetic classification (B) Artificial classification (C) Natural classification (D) Numerical classification. Cytotaxonomy is a form of (A) Classical systematics (B) New systematics (C) Morpho-systematics (D) All the above. Biochemical taxonomy is based on (A) Study of chromosomes (B) Study of statistics (C) Study of proteins and serum (D) Experimental determination of genetic relationships. Classification based on chromosome study of organisms is (A) Biochemical taxonomy (B) Karyotaxonomy (C) Numerical taxonomy (D) Experimental taxonomy. Common names are (A) Nonscientific (B) Scientific (C) Morphological (D) Universal. Generic name should be written as (A) First letter capital and double word (B) First letter small and double word (C) First letter capital and single word (D) First letter small and single word. The category of family is between (A) Genus and species (B) Order and genus (C) Phylum and genus (D) Kingdom and class. The highest category in taxonomy is (A) Phylum (B) Class (C) Kingdom (D) Species. The lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is (A) Phylum (B) Subspecies (C) Species (D) Variety. Related species which are reproductively isolated but morphologically similar are called (A) Allopatric (B) Sympatric (C) Sibling (D) Morphospecies.

50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

56.

57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63 64. 65. 66.

Species having many subspecies are (A) Monotypic/Microspecies (A) Monotypic/Microspecies (B) Allopatric (C) Sibling (D) Polytypic/Macrospecies. Taxonomic category of ‘Order’ comes in between (A) Class and family (B) Kingdom and class (C) Family and genus (b) Phylum and class. Binomial nomenclature was developed by Linnaeus. It provides names to organisms pertaining to (A) One scientific and one popular (B) The two given by taxonomist (C) One generic and one specific (D) International identifying catalogue. ICBN was adopted in (A) 1951 (B) 1971 (C) 1961 (D) 1981. Correlated characters are those which occur (A) At random (B) In groups or units (C) In a particular portion of body (D) In certain groups of organisms. A tautonym is (A) Nonlatinised name (B) Same name for genus and species (C) Common name used as scientific name (D) Unscientific explanation of a phenomenon. Type specimen of a new species has to be (A) Described in Latin (B) Published in recognised scientific journal (C) Kept in a recognised herbarium or collection (D) All the above. A taxonomic species distinguished on basis of morphological characters is (A) Morphospecies (B) Biospecies (C) Linneon (D) Neontological species. Neontological species is (A) Species belonging to particular area (B) Species of a particular time (C) Living species (D) Both A and B. Species belonging to different time periods are (A) Allochronic species (B) Parapatric species (C) Synchronic species (D) Allopatric species. Parapatric species are species found in (A) Adjacent geographic ranges (B) Two ends of a geographical range (C) Same geographic area (D) Overlapping geographic areas. Turril’s omega ( ) taxonomy is connected with (A) Collection of biota (B) Identification of organisms (C) Bringing out relationships (D) Compilation of flora and fauna. Adansonian taxonomy brings out relationships with the help of (A) Statistics of all known traits (B) Evolutionary tendencies (C) Similarities and dissimilarities (D) All the above. Neosystematics is based on (A) Morphology and anatomy (B) Cytology and biochemistry (C) Genetics (D) All the above. Chemotaxonomy is connected with study of (A) Biochemicals (B) Secondary metabolites (C) Serum tests (D) Metabolic pathways. The term corn is used in U.S.A. for (A) Maize (B) Wheat (C) Wheat, Oat and Rye (D) Both A and B. Lady’s Finger is actually (A) Okra (B) Smooth Guard (C) Ridge Gaurd (D) Cucumber.

67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87.

Which is correct about common names? (A) Easier to remember (B) Different in different languages (C) Universally recognized (D) All the above. Principles and rules of classification are studied under (A) Systematics (B) Natural classification (C) Nomenclature (D) Taxonomy. All the species of a genus possess same (A) Ancestry (B) Karyotype (C) Anatomy (D) Genetics. Biospecies is based on (A) Cytological traits (B) Reproductive isolation (C) Genetic isolation (D) Both B and C. Karyotaxonomy studies (A) Biochemicals (B) Secondary metabolites (C) Chromosomes (D) All the above. Trinomial nomenclature is used in case of (A) Sympatric species (B) Allochronic species (C) Polytypic species (D) Sibling species. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in (A) Systema Naturae (B) Species Plantarum (C) Genera Plantarum (D) Philosophia Botanica. Common and generic names are similar in case of (A) Felis (B) Gorilla (C) Mangifera (D) Saccharum. Which one is a correct nomenclature? (A) Fells domesticus (B) Felts domestica (C) Mangifera indicus (D) Tamanndus tnd,ca. Serum tests for knowing relationships come under (A) Experimental taxonomy (B) Chemotaxonomy (C) Biochemical taxonomy (D) Cytotaxonomy. Who has likened taxonomy without (A) Takhtajan (B) Hutchinson (C) Correns (D) Cronquist. A non-obligate component of hierarchy ‘of categories used by Linnaeus w (A) Class (B) Genus (C) Family (D) Variety. Taxon Tiger represents (A) Species (B) Genus (C) Family (D) Glass. Taxon Eucalyptus denotes (A) Species (B) Genus (C) Class (D) Division. Roundworms is a taxon that denotes (A) Genus (B) Family (C) Phylum (D) Class. Which one has a real existence? (A) Phylum (B) Class (C) Genus (D) Species. Correlated characters are similar traits found in (A) All members of a population (B) All races of a species (C) All species of a genus (D) All the above. A non-obligate category introduced between class and division is (A) Tribe (B) Subclass (C) Superclass (D) Taxon. Keys are required for (A) Phylogenetic classification (B) Species Plantarum (C) Genera Plantarum (D) Philosophia Botanica. Types of keys are (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four. Indented keys are also known as

(A) Yoked keys 88 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.

(B) Yolked keys

(C) Bracketed keys

(D) None of the above.

Which one is a taxonomic aid (A) Manual (B) Monograph (C) Museum (D) All the above. Zoological parks contain (A) Stuffed animals (B) Animal skeletons (C) Live animals (D) Both A and B. The standard size of herbarium sheet is (A) 29  41 cm (B) 15  30 cm (C) 21  36 cm (D) 25  38 cm. Labels are pasted on the herbarium sheets over (A) Right hand top (B) Right hand bottom (C) Left hand top (D) Left hand bottom. The common fungicide used in preventing growth of fungus on herbarium specimens is (A) Copper sulphate (B) Lime (C) Both A and B (D) Mercuric chloride. NBRI is located in (A) Kolkata (B) Chennai (C) Lucknow (D) Darjeeling. The largest botanical gardens of India is (A) National Botanical Garden, Lucknow (B) Indian Botanical Garden, Sibpur (C) Lalbagh Gardens, Bangalore (D) Botanical Garden, Ootacomand. The largest herbarium of the world is located in (A) Royal Botanical Garden, Kew (B) Central National Herbarium, Sibpur (C) Museum of Natural History, Paris (D) Madras Herbarium, Coimbatore. The earliest classification of animals was made in (A) Atharveda (B) Chandyogya Upanishad (C) Susrata Samhita (D) Manu Samriti. Division of flowering plants into ekmatruka and dvimatruka was done by (A) Ashwam Kumars (B) Susrata (C) Parasara (D) Hippocrates. The terms jalikaparna and maunlaparna for venation of angiosperms were coined by (A) Manu (B) Susrata (C) Chandyogya (D) Parasara. In two-kingdom classification procaryotes are placed in (A) Protozoa (B) Scyphozoa (C) Kingdom Animalia (D) Kingdom Plantae. Euglena has both holophytic and saprobic nutrition. The nutrition is called (A) Saprophytic (B) Mixotrophic (C) Holo-saprotrophic (D) Chemoheterotropic. Two kingdom classification was given by (A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) Copeland (D) Whittaker. Three kingdom classification was proposed by (A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) Whittaker (D) Lamarck. Viruses have a volume in the range of (A) 1010 to 106 m3 (B) 1015 to 1012 m3(C) 106 to 103 m3 (D) 10.2 to 10 m3 Procaryotic cells have a volume range of (A) 0.2to 10 m3 (B) 1015 to 1012 m3 (C) 106 to 103 m3 (D) 0.2  10m3 Volume of an average eucaryotic cell is (A) 10  100 m3 (B) 100—1000 m3 (C) 200  2000 m3 (D) 1000—l0000 m3 Metazoa is characterised by (A) Unicellular animals (B) Colonial animals (C) Multicellular animals (D) Multicellular decomposers. Unicellular animals are placed in the kingdom (A) Animalia (B) Protista (C) Monera (D) Metaphyta. In five-kingdom classification, unicellular green algae are included in the kingdom (A) Metaphyta (B) Protista (C) Monera (D) Metazoa. Yeasts (unicellular) are members of the kingdom (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Metaphyta (D) Fungi. In three-kingdom classification, fungi are included under (A) Kingdom Fungi (B) Kingdom Protista (C) Kingdom Animalia (D) Kingdom Plantae.

111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133.

In two-kingdom classification, Euglena was included amongst (A) Animalia (B) Plantae (C) Both A and B (D) Protista. A large serpentarium is maintained at (A) Mumbai (B) Chennai (C) Delhi (D) Kanpur. Five-kingdom classification was proposed by (A) Linnaeus (B) Whittaker (C) John Ray (D) Lamarck. Whittaker proposed 5-kingdom classific-’ ation in (A) 1969 (B) 1959 (C) 1978 (D) 1988. Absorptive nutrition is (A) Holophytic nutrition (B) Saprotrophic nutrition (C) Parasitic nutrition (D) Both B and C. Autotrophic nutrition includes (A) Chemosynthesis (B) Photosynthesis (C) Both A and B (D) Ingestive nutrition. Ingestive nutrition is (A) Heterotrophic (B) Autotrophic (C) Saprotrophic (D) Holophytic. In five-kingdom classification, Slime Moulds are included under (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Metaphyta. Algae are distributed in five kingdom classification amongst (A) Monera and Plantae (B) Monera and Protista (C) Monera, Protista and Plantae (D) Plantae and Protista. Whittaker’s classification is based on (A) Cell structure (B) Body structure (C) Nutrition (D) All the above. Protista includes organisms having (A) Procaryotic cell structure (B) Eucaryotic cell structure (C) Unicellular body (D) Both B and C. Members of Kingdom Plantae are (A) Eucaryotic (B) Multicellular (C) Unicellular (D) All the above. Members of Kingdom Animalla are (A) Unicellular (B) Multicellular (C) Mostly unicellular, a few multicellular (D) Mostly multicellular, a few unicellular. Nutrition in Protista is (A) Phagotrophic (B) Autotrophic (C) Saprotrophic (D) All the above. Ecologically fungi are (A) Producers (B) Consumers (C) Decomposers (D) All the above. Heterotrophic ingestive nutrition is found in (A) Monera (B) Animalia (C) Plantae (D) Fungi. Entities excluded from five kingdom classification of Whittaker are (A) Viruses (B) Moulds (C) Algal fungi (D) Fungi Imperfective. Which kingdom of Whittaker’s classification seems to be unnatural ? (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Animalia. In two kingdom classification, bacteria and fungi are included amongst (A) Animal kingdom (B) Plant kingdom (C) Both Plant and Animal kingdoms (D) None of the two kingdoms. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in group (A) Protista (B) Monera (C) Fungi (D) Animalia. Chemoautotrophy occurs in kingdom (A) Plantae (B) Protista (C) Monera (D) All the above. In five kingdom classification, Euglena is included under (A) Monera (B) Plantae (C) Animalia (D) Protista. Fungi possess (A) Holozoic nutrition (B) Holophytic nutrition (C) Ingestive nutrition (D) Absorptive nutrition.

134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152.

Organs are external in (A) Animals (B) Plants (C) Fungi (D) Protista. Growth is indefinite in (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Animalia. Thytoplankton and zooplankton mostly belong to (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Animalia (D) Plantae and Animalia. Number of ecological life styles found in organisms is (A)6 (B)5 (C) 4 (D) 3. Ingestive nutrition is (A) Holozoic (B) Phagotrophic (C) Both A and B (D) Holophytic. Excretory organs are absent in (A) Animals (B) Plants (C) Protistans (D) Both B and C. The term procaryonta and eucaryonta were coined by (A) Lamarck (B) Fott (C) De Candolle (D) Linnaeus. Organisms in which cell wall develops during the reproductive phase are (A) Mycoplasma (B) Bacteria (C) Slime Moulds (D) Both B and C. Animals which are fixed like plants are (A) Annelids (B) Sponges (C) Corals (D) Both B and C. In absorptive heterotrophy (A) Solid organic food is obtained from outside(B) Liquid, organic food is got from outside (C) Inorganic raw materials are obtained (D) Energy is absorbed from sun. Decomposers are (A) Phagotrophs (B) Saprotrophs (C) Osmotrophs (D) Both B and C. Which type of heterotrophy occurs in monera? (A) Absorptive (B) Ingestive (C) Phagotrophic (D) Both A and B. Group separated from fungi by Whittaker is (A) Phycomycetes’ (B) Myxomycetes (C) Zygomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. Metaphyta represents (A) Fungi (B) Lichens (C) Photosynthetic protests (D) Plantae. In his protista, Haeckel included (A) Protozoa (B) Bacteria and fungi(C) Unicellular Algae (D) All the above. Who created kingdom monera (mychota)? (A) Haeckel (B) Copeland (C) Dougherty (D) Whittaker. Protista includes organisms (A) Unicellular (B) Acellular (C) Colonial (D) All the above. Which evolved the earliest? (A) Anoxygenic photosynthesis (B) Oxygenic photosynthesis (C) Chemosynthesis (D) Aerobic respiration. Major producers of terrestrial habitats are (A) Metaphytes (B) Metazoa (C) Photosynthetic protistans (D) Photosynthetic monerans.

Revision Question 153. 154. 155. 156.

The term species was given by (A) John Ray (B) Linnaeus (C) Darwin (D) Aristotle. Static concept of species was put forward by (A) de Candolle (B) Linnaeus (C) Theophrastus (D) Darwin. Phylogeny and inter-relationship found’ between taxa on the basis of number, type and arrangement of chromosomes is (A) Cytotaxonomy (B) Chromotaxonomy (C) Kacyotaxonomy (D) Chemotaxonomy. Cytotaxonomy is connected with

157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169.

170.

171. 172.

173.

174.

(A) Chemical composition of cytoplasm (B) Cell organelles (C) Cytochromes (D) Shape and size of cells. In a scientific name, the name of author is printed in (A) Italics (B) Bold (antics) (C) Roman (D) Capital letters. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called (A) Mononomial (B) Vernacular (C) Binomial (D) Polynomial. The science of naming plants is (A) Identification (B) Nomenclature (C) Classification (D) Taxonomy. The suffix - phyta indicates (A) Family (B) Order (C) Class (D) Genus. The suffix-phyta indicates (A) Family (B) Order. (C) Class (D) Division Which one is the species? (A) Carnivora (B) Canis (C) Familiaris (D) Canis familiaris. Species living in different geographical areas are (A) Sibling species (B) Morphospecies (C) Sympatric species (D) Allopatric species. Natural system of classification is based on (A) Ontogeny (B) Phylogeny (C) Morphology (D) Morphology and affmities. Two or more species occupying same or overlapping areas are (A) Sympatric (B) Sibling (C) Subspecies (D) Allopatric. A scientist having made significant contribution in the field of classification is (A) Pasteur (B) Oparin (C) Darwin (D) Linnaeus. Classical systematics embodies/concept of classical taxonomist is (A) Biological concepts (B) Species concept (C) Typological concept (D) All the above. Binomial nomenclature seems to be difficult because a scientific name is derived from (A) English . (B) Sanskrit (C) Latin (D) French. Two plants are taxonomically related if (A) They store carbohydrate in the same type of molecule (B) Both obtain energy from hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and inorganic phosphate (C) Both have similarly lobed palmate leaves (D) Both have pinnately veined leaves. Naming of cultivars is determined by (A) International Code of Nomenclature of Cultivated Plants (B) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (C) International Association of Breeders and Genetists (D) International Code of Nomenclature for Microbes. A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered is (A) Artificial system (B) Phylogenetic system (C) Synthetic system (D) Natural system. In artificial system, the organisms are classified on the basis of (A) All the possible characters (B) Phylogenetic trends (C) A few characters (D) Anatomical, cytological and biochemical traits alongwith morphological traits. Natural system of classification differs from artificial system in (A) Employing only one floral trait (B) Taking only one vegetative trait (C) Bringing out similarities and dissim ilarities (D) Developing evolutionary trends. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is

(A) Species 175.

176.

177.

178.

179. 180. 181.

182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191.

(B) Genus

(C) Order

(D) Taxon.

In the scientific name of Mangtfera indica L. (A) Letter L., signifies latin language (B) The name is reverse with Indica preceeding mangifera (C) Letter L., signifies taxonomist Linnaeus (D) Letter L.,. is superfluous. Plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial because it was based (A) Only a few morphological characters (B) Evolutionary tendencies which are diverse (C) Anatomical characters which are adaptive in nature (D) Physiological traits along with morphological characters. Phylogenetic system brings out (A) Reproductive similarities of a (A) Reproductive similarities (B) Grouping according to morphological characters (C) Grouping on the basis of increasing complexities (D) Grouping according to evolutionary trends and genetic relationships. Binomal nomenclature means (A) One name given by two scientists (B) One scientific name consisting generic and specific epithet (C) Two names, one latinised, other of a person (D) Two names, one scientffic, other local. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/classification is (A) Species (B) Kingdom (C) Family (D) Variety. Father of taxonomy is (A) De Candolle (B) Hooker (C) Linnaeus (D) Aristotle. A scientist connected with the study. of variations, evolution and origin alongwith classification is known as (A) Classical taxonomist (B) Herbal taxonomist (C) Modern taxonomist (D) New taxonomist. Artificial system of classification was first used by (A) Linnaeus (B) De Candolle (C) Theophrastus (D) Bentham and Hooker. The term “New Systematics” was introduced (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) Linnaeus (C) Julian Huxley (D) A.P. de Candolle. System of classification used by Linnacus was (A) Natural system (B) Artificial system (C) Phylogenetic system (D) Asexual system. Species Plantarum was written by (A) Julian Hwdey (B) John Ray (C) Carolus Linnaeus (D) Charles Darwin. Carolus Linnaeus (Carl Linne) was from (A) Sweden (B) U.K. (C) Holland (D) France. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by (A) De Vries (B) Carolus Linnaeus (C) Huxley (D) John Ray. Linnaeus system of classification was based on (A) Morphology (B) Ecology (C) Embryology (D) Cytology. Phylogenetic system of classification was proposed by (A) Hutchinson/Engler and Prantl (B) Bentham and Hooker (C) Linnaeus (D) Santapau. First act in taxonomy is (A) Description (B) Identification (C) Naming (D) Classification. Taxonomy based on determination of genetic relationships is (A) Cytotaxonomy (B) Numerical taxonomy

(C) Biochemical taxonomy 192. 193. 194. 195.

196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211.

(D) fxperimental taxonomy.

A group of interbreeding organisms is (A) Genus (B) Family (C) Order (D) Species. A taxon is (A) A group of related families (B) A group of related species (C) A type of living organisms (D) A taxonomic group of any ranking. Branch connected with nomenclature, identification and classification is (A) Ecology (B) Taxonomy (C) Morphology (D) Physiology. Sequence of taxonomic categories is (A) Class — Phylum — Tribe — Order — Family — Genus — Species (B) Division — Class — Family — Tribe — Order — Genus — Species (C) Division — Class — Order — Family— Tribe— Genus — Species (D) Phylum — Order— Class — Tribe — Family— Genus — Species. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is (A) Artificial (B) Natural (C) Phylogenetic (D) Numerical. A unicellular organism often considered connecting plants and animals is (A) Monocystis (B) Paramecium (C) Euglena (D) Entwnoeba. Thallophyta includes (A) Fungi and Bacteria (B) Algae, Fungi, Bacteria and Lichens (C) Algae, Fungi and Lichens (D) Algae and Fungi. An attribute found in plants but not animals is (A) Metabolism (B) Sexual reproduction (C) Autotrophy (D) Asexual reproduction. he scientist who created the group Protista I for both unicellular plants and animals is A) Haeckel (B) Pasteur (C) Lister (D) Koch. ystema Naturae was written by A) Lamarck B) Cuvier C) Aristotle D) Linnaeus. Father of Zoology’ is A) Carolus Linnaeus (B) Aristotle (C) John Ray (D) Buffon. he term phylum was given by A) Cuvier (B) Haeekel (C) Theophrastus D) Linnaeus. he suffix -oideae is used for A) Tribe (B) Family (C) Class (D) Subfamily. Aristotle divided animals into A) Protozoa and Metazoa (B) Enaima and anainia C) Chordata and Nonchordata (D) Vertebrata and Invertebrata. Lnnaeus is credited with A) Binomial nomenclature (B) Theory of biogenesis C) Discovery of microscope (D) Discovery of blood circulation. An important criterion for modern day classification is A) Resemblances in morphology (B) Anatomical and physiological traits C) Breeding habits D) Presence or absence of notochord. International code of ‘Biological Nomenclature’ is applicable to (A) Viruses (B) Plants (C) Animals (D) Both B and C. Species is a group of organisms that (A) Can interbreed (B) Cannot interbreed (C) Live together (D) None of the above. The third name in trinomial nomenclature is (A) Species (B) Subgenus (C) Subspecies (D) Ecotype. In nomenclature (A) Both genus and species are printed in italics (B) Genus and species may be of same name (C) Both in genus and species the first letter is capital

(D) Genus is written after the species. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231.

Whittaker proposed (A) Two kingdom classification (B) Five kingdom classification (C) Four kingdom classification (D) Three kingdom classification. Protista includes (A) Heterotrophs (B) Chemoautotrophs (C) Chemoheterotrophs (D) All the above. In Whittaker’s classification, non-nucleated unicellular organisms/procaryotes are included under (A) Plantae (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) Animalia. In Whittaker’s five kingdom classification, eucaryotes are assigned to (A) All the five kingdoms (B) Only four kingdoms (C) Only three kingdoms (D) Only two kingdoms Four kingdom classification was proposed by (A) Whittaker (B) Copeland (C) Haeckel (D) Linnaeus. Mitochondria probably originated from bac teria because both have (A) Similar type of circular DNA (B) Similar pigments (C) Same function (D) All the above. Species is (A) Specific unit of evolution (B) Specificunit in the evolutionary history of a race (C) Specific class of evolution (D) Not related to evolution. Phylogenetic classification is based on (A) Utilitarian system (B) Habits (C) Overall similarities (D) Common evolutionary descent. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words (A) Genus and species (B) Order and family (C) Family and genus (D) Species and variety. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without flesh” is the statement of (A) Oswald Tippo (B) John Hutchinson (C) Takhtajan (D) Bentham and Hooker. Mayr’s biological concepts of species is mainly based on (A) Morphological traits (B) Reproductive isolation (C) Modes of reproduction (D) Morphology and reproduction. Two morphologically similar populations are intersterile. They belong to (A) One species (B) Two biospecies (C) Two sibling species (D) None of the above. Linnaean system of plant classification is based on (A) Morphological and anatomical characters(B) Evolutionary trends (C) Floral characters (D) None of the above. Which one possesses characters of both plants and animals? (A) Bacteria (B) Mycoplasma (C) Paramoeciu,n (D) Euglena. Distinction of procaryota and eucaryota is mainly based on (A) Nucleus only (B) Cell organelles only (C) Chromosomes only (D) All the above. On the basis of nucleus, virus should be (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Specimen used the author is (A) Holotype (B) Isotype (C) Syntype (D) Lactotype. Two similar holotypes are called (A) Mesotypes (B) Meotypes (C) Syntypes (D) Isotypes. A binomial nomenclature has words/parts (A) Five (B) Three (C) Two (D) One. Binomial system of nomenclature for plants is effective from (A) 5.8.1771 (C) 1.8.1758 (B) 1.5.1753 (D) 6.7.1736.

232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237.

238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250.

251.

A species was defined as a population of interbreeding individuals and reproductively isolated from other populations by (A) Charles Darwin (B) J.B. Lamarck (C) Carolus Linnaeus (D) Ernst Mayr. In Whittaker’s five kingdom classification, unicellular eucaryotes primarily aquatic and having various cell organelles constitute (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Animalia (D) Plantae. Algae with photosynthetic pigments possess nutrition (A) Holozoic (B) Saprophytic (C) Holophytic (D) Parasitic. In five kingdom classification, which single kingdom contains blue-green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Fungi. Blue-green algae are placed in the kingdom (A) Plantae (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Monera. Floral features are commonly used for identification of angiosperms because (A) Reproductive parts are more conservative (B) Flowers can be safely pressed (C) Flowers are nice to work with (D) flowers have various colours and scents. Which one is a taxon? (A) Order (B) Family (C) Genus (D) All the above A system of classification that is based on evolution, order and ancestry is known as (A) Natural system (B) Analogous system (C) Phylogenetic system (D) Homologous system. Characteristics which delimit a family are more general than those which delimit a (B) Family (A) Cohort (B) Ph$urn (C) Class (D) 3enus. A botanist is to nomenclate a similar species. The scientist will study (A) Syntype (B) Isotype (C) Neotype (D) Mesotype. The book having binomial nomenclature for the first time is (A) Histoire Narurelle (B) Systema Naturae (C) Historia Naturalis (D) Hthtona Flantarum. Scientist who developed ‘key’ for identification of animals (A) John Ray (B) Goethe (C) Cuvier (D) Theophrastus. Book written by Aristotle is (A) Historf a Animaljum (B) Histoire Naturelle (C) Systema Naturae (D) Philosophie Zooligique. Karyotaxonomy is based on (A) Trinomial nomenclature (B) Organic evolution (C) Number of chromosomes (D) Bands formed on chromosomes. First great taxonomist was (A) Linnaeus (B) Hooker (C) Aristotle (D) Engler. Which one of the following has least similar characters? (A) Family (B) Class (C) Genus (D) Species. Taxon is (A) Species (B) Unit of classification (C) Highest rank in classification (D) Group of closely related organisms. Individuals of one population can interbreed with individuals of another population if they belong to same (A) Species (B) Genus (C) Family (D) Order. Given below are and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. To give scientific name to a plant, there is ICBN. Reason. It uses articles, photographs and recommendations to name a plant (A) (B) (C) (D) Holopbytic nutrition occurs in

252. 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260.

261. 262.

263. 264

265.

266. 267. 268. 269.

(A) Amoeba (B) Entamoeba (C) Euglena (D) Giardia. Feeding on dead and decaying organisms is a nutrition called (A) Autotrophic (B) Saprotrophic (C) Parasitic (D) Holozoic. Latest classification of biological kingdoms has been proposed by (A) Linnaeus (B) Haeckel (C) Whittaker (D) John Ray. On which of the following, five kingdom classification is based (A) Cell wall (B) Genetic material (C) Types of organelles (D) Mode of nutrition. Which one is saprophytic in nutrition (A) Fungi (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Viruses (D) All the above. Number of criteria used in classifying organisms in five-kingdom classification is (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2. Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus (A) Species (B) Family (C) Class (D) Division. What is correct (A) APIS INDICA (B) trypansoma gainbiense (C) Ficus Bengalensis (D) Mangifera indica. Which covers the largest number of organisms (A) Genus (B) Family (C) Phylum (D) Class Find out the correct sequence in hierarchy (A) Phylum, Class, Family, Species, Order (B) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class (C) Species, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class (D) Class, Family, Species, Genus, Order. Which of the following is not taxon but a category (A) Division (B) Angiosperms (C) Polypetalae (D) Hibiscus. Chemotaxonomy is connected with (A) Classification of chemicals found in plants (B) Use of phytochemical data in systematic botany (C) Application of chemicals on herbarium sheets (D) Use of statistical methods in chemical yielding plants. Descending arrangement of categories is called (A) Classification (B) Taxonomy (C) Hierarchy (D) Key. Holotype is (A) Specimen used by author as nomenclature type (B) Specimen referred along with original description (C) Duplicate of nomenclature type (D) Sp selected from original when nomenclature type is missing. Keysto species are (A) Species belonging to same period (B) Species that determine structure of biotic community (C) Species reproducing sexually (D) Species recorded only in the fossil Institution which encourages publication of local flora is (A) NBRI (B) FRI (C) BSI (D) IARI. Nicotiana is (A) Variety (B) Subspecies (C) Species (D) Genus. Which one is odd/not a category? (A) Species (B) Class (C) Phylum (D) Glumaceae/Malvaceae. The correct hierarchical order is (A) Kingdom, genus, class, phylum a division (B) Phylum, kingdom, genus, species a class (C) Kingdom, phylum, class, genus a species

270. 271. 272.

274.

275.

276.

277. 278.

279. 280. 281. 282. 283.

(D) Phylum, division, family, genus a class In hierarchical classification class interpolated between (A) Family and genus (B) Phylum and order (C) Order and family (D) Kingdom and phylum. The term new systematics was given by Julian Huxley in (A) 1809 (B) 1901 (C) 1840 (D) 1940. Binomial nomenclature is (A) Two words in name of a species (B) Two names local and species (C) Two names of a species (D) Two phases, asexual and sexual, in the life cycle of a species. 273. A true species consists of a population (A) Sharing the same niche (B) Interbreeding (C) Feeding over the same food (D) Reproductively isolated. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Systematics is branch of biology that deals with classification of organisms. Reason. Aim of classification is to group the organisms in orderly manner. (A) (B) (C) (D) Biosystematics aims at (A) Classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters (B) Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships (C) Classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of study (D) Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characters. Nicotiona sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate species. (A) They cannot interbreed in nature (B) They are reproductively distinct (C) They are physiologically distinct (D) They are morphologically distinct. Phonetic classification is based on (A) Ancestral lineage of existing organisms (B) Observable characteristics of existing organisms (C) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics (D) Sexual characteristics. Species are considered as (A) Rea!basic units of classification (B) Lowest units of classification (C) Artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms (D) Real units of classification devised by taxonomists. What is true about the species which have become extinct (A) About 99% of all that lived on earth (B) About 75% of all that lived on earth (C) About 25% of all that lived on earth (D) None of the above. Five kingdom classification was proposed in the year (A) 1959 (B) 1969 (C) 1919 (D) 1859. Who proposed that monocots are more primitive than dicots (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) Bessey (C) Aristotle (D) Engler and Prantl. One of the following is not eukaryotic (A) Protista (B) Monera (C) Plantae (D) Animalia. Plants differ from animals in having

(A) Localised growth and definite life span (B) Localised growth and indefinite life span (C) Diffused growth and indefmite life span (D) Diffused growth and definite life span . 284. 285. 286. 287.

288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 295.

296. 297.

298.

299.

Place of keeping and studying dry plants is (A) Arboretum (B) Museum (C) Vasculum (D) Herbarium. Each unit of a category of classification can be called (A) Order (B) Cohort (C) Taxon (D) Trophic level. Scientific name of plant family ends in (A)  ales (B)  ata (C)  sida (D)  eae. ICBN is (A) International Code of Biological Naming (B) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (C) International Class of Biological Nomenclature (D) International Classification of Biological Nomenclature Statistical methods used in classification (A) Numerical (B) Adansonian (C) Phenetic (D) All the above. Five kingdom classification of living organisms was proposed by (A) Engler and Prantl (B) Benthani and Hooker (C) Whittaker (D) Hutchinson An artificial system of classification was proposed by (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) Linnaeus (C) Engler and Prantl (D) Bessey. Who wrote “Species Plantarum” and provided a basis for classification of plants? (A) Carolus Linnaeus (B) Charles Darwin (C) Robert Hooke (D) Leeuwenhoek. Who gave phylogenetic classification of plant kingdom in Flora Armenia? (A) Benson (B) Cronquist (C) Takhatjan (D) Hutchinson. Hicrarchy of categories of Carolus Linnaeus had categories except (A) Genus and species (B) Order and class (C) Kingdom and class (D) Phylum and family Natural system of classification was proposed by (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) Hutchinson (C) Whittaker (D) Engler and Prantl. Which is correct hierarchical order? (A) Division  order  family  class (B) Family  class  order  division (C) Family  order  class  division (D) Order  class  family  division. Which is correct depiction of ICN? (A) Homo Sapiens (B) Homo sapiens (C) homo sapiens (D) homo Sapiens. Assertion (A). Scientific name Malus malus is illegitimate Reason (R). It is tautonym. Find out the correct answer. (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct with being correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) not correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true Statement (S). Species are groups on potentially interbreeding nature populations that are isolated from such groups. Reason (R). Reproductive isolation about distinctive morphological characters. (A) Both (S) and (R) are true and correct explanation of (S) (B) Only (S) is true, (R) is false (C) Both (S) and (R) are wrong (D) Both (S) and (R) are true, but not correct explanation of (S). BNHS is abbreviation of (A) Banaras Natural History Society (B) Bombay Natural History Society

(C) Botanical North Himalayas Society 300. 301. 302.

303. 304. .305. 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313.

314. 315. 316. 317.

(D) Biological Natural History Survey

Alphanso and Neelam are (A) Variety and Neelam are of Mangoes (B) Varieties of Apples (C) Breeds of Cow (D) Races of Man. Engler and Pranti published a phylogenetic system in the monograph (A) Genera Plantarum (B) Origin of Species (C) Die Naturlichen Pilazenfamilien (D) Species Plantarum An important function of botanical garden is (A) Providing beautiful area for recreation (B) One can observe tropical plants over there (C) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm (D) They provide natural habitat to wildlife. Modern system of classification divides organisms into Kingdoms (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5. Father of taxonomy is (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) Hutchinson (C) Linnaeus (D) Whittaker. Indentify from the following the only category that has a real existence (A) Phylum (B) Kingdom (C) Genus (D) Species. In classification of plants, the term cladistics refers to (A) Phylogenetic classification (B) Sexual classification (C) Artificial classification (D) Natural classification Which of the following taxonomjc ranks contain organisms most similar to one another? (A) Genus (B) Species (C) Family (D) Class. Three phases of taxonomy, alpha, beta and omega were recognised by (A) A.P.de Candolle (B) Turril (C) Heywood (D) Julian Huxley. Which nomenclature system is employed for naming plants (A) Vernacular (B) Binomial (C) Mononomial (D) Polynomial. Huxley is father of (A) Artificial taxonomy (B) Adansonian taxonomy (C) Classical taxonomy (D) Neotaxonomy. Phylogenetic system was given by (A) Engler and Prantl (B) Pliny (C) Whittaker (D) Joh Ray. National Botanical Institute is located in (A) Mumbai (B) Kolkata (C) Lucknow (D) Chennai Two plants belong to same species if they (A) Have more than 90% similar genes (B) Look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites (C) Have similar number of chromosomes (D) Can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds. System of classification that employs numerical data to evaluate similarities and differences is known as (A) Cytotaxonomy (B) Biosystematics (C) Phenetics (D) Chemotaxonomy. Which is different in different groups? (A) Species (B) Taxon (C) Plankton (D) Family. Tenth edition of Systema Naturae W published in (A) 1758 (B) 1764 (C) 1765 (D) 1858. Huxley’s New systematics is also called (A) Chemotaxonomy (B) Numerical taxonomy (C) Biosystematics (D) Phenetics

318. 319. 320. 321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327. 328. 329. 330.

331.

332. 333. 334.

A homonym is (A) Two or more names for the same taxon (B) Species name repeats the generic name (C) Identical name of two different taxa (D) Name given to a taxon in local language. In Oiyza sativa saliva stands for (A) Name of species (B) Specific nomenclature (C) Specific epithet (D) Specific name An organism is in the same class but not in the same family. It may belong to same (A) Genus (B) Species (C) Variety (D) Order. Classification based on a few morphological characters is (A) Artificial (B) Natural (C) Phylogenetic. (D) Both B and C. Scala Naturae was written by (A) Darwin (B) Whittaker (C) Linnaeus (D) Aristotle. The number of species classified in ‘Species Plantarum’ is (A) 3800 (C) 5900 (B) 4000 (D) 6000. In Whittaker’s system of classification, pro karyotes are kept in kingdom (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Animalia. Two kingdoms figuring in all biological class signification are (A) Protista and Plantac (B) Protista and Animalia (C) Monera and Animalia (D) Plantae and Animalia. Largest herbarium in India is at (A) National Botanical Garden, Lucknow (B) Lloyd Botanical Garden, Darjeeling (C) Forest Research Institute, Dehradum (D) Indian Botanical Garden, Sibpur. The famous botanical garden of Kew is located in (A) India (B) England (C) Germany (D) France. A phylum common to unicellular animals an plants is (A) Monera (B) Plantae (C) Fungi (D) Protista. Related genera belong to same (A) Variety (B) Family (C) Species (D) None of the above Taxonomic hierarchy refers to (A) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals (B) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants as animals (C) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a specie or group (D) Classification of species based on fossil record What is true about assertion a and reason r? Assertion a. The “biological species concept helps us to ask bow species are formed. Reason r. The concept of biological species focusses our attention on the question how reproductive isolation comes about. (A) Both a and r are correct but r doesnot explain a. (B) Both a and r are correct and r is true explanation of a (C) Both a and r are not true (D) Only a is true, r is not correct. Which is not applicable to biological species concept (A) Hybridisation (B) Reproductive isolation (C) Natural selection (D) Gene pool. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on (A) Morphological features (B) Chemical constituents (C) Evolutionary relationships (D) Floral characters. Which taxonomic aid gives comprehensive account of complete compiled information of a genus or family at a particular time? (A) Taxonomic key (B) Herbarium (C) Monograph (D) Dictionary.

ANSWER – KEY 1 (D) 11. (D) 21. (D) 31. (C) 41. (B) 51. (A) 61. (C) 71. (C) 81. (C) 91. (B) 101. (A) 111. (C) 121. (D) 131. (C) 141. (C) 151. (C) 161. (D) 171. (D) 181. (A) 191. (D) 201. (D) 211. (A) 221. (C) 231. (B) 241. (B) 251. (C) 261. (A) 271. (D) 281. (D) 291. (A) 301. (C) 311. (A) 321. (A) 331. (B)

2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122. 132. 142. 152. 162. 172. 182. 192. 202. 212. 222. 232. 242. 252. 262. 272. 282. 292. 302. 312. 322. 332.

(C) 3. (B) 13. (B) 23. (D) 33. (C) 43. (C) 53. (D) 63. (C) 73. (D) 83. (D) 93. (B) 103. (B) 113. (D) 123. (D) 133. (D) 143. (A) 153. (D) 163. (C) 173. (C) 183. (D) 193. (B) 203. (B) 213. (B) 223. (D) 233. (B) 243. (B) 253. (B) 263. (A) 273. (B) 283. (C) 293. (C) 303. (C) 313. (D) 323. (A) 333.

(B) (C) (C) (C) (B) (C) (D) (D) (C) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D) (B) (A) (D) (C) (C) (D) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (C) (C) (D) (C) (D) (D) (D) (C) (C)

4. (A) 14. (D) 24. (D) 34. (C) 44. (A) 54. (D) 64. (B) 74. (B) 84. (C) 94. (B) 104. (A) 114. (A) 124. (D) 134. (B) 144. (D) 154. (B) 164. (D) 174. (D) 184. (B) 194. (B) 204. (D) 214 (B) 224. (C) 234. (C) 244. (A) 254. (D) 264. (A) 274. (B) 284. (D) 294. (A) 304. (C) 314. (C) 324. (A) 334. (C)

5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105. 115. 125. 135. 145. 155. 165. 175. 185. 195. 205. 215. 225. 235. 245. 255. 265. 275. 285. 295. 305. 315. 325.

(B) (A) (D) (D) (C) (B) (C) (A) (C) (A) (D) (D) (C) (C) (A) (C) (A) (C) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D) (A) (C) (A) (B) (C) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D)

6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96. 106. 116. 126. 136. 146. 156. 166. 176. 186. 196. 206. 216. 226. 236. 246. 256. 266. 276. 286. 296. 306. 316. 326.

(C) (B) (B) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (B) (B) (C) (C) (B) (B) (B) (B) (D) (A) (A) (B) (A) (B) (D) (D) (A) (A) (C) (A) (D) (B) (A) (A) (D)

7. (A) 17. (A) 27. (A) 37. (A) 47. (C) 57. (C) 67. (B) 77. (A) 87. (A) 97. (C) 107. (B) 117. (A) 127. (A) 137. (D) 147. (D) 157. (C) 167. (B) 177. (D) 187. (B) 197. (C) 207. (B) 217. (A) 227. (D) . 237. (A) . 247. (B) 257. (A) 267. (D) 277. (B) 287. (B) 297. (A) 307. (B) 317. (C) 327. (B)

8. (D) 18. (C) 28. (D) 38. (B) 48. (C) 58. (C) 68. (D) 78. (D) 88. (D) 98. (D) 108. (A) 118. (B) 128. (B) 138. (C) 148. (D) 158. (C) 168. (C) 178. (B) 188. (A) 198. (B) 208. (D) 218. (A) 228. (A) 238. (D) 248. (D) 258. (D) 268. (D) 278. (A) 288. (D) 298. (D) 308. (B) 318. (C) 328. (D)

9. (A) 19. (A) 29. (A) 39. (B) 49. (C) 59. (A) 69. (A) 79. (A) 89. (C) 99. (D) 109.(D) 119. (C) 129.(B) 139.(D) 149.(B) 159.(B) 169.(A) 179.(A) 189. (A) 199. (C) 209. (A) 219. (D) 229. (D) 239. (C) 249.(A) 259.(C) 269.(C) 279.(A) 289.(C) 299.(B) 309.(B) 319. (D) 329. (B)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100. 110. 120. 130. 140. 150. 160. 170. 180. 190. 200. 210. 220. 230. 240. 250. 260. 270. 280. 290. 300. 310. 320. 330.

(B) (C) (B) (A) (D) (A) (D) (B) (A) (B) (D) (D) (A) (B) (D) (A) (A) (C) (B) (A) (C) (A) (C) (D) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (A) (D) (D) (A)

Viruses, Viroids and Prions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

The parasite that is nonliving outside a living cell but becomes living on entering it (A) Bacterium (B) Bacteriophage (C) Plasmodium (D) Yeast. RNA is genetic material in (A) T virus (B) T virus (C) SV  400 (D) TMV. Double stranded RNA is found in (A) Influenza Virus (B) Reovirus (C) Polio Virus (D) T Virus. Smallest virus is (A) Foot and Mouth virus (B) Alfalfa Mosaic virus (C) Pseudomonas Pf (D) TMV Who discovered virus to be nucleoprotein entity? (A) Causius (B) Pasteur (C) Ivanowski (D) Bawden and Pine. Name the most common viral diseases (A) Flu (B) Common Cold (C) Rabies (D) Chicken Pox. The term virus was coined by (A) Ivanowski (B) Beijerink (C) Pasteur (D) Loeffler and Frosch A viral disease known from prehistoric times is (A) Pneumonia (B) Small Pox (C) Poliomyelitis (D) Both B and C. Rabies or hydrophobia is a disease (A) Viral (B) Bacterial (C) Protozoan (D) Helmintic. Who discovered vaccination against small pox? (A) Jenner (B) Pasteur (C) Lister (D) Mayer. Extract of Tobacco with Mosaic disease was called contagium vivum fluidum by (A) Mayer (B) Ivanowski (C) Beijerink (D) Pasteur. Who found poliomyelitis to be viral disease? (A) Pasteur (B) Popper (C) De Herelle (D) Loeffler and Frosch. Bacteriophages were discovered by (A) Twort (B) De Herelle (C) Takahashi and Rawlins (D) Stanley. The term bacteriophage was coined by (A) Pasteur (B) Ivanowski (C) Saffarman and Morris (D) De Herelle. Name the us which was crystallised for the first time (A) Parrot Fever Virus (B) Small Pox Virus (C) TMV (D) HIV Who cultured the virus for the first time? (A) Stanley (B) Enders (C) Takahashi and Rawlins (D) Issacs and Lindemann. The first virus to be cultured in human cells was (A) Polio Virus (B) Dengue Virus (C) Influenza Virus (D) HIV. Coliphages are viruses parasitising (A) Fungi (B) Alimentary canal (C) Escherichia coli (D) Yeast. Who discovered that RNA is genetic material in TMV? (A) Gierere and Schramin (B) Issacs and Lindemann (C) Sinsheimer (D) De!bruck. The most mutable virus is (A) Chicken Pox Virus(B) HIV (C) Influenza Virus (D) Dengue Virus. Retroviruses and reverse transcriptase were discovered by (A) Sinsheimer (B) Stanley in (C) Temin and Baltimore (D) Hershey and Chase Single stranded DNA as genetic material   174 was discovered by (A) Deibruck (B) Saffarman and Morris (C) Reed and Findley (D) Sinsheimer.

23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

TMVIs (A) Helical Virus (B) Polyhedral Virus Bacteriophage T (A) Filamentous (B) CübOidal Which is absent in virus? (A) Genetic material (B) Protein cover Virion is (A) Virus in stage of multiplication (C) Virus inside cytoplasm of host cell Peplomers are subunits of (A) Protein cover of virus (C) Viral envelope Viral envelope is made of (A) Proteins (B) Lipids Host component of viral envelope is mostly (A) Lipids (C) Lipids and proteins Capsid is (A) Genetic material of virus (C) Extra genetic material of bacterium A virus having enzyme lysozyme is (A) Retrovirus (B) Influenza virus Genomic nucleic acid is fragmented in (A) TMV (B) Influenza virus Virus having enzyme lysozyme is (A) Retrovirus (B) Influenza virus Reverse transcriptase occurs in virus (A) HIV (B) Influenza virus A plant virus having DNA is (A) TMV (C) Potato Mosaic Virus

(C) Spherical Virus

(D) Binal Virus.

(C) Binal

(D) Spherical.

(C) Protoplasm

(D) Both A and B.

(B) Virus attached to host cell nucleus (D) Virus in cell free environment. (B) Genetic material of virus (D) Occasional enzyme found in viruses. (C) Carbohydrates

(D) All the above.

(B) Carbohydrates (D) Lipids and carbohydrates. (B) Protein cover of virus (D) House keeping genome of bacterium. (C) Bacteriophage

(D) Vaccinia virus.

(C) HIV

(D) Poliomyelitis virus.

(C) Bacteriophage (D) Vaccinia virus. (C) Vaccinia virus (D) All the above. (B) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (D) Both B and C.

Revision Questions 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

Viruses are (A) Obligate parasites (B) Obligate saprophytes (C) Partial parasites (D) Facultative parasites. Viruses possess (A) DNA only (B) Nucleic acid, DNA or RNA (C) Protein only (D) Nucleic acid and protein. AIDS virus contains (A) DNA only (B) RNA only (C) DNA + protein (D) RNA + protein. Coliphage x 174 virus contains (A) Single stranded RNA (B) Double stranded RNA (C) Single stranded DNA D) Double stranded DNA Single stranded DNA occurs as a genetic material in (A) T2 (B) T4 (C)  x 174 (D) Lambda. Not applicable to viruses is (A) Cannot use 02 for respiration (B) Made of proteins and nucleic acids (C) Can be grown in sugary medium (D) Multiply only in living host cells. In viruses, the nucleic acid is (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Both A or B (D) Either A or B.

43.

44. 45.

46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52.

53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61.

In Rous Sarcoma Virus information flow is (A) DNA Protein  RNA (B) DNA.RNA Protein (C) RNA  DNA  Protein (D) RNA  DNA  RNA  Protein Bacteriophages kill (A) Fungi (B) All monerans (C) Bacteria (D) Viruses. Viroids differ from viruses in (A) Satellite RNA packaged with viral genome (B) Naked DNA molecules (C) Naked RNA molecules only (D) Naked, DNA packaged with viral genome Reverse transcriptase is (A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (D) RNA dependent DNA polymerase Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genome is (A) Double stranded RNA (B) Single stranded RNA (C) Polyribonucleotides (D) Proteinaceous. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium? (A) Escherichia coli (B) TMV (C) Aspergillus (D) Yeast. Tobacco mosaic virus was crystallised for the first time by (A) Edward Jenner (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Andre Lwoff (D) W.N. Stanley. Bacteriophage is (A) Mycoplasma (B) Virus (C) Rickettsia (D) Spirochaete. Bacteriophage is (A) Virus attacking bacteria (B) Virus attacking virus (C) Bacterium attacking virus (D) Stage in bacterial life cycle. In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA indicating that (A) Their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA before replication (B) They cannot replicate (C) There is no hereditary information (D) RNA can act to transfer heredity. Virus attacking blue-green algae is known as (A) Cyanophage (B) Coliphage (C) Bacteriophage (D) Zoophage.. Virus consists of (A) Protein (B) Nucleic acid (C) Protein and RNA (D) Protein and nucleic acid. Tailed bacteriophage is (A) Nonmotile (B) Actively motile in water (C) Motile on bacterial surface (D) Motile on surface of plant leaves. RNA is genetic material in (A) Bacterium (B) Bacteriophage (C) TMV (D) Protozoan. Genetic material of influenza virus is (A) Single helix DNA (B) Double helix DN.A.. (C) Double strand RNA (D)Single strand RNA T-bacteriophages possess (A) Rounded shape (B) Tadpole shape (C) Irregular shape (D) Rhomboid shape. A bacteriophage possesses an enzyme (A) Protease (B) Urease (C) Debydrogenase (D) Lysozyme. Genetic material of virus is (A) DNA (B)RNA (C) DNA or RNA but not both (D) None of the above. Protein cover of virus is (A) Capsid (B) Virion (C) Viroid (D) Bacterial wall

62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Common genetic material of bacteriophage is Virus was discovered by (A) Stanley (B) Ivanowski (C) Herelle (D) Beijeriuck. Animal viruses mostly contain (A)RNA (B) RNA or DNA (C) DNA (D) None of the above Process absent in viruses is (A) Replication (B) Mutation (C) Protein synthesis (D) Energy liberation. T has (A) ds DNA (B) ss RNA (C) ds RNA (D) ss DNA. A characteristic of viruses is (A) Without independent metabolism (B) With independent metabolism (C) Multiplication outside living cells. (D) Culture in cell free medium. Which one does not have cellular structure? (A) Bacteriophage (B) PPLO (C) Bacterium (D) Diatom. Viruses parasitising bacteria are (A) Bacteriophages (B) Bacto-viruses (C) Retroviruses (D) Plasmids. A vertebrate virus which replicates in an arthropod is (A) Papova Virus (B) Parvo Virus (C) Adeno Virus (D) Reo Virus. Phages which show lysogenic cycle are known as (A) Lytic phages (B) Temperate phages (C) Virulent phages (D) Avirulent phages. Genetic material of retrovirus is (A) ss RNA (B) ss DNA (C) ds RNA (D) d DNA. RNA containing viruses belong to (A) Ribocubica (B) Ribobinala (C) Ribovira (D) Deoxyvira. Helical contractile sheath occurs in (A) Bacteria (B) Bacteriophage (C) Riboviruses (D) Fungi. Virus attacks a bacterium but neither multiplies nor the bacterium dies due to (A) Lysogeny (B) Adsorption (C) Assimilation (D) Viral stability. The stage following infection by virus when virus particles cannot be observed is (A) Infection phase (B) Eclipse phase (C) Maturation phase (D) Lysogenic phase. Circular single stranded DNA occurs in bacteriophage (A) T , T (B) x 174 , M 13 (C) T (D) 6,T Which of the following is an example of viral disease? (A) Leaf curl of Papaya (B) Late blight of Potato (C) Black rust of Wheat (D) Red rot of Sugarcane In coliphage viruses the nucleic acid is (A) RNA only (B) DNA only (C) DNA or RNA (D) DNA and RNA. Largest known virus is (A) TMV (B) T phage (C) Citrus tristeza (D)  x 174. TMV has a size of (A) 50 nm X 10 nm (B) 100 nm x 20 nm (C) 300 nm x 18 nm (D) 500 nm x 24 mm Which of the following viruses has DNA? (A) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (B) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus (C) Tomato Mosaic Virus (D) Potato Mosaic Virus. Mature virus particle is (A) Virion (B) Viricide (C) Capsid (D) Peplomer. RNA retroviruses have an enzyme that (A) Translates host DNA (B) Polymerises host DNA (C) Transcribes viral RNA to cDNA (D) Destroys host DNA. Naked DNA virus is (A) Polio virus (B) dsDNA (C) Reovirus (D) dsRNA.

86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

101. 102. 103.

104.

Polio Virus has (A) ssDNA (B) Adenovirus (C) ssRNA (D) Ribovirus. Plant viruses mostly have (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Both DNA and RNA (D) Coiled nucleolus. Potato leaf roll disease is caused by (A) Mycoplasma (B) Virus (C) Microspores (D) Bacterium. Reverse transcriptase (A) Disintegrates host DNA (B) Polymerises host DNA (C) Translates host DNA (D) Transcribes viral RNA to cDNA. Viral capsid is made of (A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) All the above. Enzyme needed for production of DNA from RNA template in certain viruses is (A) RNA polymerase (B) Reverse transcriptase (C) DNA helicase (D) DNA polymerase. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy disease is equal to. (A) Kala (B) Parkinson’s disease (C) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (D) None of the above. Temin worked on virus (A) Rhinovirus (B) Dengue virus (C) Herpes virus (D) Retrovirus. Viruses cannot multiply of their own because they (A) Do not have sex organs (B) Lack genetic material (C) Lack cellular machinery to use its genetic material (D) None of the above. Viruses are living because (A) They can reproduce. (B) They have protein synthesising machinery (C) They have some genes (D) They are parasites. Number of capsomeres in TMV is (A) 3120 (B) 2130 (C) 1230. (D) 231. Caulimo (Cauliflower Mosaic) viruses have (A) Double stranded DNA (B) Single stranded DNA (C) Single stranded RNA (D) Double stranded RNA. What is true of viruses? (A) They are obligate intracellular parasites (B) They are bigger than bacteria (C) They contain botl DNA and RNA (D) They are nonspecific for their hosts A polyhedral virus is (A) TMV (B) Polio Virus (C) Adenovirus (D) Vaccinia Virus Which is correctly matched? (A) Ligase  Breaking DNA strand (B) Flame cells  Roundworms (C) Rous Sarcoma  Reverse transcriptase (D) Thyroxine  Adrenal. TMV possesses (A) DNA (B) DNA + Protein (C) RNA + Protein (D) DNA + RNA. Genetic material of retroviruses is (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) DNA and RNA (D) Nudeoprotein complexes. What is true about viruses? (A) They can be crystallised and stored for several years (B) Viruses do not occur as parasites in living cells (C) They can be cultured on artificial media (D) They are devoid of genetic material of their own Potato leaf roll or leaf curl of Papaya are caused by (A) Fungi (B) Viruses (C) Bacteria (D) Nematodes.

105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.

111.

112.

113.

114. 115. 116. 117. 118.

119. 120.

121.

Which one is a bacteriophage? (A) Vibrio bacterium (B) Bacterium infecting virus (C) Virus infecting bacterium (D) Cyañobacterium In Reovirus, genetic material is (A) ss DNA (B) ds DNA (C) ss NA (D) ds RN The one which does not lose its identity even after crystallisation is (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Microbe (D) Protistan. Virus with nucleic acid but without protein coat is (A) Virion (B) Viroid (C) Capsid (D) Prion. Prophage is viral genome (A) Freshly synthesized (B) Inoculated to a bacterium (C) Outside the host cell (D) Incorporated and integrated to host genome. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes because (A) They require both RNA and DNA (B) They both need food molecules (C) They both require oxygen for respiration (D) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct (A) Viruses possess their own metabolic system (B) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA (C) Viruses are obligate parasites (D) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid. Viroids have (A) Single stranded RNA not enclosed by protein coat (B) Single stranded DNA not enclosed by protein coat (C) Double stranded DNA enclosed by protein coat (D) Double stranded RNA enclosed by protein coat. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) originated in China. Reason. China is the most populated country of the world (A) (B) (C) (D) Which one is caused by virus (A) Malaria (B) Polio (C) Plague (D) Tuberculosis. Which of the following diseases is not caused by virus (A) Mumps (B) AIDS (C) Tuberculosis (D) Rabies. cDNA is (A) Circular DNA (B) Coiled DNA (C) Cytoplasmic DNA (D) Complementary DNA. Which viral disease is spread by mosquito (A) Plague (B) Typhus (C) Yellow fever (D) Elephantiasis. Which one contains double stranded RNA (A) TMV (B) Reovirus (C)  x 174 (D) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus. Viruses which infect bacteria, multiply and causes their lysis are (A) Lysozymes (B) Lipolytic (C) Lysogenic (D) Lytic. What is not true of retrovirus (A) DNA has no role in life cycle (B) There is a gene for RNA dependent DNA polymerase (C) Genetic material is RNA (D) They are causative agents for certain cancers. Genetic material of HIV is (A) ssDNA (B) ssRNA (C) dsRNA (D) dsDNA.

122. 123. 124. 125.

126.

127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.

Cryptogram of TMV is (A) R/1, 1/8, S/S, S/Af (B) R/2, 1/5, E/P, O/S (C) R/1, 2/5, E/E, S/O (D) R/1, 2/7, E/E, S/O. Which of the following is false? (A) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses (B) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses (C) TMV has a doubled stranded RNA (D) T bacteriophage has double stranded Viral genome that has been integrated and incorporated with bacterial genome is called (A) DNA (B) Prophage (C) RNA (D) Both B and C. Identify the correct pair having double stranded RNA (A) Cauliflower mosaic virus and Dahlia mosaic virus (B) Poliovirus and Wound tumour virus (C) Tobacco mosaic virus and Reovirus (D) Wound tumour virus and Reovirus. The latest view for the origin of viruses is (A) They have arisen from nucleic acid and protein found in primitive soup (B) They arose from bacteria as a result of loss of cell wall, ribosomes, etc. (C) They arose from some bacteria which developed a nucleus only (D) They are modified plasmids which are in fact the fragments of nucleic acids of the host. Viral envelope contains (A) Lipids (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) All the above. Retrovirus employs to make complementary DNA from RNA (A) DNA polymerase (B) Restriction endonuclease (C) Reverse transcriptase (D) Reverse polymerase. Process of reverse transcription was discovered by (A) Garrod (B) Temin and Baltimore (C) Beadle and Tatum (D) Marshall and Nirenberg Provirus is the name of (A) Free virus (B) Free DNA (C) Primitive virus (D) Integrated viral genome. Bacteriophage releases lysozyme at (A) Absorption phase (B) Penetration phase (C) Eclipse phase (D) Maturation phase. Host of TMV is (A) Nicotiana (B) Triticum (C) Datura (D) Withania. Prion consists of (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Both DNA and RNA (D) Protein. Viroid causes (A) Cauliflower mosaic (B) Potato spindle mosaic (C) Tobacco mosaic (D) Tulip yellow mosaic Franklin Conrat demonstrated that RNA is genetic material in (A) HIV (B) CMV (C) TMV (D) Mouse Sarcoma. Proteinaceous infectious particles causing diseases are (A) Prions (B) Viroids (C) Viruses (D) Chlamydia. RNA like particles that cause disease are (A) Virus (B) Viroid (C) Prion (D) Mycoplasma. RNA retroviruses have a special enzyme that (A) Polymerises host DNA (B) Translates host DNA (C) Disintegrates host DNA (D) Transcribes viral RNA to cDNA. Virus multiplies in (A) Dead tissue (B) Soil (C) Living tissue (D) Culture medium. Which one does not occur in lytic life cycle of a virulent DNA phage? (A) The host cell lyses (B) New phages are released (C) Host cell produces a number of virions (D) Phage DNA integrates with host DNA.

141. 142.

143.

144.

145. 146. 147. 148. 149.

150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156.

A virus containing ssRNA that acts as template for DNA synthesis is known as (A) Polio virus (B) Retrovirus (C) Adeno virus (D) Pox virus. F the correct matches List I List II a) M13 bacteriaphage i. dsRNA b) Rice Dwarf Virus ii. ssRNA c) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus iii. ssDNA d) Pollo Virus iv. dsRNA (A) a—i.i, b—i, c—iv, d—ii (B) a—u, b—i, c—ui, d—iv (C) a—ui, b—iv, c—ui, d—I (D) a—iv, b—ui, c—i, d—ii. Which institute is correctly matched with its location? (A) National institute of communicable diseases  Lucknow (B) National Institute of Virology  Pune (C) National, Institute of Nutrition  Mumbai (D) Central Drug Research Institute  Kasauli. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) (A) Affects non-vegetarians faster than vegetarians (B) Is an acute form of asthma (C) Is caused by a variant of Common Cold Virus (Corona virus) (D) Is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae. Rabies is caused by a (A) Bacterium (B) Worm (C) Virus (D) Fungus. Which one has ssRNA? (A)  x 174 (B) T bacteriophage (C) Pox virus (D) TMV. Genetic material of Rabies virus is (A) Double stranded RNA (B) Single stranded RNA (C) Double stranded DNA (D) Single stranded DNA Virion is (A) Virus without protein coat (B) Enucleated virus (C) Prion (D) Virus. What is false? (A) TMV has double stranded RNA molecule (B) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses (C) Bacteriophage has a double stranded DNA molecule (D) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses. Which one is intracellular obligate parasite? (A) Bacteria (B) Slime moulds (C) Viruses (D) Blue-green algae. Potato Spindle Tuber disease is due to (A) Nematodc (B) Virus (C) Bacterium (D) Viroid. HIV is a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in (A) DNA instead of RNA (B) DNA (C) RNA instead of DNA (D) Protein coat Spongiform encephalopathy is caused by (A) Prion (B) E. coli (C) Virus (D) Fungus. The agents which are known to cause CJD are (A) Protein particles (B) A class of bacteria (C) A class of viruses (D) Fungi T.O. Diener discovered (A) Bacteriophage (B) Infectious protein (C) Free infectious DNA(D) Free infectious RNA. AIDS virus contains (A) RNA with protein (B) DNA only (C) DNA with protein (D) DNA without protein.

ANSWER – KEY 1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71. 81. 91. 101. 111. 121. 131. 141. 151.

(B) (C) (C) (D) (C) (A) (A) (B) (C) (B) (C) (C) (B) (B) (B) (I))

2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72. 82. 92. 102. 112. 122. 132. 142. 152.

(D) (B) (D) (B) (D) (D) (B) (A) (B) (C) (B) (A) (A) (A) (A) (C)

3. (B) 13. (A) 23. (A) 33. (C) 43. (D) 53. (A) 63. (B) 73. (C) 83. (A) 93. (D) 103.(A) 113.(B) 123.(C) 133.(D) 143.(B) 153.(A)

4. (A) 5. 14. (D) 15. 24. (C) 25. 34. (A) 35. 44. (C) 45. 54. (D) 55. 64. (C) 65. 74. (B) 75. 84. (C) 85. 94. (C) 95. 104. (B) 105. 114. (B) 115. 124. (B) 125. 134. (B) 135. 144. (C) 145. 154. (A) 155.

(D) 6. (B) (C) 16. (B) (C) 26. (D) (B) 36. (A) (C) 46. (D) (A) 56. (C) (D) 66. (A) (A) 76. (B) (B) 86. (C) (A) 96. (B) (C) 106. (D) (C) 116. (D) (D) 126. (D) (C) 136. (A) (C) 146. (D) (D) 156. (A)

7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127. 137. 147.

(C) (A) (C) (D) (C) (D) (A) (B) (B) (A) (A) (C) (D) (B) (B)

8. (D) 9. 18. (C) 19. 28. (D) 29. 38. (D) 39. 48. (B) 49. 58. (B) 59. 68. (A) 69. 78. (A) 79. 88. (B) 89. 98. (A) 99. 108. (B) 109. 118. (B) 119. 128. (C) 129. 138. (1)) 139. 148. (D) 149.

(A) 10. (A) 20. (D) 30. (C) 40. (D) 50. (D) 60. (A) 70. (B) 80. (I)) 90. (C) 100. (D) 110. (D) 120. (B) 130. (C) 140. (A) 150.

(A) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (D) (A) (D) (D) (C)

Kingdome Monera (The Prokaryotes) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12.

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

If a bacterial cell divides once every minute and takes 60 minutes to fill a cup. How much time it will take to fill half the cup? (A) 30 mm. (B) 32 mm (C) 29 mm. (D) 59 mm. Blue green algae used in rice fields to increase fertility is (A) Rivularia (B) Nostoc (C) Aulosira (D) Anabaena. Extra nuclear DNA in E. coil is termed as (A) F factor (B) Sex factor (C) Episome (D) All of above. Smallest cell/organism is that of (A) Vibno (B) Bacillus (C) Mycopiasma (D) Rhizobium. Bacteria which retain purple colour after staining with Gram stain is (A) Gram + ye (B) Gram  ye (C) Trichous (D) Spirillum. Blue green algae cultivated in water tanks as protein rich animal food are (A) Spirilluin (B) Spirulina (C) Oscillatoria (D) Nostoc. The common mode of reproduction in bacteria is (A) Fission (B) Budding (C) Sexual reproduction(D) Sporulation. Thyphoid is caused by (A) Xanthomonas typhosus (B) Bacillus desenteriae (C) Salmonella typhi (D) Bacillus diplococcus. Griffith performed experiments on bacteria (A) Bacillus pneumoniae (B) Diplococcus pneumoniae (C) Salmonella pneumoniae (D) Xanthomonas pneumoniae. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle because (A) Salts inhibit reproduction (B) Bacteria do not get enough light for photosynthesis (C) They become plasmolysed and consequently killed (D) The pickle does not contain nutrients necessary for bacteria to live. Studies of Griffith concluded the occurrence of (A) Transformation in bacteria (B) Conjugation in bacteria (C) Asexuality in bacteria (D) Transduction in bacteria. Pasteurization means (A) Vaccination for a baby against small pox (B) Sterilization in steam cooker at 100°C for 10 minutes (C) Heating milk or other liquids to 60°C to 70°C for short duration (D) A technique of curing people bitten by mad dogs. Bacteria differ from plants in that they do not have (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Cell wail (D) A well defined nucleus. Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at one end are called (A) Peritrichous (B) Monotrichous (C) Lophotrichous (D) Amphitrichous. Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at both ends are called (A) Peritrichous (B) Bitrichous (C) Amphitrichous (D) Atrichous. Bacteria were regarded to be plants because (A) Some of them are green (B) They are present every where (C) Some of them cannot move (D) They have a rigid cell wall. It is important to boil surgical instruments before using them in an operation. It is done (A) To kill all the pathogens which may be infecting the instruments (B) To facilitate the handling of the instruments by the doctor (C) To enable the patient feel warm and comfortable at the time of operation (D) To kill all the pathogens present at the place of operation of the patient.

18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

37.

The fixation of free nitrogen from the air in the nodules of roots of leguminous plants is done by symbiotic bacteria (A) Azotobacter (B) Rhizobium (C) Bacillus subtius (D) Micrococcus. Vinegar is prepared from fermented sugar solution by the activities of (A) Acetobacter aceti (B) Bacillus aceti (C) B. subtilis (D) Diplococcus. Streptococcus lactis is responsible for (A) Conversion of molasses into alcohol (B) Conversion of milk into curd (C) Tanning of leather (D) Flavouring the leaves of tea and tobacco. Cholera is caused by (A) Bacillus mycobacterium (B) Vibrio cholerae (C) Pseudomonas citri (D) Streptococcus cholerae. The preparation and flavouring of leaves of tea and tobacco is due to the activities of (A) Streptococcus lactis (B) Bacillus megarherium (C) Acetobacter (D) Bacillus radicicola. Biogas is produced by (A) Eubacteria (B) Archaebacteria (C) Mycoplasma (D) Cyanobacteria. Bacillus ramosus examples of (A) Ammonifying bacteria (B) Nitrate bacteria (C) Nitrite bacteria (D) Symbiotic bacteria. The fixation of free nitrogen by bacteria in the soil is done by (A) Azotobacter (B) Nitrosomonas. (C) Nitrobacter (D) Thiobacillus Bacillus subtilis are (A) Hay bacteria (B) Nitrifying bacteria(C) Ammonifying bacteria (D) Intestinal bacteria. Nitrifying bacteria convert the (A) Nitrates into nitrites (B) Nitrites into nitrates (C) Ammonium salts into nitrates (D) Ammonium salts into amino acids. The bacterial genome is called (A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (C) Nucleoid (D) None. Escherichia coli is a bacterium which is common inhabitant of (A) Human intestine (B) Soil (C) Milk (D) Water. The cells of cyanobacteria and bacteria exhibit similarity in having (A) Plastids (B) Nuclei (C) Centrosome (D) Naked DNA. Chemosynthetic bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because (A) They prepare their food without the help of light (B) They do not like sunlight brightness (C) Due to absence of chlorophyll they are incapable of manufacturing their own food (D) They use other kinds of light for manufacturing their own food. Clostridium butylicum has been used in the synthesis of (A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin A (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D. Organisms which participate most actively in nitrogen cycle in nature are (A) Saprophytic angiosperms (B) Parasitic fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Cereals. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from (A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Angiosperms (D) Fungi. Bacteria producing T.B. and Leprosy (Mycobacterium species) belong to (A) Archaebacteria (B) Actinomycetes (C) Eubacteria (D) Rickettsiae. Bacteria are classified on the basis of (A) Nucleus (B) Cell wall (C) Gram +ve and Gram ye (D) Method of nutrition. A compound which is produced by an organism and inhibits the growth of other organism is called (A) Antiseptic (B) Anticoagulant (C) Antibiotic (D) Antiallergic.

38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54.

55.

56. 57. S8.

Sex pili arc present in (A) Male Escherichia coli (B) Female Escherichia coil (C) Diplococcus (D) All bacteria. Syphilis causing Treponema belongs to the group (A) Rickettsiae (B) Bacillus (C) Actinomycetes (D) Spirillunt. Bacteria resemble (A) Nostoc species (B) Mitochondria (C) Chiamydomonas (D) None of the above. Bacteria have incipient nucleus (nucleoid) and hence they are placed in (A) Prokaryota (B) Eukaryota (C) Fungi (D) Protista. Bacteria responsible for fermentation dairy milk are (A) Lactobacilius (B) Hay Bacillus (C) Acetobacter (D) Rhizobium. Marsh gas is produced by (A) Mycoplasma (B) Myxobacteria (C) Methanogens (D) Halophiles. We can keep food for longer duration in cold storage than in ordinary cupboard because (A) Insects cannot cause infection (B) Bacterial multiplication is completely prevented (C) Bacterial multiplication is greatly reduced(D) Low temperature causes plasmolysis. The hydrogen donor in bacterial photosyn thesis is usually (A) Water (B) Hydrogen suiphide (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Ammonia. Halophiles can comfortably live in (A) Dead Sea (B) Dal Lake (C) Arabian Sea (D) Godavari. Monerans devoid of a wall are (A) Actinomycetes (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Mycoplasma (D) Eubacteria. The process in which (genetic material is carried by some external agency) viruses are involved in sexual reproduction of bacteria is called (A) Transduction (B) Transcription (C) Transformation (D) Translation. Bacteria bearing flagella all over body called (A) Peritrichous (B) Atrichous (C) Monotrichous (D) Cephalotrichous. Waksman got the Nobel Prize for the discovery of (A) Penicillin (B) Chloromycetin (C) Streptomycin (D) Neomycin. Among the following which one is recently discovered non-legume nitrogen fixing bacterium (A) Azotobacterpaspali (B) Rhizobium (C) Nitrosomonas (D) Spirilium. The group of bacteria peptidoglycan in its wall is (A) Archaebacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Eubacteria (D) Nostocales. Procaryotes which can trap solar energy for ATP synthesis but not for photosynthesis are (A) Methanogens (B) Thermoacidophiles (C) Halophiles (D) Cyanochioronta. Botulism is a (A) Type of food poisoning due to saprophytic bacterium (B) Disease in man due to parasitic bacterium (C) Disease in various organisms (D) Disease of plants due to viruses. Plasmids are (A) Viruses (B) New type of microorganisms (C) Extra chromosomal genetic element of bacteria (D) Genetic element of bacteria. A free living anaerobic bacterium capable of fixing nitrogen is (A) Azotobacter (B) Rhizobium (C) Clostridium (D) Streptococcus. Streptomycin is produced by (A) Streptomycin griseus (B) Streptomyces scoleus (C) Streptomyces fradie (D) Streptomyces venezueiae. All bacteria have the following organelle (A) Mesosomes (B) Golgi bodies (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast.

59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.

68. 69.

70. 71.

72.

73. 74. 75.

Rickettsiae is a group of (A) Viruses (B) Microorganisms (C) Bacteria (D) PPLO. Common mode of multiplication in cyanobacteria is (A) Heterocyst (B) Exospore (C) Hormogone (D) Trichome. For production of methane, methanogens (A) Oxidise carbon dioxide (B) Reduce carbon dioxide (C) Reduce alcohol (D) Oxidise alcohol. Cyanobacterial cells which are specialized for nitrogen fixation are (A) Phycobilisomes (B) Heterocysts (C) Hormogonia (D) Trichomes. The disease caused by bacteria is (A) Amoebic dysentery (B) Arthritis (C) Ben-ben (D) Diphtheria. Some bacteria have a capsule outside cell wall. It is made of (A) Protein (B) Cellulose (C) Fat (D) Mucopolysacchanide. Cell membranes contain branched chain lipids in (A) Actinomycetes (B) Spirochaetes (C) Eubacteria (D) Archaebacteria. Bacillus haemophilus causes (A) Influenza (B) Pneumonia (C) A form of meningitis in young children (D) Whooping tough. Leguminous plants are important in agriculture because (A) They are disease resistant (B) They have high amounts of proteins (C) They require less nitrogen for growth (D) Nitrogen fixing bacteria are symbiotically associated in them. Tetanus is a disease caused by (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Fungus (D) Insect. Which of the following is not true of Escherichia coli? (A) Gene recombination can occur through transformation, transduction and conjugation (B) It occurs in human intestine (C) It lacks true nucleus (D) It is diploid. Bacterial reproduction is (A) Only asexual (B) Only sexual (C) Mostly asexual (D) Mostly sexual. Which statement is correct? (A) All bacteria are autotrophic (B) All bacteria are heterotrophic (C) All bacteria are photosynthetic (D) Mostly bacteria are heterotrophic but some are autotrophic. Bacteria are thought to be primitive organisms because they (A) Are small, microscopic plants, which cannot be seen by naked eye (B) Cause serious diseases in h beings, domesticated animals and crop plants (C) Produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions (D) Possess incipient nucleus and show division similar to amitosis. Which is not a bacterial action? (A) Nitrogen fixation (B) Emulsification of fat(C) Sewage disposal (D) Ripening of cream. The uniqueness of bacterial photosynthesis is because it can occur (A) Without CO2 (B) Without photosynthetic pigment (C) Without light (D) Without evolution of oxygen. Cyanobactenia are (A) Saprotrophs (B) Photoautotrophs (C) Chemoautotrophs (D) Chemoheterotrophs.

76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86 87. 88.

89. 90.

91.

92.

Gram positive bacteria differ from Gram negative bacteria in the structure of their (A) Nucleoid/genophore (B) Cytopism (C) Cell wall (D) Ribosomes. Terramycin is obtained from (A) Streptomyces rimosus (B) Streptomyces griseus (C) Streptomyces venezuelae (D) Streptomyces aureofaciens. Transduction in bacteria was discovered by (A) Zinder and Lederberg (B) Woliman and Jacob (C) Herelle and Twort (D) Lederberg and Tatum. The bacterium which reduces the fertility of soil is (A) Nitrosom on as (B) Bacillus denitrificans (C) Azotobacter sp. (D) Nitrobacter. The part of bacterial chromosome that is homologous to a genome fragment transferred from the donor to the recipient cell in the formation of a merozygote is known as (A) Endogenote (B) Dysgenic (C) Exogenote (D) None of these. In bacteria the site for respiratory activity is found in (A) Episome (B) Microsome (C) Ribosome (D) Cell membrane/Mesosome. In unfavourable adverse conditions bacteria produce resting spores called (A) Exospores (B) Chlamydospores (C) Oidia (D)Endospores. Food poisoning is caused by (A) Clostridium botulinum (B) Salmonella typhosa (C) Clostridium tetani (D) None of these. The role of bacteria in retting of fibres is the hydrolysis of (A) Cellulose of the cell wails of the fibres (B) Lignin of the secondary wall (C) Living contents of the cells (D) Pectic substances that bind the cells together. Bacteria which can also live in the absence of oxygen are (A) Obligate aerobes (B) Facultative aerobes is (C) Obligate anaerobes (D) Facultative anaerobes. An exampl of chemoautotrophic bacterium A) Lactobacilius (B) Nitrosomonas (C) Escherichia coil (D) Rhizobium. The flagella of bacteria are composed of (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Amide. During bacterial conjugation there is usually (A) Mutual and complete exchange of genetic material between two conjugants (B) Complete transfer of genetic material from o conjugant to the other Only a partial transfer of genetic material from one conjugant to the other (C) Only a partial transfer of genetic material from one conjugant to the other (D) A partial but material exchange of genetic material between the conjugants. A red pigment present in the root nodules of 1eguminous plants is known as (A) Phycoerythrin (B) Bacteriochiorophyll (C) Leghaernoglobin (D) Bacterioviridin. Chromoplasm refers to (A) Cytoplasm rich in chioroplasts (B) Cytoplasm having photosynthetic pigments (C) Peripheral thylakoid rich part of cyanobacteria (D) Inner thylakoid rich part of cyanobacterial cell. Root nodules are found in (A) Some feguminous plants only (B) In all plants (C) Some leguminous plants and some other plants also (D) All leguminous plants but never in other plants. Bacteria and yeast are similar in all the following features except that (A) Both are unicellular (B) Both are prokaryotes (C) Both are capable of causing fermentation (D) Both produce spores

93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101.

102. 103. 104.

105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111.

The chemotherapeutic substance derived from living organisms that has an inhibitory effect on parasitic organisms is known as (A) Exotoxin (B) Bacteriocide (C) Antibody (D) Antibiotic. The similarity between cyanobacterium and bacterium is (A) Presence of flagella (B) Presence of 80 S ribosomes (C) Presence of nucleoid (D) None of these. The genetic material of bacteria is known as (A) Gene (B) Chromosome (C) Genophore (D) Nucleohistone. A cell wall material present only in blue green algae and bacteria is (A) Muramic acid (B) Cellulose (C) Chitin (D) Pectin. Blue colour of blue-green algae is due to (A) Phycocyanin and allophycocyanin (B) Phycoerythrin (C) Anthocyanin (D) Anthoxanthin. Clostridium botulinum is (A) Obligate aerobe (B) Facultative aerobe (C) Facultative anaerobe (D) Obligate anaerobe. One of the following is less resistant or more susceptible to antibiotics (A) Gram positive bacteria (B) Gram negative bacteria (C) Escherichia coli (D) None of these. Putrefying bacteria act upon (A) Fats (B) Carbohydrates (C) Proteins (D) Starch. Red Sea is named after the abundant occurrence of (A) Red coloured planktonic cyanobacterium Trichodesmium e,ythreum (B) Red coloured hypnospores of Chiamydomonas nivalis (C) Dinoflagellate Gonyaulax species (D) Red alga Rhodymenia. A membranous coiled semicircular structure attached to plasma membrane and found m bluegreen algae is called (A) Lamellasome (B) Lomasome (C) Mesosome (D) Microsome. Which of the following is an autotrophs bacterium? (A) Rhizobjum (B) Azotobacter (C) Nitrobacter (D) Clostridium. In transformation (A) DNA segment of a dead relative cc:, a living cell and replaces homologous section (B) Chromosomal mutation takes place (C) DNA is duplicated (D) RNA is duplicated. Dehydrated thick-walled bacterial cell having dipicolinic acid are (A) Endospores (B) Conidia (C) Exospores (D) Oidia. Grape-like aggregates of coccus bacterk constitute (A) Sarcina (B) Staphylococcus (C) Streptococcus (D) Diplococcus. Pasteurization is performed at (A) 100° for 15 minutes (B) 82° for 30 minutes (C) 72° for 20 minutes (D) 62° for 30 minutes. Bacterial activity is minimum at (A) Low temperature (B) High temperature (C) Moderate temperature (D) Moderately high temperature. Chloramphenicol and erythromycin (Board spectrum antibiotics) are produced by (A) Rhizobium (B) Streptomyces (C) Feniciiium (D) Nitrobacter. Comma-shaped bacteria are (A) Vibrio (B) Spirillum (C) Spirochaete (D) Coccus. In photosynthetic bacteria the photosynthetic pigment occurs in (A) Grana (B) Chloroplast (C) Tylakoids/Chromatophore (D) Stroma.

112. 113. 114. :115 116. 117. 118. 119.

The cell wall of bacteria contains (A) Cellulose (B) Hemicellulose (C) Peptidoglycan (D) All the above. Surface appendages or hairy structures present in some bacteria for attaching to one another and the hosts are (A) Pjlj (B) Flagella (C) Cilia (D) Mesosomes. Rod-shaped bacteria are (A) Mycobacteria (B) Cocci (C) Vibrios (D) Bacilli. Monerans bearing conidia for reproduction belong to (A) Eubacteria (B) Archaebacteria (C) Actinomycetes (D) Mycoplasma. Archaebacteria found in salt pans and salt marshes are (A) Methanogens (B) Thermoacidophiles (C) Ruminant symbionts (D) Halophiles. Which is wrong about bacteria? (A) Their cell walls contain peptidoglycan (B) They were the first living beings (C) They have procaryotic structure (D) Bacteria multiply by mitosis. A biodegradable plastic can be obtained from (A) Rhodococcus equi (B) Pseudonionas species (C) Ochrobacterum species (D) All the above. Cellulose present in the food of grazing animals is (A) Digested by intestinal bacteria (B) Digested by animal itself (C) Digested partly by the animal and partly by bacteria (D) Passed out undigested.

Revision Questions 120. 121.

122.

123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128.

When milk is heated at 62°C for 30 minutes and then cooled, the process is called (A) Sterilization (B) Pasteurisation (C) Nitrification (D) Freezing. If bacteria and fungi are destroyed (A) Antibiotics will disappear (B) Living beings will becomes immortal (C) Earth will become packed with excretions and dead bodies (D) The soil will be depleted of nitrogen. Pasteuristaion frees food stuffs of (A) All bacteria (B) All living organisms (C) Vegetative forms of bacteria (D) Vegetative forms of all pathogenic bacteria. Photosynthetic bacteria include (A) Nitrobacter and Nitrosomonas (B) Chiorobium and Rhodospirillum (C) Streptococcus and Staphylococcus (D) Chiorobium and Clostridium. Nitrogen fixing organism which can be free as well as symbiotic is (A) Anabaena (B) Azotobacter (C) Liverworts (D) Mosses. Blue-green algae living endophytically in protozoan protists are known as (A) Plasmids (B) Cyanophages (C) Cyanellae (D) Bacteriophages. Unilamellate thylakoids occur in (A) Chiamydomonas (B) Nostoc (C) Euglena (D) Laminaria. Bacteria without flagella are (A) Atrichous (B) Lophotrichous (C) Amphitrichous (D) Peritrichous. Cyanobacteria is the modern name of (A) Myxomycetes (B) Myxophyceae (C) Schizomycetes (D) Mycoplasma.

129. 130.

131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149.

In transduction, DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another through (A) Conjugation (B) Medium (C) Mycoplasma (D) Virus. Wine turns sour (A) On exposure to light (B) Contamination by aerobic bacteria Acetobacter aceti (C) Contamination by anaerobic bacteria (D) On heating Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy for carbon assimilation from (A) Reduction of organic molecules (B) Oxidation of organic molecules (C) Oxidation of inorganic molecules (D) Reduction of inorganic molecules. The technique of developing pure culture of bacteria was developed by (A) J. Lister (B) R. Koch (C) L. Pasteur (D) A.V. Leeuwenhoek. Tetanus is caused by (A) Bacterium (B) Virus (C) Fungus (D) Mycoplasma. Rounded bacteria are (A) Bacilli (B) Vibrio (C) Spirilla (D) Cocci. Food poisoning and gas forming rod-shaped bacterium is (A) Shigella (B) Salmonella (C) Clostridium (D) Eschenchic coli. The scientist to isolate streptomycin for the first time is (A) Fleming (B) Burkholder (C) Waksman (D) Pasteur. Mycoplasmas differ from viruses in that they are sensitive to (A) Penicillin (B) Tetracydines (C) Sugars (D) Amino acids. Bacteria generally move due to (A) Chemotaxis (B) Thermotaxis (C) Phototaxis (D) Thermotropism. Most common nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium of paddy fields, is (A) Cylindrospennum (B) Aulosira (C) Oscillatoria (D) Nostoc. A peculiar amino acid present in bacterial cell wall is (A) Glutamate (B) Alanine (C) Diaminopimelic acid (D) Asparate Which one is successful conjugation? (A) Hfr and Hfr (B) F+ and F+ (C) Hfr and F+ (D) F+ and F In bacteria the respiratory enzymes are located on (A) Plasmid (B) Episome (C) Mesosome (D) Nucleoid Which is rod-shaped? (A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Streptococcus nigricans (C) Pneumococcus pneumoniae (D) Bacillus subtilis Staphylococcus has (A) Cubical colony (B) Bunch-like irregular colony (C) Chain like colony (D) Plate like colony Decay of organic remains and excreta is (A) Nitrification (B) Denitrification (C) Anamonification (D) Nitrogen fixation Meningitis a disease which is responsible for membrane damage of the brain is caused by (A) A fungus (B) Bacillus (C) Neisseria (D) Bordetella. Which one of the following groups of bacteria supplies nitrogen to our crop plants Iirrespective of crop rotation or manuring? (A) Nitrosom on as (B) Nitrobacter (C) Rhizobium (D) Azotobacter. The bacteria that commonly live In animal and human intestine is (A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Bacillus anthracis(C) Coiynebacterium (D) Escherichia coli. Photosynthetic bacteria have (A) Pigment system I (only one pigment system) (B) Pigment system II (C) Both (D) Some other types.

150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167.

168. 169. 170. 171.

Antibiotic flavicin (Neomycin) is obtained from (A). Aspe’gillus fumigatus (B) Aspergillus clavatus (C) Streptomyces giiseus (D) Streptornyces fradiae Among the following which bacterium is associated with denitrification (A) Azotobacter (B) Rhodospirillum (C) Pseudomonas (D) Rhizobium. Which one of the following sets includes the bacterial diseases? (A) Cholera, typhoid, mumps (B) Tetanus, Tuberculosis, Measles (C) Malaria, Mumps, Poliomyeitis, (D) Diptheria, Leprosy, Plague. Streptomyces rimosus is the source of the antibiotic (A) Chloromycetin (B) Erythromycin (C) Aureomycin (D) Terraniycin. The folds of plasma membrane in bacterial cells are known as (A) Episomes (B) Mesosomes (C) Spherosomes (D) Acrosomes. Bacteria were discovered by (A) Robert Koch (B) Robert Hooke (C) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (D) Louis Pasteur. Bacterial ribosomes lie in (A) Cytoplasm (B) E.R. (C) Nuclear membrane (D) On wall of the cell. In bacteria the respiratory enzymes are situated in the part (A) Cell membrane (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mitochondria (D) Ribosomes. Heterocysts present in Nostoc are specialised for (A) Fragmentation (B) Nitrogen fixation (C) Storage (D) Photosynthesis. Some bacteria are not easily killed because of (A) Their tolerant power (B) Chitinous wall (C) Capsule and endospore formation (D) Mesosomes. A sexual reproductive structure in bacteria is known as (A) Akinete (B) Heterocyst (C) Endospore (D) Exospore. A Dutch scientist A.v. Leeuwenhoek discovered bacteria for the first time in (A) Soil (B) Air (C) Rain water (D) Garden soil. Bacteria responsible for nitrification come under the following groups (A) Coccus (B) Vibrio (C) Bacillus (D) Spirilla. T.B. is produced by (A) Mycobacterium species (B) Aspergillus species (C) Clostridium species (D) Vibrio species. Transformation in Diplococcus by heat-killed extract was discoverd by (A) Brown (B) Griffith (C) Fleming (D) McLeod. Which one belongs to monera? (A) Amoeba (B) Esche,ichia (C) Gelidium (D) Spirogyra. Currently bacteria are included in (A) Thallophyta (B) Mycota (C) Monera (D) Protista. Cyanophyceae or blue-green algae possess (A) Definite nucleus but no plastid (B) Definite plastid but no definite nucleus (C) Definite nucleus and plastid (D) Neither definite nucleus nor definite plastid. A protein rich organism is (A) Spirulina/Nostoc (B) Chiamydomonas (C) Ulothrir/Spirogyra (D) Oedogonium. In Oscillatoria, the cell area around the nucleoid is called (A) Centrosome (B) Nucleoplasm (C) Centroplasm (D) Chromoplasm. Smallest organisms capable of growth, division and reproduction are (A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Mycoplasma (D) Actinomycetes. Vibrio cholerae is like (A) Spring (B) Comma (C) Sphere (D) Rod.

172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182.

183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193.

In cyanophyceae, flagella are (A) Absent (B) Present (C) Present in gamete stage only (D) Present in zoospores only. Hormogonia help in reproduction of (A) Cladophora (B) Bacteria (C) Archaebacteria (D) Cyanobacteria. Which one of the following can fix nitrogen? (A) Vaucheria (B) Spirogyra (C) Nostoc (D) Ectocarpu Which one of following can fix nitrogen? (A) Mycoplasma (B) Azotobacter (C) Anabaena (D) Both B and C. Heterocysts, specialised for nitrogen fixation, occur in certain (A) Red algae (Batrochospermum) (B) Green algae (Spirogyra) (C) Blue-green algae (Anabaena) (D) Brown algae (Laminaria). Diphtheria is caused by (A) Diplococcus (B) Corynebacterium (C) Bacillus (D) Vibrio. The stored food in blue-green algae is (A) Starch (B) Glucose (C) Cellulose (D) Related to glycogen. An obligate anaerobe is (A) Ulothrix (B) Spirogyra (C) Methane bacteria (D) Onion. Streptomyces venezuelae yields (A) Aureomycin (B) Chioromycetin (C) Tetracycline (D) Streptomycin. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is (A) Neither syngamy nor reduction division (B) Distinct chromosomes are absent (C) No conjugation (D) No exchange of genetic material. Gram stain represents (A) A technique for staining bacteria and developed by Grain (B) A stain got from Gram (C) A cytochemical technique for differentiation of mitochondria. (D) A trade name. Some chemosynthetic bacteria use energy obtained from oxidising (A) N2 (B) H2S (C) Phosphorus (D) CO2 Bacterial size is (A) 2  10 m (B) 10 15 m (C) 100  200 m (D) 15  50m Organelle/organoid involved in genetic engineering is (A) Plasmid (B) Mitochondrion (C) Golgi apparatus (D) Lomasome. Bacteria and other monerans do not possess (A) Ribosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Plasma membrane (D) Nucleoid. Transfer of genetic material with the help of a virus is called (A) Transference (B) Transformation (C) Transduction (D) Transcription. Streptomyces griseus produces antibiotic (A) Chioromycetin (B) Terramycin (C) Aureomycin (D) Streptomycin Name the organisms which do not derive energy directly or indirectly from sun (A) Chemosynthetic bacteria (B) Pathogenic bacteria (C) Symbiotic bacteria (D) Mould. Bacteria generally multiply vegetatively through (A) Conidia (B) Binary fission (C) Budding (D) Multiple fission. Bacteria having comma-like single curve in their body are (A) Bacilli (B) Cocci (C) Vibrio (D) Spirilla. Which one converts nitrite to nitrate? (A) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobacter (C) Azotobacter (D) Rhizobium Diaminopimelic acid and muramic acid occur in the wall of (A) Bacteria (B) Fungi (C) Brown algae (D) Higher plants.

194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216.

Nitrosomonas is a (A) Photoautotroph (B) Chemoautotroph (C) Chemoheterotroph (D) Photoheterotroph. A nonphotosynthetic aerobié nitrogen fixing soil bacterium is (A) Rhizobium (B) Clostiidium (C) Azotobacter (D) Kiebsiella. Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria belong to (A) Xanthomonas (B) Acetobacter (C) Pseudomonas (D) Rhizobium. Hydrogen donor in photosynthesis of purple sulphur bacteria is (A) H2S (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) H2SO3 In filamentous cyanophyceae the trichomes often get broken into short segment. propagules called (A) Autospores (B) Heterocysts (C) Hormogonia (D) Autocolonies. Red colour of Red Sea is due to alga named (A) Chiorella (B) Sargassum (C) Trichodesmium (D) Chiamydomonas. Sexual reproduction does not occur in (A) Nostoc (B) Riccia (C) Ulothrix (D) Rhizopus. Water bloom is commonly caused by (A) Bacteria (B) Green algae (C) Blue-green algae (D) Hydrilla. In bacteria, sex is determined by presence of (A) Pili (B) Episome (C) Mesosome (D) Flagella. Retting of fibres is caused by (A) Rhizobium (B) Clostridium (C) Azotobacter (D) Nitrobacter. Streptococcus lactis is responsible for (A) Conversion of curd into lactic acid (B) Tanning of leather (C) Conversion of milk into curd (D) Flavouring of Tea Streptomyces is a member of (A) Viruses (B) Fungi (C) Eubacteria (D):Actinomycetes. Selman Waksman was a well known (A) Physiologist (B) Soil microbiologist (C) Phycologist (D) Bryologist. Tetracycline is extracted from (A) Streptomyces rimosus (B) Streptomyces aurofaciens (C) Streptomyces scoleus (D) Bacillus licheniforinis Maximum number of antibiotics got from any group is (A) Actinomycetes (B) Fungi (C) Eubacteria (D) Viruses. Streptomycin is produced by (A) Streptomyces scoleus (B) Streptomyces fradiae (C) Streptomyces venezuellae (D) Streptomyces griseus. The term antibiotic was first used by (A) Fleming (B) Pasteur (C) Waksman (D) Llster A bacterial disease is (A) Amoebic dysentery (B) Ben-ben (C) Leprosy (D) Arthritis. Mycolic acid occurs in wall of pathogen that causes (A) Diphtheria (B) Tuberculosis (C) Tetanus (D) Cholera. Bordetella peflus. causes (A) Whooping cough (B) Meningitis (C) Influenza (D) Pneumonia. In bacteria, sexuality/çpnjugation was discovered by (A) Lederberg and Tatuni (B) Zinder and Lederberg (C) Watson and Crick (D) Hershey and Chase. Under optimum conditions, bacteria dividing at intervals of (A) 24 hours (B) 60 minutes (C) 20 minutes (D) 10 minutes. Nitrosomonas changes (A) Nitrite to nitrate (B) Nitrogen to ammonia (C) Ammonia to nitrogen (D) Ammonia to nitrite

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Rhodospirillum, a photoautotrops. bacterium is (A) Facultative aerobe (B) Free living anaerobe (C) Free living aerobe (D) Obligate parasite In photosynthetic bacteria, the pigment occur in (A) Chioroplasts (B) Chromatoplasts (C) Chromatophores (D) Leucoplasts.. Which is not true of bacterial cell wall? (A) Not antigenic (B) Provides shape to bacterium (C) Not stainable with simple dyes (D) Made of mucopeptide. Vinegar is produced by (A) Two step process first fermentation a sugar by Yeast, second fermentation a ethyl alcohol by acetic acid bacteria (B) Fermentation of sugar by Lactobacillus (C) Fermentation of sugar by Aspergillus (D) Fermentation of sugar b Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Bacteria that convert nitrates into for nitrogen are (A) Ammonifying (B) Nitrifying (C) Denitrifying (D) Nitrogen fixing bacteria. A free living anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium is (A) Rhizobium (B) Streptococcus (C) Azotobacter (D) Clostridium. A bacterial disease is (A) Measles (B) Tuberculosis (C) Rabies (D) Small Pox. Botulism is (A) Human disease due to parasitic bacteria (B) Disease of various organisms (C) A type of food poisoning (D) A viral disease. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter convert (A) Carbon dioxide to carbohydrates (B) Ammonium ion into nitrate (C) Nitrate ion into nitrogen molecule (D) Nitrogen into nitrate. Salmonella typhosa (= S. typhi) is the pathogen of (A) Pneumonia (C) Influenza (B) Typhoid (D) Whooping cough. Chloramphenicol/chioromycetin is produced by (A) Streptomyces rimosus (B) Streptomyces venezuelae (C) Streptomyces griseus (D) Streptomyces scoleus. Vinegar is fermented from alcohol by (A) Azotobacter (B) Clostridium (C) Acetobacter aceti (D) Bacillus subtilis. The main difference in Gram (+ )ve and Gram ()ve bacteria resides in their (A) Cell wall (B) Cell membrane (C) Cytoplasm (D) Flagella. Gram () bacteria differ from Gram (+) bacteria in having (A) Thick wall (B) Complex wall (C) Simple wall (D) Absence of wall lipids. Germ theory of disease was put forth by (A) De Bary (B) Lister (C) Pasteur (D) Koch. Phi are employed by bacteria for (A) Locomotion (B) Sexual contact (C) Asexual reproduction (D) Location of prey. Fertility of paddy fields addition of (A) Rhizobia (B) Gypsum (C) Sodium sulphate (D) Blue-Green Algae. Nitrogen fixing aerobic photosynthetic and Gram () bacteria are (A) Archaebacteria (B) Cyanobacteria. (C) Chiorobacteria (D) Rickettsiac Which changes proteins into ammonia? (A) Rhizobium (B) Nitrobacter (C) Azotobacter (D) Bacillus mycoides. Bacterial cell wall is composed of (A) Lipid (B) Cellulose (C) Chitin (D) Mucopeptide/Peptidoglycan.

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Largest population of organisms of any type on earth is of (A) Insects (B) Algae (C) Bacteria (D) Fungi. Osmotrophs are (A) Bacteria (B) Fungi (C) Both A and B (D) Algae. Bacteria lacking flagella and moving by gliding are (A) Rickettsiae (B) Eubactcria (C) Spirochactes (D) Myxobacteria Milk is spoiled/fermented/curdled by (A) Rhizobium (B) Lactobacillus (C) Azotobacter (D) Clostridium. Plasmid is (A) Small extrachromosomal circular self replicating DNA that can carry genes into host organism (B) Bacteriophage (C) DNA found in mitochondria (D) DNA incorporated in bacterial chromosome. An antibiotic is (A) Chioramphenicol (B) Ethephon (C) Phosphon D (D) AMO 1618 Mycoplasma differs bacteria in the absence of (A) DNA (B) Ribosome (C) Cell membrane (D) Cell wall. Little leaf disease of Brinjal is caused by an (A) Alga (B) Fungus (C) Mycoplasma (D) Bacterium A bacterium with flagella all around is (A) Amphitrichous (B) Lophotrichous (C) Cephalotrichous (D) Peritrichous. Anaerobic synthesis as found in bacteria is (A) Endergonic (B) Exergonic (C) Isothermal (D) None of the above. Some bacteria produce resting spores during unfavourable conditions. They are (A) Exospores (B) Endospores (C) Aplanospores (D) Chlamydospores. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is (A) Easily cultured (B) Easily available (C) Easy to handle (D) Easily multiplied in host. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is made of (A) Histones and nonhistones (B) RNA and histones (C) A single double stranded DNA (D) A single stranded DNA. Sterilisation by autoclaving is carried out to (A) Kill bacteria and other pathogens (B) Kill viruses (C) Kill bacteria and enzymes (D) Inactivate enzymes Bacteria differ from viruses in (A) Pathogenic nature (B) Genetic material (C) Having well defined cytoplasm (D) Lacking proper nucleus. In cyanobactcria, reproduction is (A) Vegetative (B) Asexual and vegetative (C) Asexual and sexual (D) Sexual. Which is not antibiotic? (A) Citric acid (B) Streptomycin (C) Cephalosporin (D) Griseofulvin. Land becomes slippery during rains due to growth of (A) Moss (B) Brown Algae (C) Green Algae (D) Blue-Green Algae. Nitri1 bacteria are (A) Photoautotrophic (B) Chemosynthetic (C) Saprophytic (D) Parasitic. Nudear material without nuclear envelope occurs in (A) Mycoplasma and Green Algae (B) Bacteria and Green Algae (C) Bacteria and Cyanobacteria (D) Cyanobacteria and Red Algae. Cell division of blue-green algae is similar to that of (A) Bacteria (B) Green algae (C) Brown algae (D) Red algae.

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267. 268. 269. 270. 271. 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277.

The smallest living cells with cell wall are (A) Mycoplasma (B) Viroids (C) Blue-green Algae (D) Bacteria. Mitochondria are absent in (A) Green Algae (B) Brown Algae (C) Blue-Green Algae (D) Red Algae Bacteria living in human large intestine that feed on undigested food without harming the host are termed as (A) Predators (B) Cominensals (C) Symbionts (D) Parasites Procaryotic cells are characterised by (A) Absence of nuclear envelope (B) Presence of nuclear envelope (C) Presence of distinct chromosome (D) Absence of chromatin material. Endospores develop in (A) Mucor and Bacillus (B) Saccharomyces and Clostridiunz (C) Monococcus and Clostridium (D) Bacillus and Clostridiu,n. Peptidoglycan is characteristic constituent of cell wall in (A) Archaebacteria and Eucaryotes (B) Eubacteria and unicellular Eucaryotes (C) Bacteria and Cyanobacteria (D) Monera and Protista. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green algae is due to (A) Cell wall structure (B) Cell organisation (C) Mitochondrial structure (D) Homopolar bonds in their proteins. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are (A) Azotobacter (B) Pseudom on as (C) Soil Fungi (D) Blue-Green Algae. Rickettsiae constitute a group under (A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Independent group between bacteria and viruses (D) Fungi Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to (A) Mosses (B) Bacteria (C) Green Algae (D) Soil Fungi. Cell wall of bacteria/cyanobacteria possesses (A) Chitin (B) Cellulose (C) Murein/Mucopeptide (D) Peptidoglycan and amino sugars. Cyanophyceae (Blue Green Algae) belongs to (A) Plantae (B) Protista (C) Monera (D) Metaphyta. In Whittaker’s classification, nonnucleated unicellular organisms/procaryotes are included under (A) Plantáe (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) Animalia. Monerans comprise (A) Bacteria (B) Nitrogen fixing organisms (C) Cyanophyceae (D) All the above. A bacterial genome refers to the total number of genes located on (A) Single chromosome (B) Haploid set of chromosomes (C) Diploid set of chromosomes (D) Tetraploid set of chromosomes. A taxon having cytoplasm, DNA, RNA but no cell wall is (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Mycoplasma (D) Cyanobacterium. The smallest organisms which cause diseases among plants are (A) Virus (B) Fungi (C) Mycoplasma (D) Mycoplasma. The main function of elementary bodies in Mycoplasma/some primitive bacteria is (A) Reproduction (B) Respiration (C) Secretion (D) Food storage. Which one takes part in nitrogen fixation? (A) Nitrosococcus (B) Njtrosornonas (C) Nitrobacter (D) Rhizobium. Black death is (A) Cancer (B) Plague (C) AIDS (D) Gonorrhoea.

278.

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Procaryotic flagellum consists of (A) Fibre enclosed by protein membrane (B) Fibre enclosed by unit membrane (C) Helically arranged protein molecules (D) Membrane enclosed 9 + 2 microtubular structure. A number of organic compounds can be decomposed by (A) Pseudomonas (B) Mycoplasma (C) Chemolithotrophs (D) Azotobacter Yersinia pestis causes (A) Syphilis (B) Leprosy (C) Whooping cough (D) Plague. Which one is present in procaryotes? (A) Nucleus (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Mitochondria (D) None of the above. Leprosy is caused by (A) Spirillum (B) Mycobacterium (C) Pseudomonas (D) Vibrio Crown Gall is due to (A) Agrobacterium (B) Mycobacterium (C) Clostridium (D) Erwinia. Ray fungi are (A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Actinomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. Which is absent in procaryotes? (A) Nuclear envelope (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Mitochondria (D) All the above Which one is included under procaryotes? (A) Mycoplasma (B) Algae (C) Ulothrix (D) Mycoplasma and Blue-Green Algae. A completely free living organism which takes part in nitrogen fixation is (A) Anabaena (B) Bacillus (C) Azotobacter (D) Rhizobium. Which one is found in alimentary canal of humans? (A) Pseudomonas (B) Rhizobiu,n (C) Bacillus (D) Escherichia coli. An organism without true nucleus is (A) Bacterium (B) Archaebacterium (C) Cyanobacterium (D) All the above. Many bacteria possess hairy appendages on their cell walls. They are (A) Hairs (B) Flagella (C) Cilia (D) Fimbriae. Bacteria which convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds are called (A) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (B) Nitrifying bacteria (C) Putrefying bacteria (D) Denitrifying bacteria. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are (A) Decomposers (B) Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixer (C) Symbiotic nitrogen fixer (D) Pathogenic bacteria. BGA are included amongst (A) Prokaryotes (B) Fungi (C) Bryophytes (D) Protista. First hormone obtained from genetically engineered bacteria is (A) Adrenaline (B) Thyroxine (C) Insulin (D) Testosterone Example of procaryotic cell. is (A) Green algae (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria .(D) Bryophyte. In bacterialprocaryotes the ribosomes are (A)50S (B)80S (C) 70 S (D) 30 S. Which of the following cell is procaryote? (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Both A and B (D) Fungus. Citrus canker is due to (A) Bacterium (B) Virus (C) Fungus (D) Alga. Transfer of DNA fragments from a donor to receptor bacterial cell through the medium is (A) Translation (B) Transcription (C) Transduction (D) Transformation. Characteristic pigment of cyanobacteria is (A) Chlorophyll b (B) Fucoxanthin (C) Phycocyanin (D) Anthocyanin.

301. 302.

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310. 311. 312. 313. 314. 315. 316. 317. 318. 319. 320.

In Nostoc, nitrogen fixation takes place in (A) Heterocysts (B) Akinetes (C) Hormogones (D) Vegetative cells. Broad spectrum antibiotic is the one which (A) Acts on a variety of pathogenic microbes (B) Is effective in very small amount (C) Acts on both pathogen and host (D) Is effective against all bacteria and viruses. In bacterialltissue culture, glassware and nutrients are sterilised through (A) Water bath at 200°C (B) Dry air oven at 200°C (C) Dehumidifier (D) Autoclave Antibiotics are (A) Pesticides (B) Bactericides (C) Herbicides (D) Macrobiocides. Sex factor of bacteria is (A) RNA (B) Sex pili (C) F-factor (D) Chromosome replicon. Blue-green alga that causes red blooms is (A) Anabaena (B) Gleocapsa (C) Trichodesmiuim (D) Nostoc. Chain of rod shaped bacteria is (A) Streptococcus (B) Streptobacillus (C) Staphylococcus (D) Staphylobacillus Food poisoning is due to (A) lostridium bolulinum (B) Salmonella typhi (C) Esc/2erichia coli (D) Bacillus megatherium. Which is not correct about antibiotics? (A) Fleming discovered the first commercial antibiotic (B) Waksman coined the term antibiotic in 1942 (C) Allergy may develop against an antibiotic (D) An antibiotic is effective against one specific pathogen. Nuclear material of bacterial cell is known as (A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (C) Plasmid (D) Nucicoid. Organisms without any specific shape are (A) Viruses (B) Mycoplasmas (C) Bacteria (D) yanobacteria. Unicellular cyanobacteria reproduce asexually by (A) Binary fission (B) Fragmentation (C) 1-lormogones (D) Conjugation. Hereditary material of Escherichia coli is (A) Single stranded DNA (B) Double stranded DNA (C) Single stranded RNA (D) Double stranded RNA Bacterial plasmid contains (A) RNA (B) RNA + Protein (C) DNA (D) Photosynthetic structures Heterocysts that take part in nitrogen fixation occur in (A) Nostoc (B) Polysiphonia (C) Fucus (D) Ulotlzrix. Which one is a bacterial disease? (A) Rust of Tea (B) Red rot of Sugarcane (C) Citrus canker (D) Late blight of Potato Pili are appendages of (A) Mycoplasma (B) Bacteria (C) Viruses (D) Algae. The condition of having a single flagellum at one end of a bacterium is (A) Peritrichous (B) Amphitrichous (C) Lophotrichous (D) Monotrichous. Food can be kept unspoiled at (A) High temperature (B) Low temperature (C) Osmotic temperature (D) All thç above. Chemoautotrophs do not need (A) H2S (B) Nitrite (C) Ainmonium compounds (D) Sunlight.

321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327. 328.

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331. 332. 333. 334. 335 336. 337. 338.

339.

Genes are packed in bacterial chromosome by (A) Acid proteins (B) Histones (C) Basic proteins (D) Actin. Bacterial protoplasm is granular due to (A) Golgisomes (B) Lysosomes (C) Ribosomes (D) Endoplasmic reticulum. Gram (+) and Grain (—) forms of bacteria are differentiable through staining with (A) Saffranin + Gentian Violet (B) Saifranin + Iodine (C) Acetocarmine + Iodine (D) Crystal Violet + Iodine. Bacterial plasmids are (A) Circular dsRNA (B) Circular dsDNA (C) Linear dsDNA (D) Linear dcRNA. Diphtheria is due to (A) Poison released by living bacteria (B) Poison released by dead bacteria (C) Poison released by virus (D) Excessive immune response. Which is a procaryote? (A) Rhizopus (B) Spirogyra (C) Nostoc (D) Saccharoinyces. Two bacteria commonly employed in genetic engineering are (A) Rhizobium and Diplococcus (B) Escherichia and Agro bacterium (C) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (D) Nitrosomonas and Kiebsiella. A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a culture containing iø cells/mi is grown for 175 minutes, what will be cell concentration after that period (A) 175  105 (B) 35  105 (C) 5  105 (D) 32  105 A few organisms are known to multiply at 1000  108°C. They are probably (A) Thermophilic sulphur bacteria (B) Thermophilic subaerial fungi (C) Hot spring blue-green algae (D) Marine archaebacteria. Transfer of genetic information through transduction involves (A) Conjugation (B) Bacteriophage released from donor cell (C) Another bacterium (D) Physical contact between donor and recipient strains DNA of Escherichia colt is (A) ss and circular (B) ss and linear (C) ds and linear (D) ds and circular. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects (A) Spleen (B) Intestine (C) Neuromuscular junctions (D) Lymph glands Nostoc has a characteristic (A) Noncellulosic cell wall (B) Uniflagellate zoospore (C) Chlorophyll e (D) Sexual reproduction One of the useful activities of several bacteria is (A) Nitrification (B) Biogeochemical cycles (C) Nitrogen fixation (D) Sulphurification Water of Ganges remains pure due to presence of (A) Bacteriophages (B) Cyanophages (C) Bacteria (D) Hydrophytes. Bacterial DNA is (A) Straight (B) Helical (C) Membrane bound (D) Circular and free. Fruit, meat and milk are preserved at room temperature through the process of (A) Pasteurisation (B) Fridge (C) Dehydration (D) Vernalisation. Streptomycin is effective against bacteria (A) Gram (+) (B) Gram () (C) Gram neutral (D) Both Gram (+) and Gram () Bacteria can prepare food from (A) NO3 (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) Glycogen.

340. 341. 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. 347. 348. 349. 350. 351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. 360.

361.

Chemoautotrophs derive their energy from (A) Sun (B) Inorganic chemicals (C) Dead organisms (D) Living organisms Murein of bacterial cell wail is derivative of (A) Protein (B) Fat (C) Organic acid (D) Sugar. Agrobacteriurn tumefaciens causes (A) Wilt (B) Damping off (C) Rust (D) Crown gall. A bacterium which has been genetically modified to control pollution is (A) Pseudomonas (B) Rhizobium (C) Nitrobacter (D) Nitrosorn on as. Which is not a method of genetic recombination in bacteria? (A) Transformation (B) Transduction (C) Translation (D) Conjugation A filament of Nostoc without its mudiage sheath is called (A) Mycelium (B) Trichome (C) Hypha (D) Colony. A bacterium having flagella on the opposite ends is (A) Monotrichous (B) Lophotrichous (C) Amphitrichous (D) Polytrichous. During conjugation, bacteria attach by means of (A) Flagella (B) Pili (C) Cilia (D) Hair. Witches Broom of Potato Tree is caused by (A) Mycoplasma (B) Bacteria (C) Viruses (D) All the above. A parasite which becomes saprophytic in the absence of host is called (A) Obligate parasite (B) Facultative parasite (C) Obligate saprophyte (D) Facultative saprophyte. Ribosomes of Nostoc are (A)50S (B)60S (C)70S (D)80S. All bacterial cells get stained with (A) Mercuric chloride (B) Crystal violet (C) Crystal violet + iodine (D) Safranin. Nostoc is (A) Bacteriophage (B) Beaded bacterium (C) Cyanobacterium (D) Parasite Mucopeptide is abundant in cell wall of (A) Cyanobacteria (B) Gram (+) bacteria (C) Gram () bacteria (D) Bacteriophage. Iron bacterium is (A) Beggiotoa (B) Geobacillus (C) Thiobadilus (D) None of the above. Bacteria obtaining energy by oxidation of inorganic substances are (A) Chemolithotrophs (B) Chemo-organotrophs (C) Photolithotrophs (D) Photo-organotrophs Which one does not evolve oxygen (A) Photosynthetic bacteria (B) Blue Green algae (C) Green algae (D) Autotrophic plants Peritrichous bacteria have flagella (A) All over the body (B) At one end (C) All both ends (D) None. Procaryotic genetic material is (A) Linear DNA + histones (B) Circular DNA + histones (C) Linear DNA without histones (D) Circular DNA without histones Bacterial photosynthesis differs from photosynthesis of others in (A) First product (B) Number of phases (C) Type of reductant (D) All the above. Halophiles grow in concentrated salt solution due to (A) Bacteriorhodopsin (B) Branched hydrocarbon chain in phospholipids (C) Active absorption (D) Accumulation of KCl Plague is caused by (A) Xanthornonas (B) Pasteurella pestis (C) Varicella virus (D) Pseudom on as.

362. 363.

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366. 367. 368. 367. 368. 369. 370. 371. 372. 373. 374. 375. 376 377. 378. 379.

Blue-green algae are (A) Eubacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Actinomycetes (D) Archaebacteria. Which of the following is correct about legumes? (A) They are incapable of fixing nitrogen (B) They fix nitrogen with the help of bacteria that live in their leaves (C) They fix nitrogen with the help of, bacteria that live in their roots (D) They fix nitrogen independent of bacteria. Nitrogen fixation is performed by (A) Green algae and fungi (B) Ferns and cycads (C) Legumes and cereals (D) Blue-green algae and bacteria. Match items of column I with those of column II and choose the correct combinations Coloumn I Column II a) Pocumonia p Vibrio comma b) Citrus Casker q Mycobacterium leprae c) Chlora r Yerstria peris d) Leproxy s Xanthomonas ciut t Dipiococcut prownontae (A) b  s, c p, aq (B) a t, bq, c  s, d q (C) a  t, b s, c  q, d  p (D) a  t, b  q, c  p, d  s. Bacteria possess the organelle (A) Golgi. bodies (B) Mesosomes (C) Mitochondria (D) All the above. Comma shaped bacteria are (A) Bacilli (B) Spirilla (C) Vibrios (D) Cocci. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is (A) Obligate aerobe (B) Facultative aerobe(C) Facultative anaerobe (D) Obligate anaerobe Cell wall of Gram (+) bacteria is formed of (A) Cellulose (B) Murein (C) Lipid and protein (D) Cellulose and lipid. Bacterium associated with legume roots is (A) Rhizobium (B) Nostoc (C) Spirogyra (D) Clostridium. The most primitive of monerans are (A) Rickettsiae (B) Actinomycetes (C) Progenote (D) Archaebacteria. Bacterium associated with legume roots is (A) Rhizobium (B) Nostoc (C) Spirogyra (D) Clostridium. The most primitive of monerans are (A) Rickettsiae (B) Actinomycetes (C) Progenote (D) Archaebacteria. Procaryotes possess (A) Nucleus (B)gene occurs in (C) Nucleolus (A) Bacillus thunngiensis Bt gene occurs in (A) Bacillus thunngiensis (B) Escherichia coli (C) Agyrobacterium tumefaciens (D) Rhizobium leguminosarum. A nonlegume, symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacterium is (A) Rhizobjum (B) Azotobacter (C) Frankia (D) Clostndium. Which one is a procaryote? (A) Chiorella (B) Prosopis (C) Paramecium (D) Nostoc. Flagella are absent in (A) Chiorophyta (B) Cyanophyta (C) Phaeophyta (D) Euglenophyta. Mitotic apparatus is absent in (A) Green algae (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Higher plants. Teichoic acid is present in cell wall of (A) Bacteriophage (B) Mycoplasma (C) Nostoc (D) Pneumococcus. Disease pneumonia is due to (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Cyanobacterium (D) Protozoan.

380. 381. 382. 383 384. 385. 386. 387. 388. 389. 390.

391. 392. 393. 394. 395. 396. 397. 398. 399. 400. 401.

Mycoplasmas are not sensitive to (A) Penicillin (B) Streptomycin (C) Erytbromycin (D) Neomycin. In which bacterial required reproduction phage is (A) Conjugation (B) Transformation (C) Binary fission (D) Transduction. Find out the correct match (A) AIDS —Bacillus anthracis (B) Syphilis — Treponema pallidum (C) Gonorrhoea —Leishmania donovanii (D) Urethritis—Entanweba gingivalis. Monerans devoid of cell wall are (A) Bacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Mycoplasnia (D) Actinomycetes. Which vitamin is synthesised by bacteria in human gut? (A)A (B) C (C) D (D) K Multicellular fragment of a blue green alga capable of growth into new plant is (A) Hormocyst (B) Trichome (C) Trichogyne (D) Hormogonium. Bacteria have cell membrane made of (A) Chitin (B) Cellulose (C) Proteins and phospholipids (D) Fats. Which one is autotrophic? (A) Clostridium (B) Rhizobium (C) Anabaena (D) Azotobacter. Beggiatoa (A) Is photoautotrophic (B) Oxidises H to obtain energy (C) Oxidises sulphur to obtain energy (D) Reduces sulphur to H2S in order to obtain energy Nucleus equivalent of cyanobacteria is called (A) Genophore (B) Genotype (C) Incipient nucleus (D) All the above. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), both wrong (D). Assertion. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic blue-green algae with procaryotic structure. Reason. They are green due to presence of chioroplasts. (A) (B) (C) (D) Assertion. Plasmids are strands of extrachromosomal DNA. Reason. Plastids are found in eucaryotic cells. (A) (B) (C) (D) Bacteria that survive high salt concentration and temperature are (A) Cyanobacteria (B) Archaebacteria (C) Eubacteria (D) Actinomycetes Sambar Lake is found in (A) Gujarat (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan (E) Kashmir. True nucleus and mitochondria are absent in (A) Cyanophyceae (B) Chlorophyceae (C) Myxomycetes (D) Azolla. Procaryotic algae are (A) Cyanophyceae (B) Chlorophyceae (C) Myxomycetes (D) Azolla. Inner wall of Gram () bacteria is formed of (A) Lipoprotein (B) Mucopeptide (C) Chroinoprotein (D) Glycoprotein. Organisms found in extreme temperatures are (A) Fungi (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Eubacteria (D) Archaebacteria. Organism useful pollutants is in degrading organic (A) Pseudomonas (B) Nitrosomonas (C) Chlamydia (D) Actinomycetes. Pseudoinonas is (A) Obligate ectoparasite (B) Obligate endoparasite (C) Facultative endoparasite (D) Facultative ectoparasite. Inmycoplasma (PPLO) the plasmalenima is rich in (A) Cholesterol (B) Glycogen (C) Cellulose (D) Myosin (E) Mycosin. Respiratory enzymes of aerobic bacteria are mainly located in (A) Mitochondria (B) Chondrioids (C) Sphaerosomes (D) Phagosomes

402. 403. 404. 405. 406. 407. 408. 409 410. 411. 412. 413. 414. 415. 416. 417. 418. 419. 420. 421. 422. 423.

(E) Polysomes. Gram () ye bacteria possess peptidoglycol and an extra layer of (A) Protein (B) Lipoprotein (C) Lipopolysaccharide (D) Lipid. Which one is nonpathogenic bacterium of colon? (A) Balantidiuin coli (B) Entarnoeba coli (C) Enterobium vermicularis(D) Escherichia coli. Shape of Staphylococcus bacteria is (A) Circular (B) Oval (C) Elongated (D) Cubical. Genes for antibiotic resistance as found in bacteria are located on (A) Nucleiod (B) Plasmid (C) Chondrioid (D) Plastid. Thermal bacteria survive in (A) Hot water near 100°C (B) Hot water near 85°C (C) Hot sulphur spring near 70°C (D) All the above. (B.H.U. A bacterial cell divides once every minute takes one hour to fill a cup. How much ti will it take to fill half the cup (A) 59 minutes (B) 30 minutes (C) 29 minutes (D) 20 minutes. Plasmids are found naturally in (A) Viruses (B) Chloroplasts (C) Chromosomes (D) Bacteria. Rod-shaped bacteria are called (A) Coccus (B) Spirillurn (C) Bacillus (D) Actinomyces. In which of the following will you look for Escherjchja coli (A) Water (B) Soil (C) Milk (D) Human intestine Salmonella causes (A) Polio (B) T.B. (C) Tetanus (D) Typhoid. A bacterial disease is (A) Tetanus (B) Polio (C) Filaria (D) Malaria. Maximum number of bases in plasmids in (A) 50 kiobase (B) 500 kilobase (C) 5000 kilobase (D) 50,000 kilobase. What is true about archaebacterja (A) All photosynthetic (B) All fossils (C) All halophiles (D) Oldest living beings. Cyanobacteria are/Nostoc is (A) Oxygenic with nitrogenase (B) Oxygenic without nitrogenase (C) Nonoxygenic with nitrogenase (D) Nonoxygenic without nitrogenase. In Nostoc, the enzyme nitrogenase occurs in (A) Vegetative cells (B) Heterocysts (C) Both A and B (D) Only in hormogones. Mycoplasma causes a disease (A) Tobacco wilt (B) Citrus canker (C) Apple fireblight (D) Little leaf disease. Extrachromosomal DNA of bacteria is (A) Mesosome (B) Microsome (C) Plasmid (D) Chromosome. R-gene present on plasmid is meant for (A) Drug resistance (B) Nitrogen fixation (C) Locomotion (D) Exchange of genetic material. Bacteria found in hot acidic aerobic conditions are (A) Halophiles (B) Thermoacidophiles (C) Methanogens (D) Rickettsiae. Kingdom monera includes (A) Procaryotes only (B) Eucaryotes only (C) Both A and B (D) Mesocaryotes only. Which one is useful in prokaryotic replication? (A) Mesosöme (B) Plasmid (C) Ribosome (D) Mitochondrjon. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes inabsence of (A) DNA (B) Plasmid (C) Histones (D) Mitochondrjon

424.

425. 426. 427. 428. .429. 430. 431. 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440.

Match the columns Coloumn I a) Nitrobeeter b) Clostridium c) Nitrosacoccus d) Azotobaeter

Column II (i) Free living aerobic nitrogen fixer. (ii) Convert ammonia into nitric (iii) Changes nitrite to nitrate (iv) Free living anaerobic nitrogen fixer. (A) (a) — (ii), (b) — (iv) (c) — (iii), (d) — (i) (B) (a) — (iii), (b) — (iv) (c) — (ii), (d) — (i) (C) (a) — (iv), (b) — (ii) (c) — (1), (d) — (iii) (D) (a) — (i), (b) — (ii) (c) — (iii), (d) — (iv) Anthrax is due to a (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C). Fungus (D) Protozoan. Outer limiting layer of Mycoplasma is formed of (A) Slime (B) Mucilage (C) Cell wall (D) Cell membrane. Number of endospores usually produced by one bacterial cell is (A) Numerous (B) Three to four (C) Two (D) One Smallest bacterium is (A) Dialister (B) Nitrosomonas (C) Bacillus (D) Spiriiiutn. Prokaryotic genetic system contains (A) DNA and histone (B) DNA but no histone (C) Hist but no DNA (D) Neither DNA nor histones. Xanthomonas cit,i contains (A) Single polar flagellum (B) Bipolar flagella (C) Tuft of flagella (D) No flagella Genetic recombination through trans duction was first discovered in bacterium (A) Agro bacterIum. Turnefaciens (B) Escheñchia coli (C) Salmonella typhimurium (D) Diplococcus pneumoniae In blue green algae, product of photo synthesis is (A) Glycerophàsphate (B) Glycogen like (C) Glucoside (D) Globulin. Which one is a prokaryotic? A) Osdilatoria/bacteria (B) chiamydomonas (C) Volvox (D) Chibrella PPLO is (A) Virus (B) Viroid (C) Mycoplasma (D) Bacteria? Which one is alga (A) Rhodospirillium (B) Cynobacteria (C) Purple bacteria (D) Green bacteria. Anton van Lecuwenhoek belong to (A) France (B) Holland (C) Sweden (D) Britain. Which one is peritrichous? A) Pseudomonas B) Bacillus typhosus (A) Pseudomonas (B) Bacillus typhosus (C) Spirilliuin (D) Vibrio Xanthomonas din is related to (A) Disease in Xanthiuin (B) Xanthophyceae (C) A virus (D) Citrus canker Bacteria useful in biogas fermentation are (A) Methanogens (B) Halophiles (C) Vibrio (D) Thermoacidophila (E) Cyanobacteria. Antibiotics are (A) Drugsto kill viruses (B) Toxins produced by bacteria (C) Produc of bacterial metabolism (D) Both B and C (E) Bacteria that fix nitrogen.

441. 442. 443.

444. 445. 446. 447.

448. 449. 450. 451. 452. 453. 454. 455. 456. 457. 458. 459.

Cyanobacterium of great nutritional value of (A) Gloeocapsa (B) Scytonema (C) Stigonerna (D) Spirulina (E) Anabaena. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium another through cell contact is (A) Transformation (B) Transduction (C) Conjugation (D) Transcrhtion (E) Endomixis. . Heat ‘killed S-cells alongwith live Re-cells. Diplococcus pneumoniae were injected mice (A) Mice survived and had live S-cells (B) Mice survived and had dead fl-cells (C) Mice died and had dead R-cells (D) Mice died and showed live S-cells (E) Mice died and showed live R-cells EscJtenchia c present in human colon is. (A) Parasite (B) Comniensal (C) Symbiont (D) Saprophyte. In peritrichous bacteria flagella occur (A) At one end (B) At both ends (C) All over the body (D) Absent. Some blue green algae are used biofertilizers because they (A) Are photosynthetic (B) Have mucilage (C) Grow everywhere (D) Fix nitrogen. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), both wrong (D). Assertion. Plasmids are single stranded extra-chromosomal DNA. Reason. Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic cells. (A) (B) (C) (D) Organisms which obtain energy by oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are (A) Photoautotrophs (B) Saprotrophs (C) Coproheterotrophs (D) Chemoheterotrophs. Transformation experiments were first performed over bacterium (A) Escherichia coli (B) Salmonella typhimurium (C) Diplococcus pneumóniae (D) Pasteurella pestis. In bacteria plasmid is (A) Extrachromosomal material (B) Main DNA (C) Nonfunctional DNA (D) Repetitive gene. Mycoplasma is (A) Unicellular eukaryote (B) Unicellular prokaryote (C) Multicellular prokaryote (D) Multicellular eucaryote. Type of genetic material found in bacteria is (A) RNA bOund to protein (B) DNA bound to protein (C) DNA not bound to protein (D) RNA not bound to protein. Harmful substances released by bacteria are (A) Antibiotics (B) Toxins (C) Antigens (D) Allergens Where from are most antibiotics extracted (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Plants. In which kingdom would you include archaea and nitrogen fixing organisms in the Live kingdom classification (A) Plantae (C) Protista (B) Fungi (D) Monera. What is the disease Tetanus also known as (A) Gangrene (B) Shingles (C) Lockjaw (D) Whooping cough Trachoma is caused by (A) Spirochaete (B) Chiwnydia (C) Tichonympha (D) Paramaecium Plasmid is (A) Single stranded DNA (B) Double stranded circular DNA (C) Extrachromosbmal linear DNA (D) RNA. Bacterial resistance to antibiotic ampidillin can be due to presence of (A) Penicillinase (B) Anipicillinase (C) Lactanase (D) Phosphotransferase.

460. 461. 462. 463. 464. 464. 465. 466. 467.

468.

469.

470. 471. 472. 473. 474. 475. 476. 477.

Heating food and water will check diseases except (A) Salmonella infection (B) Cholera (C) Hepatitis  B (D) Botulism. A bacterium becomes resistant to antibiotic except by (A) Making enzyme for drug degradation (B) Developing impermeability to drug (C) Modification of drug (D) Moving away from drug Bacterial endotoxin is (A) Lipopolysaccharide over the surface (B) Protein inside the cell (C) An excreted protein (D) None of the above. Which is absent in b (A) Cell wall (B) Mesosome (C) Mitochondria (D) RNA. Gram negative bacteria detect and respond to chemicals by (A) Muramic acid (B) Lipopolysaccharide (C) Porins (D) Volutin granules. Gram negative bacteria detect and respond to chemicals by (A) Muramic acid (B) Lipopolysaccharide (C) Porins (D) Volutin granules. Amino acid found only in bacteria and cyanobacteria is (A) Murainic acid (B) Methionine (C) Glutamic acid (D) Diaminopimelic acid Bacteria possess (A) One circular chromosome (B) One linear chromosome (C) Many linear chromosomes (D) Many circular chromosomes. Genetic material of a prokaryotic cell consists of (A) Nucleus, chromatin and nucleoplasm (B) Nucleoid and no nucleolus (C) Nucleoid with nuclear envelope and nucleolus (D) Nucleoid alongwith proteins. Azospirillium is a (A) Nitrogen fixing vibroid bacterium (B) Gram + ye nitrogen fixing bacteria (C) Actinomycetous form which can fix nitrogen (D) Stringent anaerobe which fixes nitrogen Purple sulphur bacteria use H2S release sulphur but no oxygen (A) H that reduces CO2 comes from water O2 is released (B) H2 that reduces CO2 comes from H2S, Sulphur is liberated (C) Bacteria do not perform photosynthesis (D) Photosynthsis does not require chlorophyll Hansen’s disease is known as (A) Small pox (B) Cholera (C) Leprosy (D) Leptospiriosis. Which is source of Vitamin B (A) Pseudomonas (B) Spirulina (C) Nostoc (D) Oscillatoria In blue green algae, photosynthesis occurs in (A) Cytoplasm (B) Grana (C) Nucleoid (D) Membranous lamellae. Bacterial pili are involved in (A) Asexual reproduction (B) Sexual reproduction (C) Saprophytic nutrition (D) Antibiotic resistance Which do not give out 02 (A) Green algae (B) Blue-green algae (C) Green plants (D) Photosynthetic bacteria Cyanobacteria are (A) Bacteria using cyanide for nutrition (B) Coloured fungi (C) Algae having blue-green cells (D) Viruses affecting bacterial growth. Streptococcus is used in preparation of (A) Wine (B) Idli (C) Cheese (D) Bread. Structure found in blue-green algae which helps in nitrogen fixation is (A) Heterocyst (B) Holotrema (C) Haplosperm (D) Holosteum.

478. 479. 480.

481. 482.

483.

484.

485.

486.

487. 488.

Which one is not matched (A) Streptomyces — Antibiotic (B) Serratia — Drug addiction (C) Rhizobium — Biofertilizer (D) Spirulina — Single cell protein. Azolla has a symbiotic relationship with (A) Chiorella (B) Anabaena (C) Nostoc (D) Tolypothrix The most well studied bacterial-plast relationship is that of (A) Cyanobacterial symbiosis with someaquatic ferns (B) Nodulation in Sesbania stem (C) Gall formation byAgrobacteriuni (D) Growth stimulation by phosphate bacteria. Iron chelating substance is produced by growth promoting rhizobacterium (A) Rhizobium japonicum (B) Azospirillium (C) Pseudonzonas putida (D) Aspergillus. Match the columns and find out the correct combination Coloumn I Column II a) Treponema pallidum (i) Plague b) Yersinia pestis (ii) Antherax c) Bacillus anthracis (iii) Syphilis d) Vibrio (iv) Cholera (A) (a) — (i), (b) — (iii),(c)— (ii), (d — (iv) (B) (a) — (iii), (b) — (i), (c) — (ii), (d) — (iv) (C) (a) — (iv), (b) — (iii), (c) — (i), (d) — (ii) (D) (a) — (ii), (b) — (iii), (c) — (i), (d) — (iv) Bacterium Pseudomonas is useful as it can (A) Transfer genes from one plant to another (B) Fix atmospheric nitrogen (C) Produce several antibiotics (D) Decompose a variety of organic compounds. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explantion (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Nitrogen fixing bacteria of legume nodule live in oxygen depleted cells. Reason. Leghaemoglobin completely removes oxygen from nodule cells. (A) (B) (C) (D) Match the columns and answer.find the correct Coloumn I Column II a) Streptomyces (i) Food polsoning b) Rhisobium (ii) Source of antibioties c) Nitrosomonas (iii) Nitrogen fixation d) Acetobacier (iv) Vinegar synthesis (A) a—s, b—t, c—p, d—r (B)a—t,b—p, c—r,d—s (C)a—q, b—r, c—p. d—t (D)a—q, b – r , c – s, d – t What is true (A) Diatoms produce basidiospores (B) Heterocysts occur in Nostoc (C) Fronds develop in bryophytes (D) Multiciliate sperms occur in angiosperms. Murein does not occur in the wall of (A) Diatoms (B) Nostoc (C) Eubacteña (D) Blue green algae. A free living aerobic and nonphotosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium is (A) Anabaena (B) Clostridiuni (C) Azotobacter (D) Rhizobiunz.

489.

490. 491. 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. 499.

500. 501. 502.

Prokaryotes are characterised by (A) Absence of internal compartment talisation (B) Absence of nucleus (C) 70 S ribosomes (D) All the above Bacteria involved in two-step conversion of ammonia into nitrate are (A) Azotobacter and Nitrosornonas (B) Pseudomonas and Nitrobacter (C) Azotobacter and Achronzobacter (D) Nitrosonzonas and Nitrobacter. Colourless unicellular cell wall bound, spherical or rod-shaped microorganisms lacking organised nucleus are (A) Bacteria (B) Mycoplasma (C) Cyanobacteria (D) Viruses Nif genes occur in (A) Penicillium (B) Rhizobium (C) Aspergillus (D) Streptococcus Blue green algae are (A) Actinomycetes (B) Eukaryotes (C) Prokaryotes (D) Acellular. Antibiotics are (A) Medicines (B) Toxins (C) Plants (D) Syrups Bacterial flagella are formed of (A) Amines (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Carbohydrates. Most of the bacteria reproduce by (A) Budding (B) Sexually (C) Binary fission (D) Sporulation. A chain of coccoid bacterial cells is (A) Staphylococcus (B) Mon ococcus (B) Rhizobium (D) Streptococcus. Cyanobacteria are (A) Autotrophs (B) Heterotrophs (C) Saprotrophs (D) Parasites. Match the columns and choose the correct combination Coloumn I Column II a) Escherichia coll (i) Nil gone b) Rhizobium meliloti (ii) Digest hydrocarbons of crude oil c) Baco;;is tjiromgoemsos (iii) Human insulin production d) {seidp,pmas [itoda (iv) Biocontrol of fungal disease (v) Biodegradable insecticide (A) (a)— (iii), (b) (ii), ( c)—(i), d — (iv) (B) (a)— (i), (b) (ii), ( c)—(iii), d — (iv) (C) (a)—(iii), (b)—(i), (c)—(v), (d)—(ii) (D) (a)—(ii), (b)—(i), (c)—(üi), (d)—(iv) (E) (a)—(iv), (b)—(iii), (c)—(i), (d)—(ii). Pigments phycocyanin and phycoerythrin occur in (A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Archaebacteria (C) Eubacteria (D) Cyanobacteria (E) Chlorophyceae Which gene cluster is responsible for nitrogen fixation in bacteria? (A) Nod, Nif, Nfx (B) Nod, Nif, Fix (C) Nod, Ndf, Nfx (D) Ndx, Nif, Fix (E) Ndx, Nif, nix. Match the columns and bring out correct op tion of inhibitor and its effect Coloumn I Column II a) Chloramphenicol (p) Inhibits binding of aarRNA to ribosome b) Erythromycin (q) Inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA c) Neomycin (r) Inhibits initiation of translation d) Streptomycin (s) Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity e) Tetracyacline (t) Tehibits translocation of mRNA over obsome. (A)a —p,b —q,c--r,d—t,e—s (B)a—r,b—p,c—t,d—s,e—q (C)a—q,b --r,ç —s,d—p,e —t (D) a — s, b — t, c — q, d — r, e —p (E)a —t,b —s,c —p,d-—q,e —r.

503. 504. 505. 506. 507. 508. 509. 510. 511.

512. 513. 514. 515. 516. 517. 518. 519.

520. 521. 522. 523.

Diphtheria is characterised by (A) Gum bleeding (B) Suffocation (C) Hydrophobia (D) Dehydration. Which one inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosome? (A) Tetracycline (B) Streptomycin (C) Erythromycin (D) Penicillin. Nitrogen fixation is (A)N2 NH3 (B) N2  NO3 (C) N - Amino acid (D) Both A and B. Which one does not have eukaryots organisation? (A) Green algae (B) Blue green algae (C) Red algae (D) Golden brown algae. Which one Is used as biofertilizer? (A) Nostoc (B) Funaria (C) Volvox (D) Rhizopus. Conversion of ammonia into nitritic and nitrate is (A) Ammonification (B) Denitriflcation (C) Nitrification (D) All the above. DNA is not associated with histones in (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes (C) Fungi (D) Animals. Bacterial photosynthesis is characterised by (A) Evolution of O2 (B) Evolution of H2 (C) Evolution of CO2 (D) Non-evolution of O2 What is correct about Escherichia coli and Rhizobium japonicum? (A) E. coli Gram (—) and R. japonicum Gram (+) (B) Both Gram (+) (C) Both Gram (—) (D) E. c Grain (+) and R. japonicum Gram (—). Which one protects bacteria from enzymes present in the external medium? (A) Slime layer (B) S-layer (C) Flagella (D) Cell wall. Nostoc fixes nitrogen in the symbiotic association of the following 1. Alnus 2. Gunnera 3. Anthoceros 4. Casuarina. The correct combination is (A) l and 2 (B) l and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3. Which one is nitrogen fixer? (A) Ulothrir (B) Anabaena (C) Ulva (D) Hydrodictyon. Which one is a bacterial disease? (A) Anthrax (B) Tick fever (C) Coccidiosis (D) Rinderpest. Which of the following is esspntial for nitrogen fixation in legumes? (A) Anthocyanin (B) Phycocyanin (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Leghaemoglobin. Cyanobacteria are (A) Myxomycetes (B) Dinoflagellates (C) Blue green algae (D) Red algae. Prokaryotes are placed in a group (A) Monera (B) Pteridophytes (C) Bryophyta (D) Angiosperms. Episomes are (A) Extranuclear part of bacteria (B) Toxin producing bodies of bacteria (C) Plasmids with ability to integrate with bacterial chromosome (D) Extranuclear components with least number of genes Photosynthetic pigments of bacteria are located in (A) Cytoplasm (B) Thylakoid membranes (C) Ribosomes (D) Chioroplast membrane. (Ward/ia 2005) Which ones are the most primitive amongst the following? (A) Bryophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Monocots (D) Cyanobacteria Bacteria are considered plants as they (A) Are green in colour (B) Have rigid cell wall (C) Have chlorophyll (D) Have stomata. Disease associated with secretion of toxin is (A) Tetanus (B) T.B (C) Food poisoning (D) AIDS.

524.

525. 526.

527. 528.

529.

530. 531. 532. 533.

534.

535.

536.

Barophilic prokaryotes (A) Occur in water containing high concentration of barium hydroxide (B) Grow slowly in alkaline frozen lakes at high altitude (C) Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments (D) Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched with soluble salt of barium. For retting of Jute, the fermenting microbe is (A) Methanophulic bacteria (B) Butyric acid bacteria (C) Helicobacterpylori (D) Streptococcus lactin Statements regarding Frankia are correct except (A) Induction of root nodules in many plant species (B) Like Rhizobium, it infects host through root hair and induces proliferation of cortex (C) Form specialised vesicles in which nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids (D) Cannot fix nitrogen in free state. Grown gall disease of plants is caused by (A) Ti-plasmid (B) Pi-plasmid (C) Virus (D) Protozoan. All monerans (A) Contain DNA and RNA (B) Are bacteria (C) Demonstrate a circular strand of DNA without a covering of nuclear membrane (D) All of these Halophilic archaebacterium (Halobacterium salinwum) found in Great Salt Lake and Dead Sea cannot live in (A) Less than 3 M NaC1 concentration (B) Less than 5 M NaCl concentration (C) More than 4 M NaC1 concentration (D) More than 3 M .NaCl concentration. Curing of Tea leaves is brought about by the activity of (A) Fungi (B) Bacteria (C) Viruses (D) Mycorrhiza. Photoautotrophic bacteria have (A) Chioroplast (B) Grana (C) Chromatophore (D) Carotene. The cell wall material present both in blue-green algae and bacteria is (A) Pectin (B) Chitin (C) Muraniic acid (D) Cellulose. Which one is a prokaryote? (A) Entamoeba (B) Saccharomyces (C) Paramecium (D) E. coli. Given below are assertions’ and reasons. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), both are wrong (D). AssertIon. Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases. Reason. Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured. (A) (B) (C) (D) Assertion. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol. Reason. The outer face of outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria contain lipopolysccharides a part of which is integrated with membrane lipids. (A) (B) (C) (D). In prokaryotes, chromatophores are (A) Specialised granules responsible colouration of cells (B) Structures responsible for determinin shape of the organism (C) Inclusion bodies lying free in the c; for carrying out various motabolic activities (D) Internal membrane system that it; become extensive and complex IL photosynthetic bacteria.

537. 538. 539. 540. 541. 542. 543. 544. 545. 546. 547. 548. 549. 550. 551. 552. 553. 554. 555. 556. 557. 558. 559.

When a bacterial cell possesses a flagellum on its anterior and posterior sides, the condition is called (A) Peritrichous (B) Lophotrichous (C) Amphitrichous (D) Monotrichous. Infolding of bacterial membrane is called (A) Mesosome (B) Sphaerosome (C) Acrosome (D) Episome Alternation of generations is not found bacterium E. coil due to lack of (A) Syngamy (B) Reduction division (C) Nucleus (D) Chromosomes. Cyanobacteria are useful biofertilizers in fields of (A) Wheat (B) Maize (C) Rice (D) Sugarcane Bacteria that are smallest in size are (A) Bacilli (B) Cocci (C) Spirilla (D) Vibrios. F-factor occurs in (A) Plasmid (B) Cosmid (C) Golgi body (D) Cell wall. Penicillin has inhibitory effect over bacteria by (A) Destruction of nucleus (B) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis (C) Stopping entrance of antibody (D) None of the above Nitrite is changed to nitrate by (A) Nitrobacter (B) Nitrosom on as (C) Clost,idium (D) Psudomonas. Rod-shaped bacteria are called (A) Cocci (B) Bacilli (C) Spirilli (D) Vibrios. Amphitrichous flagellation has (A) Flagella absent (B) Flagella at one end (C) Flagella at both the ends (D) Flagella all around An anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria is (A) Azotobacter (B) Chiorobium (C) Rhodospirillum (D) Clostndium. Sexual reproduction is absent in (A) Xanthophyta (B) Cyanophyta (C) Chlorophyta (D) Rhodophyta In bacteria cell division is (A) Amitotic (B) Mitotic (C) Meiotic (D) All the above. It causes abortion (A) Viruses (B) Bacteria (C) Mycoplasma (D) Chiamydia. During replication anchored to (A) Chromosome (B) Ribosome (C) Nucleolus (D) Mesosome. Hans Ris cointed the term genophore for (A) Genetic material of virus (B) Genetic material of fungus (C) Bacterial chromosome (D) Stalk supporting spores Which amino acid is present only in bacteria and cyanobacteria (A) Glycine (B) Tyrosine (C) Glutamic acid (D) Diaminopimellic acid. A filamentous nitrogen fixing bacterium is present in root nodules of flowering plants. (A) Cicer arietinum (B) Casuanna equisetifolia (C) Cycas revolute (D) Crotalaria juncea Which is wrong about mycoplasma (A) They are called PPLO (B) They are pleomorphic (C) They are sensitive to penicillin (D) They cause diseases in plants. Bacteria connected with acetogenesis is (A) Streptomonas (B) Clostridium (C) Bacillus (D) Citromonas. Spirulina belongs to the kingdom (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Fungi. Cell wall of Gram (+ )bacterium contains mucopolypeptide (A) 60-70% (B) 70—80% (C) 80—90% (D) 90-100%. Incipient nucleus occurs in (A) Myxophyceae (B) Chlorophyceae (C) Phaeophyceae (D) Rhodophyceae.

560. 561. 562.

563. 564. 565. 566. 567.

568. 569.

570. 571. 572. 573. 574. 575.

A plasmid (A) Cannot replicate (B) Shows independent assortment (C) Lies alongwith chromosome (D) Can replicate independently. Fleterocysts occur in (A) Chlorophyceae (B) Phaeophyceae (C) Cyanophyceae (D) Rhodophyceae. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), both are wrong (D). Assertion. True nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes. Reason. An undifferentiated, unorganised, fibrillar nucleus without any limiting membrane is found in prokaryotic cells. (A) (B) (C) (D) Transduction was discovered in bacteria by (A) Lederberg and Tatum (B) Zinder and Lederberg (C) Wallace and Jacob(D) Herelle and Twort Chemical substance by microorganisms for inhibiting growth of another organism is (A) Antibody (B) Antiallergic (C) Afflatoxin (D) Antibiotic Golgi apparatus does not occur in (A) Yeast (B) Liver cells (C) Higher plants (D) Bacteria and blue green algae. Yield of rice is increased, by (A) Ciostridium (B) Anabaena (C) Azolla (D) Nostoc. Select correct answers according to code (A) 1, 2, 3 correct (B) 1 and 2 correct (C) 2 and 4 correct (D) 1 and 3 correct. What is true for archaebacteria (1) Extreme halophiles (2) Extreme thermophiles (3) Methanogens (4) Occurrence of peptidoglycan in cell wall. (A) (B) (C) (D). Which one occurs in cell walls of Gram (+) bacteria only? (A) Peptidoglycan (B) Lipopolysaccharide (C) Teichoic acid (D) None of the above. Which is not characteristic of Gram (+) bacteria? (A) Smooth cell wall (B) Outer membrane (C) Prominent mesosomes (D) Two rings in basal body of flagellum (E) 70-80% murein in cell wall. Pathogenecity of leprosy and tuberculosis is due to (A)Wax D (B) Prostaglandins (C) Cholesterol (D) Glycerol. (E) Ergasterol Shorter generation time of E. coil as compared to eukaryotes k due to (A) Absence of organelle’s (B) Presence of cell wall (C) Shape (D) Large surface/volume ratio. Bacteria generally multiply through (A) Budding (B) Binary fission (C) Multiple fission (D) Plasmotomy. Antibiotic active against fungi are (A) Neomycin (B) Terramycin (C) Polyenes (D) Streptomycin. Mycoplasma is not inhibited by penicillin because it does not have (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Cell wall (C) Nucleus (D) Ribosomes. On the basis of rRNA genes, bacteria are divisible into (A) Cyanobacteria and Mycoplasma (B) Actinomycetes and Mycoplasma (C) Bacteria and Archaebacteria (D) Gram (+) and Gram (—).

576.

577. 578.

579. 580. 581. 582.

583.

584. 585. 586.

587. 588.

589.

Assign the following substances to cell wall, flagella, S-layer and pill of bacteria in proper sequence (a) Glycoprotein (b) Fimbrin (c) Teichoic acid (d) Flagellin. (A) c,a,d,b (B) c4a,b (C) b,4c,a (D) cd,b,a. People recovering from long illness are often advised to take Spin4ina because it (A) Restores intestinal microflora (B) Makes food easily digestible (C) Has antibiotic properties (D) Is rich in proteins. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in (A) Location and functioning (B) Movement and placement (C) Microtubular organisation ‘ and functioning (D) Microtubular movement. Organization and Tuberculosis is caused by (A) Ciostridium (B) Mycobacrenum (C) Vibrio cholerae (D) Salmonella typhi. Nitrification is conversion of (A) NH3 (B) NO2 (C) NO3 (D) All the above. Which is not moneran? (A) Mycoplasma (B) Slime Moulds (C) Archaebacteria (D) Eubactcria. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobactenum exemplify, (A) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which has a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria (B) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosome (C) Archaebacteria that contain proteins homologous to eukaryotic core histones (D) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled. Which one is true about domain archaea? (A) They differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes (B) They completely differ from prokaryotes (C) They resembe eukarya in all aspects (D) They have some novel, features absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Spinsiuza is rich source of (A) Minerals (B) Vitamins (C) Proteins (D) All the above. Bacteria are examples of (A) Protistan cells (B) Eukaryotic cells (C) Animal cells (D) Prokaryotic cells. Cyanobacteria are (A) Autotrophic prokaryotes with characteristic blue green pigments (B) Bacteria infecting the cyanophycean algae (C) Viruses infecting blue green algae (D) Cyanophycean members infecting bacteria. A symbiotic bacterium is (A) Erwinia amylovora (B) Rhizobium leguminosaium (C) Xanthomonas cwnpestris (D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. In root nodules of legumes, Ieghaemoglobin (A) Transports oxygen to root nodules (B) Acts as an oxygen scavanger (C) Acts as a catalyst in transamination (D) Provides energy to nitrogen fixing bacteria. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it is probably able to form (A) A thick peptidoglycan wall (B) Endospores (C) Endotoxins (D) Endogenous buds.

590. 591. 592. 593. 594. 595.

Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in (A) Chiorobium (B) Ghromatium (C) Oscillatorta (D) Rhodospirillium. Plasnilds are extrachromosomal genetic materials of (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Algae (D) Amoeba. Pasteurisation is carried out at (A) 30°C for 20 minutes (B) 40°C for 30 minutes (C) 30°C for 60 minutes (D) 62°C for 30 minutes Teichoic acid is found in (A) Cyanobacteria (B) Mycoplasma (C) Gram (+ ye) bacteria (D) Gram (— ye) bacteria Prokaryotic cells are characterised by (A) Absence of nuclear membrane (B) Presence of distinct nuclear membrane (C) Presence of distinct chromosomes (D) Absence of chromatic material. In prokaryotes, mitochondria are absent. Krebs cycle occurs over (A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucicoid (C) Ribosome (D) Plasma membrane. ANSWER – KEY

1. (D) 11. (A) 21. (B) 31. (A) 41. (A) 51. (A) 61. (B) 71. (D) 81. (D) 91. (C) 101. (A) 111. (C) 121. (C) 131. (C) 141. (D) 151. (C) 161. (C) 171. (B) 181. (A) 191. (C) 201. (C) 211. (C) 221. (C) 231. (D) 241. (A) 251. (C) 261. (A) 271. (D) 281. (D) 291. (A) 301. (A) 311. (B) 321. (C)

2. (C) 12. (C) 22. (B) 32. (A) 42. (A) 52. (A) 62. (B) 72. (D) 82. (D) 92. (B) 102.(A) 112. (C) 122.(D) 132.(B) 142.(C) 152.(D) 162.(C) 172.(A) 182.(A) 192.(B) 202.(A) 212.(B) 222.(D) 232.(B) 242.(A) 252.(B) 262.(D) 272.(A) 282.(B) 292.(B) 302.(A) 312.(A) 322.(C)

3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93. 103. 113. 123. 133. 143. 153. 163. 173. 183. 193. 203. 213. 223. 233. 243. 253. 263. 273. 283. 293. 303. 313. 323.

(D) (D) (B) (C) (C) (C) (D) (B) (A) (D) (C) (A) (B) (A) (D) (D) (A) (D) (B) (A) (B) (A) (B) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (A) (A) (D) (B) (D)

4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74. 84. 94. 104. 114. 124. 134. 144. 154. 164. 174. 184. 194. 204. 214. 224. 234. 244. 254. 264. 274. 284. 294. 304. 314. 324.

(C) (C) (A) (A) (C) (A) (D) (D) (D) (C) (A) (D) (A) (D) (B) (B) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C) (B) (C) (D) (D) (D) (C) (C) (B) (C) (B)

5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105. 115. 125. 135. 145. 155. 165. 175. 185. 195. 205. 215. 225. 235. 245. 255. 265. 275. 285. 295. 305. 315. 325.

(A) (C) (A) (B) (B) (C) (D) (B) (D) (C) (A) (C) (C) (B) (C) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (D) (C) (B) (D) (D) (B) (A) (A) (D) (C) (C) (A) (A)

6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96. 106. 116. 126. 136. 146. 156. 166. 176. 186. 196. 206. 216. 226. 236. 246. 256. 266. 276. 286. 296. 306. 316. 326.

(B) (D) (A) (C) (A) (C) (A) (C) (B) (A) (B) (I)) (B) (C) (C) (A) (C) (C) (B) (D) (B) (D) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (D) (D) (C) (C) (C) (C)

7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97. 107. 117. 127. 137. 147. 157. 167. 177. 187. 197. 207. 217. 227. 237. 247. 257. 267. 277. 287. 297. 307. 317. 327.

(A) 8. (A) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (C) 48. (A) 58. (D) 68. (A) 78. (C) 88. (A) 98. (D) 108. (D) 118. (A) 128. (B) 138. (D) 148. (A) 158. (D) 168. (B) 178. (C) 188. (A) 198. (B) 208. (B) 218. (B) 228. (C) 238. (B) 248. (A) 258. (B) 268. (B) 278. (C) 288. (B) 298. (B) 308. (B) 318. (B) 328.

(C) 9. (B) 19. (C) 29. (A) 39. (A) 49. (A) 59. (A) 69. (A) 79. (C) 89. (D) 99. (A) 109. (D) 119. (B) 129. (A) 139. (D) 149. (B) 159. (A) 169. (D) 179. (D) 189. (C) 199. (A) 209. (C) 219. (C) 229. (C) 239. (A) 249. (D) 259. (B) 269. (C) 279. (D) 289. (A) 299. (A) 309. (D) 319. (D) 329.

(B) (A) (A) (D) (A) (C) (D) (B) (C) (A) (B) (A) (D) (B) (A) (C) (C) (C) (A) (C) (D) (A) (A) (D) (C) (C) (C) (A) (D) (D) (D) (B) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100. 110. 120. 130. 140. 150. 160. 170. 180. 190. 200. 210. 220. 230. 240. 250. 260. 270. 280. 290. 300. 310. 320. 330.

(C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (C) (A) (C) (C) (A) (B) (B) (C) (D) (C) (C) (B) (B) (A) (C) (A) (B) (B) (A) (B) (B) (D) (D) (C) (D) (D) (B)

331. (D) 341. (D) 351. (B) 361. (B) 371. (D) 381. (D) 391. (B) 401. (B) 411. (D) 421. (A) 431. (C) 441. (D) 451. (B) 461. (D) 471. (B) 481. (B) 491. (A) 501. (B) 511. (C) 521. (D) 531. (C) 541. (B) 551. (D) 561. (C) 571. (D) 581. (B) 591. (B)

332.(C) 342.(D) 352.(C) 362.(B) 372.(B) 382.(B) 392.(B) 402.(C) 412.(A) 422.(A) 432.(B) 442.(C) 452.(C) 462.(A) 472.(D) 482.(B) 492.(B) 502.(D) 512.(B) 522.(B) 532.(C) S42.(A) 552.(C) 562.(A) 572.(B) 582.(C) 592.(D)

333. 343. 353. 363. 373. 383. 393. 403. 413. 423. 433. 443. 453. 463. 473. 483. 493. 503. 513. 523. 533. 543. 553. 563. 573. 583. 593.

(A) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C) (D) (D) (B) (C) (A) (D) (B) (C) (B) (D) (C) (B) (D) (A) (D) (B) (D) (B) (C) (D) (C)

334. 344. 354. 364. 374. 384. 394. 404. 414. 424. 434. 444. 454. 464. 474. 484. 494. 504. 514. 524. 534. 544. 554. 564. 574. 584. 594.

(B) (C) (C) (D) (C) (D) (A) (A) (D) (B) (C) (B) (C) (B) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B) (C) (B) (A) (B) (D) (B) (C) (A)

335. 345. 355. 365. 375. 385. 395. 405. 415. 425. 435. 445. 455. 465. 475. 485. 495. 505. 515. 525. 535. 545. 555. 565. 575. 585. 595.

(C) (B) (A) (A) (D) (D) (D) (B) (A) (B) (B) (C) (D) (D) (C) (D) (B) (D) (A) (B) (A) (B) (C) (D) (C) (D) (D)

336. 346. 356. 366. 376. 386. 396. 406. 416. 426. 436. 446. 456. 466. 476. 486. 496. 506. 516. 526. 536. 546. 556. 566. 576. 586.

(D) (C) (A) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (B) (D) (B) (D) (C) (A) (C) (B) (C) (B) (D) (D) (D) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A)

337. 347. 357. 367. 377. 387. 397. 407. 417. 427. 437. 447. 457. 467. 477. 487. 497. 507. 517. 527. 537. 547. 557. 567. 577. 587.

(C) 338. (B) 348. (A) 358. (C) 368. (C) 378. (C) 388. (D) 398. (A) 408. (D) 418. (D) 428. (B) 438. (D) 448. (B) 458. (B) 468. (A) 478. (A) 488. (D) 498. (A) 508. (C) 518. (A) 528. (C) 538. (D) 548. (A) 558. (A) 568. (D) 578. (B) 588.

(D) 339. (A) 349. (D) 359. (D) 369. (D) 379. (B) 389. (A) 399. (D) 409. (C) 419. (A) 429. (D) 439. (D) 449. (B) 459. (A) 469. (B) 479. (C) 489. (A) 499. (C) 509. (A) 519. (D) 529. (A) 539. (B) 549. (B) 559. (C) 569. (D) 579. (B) 589.

(D) (D) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (A) (B) (A) (C) (A) (B) (B) (I)) (C) (A) (C) (A) (B) (A) (A) (B) (B) (B)

340. 350. 360. 370. 380. 390. 400. 410. 420. 430. 440. 450. 460. 470. 480. 490. 500. 510. 520. 530. 540. 550. 560. 570. 580. 590.

(B) (C) (D) (A) (A) (C) (A) (I)) (B) (A) (D) (A) (C) (C) (C) (D) (D) (D) (B) (B) (C) (C) (D) (A) (D) (C)

Kingdom Protista (Unicellular Eukaryotes) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Protista includes (A) Unicellular prokaryotes (B) Unicellular eucaryotes (C) Bacteriophages (D) Blue-green algae Which do not belong to Protista? (A) Euglenoids (B) Zooflagellates (C) Methanogens (D) Ciliates. Kingdom Protista includes (A) Unicellular eukaryotes (B) Colonial eucaryotes (C) Both A and B (D) Multicellular eucaryotes. Percentage of global photosynthesis performed by photosynthetic protists is (A) 30% (B) 50% (C) 65% (D) 80%. Percentage of plankton constituted by protistans is (A) 95% (B) 85% (C) 80% (D) 70%. The life style present in protists is (A) Plant (B) Fungal (C) Animal (D) All the above. Protistans are connecting link between (A) Plants and animals (B) Fungi and plants (C) Monerans and kingdoms of multicellular organisms (D) Fungi and animals. Parasitic mode of nutrition is (A) Absorptive (B) Phagotropic (C) Both A and B (D) Holotrophic. A symbiotic protist is (A) Plasmodium (B) Lophomonas (C) Fuligo (D) Tiypanosoma. Binary fission is transverse in (A) Paramecium (B) Euglena (C) Ceratium (D) Amoeba. Plasmotomy occurs in case of (A) Umnucleate protests (B) Binucleate protists (C) Multinucleate protests (D) All the above. The first eucaryotes to evolve were (A) Bryophytes (B) Green algae (C) Blue-green algae (D) Protistans. Which one is slowest mode of locomotion (A) Pseudopodial (B) Ciliary (C) Flagellar (D) Both A and C. Which is the fastest mode of locomotion? (A) Wriggling (B) Pseudopodial (C) Ciliary (D) Flagellar. A conserved structure is (A) Contractile vacuole (B) Flagellum (C) Pseudopodium (D) All the above. Gametic meiosis occurs in (A) Diatoms (B) Acellular Slime Moulds (C) Noctiluca (D) All the above. Binary fission is oblique in (A) Ceratium (B) Noctiluca (C) Fuligo (D) Vorticella. In protista, phagotrophic nutrition is form in (A) Protozoan protests (B) Some dinoflagellates (C) A few euglenoids (D) All the above. Osmotrophy is related to (A) Saprophytic nutrition (B) Parasitic nutrition (C) Ingestive nutrition (D) Holophytic nutrition. Syngamy may occur through (A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy (C) Oogamy and paedogamy (D) All the above.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.

35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

Mixotrophic nutrition is present in (A) Navicula (B) Amoeba (C) Paramecium (D) Euglena. Name of the luminescent protist (A) Navicula (B) Amoeba (C) Elphidium (D) Noctiluca. Which is a marine protist? (A) Amoeba proteus (B) Pelomyxa (C) Noctiluca (D) Paramecium. Protists having noncontractile pusule are (A) Sporozoans (B) Ciliates (C) Dinoflagellates (D) Navicula. Night phosphorescence or glow of sea water is due to (A) Noctiluca (B) Navicula (C) Phacus (D) Dictyostelium. Paralytic shell fish poisoning is caused by (A) Pinnularia (B) Gonyaulax (C) Elphidium (D) Vorticella. Night visibility increases in paints having (A) Foraminiferan ooze (B) Diatomaceous earth (C) Sporozoans (D) Noctiluca. The protistans in which cell size decreases with each division are (A) Dinoflagellates (B) Diatoms (C) Slime Moulds (D) Radiolarians. A protistan which is commonly called plant-animal is (A) Navicula (B) Noctiluca (C) Vorticella (D) Euglena. The interphase dinoflagellate nucleus contains (A) No chromatin reticulum (B) Condensed chromosomes (C) Acentric chromosomes (D) All the above. The storage product in Euglena euglenoids) is (A) Glycogen (B) Oil. (C) Paraniylum (D) Chrysolaminarin Diatoms belong to (A) Dinoflagellates (B) Chrysophytes (C) Pyrrhophytes (D) Euglenoids. Food reserve of diatoms is (A) Starch (B) Chrysolaminarmn (C) Paramylon (D) Glycogen. Photosynthetic protists belong to (A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Bacillariophyceae and euglenophyceae (C) Bacillariophyceae, euglenophyceae and dinophyceae (D) Zooflagellates. The storage product of chrysophytes is (A) Oil and leucosin (B) Starch (C) Paramylum (D) Glycogen. Bivalved siliceous shell or frustule occurs in (A) Diatoms (B) Foraminiferans (C) Radiolarians (D) Heliozoans. Periplast of Euglena lies (A) External to plasma membrane (B) Internal to plasma membrane (C) As a thickening of plasma membrane (D) On one side of the organism. Metaboly is characteristic of (A) Amoebids (B) Heliozoans (C) Euglenoids (D) Dinoflagellates. Shell Fish taken from water during a red tide would be (A) Rich in proteins (B) Poisoned with neurotoxin (C) Dead (D) Rich in fats. Golden Brown protists are (A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Dinophyceae (C) Both bacillariophyceae dinophyceae (D) Euglenophyceae.

41.

42. 43. 44.

45. 46.

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52.

53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58.

Whirling Whips are protists which possess two flagella that beat (A) Slightly towards one side so as to cause rotation of the organism while moving forward (B) Forward, backward and sideways depending upon the requirement (C) At right angles to each other due to being present in different grooves (D) Along with numerous cilia. Protists having transverse and longitudinal groove in their theca are (A) Foraminiferans (B) Radiolarians (C) Diatoms (D) Dinoflagellates. Photosynthetic euglenoids are (A) Obligate autotrophs (B) Facultative heterotrophs (C) Facultative autotrophs (D) Obligate heterotrophs. Eye spot of Euglena is a (A) Nonpiastid structure found near the reservoir (B) Nonplastid structure found on the side near the middle (C) Plastid structure present near the reservoir (D) Plastid structure found near the middle. Photosynthetic protists having trichocysts are (A) Dinophyceae (B) Ciliates (C) Badilariopllyceae (D) Euglenophyceae. What is true about Euglena? (A) It stores fat as reserve food (B) It swims by means of a single flagellum (C) Creeping movements can occur through metaboly (D) Both B and C. In dmophyceae the two flagella are (A) Anterior (B) One transverse and other vertical (C) Lateral (D) Posterior. The sulcus or longitudinal groove of dinophycean shell contains (A) Narrow smooth flagellum (B) Thick ribbon-shaped flagellum (C) Tail (D) Mucilage canal. Mesokaryon is (A) A nucleus like structure (B) Nucleoid with histone protein (C) A nucleus with éondensed chromosomes (D) A nucleoid with distinct chromosomes. Mesokaryon occurs in (A) Zooflagellates (B) Euglenoids (C) Sarcodines (D) Dinoflagellates. Noctiluca is (A) Sarcodine (B) Dinoflagellate (C) Zooflagellate (D) Ciliate. What is true of bacillariophyceae (A) Epitheca is smaller (B) Hypotheca is smaller (C) Both epitheca and hypotheca have same size (D) Any of the two can be larger. Hypotheca of parent diatom forms in daughter (A) Hypotheca (B) Epitheca (C) Is shed (D) Forms the whole frustule. Chrysolaminarin is chemically (A)  1-4 glucan (B)  1-6 glucan (C)  1-3 glucan (D)  1-3 glucan. A primitive filament is formed in protist (A) Gonyaulax (B) Gymnodinium (C) Melosira (D) Pinnularia. In diatoms the nucleus generally lies in (A) Epivalve (B) Hypovalve (C) Central vacuole (D) Peripheral cytoplasm. Diatom frustule is made of (A) Silica (B) Calcium carbonate (C) Calcium hydroxide (D) Both B and C. Cod liver oil is derived from (A) Diatoms (B) Dinoflagellates (C) Euglenoids (D) All the above.

59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81.

Periplast of Euglena is (A) Continuous (B) With longitudinal plates (C) With transverse plates (D) Made of spiral plates. Periplast plates of Euglena are (A) Interlocked (B) Pliable (C) Underlined by mucilage and microtubules (D) All the above. Eye spot granules of Euglena are formed c (A) Fucoxanthin (B) Astaxanthin (C) -carotens (D) -carotene. Astaxanthin found in Euglenoid eye spots also occurs elsewhere in (A) Annelida (B) Cephalopoda (C) Crustacea (D) Insecta. Photosensitivity of Euglena is due to (A) Paraflagellar body(B) Eye spot (C) Both A and B (D) Chromatophores. Paraflagellar body occurs in Euglena (A) Near base of flagella (B) Region of union of flagellar branches (C) Area of basal granules (D) On reservoir wall. Paramylum granules are made of (A)  1-3 glucan (B)  1-3 glucan (C)  1-4 glucan (D)  1-4 glucan. Euglena occurs in (A) Sea (B) Fresh water (C) Both A and B (D) Moist soils. Contractile vacuole of Euglena is (A) Posterior (B) Middle (C) Anterior (D) Anterior and fixed. Metabody of Euglena is due to (A) Myonemes (B) Microtubules (C) Pellicle plates (D) Both B and C. A phagotrophic euglenoid is (A) Euglena (B) Peranéma (C) Rhabdomonas (D) Both B and C. Red tide is mostly caused by (A) Noctiluca (B) Gymnodinium (C) Symbiodinium (D) Nematodinium. Dinophycean theca is made of (A) Silica (B) Lime (C) Cellulose (D) Protein. In dinophyceae, sulcus is (A) Transverse flagellum (B) Longitudinal flagellum (C) Transverse groove (D) Longitudinal groove. Transverse flagellum of dinophyceac is (A) Narrow (B) Ribbon like (C) With delicate threads (D) Both Band C. Chromosomes are without centromere in (A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Euglenophyceae (C) Dinophyceae (D) Both B and C. In dinophyceae the food reserve is (A) Glycogen (B) Leucosin (C) Starch and oil (D) Oil and paramylum. In dinophyceae trichocysts occur in (A) Peridinium (B) Nematodinium (C) Caratium (D) Gonyaular. A dinoflagellate with nematocysts is (A) Nematodinjum (B) Ceratium (C) Gonyaulax (D) Symbodinium. Fire algae are members of (A) Phaeophyceae (B) Dinophyceae (C) Rhodophyceae (D) Bacillariophyceae. An unarmoured dinoflagellate is (A) Ceratium (B) Noctiluca (C) Gonyaulax (D) Both B and C. Bioluminescence was first recorded in (A) Gonyaular (B) Peridlniuni (C) Noctiluca (D) Pyrodinium. Noctiluca swims with the help of (A) Transverse flagellum (B) Longitudinal flagellum (C) Tentacle (D) Both A and B.

82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

99. 100. 101. 102. 103.

PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning) is connected with (A) Gonyaular (B) Ceratium (C) Noctiluca (D) Glenodmniurn Fungus-animals are (A) Slime Moulds (B) Zygomycota (C) Foraminiferans (D) Radiolarians. Decomposer protists are (A) Sarcodines (B) Dinoflagellates (C) Slime Moulds (D) Diatoms. Pseudoplasmodium is formed in (A) Cellular Slime Moulds (B) Acdflular Slime Moulds (C) Zooflagellates (D) Dinofiagellates. Branched veins with flowing protoplasm occur in (A) Acellular Slime Moulds (B) Cellular Slime Moulds (C) Polysiphonia (D) Ulva. Multinucleate decomposer organism is (A) Physwum (B) Pelomyxa (C) Arcella (D) Dictyostelium. An acelluh slime mould is (A) Dictyostelium (B) Fuligo (C) Polysphondylium (D) All the above. Cellular slime mould is (A) Dictyostelium (B) Fuligo (C) Phvsarum (D) All the above. Mass of streaming protoplasm in acellular slime moulds is (A) Plasmodium (B) Psetdoplasmodium(C) Sorophore (D) Sclerotium. Pigment present in some Slime Moulds is (A) Chlorophyll (B) Carotenoids (C) Anthracene (D) Both B and C. Slime Moulds were called fungus animals by (A) Mac Bride (B) De Bary (C) Mieheli (D) Alexopoulos. In Slime Moulds, the somatic phase is (A) Naked (B) Covered by cell wall (C) Micheli (D) Alexopoulos. Multiplication of Slime Moulds occurs through (A) Binary fission (B) Plasmotomy (C) Multiple fission (D) Both A and B. Wall appears in consumer-decomposer protists during (A) Somatic phase (B) Gametangium (C) Spore stage (D) Both B and C. Under unfavourable conditions, a scierotium is formed by (A) Rounding of myxamoebae (B) Rounding of plasmodium (C) Thickening of sporangium (D) Plasmotomy. Protoplasmodium is (A) A few nucleate plasmodium (B) Plasmodium without veins (C) Pseudoplasmodium (D) Incipient plasmodiuni. A naked sporangium occurs in (A) Cellular slime moulds (B) Acellular slime moulds (C) All the slime moulds (D) Commonly acellular slime moulds but at times cellular slime moulds. In acellular slime moulds, meiosis occurs inside (A) Plasmodium (B) Sporangium (C) Myxamoebae (D) Spores. The flagellate structures in acellular slime moulds are (A) Myxamoebae (B) Swarm cells (C) Spores (D) Both B and C. Male and female gametes fuse in cellular slime moulds to form (A) Sporangium (B) Microcyst (C) Macrocyst (D) Spore. Name the shelled protozoan (A) Elphidium, (B) Noctiluca (C) Trichonympha (D) Giardia. Which is a ciliate protist? (A) Euglena (B) Vonicella (C) Pelomyxa (D) Metopus.

104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112.

113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125.

Which is a symbiont? (A) Vorticella (B) Paramecium (C) Colpidium (D) Trichonympha. Fossils protists often associated with petroleum bearing rocks are (A) Ciliates (B) Cellular Slime Moulds (C) Foraminiferan shells (D) Diatoms. Marine Amoebae are (A) With contractile vacuole (B) Without contractile vacuole (C) With temporary contractile vacuoles (D) All the above. Lobopodia are present in (A) Elphidium (B) Radiolarians (C) Amoeba (D) None of the above, Sol-gel theory about the locomotion is Amoeba was proposed by (A) Dellinger (B) Jennings (C) Hyman (D) None of the above. Amoeba is (A) Herbivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Sanguivorous (D) Omnivorous. Entamoeba is (A) Monopodial (B) Dipodial. (C) Multipodial (D) None of the above Amoeba is (A) Ammonoteic (B) Ureoteic (C) Uricotelic (D) None of the above In Amoeba the process of digestion is (A) First in alkaline medium then in acidic medium (B) First in acidic medium then in alkaline medium (C) In alkaline medium only (D) None of the above. Binary fission in Amoeba occurs by (A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Amitosis (D) None of the above. Sporulation in Amoeba occurs during (A) Favourable conditions (B) Unfavourable conditions (C) Both (D) None. Slipper Animalcule/Slipper Organism is (A) Paramecium (B) Euglena (C) Plasm odium (D) Monocystis. Trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica multiplies by (A) Encystment (B) Sporulation (C) Binary fission (D) Multiple fission. Entamoeba histolytica is (A) Monogenetic (B) Digenetic (C) Free living (D) None of the above. How many nuclei are present in magna form of Entamoeba histolytica? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6. The trophic form in Entamoeba histolytica is (A) Magna form (B) Minuta form (C) Monogenetic form (D) Digenetic form. Malaria Day is (A) 20th August (B) 15th August (C) 5th June (D) 6th January. Entamoeba histolytica secretes proteolytic enzyme called (A) Polypeptidase (B) Histolysin (C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin. If Entamoeba attacks liver it causes (A) Diarrohoea (B) Amoebiasis (C) Abscesses (D) Hepatitis. Pyorrhoea is aggravated by (A) Entamoeba hastmanni (B) Entamoeba coli (C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Entamoeba gingivalis. Multinucleate protozoan is (A) A,noeba (B) Pelomyxa (C) Giardia (D) Arcella. Gambia fever or sleeping sickness is caused by (A) Plasmodium (B) Giardia (B) Entamoeba (D) Trypanosoma.

126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141.

142. 143. 144. 145. 146.

The intermediate host of Tsypanosoma is (A) Glossina (B) Anopheles (C) Culex (D)Aedes. The function of undulating membrane in Trypanosoma is (A) To increase the area of absorption (B) To help in movement in viscous blood (C) To catch the food (D) None of the above. Cellulose digesting zooflagellate found in Wood Roaches is (A) Leishmania (B) Trichomonas (C) Trichonympha (D) Lophomonas. Trypanosoma ciuzi causes (A) Sleeping sickness (B) Yellow fever (C) Chagas’ disease (D) None of the above. Cellulose digestion of ants is carried out by (A) Lophomonas (B) Trichomonas (C) Trichonympha (D) Mon ocystis. Meningo-encephalitis is caused by (A) Plasmodium (B) Entamoeba (C) Trichomonas (D) Trypanosoma. Egyptian pyramids are made of rocks formed from (A) Diatomaceous earth (B) Forminiferan shells (C) Radiolarian ooze (D) Armoured dinoflagellates. Heliozoans are (A) Zooflagellates (B) Sarcodines (C) Sporozoans (D) Golden brown algae. In Plasmodium schizogony occurs in (A) Asexual phase in Anopheles (B) Sexual phase in Anopheles (C) Asexual phase in Homo (D) Sexual phase in Homo Sporozoites of Plasmodium are spindle-like so that they can (A) Easily move in blood (B) Easily penetrate cells of host (C) Multiply easily (D) None of the above. Sporozoites puncture the cell membrane of host cell by (A) Hyaluronidase (B) Lytic juice (C) Lysin enzyme (D) None of the above. Female Anopheles pours its saliva while biting skin of man so as (A) To release sporozoites (B) To cause irritation (C) To prevent blood clotting (D) None of the above. Spraying oil on stagnant water controls malaria because (A) Oils kills parasites in mosquitoes (B) Mosquito larvae are asphyxiated (C) Water becomes impure (D) Specific gravity of water increases. Which phase of Plasmodium starts in man and is completed in mosquito? (A) Schizogony (B) Gamogony (C) Sporogony (D) None of the above. Leucorrhoea is caused by (A) Leishmania donovani (B) Thchomonas vaginalis (C) Lophomonas blattan (D) Tnchonympha campanula. Incubation period in Flasmodium is about (A) 10  15 days (B) 0  5 days (C) 20  35 days (D) 40  60 days. Biological control of malaria is done by fish (A) Gambusia (B) Labeo (C) Scoliodon (D) Exocoetus. Name the plant which kills mosquito larvae (A) Hyd (B) Ceratophyllum (C) Utricularia (D) Vallisneria. Life cycle of malaria was discovered by (A) Pasteur (B) Ross (C) Mendel (D) Darwin. Number of cryptomerozoites formed in one liver cell is (A) About 500 (B) About 2000 (C) About 1000 (D) About 200 Sun aninialcules are (A) Heliozoans (B) Zooflagellates (C) Foraminiferans (D) Radiolarians.

147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164.

165. 166.

Which phase of Plasmodium is resistant to drugs? (A) Pre-erythrocytic phase (B) Posterythrocytic phase (C) Erythrocytic phase (D) Gamogonic phase. Hernatin is (A) Urochrome (B) Haemoglobin (C) Decomposed haemoglobin (D) Carbamino-haemoglobin. Malaria fever occurs after the completion of (A) Erythrocytic schizogony (B) Pre-erythrocytic schizogony (C) Gamogony (D) None of the above. Maximum speed of a protist is (A) 20 1 (B) 2 mm/sec (C) 200 Aum/sec (D) 2 cm/sec. Trichonympha belongs to (A) Zooflagellata (B) Dinoflagellata (C) Ciliata (D) Sporozoa. In one bite mosquito injects about (A) 5000 sporozoites (B) 2000 sporozoites (C) 1000 sporozoites (D) 500 sporozoites. Mild tertian malaria is caused by (A) Plasmodium malariae (B) Plasmodjum ovale (C) Plasm odium fakipan (D) None of the above. The severe and fatal malaria is caused by (A) Fkjsmodium vivar (B) Plasmodium ovale (C) Plasmodium malanae (D) Plasmodium falcipwum. Radiolarians are (A) Without shells (B) With calcareous shells (C) With siliceous shells (D) Protists with extremely thin cell walls. Quinine is derived from the bark of (A) Althaea (B) Dalbergia (C) Acacia (D) Cinchona. The most effective drug in killing Plasmodium is (A) Quinine (B) Quinine sulphate (C) Chloroquine phosphate (D) Daraprim. A group completely devoid of contractile vacuoles is (A) Sporozoa (B) Sacrodina (C) Ciiata (D) Zooflagellata. In protists the locomotory organelles are (A) Flagella (B) Flagella, cilia and pseudopodia (C) Flagella and cilia (D) Flagella, cilia, pseudopodia and wrigglers. Chalky deposits are accumulations of (A) Radiolarians (B) Diatoms (C) Foraminiferans (D) All the above. Paramecium/Ciliate differs protists in having (A) Contractile vacuoles (B) Trichocysts (C) Food vacuoles (D) Two types of nuclei. Macronucleus of Parwnecium takes part in (A) Transmission of hereditary characters (B) Controlling normal cellular metabolism (C) Production of variations and adaptability(D) All the above. Malaria is transmitted by (A) Tse-tse fly (B) Sand fly (C) Anophetes (D) Culex. Which statement is true for Paramecium ? (A) 2 contraëtile vacubles work alternately (B) Anterior contractile vacuole works more frequently (C) Posterior contractile more frequently (D) None of the above. The encystment in Amoeba serves for (A) Perennation (B) Dispersal (C) Reproduction (D) All the above. Speed of Paramecium is

167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189.

(A) 10 mm per second (B) 5 mm per second (C) 3 mm per second (D) 1 mm per second. Amphinucleus is (A) Synkaryon (B) Macronucleus (C) Micronucleus (D) None of the above. Which corresponds to parthenogenesis? (A) Autogamy (B) Cytogamy (C) Endomixis (D) Aniphimixis. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is (A) Sporozoite (B) Minuta form (C) Mature cyst (D) Trophic form Fusion of male and female pronuclei of two conjugant Paramecia is known as (A) Synkaryon (B) Fertilization (C) Endomixis (D) Amphimixis Kappa particles of Paramecium produce toxic substance called (A) Toxin (B) Paramecin (C) Hypnotoxin (D) Neutiotoxin. Repeated reproduction of Paramecia by binary fission leads to (A) Senile decay (B) Fatigue (C) Sterility (D) Mortality. Autogamy in Paramecium corresponds to (A) Cross fertilization (B) Parthenoge (C) Self fertilization (D) Mortality. Outer covering of Paramecium is known as (A) Pellicle (B) Cuticle (C) Plasmalemma (D) Plasma membrane. Cytopyge or cytoproct of Paramecium is meant for (A) Ingestion (B) Osmoregulation (C) Rcproduction (D) Egestion. Water collecting canals around contractile vacuole are called (A) Incurrent canals (B) Excurrent canals (C) Radiating canals (D) None of the above. Beating of cilia in Paramecium is (A) Synchronous (B) Metachronous (C) Both A and B (D) No co-ordination. Organelles of oftcz ce and defence in Paramecia are (A) Trichocysts (B) Nematocysts. (C) Cilia (D) Kinetosomes Caudal tuft of Paramecium is (A) Tactile in nature (B) Locomotory in function (C) Helps in conjugation (D) All the above. During conjugation in macronucleus (A) Divides by mitosis (B) Divides by aniitosis (C) Does not divide (D) Degenerates. In Paramecium beating of cilia is controlled by (A) Neuromotor system (B) Kinety (C) Kinetosome (D) Pellicle. Number of flagella in Giardia is (A)2 (B)4 (C) 8 (D) Numerous. Numerous flagella occur in (A) Trichomonas (B) Triclionympha (C) Lophomonas (D) Both B and C. A single flagellum is found in (A) Trypanosoma (B) Mastigamoeba (C) Leishmania (D) All the above. Grand Old Man of Intestine is (A) Entainoeba (B) Giardia (C) Trichomonas (D) Balantidium. Back Packer’s disease is (A) Giardiasis (B) Amoebiasis (C) Ciliary diarrhea (D) Visceral Leishmaniasis. Giardia intestinalis resides in the human alimentary canal in (A) Large intestine (B) Ileum (C) Duodenum and jejunum (D) All the above. Attaching disc of Giardia occurs (A) Anteriorly over dorsal side (B) Posteriorly on dorsal side (C) Anteriorly over ventral side (D) Posteriorly over ventral side. Stages of T,ypanosoma present in Tse-tse fly are (A) Trypanosoma and Leishmania forms (B) Leishmania, Leptomonas and Crithidia forms

(C) Leptomonas and Crithidia forms 190. 191. 192. 193 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202 203.

204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209.

(D) Trypanosoma and Leptomonas forms.

American trypanosomiasis is (A) Chagas disease (B) Dumdum fever (C) Espundia (D) Both B and C Proterospongia is (A) Unicellular zooflagellate (B) Colonial zooflagellate (C) Sarcodine (D) Incipient colonial ciliate. Proterospongia has (A) Choanocytes (B) Amoeboid cells (C) Both A and B (D) Mastigamoeba like cells. Proterospongia is link between (A) Sponges and coelenterates (B) Coelenterates and aschelminthes (C) Protists and sponges (D) Sponges and coelenterates. Mastigamoeba is link between (A) Zooflagellates and sarcodines (B) Sarcodines and diliates (C) Zooflagellates and sporozoans (D) Sporozoans and ciliates. Tsetse fly is (A) Phiebotamus (B) Glossina (C) Tnatoma (D) Musca. Thchomonas tenax lives in (A) Human intestine (B) Buccal cavity (C) Genital tract (D) Nasal tract. Posterior end of Amoeba can be recognised by (A) Uroid (B) Nucleus (C) Psuedopodia (D) Food vacuole. Charcoat-Leyden crystals are characteristic (A) Trichomonas hominis (B) Giardia intestinalis (C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Entwnoeba coli. Actinophiys is (A) Radiolarian (B) Foraminifer (C) Heliozoan (D) Amoeboid Aulocantha is (A) Radiolarian (B) Foraminifer (C) Amoeboid (D) Heliozoan Nummulites (= Camerina species) belong to (A) Sporozoa (B) Ciliata (C) Foraminifera (D) Radiolaria. In malaria, pigmentation of skin and urine occurs due to (A) Schuffner’s granules (B) Excessive loss of RBCs (C) Excessive degeneration of haemoglobin (D) All the above. Ronald Ross discovered (A) Erythrocyte cycle of Plasmodium (B) Oocysts on stomach of female Anopheles (C) Transmission of malaria by female Anopheles (D) Both B and C. Erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium was studied by (A) Laveran (B) Golgi (C) Grassi (D) Shortt. Small blood vessels may get blocked in infection of (A) Plasmodium ovale(B) P.vivax (C) P.malariae (D) P. falcipanim. Fish effective in controffing Anopheles is (A) Mosquito Fish Gambusia (B) Guppy fish Poecilia (C) Stickleback, Minnow and Trout (D) All the above. A sedentary ciliate is (A) Paramecium (B) Tetrahymena (C) Vorticella (D) Balantidium. Two micronuclei occur in (A) Paramecium Aurelia (B) Paramecium caudatum (C) Paramecium multimicronucleatum (D) Balantidium coli. Ciliate commonly used as organism is (A) Vorticella (B) Balantidium (C) Tetrahymena (D) Paramecium.

210. 211. 212 213.

Malaria does not relapse in case of (A) Plasmodium ovale (B) P. malariae (C) P. fakipanim (D) Both B and C. Macronucleus of dilates is (A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Aneuploid (D) Polyploid. Exflagellation occurs in Plasmodium during (A) Maturation of female gamete (B) Formation of male gametes (C) Ookinete formation (D) Growth of trophozoite. Period between inoculation and appearance of parasite in blood is called (A) Muturation time (B) Prepatent period (C) Incubation period (D) Febrile period.

Revision Questions 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222.

223. 224. 225. 226.

Contracile vacuoles of Paramecium are analogous to (A) Sweat glands of mammals (B) Uriniferous tubules (C) Gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. (D) Typhiosole of Earthworm. If Amoeba is kept in distilled water, its contractile vacuole (A) Works slowly (B) Works faster (C) Remains unaffected (D) Disappears. The pseudopodia of Amoeba are locomotory organelles. These are tipped by (A) Pellicle (B) Cuticle (C) Hyaline cap (D) Plasma sol. The causal organism of Kala-azar is (A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Leishmania donovani (C) Trypanosoma lewsii (D) Wuchereria bancrofti. If a pond dries, Amoeba (A) Reproduces (B) Encysts (C) Degenerates (D) Behaviour is uncertain. An intracellular parasite is (A) Entamoeba (B) Ascaris (C) Plasmodium (D) Both A and B. Paramecium feeds through (A) Undulating membrane (B) General body surface (C) Oral groove (D) Cytopyge. In Plasmodium, gametocytes are formed in man, but do not develop fully in the R.B.C. because of (A) Antibodies present in blood (B) Antigens present in blood (C) Higher temperature of blood (D) Lower temperature of blood. Malarial parasite can best be obtained from a patient (A) An hour before rise of temperature (B) When temperature rises with rigor (C) When temperature comes to normal (D) Five hours after the temperature reaches to normal. Schizont stage in life cycle of malarial parasite occurs in (A) Erythrocytes of man (B) Stomach of Anopheles (C) Blood of man (D) Salivary glands of Anopheles. Amoebic dysentery i caused by (A) Enramoeba histolytica (B) Entwnoeba gingivalis (C) Entamoeba coli (D) Amoeba proteus. The poisonous substance released as a result of ruputring of schizont in R.B.C. of malarial patient is (A) Haematm (B) Haemoglobin (C) Haemozoin (D) Haem; Two species of Amoeba X and Y were kept in fresh water and got adapted. Species X developed contractile vacuole. When both were transfered to sea water and got adapted, both X and Y lost their contractile vacuole. From these observations we conclude that

227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234.

235. 236. 237. 238. 239. 240.

241. 242. 243. 244. 245.

(A) Both X and Y are marine species (B) Species Y is marine and X is fresh water (C) Species X is marine and Y is fresh water (D) Both X and Y are fresh water. Ental noeba differs from Amoeba in not having (A) Nucleus (B) Pseudopodia (C) Ectoplasm (D) Contractile vacuole. The cilia in Paramecium are (A) All equal (B) All unequal (C) Longer at posterior end (D) Longer at anterior end. Some protists possess structures for regulation of their water content. They are (A) Nuclei (B) Contractile vacuoles (C) Chromatophores (D) Membranes Nutrition in Amoeba is (A) Holophytic (B) Parasitic (C) Holozoic (D) Saprobic. In patient .suffering from malaria, the cells having Schuffner’s granules are (A) Gametocytes (B) Signet ring trophozoites (C) Infected erythrocytes (D) Infected liver cells. Which protist reproduces both by binary fission and conjugation? (A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium (C) Euglena (D) Monocystis Total parasites belong to protozoan group (A) Sporozoa (B) Ciliata. (C) Sarcodina (D) Zooflagellata. African sleeping sickness is due to (A) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tsetse fly (B) T’ypanosoma Iewsii transmitted by E: Bug (C) Tiypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis (D) Entarnoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is (A) Tiypanosoma cruzi (B) T. rhodesiense (C) T. tangela (D) T. gambiense. Which of the following is photosynthetic? (A) Paramecium (B) Mon Ocystis (C) Leishmania (D) Euglena. Select the matching pair (A) Giardia — diarrhea (B) Plasmodium — pyorrhoea (C) Leishmania — dysentery (D) T,ypanosoma — kalaazar. The vector for sleeping sickness is (A) Housefly (B) Tsetse fly (C) Sandfly (D) Fruit fly. T belongs to class (A) Sarcodina (B) Zooflagellata (C) Ciliata (D) Sporozoa. In T gambiense (A) Reproduction is by multiple fission (B) There are two nuclei, a micronucleus and a macronucleus (C) There are two locomotory organelles, a flagellum and an undulating membrane (D) Tse-tse fly has no role to play in life cycle. Kala-azar is transmitted by (A) Phlebotomus/Sandfly (B) GlossinafFset fly (C) Pediculus (D) Aedes. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in (A) Micronucleus (B) Macronucleus (C) Both micronucleus and macronucleus (D) Mitochondria In Paramecium, both autogamy and conjugation are sexual processes because of (A) Gene recombination (B) Involvement of two individuals (C) Fusion of two haploid nuclei (D) Rejuvenation Auxospores occur in (A) Diatoms (B) Cryptomonads (C) Dinoflagellates (D) Euglenophyceae. Cell walls are well preserved as fossils in one of the following (A) Dinophyceae (B) Bacillariophyceae (C) Cyanophyceae (D) Euglenophyceae.

246. 247. 248. 249 250. 251. 252. 253.

254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260.

261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266.

Red oceanic tides can be due to (A) Diatoms (B) Dinoflagellates (C) Red Algae (D) Blue-green algae. Protozoan protists respire through (A) Pseudopodia (B) Contractile vacuole (C) Mitochondria (D) General surface. Paramecium is (A) Saprobiotic (B) Holozoic (C) Holophytic (D) Parasitic Locomotory organs are absent in (A) Sporozoa (B) Ciliates (C) Zooflagellates (D) Rhizopods. Tiypanosoma finally invades (A) Brain (B) Liver (C) Blood (D) Cerebrospinal fluid. Entamoeba histolytica is a (A) Free living protest (B) Malarial parasite (C) Intestinal parasite in humans (D) Blood parasite in mosquito Movements in pseudopodia of Amoeba are due to change in (A) Pressure (B) Viscosity. (C) Atmosphere (D) Temperature Exoerythrocytic schizogony of Plasmodium takes place in (A) RBC (B) Leucocytes (C) Liver in which cryptomerozoites are formed (D) Liver in which metacryptomerozoites are formed Which one carries malarial parasite to the host? (A) Male Culex (B) Male Anopheles (C) Male Aedes (D) None of the above. Which of the following can start erythrocytic cycle? (A) Metacryptomerozoite (B) Merozoite (C) Sporozoite (D) Schizont. LivingAmoeba is (A) Pale blue (B) Transparent (C) Light green (D) Translucent. Discovery of Amoeba was made by (A) Jenner (B) Rosenhof (C) Hofkins (D) Twait. Which is true about Trypanosoma? (A) Polymorphic (B) Monogenetic (C) Facultative parasite (D) Non-pathogenic. Amoebiasis is prevented by (A) Eating balanced food (B) Eating plenty of fruits (C) Drinking boiled water (D) Using mosquito nets Amoeba reacts (A) Negatively to strong light and positively to weak light (B) Positively to strong light and negatively to weak light (C) Unaffected by light intensity (D) Positive to both strong and weak light. Paramecium moves about by (A) Pseudopodia (B) Cilia (C) Flagella (D) Looping and crawling. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of (A) Cryptomerozoites (B) Metacryptomerozoites (C) Merozoites (D) Trophozoites. A bite of Tse-tse fly may pass to humans (A) Leishmania donovani (B) T,ypanosoma gambiense (C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Plasmodium vivax. (C.B.S.E. L Contractile vacuole of Amoeba placed in salt water will (A) Burst (B) Disappear (C) Enlarge (D) Multiply. Cerebral malaria is due to (A) Plasmodium falcipaium (B) P. vivax (C) P. malariae (D) P. ovale. Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C. o human beings?

(A) Ronald Ross 267. 268. 269. 270. 271. 272. 273. 274.

275. 276. 277. 278. 279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286.

(B) Mendel

(C) Laveran

(D) Stephens.

Sir Ronald Ross is famous for discovery of (A) Malaria being due to a protest (B) Species of Plasmodium (C) Malaria spread due to foul air (D) Malaria transmission through Anopheles. Quartan malaria is due to (A) Plasmodium falcipamm (B) P. vivax (C) P. Ovale (D) P. Malariae Malignant tertian malaria is due to (A) Plasmodium falcipansm (B) P. vivax (C) P. ovale (D) P. malariae. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class (A) Sarcodina (B) Ciliata (C) Sporozoa (D) Dinophyceae The infective state of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters human body is (A) Merozoite (B) Sporozoite (C) Trophozoite (D) Minuta form. The chill and fever recurring after 48 hours in benign tertian malaria is due to (A) Plasmodium vivax (B) P. malariae (C) P. falcipwum (D) None of the above Male mosquito (Anopheles) does not transmit malarial parasite because (A) It lacks blood sucking mouth parts (B) It catches fever (C) It is too small to carry parasite (D) The parasite is killed in its stomach. In malaria, shivering occurs when (A) Schizonts enter R.B.C. (B) Sporozoites enter human body (C) Merozoites are liberated from R.B.C. alongwith toxin (D) Signet ring stage is attained. The disease caused by Entamoeba gingivalis is spread through (A) Housefly (B) Anopheles (C) Air (D) Kissing. Common trait between Amoeba and leucocyte is (A) Encystment (B) Pseudopodia (C) Sporulation (D) Contractile vacuole. Cyst is produced in Amoeba during (A) Adverse conditions (B) Sexual reproduction (C) Prior to sexual reproduction (D) After sexual reproduction. Entamoeba histolytica infection occurs through (A) Contaminated water and food (B) Sweat (C) Bird droppings (D) Mosquite bites. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through (A) Pseudopodia (B) Nucleus (C) Contractile vacuole (D General surface. Sporozoans have locomotory organs (A) Pseudopodia (B) Cilia (C) Flagella (D) None of the above. Malarial parasite is (A) Polygenetic (B) Digenetic (C) Monogenetic (D) Monomorphic. Entamoeba histolytica resides in human alimentary canal (A) Intestine (B) Rectum (C) Stomach (D) Oral cavity. Sporozoites of malarial parasite enter (A) Erythrocytes of humans (B) Liver cells of humans (C) Stomach of Mosquito (D) Salivary gland of Mosquito. Type of pseudopodia present in Amoeba proteus is (A) Lobopodia (B) Axopodia (C) Filopodia (D) Exopodia. Erythrocytic phase completed in (A) 24 hours (B) 72 hours . (C) 36 hours (D) 48 hours Periodic appearance of malaria symptoms occur due to periodic (A) Entry of merozoites into erythrocytes (B) Attack of liver cells by merozoites

(C) Formation of signet ring 287. 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 295. 296. 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303. 304.

305. 306. 307.

(D) Release of pyrogen in blood.

Schuffner’s dots observed in erythrocytes are due to (A) Filaria (B) Malaria (C) Kala-azar (D) Giardia. The major function of contractile vacuole is (A) Excretion (B) Circulation (C) Osmoregulation (D) All the above. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the organism likely to be destroyed is (A) Leishmania (B) Tiypanosoma (C) Ascaris (D) Plasmodium. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Piasinodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is (A) Sexual cycle (B) Pre-erythrocytic schizogony (C) Exoerythrocytic schizogony (D) Post-erythrocytic schizogony. Schizont stage of Plasntodium occurs in human cells (A) Erythrocytes (B) Liver cells (C) Erythrocytes and liver cells (D) Erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells. Slime Moulds belong to (A) Fungi (B) Protista (C) Monera (D) Plantae Spore producing body of a cellular slime mould is (A) Pseudoplasmodium (B) Plasmodium (C) Sporangium (D) Sporophore. Tranverse groove is (A) Sulcus (B) Cingulum (C) Annulus (D) Both B and C. Second host of Tiypanosoma islrrypanosomiasis is spread by (A) Housefly (B) Tse-tse fly (C) Sand fly (D) Culex Nitrogen waste product of Amoeba is (A) Ammonia (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) None of the above. Food reserve in encysted Entamoeba is (A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) Fat (D) None. Exflagellation in Plasmodium occurs in (A) Merozoites (B) Megagametocytes (C) Microgamctocytes (D) Metacryptomerozoites. Erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium occurs in (A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) RBC (D) Gut. Causative agent of amoebiasis is (A) Amoeba proteus (B) Entamoeba histolytica (C) Entamoeba coil (D) Entamoeba gingivalis. Amoeba taken downstream to estuary will show (A) Disappearnce of contractile vacuole (B) Binary fission (C) Encystment (D) Stoppage of feeding In Plasmodium, gametocytes are formed from (A) Schizont (B) Trophozoite (C) Sporozoite (D) Merozoite. The secondary host of Plasmodium is (A) Male Anopheles (B) Female Anopheles (C) Female Culex (D) Male Culex. Protistan genome has (A) Membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm (B) Free nucleic acid aggregates (C) Gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass (D) Nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance. Amoeba secretes digestive enzymes for hydrolysing (A) Protein (B) Starch (C) Fat (D) All the above. Entamoeba coli causes (A) Pyorrhoea (B) Diarrhoea (C) Dysentery (D) None. Common enteritis infection in India occurs by (A) Mosquito bite (B) Viruses

(C) Ingesting cysts with food and drinks 308. 309.

310. 311. 312.

313. 314. 315. 316. 317.

318. 319. 320. 321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327.

(D) Eating spice rich food.

Presence of two types of nuclei, micronucleus and macronucleus, is characteristic of protistan group (A) Sporozoa (B) Ciliata (C) Flagellata (D) Sarcodina Protists obtain food as (A) Photosynthesisers, symbionts and holotrophs (B) Photosynthesisers (C) Chemosynthesisers (D) Holotrophs Which one resides in the mouth of human beings? (A) Entamoeba coli (B) Entamoeba histolytica (C) Entarnoeba gingivalis (D) Amoeba proteus. Which one is filter feeder? (A) Spider (B) Leech (C) Paramoecium (D) Amoeba. In Amoeba, pseudopodia are formed due to (A) Contact with food (B) Sol gel change (C) Movement towards area of higher temperature (D) All the above Pseudopodia occur in (A) Sarcodina (B) Sporozoa (C) Ciliata (D) Mastigophora. Characteristic of ciliata are (A) Cilia (B) Sexual reproduction (C) Free living (D) Two nuclei Which one is non-pathogenic? (A) Entamoeba coli (B) Entamoeba histolytica (C) E. gingivalis (D) Plasmodium ovale. Which one is monogenetic parasite? (A) Plasmodium (B) Liver Fluke (C) Taenia solium (D) Entamoeba histolytica. Destruction of nucleus in Amoeba results in (A) Immediate death (B) Slowing down of metabolic activity and ultimate death (C) Quick locomotion (D) No change Amoeba touched with needle will (A) Die (B) Divide quickly (C) Develop pseudopodia (D) Move away. Amoeba takes food through (A) Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis (C) Endocytosis (D) All the above. Which one is not a protozoan protist? (A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Paramecium caudatum (C) Enterobius vermiclaris (D) Tiypanosoma gan2biense. Infective stage of T gambiense is (A) Metacyclic (B) Crithidial (C) Lcptomonas (D) Leishmania Which occurs in sporozoa? (A) Cilia (B) Pseudopodia (C) Flagella (D) None of the above. In malaria, which causes chills and fever (A) Hematin (B) Haemozoin (C) Scliuffner’s granules (D) Hematocrit. Amoeba is (A) Multicellular (B) Cellular (C) Acellular (D) Subcellular. Which is absent in Amoeba? (A) Golgi apparatus (B) Lysosome (C) Centriole (D) Plasmalemma. Development and functioning of gametocytes of Plasmodium in the body of Mosquito are dependent upon (A) Temperature (B) Food (C) Position (D) All the above. Who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1902 for discovery of oocyst of Plasmodium?

(A) Golgi 328. 329. 330. 331. 332. 333. 334. 335. 336. 337. 338. 339. 340. 341. 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. 347. 348. 349.

(B) Ronald Ross

(C) Laveran

(D) Shortt.

Which one is spindle-shaped mobile with microtubules? (A) Sporont (B) Ookinete (C) Cryptozoite (D) Sporozoite. Which stage of Plasmodium is. infective for Mosquito? (A) Trophozoite (B) Gainetocyte (C) Ookinete (D) Sporozoite. Infection of Entamoeba histolytka is prevented by (A) Avoiding kissing (B) Avoiding clothes of patient (C) Uncontaminated food (D) None of the above Trichocyst takes part in (A) Defence (B) Reproduction (C) Nutrition (D) Osmoregulation. Under unfavourable conditions, Amoeba produces a three-layered dissemule. The phenomenon is (A) Sporulation (B) Encystment (C) Conjugation (D) Regeneration Amoeba is immortal. It occurs all over the world due to (A) Binary fission (B) Conjugation (C) Spores (D) Regeneration. Which species of Paramecium contains only three nuclei? (A) P. caudatum (B) P. Aurelia (C) P. multimicronucleatum (D) P. polycarpum Trophozoites of Plasmodium occur in (A) Liver cells (B) Spleen (C) Lymph channels (D) Red blood corpuscles. Posterior end of Amoeba is characterised by (A) Plasmid (B) Amphid (C) Uropygium (D) Multiple fission in Plasmodium is (A) Gamogamy (B) Schizogony (C) Sporulation (D) None of the above. Development of ga.metocyte from merozoite of Plasmodium occurs in (A) Red blood corpuscles (B) Liver cells (C) Stomach of female Anopheles (D) All the above. (D.P.M. T. 1996) A cyst of Entamoeba histolytica produces trophozoites (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8. Amoeba sticks to substratum by means of (A) Rought surface (B) Plasmalemma (C) Protein (D) None of the above. Which one is not a symptom of Entamoeba histolytica infection? (A) Relapsing fever (B) Abdomial pain (C) Blood in stool (D) Irregular bowls Malarial species found in South America and West Africa is (A) Plasmodium falciparum (B) P. vivax (C) P. malariae (D) P. ovale. Recurrence of high temperature in malaria at intervals is due to completion of (A) Erythrocytic schizogony (B) Sporogony (C) Ganiogony (D) Exoerythrocytic schizogony. Symptoms of malaria in spleen and skin are due to (A) Schuffner granules (B) Hemozoin (C) l-laematin (D) Blood sugar Sporogony in malarial parasite occurs in (A) Human liver (B) Human red blood cells (C) Stomach of female Anopheles (D) Stomach wall of female Anopheles. In Plasmodium, diploid stage is (A) Oocyst (B) Gamont (C) Schizont (D) Sporozoite. Chromatid bodies occur in Entwnoeba during (A) Precyst stage (B) Early cysts (C) Tetranucleate cysts (D) Trophozoites. Entamoeba histolytica excretes through (A) Food vacuole (B) General surface (C) Contractile vacuole (D) Malpighian tubules. Protozoan protists are differentiated on the basis of (A) Nuclei (B) Size (C) Shape (D) Locomotory structures.

350. 351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. 369. 370. 371. 372. 373.

Carnivorous fish Gambusia introduced in water bodies for controlling a deadly disease feeds on larvae of (A) Dragonfly (B) Anopheles (C) Nephantis (D) All the above. Red tide is caused by (A) Gonyaulax (B) Noctiluco (C) Ceratium (D) None of the above. Exo-crythrocytic cycle is absent in (A) P. ovale (B) P. vivax (C) Both A and B (D) P. falciparum. Unicellularity is characteristic of (A) Cyanobacteria (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) All the above. Flat, broad pseudopodia are called (A) Filopodia (B) Lobopodia (C) Reticulopodia (D) Axopodia. High temperature in malaria occurs after completion of (A) Erythrocytic cycle (B) Exo-erythrocytic cycle (C) Pre-erythrocytic cycle (D) Gametogony Plasmodium is inoculated in humans by (A) Female Culex (B) Male Cukr (C) Male and female Anopheles (D) Female Anopheles Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is (A) Trophozoite (B) Pre-cyst (C) Uninucleate cyst (D) Tetranucleate cyst. Sandfly is a causative agent of (A) Kala-azar (B) Sleeping sickness (C) Typhoid (D) Dysentery. Which one of the following can photosynthesise its food? (A) Hydra (B) Paramoecium (C) Monocysris (D) Euglena. Medically secondary host for Plasmodium vivax is (A) Anopheles female (B) Anopheles male (C) Cuter male (D) Culex female Oriental sore is caused by (A) Bacterium (B) Virus (D) Protozoan (D) Fungus. Sporozoites of Plasmodium are formed in (A) Gametocytes (B) Oocysts (C) Sporoblasts (D) Trophozoites Diatom frustule/shell is made of (A) Silica (B) Lime (C) Magnesium carbonate (D) Any of the above. Seeding ponds with Gambusia fish is an example of (A) Parasitism (B) Hyperparasitism (C) Biocontrol (D) Both A and B Leishmania tropica produces (A) Sleeping sickness (B) Kala-azar (C) Dysentery (D) Oriental sores. Tiypanosoma brucei produces (A) Sleeping sickness (B) Kala-azar (C) Dysentery (D) A disease of animals. Chloroquine is given for treating (A) AIDS (B) Cancer (C) Tetanus (D) Malaria. After how many days could a patient commonly feel malaria from the time of biting of mosquito? (A) 2—8 days (C) 10—20 days (B) 8—10 days (D) 20—30 days. Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to (A) Sporozoa (B) Ciliata (C) Sarcodina (D) Mastigophora. Protozoan found commensal in human colon is (A) Entamoeba coli (B) P. vivax (C)A. aegypti (D) All the above A person suffering from malaria runs fever when (A) Exoerythrocytic cycle is completed (B) Signet ring stage is formed Euglena is a (A) Ciliate (B) Sporozoan (C) Flagellate (D) Sarcodine. Micronucleus and macronucleus occur in (A) Entamoeba and Plasmodium (B) Entamoeba and Vorticella

374. 375. 376. 377. 378. 379. 380.

381. 382. 383. 384. 385. 386. 387. 388. 389. 390. 391. 392.

(C) Paramecium and Vorticella (D) Euglena and Volvox. Symptoms of paroxysm in malaria are due to (A) Sporozoite (B) Gametocyte (C) Pre-erythrocytic cycle (D) Erythrocytic cycle. Sexual reproduction in protists with diploid chromosomes involves (A) Cyst formation (B) Zygotic meiosis (C) Gametangial meiosis (D) Binary fission. Relapsing malaria is due to (A) Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax (B) Plasmodium ovale and P. vivax (C) Plasmodium falciparum and P. ovale (D) P. falciparunz only Motile elongate zygote of Plasniodiutn occurs in (A) Human RBCs (B) Human liver (C) Salivary glands of mosquito (D) Gut of mosquito. Haemozoin formed in malaria is produced by (A) Globin part of haemoglobin (B) Haeme of haemoglobin (C) Cryptozoites (D) Dead leucocytes Signet ring stage of Plasmodium represents (A) Beginning of schizogony in liver cells (B) End of schizogony in RBC (C) Beginning of schizogony in RBC (D) Beginning of sporogony in humans.. Spraying kerosene on stagnant water shall kill Anopheles due to (A) Prevention of spiracle to come in contact with air (B) Entry into and blocking of respiratory tract (C) Diffusion into body (D) Burning of body wall Prbtozoans are able to live efficiently due to their (A) Motility (B) Rapid reproduction (C) Ability to manufacture food (D) Specialised organelles Characteristic spores of diatoms are (A) Ascospores (B) Basidiospores (C) Auxospores (D) Zoospores. Ualike other algae, diatoms do not readily decay due to (A) Siliceous wall (B) Mucilaginous wall (C) Water proof cell wall (D) Nonliving cells Amoeba is eucaryotic because it possesses (A) Plasmid (B) Nucleus (C) Plasmalemma (D) DNA. Incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is (A) 14 days (B) 20 days (C) 30 days (D) 45 days. Amoeba stops producing pseudopodia during (A) Alkaline condition (B) Starvation (C) Acidic condition (D) Touch Trichonympha belongs to (A) Scyphozoa (B) Sporozoa (C) Calcarea (D) Zooflagellata/Zoomastigophora. In Amoeba, contractile vacuole is present (A) Near trailing end (B) Near advancing end (C) At the middle of body (D) Any where inside body Cyst wall of Euglena is formed of (A) Silica (B) Carbohydrate (C) Proteins (D) Calcium Entamoeba histolytica does not form cysts in (A) Liver (B) Ascending colon (C) Transverse colon (D) Descending colon. Trypanosoma cruzi causes (A) Kala-azar (B) African Sleeping Sickness (C) Chagas’ disease (D) American Sleeping Sickness. Death of host shall be disastrous to (A) Predator (B) Symbiont (C) Commensal (D) Parasite.

393. 394. 395. 396. 397. 398. 399. 400. 401. 402. 403. 404. 405. 406. 407. 408. 409. 410. 411. 412.

Common malaria parasite of India is (A) Plasmodium falciparum (B) P. vivax (C) P. ovale (D) P. nzalariae. Trichocysts occur in (A) Liver Fluke (B) Bladderworm (C) Paramecium (D) Hydra. T gambiense is spread by (A) Aedes aegyptii (B) Gulexfatigans (C) Stomoarys calcitrans (D) Glossina palpalis. The stage of Plasmodium that contains rhopteries is (A) Ookinete (B) Signet ring stage (C) Merozoite (D) Sporozoite. The stage of Enta,noeba histolytica that causes intestinal ulceration is (A) Trophozoite (B) Metacystic trophozoite (C) Binucleate stage (D) Tetranucleate stage Which one is correct pairing (A) Hydra — Anthozoa (B) Paramecium — Arachnida (C) Plasmodium —Sporozoa (D) Amoeba — Ciliata. (Manipal 2001) Highest incubation period occurs in Plasmodiunz (A) P. malariae (B) P. vivax (C) P. ovale (C) P. fakiparum Black water fever is caused by (A) Plasmodium malariae (B) P. ovule (C) P. falciparum (D) P. vivax. Marine protozoans lack contractile vacuole because (A) Their body cannot accomodate it (B) They are hypoosmotic to their environment (C) They are isotonic with their environment(D) Osmoregulation membrane is done by cell Which is wrong combination (A) Haemocyanin — Prawn (B) Haemoglobin in mammals—RBC (C) Haemoglobin in plasma —Pheretima (D) Haemozoin —Plasmodium cytoplasm. Locomotory structures of Amoeba are (A) Cilia (B) Flagella (C) Pseudopodia (D) None of the above. Which one represents class Mastigophora? (A) Paramaecium (B) Amoeba C) Monocystis (D) Trypanosoma Centric discoid form of diatom is (A) Diploneis (B) Coscinodiscus (C) Stephanodiscus (D) Camphyloneis. Sprinkling oil over ponds would control malaria because (A) Fishes die (B) Water gets polluted (C) Larvae are asphyxiated (D) Mosquitoes are repelled. Life cycle of Plasmodium species causing benign tertiary malaria consists of (A) Erythrocytic cycle (B) Post-erythrocytic cycle (C) Pre-erythrocytic cycle (D) All the above. Microfossils often present in petroleum producing formations are those of (A) Radiolarians (B) Diatoms (C) Helizoans (D) Foraminiferans. Diatoms stay afloat due to (A) Pseudopodia (B) Flagella (C) Stored lipids (D) All the above. All stages of Plasmodium are digested is stomach of female Anopheles except (A) Sporozoites (B) Gametocytes (C) Erythrocytes (D) Merozoites Protista contains (A) Euglena, Dinoflagellates and Yeast (B) Amoeba, Paramaecium, Hydra (C) Euglena, Paramaecium, Mushroom (D) Amoeba, Paramaecium and Dinoflagellates. Sporogony occurs in Plasmodium in (A) Stomach wall of female Anopheles (B) Lumen of gut (C) Liver of Man (D) RBC of Man.

413. 414. 415. 416.

417. 418. 419. 420. 421. 422. 423. 424. 425. 426. 427.

428. 429. 430.

431.

Euglena stores food as (A) Protein (B) Starch (C) Fat (D) Paramyluin. Female Anopheles is (A) Endogenous host for Plasmodium (B) Exogenous host for Plasmodium (C) Initial host for Plasmodium (D) Both A and B Stage in which haemozoin is liberated (A) Sporozoite (B) Merozoite (C) Trophozoite (D) Amoeboid. Amoeba moves when (A) Upper part of plasma-gel changes to plasmasol (B) Lower part of plasmasol changes into gel (C) Upper part of plasmasol changes into plasmagel (D) All the above Plasmodium falcipa,um causes malaria (A) Quartan (B) Benign tertian (C) Pernicious tertian (D) Pernicious quartan Trichonympha is canal of a symbiont in alimentary (A) Earthworm (B) Snails (C) Hermit Crab (D) Termite. Ceratium is (A) Dinoflagellate (B) Diatom (C) Slime Mould (D) Sporozoan. Flagellum of Astasia/Euglena is (A) Pantonernatic (B) Acronematic (C) Pantachronematic (D) Stichonematic Paramaecium ingests food through (A) Cytoproct (B) Cytopyge (C) Cytopharynx (D) Cytostome. Maurer’s dots occur in human RBCs infected by (A) Plasm odium falcipan4m (B) Plasmodium ovale (C) Plasmodium vivax (D) Plasmodium malariae. Gametic meiosis occurs in protists which are (A) Diploid (B) Haploid (C) Tetraploid (D) Mesokaryotic. Which of the following can be used as bacteriological filter (A) Gelidium (B) Batrachospermum (C) Oscillatoria (D) Cymbella. In Amoeba cytoplasmic water/osmolarity is controlled by (A) Food vacuole (B) Contractile vacuole(C) Body surface (D) Pseudopodia. Protistan protozoan having nuclear dimorphism is (A) Amoeba proteus (B) Paramaecium caudatum (C) Plasmodium vivax (D) T gambiense. Chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba is (A) Ability to survive during adverse physical conditions (B) Ability to live for some time without ingesting food (C) Protection from parasites and predators (D) Chance to get rid of accumulated products Trypanosoma causes (A) Dysentery (B) Sleeping sickness (C) Malaria (D) Plague. Which of the following is not a locomotory organelle of protozoans (A) Pseudopodia (B) Cilia (C) Flagella (D) Parapodia. Just as Xenopsylla is to Yersinia pestis, so is (A) Glossina palpalis to Wuchereria bancrofti (B) Culex to Plasmodium falciparum (C) Homo sapiens to Taenia solium (D) Phiebotomus to Leishmania donovani. People recovering from long illness, are advised to include alga Spirulina in their diet because it (A) Has antibiotic properties (B) Restores intestinal flora (C) Is rich in proteins (D) Makes the food easy to digest.

432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. 441. 442.

443. 444. 445. 446. 447. 448. 449. 450.

Amoeba is (A) Unicellular (B) Multicellular (C) Plant (D) Moneran. Sporozoan protists are (A) Parasitic (B) Without locomotory organs (C) With pseudopodia (D) Both A and B. Incubation period of Plasm odium falciparum is (A) Ten days (B) 15 days (C) 20 days (D) 30 days. Which protistan shows bioluminescence (A) Euglena (B) Noctiluca (C) Forminiferans (D) Diatoms What is wrong for Entamoeba (A) Presence of contractile vacuole (B) Presence of nucleus (C) Presence of food vacuole (D) Presence of pseudopodium. Kingdom Protista includes (A) Amoeba, Euglena and Penidihium (B) Amoeba, Spirogyra, Penicihhium (C) Amoeba, Euglena and Diatoms (D) Euglena, Spirogyra and Penicihlium Which is not component of nutrition in Amoeba (A) Phagocytosis (B) Intracellular digestion (C) Saprotrophy (D) Exocytosis A mode of sexual reproduction in protozoa is (A) Schizogony (B) Autogamy (C) Plasmotomy (D) Anisogamy What is true of Paramecium (A) Macronucleus takes reproduction (B) Macronucleus metabolism (C) Micronucleus metabolism (D) Micronucleus reproduction. Binary fission is absent in (A) Monocystis/Plasmodium (B) Euglena (C) Paramecium (D) Amoeba Malarial parasites with 48 hr cycle are (A) Plasmodium malariae, P. falciparum and P. ovale (B) Plasmodium malariae, P. falciparum and P. vivax (C) Plasmodiurn rnalariae, P. ovale and P. vivax (D) Plasmodium falcipanzm, P. ovale and P. vivax Cysts of Enta histolytica have (A) One nucleus (B) Two nuclei (C) Four nuclei (D) Many nuclei Maximum mass of living diatoms occurs in (A) Salt lakes (B) Marine pelagic habitat (C) Moist soil and swamps (D) Deep coal mines Where had Ronald Ross done his research related to malarial parasite (A) London (B) Hyderabad (C) Lucknow (D) Chennai. What is incorrect about Paramecium (A) Macronucleus can be more than one (B) Micronucleus can be more than one (C) Macronucleus is vegetative (D) Micronucleus is reproductive. Post-erythrocytic part of life cycle of Plasmodium is called (A) Golgi cycle (B) Krebs cycle (C) Shortt cycle (D) Ross cycle. Which is not a protistan disease (A) Giardiasis (B) Amoebiasis (C) Sleeping sickness (D) Elephantiasis. All protozoans possess (A) Holozoic nutrition (B) Contractile vacuole (C) Pseudopodia (D) Eucaryotic organisation. What is not true of Euglena (A) Presence of chlorophyll (B) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle C) Presence of cellulose cell wall (D) Presence of flagellum

451. 452. 453. 454. 455. 456. 457. 458. 459.

460. 461. 162. 463. 464. 465. 466. 467. 468. 469. 470.

Which is false of Amoeba (A) Omnivory (B) Holozoic nutrition (C) Photoautotrophy (D) Pseudopodia feeder. (Orissa Which is common amongst Euglena Amoeba, Entamoeba and T?ypanoson1a (A) Binary fission (B) Contractile vacuole (C) Holôzoic nutrition (D) Multiple fission. What is not conected with reproduction of protozoans (A) Cryptogamy (B) Schizogainy (C) Autogamy (D) Conjugation. Which is not correctly matched (A) Glossina palpalis — Sleeping sickness (B) Aedes aegyptii — Yellow fever (C) Anopheles culifaciens — Leishmaniasis (D) Culex pipiens — Filariasis. Contractile vacuole is not found in (A) Sarcodina (B) Sporozoa (C) Zooflagellata (D) Slime moulds. Malaria is caused by (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Sporozoan (D) Helminth Man in the life cycle of Plasmodium is (A) Primary host (B) Secondary host (C) Intermediate host (D) None of the above Which unicellular organism has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for reproduction? (A) Euglena (B) Amoeba (C) Paramecium (D) Trypanosoma. Auxospores and hormocysts are formed respectively by (A) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria (B) Some cyanobacteria and several diatoms (C) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms (D) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria Chagas’ fever is caused by (A) Ttypanosoma ciuzi (B) T gambiense (C) Trypanosoma b,ucei (D) Trypanosoma vivax. Folding and unfolding of actin and myosin leads to amoeboid movements. This was hypothesized by (A) Allen (B) Goldacre and Larsch (C) Berthold (D) Jennings. Haemozoin is released into blood during infection of Plasmodium vivax every (A) 24 hours (B) 48 hours (C) 72 hours (D) 12 hours. Quinine is got from bark of (A) Atropa belladonna(B) Fenda asafoetida (C) Curcuma domestica (D) Cinchona officinalis. Who received Nobel Prize for discovering oocysts of Plasmodium? (A) Ronald Ross (B) Rosenoff (C) Lavcrn (D) Lceuwenhoek. Which resemble photoautotroph? (A) Sarcodines (B) Ciiata (C) Zooflagellata (D) Sporozoa. Slipper Animalcule is (A) Chiwnydononas (B) Vorticella (C) Plasmodium (D) faramoecium. Cellulose digesting zooflagellate found in wood cockroaches is (A) Lophomonas (B) Trichomonas (C) Trichonympha (D) Leishmania. Cellulose digestion in termites is carried out by (A) Monocystis (B)Trichomonas (C) Trichonympha (D) Lophom on as. Which function as direct or indirect food of all marine creatures? (A) Protozoans (B) Phytoplankton (C) Fish (D) Aquatic insects. Chlorophyll containing euglenoid species are (A) Facultative autotrophs (B) Obligate autotrophs (C) Obligate heterotrophs (D) Facultative heterotrophs.

471. 472. 473. 474. 475. 476. 477.

478. 479. 480. 481. 482. 483. 484. 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. 490.

Kingdom protista includes (A) Life cycle showing sporic meiosis (B) Life cycle showing zygotic meiosis (C) Life cycle showing gametic meiosis (D) Both B and C Encysted, nonmotile and nonfeeding infectious stage of Entamoeba histolytica is called (A) Schizont (B) Zygote (C) Abiotic form (D) Minuta form. Thalloid body of a slime mould (myxomycetes) is known as (A) Mycelium (B) Protonema (C) Plasmodium (D) Fruiting body. What is common about Tiypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia (A) They are all parasites (B) They are all unicellular protists (C) They have flagella (D) They produce spores. The term protista was coined by (A) Haeckel (B) Linnaeus (C) Copeland (D) Whittaker. Progressive diminishing size of’ diatoms is prevented by production of (A) Auxospores (B) Arthrospores (C) Zoospores (D) Basidiospores. Myxomycetes are (A) Saprobes or parasites having mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation, sexual reproduction by fusion of gametes (B) Slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm having pseudopodia-like strcutures for engulping food, reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores (C) Prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular, saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission (D) Euckaryotic single-celled or filamatous saprobes or autotrophs, asexual reproduction by division of haploid individuals, sexual reproduction by fusion of two cells or their nuclei. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through (A) Nucleus (B) Parapodia (C) Plasmalemma (D) Contractile vacuole Amoeba is called immortal due to (A) Conjugation (B) Regeneration (C) Binary fission (D) All the above. Choose the function of pseudopodia of Amoeba other than locomotion (A) Regeneration (B) Excretion (C) Reproduction (D) Obtain various materials Malaria fever is controlled by the drug (A) Penicillin (B) DDT (C) Steptomycin (D) Quinine. Which is not parasitic protozoan (A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Tiypanosoma gambiense (C) Amoeba proteus (D) Entamoeba histolytica (Man ipur Protozoans are actually (A) Cellular (B) Acellular (C) Unicellular (D) Multicellular. Bioluminescence is shown by (A) Ceratium (B) Chiorella (C) Hirudinaria (D) Chiwnydomonas. Diatoms/Diatomaceous earth belong to class (A) Xanthophyceae (B) Bacillariophyceae (C) Phaeophyceae (D) Chlorophyceae. Carriers of Enamoeba histolytica are (A) Anopheles (B) Cattle (C) House flies (D) Healthy human hosts Chloroplasts of euglenophyceae and surrounded by (A) Double membrane (B) Single membrane (C) Three layered membrane (D) Four layered membrane Plasmodium vivax produces (A) Benign tertian malaria (B) Cerebral malaria (C) Black water fever (D) Ovale malaria. In Plasmodium, schizogony occurs in (A) Human RBC (B) Human liver (C) Intestine of mosquito (D) Both A and B Mode of feeding in free living protozoans is

491. 492. 493.

494. 495. 496.

497.

498.

499. 500.

501. 502.

(A) Holozoic (B) Saprozoic (C) Both A and B. (D) Holophytic. What is correct (A) Slime Moulds are haploid (B) Protozoans lack cell wall (C) Pellicle is absent in Euglena (D) Dinoflagellates are immobile. Which one is a slime mould (A) Physarum (B) Rhizopus (C) Anabaena (D) Thiobacillus. Match the following Coloumn I Column II a) Leishmania donovani (p) Malaria b) Wuchereria bancrofti (q) Amoebiasis c) Trypanosoma gunbiense (r) Kalazar d) Enamoeba histolytica (s) Sleeping sickness (t) Filariasis (A) a—r, b—f, c—s, d—q (B) a—r, b—t, c—q, d—p (C) a—s, b—r, c—q, d—p (D) a— r, b—s, c—t, d—p. Which one is a protozoan disease (A) AIDS (B) Taeniasis (C) Polio (D) Malaria. Removal of micronucleus in Paramecium impairs (A) Locomotion (B) Osnioregulation (C) Reproduction (D) Excretion. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), both are wrong (D). Assertion. Euglena is a plant due to presence of chlorophyll. Reason. Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two kingdom classification. (A) (B) (C) (D) Match the items in the two columns Coloumn I Column II a) Chrysophytes (i) Paramecium b) Dinoflagellates (ii) Fugiens c) Eugleneids (iii) Gonyandar d) Protozoans (iv) Diatoms (A) a—iv, b—ui, c—u, d—i (B) a—u, b—i, c—i, d—iv (C) a—u, b—iv, c—ui, d—i (D) a b—u, c—ui, d—i (E) a—ui, b—iv, c—i, d—ii. Read the following statements and identify the correct option given (a) Sap vacuoles—Contain enzymes for digestion of nutrients (b) Contractile vacuoles — Osmoregulation and excretion (c) Food vacuoles — Store and concentrate minerals and nutrients (d) Air vacuoles Store metabolic gases and provide buoyancy (A) a and b correct (B) a and c correct (C) b and d correct (D) a and d correct (E) b and c correct Paramecium is (A) Virus (B) Bacterium (C) Azinelid (D) Protozoan. Certain stages of Plasmodium vivax may survive for a long time in liver of man in dormant state. On reactivation they enter into cycle (A) Erythrocytic schizogony (B) Cycle of Ross (C) Gametogony (D) Exoerythocytic schizogony. Chemical used in National Malaria Eradication Programme has been (A) 2—4D (B)DDT (C) BHC (D) Pyrethroid. Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is called (A) Import (B) Circumvallation (C) Circunifluence (D) Invagination.

503.

504.

505.

Which is not true for Paramecium? (A) Under unfavourable conditions form cysts (B) Presence of large number of cilia on the whole body surface (C) Contain contractile vacuoles for osmoregulation (D) Use pseudopodia for capturing prey Which one is incorrect? (A) Plasmodium falcipanum, malaria, relapse, mosquito (B) Trypanosoma gambiense, Glossina, Sleeping sickness, Winterbottom signs (C) Wuchereria bancrofti, elephantiasis, microfilariae, mosquito (D) Entamoeba histolytica, dysentery quadrinucleate cyst, colon What is true for slime moulds? (A) Parasitic, plasmodium with true walls, spores dispersed by air currents (B) Saprophytic, plasmodium, without walls, spores dispersed by water (C) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air currents (D) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water currents.

ANSWER – KEY 1)

B

2)

C

3)

C

4)

D

5)

A

6)

D

7)

C

8)

C

9)

B

10)

A

11)

C

12)

D

13)

A

14)

C

15)

B

16)

D

17)

A

18)

D

19)

A

20)

D

21)

D

22)

D

23)

C

24)

C

25)

A

26)

B

27)

B

28)

B

29)

D

30)

D

31)

C

32)

B

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B

34)

C

35)

A

36)

A

37)

B

38)

C

39)

B

40)

C

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C

42)

D

43)

B

44)

A

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A

46)

D

47)

B

48)

A

49)

C

50)

D

51)

B

52)

B

53)

B

54)

D

55)

C

56)

C

57)

A

58)

A

59)

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60)

D

61)

B

62)

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63)

C

64)

B

65)

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66)

B

67)

D

68)

D

69)

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70)

B

71)

C

72)

D

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D

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76)

A

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B

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126)

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127)

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D

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B

133)

B

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B

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B

141)

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333)

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335)

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351)

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365)

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368)

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369)

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370)

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371)

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372)

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375)

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376)

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377)

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384)

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386)

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390)

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394)

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395)

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397)

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399)

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400)

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401)

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402)

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403)

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404)

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405)

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406)

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407)

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410)

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411)

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414)

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416)

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418)

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424)

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425)

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426)

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428)

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429)

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435)

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436)

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437)

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439)

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440)

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441)

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442)

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443)

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444)

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445)

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446)

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447)

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450)

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451)

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452)

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453)

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454)

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455)

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457)

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460)

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461)

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462)

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463)

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464)

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466)

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467)

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468)

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469)

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470)

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471)

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472)

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473)

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474)

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475)

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476)

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477)

B

478)

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479)

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480)

D

481)

D

482)

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483)

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484)

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485)

B

486)

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487)

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488)

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489)

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490)

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491)

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492)

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493)

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494)

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495)

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496)

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497)

A

498)

C

499)

D

500)

A

501)

B

502)

A

503)

D

504)

A

505)

C

Kingdom Fungi  Multicellular Decomposers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

The wall of Rhizopus hypha is composed of (A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (C) Pectin (D) Hemicellulose. The mode of nutrition of Rhizopus, Yeast and Penicillium is (A) Parasitic (B) Saprophytic (C) Symbiotic (D) Autotrophic. The hyphae of Rhizopus are (A) Unbranched, aseptate and uninucleate (B) Branched, septate and uninucleate (C) Unbranched, aseptate multinucleate. (D) Unbranched, septate and coenocytic. The branches of conidiophores of Penicillium end in conidia bearing bottle shaped structures which are called (A) Metulae (B) Sterigmata (C) Paraphyses (D) Ramenta. Thread like filaments which form the plant body of fungi are (A) Rhizoids (B) Paraphyses (C) Hyphae (D) Haptera. Yeast like budding of Oldia in Mucor/Rhizopus is called (A) Palmella (B) Chantransia (C) Torula (D) Gongrosira. The common mode of reproduction in Rhizopus is by (A) Sporangiospores (B) Oidia (C) Plasmospores (D) Zoospores. The gametes in Rhizopus develop in specially formed cells known as (A) Suspensor cell (B) Proganietangia (C) Gametangia (D) Antheridia. Thick walled asexual spores formed by Rhizopus, are (A) Aplanospores (B) Akinetes (C) Plasmospores (D) Chlamydospores. Root rot of Sweet Potato is caused by (A) Mucor mucedo (B) Rhizopus oryzae (C) Rhizopus stolonifer (D) Penicillium notatum . Which of the following is a good example of heterothallism? (A) Spirogyra (B) Rhizopus (C) Pinus (D) Castor bean. The zygospore of Rhizopus contains much amount of fat globules. It is thick walled and the colour is (A) Green (B) White (C) Grey (D) Black. The cell wall of yeast is composed of (A) Cellulose (B) Pectose (C) Pectin (D) Chitin and mannan. In endomycorrhiza, the fungus is commonly (A) Zygomycete (B) Phycomycete (C) Ascomycete (D) Basidiomycete. In ectomycorthiza, the fungus is generally (A) Zygomycete (B) Phycomycete (C) Ascomycete (D) Basidiomycete. Fleming discovered Penicillin from (A) Penidihiurn notatum (B) P. roquefoifi (C) P. cainemberti (D) P. chrysogenum. In yeast the sexual reproduction is by conjugation; After fusion the zygotic nucleus divides meiotically and forms haploid spores. The unicellular structure with haploid spores is (A) Sporangium (B) Gametangiuni (C) ASCUS (D) Zoosporangium. Fungus used for the fermentation of cheese is (A) Mucor mucedo (B) Rhizopus nigricans (C) Peniciiium camemberti (D) Penicihlium chrisogenum Sometimes in yeast the conjugation takes place between a parent cell and a bud. It is (A) Isogamy (B) Pedogamy (C) Pseudogamy (D) Syngamy. Number of ascospores formed in Sacchromyces cerevisiac is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 2. When a moist bread is kept exposed in air, it becomes. mouldy and black because (A) Spores are present in the water (B) Spores are present in the bread (C) Spores are present in the air (D) The bread decomposes.

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

36. 37. 38.

39.

40.

In Penicillum the mycelium bears sex organs. The male organ is called antheridium while the female one is known as (A) Archegonium (B) Spermatangium (C) Ascogonium (D) Sporogonium. The rusts, are serious diseases of our economic plants. The disease is caused by the fungus (A) Rhizopus (B) Ustilago (C) Puccinia (D) Agaricus. In Penicillium the asexual reproduction takes place by (A) Ascospore (B) Aplanospores (C) Sporangiospores (D) Conidia. The smuts of crop plants are caused by (A) Puccinia (B) Cystopus (C) Ustilago (D) Agaricus. The edible fungi are (A) Rusts (B) Moulds (C) Mildews (D) Mushrooms. Peniciiium is economically important because it (A) Cause pathogenic diseases (B) Spoils food material (C) Used in preparation of alcohol (D) Provides antibiotic drugs. In mycorrhiza, the tips of fungal hyphae occur inside cortical cells in (A) Ectomycorrhiza (B) Endomycorrhiza (C) Exomycorrhiza (D) None of the above. Amanita, a poisonous fungus is a (A) Mushroom (B) Bracket Fungus (C) Toadstool (D) Puffball. The important antibiotic wonder drug extracted from Penicillium is (A) Penicillin (B) Aureomycin (C) Streptomycin (D) Terramycin. The conidia are borne on sterigmata which are in turn borne by (A) Ranii (B) Metulae (C) Phialides (D) Conidiophores. Penicillin is produced by (A) P. chrysogenuin (B) P. divaricatun (C) P. expansum (D) P. claviforme. A crustose lichen is (A) Graphis (B) Parmelia (C) Cladonia (D) Usnea. Penicillum roqueforti and P. camemberti are responsible for (A) Pathogenic diseases in man (B) Pathogenic diseases in plants (C) Imparting flavours to cheese and ripe fruits (D) None of the above. The bread becomes soft and porous when the yeast cells are mixed in the lump o dough of wheat flour, because (A) Yeast is soft and flour also become soft (B) Yeast produces acetic acid and alcohol which gives softness to the bread (C) Evolution of CO2 makes the bread spongy (D) Yeast produces benzoic acid. Which of the following is not a fungus? (A) Sargassum (B) Mucor (C) Agari cur (D) Morchella. Facultative saprophyte is (A) Parasite but can be saprophyte (B) Always parasite (C) Always saprophyte (D) Saprophyte but acquires a parasitic mode. In Mucor and Rhizopus there occurs a phenomenon known as heterothallism which means (A) Fusion of two gametes from two thalli of opposite strains (B) Fusion of two gametes from thalli of similar stain (C) Formation of a zygospore partheno genetically (D) Torula stage. A facultative parasite is one which? (A) Always requires a living host (B) Is normally a saprophyte but can also become a parasite (C) Is normally parasitic but can also become saprophyte D) Always requires dead organic matter. Which of the following is an edible fungus? A) Rhizopus (B) Penicillium (C) Mucor (D) Agaricus.

41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

Asci are formed in A) Ascobolus (B) Saccharomyces C) Penicillium D) All the above. ichens are organisms A) Algal (B) Fungal (C) Composite (D) Protistan. Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus (A) Small pox (B) Tuberculosis (C) Cancer (D) Black rust of wheat. The feeding structure of the fungus is the (A) Mycelium (B) Rhizomorph (C) Scierotium (D) Penicilus. ‘Ergot’ is obtained from (A) Puccinia (B) Rhizopus (C) Claviceps (D) Yeast. L.S.D. is derived from (A) Fungus (B) Bacteria (C) Alcohol (D) 2, 4-D. Agaricus is a member of (A) Ascomycetes (B) Deuteromycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Phycomycetes. Loose smut of wheat is caused by (A) Ustilago tritici (B) Gystopus tritici (C) Puccinia graminis (D) Aspeigillus grwninis Mycorrhiza, a relationship in between fungi and roots of higher plants, is (A) Parasitic relationship (B) Saprophytic relationship (C) Symbiotic relationship (D) Epiphytic relationship Zygospore of Mucor/Rhizopus germinates to form (A) Mycelium (B) Prornycelium (C) Hyphae (D) Germ tube. Pin Mold or Mucor reproduces itself by means of (A) Buds (B) Fragmentation. (C) Autogamy (D) Spores. Organisms which obtain their food from nonliving material environment are called (A) Autotrophs (B) Epiphytes (C) Parasites (D) Saprophytes. In Penicillium from (A) Zygospqre (B) Ascospore (C) Cleistothecium (D) Parthenospore. Black rust of wheat is caused by (A) Rhizopus (B) Yeast (C) Penicillium (D) Puccinia. Vegetative reproduction in yeast takes place by (A) Akinetes (B) Aplanospores (C) Ascospores (D) Budding. One of the common fungal diseases of man is (A) Cholera (B) Plague (C) Typhoid (D) Ring worm. To digest the food that lies in external medium, a saprophyte secretes (A) Enzymes (B) Hormones (C) Sugar (D) None of the above. Severe famine of West Bengal of 194243 was due to destruction of rice crop by a fungus called (A) Helminthosporium (B) Penicillium (C) Puccinia (D) Rhizopus Plectenchyma is a tissue composed of (A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma (C) Mycelial threads of fungi (D) Tracheids in higher plants. Branched conidiophores are found in (A) Penicillium (B) Rhizopus (C) Ustilago (D) Saccharomyces. Reproduction in Mucor takes place by (A) Isogametes (B) Anisogametes (C) Agametes (D) None of the above. Fungal hyphae penetrate hard cell walls of their hosts with help of (A) Enzymes (B) Hormones (C) Sharp tips (D) Sugar exudates. Fungi which occur on wood are (A) Epibiotic (B) Eucarpic (C) Epixylic (D) Epigeon. Commercial source of manufacture of citric acid is (A) Citrus fruits (B) Aspergillus (C) Bacteria (D) Penicillium. Sac Fungi are (A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes (C) Phycomycetes (D) Zygomycetes.

66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72.

73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78.

79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86.

In which of the following stage of Rhizopus ‘n’ number of chromosome is not found? (A) Zygospore (B) Hypha (C) Sporangium (D) Spore. Which of the following groups contain typically coenocytic forms? (A) Lichens (B) Phycomycetes (C) Liverworts (D) Chlorophyceae. A basidiomycete fungus producing uredo spores on wheat plant is (A) Ustilago (B) Puccinia (C) Phytophthora (D) Alternwia. White rust of crucifers is caused by (A) Albugo (B) Phythium (C) Cercospora (D) Phyllactinia. Aflatoxin is produced by (A) Virus (B) Bacterium/Mycobacterium (C) Fungus Aspergillus flavus (D) Nematode/Ascarts. Phytophthora infestans causes (A) Early blight of Potato (B) Late blight of Potato (C) Green ear of Bajra (D) Downy mildew. Which of the following statement is wrong in respect to Puccinia graminis? (A) It is fungal parasite of wheat (B) It produces uredospores and teleutospores on stem and foliage (C) Teleutospores can re-infect wheat plants (D) Uredospores can infect wheat plant. Fungal cell wall is composed of (A) Chitin (B) Chitin or cellulose(C) Hemicellulose (D)Cellulose. Mushroom is a (A) Saprophyte (B) Photosynthesizer of food material (C) Facultative parasite (D) Obligate parasite. Aecidial stages of Puccinia develop on (A) Wheat leaves (B) Wheat stem (C) Upper surface of Barberry leaf (D) Lower surface of Barberry leaf. Lichens show (A) Commensalism (B) Mutualism (C) Parasitism (D) Mycorrhizal association. Fungi are always (A) Autotrophs (B) Heterotrophs (C) Saprophytes (D) Parasites. Generally in laboratory cultures of Rhizopus there is no formation of zygospore because (A) There is deficiency of oxygen (B) There is deficiency of light (C) Due to the absence of both (+) and () strains of myceia (D) Presence of (+) and (—) strains of mycelia. Haploid spores of sac fungi occur in (A) Ascocarp (B) Basidiocarp (C) Basidium (D) Ascus. In Rhizopus we find white cottony mycelium which shows black spots during asexual reproduction. These spots are (A) Zoospores (B) Spores (C) Oospores (D) Sporangia. Bread dough rises because of the action of (A) Heat (B) Kneading (C) Bacteria (D) Yeast. Fungi can be stained by (A) Cotton blue (B) Safranine (C) Glycerine (D) Lactophenol. In Rhizopus, sexual reproduction involves formation of two club shaped structures called (A) Gametangia (B) Coenogarnetes (C) Progametangia (D) Suspensors. Dikaryotic cells are formed in (A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Both B and C. Reindeer moss is a lichen named (A) Rocella (B) Usnea (C) Pannelia (D) Cladonia. Phycomycetes are characterised by

87. 88. 89.

90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106.

(A) Flagellate zoospores (B) Oogamous reproduction (C) Chitinous wall (D) Both A and B. Perfect stage of fungus means (A) When fungus is perfectly healthy (B) When it produces asexually (C) When it reproduces sexually (D) When it forms perfect resting spores. Club Fungi are (A) Oomycetes (B) Deuteromycetes (C) Zygomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. The sequence of spore production in Puccinia (wheat rust) is (A) Aeciospore, uredospore, teliospore, basidiospore, pycniospore (B) Basidiospore, aeciospore, pycniospore, tebospore (C) Teliospore, aeciospore, uredospore, basidiospore (D) Teliospore, basidiospore, aeciospore, pycniospore. Common bread mould is (A) Aspergillus (B) Penlciiium (C) Erysiphe (D) Rhizopus Items in which of the following pairs are unrelated (A) Ascocarp — Ascogomum (B) Conidiophore — Metulae (C) Basidiocarp—Gills (D) Ascocarp — Archegonium. Basidiospores are characteristic of (A) Bread mould (B) Mushrooms (C) Aspergillus (D) Yeast. Red/Pink bread mould is the common name for (A) Neurospora (B) Mucor (C) Aspergillus (D) Rhizopus. Coenogametes occur in (A) Penicillium (B) Rhizopus (C) Puccinia (D) Ustilago. Conjugation Fungi are (A) Oomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Ascomycetes (D) Mushrooms. Sexual reproduction is absent in (A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. Soredium is a propagule of (A) Lichens (B) Phycomycetes (C) Zygomycetes (D) Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. Fungal spores produced asexually at tops or sides of hyphae are called (A) Zoospores (B) Spores (C) Chiamydospores (D) Conidia. Part of the mushroom visible above ground is (A) Ascocarp (B) Ascogonium (C) Basidium (D) Basidiocarp. Fungi producing usually 8 spores in a sac like structure belong to (A) Ascomycetes (B) Phycomycetes (C) Deuteromycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. The asexual spores characteristic of ascomycetes are (A) Conidiosporangia (B) Conidia (C) Sporangiospores (D) Smut spores. Fungi lacking cross walls in the mycelium belong to (A) Ascomycetes (B) Phycomycetes (C) Deuteromycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. One of the following is used in the baking of the bread (A) Zygosaccharomyces octospolus (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (C) Saccharomycodes ludwigi (D) Rhizopus stolonifer. Sexual reproduction with undifferentiated sex organs or vegetative cells is (A) Spermatisation (B) Parthenogenesis (C) Plasmogamy (D) Somatogamy. Lichen with a branched system but small base is (A) Fruticose (B) Foliose (C) Crustose (D) Symbiont. Fungi Imperfecti is a group of fungi which (A) Do not have a sexual phase (B) Includes Toadstool and Puffball (C) Have species that prey upon some nematodes (D) All the above.

107. 108. 109. 110. 111.

In majority of lichens, there is association of (A) Green algae and ascomycetes (B) Green algae and basidiomycetes (C) Blue-green algae and ascomycetes (D) Blue-green algae and basidiomycetes. Ringworm of the scalp is caused by (A) Microsporum (B) Aspergillus (C) Penicillium (D) Alternana. In mycorrhiza, the fungal hyphae (A) Remain restricted to the root surface (B) Remain restricted upto the root cortex (C) Pass into the root interior (D) Enter the root apex and reach all parts. Lichens have an actual relationship of (A) Parasitism (B) Mutualism (C) Helotism (D) Epiphytism. A stage peculiar to ascomycetes and basidiomycetes is (A) Dikaryophase (B) Diplophase (C) Haplophase. (D) Uredial stage.

Revision Questions 112. Yeast and Penicillium/penicillin producing fungus are included under (A) Basidiomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Ascomycetes (D) Phycomycetes. 113. The fungus that may cause disease in human beings is (A) Puccinia (B) Aspergillus (C) Cystopus (D) Rhizopus. 114. Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in (A) Ascomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Phycomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. 115. Common form of food stored in fungal cells is (A) Starch (B) Sucrose (C) Glucose (D) Glycogen. 116. A fungus which requires only one single host for completion of its life cycle is called (A) Heteroecious (B) Autoecious (C) Heterothallism (D) Heterosporous. 117. Lichens show symbiotic relationships between (A) Fungus and roots of higher plants (B) Fungus and alga (C) Two algae (D) Two fungi. 118. A fungus whose extract of scierotia can be chemically altered to produce a powerful hallucinogenic drug is (A) Claviceps purpurea (B) Aspergillus (C) Penictilium (D) Agaricus 119. Yeast cells are rich in vitamin (A) A (B)B (C) C (D) D. 120. A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from different genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but divide independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed. It belongs to (A) Phycomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Deuteromycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. 121. Symbiotic relationship between an alga and a fungus occurs in (A) Coralloid roots of Cycas (B) Lichens (C) Mycorrhiza (D) Both B and C. 122. The phenomenon that led to discovery of penicillin involves (A) Biological antagonism (B) Substrate competition (C) Struggle for existence (D) Genotype competition. 123. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution of air (A) Mosses (B) Lichens (C) Mushrooms (D) Puftballs. 124. Pannelia is a (A) Crustose lichen (B) Fruticose lichen (C) Foliose lichen (D) Moss. 125. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they (A) Show association between algae and fungi (B) Grow faster than others (C) Are sensitive to SO2 (D) Flourish in SO2 rich environment. 126. Dikaryon formation is characteristic of

127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135.

136. 137. 138.

139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146.

(A) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes (B) Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes (C) Ascomycetes and phycomycetes (D) Phycomycetes and zygomycetes. Fungi differ from algae in being mostly (A) Heterotrophic (B) Autotrophic (C) Parasitic (D) Epiphytic. Fungi imperfecti (Deuteromycetes) lack (A) Spores (B) Sexual reproduction (C) Asexual reproduction (D) Hyphae. In Rhizopus, sexual fusion takes place between (A) Two gametangia (B) Two gametes (C) Two hyphae (D) Two sporangia. In yeast during budding which process occurs (A) Synapsis (B) Unequal division of cytoplasm (C) Doubling of chromosomes (D) Spindle formation Lichens multiply by (A) Conidia (B) Oidia (C) Ascospores (D) Soredia. Fungal spores produced asexually at the tip of hyphae are called (A) Sporangiospores (B) Arthrospores (C) Conidia (D)Spores. Penicillium is commonly known as (A) An alga (B) Blue green mould (C) Bacterium (D) Virus. Motile sperms are absent in (A) Rhizopus (B) Funana (C) Fern (D) Cycas. An obligate parasite is one which (A) Always requires a living host (B) Is normally a parasite but can become a saprophyte (C) Always requires dead organic matter to live on (D) Is usually a saprophyte but can become a parasite. All heterotrophs require an environment which can provide (A) Nitrates in solution (B) Organic compounds (C) Ammonium salt (D) Vitamin A. Lichens are ecologically important as they (A) Purify air (B) Are pioneers on barren rocks (C) Are syinbionts of algae and fungi (D) Are associated with mycorrhizal roots. Mycorrhiza is (A) Symbiotic association of a soil fungus and roots of higher plants (B) Parasitic association between a fungus and roots of seed plants (C) Saprophytic association between a fungus and root of seed plants (D) Symbiotic association between an alga and root of seed plants. Litmus was previously obtained from (A) Puffball (B) Cetraria islandica (C) Rocella tin ctorla (D) Cladonia rangifera. First antibiotic isolated was (A) Neomycin (B) Terramycin (C) Streptomycin (D) Penicillin. The hyphae of Aspergillus are (A) Aseptate and multinucleate (B) Septate and multinucleate (C) Aseptate and uninucleate (D) Septate and uninucleate. Which causes hypertrophy in floral parts? (A) Aspergillus (B) Cystopus (C) Nostoc (D) Bacteria. Mode of nutrition in Rhizopus is (A) Parasitic (B) Symbiotic (C) Saprophytic (D) Autotrophic Puffball is (A) Alga (B) Fungus (C) Slime Mould (D) Composite organism. Meiosis occurs in Yeast in (A) Ascospores (B) Ascus mother cell (C) Ascus (D) None of the above. Storage grains come to have aflatoxin due to growth of (A) Virus (B) Yeast (C) Bacterium (D) Aspergillus Jiavus.

147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 59. 60. 61. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168.

When thallus of fungus entirely converts to reproductive body, it is called as (A) Eucarpic (B) Holocarpic (C) Holozoic (D) Homothallic Heterothallism was first. discovered by (A) Blakeslee (B) Mehta (C) Pasteur (D) Alexopolous. Fungi differ from algae in being (A) Coenocytic (B) Without motile gametes (C) Without unicellular forms (D) Without chlorophyll and possessing chitinised walls. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes. Penicillin was discovered in the year of (A) 1901 (B) 1919 (C) 1929 (D) 1909. Toadstools cannot manufacture their food because they (A) Possess haustoria (B) Lack chlorophyll (C) Live in dark places (D) Do not have leaves. Ergot (of Rye) is obtained from (A) Claviceps purpurea (B) Puccinia gra (C) Altemania solanii (D) Fusanum oxysporum. Thread like fungal structures are (A) Hyphae (B) Mycelium (C) Rhizomorphs (D) Scierotia. Irish Famine of 1845 was caused by (A) Alternania solanii (B) Scierospora graminicola (C) Phytophthora infestans (D) Fusanum oxyspoPum “Damping off of seedlings” is due to (A) Nematode (B) Albugo candida (C) Fusarium orysporum (D) Pythium debwyanum. Indian mycologist famous for his work on wheat rust was (A) V. Pun (B) K.C. Mehta (C) P. Maheshwari (D) B.B. Sahni. Study of fungi is (A) Palynology (B) Mycology (C) Phycology (D) Microbiology. Bunt disease of wheat is due to (A) Tilletia (B) Puccinia (C) Ustilago (D) Cystopus. Bio-indicators of pollution are (A) Lichens (B) Mosses (C) Mycorrhizal association (D) Toadstools Gills are found in (A) Agaricus (B) Puccinia (C) AsperRjllus (D) Deuteromycetes. Coenocytic myceiwn occurs in (A) Deuteromycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Phycomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. Rhizopus belongs to (A) Zygomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes (C) Ascomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. Rice crop was destroyed by a fungus which resulted in severe famine of Bengal in 19421943. It was due to (A) Penicillium (B) Helminthosporium (C) Rhizopus (D) Puccinia. Early blight of Potato is caused by (A) Phytophthora infestans (B) Penicillium notatum (C) Alternana solani (D) Cystopus candidus Loose Smut of Wheat is due to (A) Puccinia grwninis tritici (B) Ustilago tritici (C) Tilletia tritici (D) Cystopus candidus. Alcoholic fermentation is performed by (A) hlorella (B) Agaricus (C) Yeast (D) Puccinia. Irish famine is related to a disease of Potato called (A) Late blight of Potato (B) Early blight of Potato (C) Dry rot of Potato (D) Wart of Potato.

169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179.

180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187.

Yeast produces an enzyme complex that is responsible for fermentation. The enzyme complex is (A) Aldolase (B) Dehydrogenase (C) Invertase (D) Zymase. L.S.D. is derived from (A) Papaver somniferum (B) Cannabis sativa (C) Scierospora graminicola (D) Claviceps purpurea. An edible fungus is (A) Aspergillus (B) Ustilago (C) Polyporus (D) Morchella. Which one is not a mode of reproduction in Yeast (A) Budding (B) Plasmogamy (C) Oogamy (D) Ascospore formation. Penicillin was discovered by (A) S. Waksman (B) Robert Koch (C) Louis Pasteur (D) Alexander Fleming. A fungal disease of humans is due to (A) Typhoid (B) Trichophyton (C) Microsporum (D) Both B and C. Late blight of Potato is due to (A) Altemaria solani (B) Albugo candida (C) Fusarium moniliforme (D) Phytophthora infestans. White Rust of Crucifers is due to (A) Albugo candida/Cystopus candidus (B) Cercospora personata (C) Colletotrichum falcaturn (D) Phythium debatyanum. Food is stored inRhizopus/CystopuslFungi as (A) Protein and steroids (B) Sugar and oil (C) Protein and starch (D) Glycogen and oil. Which one secretes pheromones for the function? (A) Rhizopus for formation of zygospore (B) All fungi for sexual reproduction (C) Yeast for mating (D) Plants for growth and development. Mycorrhizae are useful for (A) Providing resistance against stresses (B) Killing pathogens and insects (C) Enhanced absorption of mineral nutrients and water from soil (D) Fixing nitrogen. In lichens, sexual reproduction is usually performed by (A) Algal partner only (B) Fungal partner only (C) Both algal and fungal partners (D) Either of the two partners. Gills of a mushroom take part in (A) Respiration (B) Enhancing buoyancy (C) Nutrition (D) Bearing spores for reproduction. An organism over its egg is (A) Yeast (B) Funaña (C) Riccia (D) Cycas Mushroom is (A) Mucor (B) Agaricus (C) Yeast (D) Peniciiium Which type of life cycle occurs in Mucor (A) Isomorphic (B) Heteromorphic (C) Haplontic (D) Diplontic. Ustilago caused plant diseases are called smuts because (A) They parasitise cereals (B) Mycelium is black (C) They develop sooty masses of spores (D) Affected parts become completely Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of (A) Smut of Barley (B) Rust of Wheat (C) Ergot of Rye (D) Powdcry Mildew of Pea Decomposers are organisms that (A) Elaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues (B) Operate in living body and simplifying organic substances of cells step by step (C) Attack and kill plants as well as animal (D) Operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body

188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209.

VAM represents (A) Saprophytic fungi (B) Symbiotic fungi (C) Saprophytic bacteria (D) Symbiotic-bacteria Mycorrhiza represents (A) Antagonism (B) Endemism (C) Symbiosis (D) Parasitism. Antibiotic is got from (A) Mucor (B) Gelidium (C) Ulothrix (D) Peniciiium. Disease and causal organism of Bengal famine of 1943 was (A) Brown leaf spot of Rice by H. oryzae (B) Wheat Rust by Puccinia (C) Blast of Rice by Pyricularia oiyzae (D) Blast of Rice by X. oiyzae. Zygospores are produced in (A) Mucor/Rhizopus (B) Penicillium (C) Puccinia (D) Altemaria. Smut of Maize is due to (A) Ustilago hordei (B) U. nuda (C) U. maydis (D) U. avenae. Causal organism for Black Stem Rust of Wheat is (A) Melanospora lini (B) Claviceps purpurea (C) Scierospora graminicola (D) Puccinia tritici. In Albugo the food reserve is mostly (A) Glycogen (B) Volutin granules (C) Protein granules (D) Fat. Fertilization does not require water in (A) Ulothrix (B) Albugo (C) Bryophyta (D) Pteridqphyta. Mycelium of Albugo is (A) Intracellular (B) Intercellular (C) Surface of host (D) Surface of flower. Cothdia of Albugo are arranged (A) Irregularly (B) Acropetally (C) Basipetaily (D) Intercalary. Zoospore of Albugo possesses flagella (A) Two similar and apical (B) Four similar and median (C) Four apical (D) Two dissimilar and median. Redrot of Sugarcane is produced by (A) Phytophthora (B) Cercospora (C) Albugo (D) Colletotrichum. Which one produces alcohol? (A) Clost,idium ‘bcñulinum (B) Leuconostoc citrovorum (C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) Torulopsis utilis Toadstool (poisonous mushroom) is (A) Ganodenna (B) Phallus (C) Amanita (D) Morchella. Yeast is employed for production of (A) Curd (B) Cheese (C) Acetic acid (D) Ethyl alcohol. Phytoalexins produced by plants in response to fungal infections are (A) Phenolic compounds (B) Glycoproteins (C) Proteins (D) Lipids. Plasmogamy is fusion of (A) Two haploid cells including their nuclei (B) Two haploid cells without nuclear fusion (C) Sperm and egg (D) Sperm and two polar nuclei A chemical substance produced by a microorganism for inhibiting the growth of another is (A) Antibody (B) Antibiotic (C) Aflatoxin (D) Antiallergic. Which one is a fungal disease? (A) Tuberculosis (B) Cholera (C) Small pox (I)) 1 Number of spore stages in Puccinia is (A) Five (B) Four (C) Three (D) Two. Which statement is wrong about lichens? (A) Some species are eaten by Reindeers (B) Lichens are indicators of pollution (C) They grow, rapidly about 2 cm.per day (D) They have symbiotic relationship between alga and fungus.

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Fuccinia grwninis tritici is (A) Heteroecious (B) Reterothallic (C) Heteroecious and heterothallic (D) Heterokaryotic Common Bread Mould is (A) Yeast , (B) Rhizopus (C) Clost’idium (D) M,trovinss. Fungal partner of a lichen is commonly (A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes (C) Phycomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. Wheat develops brown pustules on leaf sheaths and stems which later grow and turn blackish. They are caused ‘by (A) Ustilago tritici (B) Puccinia strifonnis (C) Puccinia recondida (D) Puccinia grwninis. Chitin present in fungal wall has a formula of (A) (C22H54N4O21)n (B) (C21H54N4O22)n (C) (C22H54N4O13)n (D) (C22H24N4O21)n The fungus without a mycelium is (A) Rhizopus (B) Saccharomyces (C) Puccinia (D) Phytophthora A dikaryotic cell has (A) Two haploid nuclei (B) Diploid zygotes (C) Two similar nuclei (D) Two dissimilar haploid nuclei. Yeast is (A) Ptnrely aerobic (B) Anaerobic (C) Rarely anaerobic (D) Both aerobic and anaerobic. A fungus that causes damage to timber resources is (A) Aspergillus (B) Puccinia (C) Polypoius (D) Morchella. Algal fungi are placed in (A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes (C) Phycomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. True symbiotic association between fungus and seed plant is (A) Endomycorrhiza (B) Ectomycorrhiza (C) Helotism (D) Commensalism. Parasites which can grow saprobiotically in the absence of hosts are (A) Facultative saprophytes (B) Obligate saprophytes (C) Obligate parasites (D) Facultative parasites Number of ascospores formed in an ascus of Penicillium is (A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 4. Majority of lichens are made of (A) Blue-green algae and basidiomycetes (B) Blue-green algae and ascomycetës (C) Red algae and ascomycetes (D) Brown algae and higher plants. In Mucor/Rhizopus isoganiy occurs between (A) (+) and () strains (B) Same strain (C) Aplanospores (D) Zygospores Apple scab is caused by (A) Puccinia (B) Eiysiphe (C) Ustilago (D) Venturia. Puccinia produces (A) Uredia and pycnia on Barberry leaves (B) Uredia and aecia on Barberry leaves (C) Uredia and aecia on Wheat leaves (D) Uredia and telia on Wheat leaves Which one is a laboratory weed? (A) Penivillium (B) Aspergillus (C) Neurospora (D) Yeast. ‘Witches Broom’ of legumes is due to (A) Mycoplasma (B) Bacterium (C) Fungus (D) Virus. Coluniella is a structure found in (A) Ascus of Penicillium (B) Sporangium of Rhizopus (C) Pycnidia of Puccinia (D) None of the above. Mycorrhiza functions as (A) Modified root (B) Root hair in adverse conditions (C) Organism for vegetative propagation (D) Mechanical tissue for support.

231. 232. 233.

334. 335. 336. 237. 238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250. 251. 252.

Symbiotic association of fungi and algae is (A) Lichen (B) Mycorrhiza (C) Mycoplasma (D) Both A and B. Which is correct about cell wall of bacteria and fungi? Both have (A) Glycopeptide (B) N-acetylglucosamine (C) N-acetylglucosamine and cellulose (D) Chitin. Which one is not correctly matched (A) Root Knot Disease—Meloidogyne javanica (B) Smut of Bajra— Tolyposporium penicillariae (C) Covered Smut of Barley— Ustilago nuda (D) Late Blight of Potato—Phytophthora infestans. Which one is a saprophyte (A) Mushroom (B) Lichen (C) Unicellular Algae (D) Ferns. Fungus used in genetic experiments is (A) Rhizopus (B) Mucor (C) Neurospora (D) Claviceps. Puccinia infection from Barberry to Wheat occurs through (A) Teleutospores (B) Utedospores (C) Aeciospores (D) Pycnospores. Fungi causing hair loss are (A) Keratophilous (B) Pyrophilous (C)coprophilous (D) None of the above. Which one is not related to perfect stage of fungus (A) Zygospores (B) Meiospores (C) Ascospores (D) Mitospores. Saccharornyces cerevisice is (A) Akaryote (B) Procaryote (C) Mesocaryote (D) Eucaryote. Antibiotic flavicin is produced by (A) Aspergillus fumigatus (B)A. clavatus (C) Streptomyces gnseus (D) S. fradiae. In Yeast, cell wall contains (A) Amylose and glucose (B) Glucose and mannose (C) Glucose and muramic acid (D) Sucrose and mannose Balcane disease is connected with discovery of (A) GA (B) LAA (C)ABA (D) 2,4—D. Citric acid is got from (A) Aspergillus niger (B) Polyporus species (C) Penicillium notatum (D) Saccharornyces cerevisiae. Cheese muturation is connected with (A) Aspergillus oryzae (B) Aspergillus niger (C) Penicillium camembeiti (D) Penicillium chrysogenum Ascocarp of Penicillium is (A) Perithecium (B) Apothecium (C) Acrostroma (D) Cleistothecium When bacteria and fungi feed on dead organic matter, they are called (A) Parasites (B) Saprophytes (C) Lithophytes (D) Dimorphic A widely but periodically occurring plant disease is (A) Endemic (B) Epidemic (C) Sporadic (D) Epiphytotic. Rhizopus reproduces asexually through (A) Sporangiospores (B) Aplanospores (C) Chiamydospores (D) Akinetes Mushroom is (A) Saprophyte (B) Facultative parasite (C) Obligate parasite (D) Phagotroph Yeast is important source of (A) Proteins (B) Riboflavin (C) Vitamin C (D) Sugars. Aflatoxicosis of poultry is due to A) Gandida älbicans (B) Penicillium notatum (C) Aspergillus flavus (D) Aspeigillus furnigatus. Bakane disease of Rice is due to

253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. 270. 271. 272. 273.

(A) Eiysiphe (B) Gibberella (C) Phytophthora (D) Albugo. Fungi are always (A) Heterotrophs (B) Saprophytes (C) Parasites (D) Autotrophs Aflatoxins are produced by (A) Viruses (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Nematodes. Mycelium of Mucor/Rhizopus is (A) Aseptate and unicellular (B) Septate and unicellular (C) Septate and multicellular (D) Coenocytic. In an ascus of ascomycetes, number and arrangement of ascospores are (A) 8 in linear order (B) 4 in linear order (C) Both A and B (D) 8 or 4, linear order or unordered A harmful lichen is (A) Umbilicaria (B) Letlza,ia (C) Usnea (D) aadonia Mycorrhizal association occurs in Pinus, Ficus and (A) Utncularic (B) Legumes (C) Eucalyptus (D) Azadirachta Sexual reproduction is absent in (A) Deuteromyctes (B) Phycomycetes (C) Ascomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. Collateral host is (A) Additional host (B) Host in which life cycle is completed (C) Alternate host (D) Infected host Similarity between fungi and bacteriophage lies in (A) Cell wall (B) Organelles (C) DNA (D) RNA as genetic material A coprophilous fungus is (A) Trichodenna (B) Pilobolus (C) Fusarium (D) Humicola. In Agancus, the largest phase of nucleus condition is (A)n (B)2n (C) n+n (D)3n Black colour of Bread Mould is due to (A) Zygophores (B) Colour of hyphae (C) Decaying organic matter (D) Sporangia. Fungi differ from other kingdoms in being (A) Unicellular consumers (B) Unicellular decomposers’ (C) Multicellular consumers (D) Multicellular deconiposers. Which one is decomposer (A) Lichen (B) Pungus (C) Algae (D) Carnivores. Reindeer Moss is (A) Lichen (B) Fungus (C) Bryophyte (D) Cnidarian. Fungi Imperfecti is (A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes Symbiotic association between fungus and root of higher plant is (A) Lichen (B) Mycorrhiza (C) Orchid (D) Puffball. Fungi are always (A) Heterophytes (B) Autotrophic (C) Saprophytic . (D) Parasitic. Fungal hyphae are able to penetrate the host with the help of (A) Mechanical pressure (B) Softening by enzymes (C) Both A and B (D) Suckers and hooks ‘Torula condition’ occurs in (A) Rhizopus (B) Ulothnx (C) Spirogyra (D) Riccia Match the columns Column – I Column - II a) Early Blight of potasto (i) Puccinia graminals b) Late Blight of Potato (ii) Ustilago tritici c) Smut of Wheat (iii) Phytophthora inferans

274. 275. 276. 277. 278. 279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293.

d) Rust of Wheat (iv) Alternasolani (A) (a) — (i), (b)— (ii), (c) — (iii), (d) — (iv) (B) (a) — (iv), (b) — (iii), (c) — (ii), (d) — (i) (C) (a) — (ii), (b) — (iii.), (c) — (iv), (d) — (i) (D) (a)—(iv), (b)— (ii), (c)—(iii), (d)—(i). VAM contains (A) Symbiotic bacteria (B) Saprophytic bacteria (C) Symbiotic fungi (D) Saprophytic fungi Fungal wall is formed of (A) Fungal chitin (B) Chitin (C) Muramic acid (D) Cellulose. Penicillin is got from an (A) Alga (B) Bacterium (C) Fungus (D) Dinoflagellate. Ashbya gossypi is (A) Fungus producing riboflavin (B) Fungus forming B (C) Actinomycetes excreting vitamin A (D) Bateriuin forming antibodies. Sporangiospores of Mucor are (A) Polyploid (B) Triploid (C) Diploid (D) Haploid. Mucor has (A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy (C) Oogamy (D) All the above. Failure of gainetangial fusion in Rhizopus forms (A) Zygote (B) ZygospOre (C) Parthenospore (D) Oidia. Ainsworth has placed Rhizopus in (A) Zygomycetes (B) Mastigomycotina (C) Ascomycotina (D) Myxomycotina White rust fungus is (A) Rhizopus (B) Albugo (C) Pythium (D) Ustilago. In Rhizopus, hyphae are (A) Branched,, septate and uninucleate (B) Branched, aseptate and multinucleate (C) Unbranched, aseptate and multinucleate (D) Unbranched, septate and coenocytic. What is true? (A) Toadstool is an edible fungus (B) Rust fungi are homoecious (C) Parathecium is fruiting body (D) in Mushroom gills produce basidia. Fungus Rhizopus resembles moss in having (A) Hyphae (B) Mycelium (C) Spores (D) Archegonia. Rice blast is caused by (A) Taphrina defonnis (B) Puccinia graminis (C) Pyricularia oryzae (D) Colletotrichutn falcatum Interval between infection and appearance of disease is called (A) Inoculation period (B) Incubation period (C) Infection period (D) Penetration period Which of the following group produces spores but does not possess vascular tissues (A) Monocots (B) Dicots (C) Fungi (D) Gymnosperms. An edible s fungus is (A) Lycoperdon (B) Agaricus (C) Morchella (D) Rhizopus Pseudomycelium occurs in (A) Yeast (B) Rhizopus (C) Aspergillus . (D) Synch A septum having pore complex in eumycota is (A) Septal pore (B) Dolipore septum (C) Lomasome (D) Coenocyte. Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by (A) Sphaelotheca cnuenta (B) Sphaelotheca reiliana (C) Sphaelotheca sorghi (D) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii. Wart disease caused by Synchytrium endobioticum occurs in (A) Cabbage (B) Pea (C) Groundnut (D) Potato.

294. 295. 296.

297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303. 304.

305.

306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313. 314.

Fungi with septate mycelia but where sexual reproduction is not known are included under (A) Phycomycetes (B) Deuteromycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Ascomycetes. Zygospore of Rhizopus develops into (A) Gametangium (B) Promyceium (C) Progametangium (D) Zygosporangium. A fungal disease that spreads by seeds and flowers is (A) Loose smut of Wheat (B) Corn smut (C) Covered smut of Barley (D) Soft rot of Potato Toxin is secreted during storage condition by (A) Fusarium (B) Colletotrichum (C) Penicillium (D) Asp ergillus. Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus occurs through (A) Gametangial contact (B) Gametangial copulation (C) Planogametic copulation (D) Spermatoganiy. An ascomycetous fungus is (A) Agaricüs (B) Phytopthora (C) Yeast (D) Pleurotes. Structure helping lichens in respiration is (A) Isidium (B) Soredium (C) Cephalodium (D) Cyphella. Basidiospores are produced by (A) Yeasts (B) Diatoms (C) Agaricus (D) Bacteria. Antihaemorrhagic ergot alkaloids are gives from (A) Cinchona (B) Alga (C) Bryophyte (D) Fungus. The deadliest mushroom is (A) Agaricus (B) Amanita (C) Pleurotus (D) Volvariella. Which is wrong (A) Sporangiospores ofRhizopus are diploid (B) Rhizopus belongs to zygomycetes (C) Dominant phase of Chlamydomonasi haploid is haploid (D) Zoospores of Chlamydomona. And haploid Lichen depicts (A) Parasitism between alga and fungus (B) Parasitism between protest and bryophyte (C) Symbiosis between alga and fungus (D) Symbiosis between alga and gymnosperm. Pick the odd one (A) Sunflower (B) Rose (C) Hibiscus (D) Rock Flower. In endomycorrhiza, the fungus is generally (A) Ascomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. Edible part of Mushroom is (A) Basidiocarp (B) Primary mycelium (C) Basidospores (D) Fungal hyphae. Yeast belongs to (A) Phycomycetes (B) Anthocerotae (C) Ascomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. Conidia are sickle-shaped in (A) Penicillium (B) Aspergillus (C) Colletotrichum (D) Alternaria. Dolipore septum occurs in (A) Zygomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes (C) Ascomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes. Litmus is got naturally from (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Lichens (D) Protozoans. Clamp connections are found in (A) Ascomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Saccharomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes. In lichen, fungus has (A) Symbiotic relationship with alga (B) Epiphytic relationship with alga (C) Saprophytic relationship wih alga (D) Parasitic relationship with alga.

315. 316. 317. 318. 319. 320.

321.

322. 323. 324.

325. 326.

321. 328. 329. 330. 331.

Lichen growing on wood is called (A) Corticolous (B) Lignocolous (C) Terricolous (D) Saxicolous. Black stem rust of Wheat is caused by (A) Fungus (B) Protozoan (C) Alga (D) Bacterium. Mycology is related to study of (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Yeast (D) Bacteria. Which one of following is antifungal the antibiotic? (A) Streptomycin (B) Aureomycin (C) Griseofulvin (D) Chloromycetin. Which one is an edible fungus? (A) Mucor (B) Agaricus (C) Peniciiium (D) Rhizopus. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. The fungi are wide spread in distribution, and they even live on or inside other plants and animals. Reason. Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water or on other organisms because they have a variety of pigments including chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin. (A) (B) (C) (D) There exists a close relationship between alga and fungus within a lichen. The fungus (A) Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the algae (B) Provides food for alga (C) Releases oxygen for the alga (D) Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga. Fungal flagellum originates from (A) Dictyosome (B) Kinetosome (C) Glyoxisome (D) Oxysome. Purified antibiotic penicillin of Penicihium notatwn was obtained by (A) Alexander Fleming (B) Howard Florey (C) Robert Hooke (D) Carolus Linnaeus What are the successive structures formed in course of sexual reproduction in Rhizopus? (A) Zygospore, progametangium, gametangium, zygophore (B) Progametangium, zygophore, gametangium, zygospore (C) Progametangium, gametangium, zygospore, zygophore (D) Zygophore, progametangium, gametangium, zygospore. Asexual spores formed by Cohletotrichum fakatum, Sphaelotheca sorghi and Rhizopus stolonifer are (A) Many celled (B) One celled (C) Pyriform (D) Rod-shaped. Sexual stages of pathogens of Blast of Rice and Red Rot of Sugarcane are named respectively (A) Magneporthe grisea and Colletotnchum falcalum (B) Colletotrichuni falcatum and Pyricularia oryzae (C) Glomerehla tucumanensis and Magneporthe gnsea (D) Magneporthe grisea and Glomerella tucumanensis Fruuiting body formed from a filamentous, heterotrophic organism which is known for its nutritive value for humans is (A) Cremocarp (B) Açervulus (C) Basidiocarp (D) Akinete. Claviceps purpurea grows as parasite (A) In human gut (B) In sugarcane roots(C) One pine needles (D) On fruits of grasses. Zygospore is formed from (A) Gametangial copulation (B) Gametic union (C) Zygote (D) Oogamy Bakane disease was caused by (A) Fungal toxin (B) Growth hormone released by fungal infection (C) Change in photoperiod (D) Inadequate nutrients St. Anthony’s fire disease is caused by

332.

333.

334. 335. 336.

337.

338. 339. 340. 341. 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. 347. 348.

(A) Bacteria (B) Fungus Which are mostly anaerobic? (A) Algae (B) Mosses

(C) Nematode

(D) Polychaete.

(C) Fungi

(D) All the above.

Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread? (a) Temperature about 25°C (b) Temperature about 5°C (c) Relative hymidity of about 5% (d) Relative humidity of about 95% (e) A shaded place (f) A brightly illuminated place. Choose the answer from the following options (A) b, c and f only (B) c and e only (C)a,dandeànly (D)b,d andeonly Indentify a fungus with medicinal importance (A) Peniciiium (B) Ceivospora (C) Agancus (D) Saccharomyces. Among rust, smut and mushroom, all the three (A) Are pathogens (B) Are saprobes (C) Bear ascocarps (D) Bear basidiocarps. Red rot of Sugarcane and white rust of Radish are respectively caused by (A) Collerotrichum and Albugo candida (B) Colletotrichum and Fusarium (C) Pythium and Phytophthora (D) Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis (E) Albugo candida and Cercopora. Select the false statement (A) Scientists who study and contribute to classification of organisms are known as systematists (B) Phycomycetes are cajied club fungi bec of a club-shaped end of mycelium known as basidium (C) Carolus Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species (D) A five kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by R.H, Whittaker. (E) Genus is a group of species which are related and have less characters in common as compared to species: Coenogametes are formed in (A) Alternaria (B) Albugo (C) Rlzizopus (D) Saccharomyces. In Mucor, conjugation results in (A) Zoospore (B) Akinete (C) Arthrospore (D) Zygospore. Usnic acid is an antibiotic obtained from (A) Fungi (B) Bacteria (C) Lichen (D) Algae. Fungal cell wall is formed of (A) Póctin (B) Hemicellulqse (C) Chitin and cellulose (D) Chitin and pectin. Select the correct match (A) Phytoplankton —Protozoa (B) Symbiosis — Lichen (C) Holozoic nutrition — Fungi (D) Autotrophs — Monerans Tikka disease occurs in (A) Rice (B) Groundnut (C) Wheat (D) Sugarcane A eukaryotic group which causes serious plant diseases comes under (A) Monera (B) Fungi (C) Protista (D) Viruses. Symptoms of red rot disease appear over (A) Leaf tip (B) Whole leaf (C) Mid rib (D) Leaf margin. Which is not found in mushroom (A) Eukaryotic structure (B) Dikaryotic mycelium (C) Basidiospores (D) Ascospores. Penicillin was used during (A) World war II (B) World war I (C) Both A and B (D) III war of Panipat. Mycorrhiza generally occurs in

349. 350.

351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356.

357. 358. 359.

360. 361. 362.

363. 364. 365.

(A) Alkaline soils (B) Acidic soils Zygospore of Mucor is (A) Haploid (C) Asexual spore Which pair belongs to basidiomycetes (A) Puffball and Claviceps (C) Morchella and Mushroom

(C) Oligotrophicsoils

(D) Eutrophic soils.

(B) Thick-wall resting spore (D) Spore that germinates to form zoospores. (B) Peziza and Stink Horn (D) Bird Nest Fungus and Puffball.

Leaf spot disease of Arachis hypogea is caused by (A) Fusarium (B) Allernaria (C) Cercospora (D) Helminthosporium. Soft rot disease of Sweet Potato is due to (A) Rhizopus stolon (B) Chiamydomonas nivalis (C) Rhizopus sexualis (D) Chlamydomona coccifera A fungus which grows on a host but can also subsist on organic matter is (A) Obligate parasite (B) Obligate saprophyte (C) Facultative saprophyte (D) Facultative parasite A phosphate solubilising symbiotic associ ation is (A) Rhizobium (B) Mycorrhiza (C) Azolla (D) Pseudomonas. Edible part of Mushroom is (A) Monokaryotic hyphae (B) Mycelium (C) Reproductive phase (D) Assimilative phase Which is not true for fungi imperfecti? (A) They do not have sexual phase (B) They include toad stools, puff balls and stink horns (C) They do not include Aspergillus, the fungus used in making soya sauce (D) They include species that prey on nematodes Which is useful as biological control (A) Mucor mucedo (B) Trichoderma viridae (C) Penicillium notatum (D) Phytophthora parasitica. Gibberellin was first discovered from a (A) Fungus (B) Alga (C) Bacteria (D) Roots of higher plants. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), both are wrong (D). Assertion. In fungi, sexual apparatus decreases in complexity from lower to higher forms. Reason. In algae, sexual apparatus increases in complexity from simple to higher forms. (A) (B) (C) (D) Early leaf spot disease of Arachis hypogea is caused due to infection of (A) Gibberella fujikori (B) Fhytophthora infestans (C) Cercospora personata (D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. Short twisted strands of hyphae which serve as anchors for lichens are (A) Rhizines (B) Rhizoids (C) Mycelium (D) Roots. Identify the scientists who worked extensively on chiorophyllous and nonchiorophyllous thallophytes respectively (a) Iyengar (b) Swaininathan (c) Mehta (d) Maheshwari (A) a,d (B) b,c (C) c,d (D) a, c Fungi differ from Slime Moulds in lacking (A) Ascospores (B) Flagellated spores (C) Basidiospores (D) Zygospores. Fungi are classified on the basis of (A) Morphology (B) Vegetative reproduction (C) Asexual reproduction (D) Sexual reproduction Bakane disease is due to

366. 367. 368. 369.

370. 371. 372.

373. 374. 375.

(A) Alga (B) Fungus (C) Virus Cladonia rangiferina is (A) Lichen (B) Alga (C) Fungus Decomposers are (A) Autotrophs (B) Heterotropbs (C) Organotrophs Cellulose is major component of cell wall of (A) Pseudomonas (B) Saccharomyces (C) Pythium

(D) Bacterium (D) Angiosperm. (D) Autoheterotrophs. (D) Xanthomonas.

Sexual reproduction in fungi can occur by means of (A) Sporangiospore, oospore and ascospore (B) Zoospore, oospore and ascospore (C) Sporangiosporef ascospore aii basidiospore (D) Oospore, ascospore and basidiospore Athlete’s foot disease in humans is caused by (A) Bacterium (B) Virus (C) Fungus (D) Worm. Which one has haplontic life cycle? (A) Wheat (B) Funaria (C) Polytri chum (D) Ustilago. Choose the wrong pair (A) Root knot of vegetables —Meloidogyne species (B) Late blight of Potato —Alternaria solani (C) Black rust of Wheat —Puccinia graminis (D) Loose smut of Wheat— Ustilago nuda. Main component of fungal cell wall is (A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (C) Pectin (D) Dextrin. As compared to meat, mushroom is richer is (A) Minerals (B) Protein (C) Fat (D) Carbohydrate. In mushroon cultivation, spawn is (A) Compost (B) Button stage (C) Vegetative mycelium (D) Harvested mushroom.

506) B

507) B

508) C

ANSWER – KEY 509) B 510) C 511) C 512) A

516) 526) 536) 546) 556) 566) 576) 586) 596) 606) 616) 626) 636) 646) 656) 666)

517) 527) 537) 547) 557) 567) 577) 587) 597) 607) 617) 627) 637) 647) 657) 667)

518) 528) 538) 548) 558) 568) 578) 588) 598) 608) 618) 628) 638) 648) 658) 668)

519) 529) 539) 549) 559) 569) 579) 589) 599) 609) 619) 629) 639) 649) 659) 669)

B C B D D A B D D B A B D B C A

D C A C D A C A B B C A C B B C

D C A D B C B C A B B B B C A A

A D C A D B A D B D B C A B A B

520) 530) 540) 550) 560) 570) 580) 590) 600) 610) 620) 630) 640) 650) 660) 670)

D C C C D A D D B A D C A C C C

521) 531) 541) 551) 561) 571) 581) 591) 601) 611) 621) 631) 641) 651) 661) 671)

A D A A D A B D D A B A B D D B

522) 532) 542) 552) 562) 572) 582) 592) 602) 612) 622) 632) 642) 652) 662) 672)

C D A C A B B C A C B A B B B C

513) C

514) D 515) C

523) 533) 543) 553) 563) 573) 583) 593) 603) 613) 623) 633) 643) 653) 663) 673)

524) 534) 544) 554) 564) 574) 584) 594) 604) 614) 624) 634) 644) 654) 664) 674)

C B A A A B C D D A A B A A B A

B C B C C A D A D B B A C D A D

525) 535) 545) 555) 565) 575) 585) 595) 605) 615) 625) 635) 645) 655) 665) 675)

A A D B A C D D A C D B D B A D

676) 686) 696) 706) 716) 726) 736) 746) 756) 766) 776) 786) 796) 806) 816) 826) 836) 846) 856) 866) 876)

D D A C B A A B C C C A B C B A B D C A D

677) 687) 697) 707) 717) 727) 737) 747) 757) 767) 777) 787) 797) 807) 817) 827) 837) 847) 857) 867) 877)

C A A C A C B A B B A B C D D B C B A D B

678) 688) 698) 708) 718) 728) 738) 748) 758) 768) 778) 788) 798) 808) 818) 828) 838) 848) 858) 868) 878)

D B C D D B C A A C B B D B C B C B C B B

679) 689) 699) 709) 719) 729) 739) 749) 759) 769) 779) 789) 799) 809) 819) 829) 839) 849) 859) 869) 879)

D C D A A A A C C D C D B A A D A B B D A

680) 690) 700) 710) 720) 730) 740) 750) 760) 770) 780) 790) 800) 810) 820) 830) 840) 850) 860) 870) 880)

D D A B B D C D D D A C B C B B D C C B C

681) 691) 701) 711) 721) 731) 741) 751) 761) 771) 781) 791) 801) 811) 821) 831) 841) 851) 861) 871)

A C B B D D C B D B C C A D A D A D B A

682) 692) 702) 712) 722) 732) 742) 752) 762) 772) 782) 792) 802) 812) 822) 832) 842) 852) 862) 872)

D D B D D B A D B A A B D B B C B A D C

683) 693) 703) 713) 723) 733) 743) 753) 763) 773) 783) 793) 803) 813) 823) 833) 843) 853) 863) 873)

A B C A C C D A C D D C B A C D C C A C

684) 694) 704) 714) 724) 734) 744) 754) 764) 774) 784) 794) 804) 814) 824) 834) 844) 854) 864) 874)

C C D C C B D A A B A C C C B A D B B D

685) 695) 705) 715) 725) 735) 745) 755) 765) 775) 785) 795) 805) 815) 825) 835) 845) 855) 865) 875)

Kingdom Plantae or Metaphyte 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

Unicellular green alga is (A) Ulothrix (B) Spirogyra (C) Chiamydomonas (D) All the above. The colour of red snow is due to (A) Chiamydomonas snowiae (B) Chiamydornonas nivalis (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Pyrenoids store food as (A) Glycogen (B) Fats (C) Oil globules (D) Starch. Thin-walled resting spores produced by Chlanzydomonas in dry conditions of environment are (A) Meiospores (B) Aplanospores (C) Hypnospores (D) Zygospores. A motile flagellate asexual spore is known as (A) Zoospore (B) Zygospore (C) Tetraspore (D) Zygote. During zoospore formation Chiamydomonas (A) Develops a very thick wall (B) Loses the chloroplast (C) Loses flagella (D) All the above. During favourable conditions, the most common mode of multiplication in Chiamy domonas is by producing (A) Gametes (B) Zoospores (C) Aplanospores (D) Hypnospores. The gametangia and sporangia of Ulothrix are (A) Jacketed and multicellular (B) Non-jacketed and unicellular (C) Non-jacketed and multicellular (D) Jacketed and unicellular. An important difference between the zoospores and aplanospores is that (A) Aplanospores are uninucleate while zoospores are binucleate (B) Aplanospores are smaller while zoospores are larger

B D D A B B A B A A C A D C C B C D C C

10. 11.

12. 13. 14.

15.

16. 17.

18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

(C) Aplanospores are non-motile while zoospores are motile (D) None of the above. Phycobilins absorb light of wavelength (A) 670-700 nm (B) 610-650 nm (C) 500-650 nm Irish Moss is (A) Chondius (B) Biyum (C) Sphagnum

(D) 420-520 nm. (D) Cladonia.

A Chiamydomonas plant is left exposed mud. What would be its means of survival (A) Formation of aplanospores (B) Palmella stage (C) Formation of hypnospores (D) All the above: Chiamydomonas shows (A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy (C) Oogamy (D) All the above. In isogamous species, the gametes a Chiamydomonas undergo temperature clustering before they depart in pairs. The phenomenon is called (A) Gametic differentiation (B) Clumping (C) Homothallism (D) Parthenogenesis. In Chlainydomonas the term hologamy applied to a mode of sexual reproduction which (A) Gametes are mot (B) Gametes are holozoic (C) The young unicellular thaili direct behave as gametes (D) The gametes are differentiated into male and female. Oogamy is found in (A) Chiamydomonas eugametos (B) C. monoica (C) C. coccifera (D) Both A and B. Palmellaspores are produced during (A) Favourable conditions (B) Any type of unfavourable conditions (C) Deficiency of water or presence of toxic chemicals (D) None of the above. Chloroplast of Chiamydomonas is (A) Cup shaped (B) Star shaped (C) Ribbon shaped (D) Lamellate. Life cycle in Chlamydomonas/Ulothrix/Spirogya is (A) Diplontic (B) Diplohaplontic (C) Haplontic (D) None of the above Red eye spot of certain grcen aLgae or their propagules is meant for (A) Photosynthesis (B) Photosensitivity (C) Visibility (D) Respiration. In addition to reproduction, zygospore also helps in (A) Perennation (B) Dispersal (C) Genetic variability (D) All the above. Spirogyra filaments increase in length due to division in (A) Basal cells (B) Rhizoidal cell (C) Every green cell (D) Apical cell. Meiosis takes place in Ch1w in (A) Zygospore (B) Zoospore (C) Hypnospores (D) Aplanospores. Spirogyra is found in (A) Running fresh water (B) Stagnant salt water (C) Stagnant fresh water (D) None of the above. Spirogyra is called pond silk because (A) Filaments are made up of silk (B) Filaments are slippery to touch (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Spirogyra has chioroplast with shape (A) Ribbon-like and spiral (B) Cup shaped (C) Stellate (D) Spiral. Maximum number of chloroplasts in a single cell of Spirogyra is

28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.

34. 35.

36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

42.

43. 44.

(A) Four (B) Sixteen (C) One (D) Six. Spirogyra belongs to the class (A) Rhodophyceac (B) Cyanophyceae (C) Xanthophyceae (D) Chlorophyccae. A parasitic green alga is (A) Chiorella (B) Ulva (D) Cephaleuros (C) Cladophora The cell of Spirogyra differs from that of Chiarnydomonas in (A) Presence of cellulose cell wall (B) Presence of central vacuole (C) Both A and B (D) Presence of chioroplasts. Red rust of Tea is caused by (A) Puccinia (B) Ustilago (C) Cephaleuros (D) Harveyella. The nucleus of Spfrogyra cell lies (A) Suspended in central vacuole (B) Embedded in cytoplasm (C) Just near the cell membrane (P) In contact with the chioroplast. The fusing gametes of Spirogyra are (A) Morphologically similar and physiologically dissimilar (B) Morphologically as well as physiologic ally similar (C) Morphologically dissimilar but physiologically similar (D) Morphologically as well as physiologic ally dissimilar. All algae have two photosynthetic pigments in common (A) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b (B) Chlorophyll b and carotenes (C) Chlorophyll a and carotenes (D) Phycobilins and carotenes. Scalariform conjugation of Spirogyra occurs in (A) Monoecious species (B) Dioecious species (C) Usually in dioecious species and some times in monoecious (D) Equally frequent in monoecious and dioecious species. Mode of sexual reproduction in Spimgyra is (A) Isogamous (B) Anisogamous (C) Heterogamous (D) Oogamous. Fusion between dissimilar gametes is (A) Autogamy (B) Isogamy (C) Allogamy (D) Dichogamy. In scalariform conjugation of Spirogyra the fusing gametes are derived from (A) Same filament (B) Two different filaments (C) Both A and B (D) Only one filament is involved in the process. In brown algae, the motile stages have flagella inserted (A) Anteriorly (B) Laterally (C) Posteriorly (D) Both A and B. The male gamete in Spirogyra is (A) Motile but aflagellate (B) Motile and flagellate (C) Nonmotile and flagellate (D) Multinucleate. Which of the following is not correct about Spiro gyra (A) Each cell of the filament is vegetative as well as reproductive (B) It is a gametophyte (C) The zoospores are produced during asexual reproduction (D) Sexual reproduction is physiological anisogamous. The zygospore of Spirogyra produces (A) Four meiospores (B) A single filament (C) Four filaments (D) A large number of spores each of which produces a filament. The most common mode of reproduction in Spirogyra is (A) Conjugation (B) Aplanospore formation (C) Fragmentation (D) All the above. An edible rhodophyte is

45. 46.

47. 48. 49. 50. 51.

52. 53.

54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60

61.

(A) Polysiphonia (B) Batrachosper,num (C) Porphyra (D) Coraiina. Meiosis in Spirogyra occurs at the time of (A) Zoospore formation (B) Gamete formation (C) Akinete formation (D) Germination of zygospore. Which one is not connected with spore dispersal in Funaria (A) Foot (B) Annulus (C) Seta (D) Peristome Which one is a kelp (A) Batrachospermum (B) Ulothrir (C) Macrocystis (D) Dictyota. Main plant of Funaria belongs to phase (A) Polypoid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Haploid. Sporogonium of Funaria is dependent on gametophyte (A) Fully (B) For food only (C) Partially for water and minerals (D) None of the above. The moss plants are characterised by (A) Presence of stem and leaves (B) Absence of vascular tissue (C) A filamentous juvenile gametophyte (D) All the above. The ‘stem’ and ‘leaves’ in Funaria are not, real because (A) They are a part of gametophytic generation (B) They lack xylem and phloem (C) Both A and B (D) Neither of the two. Knobbed paraphyses are found with (A) Archegonia of Funaria (B) Antheridia of Funaria (C) Antheridia as well as archegonia (D) Neither of them. The juvenile stage of the gametophyte of moss is (A) Green, filamentous and structure called protonema (B) A tetraflagellate body (C) Dorsoventrally flattened plate like body (D) A colourless mass of tubular structures, The largest alga is (A) Lwninaria (B) Macrocystis (C) Nereocystis (D) Sargassum. First land inhabitating plants are (A) Pteridophytes (B) Bryophytes (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms. The only positive evidence to aquatic ancestry of Bryophytes is (A) Their green colour (B) Thread like protonema (C) Ciliated sperms (D) Some forms are still aquatic. Antherozoids of moss are (A) Short, curved and bidiliate (B) Rod shaped, bidiliate (C) Short and multiciliate (D) Long and multiciliate. A tree Fern is (A) Adiantum (B) Diyoptens (C) Asplenium (D) Cyathaea. In which of the following plants gametophytic phase is dominant? (A) Fern (B) Moss (C) Angiosperm (D) Cycas. The stem and leaves of Funaria are (A) Analogous to those of angiosperms (B) Homologous to those of angiosperms (C) Not comparable to those of angiosperms in any way (D) None of the above. Life cycle of Funaria is not completed without water. Choose the correct statement

62.

63.

64. 65. 66. 67.

68. 69. 70.

71. 72.

73. 74. 75. 76. 77.

(A) As fertilization takes place in the presence of water only (B) As Funaria is hydrophyte (C) As plant is delicate and will dry without water (D) As branches will not develop. The product of fertilization in Funaria/Selaginella/ Fern is called (A) Zygote (B) Zygospore (C) Oospore

(D) Oosphere.

Which of the following is not true about Funaria? (A) It grows on damp soil (B) The plant body is a foliaceous gainetophyte (C) The sporophyte is independent of the gametophyte (D) Asexual reproduction occurs through the meiospores. In which among the following plants archegonium is present? (A) Spirogyra (B) Funaria (C) Rhizopus (D) Brassica. The main body of a bryophytic plant is always (A) Gametophyte (B) Lichen like (C) Sporophyte (D) Hormogonium. Red algae are similar to blue-green algae in possession of (A) Gas vacuoles (B) Filainentous body (C) Cell wall components (D) Porphyrins. Sporophyte of Funwia (A) Is autotrophic (B) Is saprophyte (C) Grows as semiparasite on the gametophyte (D) Is a total parasite on gametophyte. The sporophyte of Funaria is termed (A) Sporangium (B) Sporogonium (C) Sporozoite (D) None of these. A rhodophyte found in fresh water and without red colouration is (A) Polysiphonia (B) Gelidium (C) Batrachospermum (D) Porphyra. The sporogonium of Funaria grows (A) On soil (B) On gametophyte but later becomes free (C) At the apex of female shoot of the gametophyte (D) At the apex of male shoot. The portion of the sporogonium of Funaria which anchors it into the gametophyte and absorbs food is (A) Foot (B) Seta (C) Operculum (D) Apophysis. In Funaria rhizoids are (A) Unicellular (B) Multicellular unbranched with transverse septa (C) Multicellular branched with oblique septa (D) Unicellular multinucleate. Archegonium of Funaria has neck canal cells (A) 4 (B) 6 10 (C) 2 (D) One binucleate. Vascular cryptogams are (A) Bryophytes (B) Spermatophytes (C) Pteridophytes (D) None of the above Heterospory is found in (A) Funaria (B) Diyopteris (C) Marchantia (D) Selaginella. A part of North Atlantic ocean is covered by free floating brown alga. It is (A) Dictyota (B) Alaria (C) Ectocarpus (D) Sargassum. Prothallus represents the (A) Gametophytic phase in Pteridophytes (B) Sporophytic phase of Pteridophytes (C) Sporophytic phase in Gymnosperms (D) Sporophytic phase in Angiosperms.

78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89.

A living fossil is (A) Pinus (B) Ephedra (C) Cedms (D) Cycas The developing embryo in Selaginella derives its food from (A) The sporophyte (B) The female prothallus (C) The male prothallus (D) None of these. The life cycle of Selaginella/Fern/Moss is (A) Diplontic (B) Haplo-diplontic (C) Haplontic (D) Diplo-haplontic. Sporangia bearing leaves in Pteridophytes are called (A) Ramenta (B) Son (C) Sporophylls (D) Indusium The sperms of Selaginella reach archegonia under chemotaxis of (A) Proteins (B) Sugars (C) Lactic acid (D) Malic acid. Sieved septa occur in (A) Bryophytes (B) Red algae (C) Some complex green algae (D) Some large brown algae. A gymnosperm having vessels is (A) Cedrus (B) Gnetum (C) Cycas (D) Pinus. The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Selaginella is (A) Two (B) Four (C) One (D) Eight to ten. Archegonium of Selaginella differs from that of Funaria in (A) Embedded venter (B) Absence of stalk (C) Short neck (D) All the above. The vegetative part of the malegametophyte of Selaginella is represented by (A) Prothallial cell (B) Androgonial cells (C) Jacket cells (D) All the above structures. Selaginella/FernfPteridophyte differs from moss in (A) An independent gametophyte (B) An independent sporophyte (C) Sporophytic phase in Gymnosperms (D) Sporophytic phase in Angiosperms. A living fossil is (A) Pinus (B) Ephedra (C) Cedms (D) Cycas The developing embryo in Selaginella derives its food from (A) The sporophyte (B) The female prothallus (C) The male prothallus (D) None of these. The life cycle of Selaginella/Fern/Moss is (A) Diplontic (B) Haplo-diplontic (C) Haplontic (D) Diplo-haplontic. Sporangia bearing leaves in Pteridophytes are called (A) Ramenta (B) Son (C) Sporophylls (D) Indusium The sperms of Selaginella reach archegonia under chemotaxis of (A) Proteins (B) Sugars (C) Lactic acid (D) Malic acid. Sieved septa occur in (A) Bryophytes (B) Red algae (C) Some complex green algae (D) Some large brown algae. A gymnosperm having vessels is (A) Cedrus (B) Gnetum (C) Cycas (D) Pinus. The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Selaginella is (A) Two (B) Four (C) One (D) Eight to ten. Archegonium of Selaginella differs from that of Funaria in (A) Embedded venter (B) Absence of stalk (C) Short neck (D) All the above. The vegetative part of the malegametophyte of Selaginella is represented by (A) Prothallial cell (B) Androgonial cells (C) Jacket cells (D) All the above structures. Selaginella/FernfPteridophyte differs from moss in (A) An independent gametophyte (B) An independent sporophyte (C) Swimming antherozoids (D) Archegonia. Male gametophyte of Selaginella is formed

90. 91. 92.

93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108.

(A) Outside the microspore (B) Within the microspore (C) Partly outside the microspore (D) Partly within the microspore. In Pteridophytes, the venter is (A) Enclosed by a jacket (B) Attached to a stalk below (C) Embedded in the body of the prothallus (D) Projecting oi of the prothallus. The megaspor of Selaginella on germination produces (A) Female gametes (B) Female gametangia (C) Female prothallus (D) Male prothallus. The neck of the archegonium in Selaginella is made of (A) Four rows of cells with several cells in each row (B) Two tiers of four cells each (C) Four tiers of two cells each (D) Six rows of cells. Brown colouration of Phaeophyceae is due to excess (A) Fucoxanthin (B) Zeaxanthin (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Lycopene. In Riccia the sporogonium is (A) Embedded (B) Projecting but sessile (C) Shortly stalked and projecting (D) Lateral. Sex organs of Riccia are (A) Projecting (B) Embedded (C) Occur in receptacles (D) Borne laterally. Sporogonium of Riccia is made of (A) Foot and capsule (B) Foot, seta and capsule (C) Capsule only (D) Seta and capsule. Instead of elaters, the sporogonium of Riccia contains (A) Nurse cells (B) Pseudoelaters (C) Photosynthetic cells (D) Columella. Which of the following is a ‘bog moss’/peat moss? (A) Biyum (B) Poiytrichum (C) Sphagnum (D) Taxithelium. Sphagnum is also called ‘Peat Moss’ because it (A) Occurs in peat (B) Grows in acidic marshes (C) Decays to form peat (D) Quickens fossilisation. Naked seeds are present in (A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms (C) Spermatophyta (D) None of the above. Pollination in Cedrus/Pinus/Cycas is (A) Hydrophilous (B) Ornithophilous (C) Zoophilous (D) Anemophilous. In Cycas, stamens are represented by (A) Microsporangial son (B) Microsporangia (C) Microsporophylls (D) Male cones. Xylem in Gymnosperms lacks (A) Tracheids (B) Xylem parenchyma (C) Xylem fibres (D) Vessels. The gametophytic generation present in the Pinus seed is represented by (A) Perisperm (B) Testa (C) Embryo (D) Endosperm. A gymnosperm grown for its appearance is (A) Pinus (B) Picea (C) Araucaria (D) Cedius. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from (A) Testa (B) Testa and tegmen (C) Surface of ovuliferous scale (D) All the above. What is characteristic of gyninosperms (A) Triploid endosperm (B) Absence of annual habit (C) Occurrence of minute flowers (D) Absence of strobili. Fertilisation in Pinus occurs during

109. 110.

111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128.

(A) First year of female cone (B) About an year after pollination (C) A few daysbefore the seed formation (D) Just at the time of pollination. The structure which replaces the nucellus in Pinus ovule is (A) Embryo (B) Endosperm (C) Perisperm (D) None of the above. The endosperm of Pinus is produced from (A) Megaspore (B) Pollen grain (C) Oospore (D) Archegonium. The ovules of Pinus are present on (A) Upper surface of ovuliferous scale (B) Lower surface of ovuliferous scale (C) Bract scale (D) Ovuliferous as well as bract scales. The diploid parenchymatous mass of cells which constitutes the body of the young ovule of Pinus is called (A) Endosperm (B) Perispenm (C) Nucellus (D) Nucellar beak. The female gametophyte of Pinus differs from that of the angiosperm in having (A) Oosphere (B) Archegonia (C) Developed from megaspore (D) None of the above. A thallus refeis to plant body having (A) Vascular system (B) Stem and leaves but no roots (C) Root and stem but no leaves (D) No distinction of stem, leaves and roots. Example of the plant which bears seed but not fruit is (A) Mango (B) Selaginella (C) Pinus (D) Wheat. Green algae belong to phylum (A) Charophyta (B) Phaeophyta (C) Chlorophyta (D) Chrysophyta. Endosperm of Pinüs represents (A) Female gametophyte (B) Male gametophyte (C) Megasporangium (D) Microsporangium. Majority of the green algae occur in (A) Deep sea (B) Fresh water (C) Hot springs (D) Coastal waters. Diploxylic vascular bundles are found in (A) Cycas (B) Selaginella (C) Diyopteris (D) Funaria. Ovule is called (A) Megasporangium (B) Microsporangium (C) Integumented microsporangium (D) Integumented megasporangium. The species of Pinus, seeds of which are edible is/chilgoza comes from (A) P. roxbuighii (B) P. gerardiana (C) P. monophylla (D) P. sylvestris Endosperm of Pinus is comparable to which structure of angiosperms (A) Endosperm (B) Nucellus (C) Embryo sac (D) None. Number of generations present in Pinus seed are (A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Three. Pinus/Cedius differs from angiospermic plants in the absence of (A) Flowers (B) Fruits (C) Enclosed seeds (D) All the above. Transfusion tissue, a modified vascular tissue is found in leaves of (A) D,yopteris and Selaginella (B) Pinus and Cycas (C) Porella and Funaria (D) Dalbergia and Mangifera In addition to chlorophyll a, brown algae possess (A) Chlorophyll b (B) Chlorophyll c (C) Chlorophyll d (D) Chlorophyll e. Sea Weeds include (A) Chlorophyceae and Charophyceae (B) Baciilariophyceae and Phaeophyceae (C) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae (D) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae. Red algae differs from green and brown algae in (A) Absence of chlorophyll a (B) Undifferentiated cells

129.

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140. 141. .142.

143. 144.

.145. 146.

(C) Not having any flagellate stage (D) All the above. Chiamydomonas differs from Spirogyra and Ulothi in having (A) Glycoprotein instead of cellulose in cell wall (B) Neither chlorophyll a nor chlorophyll b (C) Nocellwall (D) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll d. In green algae, the group having dead evolutionary end is (A) Tetrasporine line (B) Volvocine line (C) Chlorococcine line (D) Both B and C. The carrying of male gametes near female gametes by pollen tube is called (A) Porogamy (B) Chalazogamy (C) Siphonogamy (D) Mesogamy. Bryophytes absorb most of their water through (A) Rhizoids (B) Roots (C) Mycorrhizae (D) Above-ground structures. Bryophytes live in habitats that are (A) Saline (B) Dry (C) Moist (D) Exposed. In bryophytes, embryo/sporophyte develops inside (A) Antheridium (B) Sporangium (C) Archegonium (D) Sporogomum. Female gametophyte of Pinus/Cednss differs from that of angiosperm in (A) Being triploid (B) Little growth (C) Possession of archegonia (D) Being enclosed in fruit. Moss is attached to the substratum by means of (A) Hold fasts (B) Rhizoids (C) Rhizoidal hyphae (D) Rhizines. Siphonogamy occurs in (A) Gymnosperms (B) Monocots (C) Dicots (D) All the above. Bryophytes seldom reach a height of more than 20 cm because they (A) Lack vascular system (B) Lack roots (C) Lack mechanical tissues (D) All the abt*e. Tracheophyta has a sporophyte characterised by (A) Root, stem and leaves (B) Independent sporophyte (C) Vascular tissue for transport of substances (D) Independent gametophyte. Sporangia of conifers are located in/on (A) Axils of leaves (B) Axils of branches (C) Dwarf shoots (D) Scales of the cones. In angiosperms, the endosperm is (A) Persistent female gametophyte (B) Formed after fertilization (C) Formed before fertilization (D) Short lived. In a gymnosperm, the endosperm (A) Develops without fertilization (B) Forms after fertilization but does not require triple fusion (C) Is diploid (D) Is short-lived. Calyptra around the sporophyte of a bryophyte is derived from (A) Columella (B) Antheridiuin (C) Archegonluin (D) Capsule. The ganietophyte in the life cycle of a fern is (A) Independent and autotrophic (B) Inconspicuous and nutritionally dependent on parent (C) Differentiated into male and female (D) Both B and C. Green alga which can be used as an article of food due to its very high nutrient value is (A) Chiamydomonas (B) Chiorella (C) Ulothrix (D) Volvox. Rolling alga is

147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159.

160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167.

(A) Volvox (B) Chiamydomonas (C) Chlórella (D) Spiro gyra. Coenobium occurs in (A) Spiro gyra (B) Ulothrix (C) Volvox (D) Chiorella. After liberation of daughter colonies, the parent colony of Volvox (A) Undergoes sexual reproduction (B) Forms a new set of daughter colonies (C) Undergoes fission (D) Disintegrates. In which of the following sexual reproduction is unknown? (A) Chiorella (B) Spirogyra (C) Chiamydomonas (D) Ulva. Alga that is useful for prolonged space flight for liberation of oxygen, consumption of CO2 disposal of wastes and formation of food is (A) Ulva (B) Cau1e (C) çhlorella (D) Chiamydomonas. A daughter colony is formed in Volvox by (A) Fission (B) Gonidium (C) Budding (D) All the above. Reproduction by autospores occurs in (A) Volvox (B) Ulva (C) pirogyra (D) Chiorella. Lammaria is a (A) Green alga (B) Brown alga (C) 1 alga (D) Fungus. Food reserve of Laminaria is (A) Starch (B) Fat (C) Mannitol (D) Glycogen. Trumpet hyphae occur in (A) Pungi (B) Red algae (C) Green algae (D) Brown algae. Laminana is (A) kelp (B) Liverwort (C) Hornwort (D) Aquatic horsetail. Kombu, an article (A) Gelidium (B) Laminaria (C) Viva (D) Polysiphonia. Teträsporophyte (A) Laminaria (B) ulva (C) Gelidium (D) Sargassum. Carpogonium is (A) Female gametophyte (B) Female sex organ (C) Pructification formed over female sex organ (D) All the above. Thallus of Anthoceros is (A) Dichotmously branched (B) Irregularly branched (C) Unbranched (D) Foliaceous Sex organs of Anthoceros are (A) Terminal (B) orne over dorsal surface of thallus (C) Embedded (D) Formed over gametophores. A common hornwort is (A) Anthoceros (B) Funaria (C) Marchantia (D) Riccia. Slime pores occur ventrally in (A) Marchantia (B) Riccia (C) Sphagnum (D) Anthoceros. A bryophyte harbouring Nostoc colonies is (A) Zoopis (B) Anthoceros (C) Dawsonia (D) Marchantia. What is characteristic of sporophyte of Anthoceros? (A) Presence of mechanical tissue (B) Photosynthesis (C) Meristematic zone (D) Foot. In Lycopodium the leaves are (A) Eligulate (B) Ligulate (C) Megaphyllous (D) Both B and C. Lycopodium is (A) Heterosporous (B) Homosporous (C) Water Fern (D) Both B and C.

168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177.

178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185.

Protocorm stage occurs in (A) Young gametophyte of Lycopodium (C) Young sporophyte of Selaginella Jointed green stem occurs in (A) Lycopodium (B) Selaginella Sporangiophores of Equisetum are (A) Peltate (B) Whorled

(B) Young gametophyte of Selaginella (D) Young sporophyte of Lycopodium. (C) Equisetum

(D) Pteridium.

(C) Stalked

(D) All the above.

Spores possess elaters in (A) Marchantia (B) Equisetum (C) Anthoceros (D) Ptendium. Scouring rushes are name of Equisetum plants because they possess (A) Narrow jointed stems (B) Scaly leaves (C) Ribbed stems (D) Silica deposition. Vascular bundles of Equisetum possess (A) Exarch xylem (B) Vallecular canals (C) Carinal canals (D) Radial strands of xylem. Bentham and Hooker proposed their system of classification in (A) Genera Plantarum (B) Species Plantarum (C) Historia Plantarum (D) Historia Naturae Which class has been placed in betweenl dicotyledons and monocotyledons by Bentham and Hooker (A) Leptosprongiatae (B) Eusporangiatae (C) Gymnospermae (D) Hepaticopsida. Which one is a subclass of dicotyledons in Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification (A) Polypetalae (B). Gamopetalae (C) Monochlamydeae (D) All the above. Characteristic of series thalainiflorae is (A) Absence of disc below ovary (B) Presence of nectariferous disc below Ovary (C) Presence of non-nectariferous disc below ovary (D) Occurrence of gynophore. In Benthani and Hooker’s system of classification ranales are included under (A) Calyciflorae (B) Inferae (C) Disciflorae (D) Thalamiflorae. Perigynous or epigynous flowers with free petals occur in (A) Thalamiflorae (B) Disciflorae (C) Calyciflorae (D) Heteromerae. Family fabaceae is included under series (A) Calyciflorae (B) Thalamiflorae (C) Disciflorae (D) Microsperniae. Family asteraceae belongs to series inferae of (A) Gamopetalae (B) Polypetalae (C) Monochlamydeae (D) Monocotyledons. Solanaceae is a member of series (A) Heteromerae (B) Disciflorae (C) Daphnales (D) Bicarpeliatae. Number of series distinguished by Bentham and Hooker is subclass monochlamydeae is (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 8. Family poaceae is member of series (A) Nudiflorae (B) Glumaceae (C) Epigynae (D) Microspermae. Which family is included under coronariae (A) Amaryllidaceae (B) Arecaçeae (C) Liliaceae (D) Typhaceae.

Revision Questions 186.

Sexual reproduction of Spirogyra is (A) Morphological isogamy but physiologically anisogamy (B) Miirphological anisogamy but physiological isogamy (C) Both morphological as well as physiological isogamy (D) Both morphological and physiological anisogamy

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Basal cell of Ulothrix is (A) Extra green (B) Colourless (C) Full of reserve food (D) Without a nucleus. The storage product of rhodophyceae is (A) Glycogen (B) Chrysolaininarm (C) Starch (D) Floridean starch. A plant in which sporophytic generation is represented by zygote only (A) Pinus (B) Selaginella (C) Chlamydomonas/Ulothrir (D) Dryopteris Eye spot is found in the plant body of (A) Ulothrix (B) Ulva (C) Chiamydomonas (D) Spirogyra. Phycoerythrin is found in (A) Fucus (B) Sargassum (C) Oedogonium (D) Polysiphonia. The product of conjugation in Spirogyra or fertilization of Chiamydomonas is (A) Zygospore (B) Zoospore (C) Oospore (D) Carpospore. The common mode of sexual reproduction in Chiwnydomonas is (A) Isogamous (B) Anisogamous (C) Oogamous (D) Hologanious. Algae showing scalariform conjugation is (A) Oedogonium (B) Spirogyra (C) Chiamydomonas (D) Ulothrix. Trumpet hyphae of certain Brown Algae are similar to (A) Tracheae (B) Tracheids (C) Sieve tubes (D) Companion cells. Spirogyra differs from moss protonema in possessing (A) Branches (B) Discoid chloroplasts (C) Rhizoidal branches (D) Pyrenoids A red alga devoid of red colour is (A) Chondrus (B) Batrachospermum (C) Gelidium (D) Porphyra. A chlorophyll found in phaeophyceae and bacillariophyceae but absent in rhodophyceae is (A) Chlorophyll c (B) Chlorophyll d (C) Chlorophyll b (D) Chlorophyll a. Science of algae is (A) Phycology (B) Mycology (C) Oceanology (D) Microbiology. Female sex organ of rhodophyceae is called (A) Trichogyne (B) Ascogonium (C) Carpogonium (D) Oogomum. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two cells in Chiamydomaru is (A) Isogamy (B) Homogamy (C) Somatogamy (D) Hologamy. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of (A) Riccia (B) Funwia/Moss (C) Dryopteris (D) Spirogyra. Plant body of Riccia is (A) Sporophyte (B) Gametophyte (C) Aquatic (D) Saprophyte. On germination a moss spore produces (A) Protonema (B) Leafy gametophyte (C) Sporogoniuna (D) Sporophyte. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds (A) Pteridophyta (B) Rhodophyta (C) Bryophyta (D) Phaeophyta. Which one of the following is not common between Funwia and Selaginella (A) Archegoniuni (B) Embryo (C) Flagellate sperms (D) Roots In Riccia/Marchwztja the rhizoids are (A) Branched unicellular (B) Branched multicellular (C) Unbranched multicellular (D) Unbra’iched unicellular. Which one has the largest gametophyte (A) Cycas (B) Angiosperm (C) Selaginella (D) MosslPólytrichum. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is (A) Lower part (B) Upper part (C) Middle part (D) Fertile part In bryophytes/Funaria the sperms are (A) Quadriflagellate (B) Biflagellate and bent

(C) Biflagellate and spirally coiled (D) Nonflagellate. 21:1. The structure that ruptures for dehiscence in moss capsule is (A) Operculum (B) Annulus (C) Peristome (D) Calyptra 212. Bryophytes are amphibians because (A) They require a layer of water for carrying out sexual reproduction / (B) They occur in places (C) They are mostly aquatic (D) All the above. 213. The gainetophyte of Funaria is (A) Dioecious and autoicous (B) Monoecious and autoicous (C) Monoecious and heteroicous (D) Dioccious and heteroicous. 214. Moss peristome takes part in (A) Spore dispersal (B) Photosynthesis (C) Protection (D) Absorption. 215. Kidney-shaped soral covering of Diyoptening (A) Ramentum (B) Placenta (C) Indusium (D) Sporophyll. 216. Afern differs from a moss in possessing (A) Swimming/flagellate antherozoids (B) Flask-shaped archegonia (C) Independent sporophyte (D) Independent gametophyte. 217. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes ii possessing (A) Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte (B) Independent gametophyte and1 sporophyte (C) Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte (D) No sporophyte 218. Heterospory and ligulate leaves occur in (A) Selaginella (B) Ferns (C) Mosses (D) Liverworts. 219. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in possessing (A) Independent gametophyte (B) Well developed vascular system (C) Archegonia (D) Flagellate spermatozoids. 220. In D,yopteris, the antherozoids are (A) Biflagellate sickle-shaped (B) Multiflagellate sickle-shaped (C) Multiflagellate spirally coiled (D) Biflagellate spirally coiled 221. Spore of a fern belongs to (A) Sporophytic stage (B) Both sporophytic and gametophytic stages (C) Diplophase (D) Gametophytic stage 222. Azolla/Marsilea is a (A) Liverwort (B) Moss (C) Tree fern (D) Water fern 223. Evolutionary important Selaginetla is (A) Heterosporous nature (B) Rhizophore (C) Strobii (D) Ligule 224. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris/Diyoptens were released together near the archegonia of Pteris/Diyopteris. Only its sperms enter the archegonia as (A) Pteris/Diyopteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms (B) Funana/D sperms get killed by Pteris sperms (C) Funaria sperms are less mobile (D) Ptens/Diyopteris archegonia release chemical to attract its sperms. 225. Fern rhizome is (A) Root (B) Stem (C) Rhizophore (D) Rhizoid. 226. In Selaginella, the megasporophyll is comparable to a structure in angiosperms (A) Stamen (B) Leaf (C) Carpel (D) Ovule. 227. In ferns, fertilization does not involve (A) Pollen tube (B) Archegonia (C) Flagellate antherozoids (D) Water. 228. Young fern leaves are protected by

229.

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234. 235. 236.

237. 238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246.

(A) Indusium (B) Rhizome Neck canal cells in Di’yopteris/Fern are (A) One with two nuclei (C) One with one nucleus

(C) Ramenta

(D) Son

(B) Two (D) Four.

Pinus is a gymnosperm because it (A) Bears pollen grains (B) Is a large tree growing in colder areas (C) Lacks ovary but possesses exposed ovules (D) Possesses vascular tissues. Number of integuments present in the ovule of Pinus/Cycas is (A) Two (B) Three (C) One (D) Four. Gymnosperms do not bear fruits because they (A) Do not have ovary (B) Do not have pollination (C) Are seedless plants (D) Do not have the mechanism of fertilization. Gymnosperms do not have (A) Xylem vessels and sieve tubes (B) Tracheids and sieve tubes (C) Vessels, sieve tubes and companion cells (D) Tracheids and companion cells A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits belongs to (A) Pteridophytes (B) Mosses (C) Ferns (D) Gymnosperms. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms in (A) Seeds (B) Stelar system (C) Naked ovules (D) Sporophylls. In Pinus/gymnosperms, the haploid structures are (A) Megaspore, endosperm and embryo (B) Megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm (C) Megaspore, integument and root (D) Pollen grain, leaf and root. Which is not a characteristic feature of Cycas (A) Naked ovules (B) Circinate vernation (C) Vessels (D) Girdling leaf traces. Cycas has the largest (A) Ovule (B) Egg (C) Sperm (D) All the above Cycas is (A) Hermaphrodite (B) Dioecious (C) Monoecious (D) None of the above. Gymnosperms do not have (A) Antheridium (B) Ovule (C) Archegonium (D) Egg Coralloid roots occur in (A) Pinus (B) Ferns (C) Cycas (D) Mosses. Pinus has one of the following traits (A) There are no vascular strands (B) Seeds are borne in cones (C) It bears flowers (D) Seeds are borne inside fruits. Spermatozoid of Cycas is (A) Biflagellate (D) Nonflagellate (C) Uniflagellate (D) Multiflagellate. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in its endosperm (A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 6 (D) 24. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having (A) Vessels (B) Egg (C) Seed (D) Tracheids. Carrageenin, a jelly-like substance, is obtained from a marine alga called

247. 248. 249. 250. 251. 252. 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268.

(A) Irish Moss/Chondnss (B) Kelp (C) Sargassum (D) Fucus. Which is not characteristic of Spirogyra (A) Fragmentation (B) Isoganious conjugation (C) Pond scum formation (D) Zoospory Ulothrir occurs in (A) Running fresh water (B) Stagnant fresh water (C) Running salt water (D) Stagnant salt water Gulf Weed is (A) Chlanzydomonas (B) Fucus (C) Sargassum (D) Batrachospermum Main plant body of bryophytes is (A) Autoecious (B) Sporophytic (C) Gametophytic (D) Heteroecious. Plants having (spores), xylem and phloem but lacking seeds are (A) Bryophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) Angiosperms. In pteridophytes/Dryopteris meiosis occurs at the time of (A) Gamete formation (B) Spore formation (C) Formation of prothallus (D) Formation of sex organs Which one is absent in fern rhizome (A)Vessels (B) Sieve cells (C) Phloem parenchyma (D) Tracheids In a fern sporangium, the number of spores is (A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 128 (D) 16. Venation in fern is (A) Parallel (B) Reticulate (C) Closed dichotomous (D) Open furcate Placenta in Diyopteris is the place of attachment of (A) Ovules (B) Ramenta (C) Sporangia (D) Archegonia. In Diyopteris, the son are borne (A) Laterally (B) Abaxially (C) Adaxially (D) Marginally. Cycas revoluta is (A) Date Palm (B) Sea Palm (C) Royal Palm (D) Sago Palm. Wood of Cycas is (A) Monoxylic and manoxylic (B) Manoxylic and polyxylic (C) Diploxylic (D) Monoxylic. Amongst plants, the largest egg is found in (A) Pinus (B) Sequoia (C) Cycas (D) Drypoteris. Prothallja cells present in the male gametophyte of Pinus are (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four. Number of cotyledons in Pinus seed are (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Many. In Cycas, the ovules are attached to megasporophyll (A) Laterally (B) Dorsally (C) Ventrally (D) Apically. Membrane covering a sporangal cluster on fern leaf is (A) Indusium (B) Sorus (C) Perichaetium (D) Stomium. A group of sporangia developing from placenta and covered by indusium is (A) Ramenta (B) Sorus (C) Sporophyll (D) Cone. Meiosis is not involved in the gamete formation from (A) Fern sporangium (B) Promycelium (C) Protonema (D) Prothallus. The archegonial neck of Funada is made of vertical rows (A) Two (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six Palmella stage occurs in (A) Spirogyra (B) Ulothrix/Chlamydomonas (C) Aspergillus (D) Funaria.

269. 270. 271. 272.

273.

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In Spirogyra, out of four haploid nuclei formed during meiosis in zygospore (A) One survives (B) Two survive (C) Three survive (D) All the four survive. Agar-agar commonly used in bacterial cultures and medication is obtained from (A) Sargassum (B) Gelidium (C) Ulothrir (D) Ulva. Red colour of red algae is due to (A) Carotenes (B) Xanthophylls (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Phycocyanin. Cells of two different filaments are involved in conjugation of Spirogyra. The type of sexual reproduction is (A) Scalariform conjugation (B) Indirect lateral conjugation (C) Direct lateral conjugation (D) Terminal conjugation Algae are important. We should study them because (A) They are good experimental materials (B) They may become important constituent of future food for human beings (C) They can be easily grown in water tanks (D) They renew oxygen of atmosphere and water. Number of flagella present in the gametes of Ulothrix is (A) Four (B) Three (C) One (D) Two. Pigments common to all algae are (A) Chlorophyll a and phycobiins (B) Chlorophyll a and carotenoids (C) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b (D) Chlorophyll b and carotenoids. Replicate septum of Spirogyra possesses (A) Ring like outgrowth (B) Peg like protuberance (C) Perforation (D) H-shaped piece. Thin nonciliate asexual spores are (A) Akinetes (B) Hypnospores (C) Hormogonia (D) Aplanospores Chlorellin is obtained from genus (A) Chiamydomonas (B) Chlorella (C) Chondnts (D) Batrachospermum. Accessory photosynthetic pigments of Algae are (A) Fucoxanthin (B) Phycocyanin (C) Phycoerythrin (D) All the above. Nonflagellate amoeboid gametes of Spirogyra are (A) Zoogametes (B) Aplanogametes (C) Planogametes (D) Zoidiogametes. Bryophytes have great (A) Ecological importance (B) Economic importance (C) Aesthetic value (D) Medicinal value. Pith is absent in (A) Siphonstele (B) Solenostele (C) Protostele (D) Dictyostele. Sex organs present on the ventral surface of fern prothallus and intermingled with rhizoids are (A) Antheridia (B) Archegonia (C) Sori (D) Ascogonia. Botanical snakes are (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes. Endodermis is trabecular in (A) Capsule axis of moss (B) Stem of Pinus (C) Stem of Selaginella (D) Stem of fern. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (sporophyte) without fertilization. It (A) Apospory (B) Apogamy (C) Parthenocarpy (D) Parthenogenesis. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte is (A) Apoganiy (B) Apospory (C) Apocarpy (D) Parthenogenesis. Foliar gap in vascular cylinder of fern is (A) Exclusive phloem area (B) Exclusive xylem area (C) Parenchymatous zone (D) Air space Time interval between pollination fertilization in Cycas is

290. 291.

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303.

304.

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306.

(A) One month (B) 2—3 montbs (C) 4—5 months Monkey Puzzle is (A) Pinus roxburghii (B) Cycas revolute (C) Gnetum gnemon Cycas contains (A) Mucilage ducts (B) Laticiferous vessel (C) Resin ducts

(D) 6—12 months. (D) Araucaria i,nbricata. (D) Oil ducts.

A leaf of Cycas is supplied with (A) Two girdle and two direct traces (B) Two girdle and a number of direct traces (C) Several girdle traces and several direct traces (D) Several girdle traces and direct traces. Cedar wood oil is extracted from heart wood of (A) Cedrus deodaia (B) Thuja occidentalis(C) Junipenis virginiana (D) Magnolia species Pollen grain of Cycas are shed at stage (A) One-celled (B) Two-celled (C) Three-celled (D) Four-celled. Largest spermatozoids are those of (A) Pinus (B) Selaginella (C) D (D) Cycas. In Cycas, pollination is by (A) Wind (B) Insect (C) Water (D) Both A and B. Cycas is living fossil as it has (A) Ciliated sperms (B) Structure like that of Tree Fern (C) Restricted occurrence in certain (D) Been found in fossil state also. Seed habit became established first in (A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Cycadofilicales (D) Gnetales. The suffix - sperm in gymnosperms and angiosperms indicates (A) Sporophylls (B) Ovules and seeds (C) Motile sperms (D) Nonmotile sperms. Ulothrix is (A) Attached unbranched filament (B) Attached branched filament (C) Colonial alga (D) Free floating. Cells of Ulothrix are (A) Round (B) Spherical (C) Cylindrical (D) Rectangular In Riccia/bryophytes (A) Sporophyte is parasitic gametophyte (B) Gametophyte is over parasitic sporophyte (C) Sporophyte is over independent of gametophyte (D) Sporophyte is semiparasite. Spores of Riccia are liberated by (A) Peristome teeth and seta (B) Shrinkage of annulus and explosion of capsule (C) Death and decay of thallus and external pressure on calyptra (D) Xerochasy of elaters. In eusporangiate ferns, develop from (A) Group of initials (B) Single initial (C) 14 spores (D) Few to large number of spores the sporangia Funwia is fixed to substratum by (A) Unicellular simple rhizoids (B) Multicellular branched oblique septate rhizoids (C) Branched coenocytic rhizoids (D) Tuberculate rhizoids Which is a walking fern which produces new plants when its leaf tips touch soil (A) Adiantum (B) Pteridium (C) Pteris (D) Marsilea.

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Epidermis of axis/stem of Funaria shows (A) Absence of cuticle (B) Absence of stomata (C) Presence of cuticle but absence of stomata (D) Both A and B

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13-celled male gametopliyte of Selaginella has (A) 12-celled antheridium +1 prothallial cell (B) 9-celled antheridium +4 prothallial cells (C) 7-celled antheridium + 6 prothallial cells (D) 10-celled antheridium + 3 prothallial cells Young sporophyte of fern draws nourishment from prothallus through (A) Rhizoids (B) Roots (C) Foot (D) Haustorium. Male gametes of cycads are (A) Rounded and nondiiate (B) Sickle-shaped biflagellate (C) Boat-shaped ndnciliate (D) Largc, top-like, spirally twisted with cilia. Rosin and turpentine are obtained from (A) Cycas (B) Pinus (C) Cedrus (D) Abies. Independent alternation of generations is present in (A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) Bryophytes In Ulothrix/SpirogyralChlamydomonas, red uction division (meiosis) occurs at the time of (A) Gamete formation (B) Zoospore formation (C) Zygospore germination (D) Vegetative reproduction. A highly thickened nonmotile spore is (A) Macrozoospore (B) Microzoospore (C) Aplanospore (D) Hypnospore Leafy gametophytes occur in (A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Bryophytes (D) Angiosperms Fucoxanthin occurs in (A) Cyanophyceae (B) Rhodophyceac (C) Chlorophyceae (D) Phaeophyceae An alga which can be possibly used in space flight (Space Alga) is (A) Nostoc (B) Chiorella (C) Ulothrix (D) Spirogyra. Chioroplast of Ulothrir is (A) Stellate (B) Laminate (C) Ribbon-shaped and spirally coiled (D) Girdle-shaped. Chioroplast of Chiamydomonas is (A) Stellate (B) Cup-shaped (C) Collar-shaped (D) Spiral. The plant in which sporophytic phase is represented by zygote only (A) Pinus (B) Selaginella (C) Chiamydomonas (D) Funaria. Moss protonema resembles in structure (A) Multicellular green alga (B) Hypha of Rhizopus (C) Unicellular structure of Acetabularia (D) None of the above Rhizoids of Funaria are (A) Colourless, multicellular with transverse septa (B) Colourless, multicellular with oblique septa (C) Colourless and unicellular (D) Coloured and multicellular. Sporophyte of Funaria contains columella (A) Sterile and lateral (B) Fertile and lateral (C) Fertile and middle (D) Sterile and middle. In moss, stomata occur on (A) Stem (B) Leaves (C) Capsule (D) All the above. Bryophytes grow in moist and shady habitats because

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(A) Water absorbing system is absent (B) They are aquatic (C) They cannot grow on land (D) They require water for their fertilization. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes and thallophytes in having (A) Vascular tissues (B) Motile antherozoids (C) Archegonia (D) Alternation of generations. Mature archegonium of Fern attracts antherozoids chemotactically by means of (A) Soluble proteins (B) Sugars (C) Malic acid (D) Citric acid. Fern gametophyte is nutritionally (A) Saprophyte (B) Parasite (C) Chemoautotroph (D) Photoautotroph. Fern gainetophyte is (A) Multicellular, cordate prothallus (B) Liver-shaped thallus (C) Unicellular, colourless (D) Filamentous, multicellular and green. Winged pollen grains are found in (A) Cycas (B) Mango (C) Pinus (D) Diyopteris. In Pinus/Cycas/gymnosperms, the endo sperm is (A) Triploid (B) Haploid (C) Diploid (D) Tetraploid. In Cycas, the endosperm is (A) Sporophytic structure (B) Gametophytic structure (C) New structure (D) Formed after fertiisation. A character present in coralloid roots and absent in dicot roots is (A) Algal zone (B) Xylem (C) Cortex (D) Pith. Cycas and ferns resemble in possessing (A) Circinate vernation (B) Pollen tube (C) Ovule (D) Seeds. Turpentine is got from (A) Angiospermous wood (B) Angiospermous flowers (C) Gymnospermous wood (D) Ferns External water is not required for fertilization in (A) Fern/Selaginella (B) Moss/Riccia (C) Ulothrix (D) Gymnosperms/Maize. Neck canal cell is absent in the archegonium of (A) Funaria (B) Cycas (C) Diyopte (D) All pteridophytes. Female cone of Pinus develops seeds in (A) One year (B) Two years (C) Three years (D) Four years Pinus produces (A) No seeds (B) Plowers (C) No vascular tissues (D) Naked seeds in cones. Coralloid roots of Cycas possess a symbiotic alga (A) Aulosfra (B) Spirogyra (C) Ulothrir (D) Anabaena. Coralloid roots help Cycas in (A) Fixation and absorption of nitrogen (B) Absorption of water (C) Absorption of minerals (D) Respiration Which one is common between Pinus and Dryopteris (A) Presence of antheridia and archegonia (B) Presence of pollen tube (C) Absence of seeds (D) Absence of fruits Plant body of pteridophytes is (A) Sporophyte (B) Gametophyte (C) Prothallus (D) All the above. Sterile uniseriate and multicellular hair present in receptacles of moss is (A) Epiphysis (B) Paraphysis (C) Apophysis (D) Hypophysis During reproduction, Chiamydomonas (A) Loses its flagella and becomes nonmotile (B) Loses its flagella and comes to rest (C) Retains flagella and starts swimming (D) Retain flagella and starts dividing. Two algae which produce agar-agar are (A) Nostoc and Anabaena (B) Volvox and Vaucheria

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(C) Gracilaria and Gelidium A colourless parasitic red alga is (A) Porphyra (B) Hwveyella Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of (A) Proteins (B) Enzymes

(D) Harveyella and Porphyra (C) Batrachospermum (D) Chondnss (C) Fat

(D) Starch.

Pinus differs from Mango in having (A) Tree habit (B) Green leaves (C) Ovules not enclosed in ovary (D) Wood. In Funana/bryophytes (A) Sporophyte is dependent upon gameto phyte (B) Gametophyte is dependent on sporo phyte (C) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are dependent upon each other (D) Gametophyte and sporophyte are independent of each other. Parasitic alga is/Tea and Coffee leaves are infected by (A) Cephaleuros (B) Sargasswn (C) Oedogonium (D) Ulothrix Male gametes are multiflagellate in (A) Funaria (B) Riccia (C) Fern (D) Selaginella. In Selaginella stem, trabeculae represent modified (A) Phloem cells (B) Endodermal cells (C) Pericycle cells (D) Cortical cells. Number of prothallial cells in male gametophyte of Selaginella is (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four. Which one is the most advanced from evolutionary view point (A) Selaginella (B) Funaria (C) Chiwnydomonas (D) Pinus Secondary wood of Pinus contains (A) Vessels (B) Resin ducts (C) Resin cells (D) Companion cells Archegoniatae include (A) Bryophytes, Pteridophytres and Gymnosperms (B) Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms (C) Algae, Fungi and Bryophytes (D) Algae, Fungi and Bacteria. In Ulothrix, the cell contains (A) A chloroplast with many pyrenoids (B) A chloroplast with a few pyrenoids (C) A few chloroplasts with a few pyrenoids (D) Many chioroplasts with a few pyrenoids. Unique features of bryophytes is that they (A) Produce spores (B) Have sporophyte attached to gametophyte (C) Lack roots (D) Lack vascular tissues In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by (A) Isogamy and anisogarny (B) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy (C) Oogamy only (D) Anisogamy and oogamy Which one of the following cannot fix nitrogen (A) Nostoc (B) Azotobacter (C) Spiro gyra (D) Anabaena. Gametes fail to fuse in Chiwnydomonas. The process is (A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy (C) Syngamy (D) None of the above Meiosis occurs in the zygote of (A) Funaria (B) Chiamydomonas (C) Diyopteris (D) Puccinia. Time interval between pollination and fertilization in Pinus is (A) A four hours (B) A few days (C) A few weeks (D) About a year. Number of cotyledons in Zea, Cycas and Pinus are respectively (A) 1, 2, 2 (B) 1, 1, 2 (C) 1, 2, many (D) 2, 2, many. In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction involves fñsion of

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(A) Two similar nonmotile gametes (C) One motile and one nonmotile gametes Meiosis occurs in Funaria in (A) Archegonial cells (C) Zygotic cells

(B) Two dissimilar motile gametes (D) Two similar motile gametes. (B) Spore mother cells (D) Antheridial cells.

Which is gametophytic in Pinus (A) Male and female cones (B) Micro- and mega-spores (C) Zygote (D) Pinus plant Male cone of Pinus is made of (A) Anthers (B) Ligules (C) Microsporophylls (D) Megasporophylls. Zygotic meiosis occurs in (A) Algae/Thallophytes (B) Fern (C) Angiosperms (D) Riccia The number of peristome teeth in Funaria capsule is (A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64. Juvenile state of moss is (A) Protonema (B) Capsule (C) Prothallus (D) All the above. Pinus pollen is (A) Nonwinged (B) Rounded (C) Winged (D) Ovoid. An archegonium of Riccia has (A) 4 neck canal cells, 1 venter canal cell and one oosphere (B) 4 neck canal cells, 2 venter canal cells one oosphere (C) 4 neck canal cells, one venter canal cell and two oospheres (D) 6 neck canal cells, 2 venter canal cells and one oOsphere The first division in zygote of Selaginella is (A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal (C) Oblique (D) Both A and B. Algae are included in (A) Tracheophytes (B) Embryophytes (C) Chormophytes (D) Thallophytes. Multicellular jacketed female sex organ of bryophytes is (A) Archegonium (B) Carpogonium (C) Ascogonium (D) Trichogyne Gemma for vegetative reproduction occurs in (A) Funaria (B) Fern (C) Marchantia (D) Riccia Sexual reproduction morphologically (A) Oogamy (B) Isogamy (C) Anisogamy (D) Both isoganay and oogamy Moss plants develop from (A) Oospores (B) Protonema (C) Antherozoids (D) Diploid spores. Fern plant is (A) Diploid sporophyte (B) Diploid gametophyte (C) Haploid sporophyte (D) Haploid gametophyte. Time taken in fertilization is (A) 4 months (B) Four years (C) 15 months (D) Two years Pyrenoids are characteristically found in the chioroplasts of (A) Angiosperms (B) Pteridophytes (C) Algae (D) Fungi. Agar is commercially got from (A) Green Algae (B) Blue-green Algae (C) Brown Algae (D) Red Algae. Well developed archegoniuna with neck having 6 and 4 rows of neck cells occurs in (A) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms (B) Gymnosperms and flowering plants (C) Gymnospernas only (D) Bryophytes and pteridophytes. Moss plant is

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(A) Gametophyte (B) Sporophyte (C) Sometimes gametophyte and sometimes sporophyte (D) Predominrnitly gametophyte with sporophyte attached to it Which one controls dehiscence of sporangium in Dryopteris (A) Annulus (B) Tapetum (C) Sorus

(D) Indusium.

Presence of ciliated antherozoids Dryopteris of indicates (A) Terrestrial habit (B) Aquatic ancestry (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Reproduction in Spirogyra is mostly by (A) Conjugation (B) Asexual (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above Giant algae/sea weeds belong to (A) Xanthophyceae (B) Phaeophyceae (C) Rhodophyceae (D) Chlorophyceae. Which is characteristics of Funaria (A) Scalariform (B) Xylem (C) Elaters (D) Peristome. Floridean starch occurs in (A) Myxophyceae (B) Chlorophyceae (C) Rhodophyceae (D) Phaeophyceae. Which is not a fungal disease (A) Rust of Coffee (B) Red rust of Tea (C) Rust of Wheat (D) White rust of cruciferae. Number of peristome teeth in Funaria capsule is (A) 16 in one whorl (B) 16 in two whorls (C) 32 in two whorls (D) 32 in one whorl. Sporophyte dependent on gametophytes occurs in (A) Algae (B) Pteridophytes (C) Fungi (D) Bryophytes. Pyrenoid consists of (A) Starch around protein (B) Protein around starch (C) Protein only (D) Starch only. Plant body is thallus in (A) Gymnosperms (B) Algae (C) Bryophyta (0) Pteridophyta. Accessory photosynthetic pigments, phycoerythrin and phycocyanin, occur in (A) Red algae (B) Green algae (C) Brown algae (D) All the above. Rhizoids in Riccia are (A) Unicellular smooth-walled (B) Unicellular tuberculate (C) Both smooth-walled and tuberculate unicellular (D) Multicellular smooth-walled and tuberculate A cell of Ulthoric has chioroplasts (A)1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4. Fern spermatozoids possess flagella (A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Numerous. Nutrient medium is made semisolid by adding (A) Pectin (B) Agar-agar (C) Sodium chloride (D) Water Basal swollen part of ligule of Selaginella is (A) Glossopodium (B) Rbizopodium (C) Protonema (D) Hydathodes. Which is pond scum (A) Spirogyra (B) Ulothrix (C) Anabaena (D) Nostoc. Ladder-like structure in Splro represents (A) Lateral conjugation (B) Scalariform conjugation (C) Direct conjugation (D) Asexual reproduction Middle sterile part in the moss capsule is (A) Columella (B) Foot (C) Spore sac (D) Protonema. Vascular bundles of Cycás/Pinus stein are (A) Conjoint, collateral and closed (B) Conjoint, collateral and open

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(C) Conjoint, bicollateral and open (D) Conjoint, bicollateral and closed. Find out the similarity between gymnos perms and angiosperins (A) Naked ovules (B) Polyembryony (C) Double fertilization (D) None of the above. Phycology deals with study of (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Microbes (D) Bryophytes. Archegonium is absent in (A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Thallophyta (D) Gymnosperms. Sieve tubes and companion cells arc absent in (A) Angiosperms (B) Pea (C) Mango (D) Pteridopbyta. Riccia gametophyte develops from spore and ends in (A) Thallus (B) Capsule (C) Zygote (D) Spore Gymnosperms are characterised by (A) Multiflagellate sperms (B) Naked seeds (C) Winged seeds (D) Seeds inside fruits. A gymnosperm leaf carries 16 hromo somes. Number of chromosomes in its endosperm shall be (A) 16 (B) 23 (C) 12 (I)) 8. Ribbon-shaped chioroplasts occur in (A) Chiamydomonas (B) Spirogyra (C) Ulothrir (D) Riccia Naked seeds occur in (A) fleris/Pteridophytes (B) Cycas/Gymnospenns (C) Funaria/Bryophytes (D) Maize/Angiosoerms Angiosperms contain (A) Tracheids (B) Vessels (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Number of species belonging to gymnosperms is (A) 900 (B) 1000 (C) 700 (D) 800 Which are the amphibians in Plant Kingdom? (A) Tracheophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Pteridophvta (D) Thallophyta. Which one is a living fossil? (A) Pinus (B) Gnetwn (C) Ginkgo (D) Riccia. Elater mechanism of spore dispersal is found in (A) Riccia (B) Marchantia (C) Funaric (D) Fern. Double fertilization is characteristic of (A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Brvophytes (D) Angiosperms. Rhizophore is a (A) Stem branch (B) Root (C) Reproductive organ (D) Intermediate between A and B. Sporocarp is a reproductive structure of (A) Some algae (B) Some aquatic ferns having son (C) Angiosperms having spores (D) Bryophytes Antheridia and archegonia are sex organs of (A) Spirogyra (B) Mucor (C) Moss (D) Puccinia. Vascular bundles are absent in (A) Gymnosperms (B) Angiosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) All the above. In gymnosperms, the ovules are (A) Naked (B) Covered (C) With two coats (D) All the above. Fern prothallus is (A) Rhizoid (B) Protonema (C) Sporouhvte (D) Gametophyte. Protostele is (A) Stele divided into many parts (B) Early stele with central solid xylem surrounded by phloem (C) Latent stele (D) Angiosperm stele

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Plant group in which every cell of gametangium forms gametes is (A) Thallophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Ptenidophyta After resting Spirogyra zygospores become (A) Diploid (B) Haploid (C) Zoospores Cell wall of Spirogyra/Green Algae has (A) Cellulose . (B) Lignin (C) Chitin

(D) Gymnosperms (D) Aplanospores. (D) Suberin.

A saprobiotic bryophyte is (A) Ricciocarpus (B) Porella (C) Buxbaumia aphylla (D) Sphagnum. Sex organs are embedded in the thalius in (A) Moss (B) Riccia (C) Azolla (D) Fern In Funana, mate and female sex organs occur at the tip of two branches, main axis and large branch. The condition is called (A) Pleurocarpous (B) Acrocarpous (C) Apocarpous (D) Sync Which is haploid in Funwia? (A) Capsule (B) Columella (C) Protonema (D) Seta Retort cells occur in (A) Funaria (B) Polygonatum (C) Porella (D) Sphagnum. In which of the following elater mother cells and spore mother cells belong to same generation (A Marchantia (B) Reboulia (C) Riccardia (D) D,yopteris Seed habit originated in certain (A) Bryophytes (B) Ferns (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms. First seed plants evolved durmg (A) Cretaceous (B) Carboniferous (C) Devonian (D) Silurian. Cycas resembles angiosperms in having (A) Circinate vernation in leaves (B) Vessels (C) Motile sperms (D) Ovules Gymnosperm seeds are naked due to lack of (A) Pericarp (B) Perianth (C) Nucelius (D) Integuments. In Pinus, male and female cones occur (A) On the same branch (B) On different branches of same plant (C) On different plants (D) On the trunk. Microsporangia occur on the microsporophyli of Cycas on (A) Abaxial side (B) Adaxial side (C) Axils (D) Margins. Maiden Hair Tree is (A) Araucaria (B) Thuja (C) Ginkgo (D) Pinus. Formation of embryo without gametic union is (A) Apogamy (B) Apospory (C) Isogamy (D) Syngamy. In life cycle of Funaria spores are beginning of the generation (A) Gametophytic (B) Sporophytic (C) Both A and B (D) Peristome Plant body of Selaginella is (A) Sporophyte (B) Gametopliyte (C) Halophyte (D) Both B and C. Pinus is (A) Dioecious (B) Monoecious (C) Unisexual (D) Both A and B. Pinus seed is (A) Nonendospermic and monocotyled onous (B) Abaxial and rounded (C) Adaxial and endospermic (D) Hypogeal and nonendospermic. Heterospory and seed ha are exhibited by non-flowering plant which also possesses (A) Bract (B) Ligule (C) Petiole (D) Spathe. Botanical name of Sanjeevam is (A) Selaginella chrysocaulos (B) Selaginella bryopteris (C) S. Chrysorhizos (D) None of the above

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Thermal algae survive at (A) Low temperature (C) Hot spring at 70°C Ancestors of land plants possessed (A) Arboreal habit (C) Thorny habit

(B) Hot water of 30°  40°C (D) Frozen lakes and ocean (B) Heterotrichous habit (D) Prostrate habit

Calcium deposition and larvicidal properties are found in (A) Diatoms (B) Oscillatoria (C) Ozara (D) caulerpa. An alga rich in proteins is (A) Chiorella (B) Oscillatoria (C) Ulothrix (D) Spirogyra. The alga found in still fresh water is (A) Sargassum (B) Laminaria (C) Polysiphonia (D) Spirogyra Brown algae have a characteristic pigment of (A) Phycocyanin (B) Fucoxanthin (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Haematochrome. Photosynthetic pigment capable of absorbing green light is (A) Phycocyanin (B) Carotenoid (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Chlorophyll. What is unique about bryophytes? (A) They do not have roots (B) Bryophytes produce spores (C) They lack vascular tissues (D) Sporophyte depends upon and remains attached to gametophyte Branched rhizoids and lea4i gametophytes are characteristic of (A) All bryophytes (B) Some bryophytes (C) Some pteriodophytes (D) All pteridophytes Bryophytes can be distinguished from algae in being (A) Thalloid (B) With archegonia having sterile outer jacket (C) Devoid of conducting tissue (D) In possession of chloroplasts in their cells. Bryophytes are distinguishable from fungi in having (A) Sterile jacket layer around sex organs (B) Land habit (C) Flagellate gametes (D) Gametophytic plant body. Paitla8y independent sporophyte is found in (A) Pteris (B) Funana (C) Thyopteiis (D) Selaginella. Spores are liberated only after decay and decompositjo (A) Masvhwztia (B) Anthoceros (C) Riccia (D) Funaria Which ones are nonvascular? (A)Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms. Fossils of early vascular plants have been discovered in the rocks of (A) Cambrian (B) Silurian (C) Devonian (D) Jurassic. Selaginella leaf possesses an outgrowtth proximally on the adaxial surface. It is (A) Ligule (B) Indusium (C) Stipule. (D) Petiole A pteridophyte having pyrenoid in its chloroplasts is (A) Ptendium (B) Selaginella (C) Equisetum (D) Marsilea. Amphiphloic siphonostele/solenostele occurs in the stem of (A) Lycopodium (B) Equisesum (C) Pteris (D) Marsilea. Common between bryophytes and pteridophytes is (A) Absence of sporophyte (B) Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte (C) Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte (D) Multicellular sex organs with sterile jacket Rudimentary seed habit occurs in (A) Lycopodium (B) Selaginella (C) Psilotum (D) Equisetunz. Sperm of Fern enters an archegonium due to (A) Chemotaxy (B) Phototaxy (C) Thermotaxy (D) Cyclosis.

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488.

489. 490. 491. 492.

Dominant flora, 200 million years ago was that of (A) Angiosperms (B) Gyzni (C) Ferns (D) Lycopods. Excurrent/pyraniidal habit of Pinus is a device for (A) Adaptation for wind pollination (B) Efficient water transport (C) Overcoming competition amongst adjacent trees (D) Measuring stem growth. Pollen grain wings of Pinus are outgrowths is (A) Intine (B) Exine (C) Exo-intine (D) Sporangial wall. In Pinus, pollen grains develop inside (A) Anther (B) Tapetuin (C) Pollen chamber (D) Microsporangium. Moss protonema can be differentiated from filamentous alga in (A) Long rhizoids (B) Coenocytic nature (C) Oblique septa (D) Absence of chioroplasts. Sago of Cycas is given to patients with stomach disorders because it is (A) Cheap (B) Easily digestible with less starch (C) Tastier (D) With high nutritive value. Tracheophyta consists of (A) Bryophytes only (B) Pteridophytes only (C) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (D) Pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Which is intermediate betsveen conifers and cycads? (A) Tsuga (B) Ephedra (C) Ginkgo (D) Cupressus. Gymnosperms/Cycas have a mode of pollination called (A) Zoophily (B) Anemophily (C) Entomophily (D) Hydrophily. Ulothrix is (A) Filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages (B) Filamentous alga with nonflagellated reproductive stages (C) Membranous alga producing zoospores (D) Nonmotile colonial alga lacking reproductive stages Bryophytes depend upon water because water is required for (A) Vegetative propagation (B) Filling archegonium for fertilization (C) Swimming of sperm upto egg inside archegonium. (D) Fertilization of homosporous plants. Walking Fern is named so as (A) It knows walking (B) It is dispersed through walking (C) Its spores are able to walk (D) It spreads and propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips Which is incorrect about Cycas? (A) Its xylem has vessels (B) It has circinate vernation (C) It does not have well organised female flower (D) Its roots possess some blue-green algae. Algae differ from bryophytes in having (A) Chlorophyll a and b (B) Naked sex organs (C) Jacketed sex organs (D) Aerobic respiration Physiological anisogamous sexual reprod uction occurs in (A) Spirogyra (B) Mucor (C) Selaginella (D) Pinus. Fern prothallus develops from (A) Oospore (B) Antherozoid (C) Elater (D) Spore. Gametophytic generation is dominant in (A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Bryophytes (D) Angiosperms.

493. 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. 499. 500.

501. 502. 503. 504. 505. 506. 507. 508. 509. 510.

511. 512.

Heteromorphic alternation of generations occurs in (A) Dictyota (B) Selaginella (C) Rhizopus (D) Spirogyra. Dichotomous branching occurs in (A) Liverworts (B) Funaria (C) Diyopteris (D) Pinus To which group would a plant belong that produces spores, has vascular tissues and bears seeds without fruits (A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms Sporogonium of Polytrichum possesses (A) Foot, seta and capsule (B) Ribbon shaped thallus (C) Cordate prothallus (D) Fleshy thallus Stem of Selaginella has (A) Siphonostele (B) Protostele (C) Ectophloic siphonostele (D) Amphiphloic siphonostel Ephedrine is got from the plant part of Ephedra (A) Flowers (B) Leaves (C) Stems (D Roots. Oogamous sexual reproduction involves fusion of (A) Motile and nonmotile gametes (B) Similar gametes (C) Dissimilar motile gametes (D) Dissimilar nonmotile gam In oogamous reproduction (A) Both male and female gametes are motile (B) Both gametes are product of division of protoplast (C) Both male and female gametes are nonmotile (D) For male gametes protoplast divides but for female gamete Life cycle of Spirogyra/Chlainydomonas is (A) Haplobiontic/Haplontic (B) Diplobiontic (C) Haplodiplobiontic (D) Diplontic. Father of Indian Bryology is (A) Raj Kuniar (B) S.R. Kashyap (C) Maheshwari (D) Khurana. In Funaria, rhizoids arise from (A) Basal region (B) Apical region (C) Dorsal renion (D) Ventral region. Which one has oil and occasionally starchreserve food? (A) Chlorophyceae (B) Phaeophyceae (C) Rhodophyceae (D) Xanthophyceae Indusiwn occurs in (A) Cycas (B) Chlorella/Algae (C) Pteris/Fern (D) Riccia/Moss. The term chromatophore was introduced by (A) Pfeffer (B) Schinitz (C) Singer and Nicolson (D) Compraheti. Primitive type of stomata occur in Moss ove (A) Apophysis (B) Leaves (C) Axis (D) All the above. Vegetative reproduction in Cycas occurs by (A) Scale leaves (B) Sporophylls (C) Bulbils (D) Fragmentation. Presence of basal rhizoidal cell in Ulothrix is an example of (A) Dead cell (B) Vestigial cell (C) Accessory cell (D) Beginning of division Prothallus of fern has (A) Antheridia and archegonia on lower surface (B) Antheridia and archegonia on upper surface (C) Antheridia on upper surface and archegonia on lower surface (D) Antheridia on lower surface and arche on urmer surface. If three filaments are involved in lateral conjugation in Spirogyra, zygospores will be found in (A) All the three filaments (B) Only the middle filament (C) Lateral filaments (D) Either B or C. In bryophytes, the’ posterior part of archegomuni grows to protect the embryo. It is (A) Paraphysis (B) Calyptra (C) Apophysis (D) Hypophysis

513. 514. 515. 516.

517. 518. 519.

520. 521. 522. 523. 524. 525. 526.

527. 528. 529.

530. 531. 532.

Sporophyte of Riccia contains (A) Spores, elaters and nutritive cells (B) Spores and nutritive cells (C) Elaters and spores (D) Spores only A conducting tissue in leaves of Pinus/Cycas for both water and food is (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Conducting tissue (D) Transfusion tissue. Thallus of Riccia is (A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid Bryophytes have (A) Archegonia (B) Dominant gametophytic and parasitic sporophytic phases (C) Thalloid plant body (D) All the above Basal cell of Ulothrix is (A) Antheridium (B) Meristematic (C) Holdfast (D) Zoogonidium.. Multidiliated antherozoids occur in (A) R.iccia and Funaria (B) Pt and Cycas (C) Riccia and Pteris (D) Marchantia and Riccia. In moss, antheridia and archegonia occur at the tips of two different branches of the same plant. The condition is called (A) Monoecious and autoicous (B) Monoecious and paroicous (C) Monoecious and synoicous (D) Djoecious Male cone of Pinus replaces (A) Needles (B) Scales (C) Dwarf shoots (D) Long shoots. Pinusis (A) Deciduous (B) Dioecious (C) Monoecious (D) None of these. Gametophyte of fern is called (A) Protonema (B) Prothallus (C) Proembryo (D) Germling Grouping of algae is based on (A) Food reserve (B) Colony formation (C) Shape (D) Pigments. Antherozoids of Marchantia are (A) Short, curved and biflagellate (B) Short, straight and multiflagellate (C) Long, straight and biflagellate (D) Long, curved and biflagellate. In Riccia, the archegonium is (A) Rounded (B) Cup-shaped (C) Star-shaped (D) Flask-shaped. Dwarf shoot of Pinus is (A) Shed every year (B) Shed after 23 years (C) Shed after five years (D) Never shed Cycas occurs commonly in (A) South America (B) North America (C) Sout East Asia (D) Europe. In Pinus, the male gametes are (A) Nonciliate (B) Multidiiate (C) Biciliate (D) Uniciliate. Phytoplankton is made of (A) Decomposer microorganisms (B) Plants feeding on animals and their remains (C) Aquatic algae and photosynthetic bacteria (D) Nonvascular hydrophytes. In Funarla, annulus separates (A) Apophysis and theca (B) Theca and Operculum (C) Columella and apophysis (D) Operculum and apophysis. On germination, each zygospore of Spirogyra produces (A) Four plants (B) Three plants (C) Two plants (D) One plant In Spirogyra, pyrenoids occur in

533. 534. 535. 536. 537. 535. 539. 540. 541. 542. 543.

544. 545. 546. 547. 548. 549. 550. 551. 552. 553. 554. 555.

(A) Nucleus (B) Cell wall (C) Cytoplasm (D) Chioroplast. Chloroplasts are found in the spores of (A) Yeast (B) Funaria (C) Dryopteris (D) Rhizopus. A bryophyte of considerable economic importance is (A) Marchantia (B) Riccia (C) Funaria (D) Sphagnum. Vessels and companion cells occur in (A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms (C) Pteridopbytes (D) Viruses Fern gametophyte bears (A) Roots (B) Antheridia (C) Archegonia (D) Both B and C. Sago comes from (A) Calamus ritung (B) Meiroxylon nsmphii(C) Areca catechu (D) Phoenir dactylifera. Angiosperms show (A) Monospory (B) Bispory (C) Trispory (D) Tetraspory At the time of pollination the pollen grains of Pinus arc (A) One celled (B) Two celled (C) Three celled (D) Four celled Sulphur shower is due to (A) Acid rain (B) Excess SO2 and SO3 in atmosphere (C) Exposed sulphur rocks (D) Pollen of Pinus/Cedms. In Selaginella (A) Gametophyte is dominant (B) Sporophyte is dominant (C) Sporophyte is total parasite (D) Gametophyte is total parasite. Sporophyte is completely dependent in (A) Selaginellà (B) Dryopteris (C) Riccia (D) Pinus. The term prothallus is used for (A) Stage before thallus (B) Plant body without differentiation of stem, leaves and roots (C) Reduced gametophyte (D) Reduced sporophyte Thin-walled nonflagellate spores are (A) Zoospores (B) Aplanospores (C) Hypnospores (D) Zygospores. Which one of the following has not changed for the last several thousand years (A) Diyopteris (B) Gnetum (C) Ginkgo (D) Palms. Iodine can be obtained from (A) Lamina (B) Porphyra (C) C’hlorella (D) Polysiphonia. Selaginella multiplies vegetatively through (A) Tubers (B) Resting buds (C) Fragmentation (D) All the above In Funaria, calyptra is formed from (A) Capsule (B) Archegonium (C) Columeila (D) Antheridium. Which one is the earliest land plant (A) Rhynia (B) Hornea (C) Cooksonia (D) Cordaites. Largest ovules, trees and gametes are found in (A) Monocots (B) Dicots (C) Both A and B (D) Gymnosperms. Cleavage and archegonial polyembroyony is common in (A) Gymnosperms (B) Pteridophytes (C) Angiosperms (D) Bryophytes Chl a, Chl d and phycoerythrin occur in (A) Chlorophyceae (B) Badillariophyceae (C) Cyanophyceae (D) Rhodophyceae. Wood of Pinus is (A) Manoxylic and homoxylous (B) Manoxylic and heteroxylous (C) Pycnoxylic and homoxylous (D) Pycnoxylic and heteroxylous. In Selaginella, the male gametes are (A) Uniflagellate (B) Biftagellate (C) Nonflagellate (D) Multiflagellate. Moss sporophyte does not possess

556. 557.

558. 559. 560. 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. 567. 568.

569. 570. 571. 572. 573. 574. 575. 576.

(A) Elaters (B) Seta ‘Nonflagellate’ gametes occur in (A) Ulothrix (B) Spirogyra Annulus occurs in (A) Annual plants (C) Both mosses and ferns

(C) Foot

(D) Coluniella.

(C) Funaria

(D) Selaginella.

(B) Mosses (D) Gymnosperms

Apophysis occurs in. (A) Marchantia (B) Pteridium (C) Apocyanaceae (D) Mosses. Most advanced amongst the dicots is (A) Asteraceae (B) Malvaceae (C) Brassicaceae (D) Fabaceac. Female sex organs of bryophytes are called (A) Oogonia (B) Ascogonia (C) Archaegonia (D) Antheridia The term bryophyta was coined by (A) Iyengar (B) Linnaeus (C) Braun (D) Bentham Keips are (A) Fresh water algae (B) Marine algae (C) Terrestrial plants (D) Amphibious plants Algal zo is characteristic of (A) Coralloid root of Cycas (B) Normal root of Cycas (C) Normal root of Pinus (D) Mycorrhizal root of Pinus. Storage product of most algae is (A) Fat (B) Starch (C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose. Pigment mainly responsible for photosynthesis in red algae is (A) Phycoerythrin (B) Chlorophyll (C) Carotene (D) Xanthophyll. Ancestors of land plants/bryophytes were (A) Red Algae (B) Brown Algae (C) Green Algae (D) Bryophytes. Coralloid roots of Cycas are (A) Negatively geotropic (B) Positively geotropic (C) Positively phototropic (D) Negatively phototropic. Select the correct statement (A) Bryophyta are vascular nonflowering plants (B) Algae are nonvascular phanerogams (C) Gymnosperms are nonvascular seed bearing plants (D) Angiosperms are vascular seed bearing plants (E) Pteridophytes are vascular seed bearing plants. Gymnosperms differ from pteridophytes (gymnosperms are characterised by) (A) Naked ovule (B) Circinate ptyxis (C) Leaf arrangement (D) Gametophyte Plant body is a photosynthetic filament in (A) Riccia (B) Chiamydomonas (C) Spirogyra (D) Pteris. Fungi resemble algae in presence of similar (A) Reproductive structures (B) Cell wall constituents (C) Similar chiorophylls (D) Paraniylon as reserve food. Pinus possesses (A) Winged seeds (B) Winged pollen (C) Coralloid roots (D) Both A and B. Simplest/most primitive stele is (A) Atactostele (B) Protostele (C) Dictyostele (D) Stenostele. Fern stomata occur on (A) Stem (B) Leaf (C) Root (D) Capsule. In ferns, the term frond is used for (A) Stem (B) Root (C) Leaf (D) Sex organ. In fern, archegonia occur on (A) Leaves (B) Roots (C) Prothallus (D) Sporophyte.

577. 578. 579. 580. 581. 582. 583. 584. 585. 586. 587. 588. 589. 590. 591. 592. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597.

598. 599.

Cleavage polyembryony occurs in (A) Pinus (B) Cycas (C) Angiospernis (D) Pteridophytes. Funaria differs from Marchantia in having (A) Foot (B) Calyptra (C) Ventral canal cell (D) Protonema Lateral conjugation of Spirogyra occurs in individuals (A) Free floating (B) Homathallic (C) Heterothallic (D) Having different characters. A medicine for respiratory disorders is obtained from (A) Cannabis (B) Eucalyptus (C) Ephedra (D) Sacchwum. Algae growing on animal bodies and shells are called (A) Epizoic (B) Epiphytic (C) Sea Lettuce (E) Coenobia. Nonflowering plants are (A) Dicots (B) Monocots (C) Phanerogams (D) Cryptogams Which is wrong. (A) Naked seeds occur in gymnosperms (B) Endospores develop in pteridophyta (C) Basidiocarp is fructification of fungus (D) Capsule is part of sporophyte is bryophytes. Which one is true moss (A) Bog Moss (B) Reindeer Moss (C) Club Moss (D) Irish Moss Fucoxanthin is found in (A) Gelidium (B) Volvox (C) Sargassum (D) Ulothrir. Cycas has two cotyledons but is not include under angiosperms because it has (A) Circinate ptyxis (B) Compound leaves (C) Monocot like stem (D) Naked seeds Zygospore of Spirogyra is (A) Multilayered (B) Three layered (C) Two layered (D) One layered. Stomata do not occur in (A) Algae (B) Dioecious (C) Mossess (D) Trioecious. Funaria is (A) Heteroecious (B) Dioecious (C) Monoecious (C) Trioecious. Secondary growth occurs in (A) Riccia (B) Funaria (C) Selaginella (D) None of the above. Adicotis (A) Mango (B) Coconut. (C) Sugarcane (D) Banana In Ulothri zygote is (A) Nonflagellate (B) Liverworts (C) Biflageliate (D) Ferns. In Spirogyra sexual reproduction occurs through (A) Conjugation (B) Physiological isogamy (C) Morphological anisogamy (D) Ooganiy Pteridophytes are distinguishable from bryophytes in possessing (A) Dependent sporophyte (B) Independent sporophyte (C) Dependent ganietophyte (D) No vascular bundles. Which one is found over fern leaves (A) Indusium . (B) Spathe (C) Ramenta (D) Frond. In Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification, 5 orders and 27 families occur in (A) Thalamiflorae (B) Disciflorae (C) Calyciflorae (D) Heteromcrae. Which ones are false (a) Series heteromerae has 6 orders and 14 families (b) Natural system of classification does not attempt to bring out phylogenetic relationships (c) Darwin published “Origin of species” in 1856 (d) Bicarpdllatae has 4 orders and 24 families (A) a and d (B) a, b and c (C) a and c (D) b and d. Dicotyledons are characterised by presence of (A) Tap root (B) Adventitious roots(C) Fibrous roots (D) Epiphytic roots. Algae are useful as they (A) Are used in study of photosynthesis (B) Purify air

600. 601.

602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607.

608. 609. 610. 611. 612.

613.

614. 615. 616.

(C) Cause alcoholic fermentation Sago Palm is (A) Cycas (B) Ced,us Endodermis is component of (A) Extrastelar tissue system (C) Epidermal tissue system

(D) Occur in larger number. (C) Pinus

(D) Taxus

(B) Intrastelar tissue system (D) Vascular tissue system.

In life cycle of Spirogyra, a brief period of tetranucleate condition occurs in (A) Vegetative cells (B) Germinating zygospores (C) Gametangium (D) Holdfast Brown hair found at the base of Pteris leaves (A) Modified stipules (B) Modified leaflets (C) Ramenta (D) Spines Diploxylic condition occurs in Cycas in (A) Root (B) Stem (C) Coralloid root (D) Leaflet Peat Moss is (A) Club Moss (B) Reindeer Moss (C) Irish Moss (D) Bog Moss. Cell wall of Chiamydomonas possesses (A) Cellulose (B) Glycoproteins (C) Hemicellulose (D) Proteins only. In Diyopteris (A) Sporophyte is parasitic over gameto phyte (B) Sporophyte is independent (C) Gametophyte is independent (D) Both B and C Seed of Pinus contains (A) Parent sporophyte in form of perisperm (B) Endosperm as gametophyte (C) Embryo as future sporophyte (D) All the above Pigments present in Ulothnx are (A) Chl a, Chi b and phycocyanin (B) Chl a; Chi c, phycocyanin and fucoxanthin (C) CM a, CM b, carotenes and xanthophylls(D) CM a and fucoxanthin Rhizoids of Riccia are (A) Unicellular smooth (B) Unicellular smooth and tuberculate (C) Multicellular smooth and tuberculate (D) Multicellular tuberculate. Pteridium possesses (A) Polycycic dictyostele (B) Actinostele (C) Siphonostele (D) Amphiphloic siphonostele. What is true for Spirogyra (A) Lateral conjugation occurs in homothallic species (B) Scalariform conjugation occurs in homothallic species (C) Lateral conjugation occurs in heterothallic species (D) Conjugation type is unrelated to homothallic or heterothallic nature. What is correct (A) Protonema of moss and protballus of Diyopteris are sporophytic (B) Protonema of moss and prothallus of Diyopteris are gametophytic (C) Moss protonema is sporophytic, Pteris prothallus is gametophytic but plant body of Pteris and Funaria are gainetophytic (D) Plant body of moss is gametophytic while that of D,yopteris is both gametophytic and sporophytic. Circinate vernation occurs in (A) Algae (B) Moss (C) Fern (D) Pinus Lower plants having green pigments similar to those of higher plants are (A) Rhodophyceae (B) Chlorophyceae (C) Phaeophyceae (D) Schizomycetes Mosses grow in moist places because they

617. 618. 619. 620. 621. 622. 623.

624.

625.

626. 627. 628. 629. 630. 631.

632. 633. 634.

(A) Lack vascular tissue (B) Have gametes which require water for transport (C) Lack root and stomata (D) Cannot grow on land Chiamydomonas is found in (A) Rivers and streams (B) Ponds and lakes (C) Oceans (D) Both B and C. Life cycle is haplontic in (A) Funaria (B) Ulothrir (C) Selaginella (D) Pinus. Sporophyte of Funaria begins development inside (A) Archegonium (B) Protonema (C) Antheridium (D) Capsule. Protostele occurs in (A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms. Which one does not occur in Selagindlla (A) Heterospory (B) Heterophylly (C) Homospory (D) Ligulate leaves. Megasporophyll of Cycas is homologous to. (A) Carpel (B) Stamen (C) Petal (D) Sepal. Plant body of Funaria is (A) Completely sporophyte (B) Completely gametophyte (C) Predominantly sporophyte with gainetophyte (D) Predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte. What is true about foliage of Cycas (A) Palmate and pinnate foliage leaves (B) Brown scales and pinnate green foliage leaves (C) Oblong and long leaves (D) Green and scaly leaves Possible advantage of antheridia occurring on the under surface for fern protballus is (A) Protection from wind (B) Protection from direct rays (C) Easy diffusion of nutrients fron prothallus (D) Accumulation of capillary water. What is exclusive for angiosperms (A) Vessels (B) Secondary growth (C) Double fertilization (D) Autotrophic nature. A plant producing seeds but lacking flowers is (A) Gymnosperm (B) Pteridophyte (C) Angiosperm (D) Bryophyte. A spermatophyte with ciliated stage is (A) Pteridium (B) Riccia (C) Gymnosperm (D) Angiosperm. Plant cells possess wall but the Same is absent in (A) Pollen grain (B) Male gamete (C) Female gamete (D) Both B and C Gracilaria yields agar, carrageenm and related (A) Fats (B) Alkaloids (C) Phycocolloids (D) Proteins. What is correct? (A) Bryophytes are vascular cryptogams (B) Pteridophytes are homogenous group of tracheophytes (C) Cordaitales grow in gymnosperm forests (D) Gymnosperms are spermatophytes with naked seeds. (J.I.P.M.E.R. 2002) Which one produces carrageenin (A) Brown algae (B) Red algae (C) Green algae (D) Blue green algae. Evidence for aquatic ancestry of bryophytes is (A) Ganietophytic plant body (B) Ciliated sperms (C) Peristome teeth (D) All the above. Red rust of tea is due to (A) Rhizopus (B) Puccinia (C) Cephaleuros (D) Phytophthora.

635. 636.

637. 638. 639.

640. 641. 642. 643. 644. 645. 646. 647. 648. 649. 650. 651.

652. 653.

Four leaflets occur in (A) Sesbania (B) Oxalis (C) Marsilea (D) Dyoptesis. Gymnosperms are naked seeded plants because (A) There is no fruit (B) There is no ovule (C) There is no fertilization (D) There is no ovary and fruit. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in (A) Cytoplasm of Chiorella (B) Mycelium of a green mould like Aspergillus (C) Spore capsule of a moss (D) Pollen tube of Pinus Which one is living fossil (A) Pinus (B) Cycas (C) Selaginelia (D) Metasequoia. Sexual reproduction of Spirogyra is an advanced feature as it shows (A) Different sizes of motile sex organs (B) Same size of motile sex organs (C) Morphologically different sex organs (D) Physiologically different sex organs. Which amongst the following are not seed producers (A) Fern and Funaria (B) Funana and Ficus (C) Ficus and Chiwnydomonas (D) Punica and Pinus Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having (A) Covered seeds (B) Large leaves (C) Seeds (D) Tap roots. Which one manufactures food through photosynthesis (A) Euglena (B) Chlanzydomonas (C) Penicillium (D) Both A and B Red algae possess (A) Rhodochrome (B) Chlorophyll (C) Chlorophyll and phycobiin (D) Fucoxanthin. Greatest extent of adaptation to various environments is found in (A) Gymnosperms (B) Bryophytes (C) Ferns (D) Angiosperms. What is true of angiosperms (A) Seeds are naked (B) They have tracheids only (C) They are not cryptogams (D) They lack companion cells. Resin ducts of Cednis are mostly present in (A) Epidermis (B) Cortex (C) Pericycle (D) Pith. Dominant phase and fungi is (A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid. Phycobiins occur in (A) Green algae (B) Blue-green algae (C) Red algae (D) Both B and C. Which one grows over molluscan shell (A) Characiurn (B) Spirogyra (C) Cladophora (D) Protoderma. Prothallus of Dryopteris is and bears archegoma over (A) Sporophyte dorsally (B) Sporophyte ventrally (C) Gainetophyte dorsally (D) Gametophyte ventrally Which is not true of Pinus (A) Three needles in spur of P. roxburghii (B) Xylem is towards inner side of vascular bundles of stem (C) Homosprorous gymnosperm (D) Microsporophyll has two microsporangia. (J.KC.M.E.E. 2003) Golden Mine of Liverworts is (A) Eastern Himalayas (B) Western Himalayas (C) Western Ghats (D) Eastern Ghats. Club Moss is a member of

654. 655.

656.

657. 658. 659. 660. 661. 662. 663. 664. 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. 670. 671. 672. 673.

674.

(A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Biyophyta Which ones secrete calcium carbonate and appear like corals (A) Red algae (B) Brown algae (C) Blue-green algae “Pond Silk” is common name of (A) Corailina (B) Spirogyra (C) Selaginella

(D) Pteridophyta. (D) All the above. (Kerala (D) Chiorella.

Which is not true of monocots (A) Parallel venation (B) Single seed leaf (C) Floral parts in multiples of 45 (D) Adventitious roots Frog Spawn Alga is (A) Batrachospennum (B) Chiwnydomonas (C) Fucus (D) Gelidium Sea Lettuce is (A) Laminaria (B) Devonian (C) Saigassum (D) Permian. Rhynia belongs to (A) Silurian (B) Devonian (C) Carboniferous (D) Permian. Both heterospory and circinate ptyxis occur in (A) Dryoptens (B) Pinus (C) Cycas (D) Funaria Number of ovules present over megasporophyll of Cyas is (A) 1  2 (B) 2  12 (C) 12  24 (D) 24  48 Algae attached to stones are called (A) Epiploic (B) Coenolithic (C) Epilithic (D) None of the above Pacific Yew is (A) Epiploic (B) Coenolithic (C) Paradisiaca brevifolia (D) Tarus brevifolia Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily by their (A) Power of adaptability to diverse habitats (B) Nature of pollination (C) Domestication by humans (D) Large number of seeds. Which one propagates through leaf tip (A) Marc hantia (B) Moss (C) Walking Fern (D) Pinus. Meiosis occurs in pteridophytes during (A) Gamete formation (B) Spore formation (C) Postgamete formation (D) Postspore formation Sea Weeds are a source of (A) Chlorine (B) Fluorine (C) Bromine (D) Iodine. Largest unicellular organism is (A) Yeast (B) Acetabularia (C) Planaria (D) Volvat Ferns are the first to appear after a forest fire because of the survival of their. (A) Spores (B) Fronds (C) Rhizome (D) Both B and C. A microsporophyll of Pinus has (A) Two adaxial microsporangia (B) Two abaxial microsporangia (C) One abaxial microsporangium (D) Four abaxial microsporangia. In bryophytes, the adult plant body is (A) Epiphyte (B) Sporophyte (C) Gametophyte (D) Sporophyll. In Ulothrix, meiosis occurs in (A) Holdfast (B) Zygote (C) Zoospores (D) Cells of filament. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Red algae contribute in producing coral reefs. Reason. Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls (A) (B) (C) (D) Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by

675. 676. 677. 678. 679. 680. 681. 682. 683. 684. 685. 686. 687. 688.

689. 690. 691.

(A) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil (B) Serving as plant growth regulator (C) Protecting plant from infection (D) Helping plant in using atmospheric nitrogen. A bryophyte which harbours a nitrogen fixing blue green alga in its thallus is (A) Riccia (B) Anthoceros (C) Marchantia (D) Pogonatum. Gymnosperms are called naked seed plants because they lack (A) Cotyledons (B) Endosperm (C) Testa (D) Ovary wall. Circinate vernation, a characteristic of ferns is (A) Attachment of son on leaves (B) Heterophylly (C) Coiling of young leaves (D) Arrangement of leaves on stem. Conifers are found in (A) Western Ghats (B) Eastern Ghàts (C) Rajasthan (D) Himalayas. First land inhabiting plants are (A) Bryophytes (B) Angiosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) Gymnosperms. The unequally thickened wall of fern sporangium that helps in dehescence is (A) Indusium (B) Placenta (C) Annulus (D) Receptacle. In mosses conducting tissue is (A) Phloem (B) Parenchyma (C) Xylem (D) Coloured cells. Which is not a monocot? (A) Rose (B) Palm (C) Orchid (D) Banana. Which is not a feature of gymnosperms? (A) Parallel venation (B) Perennial nature (C) Dimorphic branches(D) Xylem with vessels. Most primitive member in which roots are not present is (A) Psilotun (B) Rhynia (C) Lycopodium (D) Selaginella. Which one has good capacity of absorbmg water, used in place of cotton and as a fuel? (A) Marchantia (B) Riccia (C) Sphagnum (D) Funaria. Dispersal of spores of ferns takes place through (A) Annulus (B) Stomium (C) Both A and B (D) Indusium. Top-shaped multiciliate male gamete and seeds with two cotyledons occur in (A) Cycads (B) Conifers (C) Polypetalous angiosperms (D) Gamopetalous angiosperms. Match the items of columns I and II Column – I Column - II a) Peritrichous flagellation (j) Ginkgo b) Living fossil (k) Macrocystis c) Rhizophore (l) Escherichia coli d) Smallest flowering plant (m) Selaginella e) Largest perennial alga (n) Wolffia (A) (a)  (l) (b)  (j), (c)  (m), (d)  (n), (e)  (k) (B) (a)  (k), (b)  (f), (c)  (l), (d)  (m), (e)  (n) (C) (a)  (m), (b)  (l), (c)  (k), (d)  (n), (e)  (j) (D) (a).  (j), (b)  (m), (c)  (n), (d)  (l), Ectophloit siphonostele occurs in (A) Marsilea and Botiychium (B) Dicksonia and Maiden Hair Fern (C) Osmunda and Equisetum (D) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae. Which one of the following is not characteristic feature of bryophytes? (A) Dominant gametophytic generation (B) Filamentous rhizoids (C) Amphibious habitat (D) Vascular tissues Hydroids and leptoids were first found in (A) Liverworts (B) Hornworts (C) Mosses (D) All the above.

692. 693.

694.

695.

696. 697 698. 699. 700. 701. 702.

703.

Ephedra and Gnetum are exceptions to gymnosperms as they show (A) Double fertilization (B) Siphonogamy (C) Aggregation of sporophylls (D) Presence of ovules Phloem of angiosperms differs from that of other vascular plants in presence of (A) Vessels (B) Companion cells (C) Tylosoides (D) Albuminous cells (E) Secretory cells. Which ones of the following statements are true or false? (a) Trimerous condition of floral whorls is characteristic of dicotyledons (b) Adiantum is also caUed Walking Fern (c) In gymnosperms the vascular system consists of xylem without vessels and phloem with companion cells (d) Riccia and Marchantia are liverworts. (A) a and b are true, c and d are false (B) a and c are true, b and d are false (C) a and d are true, b and c are false (D) b and d are true, a and c are false (E) b and c are true, a and d are false Match the items of columns I and II Column – I Column - II a) Aruhoceros (i) Alga b) Adiantum (ii) Hornwort c) Prothallus (iii) Gametophyte d) Sargassum (iv) Inferae e) Asterales (v) Walking fern (A) (a)—(ii), (b)—(v), (c)—(iii), (d)—(i), (e)—(iv) (B) (a)—(v), (b)—(iv), (c)—(iii), (d)—(ii), (e)—(i) (C) (a)—(v), (b)—(i), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iv), (e)—(iii) (D) (a)—(iii), (b)—(ii), (c)—(i), (d)—(v), (e)—(iv) (E) (a)—(i), (b)—(iv), (c)—(iii), (d)—(v), (e)—(ii) Negatively geotrophic roots are found in (A) Colocasia (B) Cycas (C) Cactus (D) Coleus. Alga forming a motile colony is (A) Nostoc (B) Spirogyra (C) Volvox (D) Chlwnydomonas. In pteridophytes, phloem is without (A) Sieve cells (B) Sieve areas (C) Companion cells (D) Albuminous cells. First vascular plants were (A) Thallophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Spermatophyta (D) Pteridophyta. A pteridophyte called Horse-tail is (A) Equ:setum . (B) Lycopodium (C) Marsilea (D) Selaginella. Dominant generation in bryophytes is (A) Capsule (B) Sporophyte (C) Seta (D) Gametophyte. Assertion (A). In Spirogyra, some cells in one of the two filaments become empty after conjugation. Reason (R). The aplanogametes from the cells of the ifiaments pass through conjugation tubes into the cells of the other filaments. (A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A (C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true. Choose the correct statement (A) Apophysis is the basal fertile part of capsule in Funwia (B) Apophysis is the apical sterile part of microsporophyll in Cycas (C) Apospory is the development of sporophyte from vegetative cells of gametophyte

(D) Apogamy is the development of gametophyte from vegetative cells of sporophyte.

704.

705.

706. 707. 708. 709. 710. 711. 712. 713. 714. 715. 716. 717.

Match the items of columns I and II Column – I a) Pteris-Spermatozoids b) Cycas  Nake ganetes c) FunariaAntherozoids d) Spirogyra  Aplanogametes

Column - II Zooidogamy Nakuc acud Oogamy Sucrose Physiological anisogamy

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (A) (a)— (i), (b)—(v), (c) —(iv), (d)— (iii) (B) (a)—(iii), (b)—(ii), (c)—(iv), (d)—(v) (C) (a)—(ii), (b)—(v), (c)—(iv), (d)—(i) (D) (a)—(il), (b)—(i), (c)—(iv), (d)—(v) Match the items of columns I and II Column – I Column - II a) Sarcotesta of Cycas (i) Haploid b) Aposporous gametophores of Funaria (ii) Diploid c) Azygospore of Rhizopus (iii) Diploid d) Azygospore Rhizopus (iv) Haploid e) Hypostomium Pteris (v) Diploid (A) (a)—(v), (b)—(iii), (c)—(iv), (d)—(ii) (B) (a)—(i), (b)—(iv), (c)—(ii), (d)—(v) (C) (a)—(v), (b)—(t), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iii) (D) (a)—(ii), (b)—(iv), (c)—(iii), (d)—(i). Which of the following is resurrection plant? (A) Adiantum capillus-veneris (B) Dryopteris filix-mas (C) Selagineila lepidophyila (D) Adiatum caudatum. In gymnosperms how many male gametes are produced by each pollen grain (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1. Which of the following is a flagellated algal (A) Chiamydomonas (B) Ulothnx (C) Spirogyra (D) Acetabularia. Alginic acid is produced by (A) Red alga (B) Green alga (C) Blue green alga (D) Brown alga. During fertilization in ferns, male gamete reaches the female gamete through the agency of (A) Wind (B) Water (C) Insects (D) Chemicals. Coenocytic condition is found in (A) Ulothrix (B) Chlainydomonas (C) Spirogyra (D) Vauchena. Female gametophyte of a heterosporous fern is (A) Archegonium (B) Protonema (C) Prothallus (D) Megasporangiuni. Fern prothallus produces (A) Spored . (B) Gametes (C) Stolons (D) Both A and B. Sporophyte of Riccia is (A) Total parasite (B) Partial parasite (C) Saprophyte (D) Autotroph Vascular cryptogarns are (A) Gymnosperms (B) Pteridophytes (C) Bacteriods (D) Angiosperins. Which is characteristics of ferns? (A) Lea1 gametophyte (B) Circinate vernation (C) Mycorrhizal roots (D) Coralloid roots Transfusion tissue can be traced in

718. 719.

720. 721.

722.

723.

724. 725. 726.

727.

128.

729.

(A) Fern rhizome (B) Fern prothallus (C) Coralloid roots (D) Leaves of Cycas. Cycas circinalis is a source of (A) Timber (B) Resin (C) Sago (D) Essential oil Which of the following red algae are suitable for human consumption? (A) Laminaria and Fucus (B) Gracilarja and Chondrus (C) Porphyra and Spirogyra (D) Rhodymenia and Porphyra. Chlorophylls present in red algae is (A) a,d (B) a,b (C) a,c (D) b,c. In a moss, the sporophyte (A) Manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte (B) Arises from a spore produced from gametophyte (C) Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte (D) Produces gametes that give rise to gametophyte Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flOwers and live plants to distant places because (A) It serves as disinfectant (B) It is hygroscopic (C) It is easily available (D) It reduces transpiration. Prothallus is (A) Gametophyte, monoecious, autotroph present in pteridophytes (B) Gametophyte, monoecious, autotroph. found in bryophytes (C) Sporophyte, dioecious, hetorotroph found in bryophytes (D) Gametophyte, dioecious, autotroph present in pteridophytes. Cycas is a gymnosperm because of (A) Vessels present in xylem (B) Living fossil (C) Naked seed without fruit (D) None of the above Which is not characteristic of bryophytes? (A) Presence of archegonia (B) Independent sporophyte (C) Motile male gainetas (D) Water is essential for fertilization. “Ordines Anomali” of Bentham and Hooker includes (A) Seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development (B) Plants represented only in fossil state (C) Plants described in the literature but which Bentham and Hooker did not see in original (D) A few orders which could not be placed satisfactorily in classification. Which of these is mismatched? (A) Phaneros—visible (B) Kryptos — concealed (C) Gymno—naked (D) Bryon — liverworts (E) Trachea — windpipe Match the following Column – I Column - II a) Red Algae (p) Marchantia b) Liverworts (q) Pirtus c) Walking fern (r) Polysiphonia d) Gymnosperm (s) Adiantum (A) (a)—(q), (b)—(p), (c)—(s), (d)—(r) (B) (a)—(p), (b)—(q), (c)—(r), (d)—(s) (C) (a) — (s), (b) — (r), (c) — (q), (d) — (p) (D) (a)—(r), (b)—(p), (c)—(s), (d)—(q) (E) (a) — (r), (b)—. (s), (c) — (p), (d) — (q) Match the column Column – I Column - II a) Microspermae (1) Alismaceae b) Epigynae (2) Liliaceae c) Calycinae (3) Iridaceae

730.

731. 732. 733. 734. 735. 736. 737. 738. 739. 740. 741. 742. 743.

744. 745. 746.

d) Apocarpae (4) Orchidaceae e) Coronariae (5) Plamae (A) (a)—(2), (b)—(3), (c)—(4), (d)—(5), (e)—(1) (B) (a)—(3), (b)—(4), (c)—(5), (d)—(1), (e) —(2) (C) (a)—(4), b)—(3), (c)—(5), (d)—(1), (e) —(2) (D) (a)—(1), (b)—(2), (c)—(3), (d)—(4), (e) —(5) (E) (a) —(5), (b) —(4), (c) —(3), (d) —(2), (e) —(1) Which of the following is not correctly matched (A) Chiamydomonas — Unicellular flagellate (B) Volvox — Colonial, nonflagellate (C) Laminaria — Flattened leaf like thallus (D) Chiorella — Unicellular, nonflagellate (E) Spirogyra — Filamentous strucutre. The term frond in a fern is used for (A) Rachis (B) Whole plant (C) Spore bearing leaf (D) Sexually reproducing structures. In Cycas, the vascular bundles are arranged in the shape of inverted omega in (A) Leaf (B) Rachis (C) Leaflet (D) Stem. Laminaria (Kelp) and Fucus (Rock Weed) are examples of (A) Green algae (B) Brown algae (C) Red algae (D) Golden brown algae. Funaria differs from Pteñdium in absence of (A) Root (B) Stem (C) Archegonia (D) Embryo. Which is peat moss (A) Sphagnum (B) Riccia (C) Funaria (D) Marchantia Algae producing tocopherol (A) Chiorella (B) Synechocystis (C) Chiwnydomonas (D) Volvox. Bryophytes are amphibious of plant kingdom as their (A) Reproductive phase requires water (B) Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed (C) Conducting strands have tracheids. (D) All the above Which one contains alginic acid (A) Diatoms (B) Blue green algae (C) Laminaria (D) Yellow green alge. An ovule of Cycas has ardiegonia (A) One (B) Two (C) Eight (D) 2—8. Cycas resembles angiosperms in having (A) Vessels (B) Circinate vernation (C) Siphonogany (D) Dichotmous branching Phylogenetic system of angiosperm classification was given by (A) Hailer (B) Hutchinson (C) Takhtajan (D) All the above. Structure protecting archegoma of Marchantia is (A) Apophysis (B) Perichaetium (C) Periphysis (D) Apophysis. What is incorrect for brown algae (A) Presence of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll e (B) Occurrence of fucoxantium (C) Presence of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b (D) Attachment to substratum. Halophytic green alga Dunahella stores (A) Glycerol (B) Sorbitol (C) Proline (D) None of the above. In prothallus of vascular crypogams, antherozoids and eggs mature at different times resulting in (A) High degree of sterility (B) Apomixis (C) Preventon of self fertilization (D) No change in success rate are fertilization Which set contains flagellated male gamates (A) Spirogyra, Anthoceros and Funaña (B) Zygnema Saprolagnia and Hydrilla

747.

748.

749.

750.

751. 752.

753. 754. 755. 756. 757. 758. 759.

(C) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis (D) Riccia, D,yopteris and Cycas. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by (A) Pdristone (B) Elaters (C) Calyptra (D) Indusium

Pollen chambers present in gymnosperm represents (A) Microsporangium (B) Pollen grain cell where sperms are formed (C) Opening of megagametophyte is passage of pollen tube to egg (D) Cavity in nucellus for resting pollen grains alter pollination. Match the columns Column – I Column - II a) Anthoceras (1) Walking fern b) Adiantum (2) Alga c) Sargassium (3) Inferae d) Prothallus (4) Gametophyte e) Asterales (5) Liverwort (A) a—6, b—5, c —1, d—3, e—4 (B) a—5, b—4, c—3, d—2, e—1 (C) a—5, b—1, c—2, d—4, e—3 (D) a—3, b—2, c—1, d—5, e—4 (E) a—1,b—4,c—1,d—2. Match the columns Column – I Column - II a) Cup-shaped (1) Ulothrix b) Girdle-shaped (2) Oedogonium c) Stellate (3) Chlamydomonar d) Reticulate (4) Zygrtema (A) a  2,b—4,c—3,d—1 (B) a—3, b—1, c—4, d—2 (C)a—3,b—4,c—2,d—1 (D) a—4, b—3, c—1, d.—2. (E) a—3, b—4, c—1, d—2. Pick a bushy trailing herbaceous gymnosperm (A) Cedius (B) Cycas (C) Pinus (D) Ephedra (E) Araucaria Plants having single whorl of perianth are placed under (A) Class Dicot, Subclass Monochlamydeae (B) Class Dicot, series Monochlamydeae (C) Class Dicot, series Bicarpellatae (D) Class Monocot, Subclass Monochla mydeae (E) Class Monocot, subclass Gamopetalae. Seed of Cycas is (A) Exalbuniinous and monocotyledonous (B) Exalbuminous and dicotyledonous (C) Albuminous and dicotyledonous (D) Albummous and monocotyledonous. Heterosporous pteridophyte is (A) Selaginella (B) Lycopodium (C) Nephrolepis (D) Equisetum. Which one is homosporous (A) Cycas (B) China Rose (C) Jowar (D) Nephrolepis. Pollen grains of Pinus are (A) Monosaccate (B) Bisaccate (C) Trisaccate (D) Nonsaccate. Vessels are absent in angiosperm (A) Magnolia (B) Drimys (C) Dillenia (D) None of the above. Plant body is gametophytic and bears haploid gametes in (A) Riccia (B) Lycopodium (C) Equisetum (D) Pinus. Oldest gymnospermous tree is (A) Taxodium mucronatum (B) Pinus longavaea

760. 761.

762.

763.

764. 765.

766.

767. 768. 769.

770. 771. 772.

(C) Zamiapygmia (D) Sequoia sempervirens. Ramenta occur in (A) Marchantia (B) Funaria (C) Diyopteris (D) None of the above. Choose the wrong pair (A) Hepaticopsida —Marchantia (B) Lycopsida —Selaginella (C) Bryopsida—Anthoceros (D) Pteropsida —D,yopteris (E) Sphenopsida —Equisetum. Select the correct major pigments and stored food in different groups of algae (A) Chlorophyceae — Stored food starch, major pigments Chi a, b (B) Phaeophyceae — Stored food laminarin, major pigments Chi a, b (C) Rhodophyceae — Stored food floridean starch, major pigments Chl a and d, phycoerythrin. (A) c correct, a and b wrong (B) a correct, b and c wrong (C) a and b correct, c is wrong (D) a and c correct, b wrong (E) b correct. Merit of Bentham and Hooker’s system is (A) Placement of renales in beginning (B) Placement of orchidaceae in microspermae (C) Placement of asteraceae in beginning of gamopetalae (D) Position of gymnospermae in between dicots and monocots Name the group of algae in which sexual reproduction is absent (A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Cyanophyceae (C) Chlorophyceae (D) Phaeophyceae. Assertion a. Life cycle of Funaria is called diplohaplontic. Reason r. In Funaria there is alternation of haploid gametophytic and diploid sporophytic phases, one becoming parent to other. The correct answer is (A) Both a and r are true and r is correct explanation of (B) Both a and r are correct but r is not the correct explanation of a (C) a is true but r is false (D) a is false but r is true. Match the columns Column – I Column - II a) Exarch (1) Rhizome of Pteris b) Endarch (2) Roots of Pteris c) Mesarch (3) Pinnule of Cycas d) Pseudomesarch (4) Primary stem of Cycas (A) q  4, b—3, c—4, d—2 (B) a—2,b—4,c—3,d—1 (C) a—3, b—2, c—1, d—4 (D) a—2, b—4, c—1, d—3. Tracheophyta characterised by habitual hekrophylly, absence of companion cells and presence of vessels in xylem is (A) Pteris (B) Drimys (C) Selaginella (D) Gnetum. Based on its nuclóus, which one is different in Spirogyra (A) Zygospore (B) Azygospore (C) Akinete (D) Aplanospore Which one shows correct descending sequence with reference to the number of cohorts. (A) Heteromerae, Inferae, Disciforae, Calyciflorae (B) Bicarpellatae, Disciflorae, Heteromerae, calyciflorae (C) Disciflorae Thalainiflorae, Calyciflora; Heteromerae (D) Thalamiflorae Calyciflorae, Disciflorae, Inferae Sphaerocarpos belongs to (A) Pteridophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Gymnospermae (D) Angiospermae. What is true of bryophytes? They have (A)Thalloid nature (B) Chioroplasts (C) Archegonia (D) All the above. Phanerogams include (A) Gymnosperms (B) Angiosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) Both A and B

773. 774.

775.

776.

777. 778. 779. 780. 781.

782. 783. 784. 785. 786. 787. 788. 789. 791.

Which one is the hardest plant product? (A) Lignin (B) Cutin (C) Sporopollenin (D) Suberin. More than one answer may be correct Maivhantiapo 1. Is dioccious 2. Possesses antheridiophores and archegoniophores 3. Lacks foot and seta inks sporophyte 4. Is heterosporous. (A) 1, 2, 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct. More than one answer may be correct 1. Fertile spike — Ophioglossum 2. Sporangiophore —Equiselum 3. Synangium—Psjlogum 4. Apophysis —Spirogyra. (A) 1, 2, 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct Gnetunz, a gymnosperm differs from Cycas and Pinus but shows affinities with angiosperms in the features (A) Perianth and two integuments (B) Embryo development and apical meristem (C) Absence of resin ducts and leaf venation (D) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia. Gametophytes do not have free independent existence in (A) Funaria (B) Polytrichum (C) Cedms (D) Dryopteris Which is heterosporous? (A) Salvinia (B) Adiantum (C) Diyopteris (D) Equisetuni. External fertilization occurs in majority of (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Liverworts (D) Mosses. Which of the following sets belongs to the same class of algae? (A) Chara; Fucus, Polysiphonia (B) Volvo Spirogyra; Chiamydomonas (C) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix (D) Sargassuni Laminaria; Gracilaria Bryophytes resemble algae in (A) Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition (B) Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition (C) Thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition (D) Thallus-like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition. Marchantia is a bryophyte as it does not possess (A) Vascular tissues (B) Seeds (C) Roots (D) Independent sporophvte. Fern leaves are named as (A) Fronds (B) Sporophylls (C) Lamina (D) Blades. Young leaves of Cycas show (A) Opposite arrangement (B) Circinate vernation (C) Alternate arrangement (D) Simple venation Dominant gametophytic phase alternated by multicellular dependent sporophyte occurs in (A) Adiantum (B) Polytñ chum (C) Chiamydomonas (D) Pinus Which gymnosperm group includes all fossil plants? (A) Gnetales (B) Cycadales (C) Cycadofilicales (D) Coniferales. Which class is included under gymnosperms? (A) Cycadopsida (B) Pteropsida (C) Sphenopsida (D) Lycopsida. (E) Bryopsida Which series includes ranales, parietals and malvales? (A) Calyciflorae (B) Thalamiflorae (C) Disciflorae (D) Bicarpdllatac (E) Inferae. Mannitol is storage food in (A) Gracilana (B) Chara (C) Poiphyni (D) Fucus Which is important in development of seed habit (A) Dependent sporophyte (B) Haplontic life cycle (C) Heterospory (D) Free living gametophyte

792. 793.

794. 795. 796. 797. 798. 799. 800. 801.

Ten cells each in the two adjacent filaments of Spiro affinir are participating in reproduction. How many new Spirogyra plants are produced through sexual reproduction (A) 5 (B)10 (C) 20 (D) 40. Which of the following show zooidogamous oogamy? (i) Spirog (ii) Funana (iii) Pteris (iv) Cycas. (A)i, u,iii (B) ii, iii, iv (C) ii iv (D) i. ii, iv. FemaleconeofPinusisa (A) Modified scale (B) Mod needle (C) Modified dwarf shoot (D) Modified long shoot Prothallus of fern produces (A) Spores (B) Cones (C) Gametes (D) Both A and C. Fern spores are (A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid. Leaves of moss plant possess (A) Stomata and chloroplasts (B) No stomata, nq, chioroplasts (C) Stomata but no chioroplasts (D) No stomata but chioroplasts. Lower vascular plants which produce seeds but not fruits belong to (A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Gymnosperms (D) Equicetum An alga rich in protein is (A) Nostoc (B) Ulothrix (C) Spirogyra (D) Clllorel/a. Yellow green pigmentation is found in (A) Xanthophyta (B) Phacophyta (C) Rhodophyta (D) Chlorophyta. Which one is not a feature of gymnosperms (A) Perennial plant (B) Parallel venation (C) Distinct branches (D) Xylem with vessels.

ANSWER – KEY 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (A.) 27. (B) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 41. (C) 42. . (B) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (C) 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A) 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (D) 67. (C) 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (D) 77. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (C) 86. (D) 87. (A) 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (C) 97. (A) 101. (D) 102. (C) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (C) 106. (C) 107. (B) 111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (B) 114. (D) 115, (C) 116. (C) 117. (A) 121. (B) 122. (C) 123. (D) 124. (D) 125. (B) 126. (B) 127. (C) 131. (C) 132. (D) 133. (C) 134. (C). 135. (C) 136. (B) 137. (D) 141. (B) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (A) 145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (C) 151. (B) 152. (D) 153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (D) 156. (A) 157. (B) 161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (B) 165. (C) 166. (A) 167. (B) 171. (B) 172. (D) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (C) 176. (D) 177. (A) 181. (A) 182. (D) 183. (D) 184. (B) 185. (C) 186. (A) 187. (B) 191. (D) 192. (A) 193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (C) 196. (D) 197. (B) 201. (D) 202. (B) 203. (B) 204. (A) 205. (C) 206. (D) 207. (D) 211. (B) 212. (A) 213. (B) 214. (A) 215. (C) 216. (C) 217. (B) 221. (D) 222. (D) 223. (A) 224. (D) 225. (B) 226. (C) 227. (A)

8. (B) 18. (A) 28. (D) 38. (B) 48. (D) 58. (D) 68. (B) 78. (D) 88. (B) 98. (C) 108.(B) 118. (B) 128.(C) 138.(D) 148.(D) 158.(C) 168.(D) 178.(D) 188.(D) 198.(A) 208.(D) 218.(A) 228.(C)

9. (C) 19. (C) 29. (D) 39. (B) 49. (C) 59. (B) 69. (C) 79. (B) 89. (B) 99. (B) 109. (B) 119. (A) 129. (A) 139. (C) 149. (A) 159. (B) 169. (C) 179. (C) 189. (C) 199. (A) 209. (A) 219. (B) 229. (A)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100. 110. 120. 130. 140. 150. 160. 170. 180. 190. 200. 210. 220. 230.

(C) (B) (C) (A) (D) (A) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (D) (D) (D) (C) (B) (D) (A) (C) (C) (B) (C) (C)

231. (C) 241. (C) 251. (C) 261. (B) 271. (C) 281. (A) 291. (A) 301. (C) 311. (B) 321. (A) 331. (B) 341. (A) 351. (A) 361. (C) 371. (C) 381. (A) 391. (B) 401. (A) 411. (C) 421. (C) 431. (A) 441. (B) 451. (C) 461. (D) 471. (D) 481. (B) 491. (D) S01 (A) 511. (D) 521. (C) 531. (D) 541. (13) 551. (A) 561. (C) 571 (A) 581. (A) 591. (A) 601. (A) 611. (A) 621. (C) 631. (D) 641. (A) 651. (C) 661.. (B) 671. (C) 681. (B) 691. (C) 701. (D) 711. (D) 721. (C) 731. (C) 741. (D)

232. (A) 242. (B) 252. (B) 262. (D) 272. (A) 282. (C) 292. (B) 302. (A) 312. (C) 322. (B) 332. (B) 342. (D) 352. (C) 362. (D) 372. (A) 382. (C) 392. (D) 402. (D) 412. (D) 422. (B) 432. (B) 442. (D) 452. (B) 462. (B) 472. (C) 482. (D) 492. (C) 502. (B) 51.2.(B) 522. (B) 532. (D) 542. (C) 552. (D) 562. (B) 572. (D) 582. (D) 592. (D) 602. (B) 612. (A) 622. (A) 632. (B) 642. (D) 652. (B) 662. (C) 672. (B) 682. (A) 692. (A) 702. (A) 712. (C) 722. (B) 732. (B) 742. (B)

233. (C) 243. (D) 253. (A) 263. (A) 273. (B) 283. (A) 293. (C) 303. (C) 313. (C) 323. (D) 333. (A) 343. (A) 353. (B) 363. (B) 373. (C) 383. (C) 393. (C) 403. (B) 413. (C) 423. (D) 433. (A) 443. (A) 453. (B) 463. (B) 473. (D) 483. (C) 493. (B) 503. (A) 513. (B) 523. (D) 533. (B) 543. (C) 553. (C) 563. (A) 573. (B) 583. (B) 593. (A) 603. (C) 613. (B) 623. (B) 633. (B) 643. (C) 653. (D) 663. (D) 673. (A) 683. (D) 693. (B) 703. (B) 713. (B) 723. (A) 733. (B) 743. (C)

234. (D) 244. (C) 254. (A) 264. (A) 274. (D) 284. (D) 294. (C) 304. (A) 314. (C) 324. (C) 334. (A) 344. (B) 354. (A) 364. (D) 374. (A) 384. (D) 394. (B) 404. (A) 414. (B) 424. (D) 434. (C) 444. (B) 454. (C) 464. (A) 474. (B) 484. (B) 494. (A) 504. (D) 514. (D) 524. (A) 534. (D) 544. (B) 554. (B) 564. (B) 574. (B) 584. (A) 594. (B) 604. (D) 614. (C) 624. (B) 634. (C) 644. (D) 654. (A) 664. (A) 674. (A) 684. (B) 694. (D) 704. (D) 714. (A) 724. (C) 734. (A) 744. (A)

235. (C) 245. (A) 255. (D) 265. (B) 275. (B) 285. (C) 295. (D) 305. (B) 315. (D) 325. (D) 335. (A) 345. (B) 355. (D) 365. (C) 375. (A) 385. (D) 395. (C) 405. (A) 415. (D) 425. (B) 435. (B) 445. (A) 455. (B) 465. (B) 475. (A) 485. (A) 495. (C) 505. (C) 515. (A) 525. (D) 535. (A) 545. (C) 555. (A) 565. (B) 575. (C) 585. (C) 595. (C) 605. (D) 615. (B) 625. (D) 635. (C) 645. (C) 655. (B) 665. (C) 675. (B) 685. (C) 695. (A) 705. (A) 715. (B) 725. (B) 735. (A) 745. (C)

236. (B) 246. (A) 256. (C) 266. (D) 276. (A) 286. (B) 296. (A) 306. (A) 316. (D) 326. (A) 336. (D) 346. (C) 356. (B) 366. (C) 376. (D) 386. (A) 396. (D) 406. (B) 416. (B) 426. (C) 436. (B) 446. (C) 456.(C) 466.(C) 476.(B) 486.(C) 496.(A) 506.(B) 516.(D) 526.(B) 536.(D) 546.(A) 556.(B) 566.(C) 576.(C) 586.(D) 596.(C) 606.(B) 616.(B) 626.(C) 636.(D) 646.(B) 656.(C) 666.(B) 676.(D) 686.(C) 696.(B) 706.(C) 716.(B) 726.(D) 736.(B) 746.(D)

237. (C) 247. (D) 257. (B) 267. (D) 277. (D) 287. (B) 297. (C) 307. (D) 317. (13) 327. (C) 337. (B) 347. (B) 357. (A) 367. (B) 377. (A) 387. (C) 397. (A) 407. (A) 417. (B) 427. (C) 437. (C) 447. (A) 457. (A) 467. (A) 477. (A) 487. (D) 497. (B) 507. (A) 517. (C) 527. (C) 537. (B) 547. (D) 557. (C) 567. (A) 577. (A) 587. (B) 597. (C) 607. (D) 617. (D) 627. (A) 637. (C) 647. (A) 657. (A) 667. (D) 677. (C) 687. (A) 697. (C) 707. (C) 717. (D) 727. (D) 737. (A) 747. (B)

238.(D) 248.(A) 258.(D) 268.(B) 278.(B) 288.(C) 29$.(C) 308.(A) 318.(D) 328.(D) 338.(C) 348.(D) 358.(B) 368.(B) 378.(C) 388.(A) 398.(B) 408.(B) 418.(C) 428.(A) 438.(D) 448.(A) 458. (D) 468.(B) 478,(B) 488. (A) 498. (C) 508. (C) 518.(B) 528.(.A) 538.(D) 548.(B) 558.(D) 568.(D) 578.(D) 588.(A) 598.(A) 608.(D) 618.(B) 628.(C) 638.(B) 648.(D) 658.(D) 668.(B) 678.(D) 688.(A) 698.(C) 708.(A) 718.(C) 728.(D) 738.(C) 748.(D)

239. (B) 249. (C) 259. (B) 269. (A) 279. (D) 289. (C) 299. (B) 309. (C) 319. (B) 329. (A) 339. (D) 349. (C) 359. (B) 369. (C) 379. (B) 389. (B) 399. (A) 409. (D) 419. (A) 429. (D) 439. (A) 449. (A) 459. (B) 469. (A) 479. (D) 489. (B) 499. (A) 509. (D) 519. (A) 529. (C) 539. (D) 549. (C) 559. (A) 569. (A) 579. (B) 589. (C) 599. (B) 609. (C) 619. (A) 629. (D) 639. (D) 649. (C) 659. (B) 669. (C) 679. (A) 689. (C) 699. (D) 709. (D) 719. (D) 729. (C) 739. (D) 749. (C)

240. 250. 260. 270. 280. 290. 300. 310. 320. 330. 340. 350. 360. 370. 380. 390. 400. 410. 420. 430. 440. 450. 460. 470. 480. 490. 500. 510. 520. 530. 540. 550. 560. 570. 580. 590. 600. 610. 620. 630. 640. 650. 660. 670. 680. 690. 700. 710. 720. 730. 740. 750.

(A) (C) (C) (B) (B) (D) (A) (D) (C) (C) (D) (A) (B) (A) (B) (A) (C) (A) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (A) (D) (A) (C) (B) (D) (D) (C) (C) (C) (D) (A) (B) (B) (C) (A) (D) (C) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (A) (B) (C) (B)

751. 761. 771. 781. 791. 801.

(D) (C) (D) (C) (C) (D)

752. (A) 762. (D) 772. (D) 782. (D) 792. (B)

753. (C) 763. (A) 773. (C) 783. (A) 793. (B)

754. 764. 774. 784. 794.

(A) (B) (8) (B) (D)

755. 765. 775. 785. 795.

(D) (A) (A) (B) (C)

756.(B) 766.(D) 776.(D) 786.(C) 796.(A)

757. (B) 767. (C) 777. (C) 787. (A) 797. (D)

758.(A) 768.(A) 778.(A) 788.(B) 798.(C)

759. (13) 769. (D) 779. (A) 789. (D) 799. (D)

760. 770. 780. 790. 800.

(C) (B) (B) (D) (A)

Kingdome Animalia or Metozoa (Multicellular Consumers) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16 17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22.

Animals floating passively on water surface are (A) Phytoplankton (B) Zooplankton (C) Nekton (D) Pelagic. Animals living in open sea are (A) Nekton (B) Benthos (C) Plankton (D) Pelagic. Animals that move about or swim about in sea are (A) Plankton (B) Sedentary (C) Pelagic (D) Benth Animals floating or swimming in surface film of water are (A) Neuston (B) Nekton (C) Pelagic (D) Seston. Actively swimming animals constitute (A) Tripton (B) Sestón (C) Nekton (D) Plankton. Bottom dwelling animals constitute (A) Plankton (B) Nekton (C) Tripton (D) Benthos. Level of organisation in sponges is (A) Cellular level (B) Acellular level (C) Tissue level (D) Organ-system level. Cell aggregate plan is found in (A) Cnidarians (B) Sponges (C) Roundworms (D) Flatworms Level of structural organisation found in Hydra and Jelly Fishes is (A) Cellular (B) Acellular (C) Tissue (D) Organ-system. Symmetry found in Volvox is (A) Radial (B) Biradial (C) Bilateral (D) Spherical. In Hydra the symmetry is (A) Absent (B) Radial (C) Bilateral (D) Spherical. The symmetry found in an animal which can be divided into two similar halves by one plane only is (A) Radial (B) Biradial (C) Spherical (D) Bilateral Radial symmetry occurs in (A) Fishes (B) Human beings (C) Molluscs (D) Star fishes. Majority of sponges are (A) Asymmetrical (B) Radially symmetrical (C) Spherically symmetrical (D) Bilaterally symmetrical. The phylum/phyla showing radial symmetry (A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Echinodermata and coelenterate (D) Coelenterata and platyhelminthes. A deuterostomic animal is (A) Sea Anemone (B) Star Fish (C) Pearl Oyster (D) Cabbage Butterfly. Tube-within-a-Tube body plan is shown by (A) Coclenterates (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Aschelminthes (Nemethelminthes) (D) Porifers. Development of mouth later than anus is the condition called (A) Brachiostomatic (B) Schizostomatic (C) Deuterostomatic (D) Protostomatic. Blind sac body plan is shown by (A) Roundworms (B) Annelids (C) Coelenterates (D) Arthropods. Digestive system is complete where (A) All the digestive glands are present (B) Both anus and mouth are present (C) Digestion occurs in the cavity of digestive tract (D) Digestion occurs in the individual cells lining the digestive tract. An opening serving both as mouth and anus is found in (A) Coelenterates and porifers (B) Coelenterates and aschelminthes (C) Coelenterates and annelids (D) Coelenterates and platyhelminthes. Diploblastic animals occur in

23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

(A) Annelida (B) Porifera (C) Coelenterata (D) Both B and C. A coelom is absent in (A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Platyhelminthes (D) All the above. A phylum with triploblastic acoelomate animals is (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda. Echinoderms and chordates have (A) Pseudocoelom (B) Schizocoelom (C) Enterocoelom (D) Haemocoel. Haemocoel occurs in (A) Earthworm (B) Hydra (C) Cockroach and Pila (D) Leech An animal with metameric segmentation/ metamerism is (A) Housefly (B) Earth worm, (C) Roundworm (D) Plan aita. A social/colonial animal is (A) Locust (B) Mosquito (C) White Ant (D) Fish. Invertebrate constitute percentage of animal kingdom (A) 95% (B) 75% (C) 60% (D) 30%. Sponges and coelenterates resemble each other in being (A) Monoblastic and acoelomate (B) Diploblastic and acoelomate (C) Triploblastic and acoelomate (D) Triploblastic and pseudocoelomate. Annelids have (A) Tube-within-a-tube plan, unsegmented body and haemocoel (B) Blind sac plan, segmented body and true coelom (C) Tube-within-a-tube plan, metameric segmentation and true coelom D) Tube-within-a-tube plan, metameric segmentation and enterocoelom.

Revision Questions 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

etamerism is characteristic of A) Platyhelminthes B) Mollusca (C) Porifera nimals/organisms floating on the surface of water are A) Plankton B) Pelagic (C) Benthon ody does not show any segmentation in A) Frog B) Cockroach (C) Earthworm Radial symmetry occurs in (A) Fishes (B) Molluscs (C) Star Fishes Animals having well marked digestive cavity are included under (A) Parazoa (B) Enterozoa (C) Mesozoa Haemocoel is present in (A) Hydra (B) Earth (C) Nereis A true coleom is absent in phylum (A) Nematoda (B) Annelida (C) Echinodermata. True coelom or body cavity occurs in (A) Hydra (B) Taenia (C) Pheretima An animal having condition is (A) Ascaris (B) Sea Anemone (C) Planaria True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution in (A) Aschelminthes (B) Chordata (C) Echirodermata A gregarious but nonsocial animal is (A) Ant (B) Honey Bee (C) Locust An animal without segmentation is (A) Shipworm (B) Earthworm (C) Tapeworm Sponges are (A) Monoblastic (B) Diploblastic (C) Triploblastic

D) Annelida D) Neritic D) Star Fish/Hydra. (D) Sponges (D) Metazoa (D) Scolopendra. (D) Mollusca. (D) Sycon (D) Periplaneta (D) Annelida. (D) Wasp. (D) Glow-worm. (D) Heteroblastic.

45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

The term for body cavity present in triploblastic animals is (A) Haemocoel (B) Pseudocoelom (C) Coelom (D) All the above Sea Anemone has a symmetry (A) Bilateral (B) Spherical (C) Pentamerous (D) Radial/Biradial. Animals devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs are (A) Tapeworms (B) Sponges (C) Threadworms (D) Liver Fluke A radially symmetrical diploblastic animal is (A) Roundworm (B) Earthworm (C) Hydra (D) Liver Fluke. Which group contains an animal that is not pseudocoelomate? (A) Enterobius, Wuchereria (B) Ascaris, Ancylosroma (C) Ancylostoma Drancunculus (D) Ascaris, Taenia Radial symmetry is often exhibited by animals having (A) One opening of alimentary canal (B) Aquatic mode of living (C) Benthos/sedentary nature (D) Ciiary mode of feeding Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as (A) Enterocoelom (B) Schizocoel (C) Pseudocoelom (D) Haemocoelom. An animal devoid of anus is (A) Unio (B) Fasciola (C) Pheretima (D) Periplaneta. Besides Annelida and Arthropoda metamerism is found in (A) Cestoda (B) Acanthocephala (C) Chordata (D) Mollusca. Fixed organisms generally possesses (A) Asymmetrical body (B) Radial symmetry (C) One single opening of digestive canal (D) Cilia on the surface to create water current. Trochophore larva occurs in (A) Annelida and Porifera (B) Coelenterata and Annelida (C) Mollusca and Coelenterata (D) Annelida and Mollusca Coelom is cavity between alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by (A) Ectoderm and endoderm (B) Mesoderm and ectoderm (C) Ectoderm on both sides (D) Mesoderm on both sides Which one of the following does not have larvae in its life cycle? (A) Prawn (B) Earthworm (C) Crab (D) Cockroach Coelom produced by splitting of mesoderm is (A) Hydrocoel (B) Enterocoel (C) Schizocoel (D) None of the above. Radial symmetry occurs in (A) Porifera and Coelenterata (B) Coelenterata and Echinodermata (C) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes (D) Arthropoda and Mollusca. On the basis of organisation, animals are grouped into (A) Metazoa and Eumetazoa (B) Protozoa and Metazoa (C) Protozoa and Parazoa (D) Parazoa and Metazoa True coelom is lined by (A) Ecotod erm (B) Ectoderm and endoderm (C) Mesoderm (D) Endoderm. An animal which comes out at night and bides during day time is (A) Diurnal (B) Nocturnal (C) Cursorial (D) Arboreal. Tiny free living animals on the surface o water constitute (A) Zooplankton (B) Phytoplankton (C) Benthon (D) Symbionts. An enterocoelomate invertebrate group is (A) Annelidà (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca. Arboreal mammals have (A) Jumping character(B) Burrowing character(C) Climbing character(D) Flying character

66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74.

75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86.

Development of patagia in animals is (A) Aquatic adaptation (B) Arboreal adaptation (C) Cave adaptation (D) Volant adaptation Choose the correct combination (A) Annelida and Porifera Phyla (B) Oligochaeta and Arthropoda Phyla (C) Mollusca and Hydrozoa Classes CD) Ayes and Chordata Classes. Cell-tissue organisation occurs in (A) Liver fluke (B) Sponge (C) Hydra (D) Starfish. Coelom is cavity found between (A) Ectoderm and Endoderm (B) Mesoderm and Endoderm (C) Body wall and ectoderm (D) Mesoderm and body wall Fossorial adaptation is for (A) Running (B) Tree life (C) Shelter and storage of food (D) Flying. Deuterostomes are (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Annelida (E) Mollusca Animal with pseudocoelom is (A) Amia/Leech (B) Lepisma/Liver Fluke (C) Dragon Fly/Jelly Fish (D) scherena/Hookworm. Veliger larva occurs in phylum (A) Mollusca (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Cnidaria. What is characteristic of deuterostomes (A) Spiral cleavage, blastopore becoming mouth anus (B) Radial cleavage, blastophore becoming anus (C) Spiral cleavage, blastopore becoming anus (D) Radial cleavage, blastopore becoming mouth Larva like stage of Hydra is (A) Planula (B) Hydrula (C) Scyphula (D) Hydratuba. Which one possesses radial symmetry (A) Star Fish (B) Apple Snail (C) Frog (D) Pigeon (E) Butterfly. Animal group with pseudocoelom is (A) Echinoderms (B) Molluscs (C) Aschelminthes (D) Annelids. Pseudocoelom develops ?rom (A) Blastopore lip (B) Archenteron (C) Embryonic mesoderm (D) Blastocoel. Body cavity lined by mesoderm is (A) Coelenieron (B) Blastocoel (C) Coclom (D) Pseudocoel. Haemocoel occurs in (A) Porifera (B) Protozoa (C) Coelenterata (D) Arthropoda. Larva found in anneida (A) Trochophore (B) Bipinnaria (C) Tornaria (D) Glochidium Body cavity not lined by mesoderm and directly connected to archenteron occurs in (A) Platybelminthes (B) Nematodes (C) Earthworm (D) Echinoderm Which one is correctly matched (A) Porifera (B) Protozoa (C) Coelenterata (D) Arthropoda Which one is correctly matched ‘A Jell Fi h and Star Fish — Radial (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Arthropoda (D) Echinodermata Which one is not correctly matched (A) Anneida — Enterocoelomate (B) Arthropoda — Schizocoelomate (C) Platyhelminthes —Acoelomate (D) Nemathelminthes—Pseudocoelomate. Coelomate animal where blastopore develops into anus is (A) Blastostomate (B) Protostomate (C) Deuterostomate (D) None of the above.

87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. . 93. 94. 95. 96. . 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107.

Nektons are (A) Floaung plants (B) Swimming organisms (C) Suspended plants (D) Animals associated with plants Cold blooded animals are (A) Bat, Rat B) Frog, Snake (C) Snake, Bird (D) Bird. Rabbit. Which animal group ni high and constant body temperature? (A) Reptiles (B) Amphibians (C) Birds (D) Fishes. In contrast to anneids, the platyhelminthes show (A) Absence of body cavity (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Radial symmetry (D) Presence of pseudocoel Engulfing of food in solid or fluid state is (A) Saprozoic nutrition (B) Parasitic nutrition (C) Sapropbytic nutrition (D) Holozoic nutrition Enterocoelous cavity is present in (A) Astonna (B) Protostomia (C) Blastostomia (D). Deuterostomia. Which one does not have radial symmetry? (A) Hydra (B) Starfish (C) Spider (D) Aurelia. Metameric segmentation is characteristic of (A) Mollusca and chordate (B) Platyhelminthes and arthropoda (C) Echinodermata and annehcla (D) Annelida and arthropoda Homo sapiens is A) Coclomate (B) Pseudocoelomate (C) Acoelomate (D) Paracoelomate Oranisms which give birth to young ones directi are (A) Oviparous (B) Ovoviparous (C) Viviparous (D) Both A and B. Amoeba is (A) Biradial (B) Asymmetric (C) Radial (D) Bil Triploblastic animals have primarily (A) Bilateral symmetry (B) True coelom (C) Sexual dimorphism (D) High regeneration power Animals with built in thermostat for maintaining body temperature are called (A) Oligothermic (B) Biothermic (C) Poikilothermic (D) Homoeothermic. Which ones lack tissue organ level organisation (A) Sponges (B) Annelids (C) Trematodes (D) Neanatodes. Which one has a biradial symmetry? (A) Cockroach (B) Jelly fish (C) Sea Anemone (D) Paramoecium. In deuterostomia, embryonic blastopore produces (A) Mouth (B) Anus (C) Gonopore (D) Both A and B. Larva of Jelly Fish (Aurelia) is (A) Plannula (B) Medusa (C) Polyp (D) Blastula. Larva occurs in (A) Invertebrates (B) Vertebrates (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Stage between two larval moults is (A) Larva (B) Instar (C) Pupa (D) Morula Changes that convert larva into adult constitute . (A) Metastasis (B) Metagenesis (C) Alternation (D) Metamorphosis. Thigmotaxis does not occur in (A) Hydra (B) Amoeba (C) Paramecium (D) Ascaris.

108.

109. 110. 111.

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71. 81. 91. 101. 111.

Cross section of body of an invertebrate is given. Identify the animal from the body plan

(A) Cockroach (B) Planaria (C) Roundworm (D) Earthworm. Deuterostome condition and indeterminate radial cleavage are characteristics of (A) Arthropods and echinoderms (B) Chordates and arthropods (C) Chordates and echinoderms (D) Chordates, arthropods and annehds. Which is an ectotherm? (A) Lizard (B) Pigeon (C) Rabbit (D) Camel. Which one is the group of bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic animals? (A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (C) Ctenophores (D) Aschelminthes. (B) (B) (D) (C) (D) (C) (C) (B) (A) (D) (D) (D)

2. (D) 12. (D) 22. (D) 32. (D) 42. (C) 52. (B) 62. (B) 72. (D) 82. (B) 92. (D) 102. (B)

3. (C) 13. (D) 23. (D) 33. (A) 43. (A) 53. (C) 63. (A) 73. (A) 83. (A) 93. (C) 103. (A)

4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74. 84. 94. 104.

(A) (A) (A) (D) (B) (B) (B) (B) (A) (D) (C)

5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95. 105.

(C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (A) (B)

6. (D) 7. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 26. (C.) 27. (B) 36. (B) 37. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 56. (D) 57. (B) 66. (D) 67. (A) 76. (A) 77. (C) 86. (C) 87. (B) 96. (C) 97. (B) 106. (D) 107. (D)

8. (B) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (A) 48. (C) 58. (C) 68. (C) 78. (D) 88. (B) 98. (A) 108.(B)

9. (C) 19. (C) 29. (D) 39. (A) 49. (D) 59. (B) 69. (A) 79. (C) 89. (C) 99. (D) 109. (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100. 110.

(D) (B) (B) (B) (C) (B) (C) (D) (A) (A) (A)

Porifera  Pore Bearing Animals 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

The study of sponges is called (A) Protozoology (B) Parazoology (C) Nematology (D) Helminthology. The intercommunicating cavities in the body of a sponge constitute (A) Water vascular system (B) Canal system (C) Circulating system (D) None of the above. Choanocytes are present in (A) Incurrent canals (B) Radial canals (C) Excurrent canals (D) Spongocoel. The epidermis of sponge is made up of (A) Thesocytes (B) Pinacocytes (C) Choanocytes (D) Archaeocytes. The nutrition in sponges is (A) Holozoic (B) Holophytic (C) Saprozoic (D) Mixotrophic. Which is the inhalent aperture in a sponge? (A) Prosopyle (B) Apopyle (C) Osculum (D) Ostium. Boring Sponge is (A) Hyalonema (B) Cliona (C) Chalina (D) Spongilla. Paragastric cavity of sponges is lined by (A) Amoebocytes (B) Chromocytes (C) Choanocytes (D) Pinacocytes. Flagellate larva of sponges is (A) Amphiblastula (B) Planaria (C) Planula (D) Flydrula. Spicules are formed by (A) Calcoblasts (B) Silicoblast (C) Spongioblasts (D) Choanocyte Which is a collared cell (A) Scleroblast (B) Silicoblast (C) Chromocyte (D) Choanocyte. Spicule producing cells of sponges are (A) Spongioblasts (B) Calcoblasts (C) Silicoblasts (D) Both B and C. Ingestion in sponge is by (A) Pinacocytes (B) Archaeocytes (C) Trophocytes (D) Choanocytes Sponges show (A) Protoplasmic level of organization (B) Cellular level of organisation (C) Tissue level of organization (D) None of the above. Who considered sponges as animal first (A) Aristotle (B) Darwin (C) Leeuwenhoek (D) Ellis. The precious sponge is (A) Hyalonema (B) Euplectella (C) Euspongia (D) Grwztia. Euplectella belongs to class (A) Homocoela-Calcarea (B) Hexactinellida (C) Demospongiae (D) Heterocoela-Calcarea. Choánocytes are (A) Ectodermal (B) Mesodermal (C) Endodermal (D) Interstitial cells Pinacocytes are (A) Ectodermal (B) Mesodermal (C) Endodermal (D) Interstitial cells. Internal buds in sponge are called (A) Nodes (B) Buds (C) Gemmules (D) Gastrulae. Common larva of a sponge is (A) Tadpole (B) Planula (C) Placula (D) Parenchymula. Sponges are (A) Pelagic (B) Sessile (C) Nekton (D) Plankton. A common chamber in sponges is (A) Incurrent canal (B) Radial canal (C) Excurrent canals (D) Spongocoel.

24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

Gemmules take part in (A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction (C) Digestion (D) Development of water current in sponges. Euplectella is a symbol of union till death because (A) Its basal root tuft and upper part symbolise the two sexes (B) A young shrimp pair gets entrapped in the sponge (C) It symbolises the goddess of marriage (D) It contains a sieve plate in the osculum region. Root tuft passes as columella and then forms gastral cone in (A) Hyalonema (B) Spongia (C) Spongilla (D) Cliona. A dried piece of sponge is composed of (A) Cellulose fibres (B) Silk fibres (C) Spongin fibres (D) Elastic fibres. In sponges, which one of the following corresponds to the mouth of other animals (A) Osculum (B) Incurrent canal (C) Ostia (D) Excurrent canal. Many sponges may be bigger than fishes, yet they do not have respiratory organs because they (A) Are sedentary (B) Have porous body (C) Respire anaerobically (D) Do not require them. Which is correct in sponges (A) Single mouth innumerable exits (B) Single exit innumerable mouths (C) A true coelom (D) Radial symmetry. Difference between sponges and other metazoa is (A) Sponges do not contain blood (B) Sponges possess cellular level of organization (C) Sponges do not have cell division (D) Sponges do not have division of labour. Sponges are characterised by (A) Absence of organs and tissues (B) Presence of tissues but absence of organs (C) Presence of both tissues and organs but absence of organ systems (D) Absence of cells. Sponges lack (A) Body plan (B) Cellular differentiation (C) Appendages (D) Sexual reproduction. Pinacoderm is (A) Name of body wall of sponges (B) Outer body layer of sponges (C) Inner body layer (D) Middle layer of body wall. Mesohyl layer of sponges is (A) Nonliving (B) Noncellular (C) Gelatinous (D) All the above Wandering cells of. sponges are called (A) Pinacocytes (B) Porocytes (C) Choanocytes (D) Amoebocytes Choanocytes are (A) Uniflagellate (B) Biflagellate (C) Tetraflagellate (D) Multiflagellate. Digestion of food is completed in sponges (A) Choanocytes (B) Trophocytes (C) Thesocytes (D) Phagocytes. In sponges, various types of body cells obtain nourishment from (A) Choanocytes (B) Trophocytes (C) Thesocytes (D) Both B and C. Mesogloea of sponges consists of (A) Gelatinous matrix (B) Fibres (C) Spicules (D) All the above. Collencytes of sponges are connected with production of (A) Collagen fibres (B) Spicules (C) Spongin fibres (D) Both B and C. Myocytes of sponges are modified (A) Choanocytes (B) Amoebocytes (C) Pinacocytes (D) Gland cells. Cells peculiar to porifers are (A) Choanocytes (B) Porocytes (C) Both A and B (D) Amoebocytes.

44. 45. 46. 47.

48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64.

Myocytes of sponges show (A) Contractibility (B) Nervous excitation(C) Secretion of fibres (D) All the above. Sponges are (A) Planktonic (B) Nectonic (C) Neuston (D) Sedentary. Silicoblasts occur in (A) Calcarea (B) Hexactinellida (C) Demospongia (D) Both B and C. In sponges the germ cells are (A) Flagellate (B) Nonflagellate (C) Uniflagellate sperm and nonflagellate egg (D) Multiflagellate sperm and nonflagdllate egg. Germ cells of sponges are formed by (A) Pinacocytes (B) Archaeocytes (C) Collencytes (D) Choanocytes. Deinospongiae have (A) Monoaxon spicules (B) Triaxon spicules (C) Tetraxon spicules and spongin fibres (D) All the above. Sponges are (A) Anunonotelic (B) Ureotchc (C) Uncotelic (D) Both B and c. Regeneration ability of sponges was first studied by (A) Grant (B) Wilson (C) Ellis (D) Aristotle Perennating structures found in sponges are (A) Buds (B) Parenchymula (C) Reduction bodies (D) Oscula. Gemmules of sponges are (A) External buds (B) Branches bearing reproductive organs (C) Internal buds (D) Germ cells Sponges are generally (A) Hermaphrodite (B) Unisexual (C) Sexually sterile (D) Either B or C. Scypha (Sycon) belongs to (A) Calcarea (B) Hexactinellida (C) Demospongiae (D) Hyalospongiae. Sponges belonging to calcarea occur in (A) Fresh water (B) Shallow sea water (C) Deep sea water (D) Some marine, other fresh water. Scypha has (A) Spherical symmetry (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Radial symmetry (D) No symmetry. A colonial sponge is (A) Euplectella (B) Hyalonema (C) Leucosolenia (D) Cliona. Root tuft of spicules occur in (A) Cliona (B) Hyalonema (C) Euplectella (D) Both B and C. Simplest type of canal system is (A) Asconoid (B) Sycanoid (C) Leuconoid (D) Rhagon type. Ascanoid canal system occurs in (A) Grantia (B) Scypha (C) Leucosolenia (D) Spongilla. Euplectella is (A) Shallow sea water sponge (B) Deep sea water sponge (C) Fresh water sponge (D) Terrestrial sponge. A sponge that contains a sieve plate in the reion o its oscu um,is (A) Hyalonena (B) Spongxa (C) Euplectella (D) Cliona. Euplectella has (A) Calcareous skeleton (B) Siliceous skeleton (C) Bony skeleton (D) Cartilaginous skeleton.

65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87.

Euplectetla is precious gift if it contains (A) A pearl (B) A gem (C) Remains of shrimp pair (D) Coral. Hyalonema is (A) Glass Rope Sponge (B) Venus rnower basket (C) Mermaid s Glove (D) Horse Sponge. Smallest sponge is (A) Scypha (B) Leucosolenia (C) Cliona (D) Chalina Largest sponge is (A) Olynfhi1s (B) Hyppospongia (C) Spheciospongia (D) Spongia. Bath sponge is (A) Spongia (B) Spongilla (C) Chalina (D) Grantia. Spongia is (A) Unisexual (B) Hermaphrodite (C) Elongated (D) Both B and C. Skeleton of sponge is (A) Ectodermal (B) Endodermal (C) Exoskeleton (D) Endoskeleton. Bath sponge, Euspongia (= Spongia), has an endoskeleton of (A) Calcareous spicules (B) Siliceous spicules (C) Spongin fibres (D) Both A and B. Spongilla is (A) Mermaid’s Glove (B) Crown Sponge (C) Fresh Water Sponge (D) Venus Flower Basket. Spongilla is (A) Brownish (B) Greenish (C) Whitish (D) Purplish. Colour of Spongilla is due to (A) Chromocytes (B) Zoochlorellae (C) Zooxanthellae (D) Both A and B. Olynthus is (A) Hypothetic sponge ancestor (B) Sponge larva (C) Prolarva (D) A living sponge. Scleroblasts of sponges occur in (A) Epidermis (B) Endodermis (C) Mesodermis (D) Mesohyl layer. Sponge used in scrubbing and polishing is (A) Spongilla (B) Euspongia (C) Hyalonema (D) Cliona. Porifers are (A) Acoelomate (B) Pseudocoelomate (C) Schizocoelomate (D) Enterocoelomate. Most primitive animals are (A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (C) Flat worms (D) Round worms. Animals with free living larva but sedentary adult stage are (A) Molluscs (B) Sponges (C) Star Fishes (D) Lobsters. Reproductive cells present in gemmules are (A) Germ cells (B) Archaeocytes (C) Chromocytes (D) Phagocytes. Opening of osculum is regulated partly by cells (A) Myocytes (B) Porocytes (C) Archaeocytes (D) Chaonocytes. Triaxon spicules occur in (A) Hexactinellida (B) Calcarea (C) Demospongiae (D) All the above. The cells absent in sponges are (A) Reserve cells (B) Nerve cells (C) Germ cells (D) Gland cells. Characteristic of sponges is (A) Water vascular system (B) Haemocoeliac system (C) Canal system (D) Hydraulic system. A function not connected with canal system is (A) Circulation of water (B) Gaseous exchange (C) Nutrition (D) Formation of reduction bodies.

88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

Myocytes are modified (A) Choanocytes (B) Pinacocytes (C) Collencytes Sponge dispersal occurs through (A) Ciliated larva (B) Geminules (C) Reduction bodies Regeneration ability of sponges is due to (A) Reduction bodies (B) Genunules (C) Archaeocytes Spicules develop in sponges from cells located inside (A) Pinacoderm (B) Gastroderm (C) Mesohyl layer Amoebocytes are found in sponges inside (A) Pinacoderm (B) Gastroderm (C) Mesogloea Sponges with skeleton of only spongin fibres occur in (A) Calcarea (B) Demospongiae (C) Hexactinellida Best bath sponge comes from (A) Indian Ocean (B) Mediterranean Sea (C) Arabian Sea Asymmetrical sponges mostly occur in (A) Calcarea (B) Hexactinellida (C) Demospongiae Dead Man’s Finger is (A) Coral (B) Echinoderm (C) Sponge Chalina is (A) Sponge (B) Dead Man’s Finger (C) Mermaid’s Glove Neptune Cup is (A) Poterion (B) Tethya (C) Spheclospongia Poterion occws in (A) Deep sea (B) Shallow sea (C) Estuary

(D) Trophocytes. (D) All the above. (D) Germ cells. (D) All the above. (D) All the above. (D) All the above. (D) Gulf of Mexico. (D) All the above. (D) Infected appen& (D) All the above. (D) Hyalonema. (D) Fresh Water.

Revision Questions 100. 101. 102. 103. 104.

105. 106. 107. 108. 109.

The precious marriage gift in Japan is (A) Leucosolenia (B) Euplectella (C) Hyalonema (D) Spongilla. The skeleton of bath sponge, Euspongia, is made of (A) Spongin fibres (B) Siliceous spicules (C) Calcareous spicules (D) All the above A sponge harmful to oyster industry is (A) Spongilla (B) Euspongia (C) Hyalonema (D) Cliona. Canal system is a trait found in (A) Sponges (B) Corals (C) Echinoderms (D) Molluscs. Path of water in a sponge is (A) Dermal ostia ‘Gastral ostia Oscuhun (B) Dermal ostia  Gastral ostia Spongocoel “Osculum (C) Osculum  Spongocoel Choanocytes ‘Ostia (D) Pinacocytes  Choanocytes Enteron In sponges there is (A) The symmetry is radial (B) Present a true coelom (C) A single exit and a number of mouths (D) A single mouth and a number of exits. The epithelial lining of Sycon is made of (A) Anioeobocytes (B) Choanocytes (C) Flat cells/Pinacocytes (D) Both A and B ‘Venus Flower Basket’ is the name of A) Leucosolenia (B) Euplecteila (C) Euspongia (D) Sycon. Internal asexual propagule of some fresh water sponges is A) Gemmule B) Planula (C) Stereoblastula D) Amphiblastula In a sponge, digestion takes place in A) Paragastric cavity/Spongocoel (B) Osculum C) Ostium (D) Food vacuoles.

110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116.

117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.

Rproductive cells from of sponges are formed A) Pinacocytes B) Choanocytes C) Archaeocytes D) Trophocytes. lassification of Porifera is based on A) Branching (B) Spicules (C) Reproduction (D) Symmetry. igestion of food occurs in sponge Leucosolenia in A) Spongocoel B). Choanocytes followed by amoebocytes C) Amoebocytes D) Choanocytes. Water current in a sponge/Leucosolenia is maintained by A) Pinacocytes (B) Porocytes (C) Choanocytes (D) Amoebocytes. A common chamber for all the canals of a sponge is/Cavity present in all sponges is (A) Incurrent canal (B) Paragastric cavity (C) Excurrent canal (D) Radial chamber Venus Flower Basket belongs to Phylum (A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Echinodermata (D) Mollusca. Porocytes are cells for (A) Excretion and located in the body of flat worms (B) Outgoing water current and located at summit of sponges (C) Incoming water current and located in body wall of sponge (D) Sweat and located in mammalian skin. Animal which passes water current through its body for food is (A) Star fish (B) Sponge (C) Hydra (D) Earthworm. Parenchymula is larva of (A) Hydra (B) Leucosolenia (C) Most sponges (D) Both B and C. Common Bath sponge is (A) Spongilla (B) Euspongia (C) Leucosolenia (D) Sycon. Sponges are (A) Diploblastic (B) Monoblastic (C) Triploblastic (D) Tetrablastic Nerve cells do not occur in (A) Nematodes (B) Mosquitoes (C) Sponges (D) Coelenterates. Bath sponge is generally found in (A) Red Sea (B) Gulf of Mexico (C) Pacific Islands (D) Mediterranean sea. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera is (A) Ascon type (B) Leucon type (C) Sycon type (D) Radial type An important trait of sponges is that all of them (A) Reproduce sexually (B) Contain choanocytes (C) Contain coelenteron (D) Are herbivorous. Thesocytes serve as (A) Sex cells (B) Slime secreting cells (C) Food reserve (D) Embryonic cells Animals devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs are (A) Tapeworms (B) Sponges (C) Thread worms (D) Live Fluke. Collar cells occur in (A) Sponge (B) Hydra (C) Sandworm (D) Star fish. Nutrition in sponges is (A) Extracellular (B) Intracellular (C) First extracellular and then intracellular (D) First intracellular and then extracellular Carmine particle put above osculum of a sponge would be (A) Left there (B) Ingested and digested (C) Thrown away (D) Ingested and thrown away by ostia. Totipotent cells of sponges are (A) Thesocytes (B) Archaeocytes (C) Myocytes (D) Chromocytes.

131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. .153.

Characteristics of sponges is (A) Diploblastic (B) Aquatic (C) Link between living and nonliving (D) Body has pores All sponges (A) Are marine (B) Possess spongin fibres (C) Possess spicules (D) Have spongocoel. Porifers are (A) Mostly marine, a few fresh water (B) Mostly fresh water, a few marine (C) All marine (D) All fresh water. Sponges have evolved from (A) Ciliates (B) Flagellates (C) Protozoans (D) Choanoflagellates. Which is a special feature of porifera (A) All are marine (B) Calcareous spicules(C) Canal system (D) Division of labour. Internal bud for overcoming unfavourable conditions in Spongilla is (A) Budding (B) Regeneration (C) Gemmule (D) Parenchymula Which is universal for sponges? (A) Marine (B) Calcareous spicules (C) Radial symmetry (D) High regenerative power In sponges, canal system develops due to (A) Gastrovascular system (B) Folding of inner walls (C) Porous walls (D) Reproduction. Osculum occurs in (A) Star Fish (B) Ray Fish (C) Hydra (D) Sponge. Which is common in sponges having different types of canal system? (A) Apopyle (B) Paragastric cavity (C) Prosopyle (D) Radial chambers. Larva of Leucosolenia is (A) Veliger (B) Auricularia (C) Parenchymula (D) Trochophore Incurrent canals are lined by (A) Choanocytes (B) Pinacocytes (C) Porocytes (D) None of the above. Choanocytes in Ascon-type of canal system form lining of (A) Spongocoel (B) Porocyte (C) Apopyle (D) Incurrent canal. Sponges capture food by (A) Pinacocytes (B) Choanocytes (C) Thesocytes (D) Trophocytes The middle layer in body wall of porifera is (A) Mesoderm (B) Mesenchyme (C) Mesogloea (D) Mesentery. Sponge structure corresponding to mouth of’other animals is (A) Incurrent canal (B) Ostium (C) Osculum (D) Excurrent canal Boring sponge is (A) Cliona (B) Euplectella (C) Chalina (D) Hyalonema. After drying, a bath sponge contains (A) Holdfast (B) Tentacles (C) Spicules (D) Spongin fibres. In porifera, skeleton forming cells are (A) Scierocytes (B) Archaeocytes (C) Thesocytes (D) Amoebocytes. Glass Rope sponge is (A) Hyaloneina (B) Euplectella (C) Scypha (D) Spongilla. Type of spongocoel/canal system found in Leucosolenia is (A) Ascon (B) Leucon (C) Sycon (D) Rhagon. Skeleton made of spongin fibres occurs in (A) Calcarea (B) Demospongiae (C) Hexactinellida (D) Both A and B. Amphiblastula is larva of (A) Leucosolenia (B) Sycon (C) Hydra (D) Planaria.

154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160.

161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170.

171.

Spicules of silica occur in (A) Hyalonema (B) Sycon (C) Leucosolenia (D) Grantia. Glass rope sponge belongs to (A) Demospongiae (B) Hyalospongiae (C) Calcispongiae (D) Sclerospongiae. In Sycon the larva is (A) Trochophore (B) Parenchymula (C) Redia (D) Amphiblastula. Which cell of Leucosolenia sponge is self replicating and capable of giving rise to other cells (A) Choanocyte (B) Collencyte (C) Amoebocyte. (D) Chromocyte. Sponges are porifers because their bodies have (A) Spicules in skeleton (B) Several pores (C) Canal system (D) All the above Choanocyte is characteristic of (A) Annelida (B) Arthropoda (C) Porifera (D) None of the above. Sycon belongs to a group of animals which are best described as (A) Unicellular or acellular (B) Multicellular without any tissue organisation (C) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system (D) Multicellular having tissue organisation but no body cavity. Spongocoel is lined by (A) Porocytes (B) Choanocytes (C) Amoebocytes (D) Spicules. Gemmule of a sponge is (A) Internal bud (B) External bud (C) Lateral bud (D) All the above. Digestive system is absent in (A) Arthropoda (B) Nematoda (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Porifera. The one absent in sponges is (A) Nerve cell (B) Gland cell (C) Sensory cell (D) All the above. Canal system of porifera is not connected with (A) Nutrition (B) Sexual reproduction(C) Respiration (D) None of the above. Sponges capture food particles with the help of (A) Pinacocytes (B) Choanocytes (C) Thesocytes (D) Trophocytes. Sponges are mostly (A) Radial (B) Biradial (C) Asymmetrical (D) Bilateral. Fresh water sponge is (A) Euspongia (B) Spongilla (C) Cliona (D) Euplectella. Which is not correct about sponges? (A) Internal fertilization (B) Gemmule formation (C) External fertilization (D) Gametes are formed from epidermal cells. Match the columns: Column – I Column - II a) Ascus (i) Spirulina b) Basidium (ii) Penicillium c) Protista (iii) Agaricus d) Animalia (iv) Sponges (A) a—ii, b—iii, c—iv, d—i, e—v (B) a—i, b—ii, c—iii, d—iv, e—v (C) a—ii, b—v, c—iii, d—i, e—iv (D) a—i, b—ii, c—iii, d—v, e—iv (E) a—ii, b—iii, c—iv, d—v, e—i. Tissues are absent in the body of (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Sponges (C) Arthropoda (D) Annelida.

1) B 11) 21) 31) 41) 51) 61) 71) 81) 91) 101) 111) 121) 131) 141) 151) 161) 171)

2) B D D B A B C D B C A B C D C A B A

12) 22) 32) 42) 52) 62) 72) 82) 92) 102) 112) 122) 132) 142) 152) 162)

3) C D B A C C B C B C D B D D C B A

13) 23) 33) 43) 53) 63) 73) 83) 93) 103) 113) 123) 133) 143) 153) 163)

ANSWER – KEY 5) A 6) D

4) B D D C C C C C A B A C A A A B D

14) 24) 34) 44) 54) 64) 74) 84) 94) 104) 114) 124) 134) 144) 154) 164)

B B B A A B B A B B B B D B A A

15) 25) 35) 45) 55) 65) 75) 85) 95) 105) 115) 125) 135) 145) 155) 165)

D B D D A C B B C C A C C C B B

16) 26) 36) 46) 56) 66) 76) 86) 96) 106) 116) 126) 136) 146) 156) 166)

7) B B A D D B A A C C C C B C B D B

17) 27) 37) 47) 57) 67) 77) 87) 97) 107) 117) 127) 137) 147) 157) 167)

8) C B C A C C B D D D B B A D A C C

18) 28) 38) 48) 58) 68) 78) 88) 98) 108) 118) 128) 138) 148) 158) 168)

9) A C C B B C C B B A A D B B D B B

19) 29) 39) 49) 59) 69) 79) 89) 99) 109) 119) 129) 139) 149) 159) 169)

A B D D D A A D B D B C D A C C

10)

B

20) 30) 40) 50) 60) 70) 80) 90) 100) 110) 120) 130) 140) 150) 160) 170)

C B D A A A A C B C A B B A B A

Coelenterata and Crenophora (Cnidaria and Acnidaria) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

The study of coelenterates is known as (A) Arthrology (B) Splanchnology (C) Cnidology(D) Nidology. water cnidarian Which is a fresh (A) Hydra (B) Spongilla (C) Dugesia (D) None of the above. Coelenterates are (A) Diploblastic (B) Aristotle (C) Monoblastic (D) Reaumur. The name Hydra was given by (A) Ellis (B) Triploblastic (C) Linnaeus (D) None of the above. The oral cone of Hydra is called (A) Manubrium (B) Mouth (C) Osculum (D) Ostium. The number of tentacles in Hydra are (A) 6 to 10 (B) 10 to 16 (C) 16 to 20 (D) 20 to 26. Gland cells for secreting adhesive material in Hydra are present in (A) Pedal disc (B) Stomach region (C) Growth region (D) Hypostome. Supporting lamella of Hydra is (A) Mesogloea (B) Gastrodermis (C) Epidermis (D) None of the above. Hydra is immortal, because (A) Old cells are replaced by new cells (B) Cell do not grow old (C) Of regeneration (D) It never dies. Nematoblasts in Hydra are commonly of (A) 2 types (B) 3 types (C) Four types (D) None of the above. What will happen if the cnidocil is touched with a glass rod? (A) Nematoblasts will be discharged (B) Nematoblasts will not discharge (C) Nematoblasts will die (D) None of the above. Nematoblasts with blind thread tube is called (A) Stenotele (B) Desmoneme (C) Stereoline glutinant (D) Streptoline glutinant.

13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

Nematocyst is a (A) Cell (B) Group of cell (C) Organ (D) Part of a cell. The smallest cnidoblast in the body of Hydra is (A) Penetrant (B) Volvent (C) Atrichous isorhiza (D) Holotrichous isorhiza. The largest nematoblast is (A) Stenotele (B) Desmoneme (C) Small glutinant (D) Large glutinant. Germ cells of Hydra are (A) Ectodermal (B) Mesodermal (C) Endodermal (D) None of the above. Digestion in Hydra is (A) Intercellular (B) Intracellular. (C) Both (D) None. One of the following is a coelenterate (A) Sea Fan (B) Sea Dollar (C) Sea Cucumber (D) Sea Horse. The mesolamella/mesogloea is formed by (A) Epidermis (B) Gastrodermis (C) Epidermis and gastrodermis (D) Mesoderm. Undigested food of Hydra is expelled from (A) Mouth (B) Anus (C) General surface (D) Hypostome. Hydra does not feed on lower animals because (A) They are so small (B) They are distasteful (C) They lack glutathione (D) None of the above. Digestion in the enteron of Hydra starts with (A) Proteolytic enzymes (B) Amylolytic enzymes (C) Lipolytic enzymes (D) None of the above. Perisarc is absent in Hydra because (A) It is fixed (B) It is free swimming (C) Epidermis cannot secrete it (D) None of the above. Great Barrier Reef occurs off the coast of (A) Sri Lanka (B) Philippines (C) Australia (D) Maharashtra. Hydra is (A) Insectivorous (B) Frugivorous (C) Omnivorous (D) Carnivorous. Which part of Hydra is without supporting lamella? (A) Basal disc (B) Central part of pedal disc (C) Tentacles (D) None of the above. Which part of Hydra is without nematoblasts? (A) Pedal disc (B) Tentacles (C) Manubrium (D) Stomach region. In which nematoblast thread tube is unarmed and open at the tip (A) Penetrant (B) Volvent (C) Small glutinant (D) Large glutinant. Tentacles of Hydra are (A) Hollow (B) Solid (C) Half hollow and half solid (D) None of the above. The green colour of Hydra viridis (Chiorohydra viridissima) is due to (A) Chloroplasts (B) Pigment (C) Zoochlorella (D) None of the above. Which nematoblasts coil around the prey? (A) Penetrants (B) Volvents (C) Small glutinants (D) Large glutinants. Nematoblasts responsible for locomotion are (A) Penetrants (B) Volvents (C) Glutinants (D) None of the above. Hypnotoxin is (A) Protein (B) Aurelia (C) Lipid (D) None of the above. Fresh Water Polyp is (A) Hydra (B) Aurelia (C) Physalia (D) Obelia. Epitheliomuscular cells of epidermis of Hydra form (A) Circular muscles (B) Oblique muscles (C) Longitudinal muscles (D) None of the above.

36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59.

A colonial hydrozoan is (A) Hydra (B) Metridium (C) Aurelia (D) Obelia. Hydra contracts its body by means of (A) Interstitial cells (B) Cnidoblasts (C) Nutritive cells (D) Epithelio-muscular cells. Sea Anemone is member of class (A) Hydrozoa (B) Scyphozoa (C) Anthozoa/Actinozoa (D) None of the above. Metagenesis is found in (A) Hydra (B) Obelia (C) Aurelia (D) Tubipora Polymorphic animal is (A) Physalia (B) Hydra (C) Tubipora (D) Metridium. Hydra can digest all types of food except (A) Proteins (B) Fats (C) Starches (D) None of the above. Mesogloea of Hydra contains (A) Nerve cells (B) Phagocytic cells (C) InterstitIal cells (D) None of the above. Cnidom is a (A) Battery of a nematoblasts (B) Group of nematoblasts (C) Armed thread (D) Unarmed thread. Larva of Hydra is (A) Absent (B) Planula (C) Tadpole (D) Hydrula. A coral island with a central shallow lake is known as (A) Coral reef (B) Lagoon (C) Atoll (D) Corallite. Gas gland occurs in (A) Gorgonia (B) Physalia (C) Pennatula (D) Red Coral. Chitinous covering or perisarc is present in (A) Obelia (B) Hydra (C) Aurelia (D) Physalia. Blastostyle of Obelia bears (A) Tentacles (B) Polyps (C) Medusac (D) Gonads. Polyps of Obelia are (A) Reproductive zooids (B) Nutritive zooids (C) Zöoids meant for dispersal (D) All the above. Pneumatophore is present in (A) Hydra (B) Obelia (C) Aurelia (D) Physalia. Reproductive zooids of Physalia are (A) Medusae (B) Cormidia (C) Gastrozooids (D) Gonophores. A cormidium of Physalia consists of (A) Tentacles (B) Zooids (C) Both A and B (D) Tentacles, zooids and pneumatophore. Jelly Fish is (A) Adamsia (B) Aurelia (C) Scoliodon (D) Torpedo. Hermit Crab develops a beneficial association with (A) Adamsia (B) Aurelia (C) Gorgonia (D) Pennatula. Sea Flowers are (A) Corals (B) Red corals (C) Sea Anemones (D) Jelly Fishes. Coral Islands are (A) Laccadives (B) Srilanka (C) Iceland (D) Mumbai. Pennatula is (A) Sea Fan (B) Sea Pen (C) Sea Star (D) Sea Flower. The term coelenterata was coined by (A) Linnaeus (B) Leuckart (C) Clark (D) Grant. Whiëh one is polymorphic coelenterate (A) Obelia (B) Hydra (C) Aurelia (D) Adamsia.

60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83.

Skeleton present in coelenterates is (A) Endbskeleton (B) Exoskeleton (C) Both A and. B (D) None of the above. Exoskeleton of coelenterates is (A) Siliceous (B) Chitinous (C) Calcareous (D) Both B and C. Nerve cells of coelenterates is (A) Apolar (B) Unipolar (C) Bipolar (D) Multipolar. Coelenterates are (A) Ureotelic (B) Uricotelic (C) Ammonotelic (D) None of the above. Glutathione is (A) Protein (B) Tripeptide (C) Polysaccharide (D) Trisaccharide. Brown Hydra is (A) Hydra vulgaris (B) Hydra viridis (C) Hydra fusca (D) Hydra gangeticus. Colour of Brown Hydra is due to (A) Chromoplasts (B) Zooxanthellae (C) Zoochlorellae (D) Both A and B. Gonads are endodermal in (A) Hydra (B) Obelia (C) Physalia (D) Aurelia. In corals, the gonads are (A) Endodermal (B) Ectodermal (C) Mesodermal (D) Mesogloeal. Gastrovascular cavity or coelenteron partitioned in (A) Hydrozea (B) Scyphozoa (C) Actinozoa (D) Both B and C. Coelenterate without medusoid stage in life cycle is (A) Obelia (B) Aurelia (C) Physalia (D) Metridium. Contractile structure of nematoblast is (A) Lasso (B) Cnidocil (C) Tube (D) Refractive rods. Sensory structure of a cnidoblast is (A) Cnidocil (B) Refractile rods (C) Myonemes (D) Operculum. Zoochlorellae or zooxanthellae of coloured Hydra occur in (A) Epithelio-muscular cells (B) Nutritive cells (C) Mesogloea (D) Interstitial cells. Sensory cells of Hydra possess (A) Flagellum (B) Hair-like processes (C) Cilia (D) Pseudopodia. Growth zone of Hydra is (A) Diffused (B) Near the foot (C) Below hypostome (D) In the middle. The body of Hydra contracts with the help of (A) Epitheliomuscular cells (B) Endotheliomuscular cells (C) Sensory cells (D) Glandulo-musc cells. In Hydra, all old cells are replaced is (A) 15 days (B) 30 days (C) 45 days (D)6Oday Sea Fur is (A) Hydra (B) Obelia (C) Adamsia (D) Gorgonia Obelia is (A) Sedentary (B) Attached but capable of locomotion (C) Motile (D) Free floating. Hydra shows locomotion by (A) Somersaultmg and looping (B) Gliding and climbing (C) Walking, floating and swimming (D) All the above. Number of tentacles in a polyp of Obelia is (A) 5 10 (B) 10 .15 (C)15  20 (D)20  30 Tentacles of Obelia are (A) Hollow (B) Solid (C) Internally chambered (D) Spiny and hollow. In Physalia, the float is (A) Crimson (B) Brown (C) Blue (D) Colourless.

84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106.

Crest or sail of float in Physalia is differently coloured. It is (A) Yellow (B) Crimson (C) Violet (D) Black. In Physalia, zooids occur in groups called (A) Conulae (B) Palpons (C) Corinidia (D) Dactyloids. Feeding zooids of Physalia are called (A) Gastrozooids (B) Dactylozoids (C) Gonodendra (D) Gonopalpons. In Physalia, nematoblasts paralyse the prey by (A) Haemot (B) Neurotoxin (C) Myotoxin (D) Both B and C Jelly Fish Aurelia occurs abundantly in (A) Mumbal Coast (B) Tamil Nadu Coast (C) Bay of Bengal (D) All the above. Aurelia has (A) Two smooth oral arms (B) Two neinatoblast rich oral arms (C) Four tentacles (D) Four cnidoblast rich oral arms. Which one is bioluminescent? (A) Aurelia (B) Astraea (C) Adwnsia (D) Meindium. Sea Anemone is characterised by (A) A whorl of several tentacles (B) Many whorls of tentacles (C) Irregularly placed tentacles (I)) Absence of tentacles. Corals are generally (A) Solitary (B) Colonial (C) Stony (D) Both B and C. A coral stone is made of (A) Several corallites (B) Corallium (C) A single corallite (D) Both A and B. Coral reef is formed of (A) Siliceous matter (B) Limestone (C) Chitin (D) Lava. A barrier reef develops (A) Near sea shore (B) Deep in sea (C) At some distance from sea shore (D) Mound a lagoon. Great Barrier Reef is (A) 1000 km long (B) 2100 km long (C) 2400 km long (D) 3600 km long. Coral islands are (A) Fiji (B) Maldives (C) Laccadives (D) All the above. Which one has a tree-like branched form? (A) Pennatula (B) Gorgonia (C) Physalia (D) Porpita. Anthocodia is (A) Medusoid zooid (B) Polypoid zooid (C) Whole zooid (D) Distal part of zooid with mouth and tentacles. Siphonozoids of Pennatula differ from autozooids in (A) Having tentacles and gonads (B) Lacking mesenteries (C) Lacking tentacles and gonads (D) Having mesenteries. Autozoids of Pennatula take part in (A) Capturing prey (B) Circulation (C) Feeding and reproduction (D) Feeding and circulation. Scientific name of Sea Pen is (A) Pennatula (B) Gorgonia (C) Porpita (D) Velella. Pennatula and Gorgonia are (A) Hydrozoans (B) Scyphozoans (C) Corals (D) Ctenophores. Intermediate between diploblastic and triploblastic body structure is found in (A) Porifers (B) Coelenterates (C) Ctenophores (D) Platyhelminthes. What is present in mesoglea of ctenophores which makes it a loose layer of cells (A) Amoebocytes (B) Elastic cells (C) Nerve cells and muscle cells (D) All the above. Which is absent in ctenophores

107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121.

122. 123. 124. 125.

(A) Epidermis (B) Intercellular and intracellular digestion (C) Cnidoblasts (D) Medusa phase. Symmetry of ctenophores is generally (A) Bilateral (B) Radial (C) Biradial (D) Absent. Tentacles of ctenophores contain (A) Cnidoblasts (B) Colloblasts (C) Digestive glands (D) All the above. Tentacles are absent in (A) Beroe (B) Ctenoplana (C) Honn4thora (D) Obelia. Ctenophores possess statocysts in (A) Oral region (B) Aboral region (C) Base of comb plates (D) Base of tentacles. Comb plates of ctenophores possess (A) Cilia for locomotion (B) Cilia for filter feeding (C) Teeth for crushing (D) Teeth for filtering. Which one is absent in Beroe? (A) Statocyst (B) Stomodaeum (C) Tentacles (D) Anal pores. Ctenoplana differs from Horiniphora and Beroe in having (A) Pear shaped body (B) Conical ovate body (C) Flat bibbed body (D) Branched axis. Anal pores occur in gastrovascular system of (A) Physalia (B) Corals (C) Aurelia (D) Ctenophores. In Hydra, both pseudopodia and flagella occur in (A) Nutritive cells (B) Epithelio-muscular cells (C) Second cells (D) Gland cells Penetrant, volvent and glutinant are types of (A) Nematocysts of Hydra (B) Tentacles of Hydra (C) Zooids of Obelia (D) Tentacles of Obelia Mesogboea of Porifera and Coelenterata contains (A) Nerve cells (B) Sensory cells (C) No cells (D) Branches of muscle cells The ovary of Hydra possesses (A) Numerous ova (B) Few ova (C) No ovum (D) One ovum The gastrovascular cavity of Hydra provides for (A) Digestion and storage (B) Storage and circulation (C) Excretion and storage (D) Digestion and circulation. Testes are located in Hydra at (A) Proximal half (B) Distal half (C) Middle (D) Tentacles. Hydra/Obelia is (A) Diploblastic, acoebomate (B) Diploblastic, and acoebomate radially symmetrical and bilaterally symmetrical (C) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical and coelomate (D) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate. A mature Hydra usually bears (A) One testis and several ovaries (B) One testis and one ovary (C) Several testes and one ovary (D) Several testes and several ovaries. Zoochlorellae and zooxanthallae present in Hydra are (A) Symbionts in nutritive cells (B) Symbionts in the gut (C) Symbionts in cnidoblasts (D) Organisms that provide hypnotoxin. Jelly Fishes belong to class (A) Hydrozoa (B) Scyphozoa (C) Anthozoa (D) None of the above. Portuguese-Man-of-War is a (A) Colonial monomorphic coelenterate (B) Polymorphic coelenterate

126. 127. 128. 129. 130.

131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147.

(C) Coral (D) Sea Anemone. Body cavity of Hydra. is called (A) Enterocoel (B) Coelenteron (C) Gastrovascular cavity (D) Both B and C. Precious Red Coral is/Coral used in ornaments is (A) Astraea (B) Fungia (C) Corallium (D) Tubipora. Organ Pipe Coral is (A) Tubipora (B) Astraea (C) Helipora (D) Fungia. Hypnotoxin is produced by (A) Sponges (B) Bath sponge (C) Nematocysts (D) Leucosolenia. Gonads of Obelia occur (A) In hydrula stage and indefinite in number (B) Bases of tentacles of medusa and 8 in number (C) On blastostyles and 8 in number (D) On radial canals, oral surface of medusa and four in number. Gastrodermis of Hydra takes part in digestion of (A) Carbohydrates and fats (B) Proteins and fats (C) Proteins, fats and some carbohydrates (D) Proteins and carbohydrates. Which is a coelenterate? (A) Sea Pen (B) Sea Urchin (C) Sea Fish (D) Sea Cucumber. In Sea Anemone, the symmetry is (A) Radial (B) Spherical (C) Bilateral (D) Absent. The cells absent in gastrodermis of Hydra (A) Nutritive cells (B) Stinging cells/Cnidoblasts (C) Gland cells (D) Nerve/sensory cells. Muscles of Hydra are (A) Smooth (B) Skeletal (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. A radially symmetrical diploblastic animal is (A) Roundworm (B) Earthworm (C) Hydra (D) Liver fluke. Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in (A) Starfish and Hydra (B) Hydra and sponges (C) Tapeworm and Hydra (D) Sponge and starfish Which one of the following animals possesses nerve cells but no nerves? (A) Hydra (B) Tapeworm (C) Earthworm (D) Frog’s tadpole. Poisonous fluid present in nematocysts of Hydra is (A) Hypnotoxin (B) Haeinatin (C) Haemozoin (D) Agglutinogen. Nematocysts take part in (A) Locomotion (B) Offence and defence (C) Food capture (D) All the above. Common between trichocysts of Paramecium and nematocysts of Hydra is (A) Attachment and defence (B) Defence only (C) Sensitivity (D) Food capturing Corals belong to phylum (A) Cnidaria (B) Porifera (C) Mollusca (D) Annelida. Special character of coelenterates is (A) Polymorphism (B) Nematocysts (C) Flame cells (D) Hermaphroditism. Nematocysts are activated by (A) Water (B) Touch (C) Brain (D) None of the above. Point out a non-parasite (A) Tapeworm (B) Mosquito (C) Leech (D) Sea Anemone. Portuguese Man of War is (A) Pennatula (B) Coral (C) Physalia (D) Obelia Which pair of cells is present in epidermis of Hydra but not in its endoderm?

148. 149. 150.

151. 152. 153. 154 15L 156. 157. 158. 159.

160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165.

(A) Stinging cells and interstitial cells (B) Gland cells and germ cells (C) Stinging cells and germ cells (D) Stinging cells and gland cells. Hydra is (A) Monoblastic (B) Diploblastic (C) Triploblastic (D) Tetrablastic. Nerve cells are found in (A) Hydra (B) Sycon (C) Paramecium (D) Amoeba. If Hydra is broken into pieces (A) Hydra will die (B) Every fragment will grow into complete Hydra (C) Some fragments will form complete Hydra (D) Hydra will undergo sexual reproduction Testes/gonads are formed in Hydra from (A) Interstitial cells (B) Epithelio-muscular cells(C) Nerve cells (D) All the above. Food of Hydra is (A) Aquatic plants (B) Aquatic animals (C) Algae and aquatic animals (D) Some crustaceans Which group does not contain polyp? (A) Hydrozoa (B) Scyphozoa (C) Anthozoa (D) Calcarea. A number of buds have developed on Hyd (A) Oldest bud is towards oral region (B) Oldest bud is towards aboral region (C) Both A and B (D) There is no order. Cnidaria is characterised by (A) Nematoblasts (B) Coelenteron (C) Tissue level of organization (D) All the above Mesogloea of Hydra is made of (A) Mucopolysaccharides (B) Protein (C) Protein and fat (D) Reticulate tissue. Characteristic feature of coelenterata is (A) All are marine (B) Presence of tentacles around mouth (C) Polyp (D) Gastrovascular cavity Hydra is famous for a type of reproduction (A) Budding (B) Gametogenesis (C) Position of sex organs (D) Both B and C Hydra cut into two pieces will result in (A) Growth without mouth and basal disc (B) Growth of mouth and disc according to their position in the parent (C) Growth of mouth and disc at any end (D) No regeneration is possible. Common name of Fungia is (A) Mushroom Coral (B) Red Coral (C) Brain Coral (D) Organ Pipe Coral In Hydra, new nematocysts develop from (A) Cnidocils (B) Glandular cells (C) Germ cells (D) Interstitial cells. The largest nematocysts of Hydra are (A) Volvents (B) Penetrants (C) Atrichous isorhizas (D) Holotrichous isorhizas. Polymorphism occurs in (A) Anthozoa (B) Scypl (C) Rhizopoda (D) Hydrozoa Hydra is (A) Fresh water, radial and diploblastic (B) Fresh water, biradial and triploblastic (C) Marine, radial and triploblastic (D) Marine, radial and diploblastic. Most appropriate term for the life cycle of Obelia is (A) Alternation of generations (B) Metagenesis (C) Metamorphosis (D) Neoteny

166. 167. 168. 169. 170 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185.

186. 187.

A polymorphic coelenterate is (A) Physalia (B) Fungia (C) Hydra (D) All the above. Which one belongs to anthozoa? (A) Dugesia (B) Fungia (C) Aurèlia (D) Stercularkr. In Hydra, digestion is (A) Extracellular (B) Intracellular (C) First extracellular and then intracellular (D) First intracellular and then extracellular, Medusa of Obelia is (A) Carnivorous (B) Herbivorous (C) Detritus feeder (D) Omnivorous, Sense organs of Aurelia are (A) Tentilla (B) Tentaculocyst (C) Nematocyst (D) Otolith. Statocysts are sense organs of (A) Paramecium (B) Ascaris (C) Medusa of Obelia (D) Taenia solium. Special character of coelenterates/Hydra is (A) Hermaphroditism (B) Nematocysts (C) Polymorphism (D) Flame cells. Ephyra is young stage of (A) Obelia (B) Sea Anemone (C) Physalia (D) Aurelia. Germ cells of Hydra are derived from (A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderin (C) Mesoderm (D) Mesogloea. Characteristic free swimming larva of coelenterates is (A) Onchosphere (B) Rhabditiform (C) Planula (D) Cysticercus. Cell-tissue organisation occurs in (A) Amoeba (B) Hydra (C) Tapeworm (D) Ascaris. Coelenterates are mostly (A) Asymmetrical (B) Radially syntmetrical (C) Bilaterally symmetrical (D) Irregular Hydra is (A) Coral (B) Worm (C) Polyp (D) Medusa. In ectoderm of Hydra, bulk of cells are (A) Musculo-epithelial (B) Interstitial (C) Nematoblasts (D) Germ cells Hydra is coelenterate because it possesses (A) Mesogloea (B) Nematocysts (C) Body cavity (D) Tentacles. A member of scyphozoa is (A) Silver Fish (B) Jelly Fish (C) Cuttle Fish (D) Cat Fish. In Hydra, cnidoblasts employed during looping are (A) Volvents (B) Stenoteles (C) Atrichous isorhizas (D) Desmonemes. Animal showing thigmotaxis is (A) Ascaris (B) Taenia (C) Fungia (D) Hydra. Hydra reproduces through (A) Parthenogenesis (B) Encystment (C) Polyembryony (D) Sexually and asexually. Which is correct about nematocyst in Hydra (A) It is re-used (B) Ejection is conditioned reflex (C) Ejection occurs in response to contact and pierces the prey (D) Prevents coming in contact with other Hydra In Hydra, egestion of undigested food and excretion of nitrogenous wastes occur through (A) Mouth and tentacles (B) Mouth and body wall (C) Mouth and mouth (D) Body wall and body wall. Hydra will regenerate from a fragment, if it contains (A) Tentacles (B) Epidermis and gastrodermis

188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209.

(C) Tentacles, epidermis and gastrodermis (D) Epidermis, hypodermis and gastrodermis Hydra paralyses its prey with the help of (A) Tentacles (B) Nematocysts (C) Colloblasts (D) Epitheliomuscular cells. Bilateral symmetry does not occur in (A) Frog (B) Octopus (C) Mammal (D) Obelia. Nematocysts occur in phylum (A) Coelenterata (B) Nematoda (C) Porifera (D) Annelida. Which one is not a coelenterate? (A) Sea Fan (B) Sea Feather (C) Sea Cucumber/Lily (D) Sea Pen. Ctenophores have similarities with members of (A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Arthropoda (D) Annelida Larva like stage of Hydra is (A) Hydrula (B) Hydratuba (C) Scyphula (D) Planula. What is true of Hydra (A) Marine (B) Bilateral Symmetry(C) Carnivorous (D) All the above Hydra receives stimuli through (A) Nerve cells (B) Nerve net (C) Sensory cells (D) Nematocysts. Body cavity of Hydra is known as (A) Coelenteron (B) Pseudocoel (C) Enterocoel (D) Haemocoel. What is the correct match? (A) Cray Fish — Elasmobranch (B) Cutt Fish— Osteichthyes (C) Silver Fish — Echinodermata (D) Jelly Fish — Scyphozoa. Which is wrongly matched? (A) Anneida — Notopodia (B) Ciliophora — Axonemes (C) Cnidaria — Parapodia (D) Euglenoidae — Myonemes. Symmetry found in Sea Anemone is (A) Radial (B) Biradial (C) Bilateral (D) Spherical. A structure not present in Hydra is (A) Nerve cells (B) Epitheliomuscular cells (C) Choanocytes (D) Cnidocytes Nematocysts of Hydra occur in maximum number over (A) Gastrodermis (B) Basal disc (C) Gonads (D) Tentacles. The main nitrogenous waste of Hydra is (A) Ammonia (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Both A and C. Nematoblasts of Hydra help in (A) Attracting prey (B) Detecting prey (C) Paralysing prey (D) None of the above. Hydra is (A) Saprozoic (B) Omnivorous (C) Carnivorous (D) Herbivorous. Gastrodermis of Hydra is mainly made of (A) Musculoepithelial cells (B) Musculonutritive cells (C) Sensory cells (D) Cnidoblast cells Which of the following during respiration obtain water dissolved oxygen by diffusion through their body surface? (A) Cnidarians (B) Fishes (C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles. Budding method of asexual reproduction occurs in (A) Amoeba (B) Plasmodium (C) Paramoeciurn (D) Hydra. Sea Fan belongs to (A) Echinodermata (B) Crinoidia (C) Mollusca (D) Coelenterata. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are characteristics of (A) Hydra and Starfish (B) Starfish and Sea Anemone (C) Ctenoplana/Ctenoplana and Beroe (D) Aurelia and Paramaecium

210.

211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220.

221. 222. 223. 224. . 225. 226. 227,

Lagoon is (A) Full moon (B) Sea breaking into land and separated by sand dunes (C) Spot in desert with presence of water (D) Horse-shoe shaped coral reef. In Hydra, nematocy occur only in (A) Epidermis (B) Gastrodermis (C) Mesodermis (D) Endodermis. Hydra belongs to class (A) Scyphozoa (B) Hydrozoa (C) Actinozoa (D) Cnidaria. Asexual reproduction in Hydra occurs through (A) Budding (B) Binary fission (C) Fragmentation (D) Sporulation. Which one is incorrect (A) Nematocyst — Cnidaria (B) Colloblast — Ctenophora (C) Trichocyst — Ciliata (D) None of the above Which one is mismatched (A) Hydra vulgaris — Sea water (B) Hydra gangelica — Fresh water (C) Obelia — Sea water (D) Physalia — Sea water Polyp phase does not occur in (A) Obelia (B) Aurelia (C) Hydra (D) Physalia. Scyphozoan medusa is commonly known as (A) Sea Pen (B) Jelly Fish (C) Obelia (D) Sea Urchin. In Hydra, absence of circulatory system is compensated by (A) Gastrovascular cavity (B) Tentacles (C) Pseudocoelomic fluid (D)Mesoglea Nematocysts occur in (A) Ctenophora (B) Flanaria (C) Fasciola (D) Obelia. Match the columns Coloumn I Column II a) Protoxoa 1 Pennanila b) Aschelminthes 2 Beroe c) Porifera 3 Monocyaris d) Ctenophore 4 Wuchereria e) Cnidaria 5 Cliona (A) a  3, b  5, c  4, d  1, c  2 (B) a  4, b  3, c 5, d  2, c  1 (C) a  3, b  4, c  5, d  2, e  1 (D) a 2, b 4, c 5, d 3, c 1 (E) a 3, b4, c  5, d 1, e  2. Mesoglea occurs between (A) Ectoderm and endoderm (B) Ectoderm and mesoderm (C) Mesoderm and endoderm (D) Just below mesoderm. Highest degree of polymorphism is found in (A) Protozoa (B) Cnidaria (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Arthropoda. A dicecious aulmal is (A) Tape worm (B) Earthworm (C) Liver fluke (D) Aurelia. Comb plates occur in (A) Adamisia (B) Nereis (C) Pleurobrachia (D) Aurelia. Hydra reproduces by budding. It is (A) Asexual reproduction (B) Sexual reproduction (C) Parthenocarpy (D) Regeneration Digestion of food occurs in Hydra in (A) Abdominal cavity (B) Gastrovascular cavity(C) Pericardial cavity (D) Pelvic cavity. Type of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is (A) Binary fission (B) Sporulation (C) Multiple fission (D) Budding

228.

(E) Gemmule formation. Primitive nervous system occurs in (A) Echinodermata (B) Sponges

(C) Cnidaria

(D) Annelida.

172) C 173) A 174) A

ANSWER – KEY 175) C 176) A 177) A 178) A

179) A

180) A 181) C

182) 192) 202) 212) 222) 232) 242) 252) 262) 272)

A C B C D D A D B C

183) 193) 203) 213) 223) 233) 243) 253) 263) 273)

B A C D C A A B D A

184) 194) 204) 214) 224) 234) 244) 254) 264) 274)

D B A B B C B C D C

185) 195) 205) 215) 225) 235) 245) 255) 265) 275)

C C A A A B B B B C

186) 196) 206) 216) 226) 236) 246) 256) 266) 276)

A D C C C C C C C D

187) 197) 207) 217) 227) 237) 247) 257) 267) 277)

A B D B A B A A B C

188) 198) 208) 218) 228) 238) 248) 258) 268) 278)

C A D A B D C B D C

189) 199) 209) 219) 229) 239) 249) 259) 269) 279)

A C C C B A B B B B

190) 200) 210) 220) 230) 240) 250) 260) 270) 280)

C A B B A C A D D A

191) 201) 211) 221) 231) 241) 251) 261) 271) 281)

A C A D B D D A C B

282) 292) 302) 312) 322) 332) 342) 352) 362) 372) 382) 392)

A A C A A D C B C D A A

283) 293) 303) 313) 323) 333) 343) 353) 363) 373) 383) 393)

C C A A D B B C B A B B

284) 294) 304) 314) 324) 334) 344) 354) 364) 374) 384) 394)

C A A B D D D D A C A D

285) 295) 305) 315) 325) 335) 345) 355) 365) 375) 385) 395)

D B B B B A A D C C D C

286) 296) 306) 316) 326) 336) 346) 356) 366) 376) 386) 396)

A B D D D B C C C B A A

287) 297) 307) 317) 327) 337) 347) 357) 367) 377) 387) 397)

A D C C A A B B A A B B

288) 298) 308) 318) 328) 338) 348) 358) 368) 378) 388) 398)

C C B C D B B B D D B D

289) 299) 309) 319) 329) 339) 349) 359) 369) 379) 389) 399)

B A A B A C C B C D A C

290) 300) 310) 320) 330) 340) 350) 360) 370) 380) 390)

D C A A B A A D B C D

291) 301) 311) 321) 331) 341) 351) 361) 371) 381) 391)

B D D B A B B A C D C

Platyhelminthes-The Flat Worms 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

An important character of Platyhelminthes is (A) Monoecious (B) Vitelline glands (C) Flat animals (D) Flame cells. Flat worms are (A) Diploblastic (B) Triploblastic (C) Monoblastic (D) None of the above. Coelom in flat worms is (A) Well developed (B) Poorly developed (C) Schizocoel (D) Absent. Animals with self ferilization is (A) Paragonimus (B) Dugesia (C) Taenia solium (D) None of the above. Which is a free living fresh water flat worm? (A) Planarja (B) Schistosoma (C) Fasciola (D) Taenia. Vital system absent in Tapeworm is (A) Nervous system (B) Digestive system (C) Excretory system (D) Reproductive system. In which animal, pharynx can be everted? (A) Dugesia (B) Fasciola (C) Taenia (D) Ascaris. Respiration in Dugesia is (A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic (C) Both (D) None of the above. In platyhelminthes (A) Nerve cords are present (B) Nerve cords are absent (C) Nerve nets are present (D) Nerve nets are absent. Segments of Tapeworm are called (A) Scolex (B) Cysticercus (C) Proglottides (D) Onchospheres The tissue in platyhelminthes between viscera and body wall is called (A) Coelom (B) Parenchyma (C) Mesoderm (D) Choanoderm. Tapeworm respires (A) Through, suckers (B) Through mouth (C) Through lateral pores or sterigmata (D) Anaerobically. Animals belonging to platyhelminthes also called flat worms because (A) Their head is flat (B) They have dorsoventrally compressed body (C) They creep over the surface (D) The alimentary canal is flattened. Scolex occurs in (A) Hydra (B) Ascaris (C) Taenia (D) Liver Fluke. Incomplete alimentary canal occurs in (A) Fasciola (B) Ascaris (C) Wuchereria (D) Rhabditis. Which is free swimming stage in the li history of Fasciola? (A) Miracidium (B) Sporocyst (C) Redia (D) None of the above. Proglottides of Tapeworm proliferate from (A) Scolex (B) Other proglottides (C) Neck (D) Special region in neck. Parasitic adaptation of flatworms is (A) Anaerobic respiration (B) Secretion of antienzymes (C) Resistant covering, cuticle or integument(D) All the above. The disease caused by Fasciola is (A) Liver rot (B) Cysticercosis (C) Taeniasis (D) None of the above. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium as it lacks (A) Rostellum (B) Suckers (C) Scolex (D) None of the above. Apolysis is (A) Removal of mature proglottides (B) Removal of imniatue proglottides (C) Removal of gravid segments (D) None of the above. Regeneration is best shown by flat worm (A) Fasciola (B) Planwia/Dugesia (C) Schistosoma (D) Echinococcus. Which one is blood fluke?

24. 25. 26. 27.

28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

(A) Schistosoma (B) Echinococcus (C) Fasciola (D) Taenia. Dog Tapeworm is (A) Schistosoma haematobium (B) Opisthorchis sinensis (C) Taenia nana (D) Echinococcus granulosus. The secondary host of Taenia saginata is. (A) Cow (B) Sheep (C) Pig (D) Both A and B. The secondary host of Taenia soliurn is (A) Buffalo (B) Sheep (C) Pig (D) Goat. In Schistosoma (A) Male is longer than female (B) Male is broader than female (C) Male has gynaecophoric canal for holding female (D) Both B and C. The number of proglottides in Taenia solium is about (A) 500 (B) 900 (C) 300 (D) 200. Four suckers present on the scolex of Tapeworm are meant for (A) Attachment (B) Sucking food (C) Crushing food (D) All the above. A cestode with only 3 segments is (A) Taenia solium (B) Diphyllobothriumlatum (C) Echinococcus (D) Hymen olepis nana. Fasciola hepatica Is a (A) Endoparasite (B) Free living (C) Ectoparasite (D) Both B and C. Cysticercus stage of Taenia solium is found in (A) Man (B) Pig (C) Goat (D) Sheep. Liver Fluke belongs to class (A) Trematoda (B) Turbellaria (C) Cestoda (D) Nematoda. The body of a Tapeworm consists of (A) Scolex and neck (B) Scolex and proglottides (C) Scolex, neck and proglottides (D) Neck and strobila. Fasciola hepatica occurs in (A) Bile duct of sheep (B) Liver of sheep (C) Liver of man (D) Human bile ducts. Tape worm is (A) Anoxybiotic (B) Oxybiotic (C) Aerobic (D) None of the above. Each segment of Taenia is (A) Monoecious (B) Dioecious (C) Aseuxal (D) None of the above. Hydatid worm is (A) Schistosoma indicum (B) Ancylostoma duodenale (C) Enterobius vermicularis (D) Echinococcus granulosus. The infective stage of Fasciola hepatica is (A) Sporocyst (B) Redia (C) Cercaria (D) Metacercaria. Which one of the flatworms has eyes? (A) Fasciola (B) Dugesia (C) Schistosoma (D) Echinococcus. Hexacanth is activated by (A) Bile salts (B) Pancreatic juice (C) Intestinal juice (D) None. Hexacanth reaches (A) Voluntary muscles (B) Involuntary muscles (C) Cardiac muscles (D) None of the above. The disease caused by Taenia is (A) Cysticercosis (B) Liver rot (C) Ascariasis (D) None. Fasciola attaches itself to walls of the bile ducts by means of (A) Anterior sucker (B) Adhesive zone

45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68.

(C) Posterior sucker/acetabulum (D) Spiny cuticle and posterior sucker. Human infection of Taenia solium occurs by taking pork having (A) Cysticerci (B) Onchospheres (C) Hexacanths (D) Adult worm. Pig gets infection of Taenia solium through food contaminated with (A) Onchospheres (B) Cysticerci (C) Hexacanths (D) Adult worm. Scolex of Taenia solium contains (A) Rostellum (B) Hooks (C) Suckers (D) All the above. Taenia solium attaches itself to the intestinal wall by means of scolex through its (A) Suckers (B) Suckers and looks (C) Hooks (D) Adhesive glands. Fluke occurring in human beings is (A) Fasciolopsis (B) Fasciola (C) Dugesia (D) Echinococcus. In case of human beings, hydatid cysts occur over (A) Stomach (B) Liver (C) Lungs (D) Both B and C. Primary host of Echinococcus granulosus is (A) Sheep or Goat (B) Dog (C) Human beings (D) Pig. In human beings, hydatid worm is (A) Secondary parasite (B) Periodic parasite (C) Incidental parasite (D) Ectoparasite. Number of proglottides present in Echinococcus granulosus is (A) 3  4 (B)10  15 (C) 25  30 (D) 250  300. Beef Tapeworm is (A) Taenia solium (B) Taenia saginata (C) Hymenolepis nana (D) Dipylidium caninum. Beef Tapeworm attaches itself to the wall of intestine by means of (A) Hooks (B) Hookiess rostellum(C) Suckers (D) Minute spines. Onchosphere infection of Taenia solium may occUr in human beings. It causes (A) Cysticercosis (B) Taeniasis (C) Bilharziasis (D) Enterobiasis. Pigs pick up Tapeworm infection because they are (A) Coprozoic (B) Coprophagus (C) Carnivorous (D) Scavengers. Encapsulated embryos of Taenia contained in gravid proglottides are (A) Eggs (B) Onchospheres (C) Capsules (D) Both B and C. The larva or embryo present in onchosphere of Tapeworm is called (A) Cysticercus (B) Redia (C) Hexacanth (D) Metacercaria. Inside pig, hexacanth larva gives rise to (A) Cercaria (B) Bladderworm (C) Cysticercus (D) Both B and C. Protrusible structure present over the scolex of Tapeworm is (A) Rostellum (B) Sucker (C) Proglottis (D) Auricle. Structures for attachment present over rostellum of Tapeworm are (A) Stickers (B) Spines (C) Hooks (D) Barbs. Number and arrangement of hooks in the rostellum of Taenia solium are (A) 12—22 in one whorl (B) 22—32 in two whorls (C) 22—32 in one whorl (D) 12—22 in two whorls. Number of gravid proglottides expelled out at one time is (A) 4  5 (B) 5  10 (C)10  20 (D) 20  40. Infection in which capsules pass out of’ the body through faeces and urine is (A) Cysticercosis (B) Schistosomiasis (C) Taeniasis (D) Both B and C. Schistosoma lives in human body in (A) Lymph nodes (B) Urinary tract blood vessels (C) Mesenteric and hepatic portal veins (D) All the above. The alternate host of Schistosoma is (A) Snail (B) Pig (C) Sheep and Goat (D) Fish The stage absent in life cycle of Schistosoma is (A) Miracidium (B) Redia (C) Cercaria (D) Both B and C.

69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88.

Human infection of Blood Fluke occurs through (A) Metacercaria (B) Miracidium (C) Capsule (D) Cercaria. Cercaria of Blood Fluke pass into human body through (A) Ingestion of food (B) Drinking of contaminated water (C) Direct penetration through skin (D) Both B and C. What is true about male Blood Fluke (A) Shorter and slender (B) Longer and slender (C) Longer and broader (D) Shorter and broader. In Schistosoma, gynaecophoral canal occurs in (A) Male for holding female (B) Male for holding eggs (C) Female for holding eggs (D) Female for holding male. Bilharziasis is infection of (A) Echinococcus (B) Schistosoma (C) Opisthorchis (D) Fasciola. Intestinal Fluke is (A) Fasciola indica (B) Fasciolopsis burki (C) Opisthorchis sinensis (D) Schistosoma japonicum. Chinese or Oriental Liver Fluke is (A) Opisthorchis sinensis (B) Schistosoma japonicum (C) Fasciola gigantica (D) Both B and C. Liver Fluke of cattle is (A) Fasciola hepatica (B) Fasciola gigantica (C) Schistosoma indicum (D) Schistosonia mansoni. Lung Fluke is (A) Paragonimus westennani (B) Schistosoma mwzsoni (C) Fasciola indica (D) Fasciolopsis buski. Fascioliasis is (A) Liver rot of sheep (B) Cirrhosis of humans (C) Liver rot of cattle (D) Cirrhosis of pig. Fasciola hepatica is (A) Ectoparasite (B) Monogenetic endoparasite (C) Digenetic endoparasite (D) Incidental parasite. Primary host of Taenia solium is (A) Humans (B) Pig (C) Sheep (D) Snail. Primary host of Liver Fluke is (A) Snail (B) Pig (C) Cattle (D) Sheep. Liver Fluke resides inside (A) Liver (B) Bile ducts (C) Both A and B (D) Liver and duodenum. Liver Fluke has (A) Absorptive nutrition (B) Saprozoic nutrition (C) Holozoic nutrition (D) All the above. Liver Fluke living in bile ducts feeds on (A) Bile (B) Blood and lymph (C) Epithelial cells (D) All the above. Schistosoma is (A) Hermaphrodite but protandrous (B) Hermaphrodite but protogynous (C) Unisexual (D) Hermaphordite with self fertilization. Fasciola hepatica is (A) Hermaphrodite with self fertilization (B) Hermaphrodite with preferably cross fertilization (C) Unisexual (D) Sexually sterile. In Fasciola hepatica, germination of capsule produces (A) Miracidium (B) Sporocyst (C) Redia (D) Cercaria. Miracidium of Liver Fluke is (A) Herbivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Omnivorous (D) Nonfeeding.

89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

Miracidium of Liver Fluke is (A) Free swimming (B) Creeping Miracidium gives rise to (A) Sporocyst after entering snail (C) Redia after entering snail Sheep pick up infection of Liver Fluke from (A) Redia (B) Cercaria Metacercaria of Liver Fluke is (A) Free swimming stage (C) Nonencysted nonmotile stage Regeneration is absent in flatworm (A) Planaria (B) Fasciola Pseudometamerism occurs in (A) Turbellaria (B) Trematoda Mouth of Dugesia is (A) Anterior (B) Antero-dorsal Fertilization is internal in (A) Dugesia (B) Fasciola Dugesia shows (A) Transverse binary fission (C) Oblique binary fission Adhesive zone of Dugesia is (A) Anterior (B) Posterior

(C) Nonmotile

(D) Free floating.

(B) Sporocyst in contact with aquatic vegetation (D) Redia in contact with aquatic vegetation. (C) Metacercaria

(D) Capsule.

(B) Encysted stage (D) Free floating stage. (C) Schistosoma

(D) Both B and C.

(C) Cestoda

(D) None of the above.

(C) Mid-ventral

(D) Antero-ventral.

(C) Schistosoma

(D) All the above.

(B) Longitudinal binary fission (D) No binary fission. (C) Dorsal

(D) Ventral.

Revision Questions 99. 100. 101.

102.

103. 104. 105. 106. 107.

Tape worms obtain their food from the host by (A) Sucking (B) Scraping (C) Absorption through integument (D) Autotrophic For completing its life cycle, Tape Worm requires/Intermediate host of Tapeworm is (A) Snail (B) Pig (C) Dog (D) Man only The correct sequence of various larvae in liver fluke is (A) Miracidium, sporocyst, cercaria, redia, metacercaria (B) Miracidium, sporocyst, redia, cercaria, metacercaria (C) Sporocyst, redia, miracidiuin, cercaria, metacercaria (D) Cercaria, sporocyst redia, miracidium, metacercaria. (N. C.E.R. T. 1984) Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in (A) Absence of scolex hooks (B) Absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching (C) Absence, of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female reproductive organs (D) Presence of scolex hooks. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage of (A) Tapeworm (B) Roundworm (C) Pinworm (D) Liver Fluke. Miracidium is the larval stage of (A) Tapeworm (B) Roundworm (C) Pinworm (D) Liver Fluke. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are (A) Flame cells (B) Nephridia (C) Malpighian tubules (D) Green glands. Tapeworm does not possess digestive system asit (A) Does not require solid food (B) Obtains food through general surface (C) Does not require food (D) Lives in intestine Intermediate host of Liver Fluke is (A) Pig (B) Man (C) Snail (D) Mosquito.

108. 109. 110. 111. 112.

113. 114. 115. 116. 117.

118. 119.

120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127.

The embryo of Taenia present in proglottis is (A) Tetracanth (B) Hexacanth (C) Miracidium (D) Bladderworm. Schistosoma is a parasite found in (A) Blood (B) Liver (C) Lungs (D) Intestine. Onchosphere occurs in (A) Ascaris (B) Fasciola (C) Taenia (D) Planaria. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs as (A) Onchosphere (B) Cysticercus (C) Morula (D) Egg. What is true of Taenia solium? (A) It sucks food from host by means of oral suckers (B) It has head, neck and thorax. As abdomen is absent (C) Onchospheres are highly resistant and can withstand boiling temperature (D) The animal has no mouth alimentary canal and anus Flame cells/solenocytes are main excretory structures of (A) Coelenterates (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Echinodermata. Regeneration power can best be studied in (A) Planaria/Dugesia (B) Amphioxus (C) Earthworm (D) Sponge Worms of Platyhelminthes are (A) Roundworms (B) Flatworms (C) Segmented worms (D) Unisexual Larva of Schistosoma is (A) Cercaria (B) Planula (C) Cysticercus (D) Muller’s larva. What is correct about Taenia? (A) Male organs occur in posterior proglottides (B) Male organs occur in anterior proglottides (C) Female organs occur in anterior proglottides (D) Mature proglottides contain both male and female organs Flame cells are associated with (A) Respiration (B) Excretion (C) Nutrition (D) Digestion. What is true about Taenia saginata? (A) Life history has pig as intermediate host (B) There are two large suckers on scolex (C) Rostellar hooks are absent (D) Rostellum has double circle of hooks. Which one is not a larval st4ge of flatworms? (A) Redia (B) Cercaria (C) Bipinnaria (D) Miracidium. Which constitutes the correct pairing? (A) Flatworm—Planaria (B) Dogfish — Sea Urchin (C) Fish—Snail (D) None of the above Anus is absent in (A) Fasciola (B) Pheretima (C) Periplaneta (D) Unio. Pick up the correctly matched (A) Water vascular system — Sponge (B) Blubber-Kangaroo (C) Marsupium—Platypus (D) Flame cell— Flatworm Which one belongs to Platyhehninthes? (A) Schistosoma (B) Trypanosoma (C) Plasmodium (D) Wuchereria. Cysticerci in pig muscles can remain viable upto (A) One year (B) Six months (C) Six years (D) One month. Taenia soliu is characterised by (A) Absence of digestive tract (B) Presence of hooks for adhesion (C) Externally divided body (D) All the above Both alternation of generations and alternation of hosts are present in (A) Wuchereria (B) Fasciola (C) Taenia (D) Ascaris.

128.

129. 130.

131. 132. 133.

134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146.

Give the correct match in the following Coloumn I Column II a) Flame Cells p Sponges b) Collar Cells q Hydra c) Stinging Cells r Planaria s Ascaris (A)a = r,b =p,c = q (B) a = r, b = p, c = s (C)a = r,b = s, c = q (D) a = r, b = q, c = s Laurer’s canal is found in (A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium (C) Fasciola (D) Hydra. Which is true of Taenia? (A) Anterior proglottides contain male organs while ripe proglottides have uterus filled with eggs (B) All proglottides have both male and female organs (C) Female organs are confined to anterior proglottides (D) Male organs are confined to posterior proglottides Alimentary canal is absent in (A) Taenia and Schistosoma (B) Ascaris and Fasciola (C) Taenia and Echinococcus (D) Tricui and Fasciola. Rhabdites occur in (A) Planaria/Dugesia (B) Fasciola (C) Taenia (D) Echinococcus. In life history of Liver Fluke are present (1) Cercaria (2) Metacercaria (3) Sporocyst (4) Redia (5) Miracidium. What is their proper sequence (A) 21354 (B) 53412 (C) 54213 (D) 54312. Fasciola hepatica lives in (A) Liver of sheep (B) Blood of sheep (C) Intestine of sheep (D) Spleen of sheep. Dropping of gravid proglottides by cestodes (A) Autophagy (B) Autotomy (C) Paedogenesis (D) Apolysis. Turbellarians are (A) Free living nematodes (B) Parasitic nematodes (C) Free living flatworms (D) Parasitic trematodes. Cercaria stage of Fasciola hepatico leads to (A) Sporocyst (B) Redia (C) Miracidium (D) Metacercaria. Free swimming ciliated stage of Liver Fluke is (A) Redia (B) Miracidium (C) Metacercaria (D) Cercaria. Acoelomate animal with protandrous nature is (A) Ascaris (B) Schistosoma (C) Taenia (D) Megascolex A metozoan covered by cilia is (A) Paramecium (B) Dugesia (C) Fasciola (D) Ascaris. Cysticercus of Taenia develops in (A) Man (B) Goat (C) Sheep (D) Pig. Hymenolepis nana is (A) Dog Tapeworm (B) Dwarf Tapeworm of Man (C) Pork Tapeworm (D) Dead Man’s Finger Lung Fluke is (A) Hymenolepis nana (B) Paragonimus westermani (C) Schistosoma haematobium (D) Echinococcus granulosus Which of the following takes food but has no alimentary canal? (A) Leech (B) Liver Fluke (C) Ascans (D) Taenia. Mehlis’ glands of Tapeworm are associated with (A) Reproduction (B) Excretion (C) Respiration (D) Circulation. During its life cycle, Fasciola hepatica (Liver Fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively.

147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152.

153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159.

160. 161. 162. 163.

(A) Redia and miracidium (B) Cercaria and redia (C) Metacercaria and cercaria (D) Miracidium and metacercaria. Which one is excratory organ? (A) Archaeocyte (B) Choanocyte (C) Pinacocyte (D) Solenocyte. Which one is hermaphrodite? (A) Ascaris (B) Trichuñs (C) Megascolex (0) Enterobius. An acoelomate animal with bilateral symmetry is (A) Jelly Fish (B) Liver Fluke (C) Crab (D) Roundworm. Taenia solium belongs to phylum (A) Aschelminthes (B) Mollusca (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Annelida. Taenja solium is attached to intestinal mucosa by (A) Rostelluni (B) Scolex (C) Proglottides (D) Acetabulum. Triploblastic unsegmented, acoelomate, exhibiting bilateral symmetry and reproducing both asexually and sexually, with parasitic forms belong to phylum (A) Porifera (B) Platyhehninthes (C) Annelida (D) Ctenophora (E) Cnidaria Flame cells are excretory organs of (A) Hydra (B) Hydrilla (C) Cockroach (D) Planaria. Cestodes are distinguished from other flatworms by the absence of (A) Nervous system (B) Digestive system (C) Excretory system (D) Reproductive system. Gut parasite belongs to (A) Gestoda (B) Cestoda (C) Turbellaria (D)’Both A and B. Which is not a characteristic of Taenia? (A) Apolysis (B) Proglottides (C) Metamerism (D) Strobila. Which one can, show self fertilization?’ (A) Earthworm (B) Liver fluke (C) Fish (D) Roundworm. Excretory organs of flatworms are (A) Malpighian tubules (B) Nephridia (C) Protonephi1dia (D) Nepbron In the diagram given by the side, different parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match the parts they indicate

(A) a-suctorial mouth, b-hooks, c-sucker, d-segments (B) a-sucker, b-hairs, c-ring, d- proglottids (C) a-rostellum, b-hooks, c-sucker, d proglottids (D) a-mouth, b-tentacles, c-sucker, d segments The animal having parenchyma in space between body wall and gut is (A) Echinococcus (B) Echinodiscus (C) Entrobiuni (D) Eunice. Intermediate host of Schistosoma is (A) Sheep (B) Snail (C) Mosquito (D) Pig. Which of the following does not have many segments? (A) L.obster (B) Grasshopper (C) Earthworm (D) Flatworm Flatworms differ from roundworms in possessing (A) Solid mesoderm (B) Bilateral symmetry(C) Metamorphosis (D) Triploblastic body.

ANSWER – KEY 1) D 2) B

3) D

11) 21) 31) 41) 51) 61) 71) 81) 91) 101) 111) 121)

B C A A B A D D C B A A

12) 22) 32) 42) 52) 62) 72) 82) 92) 102) 112) 122)

D B B A C C A C B B D A

13) 23) 33) 43) 53) 63) 73) 83) 93) 103) 113) 123)

B A A A A N B C D A B D

14) 24) 34) 44) 54) 64) 74) 84) 94) 104) 114) 124)

C D C D B A B D C D A A

15) 25) 35) 45) 55) 65) 75) 85) 95) 105) 115) 125)

A D A A C C A C C A B B

131) 141) 151) 161)

C D A B

132) 142) 152) 162)

A B B D

133) 143) 153) 163)

B B D A

134) A 144) D 154) B

135) 145) 155)

D 136) A 146) B 156)

4) C

5) A

6) B 16) 26) 36) 46) 56) 66) 76) 86) 96) 106) 116) 126)

7) A A C A A A A B B D B A D

17) 27) 37) 47) 57) 67) 77) 87) 97) 107) 117) 127)

8) A C D A D A A A A A C D B

C 137) D D 147) D C 157) B

18) 28) 38) 48) 58) 68) 78) 88) 98) 108) 118) 128)

9) A D B D B D B A D D B B A

138) B 148) C 158) C

19) 29) 39) 49) 59) 69) 79) 89) 99) 109) 119) 129)

A A D A C D C A C A C C

10)

C

20) 30) 40) 50) 60) 70) 80) 90) 100) 110) 120) 130)

A C B D D D A A B C C A

139) C 140) B 149) B 150) C 159) C 160) A

Aschelmlnthes or Nemathelminthes 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

The study of worms is called (A) Nematology (B) Cnidology (C) Helminthology (D) Arthrology. The hinder end of male Ascaris is (A) Straight (B) Thickened (C) Coiled (D) Curved. Intestinal parasite that feeds on tissue and blood is (A) Filaria or Wuchereria (B) Ancylostoma (C) Enterobius (D) Ascaris. Thread or Pinworm is (A) Ancylostoma (B) Necator (C) Wucherena (D) Enterobius. A free living roundworm occurring in very large number in soil is (A) Rhabditis (B) Millipede (C) Earthworm (D) Fasciola Characteristic common between Flatworms and Roundworms is (A) Triploblastic (B) Acoelomate (C) Pseudocoelomate (D) Parasitic. Intermediate host of Wuchereria bancrofti is (A) Male Anopheles (B) Female Anopheles (C) Female Culex (D) Male Culex. Elephantiasis is caused by (A) Trichinella (B) Ancylostoma (C) Wuchereria (D) Rhabditis. Nutrition in Ascaris, the commoki roundworm parasite, is (A) Saprozoic (B) Parasitic (C) Holozoic (D) Mixotrophic. Roundworms possess a symmetry (A) Radial (B) Bilateral (C) Biradial (D) Spherical. Which is dioecious? (A) Taenia (B) Fasciola (C) Ascaris (D) None of the above Male Ascuris differs from female in having (A) Lips (B) Amphids (C) Pineal spicules (D) Tail. The epidermis of Ascaris is (A) Multicellular (B) Syncytial (C) Columnar (D) Cuboidal. The body cavity of nemathelminthes is without peritoneal lining. It is (A) Haemocoel (B) True coelom (C) Pseudocoel (D) Atrium. Name the nematode found in the striped muscles (A) Ancylostoma (B) Trichinella (C) Ascaris (D) None of the above. The study of round worms is called (A) Ascariology (B) Aschelminthology(C) Nematology (D) None of the above. Alimentary canal of Ascaris is (A) Complete (B) Incomplete (C) Absent (D) Rudimentary. Ascaris is (A) Diploblastic (B) Triploblastic (C) Monoblastic (D) Ablastic. The commonest worm in children is (A) Ascaris lumbricoides (B) Enterobius vermicularis (C) Ancylostoma duodenale (D) Thchinella sprialis. Seat Worm is the alternate name of (A) Pin Worm (B) Hook Worm (C) Intestinal Round Worm (D) Guinea Worm. Blisters are produced on the body due to infection of worm called (A) Thchinella (B) Drancunculus (C) Wuchereria (D) Echinococcus. Ascaris is monogenetic. It means it has (A) One host (B) Two hosts (C) Three hosts (D) None of the above. Which of the following is unsegmented and ovoviviparous worm? (A) Ascaris (B) Wuchereria (C) Taenia (D) Fasciola. Anal itching is caused by (A) Female Ancylostoma (B) Male Ancylostoma

25. 26. 27. 28.

29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

(C) Female Enterobius (D) Male Enterobius. A disease caused by helminth parasite is (A) Diphtheria (B) Filaria (C) Malaria (D) Fluorosis. Elephantiasis/Filariasis is a disease of (A) Temperate areas (B) Tropical areas (C) Subtropical areas (D) Hilly tracts. In male Ascaris, the anus and genital pore (A) Open into cloaca (B) Lie side by side (C) Lie at opposite ends (D) Are absent. Ascaris is specialised and not degenerated parasite as it is (A) With a straight alimentary canal (B) Dioecious (C) Without respiratory organ (D) Covered by cuticle resistant to digestive juices of host. Whipworm is (A) Ancylostoma (B) Trichuris (C) Enterobius (D) Trichinella. Trichuris trichiura resides in (A) Duodenum (B) Jejunum (C) Ileum (D) Caecum and colon. Whipworm feeds on (A) Semidigested food (B) Undigested food (C) Blood meal (D) Digested food. Whipworm infection is more common in (A) All age groups in cold countries (B) Children of cold countries (C) Children of warm countries (D) All age groups in warm countries. Whipworm is named so as its (A) Anterior two-third is slender (B) Posterior two-third is slender (C) Anterior one third is slender (D) Posterior one third is slender. Trichuri causes (A) Anaemia (B) Dysentery (C) Abdominal pain (D) All the above. Guinea Worm is (A) Drancunculus medinensis (B) Brugia malayi and B. timori (C) Trichinella spiralis (D) Oxyuris vemiicularis. Primary host of Guinea Worm is (A) Cyclops (B) Man (C) Fish (D) Antelope. In Guinea Worm, the male is (A)1/2—1/3 of female (B) 1/6 — 1/8 of female (C) 1/10 — 1/15 of female (D) 1/19—1/30 of female. Male Guinea Worm has (A) Curved posterior end (B) Cloaca (C) Two copulatory spicules (D) All the above. Female Dracunculus has (A) One copulatory spicule (B) One caudal spine (C) Two copulatory spicules (D) Both B and C. Female Dracuncülus is (A) Viviparous (B) Ovoviviparous (C) Oviparous (D) Both A and B. Female Dracunculus possesses (A) No uterus (B) Single uterus (C) Double uterus (D) A functional vulva Intermediate host of Guinea Worm is (A) Fish (B) Snail (C) Cyclops (D) Housefly. For releasing larvae, female Guinea. Worm (A) Descends to urinary bladder (B) Descends to anal chamber (C) Forms blisters in respiratory tract (D) Produces skin blisters. Trichina Worm occurs in (A) Man (B) Domesticated animals(C) Rodents (D) All the above.

45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66.

Trichina infection spreads through (A) Contact (B) Contaminated articles(C) Eating infected meat (D) Faecal matter. Human infection of Trichina Worm generally comes from (A) Cats (B) Dogs (C) Pigs (D) Horses and Camels. Trichina Worm performs copulation in (A) Stomach (B) Lungs (C) Intestine (D) Rectum. Juveniles of Trichina Worm form cysts inside (A) Involuntary muscles (B) Striped muscles (C) Connective tissue (D) Skin. Filarial Worm has Man as (A) Secondary host (B) Incidental host (C) Primary host (D) Temporary host. Filaria is transmitted to man by (A) Culex (B) Aedes (C) Anopheles (D) All the above. Filaria Worm resides in human body in (A) Subcutaneous tissue (B) Lymph glands and lymph vessels (C) Liver (D) Spleen. Filaria Worm is (A) Wucherena bancrofti (B) Brugia timon (C) Bnsgia rnalayi (D) All the above. Copulation in Filaria Worm occurs in (A) Blood vessels (B) Intestine (C) Lymph glands (D) Spleen. Filaria Worm is (A) Oviparous (B) Ovoviviparous (C) Viviparous (D) Parthenogençtic. First stage juveniles of Wuchereria are known as (A) Microfilariae (B) Larvae (C) Filariform larvae (D) Rhabditiform larvae. Microfilariae are liberated by female Wuchereria inside (A) Blood (B) Lymph (C) Body cavity (D) Muscles. Infectivity develops in microfilariae inside (A) Human liver (B) Human spleen (C) Mosquito haemolymph (D) Mosquito muscles. Infective juvenile of Wuchereria is (A) First stage juvenile (B) Second stage juvenile (C) Third stage juvenile (D) Fourth stage juvenile. Growth of filaria worms inside lymph vessels causes their blockage (A) Lymphoma (B) Lymphoderma (C) Lymphocytoma (D) Lymphoreticulosis. Which one in monogenetic (A) Enterobius (B) Brugia (C) Dracunculus (D) Both A and B. Seatworm Enterobius is characterised by presence of (A) Buccal capsule (B) Copulatory bursa (C) Cephalic alae (D) Straight tail in male. Posterior end of male Enterobius possesses (A) One penial spicule (B) Two equal penial spicules (C) Two unequal penial spicules (D) None of the above. Male Enterobius can be recognised by (A) Curved posterior end (B) One penial spicule (C) Two caudal alae (D) All the above. Infection of pinworm is called (A) Enterobiasis (B) Oxyuriasis (C) Both A and B (D) Trichuriasis. Enterobiasis is characterised by (A) Anal itching (B) Genital itching (C) Abdominal pain and diarrhea (D) All the above. Size of Enterobius (Oxyuris) vermicularis is (A) 2-3 mm in male and 5-8 mm in female

67. 68.

69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83.

84.

(B) 3—5 mm in male and 8—13 mm in female (C) 5—8 nun in male and 12—17 nun in female (D) 8-10 mm in male and L5-20 :in female. Old World Hookworm is (A) Necator americanus (B) Ancylostoma duodenale (C) Ancylostoma caninus (D) Strongyloides stercoralis. Size of Hookworm is (A) 8—11 mm in male and 10—13 mm in female (B) 11—15 mm in male and 13—20 mm in female (C) 15—20 mm in male and 20—30 mm in female (D) 20—25 mm in male and 30—40 mm in female. Hookworm is known so as it possesses (A) Buccal capsule (B) Lancets and cutting plates (C) Curvature in anterior region (D) Curvature in posterior region in both the sexes. Hookworm resides in (A) Duodenum (B) Rectum (C) Small intestine (D) Blood. Hookworm feeds on (A) Semidigested food (B) Undigested food (C) Digested food (D) Mucous membrane and blood. Hookworm holds the intestinal wall by means of (A) Cutting plates (B) Lancets (C) Sucking action of pharynx (D) Surface spicules. A single Hookworm sucks blood (A) 0.1ml (B) 0.5ml (C) 0.8 ml (D) 1.2 ml. Hookworm causes (A) Anaemia (B) Anal itching (C) Genital itching (D) All the above. Ground itch is due to larva of (A) Ancylostoina (B) Enterobius (C) Trichuris (D) All the above. Larva of Ancylostoma feeds on (A) Bacteria (B) Protists (C) Organic debris (D) Eggs of small animals. Hatching of Ancylosloma occurs in (A) Water (B) Moist soil (C) Inside human body (D) Secondary host. Infective larva of Ancylostoma is called (A) Rhabditiform (B) Second stage juvenile (C) Embryonated larva (D) Filariform larva. Filariform larva of Ancylostoma is (A) First stage juvenile (B) Second stage juvenile (C) Third stage juvenile (D) Fourth stage juvenile. Filariform larva enters human body while (A) Drinking contaminated water (B) Eating contaminated food (C) Bathing in contaminated water (D) Walking bare footed. Before reaching intestine, the larva of Ancylostoma travels through (A) Lungs and trachea(B) Oesophagus (C) Heart (D) All the above. Common Roundworm is also called (A) Intestinal Roundworm (B) Giant Intestinal Roundworm (C) Threadworm (D) Old World Roundworm. Size of common Roundworm or Ascans lumbricoides is (A) 15—30 cm in male and 20—40 cm in female (B) 10—15 cm in male and 15—25 cm in female (C) 5—10 cm in male and 10—15 cm in female (D) 3—5 cm in male and 7—10 cm in female. Number of streaks present in Ascaris lumbricoides is

85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Lips of Ascaris are (A) Smooth (B) Rough (C) Denticulate (D) Spiny. Number of lips of Ascaris are (A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One. Taste receptors of Ascans are (A) Phasmids (B) Amphids (C) Labial papillae (D) Both B and C. Amphids for olfacto-reception are present in Ascaris on (A) Pre-anal papilla (B) Post-anal papilla (C) Dorsal lip (D) Ventrolateral lips. Excretory pore of Ascwis occurs at (A) Posterior end (B) Middle of body (C) Behind the anterior end (D) Near the posterior end. A distinct genital aperture is present in Ascaris (A) Male behind the excretory pore (B) Female near the anus (C) Female behind the excretory pore (D) Male near the posterior end. Anus lies in Ascaris at (A) Tip of tail (B) In front of posterior end (C) Just near the excretory pore (D) In the middle of body. In male Ascaris, anus is (A) Absent (B) Replaced by gonopore (C) Replaced by cloaca (D) None of the above. Ascaris juveniles cause (A) Appendicitis (B) Pneumonia (C) Hepatitis and brain damage (D) All the above. Ascaris disturbs digestion of host by (A) Feeding on digested food (B) Injuring intestinal wall (C) Secretion of anti-enzymes (D) Both A and B. A free living roundworm is (A) Strongyloides (B) Rhabditis (C) Loa (D) All the above.

Revision Questions 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104.

Ascaris larva is called (A) Cysticercus (B) Rhabditiform (C) Hexacanth (D) Onchosphere. Syncytial epidermis occurs in (A) Ascaris (B) Hydra (C) Taenia (D) Leucosolenia. Elephantiasis disease is transmitted by (A) Sand fly (B) Fruit fly (C) House fly (D) Mosquito. Male Ascaris is differentiable from female Ascaris in (A) Presence of post-anal papillae (B) Presence of pre-anal papillae (C) Presence of penial setae (D) All the above Female Ascris is differentiable from male in (A) Presence of cloaca (B) Presence of penial setae (C) Shorter size (D) Straight posterior end Ascaris/Nemathelminthes possesses body cavity called (A) Coelom (B) Psedocoelom (C) Haemocoel (D) Coelenteron. Ascaris lumbricoides infection occurs through (A) Sole of uncovered feet (B) Contaminated water and food (C) Improperly cooked measly pork (D) From air through inhalation. An intermediate host is absent in case of parasite (A) Liver fluke (B) Tapeworm (C) Ascaris (D) Plasm odium. Ascaris protects itself against digestive enzymes of the host by

105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128.

(A) Mucus (B) Antienzymes (C) Antienzymes and cuticle (D) Cuticle Musculature of Ascaris consists of (A) Circular muscles only (B) Outer longitudinal and inner circular (C) Outer circular and inner longitudinal (D) Longitudinal muscles only. Rhabditoid/rhabditiform larva occurs in life cycle of (A) Liver fluke (B) Ascaris (C) Tapeworm (D) Planaria Which is true of Ascaris? (A) HOst (B) Aquatic (C) Unisexual (D) Bisexual. Roundworms differ from flatworms in possessing (A) Flame cells (B) Pseudocoelom (C) Segmented body (D) Production of antienzymes. Amiphids present on ventrolateral lips of Ascaris are (A) Chemoreceptors (B) Olfactoreceptors (C) Tactoreceptors (D) Gustatoreceptors. During its journey through the body, the juvenile Ascaris passes through (A) Spleen (B) Kidney (C) Skeletal muscles (D) Lung Alcopar is drug useful for (A) Taeniasis (B) Amoebiasis (C) Ascariasis (D) Schistosomiasis. Give the correct matching of causative agent/germ and disease (A) Anopheles — Malaria S (B) Leishmania — Sleeping Sickness (C) Glossina — Kala-azar (D) Wuchereria — Filariasis Cyclops is intermediate host of (A) Planaria/Dugesia (B) Echinococcus (C) Drancunculus (D) Ancylostoma. Filariasis is caused by (A) Wuchereria (B) Culex (C) Trichinella (D) Schistosoma. Microfilariae are carried by (A) Sandfly (B) Culex mosquito (C) Anopheles mosquito (D) Housefly The first and last moults of Ascans occur in (A) Heart (B) Kidney (C) Liver (D) Intestine. Which one is used in treatment of ascariasis? (A) Chenopodiuin oil (B) Paludrin (C) Terramycin (D) None of the above. Pseudocoel occurs in (A) Hydra (B) Ascaris (C) Cockroach (D) Earthworm. A thick layer of cuticle on the surface of Ascaris indicates (A) Reproduction (B) Growth (C) Parasitism (D) Evolution. Embryonated egg of Ascaris is (A) An egg with gastrula (B) An egg with blastula (C) An egg with juvenile (D) An egg within an egg Infective stage of Ascaris is (A) Adult worm (B) Second juvenile (C) Fourth juvenile (D) Egg Sensory structures in Ascaris are (A) Phasmids (B) Aniphids (C) Papiilae (D) All the above. Excretory pores present in Ascaris are (A) One (B) Two (C) One pair (D) Two pairs. In humans, elephantiasis is caused by (A) Ascaris lumb’icoides (B) Dracunculus medinensis (C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Ancylostoma duodenale The study of worms causing parasitic infestation in humans is (A) Helminthology (B) Ichthyology (C) Malacology (D) Herpetology Which is secondary/intermediate host of Hookworm? (A) Bed Bug (B) Sandfly (C) Mosquito (D) None of the above. Filaria is transmitted through/secondary host of Wuchereria is (A) Anopheles (B) Culex (C) Tse-tse fly (D) Sandfly

129. 130. 131. 132.

133. 134. 135. 136. 137.

138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149.

Which one spreads through food contamination? (A) Taenia (B) Schistosoma (C) Ascañs (D) Fasciola. Wuchereria causes a disease in parts of India (A) Filariasis — South India (B) Elephantiasis — Bihar (C) Elephantiasis — K.C.E.T. (D) None of the above Which larval stage of Ascaris is infective? (A) First and fourth (B) Second and third (C) First and second (D) Third and fourth. Which is not true of Ascaris infection? (A) More common in children (B) Does not produce tonsilitis (C) Number can be 500-5000 (D) Infection is cured even without medication. Life span of Ascaris is (A) 6—9 months (B) 9—12 months (C) 4—10 years (D) 10—12 years. Ascaris has three lips (A) One me4lian dorsal and two ventrolater (B) All dorsal (C) Two lateral and one ventral (D) Two dorso-lateral and one median ventral. Sexual dimorphism occurs in (A) Ascaris (B) Amoeba (C) Pheretima (D) All the above. Number of juvenile stages found during development of Ascaris is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Find out the correct sequence in body wall of Ascaris (A) Cuticle, epidermis, longitudinal muscles and circular muscles (B) Cuticle, epidermis and longitudinal muscles (C) Epidermis, cuticle, longitudinal muscles and circular muscles (D) Epidermis, longitudinal muscles, cuticle and circular muscles Sensory structures/chemoreceptors located in the anterior part of Ascaris are (A) Amphids (B) Copulatory bursa (C) Pineal setae (D) Pineal spicules. Metazoan parasite which is transmitted through contaminated food is (A) Filarial Worm (B) Guinea Worm (C) Entamoeba (D) Ascaris Enterobius infection occurs through (A) Mosquito (B) Contamination (C) Inoculation (D) Piercing Microfilaria occurs in peripheral blood of human beings during (A) Morning (B) Evening (C) Night (D) Day time. In India, filariasis is transmitted by (A) Culex fatigens (B) Anopheles culicifacies (C) Musca domeslica (D) Aedes aegypti. Intermediate host of Ascaris lumbricoides is (A) Mosquito (B) Pig (C) Snail (D) None of the above. Ascaris Iumbiicoides is (A) Hermaphrodite (B) Sexually dimorphic (C) Polymorphic (D) Sexually undifferentiated. Which organism resides in lymph nodes? (A) Taenia (B) Wuchereria (C) Plasmodium (D) Diplococcus. Size of female Ascaris lumbricoides is (A) 50—80 mm (B) 100— 150 mm (C) 150—250 mm (D) 200—350 mm. The animal in which sexes can be differentiated from external morphology is (A) Taenia (B) Krait (C) Ascaris (D) Sea Anemone. Larvae of Ascaris hatch out in (A) Soil (B) Intestine (C) Liver (D) Lungs. Ancylostoma infection spreads through (A) Contaminated food (B) Kissing (C) Skin (D) Blood.

150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159.

160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165.

166.

167. 168.

Filariform is larva of (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Annelids (D) Arthropods. Filariasis is due to (A) Virus (B) Protozoan (C) Bacterium (D) Helminth. Filariasis is due to infection of (A) Nematode worm (B) Leech (C) Bed Bug (D) Flea. One of the following is pseudocoelomate (A) Leech (B) Liver fluke (C) Hookworm (D) Jelly fish. An ovoviviparous parasite is (A) Taenia (B) Wucherena (C) Ascaris (D) Plasmodium. Animal group with pseudocoelom is (A) Echinoderms (B) Molluscs (C) Aschelminthes/Nematodes (D) Annelids. Pseudocoelom develops from (A) Blastopore lip (B) Archenteron (C) Embryonic mesoderm (D) Blastocoel Ascaris lumbricoides is commonly called (A) Roundworm (B) Hookworm (C) Seat worm (D) Pinworm (E) Filarial worm. Third moulting of Ascaris occurs in (A) Liver (B) Egg (C) Lung (D Intestine. Differentiating trait of Ascaris is (A) Sexual dimorphism and rhabditiform larva (B) Unisexual and digenetic parasite (C) Pseudocoelom and metameric segmentation (D) Hermaphrodite and pseudocoelon Adult Wuchereria bancrofti attacks (A) Nervous system (B) Lymph vessels (C) Muscular system (D) Blood vessels. Sites of first, second and third moulting of Ascaris larva are (A) Soil, lung, intestine (B) Soil, alveoli, lung (C) Soil, intestine, lung (D) Liver, stomach, intestine. Which of the following penetrates through skin and enters the intestine (A) Ascaris (B) Tapeworm (C) Hookworm (D) Entainoeba. Filaria Worm is (A) Wuchereria boncrofti (B) Fasciola hepatica (C) Echinococcus (D) Ancylosloma duodenale Find out the correct match (A) Amoeba proteus — Kala-azar (B) Leishmania donovuni-Sleeping sickness (C) Wuchereria bancrofti— Filariasis (D) Culex — Malaria Given below are reason and assertion. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Tapeworm, Roundworm and Pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine. Reason. Improperly cooked food is source of all intestinal infections. (A) (B) (C) (D) Choose the correct statement regarding Ascaris (A) Hatching of embryo takes place within 10 hours. (B) Development and moulting takes place in alveoli of lungs (C) Flatching of embryo takes place in stomach due to lyric enzymes (D) Adulthood is reached within body of host in 10 days. Which one requires intermediate host 1. Dugesia 2. Schistosoma 3. Echinococcus 4. Ancylostoma 5. Wucherena. (A) 3,4 (B) 3,5 (C) 1,4 (D) 2,5 Cuticle of Ascaris is secreted by

169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176.

177.

178. 179.

(A) Syncytium (B) Muscle layer (C) Epufermis (D) None of the above. In Ascaris, male is different from female in (A) Presence of suckers (B) Elongated body (C) Tapering tail with penial spicules (D) Curved tail with penial spicules. Elephantiasis is caused by a member of (A) Ascbelminthes (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda. Ascaris occurs in (A) Stomach (B) Intestine (C) Rectum (D) Urinary bladder. Ascaris infection is common in (A) Men (B) Women (C) Children (D) Both A and B. Wuchereria occurs in (A) Lungs’ (B) Lymph nodes (C) Eyes (D) Gonads. Wuchereria bancrofti belongs to phylum (A) Nemathelminthes (B) Platyhelininthes (C) Nematoda (D) Coelenterata. The parasite that completes its life cycle in one host is (A) Fasciola hepa.tica (B) Ascaris lumbricoides (C) Plasmodium vivax (D) Taenia solium Abnormalities in host associated with Wuchereria, Plasmodium and Fasciola respectively are (A) Parasitic castration (b) Hyperplasia (c) Febrile paroxysm (d) Peritonitis (e) Lymphangitis. The correct match is (A)e,c,b (B)e,c,d (C)b,4e (D)c,4b. Ascaris is characterised by (A) Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism (B) Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism (C) Presence of true coelom and metamerism (D) Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism Filariasis is caused by (A) Dead adult fzlariae (B) Presence of bacteria in filarial wall (C) Microfilariae (D) Biting of filarial worm A parasitic disease which is not transmitted through the bite of an insect is (A) Filariasis (B) Leishmaniasis (C) Malaria (D) Ascariasis.

ANSWER – KEY 1) C 2) D

3) B

11) 21) 31) 41) 51) 61) 71) 81) 91) 101) 111) 121) 131) 141)

13) 23) 33) 43) 53) 63) 73) 83) 93) 103) 113) 123) 133) 143)

C B C C B C D D B B C C C C

12) 22) 32) 42) 52) 62) 72) 82) 92) 102) 112) 122) 132) 142)

C A C C D A B B C B D B D A

4) D B B A D C D C A D C C D B D

14) 24) 34) 44) 54) 64) 74) 84) 94) 104) 114) 124) 134) 144)

5) A C C D D B C A D C C A A A B

15) 25) 35) 45) 55) 65) 75) 85) 95) 105) 115) 125) 135) 145)

6) A B B A C A D A C B D B C A B

16) 26) 36) 46) 56) 66) 76) 86) 96) 106) 116) 126) 136) 146)

7) C C B B C B B C B B B D A D D

17) 27) 37) 47) 57) 67) 77) 87) 97) 107) 117) 127) 137) 147)

8) C A A D C D B B C A C A D B C

18) 28) 38) 48) 58) 68) 78) 88) 98) 108) 118) 128) 138) 148)

9) C B D D B C A D D D B B B A B

19) 29) 39) 49) 59) 69) 79) 89) 99) 109) 119) 129) 139) 149)

B B B C B C C C D B B C D C

10)

B

20) 30) 40) 50) 60) 70) 80) 90) 100) 110) 120) 130) 140) 150)

A D B A A C D C D D C A B B

151) D 152) A 153) C 161) C 162) C 163) A 171) B 172) C 173) B

154) B 164) C 174) A

155) 165) 175)

C 156) C 166) B 176)

D 157) A B 167) D A 177) B

158) C 168) C 178) C

159) A 160) B 169) D 170) A 179) D

Phylum-Annelida 1. The unique characteristic of annelida is (A) Coelom (B) Nephridia (C) Hermaprodite (D) Alimentary canal is complete. 2. The common larva of polychaeta/annelida is (A) Trochophore (B) Actinotrocha (C) Glochidiuni (D) Tornaria. 3. Name any annelid. which is dioecious (A) Pheretirna (B) Eisenia (C) Nereis (D) Lumbricus. 4. The number of segments in Hirudinaria is (A) 105 (B) 53 (C) 33 (D) 23. 5. Annelids are (A) Flatworms (B) Roundworms (C) 6-legged invertebrates (D) Segmented worms. 6. Locomotion occurs in Sandworm or Nereis through (A) Chaetae (B) Setae (C) Legs (D) Parapodia. 7. A trait common in Leech and Mosquito is (A) Anticoagulants (B) Abundant asexual reproduction (C) Cellular level of organization (D) Absence of sexual phase. 8. The major characteristic of phylum Annelida is (A) Flame cells (B) Metameric segmentation (C) Botryoidal tissue (D) Trochophore larva. 9. The first segment of annelids is (A) Prostomium (B) Peristomium (C) Prestomiuin (D) Poststomium. 10. Blood pigment of annelids is (A) Haemoglobin (B) Cyanin (C) Haemanin (D) Haemocyanin. 11. Hirudinaria is (A) Omnivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Herbivorous (D) Sanguivorus. 12. Body cavity of annelids/Nereis is (A) Schizocoel (B) Enterocoel (C) Pseudocoel (D) None of the above 13. Nereis is (A) Carnivorous (B) Herbivorous (C) Sanguivorous (D) Parasitic. 14. Heteronereis is (A) Member of Hirudinea (B) Fresh water annelid (C) Sexual phase of Nereis (D) Sanguivorous animal. 15. Hirudinaria is (A) Marine aquatic (B) Terrestrial anneid (C) Endoparasite (D) Ectoparasite. 16. What is true of Hirudinwia (A) It has a cephalic sucker (B) Mouth is triradiate (C) Segments are superficially subdivided (D) All the above. 17. A temporary ditellum occurs during the breeding season in (A) Pheretima (B) Heteronereis (C) Hirudinwia (D) Aphmdite. 18. Leech does not allow blood clotting by (A) Heparin (B) Thromboplastin (C) Hirudin (D) Haemophiliac factor. 19. The incorrect classification is (A) Polychaeta —Nereis (B) Archiannelida —Polygordius (C) Polychaeta —Hirudinaria (D) Oligochaeta —Pheretima. 20. The segmental appendages of Nereis are (A) Tentacles (B) Setae (C) Suckers (D) Parapodia. 21. Number of eyes present on the prostomiuxn of Nereis is (A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One. 22. Last segment of Nereis bears (A) Tentacles (B) Parapodia (C) Anal cirri (D) Penial spicules. 23. Metameric segmentation is (A) External segmentation corresponding to internal segmentation

24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

(B) Segmentation present in only a part of the individual (C) Segmentation found in the middle part of the body (D) Posterior segmentation. In which animal gonads develop only during breeding season? (A) Pheretima (B) Lumbncus (C) Nereis (D) Hinido. Which is marine (A) Pheretima communissima (B) Eisenia (C) Pontobdella/Nereis (D) Hintdo. The advantage of hermaphroditism to Hirudo is (A) To produce double population (B) To decrease population (C) To increase population (D) None. Nereis is (A) Gregarious (B) Nocturnal (C) Carnivorous (D) All the above. The fresh water animal is (A) Tubifex (B) Polynoe (C) Pontobdella (D) Neanthes. Hirudinaria shows locomotion by (A) Looping (B) Swimming (C) Both A Sand B (D) Creeping. An animal indicator of organic pollution of water is (A) Hin (B) Tubifex (C) Plan aria (D) Amoeba. Which one is Sea Mouse? (A) Aphrodite (B) Peripalus (C) Terebella (D) Chaetopterus. Which one has two pairs ofjaws? (A) Terebella (B) Tubifex (C) Chaetopterus (D) Aphrodite. Dorsal surface of Aphrodite is covered by (A) Iridescent bristles (B) Spines (C) Elytra (D) All the above. Annelid which shows colour changes dur movement (A) Pheretima (B) Chaetopterus (C) Terebella (D) Aphrodite. Anneid having gills for respiration is (A) Terebella (B) Chaetopteris (C) Lumbricus (D) Nereis. An unsegmented anneid is (A) Tubifex (B) Bonellia (C) Megascolex (D) Terebella. Environment determines the sex of animal in (A) Bonellia (B) Hirudinaria (C) Nereis (D) Both A and B Clitelluin occurs over 11 and 12 segments (A) Pheretima (B) Tubifex (C) Lumbricus (D) Megascolex Bonellia feeds with the help of (A) Tentacles (B) Parapodia (C) Proboscis (D) Aliform notopod Which one is bright red coloured (A) Nereis (B) Aphrodite (C) Bonellia (D) Tubifcc. A dorsal ciliated groove for directing for into mouth is found in (A) Aphrodite (B) Chaetopterus (C) Terebella (D) Tubifer. Which one lives in burrows (A) Tubifex (B) Chaetopteris (C) Terebella (D) Both B and C.

Revision Questions 43. Leech is (A) Carnivorous (B) Sanguivorous (C) Ectoparasite (D) Both B and C. 44. True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution of (A) Aschelminthes (B) Chordata (C) Echinodermata (D) Annelida. 45. The main function of ditelluni is (A) Coccon formation (B) Locomotion (C) Excretion (D) Copulation. 46. Coelom filled with muscular and connective tissues or botryoidal tissue occurs in

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.

(A) Ascaris (B) Nereis (C) Pheretima (D) Hirudó. Suctorial mouth occurs in (A) Butterfly (B) Leech (C) Taenia (D) Cockroach. Which one assists in locomotion (A) Trichocysts in Paramecium (B) Pedicellariae of Star Fish (C) Clitellum in Pheretima (D) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria. Trait common amongst Earthworm, Leech and Centipede is (A) Absence of legs (B) Hermaphrodite nature (C) Ventral nerve cord(D) Malpighian tubules Metainerism is characteristic of phylum (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Porifera (D) Mollusca Name the animal having both setae and nephridia (A) Sea Urchin (B) Sea Mouse (C) Sea Anemone (D) Sea Pen. Nereis belongs to (A) Mollusca (B) Arthropoda (C) Echinodermata (D) Annelida. Animals having multiple or numerous setae are included under (A) Polychaeta (B) Oligochaeta (C) Hirudinea (D) Onychophora Which one exhibits concentric tube-within- tube plan? (A) Arthropoda (B) Oligochaeta/Earthworm (C) Mollusca (D) Echinodermata. Which one is not deuterostome (A) Protochordata (B) Cephalochordata (C) Annelida (D) Echinodermata. Annelida is advanced over nematoda in having (A) Closed circulation (B) Metameric segmentation (C) True coelom (D) All the above. A mismatch is (A) Odd toe — Horse (B) Pheretima — parapodia (C) Hydra — Cnidaria (D) Cartilaginous Fish — Shark. Leeches are (A) Phytophagous animals (B) Blood sucking animals (C) Insectivorous animals (D) Soil eating animals. In Earthworm, neurons are (A) Sensory (B) Motor (C) Both A and B (D) Mixed. Animals with metameric segmentation, bilateral symmetry and closed circulatory system belong to phylum (A) Annelida (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca. External segmentation is absent but internal segmentation is present in (A) Polychaeta (B) Oligochaeta (C) Archiannelida (D) Hirudinea. Bilateral symmetry, blastopore mouth and true coelom occur in (A) Echinodermata (B) Chordata (C) Annelida (D) Platyhelminthes. Which one is correct (A) Flatworms are eucoelomates (B) Fishes are radially symmetrical (C) Birds are poikilothermic (D) Earthworm is metamerically segmented. Pick up the mismatched (A) Annelida—Hydra (B) Nemathelminthes —Ascaris (C) Arthropoda — Cockroach (D) Echinodermata — Starfish. Sea Mouse belongs to phylum (A) Chordata (B) Mollusca (C) Annelida (D) Echinodermata. Heart to pump blood evolved for the first time in (A) Annelids (B) Arthropods (C) Roundworms (D) Flatworms. A feature absent in annelids is (A) Clitellum (B) Pseudocoelom

68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74.

75. 76.

(C) Metameric segmentation (D) Nephridia Which one evolved in annelida (A) Triploblastic development (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Cephalisation (D) True coelom Waste laden cells of oligochaetes and polychaetes are (A) Thesocytes (B) Eleocytes (C) Follicular cells (D) Yellow cells. Which ones are not hermaphrodite? (A) Polychaetes (B) Leeches (C) Flatworms (D) Earthworm Trochophore larva occurs in (A) Chiton (B) Nereis (C) Aphrodite (D) All the above. Annelids have a central nerve cord which is (A) Hollow (B) Impermeable to K ions. (C) Dorsal (D) Ventral. Which one is incorrect (A) Oligochaeta —Pheretima (B) Hirudinea —Hirudo (C) Nematoda —Ascaris (D) Polychaeta —Lumbricus Pick up the matching pair of body feature and animal possessing it (A) Ventral central nervous system Leech (B) Ventral heart Scorpion (C) Post anal tail Octopus (D) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo Chameleon Which one is hermaphrodite? (A) Ants (B) Earthworms (C) Aphids (D) Cockroach. In which group of animals, a closed circulatory system is present (A) Arthropoda (B) Mollusca (C) Nematoda (D) Annelida. ANSWER – KEY

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61. 71.

(B) (D) (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (D)

2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62. 72.

(A) (A) (C) (D) (D) (D) (C) (D)

3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63. 73.

(C) (A) (A) (C) (D) (A) (D) (D)

4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64. 74.

(C) (C) (C) (D) (D) (B) (A) (A)

5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65. 75.

(D) (D) (C) (A) (A) (C) (C) (B)

6. (D) 16. (D) 26. (A) 36. (B) 46. (D) 56. (D) 66. (A) 76. (D)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (D) 37. (A) 47. (B) 57. (B) 67. (B)

8. (B) 18. (C) 28. (A) 38. (B) 48. (D) 58. (B) 68. (D)

9. (B) 19. (C) 29. (C) 39. (C) 49. (C) 59. (C) 69. (D)

10. (A) 20. (D) 30. (B) 40. (D) 50. (B) 60. (A) 70. (A)

Phylum-Arthropoda 1. Cyclops is (A) Terrestrial free living chilopod (B) Aquatic free living crustacean (C) Cursorial arachnid (D) Aquatic insect. .2. Cyclops differs from Daphnia in (A) Having green colouration (B) Absence of heart (C) Absence of carapace (D) All the above. 3. Walking Worm is (A) Hermit Crab (B) Millipede (C) Peripatus (D) Scylla serrata. 4. Trilobites are (A) Extinct arthropods (B) Connecting link between annelids and molluscs (C) Living fossils (D) Insects. 5. An arthropod having unjointed legs is (A) Limulus (B) Peripatus (C) Eupagurus (D) Millipede. 6. Daphnia resembles aphids in (A) Parasitic mode of living (B) Aquatic habitat (C) Presence of carapace (D) Parthenogenesis for a few generations. 7. Stink glands occur in (A) Julus (B) Scolopendra (C) Palwnnaeus (D) Paratelphusa. 8. A characteristic feature of scorpions is (A) 4 pairs of walking legs (B) Vivipary (C) Chelicerae (D) Pedipalpi. 9. In hypermetamorphosis, there are (A) Several larval moultings (B) More than one pupal stage (C) Several larval stages showing different structure and habits (D) Several types of larvae. 10. Lepisma is (A) Stick Insect (B) Leaf Insect (C) Praying Mantis (D) Silver Fish. 11. Praying Mantis is (A) Herbivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Saprozoic (D) Coprophagous. 12. Walking Stick is a (A) Chilopod (B) Diplopod (C) Crustacean (D) Insect. 13. Naiads are (A) Nymphs of Locust (B) Nymphs of Grasshopper (C) Nymphs of Dragonfly (D) All the above. 14. Eggs of Pediculus are (A) Nits . (B) Tumblers (C) Nalads (D) Instars. 15. Complete metamorphosis occurs in (A) Moth (B) Grasshopper (C) Bed Bug (D) Silver Fish. 16. Human Louse is (A) Lepisma (B) Pediculus (C) Cimex (D) Xenop.sylla. 17. Plant lice are (A) Locusts (B) Ticks and Mites (C) Aphids (D) Plant Bugs. 18. Ticks and Mites belongs to (A) Insecta (B) Crustacea (C) Diplopoda (D) Arachnida. 19. Scabies is due to (A) Ticks (B) Itch Mite (C) Maggots (D) Fungal infection. 20. Worker termites are (A) Wingless (B) Sterile (C) Blind (D) All the above. 21. Which social insect produces the biggest colony (A) Bees (B) Ant (C) Termites (D) Wasps.

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Wings are covered by scales in (A) Dragonflies (B) Houseflies (C) Mosquitoes Red dye for colouring cosmetics is obtained from (A) Lac Insect (B) Cochineal Insect (C) Spanish Fly (D) Honey Bee. An insect commonly available from book shelves is (A) Silver Fish (B) Drosophila (C) Cockroach (D) Mosquito. Resemblance of Phyllium to a dicot leaf is (A) Variation (B) Adaptive radiation (C) Mimicry (D) Genetic drift. A wingless blood sucking ectoparasitic insect is (A) Mosquito (B) Pediculus (C) Silver Fish (D) Aphis. Glow worm/Fire Fly is (A) Insect (B) Arachnid (C) Diplopod (D) Chilopod. An animal related to spider is (A) King Crab (B) Mosquito (C) Peripatus (D) Housefly. An insect helping in pollination is (A) Drosophila (B) Musca nebulo (C) Born byx mori (D) Apis dorsata. Cantharidine is got from (A) Cochineal Insect (B) Spanish Fly (C) Red Ant (D) Boll Weevil. An insect that produces shellac is (A) Apis indica (B) Bombyx mori (C) Laccifer lacca (D) Dicyolopius coccus. Centipede has (A) 150 legs (B) 200 legs (C) As many pairs of legs as body segments (D) As many legs as body segments. Life history of Cockroach belongs to (A) Ametabola (B) Hemimetabola (C) Paürometabola (D) Holometabola. First pair of wings in Cockroach are hard and leathery. They are (A) Tegmina attached to mesothorax (B) Elytra attached to metathorax (C) Tegmina attached to prothorax (D) Tegmina attached to metathorax. An animal which periodically casts off its exoskeleton is (A) Unio (B) Fish (C) Fasciola (D) Cockroach. Tracheal respiration differs from other modes of respiration in taking air direct to (A) Blood (B) Tissues (C) Lungs (D) Body cavity. Dances of honey bees are performed by (A) Workers while bringing food (B) Drones during nuptial flight (C) Queen during nuptial flight (D) Scout bees bçfore collector bees. Members of bee colony recognise one another through (A) Dance (B) Touch (C) Smell (D) Vision. The two pairs of wings of an insect develop respectively from (A) Prothorax and mesothorax (B) Mesothorax and metathorax (C) Metathorax and first abdominal segment (D) First two abdominal segments. A spider spins the web by means of a secretion of (A) Abdominal glands(B) Salivary glands (C) Thoracic glands (D) Mouth. Maggot is (A) Larva of Anopheles/Culex (B) Pupa of Housefly (C) Larva of Housefly (C) Larva of Dragonfly. Wriggler is the larva of (A) Beetle (B) Mosquito (C) Housefly (D) Butterfly. Pupa of mosquitoes is also named as (A) Grub (B) Tumbler (C) Maggot (D) Naiad. In Housefly the second pair of wings are (A) Halteres (B) Tegmina (C) Elytra (D) Flight wings.

45. 46.

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66.

Housefly lays eggs in (A) Damp soil (B) Stagnant water (C) Household articles (D) Animal excreta. Housefly spreads diseases (A) Typhoid, Diphtheria, Tuberculosis and Pertussis (B) Tuberculosis, Tetanus, Pertussis and Diphtheria (C) Gangrene, Poliomyelitis, Diphtheria and Typhoid (D) Dengue, Encephalitis, Filariasis and Poliomyelitis. Housefly cannot take food unless it is in (A) Digested state (B) Liquid state (C) Semisolid state (D) Solid state. Peripatus belongs to (A) Arachnida (B) Insecta (C) Crustacea (D) Onychophora. Which is a living fossil? (A) Limulus (B) Peripatus (C) Lepisma (D) Pediculus. Which character of Peripatus resembles with annelids? (A) Body is segmented (B) Presence of nephridia (C) Simple eyes (D) None of the above. Study of crustaceans is called (A) Limnology (B) Cardiology (C) Chondrology (D) Carcinology. In crustacca excretion is by (A) Malpighian tubules (B) Kidneys (C) Nephridia (D) Antennary/green glands. Palamnaeus (Scorpion) belongs to class arachnida because of (A) 4 pairs of legs (B) Chelatc legs (C) Sting (D) None. Julus belongs to class (A) Insecta (B) Chilopoda (C) Diplopoda (D) Crustacea. Which is a poisonous arthropod? (A) Spider (B) Scolopendra (C) Palaeomon (D) Anopheles. Which respires by book lungs? (A) Spider (B) Scolopei (C) Palaeomon (D) Anopheles. Which phylum of kingdom Animalia has the maximum number of species? (A) Chordata (B) Mollusca (C) Arthropoda (D) Platyhelminthes. Which class of animals has the maximum number of species? (A) Mammalia (B) Insecta (C) Polychaeta (D) Crustacea. Blood colour of arthropods is (A) Colourless (B) Reddish (C) Bluish (D) Yellow. Which one is the characteristic of class crustacea? (A) Cephalothorax with two pairs of antennae (B) Gills and green glands (C) Both A and B (D) Cephalothorax with one pair of antennae. Select the crustacean (A) Cockroach (B) Cyclops (C) Dragonfly (D) Butterfly. Which is not a crustacean? (A) Waterflea (B) Palaeomon (C) Crab (D) Grasshopper. Class arachnida is characterised by (A) A pair each of pedipalpi and chelicerae (B) Four pairs of legs (C) Both A and B (D) Three pairs of legs Which one is not an arachnid? (A) Spider (B) Itchmite (C) Louse (D) Tick. Myriapoda includes (A) Diplopods only (B) Both diplopods and chilopods (C) Chilopods only (D) Locusts. Diplopods (e.g., Millipede) differ from a chilopods (e.g., Centipede) in

67. 68. 69.

70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87.

(A) Occurrence of two pairs of legs on each segment (B) Presence of pedipalpi (C) Presence of chelicerae (D) Absence of sting. Entomology is the study of (A) Enteron (B) Enteric epitheliuni(C) Insects (D) Arachnids. Phylum arthropoda is characterised by (A) Jointed appendages (B) Unjointed appendages (C) Undeveloped appendages (D) Absence of appendages. In arthropoda, respiration is accomplished by (A) Book lungs and gills (B) Tracheae, book lungs and gills (C) Tracheae only (D) Traceae in terrestrial habitat and gills in aquatic habitats. Excretory organs of arthropods are (A) Green glands (B) Green gland and malpighian tubules (C) Malpigean tubules (D) Nephridia. Scorpion sting is located on (A) Head (B) Abdomen tip (C) Dorsal surface of thorax (D) Ventral side of abdomen. Scorpions are (A) Sanguivorous (B) Carnivorous (C) Herbivorous (D) Omnivorous Itchmite is connected with scabies as (A) Pathogen (B) Vector (C) Parasite (D) Intermediate host. Encephalitis is caused by the bite of (A) Anopheles (B) Culex (C) Aedes (D) Culex and Aedes. The vector of Wuchereria is (A) Anopheles (B) ulex (C) Aedes (D) None of the above. Aedes is the carrier of (A) Dengue fever (B) Relapsing fever (C) Malaria (D) None of the above. Male Anopheles differs from female in having (A) Larger wings (B) Spotted wings (C) Larger antennae (D) Brush lilce antennae. Respiratory organs of scorpions are (A) Lungs (B) Gills (C) Book lungs (D) Ctenidia. Larva of Housefly is known as (A) Maggot (B) Grub (C) Caterpillar (D) Naiad. The period in between the 2 moults of insects is (A) Stadium (B) Instar (C) Incubation (D) None of the, above. Pupa of a Butterfly is termed as (A) Nymph (B) Naiad (C) Imago (D) Chrysalis. Formicarium is the nest of (A) Termites (B) Ants (C) Wasps (D) Honey bees. Apiculture is (A) Culture of silk worms (B) Culture of honey bees (C) Culture of ants (D) Culture of termites. Which is sanguivorous (A) Ci,nex (B) Apis (C) Musca (D) Blatta. Which belongs to Ametabola? (A) Ant (B) Termite (C) Lepisma (D) Blatta. Which belongs to Holometabola? (A) May fly (B) Pediculus (C) Butter fly (D) Lepisma. Hemimetabolous metamorphosis is found in

88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106.

(A) Anopheles (B) Musca (C) Dragon flies (D) Butter flies. Eggs of Anopheles are (A) Singly laid with air floats (B) Singly laid without air floats (C) Laid in groups with float (D) Laid in groups without float. Aquatic larva of mosquitoes is popularly called (A) Maggot (B) Grub (C) Wriggler (D) Naiad. Vector insects are which (A) Spread disease (B) Destroy crop (C) Spoil soil (D) Act as scavengers. Anopheles eggs are (A) Rounded without floats (B) Boat-shaped ‘with floats (C) Rounded with floats (D) Boat-shaped without floats. The most economic insect is (A) Silver fish (B) Desert locust (C) Bonzbyx mon (D) Dragon fly. The home of white ant is known as (A) Mole hill (B) Hive (C) Termitarium (D) Sanatorium. Rice bug emits unpleasant odour from its scent glands located in (A) Thorax (B) Head (C) Abdomen (D) Legs. Paddy bug attacks Rice plants (A) In seedling stage (B) Milk grain stage (C) Ripe grain stage (D) All the above. During non-paddy season, Rice bug subsists on (A) Grass (B) Sugarcane (C) Maize or Sorghum (D) All the above. Leptocorisa varicornis has mouth parts (A) Cutting and chewing (B) Piercing and sucking (C) Sponging (D) Siphoning. Balanus differs from Lepus in being (A) Sessile (B) Stalked (C) Absence of cement glands (D) Absence of mantle. Cement glands of Lepus and Balanus open over (A) Antennules (B) Antennae (C) Maxillae (D) Maxillules. Barnacles feed on (A) Other crustaceans (B) Worms (C) Microorganisms (D) All types of animals. Barnacles are pests of (A) Crop plants (B) Fruit trees (C) Marine plants (D) Ships and hard shelled animals. Squilla is a (A) Arachnid (B) Crustacean (C) Chilopod (D) Insect. In Squilla, respiration occurs through (A) Book lungs (B) Tracheae (C) Gills (D) Book gills. Triops/Apus is (A) Marine crustacean (B) Fresh water crutacean (C) Fresh water arachnid (D) Terrestrial arachnid. Which one is Tadpole Shrimp (Tadpole Fish)? (A) Lepus (B) Squilla (C) Balanus (D) Triops. Triops commonly multiplies through (A) Sexually (B) Asexually (C) Parthenogenetically (D) All the above.

Revision Questions 107. 108.

An insect without mandibles is (A) Musca (B) Aphis (C) Anopheles (D) Blatta. Pasteurella/Yersinia pestis (causal agent of Bubonic Plague) is transmitted by (A) Bed Bug/Cimex (B) Rat Flea/Xenopsylla

109.

110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126 127. 128. 129. 130.

(C) Louse/Pediculus (D) Mosquito/Aedes. An insect differs from spider in having (A) 3 pairs of legs and 2 pairs of wings instead of 4 pairs of legs and no wings (B) 3 pairs of legs and 2 pairs of wings instead of 3 pairs of legs and no wings (C) 3 pairs of legs and no wings instead of 5 pairs of legs and generally one pair of wings (D) 6 pairs of legs and one pair of wings instead of 4 pairs of legs and no wings. Haemocoel is found in (A) Hydra (B) Sponge (C) Earthworm (D) Scolopedra. Complete metamorphosis is observed in (A) Silver Fish (B) Gypsy Moth (C) Bed Bug (D) Grasshopper. Basic unit in the eye of Cockroach/insect is (A) Retina (B) Rhabdome (C) Corneal facet (D) Ommatidium. Mosquito sitting at an acute angle is (A) Anopheles (B) Cule.r (C) Aedes (D) Psorophora. Lac is a product of (A) Faecal matter (B) Secretion from body (C) Excretion from body (D) Excess food oozing out of the body. A character common amongst Centipede, Spider and Cockroach is (A) Book lungs (B) Green glands (C) Compound eyes (D) Jointed legs. Structure common between Earthworm and Cockroach is. (A) Cocoon (B) Ommatidja (C) Dorsal nerve cord (D) Ventral nerve cord. Blood does nOt transport oxygen due to absence of respiratory pigment in (A) Cockroach (B) Earthworm (C) Frog (D) Rabbit. Anopheles eggs float in water due to (A) Egg raft (B) Yolk (C) Air float (D) All the above. In arthropods the body cavity is called (A) Enteron (B) Pseudocoel (C) Haemocoel (D) Coelom. Peripatus is connecting link between (A) Annelida and Arthropoda (B) Mollusca and Arthropoda . (C) Annelida and Mollusca (D) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes. Mouth parts of a butterfly are of type (A) Spongng (B) Siphoning (C) Piercing and sucking (D) Chewing and sucking. A characteristic common to Cockroach, Housefly and Mosquito is (A) Three pairs of legs (B) Sucking mouth parts (C) Long antennae (D) Two pairs of wings Set of useful insects is (A) Wasp, Anopheles and Bed Bug (B) Bed Bug, Silk Moth and Anopheles (C) Honey Bee, Bed Bug and Locust (0) Cochineal Insect, Lac Insect and Honey Bee. In Housefly the larva lives in (A) Water (B) Muddy soil (C) Dung (D) Vegetation. Matching pair of vector and disease is (A) Sandfiy—Plague (B) Culex — Pilariasis/Elephantiasis (C) Body Louse :_Typhoid (D) Housefly— Yellow Fever. Filaria, Malaria, Dengue, Sleeping Sickness and Yellow Fever are due to (A) Insects (B) Mosquitoes (C) Bacteria (D) Viruses. An insect without pupa stage is (A) Mosquito (B) Silk Moth (C) Bed Bug (D) Butterfly Silk thread is obtained from Silk Moth during (A) Pupal state (B) Larval state (C) Nymph state (D) Adult state. An important feature of Arthropoda is (A) Exoskeleton (B) Antennae (C) Jointed legs (D) Tracheal respiration. Young fully formed Housefly/Mosquito is known as

131. 132. 133. 134. 135.

136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151.

(A) Maggot (B) Caterpillar (C) Nymph (D) Imago. Which is not exclusive trait of Arthropoda (A) Presence of wings(B) Jointed appendages(C) Hacosocoel (D) Chitinous exoskeleton. Natural parthenogenesis is found in (A) Pheretima (B) Frog (C) Star Fish (D) Honey Bee. Casting off of old skeleton during growth of an animal is (A) Skinning (B) Moulting (C) Ecdysis (D) Both B and C. Fish which can be used in biological control of mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is (A) Eel (B) Carp (C) Cat Fish (D) Gambusia,. A queen Honey Bee lays eggs of (A) One type from which all caste$ develop (B) Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones (C) Three types forming queen, drone and workers (D) Unfertilised eggs die while fertilised ones form all castes Bee dances are meant for (A) Courtship (B) Communication (C) Recreation (D) Instinct. Ecdysone/moulting hormone is produced by (A) Prothoracic gland (B) Corpora allata (C) Corpora cardiaca (D) Abdominal gland. Johnston’s organ is found in (A) Antenna of Mosquito (B) Head of Cockroach (C) Abdomen of Housefly (D) Abdomen of Spider. Mouth parts of Housefly are of (A) Sponging (B) Siphoning (C) Piercing and sucking (D) Biting and chewing. Which disease is spread by Housefly (A) Dengue fever (B) Encephalitis (C) Filariasis (D) Gangrene. Haltcrcs in Mosquitoes and Housefly develop from (A) Prothorax (B) Metathorax (C) Mesothorax (D) Head. Mouth parts of Mosquito are of (A) Siphoning type (B) Piercing and sucking type (C) Sponging type (D) Cutting and chewing. Mouth parts of Cockroach are of (A) Piercing and sucking (B) Sucking and siphoning (C) Cutting and biting type (D) Sucking and rasping. In insects, oxygen is carried to different tissues by (A) Diffusion through surface (B) Tracheal tubes (C) Respiratory pigment through blood (D) Gills Anal cerci occur in (A) Both male and female cockroaches (B) Male Cockroach (C) Female Cockroach (D) Female Ascaris The order of metamorphosis in Housefly is (A) Egg, nymph, pupa and adult (B) Egg, larva, nymph and adult (C) Egg, larva, pupa and adult (D) Egg, pupa, larva and adult Housefly transmits all the diseases except (A) Cholera (B) Dysentery (C) Yellow fever (D) Typhoid. Hormone produced by corpora allata in insects is (A) Growth hormone (B) Moulting hormone (C) Inhibiting hormone(D) Juvenile hormone. Silver Fish, Lepisma, is (A) Mammal (B) Insect/Arthropod (C) Fish (D) Echinoderm Rearing of silkworm is/Silk industry is related to (A) Apiculture (B) Pisciculture (C) Sericulture (D) Horticulture. In hot summer and cold winter, the number of malaria cases as well as Anopheles declines. Reappearance of malaria in humid warm conditions is due to

152. 153. 154.

155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171.

(A) Surviving malarial parasites in human carriers (B) Surviving sporozoites in surviving mosquitoes (C) Monkeys (D) Mosquito larvae in permanent waters. Male and female Cockroaches can be distinguished externally through (A) Anal styles in male (B) Anal cerci in female (C) Anal style and antennae in females (D) Both B and C. Periplaneta shows (A) Complete metamorphosis (B) Incomplete metamorphosis (C) No metamorphosis (D) Gradual metamorphosis Housefly feeds on sugar by (A) Crushing its crystals and then sucking the powder (B) Crushing and eating (C) Sucking (D) Dissolving in saliva and sucking. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through hormone (A) Pheromone (B) Thyroxine (C) Ecdysone (D) All the above. Housefly possesses (A) Two pairs of wings (B) One pair of wings (C) Three pairs of wings (D) None of the above. Vector of Malaria is (A) Male Culer (B) Female Anopheles(C) Female Aedes (D) Female Culex. In Cockroach, metamorphosis and moulting are controlled by secretion of (A) Corpus luteum (B) Corpora allata (C) Corpus callosum (D) Corpus spongiosum. Diagnostic feature of insects is (A) Three pairs of legs (B) A pair of compound eyes (C) Chitinous exoskeleton (D) Segmented body. Mouth part present in female Anopheles but absent in male is (A) Maxillae (B) Antennae (C) Proboscis (D) Mandibles. Malpighian tubules are (A) Excretory organs of insects (B) Excretory organs of annelids (C) Respiratory organs of insects (D) Respiratory organs of annelids. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical carrier of diseases is (A) Pediculus (B) Cimer (C) Musca (D) Xenopsylla. Kala-azar and Oriental Sore are spread by (A) Housefly (B) Bed Bug (C) Sand Fly (D) Fruit Fly Which is not a member of class insecta (A) Musca (B) Cockroach (C) Louse (D) Spider. Male Mosquito feeds on (A) Human blood (B) Flower sap (C) Garbage (D) All the above. Bed Bug spreads (A) Yellow fever (B) Typhoid (C) Trench fever (D) Typhus. The major excretory product of arthropods is (A) Ammonia (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Trimethylamine oxide Yellow fever is transmitted by (A) Cider (B) Aedes (C) Anopheles (D) Bed Bug. Adult Cuter and Anopheles can be distinguished with the help of (A) Mouth parts/colour (B) Sitting posture (C) Antennae/wings (D) Feeding habits. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all members of the group (A) Frog, Lizard and Cockroach (B) Ascaris, Housefly and Frog (C) Housefly, Earthworm and Mosquito (D) Butterfly, Frog and Mosquito Difference between male and female Anopheles occurs in

172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193.

(A) Proboscis (B) Wings (C) Antennae (D) Size Spiders and Scorpions belong to class (A) Arachnida (B) Anthozoa (C) Crustacea (D) Onychophora. Tracheae of Cockroach and Mammal are similar in having (A) Paried nature (B) Noncollapsible walls (C) Ciliated inner lining (D) Origin from head Out of pneumonia, gangrene, yellow fever, dengue fever, malaria and elephantiasis, mosquitoes transmit diseases (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2. Joisted appendages are characteristic of phytem (A) Ethinodermata (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Arthropoda. PuPa occurs in the life cycle of (A) Cockroach (B) Housefly (C) Blatta (D) Earthworm. Vestigial wings occur in (A) Housefly (B) Mosquito (C) Blatta (D) Peviptaneta. Insects excrete nitrogen as (A) Uric acid (B) Guanine (C) Urea (D) Ammonia. Which part of Cockroach has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton (A) Head (B) Thorax (C) Abdomen (D) All the above. In Cockroach, wings are absent from (A) Prothorax (B) Mesothorax (C) Metathorax (D) None of the above. Young one of Cockroach is called (A) Maggot (B) Nymph (C) Ephyra (D) Pupa. The first animals to fly were (A) Mammals (B) Lizards (C) Birds (D) Insects. Common House Fly (Musca nebulo) lays eggs on (A) Cow/Horse dung (B) Stagnant water (C) Hanging ropes (D) Open meats and sweets. Which is a connecting link (A) Limulus (B) Penpatus (C) Penptan eta (D) Pita Which is nonpoisonous (A) Scorpion (B) Centipede (C) Crab (D) Spider. Pollen basket occurs in Honey Bee on (A) Prothoracic leg (B) Mesothoracic leg (C) Metathoracic leg (D) Union of thorax and abdomen. In Honey Bee, barbiess sting occurs in (A) Workers (B) Queen Bee (C) Drone (D) In all the three. Which one is a tracheate group (A) King Crab — Scorpion — Housefly (B) Crab — Centipede — Cockroach (C) Spider — Peripatus — Mosquito (D) Bed Bug—Sandfly—Silkworm. In which bee, the wax glands are present (A) Workers’ (B) Drone (C) Queen Bee (D) Both Queen and Worker bees Filaria is spread by (A) Bed Bug (B) Mosquito (C) Housefly (D) Flea. Which is common amongst Fly, Mosquito and Cockroach? (A) Open excretory system (B) Two pairs of wings (C) All belong to class insecta (D) 13-chambered heart Arrhenotoky is parthenogenetic develop ment found in (A) All insects (B) Mosquitoes (C) Butterifies (D) Honey Bees, Wasps and Ants. Sandfly is (A) Ancyclostoma (B) Musca (C) Phiebotomus (D) Drosophila.

194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199.

200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214.

Tick the correct matching (A) Arachnida — Ticks, Mites (B) Prototheria — Scaly Anteater (C) Procaryotes — Green Algae (D) Annelida—Asca,is, Taenia Which ones possess larval stages? (A) Cockroach and Housefly (B) Housefly and Butterfly (C) Cockroach and Honey Bee (D) Grasshopper and Dragonfly Honey-bees exhibit a dance to communicate location of food. It is (A) Break-dance (B) Woggle dance (C) Top dance (D) Round and woggle dance. In Butterfly, long formed from coiled siphoning tube is (A) Labrum (B) Maxilla (C) Labium (D) Mandibles. Which one is the best silk? (A) Tassar silk (B) En silk (C) Mulberry silk (D) Both A and B. A colony of Honey Bee consists of (A) One queen and a few drones (B) One queen, 10— 100 drones and 20000—80000 workers (C) Two queens, 5—10 drones and 20000 workers (D) No queen, 10—20 drones and 80000 workers. In Honey Bee, drones are formed from (A) Larvae fed on royal jelly (B) Fasting larvae (C) Fertilized eggs (D) Unfertiised eggs. Endocrine glands of insects which secrete juvenile hormone are (A) Corpora allata (B) Corpora albicans (C) Corpora myecaena (D) All the above. Which is common among Scorpion, Crab, Honey Bee and Silver Fish? (A) Compound eyes (B) Jointed legs (C) Poison glands (D) Metamorphosis. Honey is (A) Alkaline (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Basic after some days. Which is presently most infective? (A) Aedes (B) Anopheles (C) Culex (D) Trilobite. Trilobites evolved in (A) Precambrian (B) Ordovician (C) Silunian (D) Cambrian. Which one is incorrect match? (A) Xenop Plague (B) Pediculus — Typhoid (C) Culex—Malaria (D) Stegomyia — Yellow Fever. Rocky Mountain Fever is spread by (A) Tick (B) Housefly (C) Cockroach (D) Mosauito Silk is a product of (A) Laccifera indica (B) Nosema bombycis (C) Bombyx mon (D) Apis dorsata. Mature larva of Housefly is (A) Caterpillar (B) Wriggler (C) Grub (D) Maggot. Metamorphosis of Butterfly, Housefly and Mosquito is (A) Ametabola (B) Holometabola (C) Hemiinetabola (D) Paurometabola. A useful insect which no longer occurs in wild is (A) Laccifera indica (B) Drosophila melanogaster (C) Musca nebulo (D)Bombyrmori. Structure common to Housefly and Coclcroacb is (A) Chitinous exoskeleton (B) Two pairs of wings (C) Filamentous antennae (D) Sponging mouth parts. Dengue fever is spread by (A) Anopheles (B) Aedes (C) Culex (D) Musca. It juvenile hormone is absent when silkworm moults, it will (A) Moult into another larval stage (B) Moult into pupa

215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230.

231.

232. 233. 234.

(C) Moult into adult (D) Die. Silk fibre contains protein (A) Fibroin and sericin (B) Collagen and elastin (C) Fibrin and sericin (D) Chondrin and mucin. Which is absent in arthropoda? (A) Compound eye (B) Chitinous exoskeleton (C) Closed blood vascular system (D) Malpighian tubules A class with the largest number of animals is (A) Mammalia (B) Insecta (C) Reptiia (D) Pisces. Cray Fish is (A) Crustacean (B) Edible fish (C) Poisonous fish (D) Mammal. Swarming is found in (A) Houseflies (B) Mosquitoes (C) Locusts (D) Pyrilla. Limulus belongs to group (A) Insecta (B) Crustacea (C) Merostomata (D) Onychophora. Cray Fish belongs to (A) Pisces (B) Mollusca (C) Arthropoda (D) Anthozoa. Green glands found in some arthropods take part in (A) Excretion (B) Respiration (C) Digestion (D) Both A and B Most common silkworm of India is (A) Bombyx mon (B) Antheraea assamensis (C) Antheraea roylei (D) Antheraea paphia. Most widely reared Honey Bee speciss c India is (A) Apis inellifera (B) Apis dorsata (C) Apis indica (D) Apis florae Stage of Silkworm Moth from which silk.is obtained (A) Egg (B) Caterpillar (C) Cocoon (D) Adult. Wings are vestigial in (A) Male Anopheles (B) Female Anopheles(C) Male Blatta (D) Female Blatta. A respiratory pigment is absent in (A) Earthworm (B) Frog (C) Rabbit (D) Cockroach Anal style is present in (A) Male Cockroach (B) Female Cockroach (C) Both the sexes (D) None of the two Pseudotrachea of Housefly is formed by (A) Labeila (B) Rostrum (C) Haustellum (D) Basiproboscis. Vectors are (A) Physaliq, Musca domestica and Anopheles (B) Amoeba Physalia and Musca (C) Anopheles, Musca and Culex (D) All the above Corpora allata are removed from a nymph. It will (A) Remain nymph for life (B) Become adult (C) Change to next nymph immediately but will remain in that state (D) Die after some time In insects, ecdysone takes part in (A) Growth and development (B) Maturation into adult (C) Moulting till pupa is formed (D) Secretion of cuticle in adult. Aedes is vector of (A) Plague (B) Malaria (C) Filaria (D) Encephalitis and Dengue. Antennae of Cockroach have (A) Gustatory receptors (B) Auditory receptors

235.

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246. 247. 248.

249. 250. 251. 252. 253.

(C) Tactile receptors (D) Tactile and olfactory receptors. Which is wrong for an insect? (A) Cephalization and unjointed appendages (B) Chitinous exoskeleton and wings (C) Cephalisation and complete metamorphosis (D) Well developed sensory organs and haemocoel. Millipede (Julus) and Centipede (Scolopendra) are both included under (A) Arachmda (B) Myriapoda (C) Scaphopoda (D) Pelecypoda. Which one is correct pair? (A) Echinodermata — Cuttle Fish (B) Arthropoda — Silver Fish (C) Mollusca — Star Fish (D) Pisces — Jelly Fish Honey mainly consists of (A) Monosaccharides (B) Disaccharides (C) Polysaccharides (D) Fats Hind wings of Mosquito are represented by (A) Elytra (B) Halteres (C) Tentorium (D) Coxa. Life span of a worker bee is (A) 10 days (B) 15 days (C) 6 weeks (D) 10 weeks. Spider prepares the web with the help of (A) Legs (B) Mouth (C) Spinnerets (D) Salivary glands. Silk gland pore is situated on (A) Endopodite of first maxilla (B) Endopodite of second maxilla (C) Prostheca of mandible (D) Anterior part of hypopharynx. Nobel prize for deciphering the dance language of Honey Bee was awarded to (A) C. Darwin (B) K.V. Frisch (C) W. Harvey (D) H.G. Khorana. Di caused by female Cuter is (A) Filaria (B) Pneumonia (C) Malaria (D) Typhoid: Open circulatory system is not of physiological hindrance in Cockroach because (A) Heart is simple but chambered (B) Blood is colourless (C) Circulatory and respiratory systems are not connected (D) Excretion occurs through malpighian tubules Larva of ‘Cuter’ floats on suface of water with its head (A) Directed upwards (B) Directed downwards (C) Parallel to surface (D) Attached to surface of water. Female Silk Moth lays (A) 50-100 eggs (B) 200-250 eggs (C) 350-400 eggs (D) 800—1000 eggs. Arthropoda is characterised by (A) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry and abdominal appendages (B) Bilateral symmetry and pair of wings (C) Acoeloniate and radial symmetry (D) Exoskeleton, metmeric segmentation and jointed appendages. Open circulatory system is found in (A) Man (B) Insects/Cockroach(C) Reptiles (D) Ayes. Hard exoskeleton, cephalothorax and gills for respiration are characteristics of (A) maceta (B) Myriapoda (C) Polychacta (D) Crustacea Palaeoinon (Prawn) is a (A) Insect (B) Crustacean (C) Soft shelled mollusk(D) Fish. Arachnida contains (A) Wasps (B) Insects (C) Spiders (D) Beetles. Honey Bee performs round dance to indicate food source. The distance between hive and food source is (A) 50.m (B) 100m (C) 1000 m (D) 2000 in.

254. 255. 256.

257. 258, 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. 270.

271.

272.

Life cycle of Mulberry Silkworm is completed in (A) 20 days (B) 30 day (C) 35 days (D) 45 days. India’s ranking on Mulbery Silk práduction is (A) Fourth (B) Third (C) Second (D) First. Which is true about bees (A) Apis indica is the largest species is India (B) Bees wax is wasteful product (C) Honey has glucose and arabinose as main constituents (D) Communication in bees first studied by Frisch. Ascws and Cockroach resemble each other in (A) Pseudocoel (B) Sexual dimorphism (C) Nephridia (D) Dorsal tubular nerve cord. Which among the following is a social/colonial insect (A) White Ants (B) Locusts (C) Bed Bugs (D) Mosquitoes. One pair of wings occurs in (A) Dragonfly (B) Housefly (C) Mayfly (D) Butterfly. An arthropod without a true head is (A) Bed Bug (B) Louse (C) Butterfly (D) Tick Antennae are absent in (A) Housefly (B) Mosquito (C) Silkworm (D) Tick Body of an insect is divisible into (A) Head, thorax and abdomen (B) Head, trunk and abdomen (C) Cephalothorax, head and abdomen (D) Trunk, thorax and abdomen. Arthropods lack (A) Jointed appendages (B) Cilia (C) Respiratory organs (D) Segmented body. Mouth parts of male Anopheleslmosquito are of type (A) Rasp g and sucking (B) Piercing and sucking (C) Biting and sucking (D) Biting and chewing In insects, pheromone is secreted by (A) Corpus callosum (B) Corpus luteum (C) Corpus albicans (D) Corpus allata. Cocoon is made of protein (A) Myosin (B) Fibroin (C) Tubulin (D) Sericin Holometaboly is found in (A) Lady Bird Beetle (B) Bed Bug (C) Cockroach (D) Grass Hopper (E) Silver Fish In India maximum silk is produced by (A) Gujarat (B) Kerala (C) Karnataka (D) Assam Maggot of Housefly is (A) Pupa (B) Larva (C) Chrysalis (D) Imago. Which is wrong about Bee colony (A) Sex differentiation is based on haplodiploidy (B) Female dominated society (C) Domesticated species are A. indica and A.mellifera (D) Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only Characteristic of class Crustacea is (A) Cephalothorax, biramous appendages and gills (B) Head and thorax, book lungs and chitinous exoskeleton (C) Cephalothorax, book lungs and chitinous exoskeleton (D) Head and thorax, biramous appendages and book lungs. Arthropoda is differentiated from annelids by

273. 274. 275. 276.

277. 278. 279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 295.

(A) Segmented body (B) Absence of nephridia (C) Eyes (D) None of the above. An arthropod belonging to onychophora which possesses nephridia is (A) Limulus (B) Peripatus (C) Daphnia (D) Lepisma. Larva of Bomb mon is (A) Caterpillar (B) Trochophore (C) Nymph (D) Cocoon Paurometaboly is (A) Complete metamorphosis (B) Gradual metamorphosis (C) Incomplete metamorphosis (D) Complete metabolism Waggle dance in Honey Bee represents (A) Distance of food source (B) Direction of food source (C) Both distance and direction of food source (D) Distance and direction of enemy. Arachnida, Crustacea, Myriapoda and Insecta are classes of (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Arthropoda. Common feature amongst Silver Fish, Crab, Cockroach and Honey Bee is (A) Poison glands (B) Jointed legs (C) Compound eyes (D) Metamorphosis. Mandibles are reduced and functionless in (A) Cockroach (B) Mosquito (C) Bed Bug (D) Butterfly. Which is not economically useful (A) Apis dorsata (B) Lac insect (C) Bombyx mon (D) Lepisma. Spider occurring in Uttarakhand belongs to same class as that of (A) Tick (B) Centipede (C) Peripatus (D) Cockroach. Number of moults undergones by caterpillar of Bombyx mon is (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8. Insects are (A) Ammonotelic (B) Ureotelic (C) Uricotelic (D) Aminoteic. In Cockroach, coelom is (A) Schizocoel (B) Enterocoel (C) Pseudocoel (D) Absent. Tripedal locomotion occurs in (A) Kangaroo (B) Cockroach (C) Snail (D): Earthworm. Oak Tassar silkworm is (A) Born byr mon (B) Antheraea ricini (C) Antherqea assama (D) Antheraea roylei, A pernyi Tassar silk is obtained from (A) Antheraea roylei (B) Bombyr mon (C) Apis indica (D) Apis dorsata Book lungs occur in (A) Earthworms (B) Insects (C) Arachnids (D) Mammals Match the correct relation as Anopheles to malaria (A) Plasmodium – malaria (B) Trypanosoma — kala azar (C) Giardia — diarrhea (D) Culex — elephantiasis Number of leg pairs found in Insecta is (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five. Open blood circulation is found in (A) Earthworm (B) Cockroach/Prawn (C) Humans (D) Cows. Haemocoel occurs in (A) Coelenterata (B) Porifera (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda. Salivary duct of Cockroach opens at (A) Hypopharynx (B) Epipharynx (C) Left mandible (D) Right mandible. In insects, through respiratory gas exchange occurs (A) Gills (B) Tracheae (C) Skin (D) Lungs. Match the combination columns and choose the exact

296. 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303.

304. 305. 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313. 314. 315.

Coloumn I Column II a) Ommatidia (i) Articulation with thorax b) Trochanter (ii) For vision c) Coxa (iii) Forming oxoskeleton d) Selerites (iv) Fused with large and stout femur (A) a— (iv) b— (iii) c — (i) d  (ii) (B) a — (i) b — (ii) c — (iii) d — (iv) (C) a — (ii) b — (iv) c — (i) d — (iii) (D) a—(iii) b—(i) c—(ii) d—(iv) Acarology is study of (A) Coral reefs (B) Mullusca (C) Fossils (D) Ticks and Mites Peritrophic membrane is secreted in Cockroach by (A) Tracheal tubes (B) Mesenteron (C) Brood pouch (D) Salivary glands In Cockroach, glands present between 5th and 6th abdominal segments are (A) Blood B) Pharyngeal (C) Salivary (D) Stink. Complete metamorphosis occurs in (A) Housefly and Cockroach (B) Mosquito and Cockroach (C) Housefly and Mosquito (D) Cockroach and Locust. Organ of mastication of Cockroach is (A) Mandibles (B) Maxilla (C) Labium (D) Labrum. What is common between Earthworm and Cockroach (A) Nephridia (B) Solid ventral nerve cord (C) Cuticle (D) Malpighian tubules Which is an insect (A) Mites (B) Prawn (C) Moth (D) Scorpion. Choose the correct match (A) Housefly  yellow fever (B) Body Louse  typhoid (C) Aedes  plague (D) Anopheles  malaria One of the following respires by gills (A) Prawn (B) Crocodile (C) Whale (D) Frog. Insect is distinguishable from crustacean by (A) Number of eyes (B) Arrangement of nerve cords (C) Number of appendages (D) Presence of wings Chitin occurs in (A) Coelenterata (B) Arthropoda (C) Mollusca (D) Porifera. Immature stage of housefly is (A) Caterpillar (B) Nymph (C) Grub (D) Maggot. Silver Fish belongs to (A) Insecta (B) Mollusca (C) Chordata (D) Echinodermata. Which one does not occur in Cockroach leg? (A) Tibia (B) Femur (C) Fibula (D) Coxa Comma-shaped stage in the life cycle of Mosquito is (A) Larval stage (B) Pupal stage (C) Imago stage (D) None of the above. Wriggler is larva of (A) Butterfly (B) Housefly (C) Mosquito (D) Cockroach. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibijs? (A) Pheretima — Sexual dimorphism (B) Musca — Complete metamorphosis (C) Chamaeleon — Mimicry (D) Taenia — Polymorphism. Insects having piercing and sucking mouth parts are (A) Butterflies (B) Aphids (C) Houseflies (D) Fruitflies. Butterflies belong to class (A) Lepidoptera (B) Coleoptera (C) Insecta (D) Arachnida. Which one produces honey? (A) Born byx mon (B) Antheraea paphia (C) Apis indica (D) Kerria lacca

316. 317. 318. 319. 320. 321. 322.

323. 324.

325. 326. 327. 328. 329. 330. 331. 332. 333. 334.

Scorpion is member of a class to which also belongs (A) Tick (B) Crab (C) Cockroach (D) Barnacle. In which group of arthropoda, the body is divisible into head thorax and abdomen (A) Myriapoda (B) Crustacea (C) Arachnida (D) Insecta. Spider web is secreted by (A) Salivary glands (B) Abdominal glands (C) Cephalothoracic glands. (D) None of the above. Beetle larva is (A) Maggot (B) Caterpillar (C) Nymph (D) Grub. Which of the following is a matching pair? (A) Pheretirna — Sexual dimorphism (B) Taenia — Polymorphism (C) Musca — Complete metamorphosis (D) Chamaeleon — Mimicry. What is common amongst Earthworm, Cockroach and Centipede? (A) Metamorphism (B) Sexual dimorphism (C) Chitinous exoskeleton (D) Haemocoel Common among Moth, Frog and Mosquito is (A) Body differentiated into head, thorax and abdomen (B) Life history is carried out partly in water (C) Larvae feed on a different type of food (D) Skin acts on main respiratory organ. Feature common to Leech, Cockroach and Scorpion is (A) Ventral nerve cord (B) Nephridia (C) Antennae (D) Cephalisation. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Honey Bee queen copulates only once in her life time. Reason. Honey Bee queen can lay fertilised as well as unfertilized eggs. (A) (B) (C) (D) Sericteries (silk glands) are modified (A) Intestinal glands (B) Gastric glands (C) Salivary glands (D) Endocrine glands. Silk is obtained from (A) Laccifera lacca (B) Born byx mon (C) Apis mellifera (D) None of the above. Peculiar pungent smell of Cockroach is secretion of (A) Pheromones (B) Periplaneta (C) Dermal glands (D) Cervical glands. Cockroach of genus Blatta is called (A) German Cockroach (B) Oriental Cockroach (C) American Cockroach (D) Australian Cockroach Which one secretes lac? (A) Ant/zeraea assarna(B) Bomby mon (C) Lytta (D) Tachardia lacca. Which one belongs to same taxonomic group? (A) Papilio, Xenopsylla, Musca (B) Starfish, Cat Fish, Cray Fish (C) Tapeworm, Hookworm, Silkworm (D) Physalia, Solen, Toredo. Excretory organ of Crab is (A) Nephridium (B) Flame cell (C) Coxal gland (D) Malpighian tube. Tasar silk is obtained from (A) Apis indica (B) Attacus ricini (C) Bombyx mon (D) Antheraea paphia. In Honey Bee, drones are (A) Haploid males (B) Haploid females (C) Diploid males (D) Diploid females. Which is true? (A) Silk is extracted from cocoon of moth by boiling (B) Larva of moth secretes silk (C) Salivary glands of moth secrete silk

335. 336. 337. 338. 339. 340. 341. 342. 343.

344. 345.

346

347. 348. 349. 350.

(D) Leaves of Mulberry produce silk. In Cockroach, conglobate gland occurs in (A) Females (B) Males (C) Nymph (D) Both A and B. Heart of Cockroach is (A) Myogenic (B) Neuromyogenic (C) Neurogenic (D) None of the above, Enzyme found in saliva of Cockroach is (A) Amylase (B) Cellulase (C) Protease (D) All the above. In Cockroach enzyme cellulase is produced by (A) Saliva (B) Lining cells of midgut (C) Bacteria in midgut (D) Cellulose is not metabolised. Which one communicates by means of pheromones? (A) Annelids (B) Gastropods (C) Insects (D) Birds. In insects feeding on nectar, the proboscis is formed by (A) Hypopharynx (B) Mandibles (C) Labium (D) Galea. Giant fresh water Prawn is (A) White Shrimp (B) Tiger Shrimp (C) Sardine (D) Scampi. A structure in humans, similar to spiracle of Cockroach is (A) Nostril (B) Alveoli (C) Bronchiole (D) Lung Diagram represents posterior region of male Cockroach. Choose the correct combination of labelling.

(A) a  9c, sternum, b—anal style, c—10th tergum, d — anal circus (B) a — anal style, b — anal circus, c — 10th tergum, d — 9th sternum (C) a — 9th sternum, b — anal circus, c —10th tergum, d — anal style -. (D) a — 9th sternum, b — anal style, c — 10th tergum, d — anal circus (E) a — anal style, b -—9th sternum, c — 10th tergum, d — anal style. (Kerala 2005) What distinguishes an insect from a crustacean? (A) Number of appendages (B) Number of eyes (C) Presence of wings (D) Arrangement of nerve cord. Select the wrong statement (A) Prawn has two pairs of antennae (B) Millepedes have two pairs of appendages in each sôgment of the body (C) Nematocysts are characteristic of phylum Cnidaria (D) Porifers are exclusively marine. Features common in Silver fish, Scorpion, Dragonfly and Prawn are (A) Three pairs of legs and segmented body (B) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae (C) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton (D) Cephalothroax and tracheae. Insects have (A) Two pairs of legs (B) Three pairs of legs (C) Four pairs of legs (D) One pair of legs. Which is Horn Beetle? (A) Tribolium (B) Corcyra (C) Tragoderma (D) None of the above. What is present in crustaceans but not in insects ? (A) Paired limbs (B) Two pairs of antennae (C) Bilateral symmetry (D) Chitnous exoskeleton Two common characters found in Centipede, Cockroach and Crab are

351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. 369. 370. 371. 372.

(A) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton (B) Green glands and tracheae (C) Book lungs and antennae (D) Compound eyes and anal cerci. Insects belong to class (A) Crustacea (B) Arachnida (C) Insecta (D) Gastropoda. Which one is related to Cockroach? (A) Nephridia (B) Malpighian tubules (C) Chioragogen cells (D) Flame cells Which one is absent in mouth parts of Housefly? (A) Labrum (B) Epipharynx (C) Maxillary palps (D) Mandibles. Caterpillar and maggot are (A) Larvae (B) Nymphs (C) Pupae (D) Adults. Larva of Mosquito is (A) Caterpillar (B) Maggot (C) Grub (D) None of the above. Changes involving conversion of larva into adult are (A) Metastasis (B) Metamorphosis (C) Metagenesis V (D) Alternation of generations. Which one is correctly matched (A) Apiculture — Honey Bee (B) Piseiculture — Silk Moth (C) Sericulture — Fish (D) Aquaculture — Mosquito Daphnia is (A) Water Flea (B) Tadpole Shrimp (C) Fairy Shrimp (D) Clam Shrimp Mosquito takes in air through (A) Pedicel (B) Flagellum (C) Cilia (D) None of the above. Lady Bird Beetle is (A) Bird (B) Insect (C) Worm (D) Reptile. Cray fish belongs to (A) Sponges (B) Bird (C) Pisces (D) Arthropoda. Largest number of species occurs in the phylum (A) Annelida (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Coeleuterata. What is the true about Neries, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver Fish (A) All possesss dorsal heart (B) None is aquatic (C) They belong to same phylum (D) They have jointed paired appendages. Which one shows polymorphism (A) Honey Bee (B) Cockroach (C) Earthworm (D) Frog. Swarming of Bees is (A) Nuptial flight (B) Defence against predator (C) Movement to a new place (D) Response to food shortage Chitnous cuticle forms exoskeleton in (A) Annelida (B) Echinodermata (C) Porifera (D) Arthropoda. Honey Bee belongs to (A) Apis (B) Daphnia (C) Leptocorisa (D) Limulus Common name of paddy pest Leptocorisa is (A). Silver fish (B) Water flea (C) Gandhi Poka (D) Cray fish. Respiratory organs of silkworm are (A) Lungs (B) Tracheae (C) Malpighian tubules (D) Skin Food plant of Antheraea assama is (A) Terininalia arjuna (B) Ricinus cummunis (C) Euphorbia puicherima (D) Machilus bombycina. Green gland is excretory organ of (A) Prawn (B) Snail (C) Butterfly (D) Earthworm. Name the protozoan disease of Mulberry silkworm (A) Flacheri (B) Grasseri (C) Pebrina (D) Muscardine.

373. 374. 375. 376. 377.

378.

379.

380. 381. 382. 383. 384. 385. 386. 387. 388. 389. 390.

Royal jelly is secreted from (A) Hypopharyngeal gland (B) Milk gland (C) Salivary gland (D) Integumentary gland Compound eyes occur in (A) Echinodermata (B) Mollusca (C) Arthropoda (D) Annelida. In which stage silkworm produces silk (A) Third instar (B) Fourth instar (C) Fifth instar (D) Pupa. Helically coiled X-organ occurs in (A) Crustacea (B) Insecta (C) Amphibia (D) Porifera. Statement (S): Arthropoda are the most successful of all known animal groups Reason (R): Arthropoda exhibits the greatest adaptive radiations and have adapted to diverse habitats. (A) Both S and R are true and R explains S. (B) Both S and R are true but R cannot explain S. (C) Only S is correct R is wrong. (D) Both S and R are wrong. Match the columns: Coloumn I Column II a) Pollen basket (i) Butterfly b) Pseudotracheae (ii) Laccifer lacca c) Shellae (iii) Mosquito d) Dutton’s membrane (iv) Musca e) Well developed galen (v) Worker Bee (A).a —iii, b—ii; c—iv, d—v, e—i (B) a—i, b—v, c—iii, d—iv, e—ii (C) a—iv, b—v, c—iii, d—ii, c—i (D) a—v, b—iv, c—ii, d—iii, c—i. Which one is correctly matched? (A) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach — Ventral solid central nervous system (B) Cockroach, Locust, Taenia — Metameric segmentation (C) Liverfiuke, Sea Anemone, Sea Cucumber — Bilateral symmetry (D) Centipede, Prawn, Sea Urchin— Jointed appendages Saprozoic feeding habit occurs in (A) Cockroach (B) Mosquito (C) Spider (D) Scorpion. Ecdysone is secreted in (A) Nematoda (B) Polychaeta (C) Trematoda (D) Insecta. Egg of silk moth is (A) Centrolecithal (B) Telolecithal (C) Mesolecithal (D) Alecithal. Which of the following hormones, regulates growth and metamorphosis in insects? (A) Brain hormone (B) Juvenile hormone (C) Prothoracicotrophic hormone (D) Ecdysone Larva of Bombyx mon is called (A) Trochophore (B) Nymph (C) Cocoon (D) Caterpillar. Aedes aegypti is vector of (A) Yellow fever (B) Dengue fever (C) Both A and B (D) Japanese encephalitis. During silk reeling, pupae inside cocoons are killed by (A) Stiffling (B) Asphyxiation (C) Crushing (D) Pressing. In royal jelly percentage of maltose and other sugars is (A) 9.2% (B) 10.5% (C) 11.2% (D) 8.81%. Scientific name of Asian Tiger Mosquito is (A) Aedes taemiorhyncus (B) A. aegypti (C) A. albopictus (D) A. albolineatus Life span of Honey Bee drone is (A) 3—4 months (B) 1—2 months (C) 6—7 months (D) 10—12 months. Which stage of silkworm secretes silk? (A) Adult (B) Pupa (C) Cocoon (D) Larva.

391. 392. 393. 394.

Real product of apiculture is (A) Honey (B) Honey and bee wax (C) Bee wax (D) None of the above. Polymorphism is shown by (A) Physalia (B) Termite (C) Trypanosoma (D) All the above. Bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, coelom and open circulatory system are features of (A) Arthropoda (B) Mollusca (C) Echinodermata (D) Annelida. Worker bees are (A) Sterile females (B) Fertile females (C) Sterile drones (D) Become fertile females in absence of queen.

ANSWER – KEY 1) B 2) D

3) C

11) 21) 31) 41) 51) 61) 71) 81) 91) 101) 111) 121) 131) 141) 151) 161) 171) 181) 191) 201) 211) 221) 231) 241) 251) 261) 271) 281) 291)

13) 23) 33) 43) 53) 63) 73) 83) 93) 103) 113) 123) 133) 143) 153) 163) 173) 183) 193) 203) 213) 223) 233) 243) 253) 263) 273) 283) 293)

B C C C D B B D B D B B A B C A C B C A D C B C B D A A B

12) 22) 32) 42) 52) 62) 72) 82) 92) 102) 112) 122) 132) 142) 152) 162) 172) 182) 192) 202) 212) 222) 232) 242) 252) 262) 272) 282) 292)

D D C B D D B B C B D A D B A C A D D B A A C D C A B B D

4) A C B C B A C C B C C A D D C D C B A C C B A D B A B B C A

14) 24) 34) 44) 54) 64) 74) 84) 94) 104) 114) 124) 134) 144) 154) 164) 174) 184) 194) 204) 214) 224) 234) 244) 254) 264) 274) 284) 294)

5) B A A A A C C D A C B B C D B D D B B A B B C D A D B A A B

15) 25) 35) 45) 55) 65) 75) 85) 95) 105) 115) 125) 135) 145) 155) 165) 175) 185) 195) 205) 215) 225) 235) 245) 255) 265) 275) 285) 295)

6) D A C D D B B B C B D D B A A C B D C B D A C A C C D B B C

16) 26) 36) 46) 56) 66) 76) 86) 96) 106) 116) 126) 136) 146) 156) 166) 176) 186) 196) 206) 216) 226) 236) 246) 256) 266) 276) 286) 296)

7) A B B B C A A A C D C D A B C B D B C D C C D B B D B C D D

17) 27) 37) 47) 57) 67) 77) 87) 97) 107) 117) 127) 137) 147) 157) 167) 177) 187) 197) 207) 217) 227) 237) 247) 257) 267) 277) 287) 297)

8) B C A D B C C D C B A A C A C B C C B B A B D B C B A D A B

18) 28) 38) 48) 58) 68) 78) 88) 98) 108) 118) 128) 138) 148) 158) 168) 178) 188) 198) 208) 218) 228) 238) 248) 258) 268) 278) 288) 298)

9) C D A C D B A C A A B C A A D B B A D C C A A A D A C B C D

19) 29) 39) 49) 59) 69) 79) 89) 99) 109) 119) 129) 139) 149) 159) 169) 179) 189) 199) 209) 219) 229) 239) 249) 259) 269) 279) 289) 299)

B D B A A B A C A A C C A B A B A A B D C A B B B B D D C

10)

D

20) 30) 40) 50) 60) 70) 80) 90) 100) 110) 120) 130) 140) 150) 160) 170) 180) 190) 200) 210) 220) 230) 240) 250) 260) 270) 280) 290) 300)

D B A B C B A A C D A D D C D D A B D B C C D D D D D B A

301) 311) 321) 331) 341) 351) 361) 371) 381) 391)

B C A C D C D A D C

302) 312) 322) 332) 342) 352) 362) 372) 382) 392)

C B C D A B C C A D

303) 313) 323) 333) 343) 353) 363) 373) 383) 393)

D B A A C D A A B A

304) 314) 324) 334) 344) 354) 364) 374) 384) 394)

A C B A A A A C D A

305) 315) 325) 335) 345) 355) 365) 375) 385)

C C C B D D C C C

306) 316) 326) 336) 346) 356) 366) 376) 386)

B A B C C B D A B

307) 317) 327) 337) 347) 357) 367) 377) 387)

D D C A B A A A C

308) 318) 328) 338) 348) 358) 368) 378) 388)

A B B C D A C D C

309) 319) 329) 339) 349) 359) 369) 379) 389)

C D D C B D B A B

310) 320) 330) 340) 350) 360) 370) 380) 390)

B C A D A B D C D

Mollusca 1. Study of mollusca is called (A) Malacology (B) Conchology (C) Maminology (D) Mastology. 2. Elephant’s Tusk Shell belongs to (A) Amphineura (B) Monoplacophora (C) Scaphopoda (D) Gastropoda. 3. Which class shows 8 dorsal plates of shell? (A) Amphineura (B) Monoplacophora (C) Scaphopoda (D) Cephalopoda. 4. Shell is internal in (A) Monoplacophora (B) Gastropoda (C) Pelecypoda (D) Cephalopoda. 5. Sepia and Octopus are molluscs which can move swiftly by means of (A) Arms (B) Lateral fins (C) Suckers (D) Jet propulsion through siphon. 6. Glochidium larva is found in (A) Pila (B) Unlo (C) Sepia (D) Asterias. 7. Pearl is the secretion of (A) Mouth (B) Mantle (C) Kidney (D) None. 8. Sea Mouse is a marine mollnsc. Its scientific name is (A) Chiton (B) Teredo (C) Unio (D) Nautilus. 9. The method of induction of foreign particles between the mantle and the shell of pearl oyster for the stimulation of pearl formation was introduced in Japan by (A) Katu (B) Mikimoto (C) Von Mohl (D) Haeckel. 10. Sea-foam which is drifted to the sea shores isa (A) External shell of Cuttle Fish (B) internal shell of Cuttle Fish (C) Bones of Octopus (D) Calcareous matter excreted by cephalopods. 11. A wood boring mollusc well known for causing damage to ships and docks is (A) Doris (B) Loligo (C) Octopus (D) Teredo. 12. The largest clam is (A) Unio (B) Mytilus (C) Teredo (D) Tridaena. 13. The most primitive mollusc is (A) Patella (B) Neopilina (C) Chiton (D) Dentalium. 14. The largest invertebrate is (A) Giant Octopus (B) Giant Squid (C) Giant Snail (D) Giant Clam. 15. Osphradium is a structure in Pila/molluscs. It is a (A) Sensory organ for smell and chemicals/chemoreceptor (B) Sensory organ for balancing (C) Swimming organ (D) Locomotory organ 16. A triploblastic animal with bilateral symmetry in larval stage but asymmetry in adult is (A) Arachnid (B) Echinoderm (C) Gastropod (D) Bivalve. 17. Visceral mass is characteristic of (A) Arthropods (B) Molluscs (C) Echinoderms (D) All the above. 18. Blood vascular system of molluscs is (A) Reduced (B) Open (C) Closed (D) Absent. 19. Respiratory pigment of molluscs is (A) Haemocyanin (B) Haemoglobin (C) Erythrocruorin (D) Chiorocruorin. 20. A mollusc that forms pearls is (A) Neopillna (B) Sepia (C) Oyster (D) Octopus. 21. Pearl Oyster belongs to (A) Cephalopoda (B) Scaphopoda (C) Gastropoda (D) Pelecypoda. 22. A gastropod without a shell is (A) Pila (E) Snail (C) Neopilina (D) Slug. 23. Connecting link between annelida and mollusca is (A) Squid (B) Nautilus (C) Neopilina (D) Sepia.

24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

Devil Fish is (A) Loligo (B) Octopus (C) Sepia (D) Nautilus. An internal shell occurs in (A) Sepia (B) Unio (C) Pila (D) Oyster. A rasping organ with transverse teeth and present in the buccal cavity of a mollusc is called (A) Dental plate (B) Radula (C) Tongue (D) Rasper. Radula is present in (A) Loligo (B) Mytilus (C) Pila (D) Unio. Elephant’s Tusk shell is (A) Nautilus (B) Li,nax (C) Dentaliuin (D) Cypraea. A mollusc previously used as currency is (A) Turbinella (B) Dentalium (C) Pila (D) Cypraea. Filter feeding is (A) Holding food particles by closely appressed teeth (B) Picking food articles from a water current (C) Crushing and chewing of food and allowing only finely divided one to pass further (D) None of the above. A mollusc discovered in 1950s is (A) Nautilus (B) Chiton (C) Neopilina (D) Pinctada. The most primitive mollusc is (A) Neopilina (B) Patella (C) Chiton (D) Nautilus. Arms present in Sepia are (A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 6. Hectocotylised arm of Sepia is (A) Right third (B) Left third (C) Right fourth (D) Left fifth. In male Octopus, the hectocotylised arm is (A) Right fifth (B) Right fourth (C) Right third (D) Left fifth. An internal shell is absent in (A) Octopus (B) Sepia (C) Loligo (D) Both B and C. Siphon of cephalopods is connected internally to (A) Mantle cavity (B) Ink gland (C) Haemocoel (D) Both A and B. Number of arms in Devil Fish are (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 10 (D) 8. Giant Squid is (A) Loligo (B) Architeuthis (C) Octopus (D) Tethys. Squid is also called Sea Arrow because of (A) Triangular trunk (B) Pointed head (C) Lateral fins fused posteriorly (D) Lateral fms fused anteriorly. Number of tentacles present in Sepia and Loligo is (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2. Tentacles of Sepia possess suckers (A) All along the inner surface (B) All along the outer surface (C) Both A and B (D) At the tips. A cephalopod with an external shell is (A) Sepia (B) Nautilus (C) Loligo (D) Octopus. The shell of Nautilus is (A) Bivalved (B) Spirally coiled (C) Multi-chambered (D) Both B and C. Nautilus occurs in its shell in (A) First chamber (B) All chambers (C) Last chamber (D) Partly in first chamber and partly outside. A structure peculiar to Nautilus is (A) Siphuncle (B) External shell (C) Spirally coiled shell (D) Nocturnal nature.

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68.

Siphuncle is also known as (A) Oral arm (B) Living tube (C) Hectocotylised tentacle (D) Siphon. Siphuncle of Nautilus (A) Connects all chambers with living animal(B) Fills all chambers with gas (C) Both A and B (D) Inflicts injury over intruder. Cephalopoda is characterised by (A) Coming together of head and foot (B) Enlargement of tentacles (C) Presence of siphon (D) All the above. Siphonopoda is the other name of (A) Pelecypoda (B) Cephalopoda (C) Scaphopoda (D) Gastropoda. S L Largest eyes arc those of (A) Architeuthes (B) Sepia (C) Octopus (D) Loligo. Diameter of eye in Architeuthes is (A) 75 cm (B) 175 cm (C) 37 5 cm (D) 575 cm. Class of mollusca in which head, tentacles and eyes are not differentiable is (A) Gastropoda (B) Pelecypoda (C) Cephalopoda (D) Both A and B. Teredo is a (A) Bivalve (B) Gastropod (C) Scaphopod (D) Siphonopod. Teredo is called (A) Elephant’s Tusk shell (B) Slug (C) Temple shell (D) Shipworm. Teredo is harmful to boats and ships as it can (A) Digest cellulose (B) Bore a hole in the hull (C) Adhere to hull (D) All the above. The two valves are unequal in the shell of (A) Unio (B) La,nellidens (C) Pinctada (D) All the above. Mother of Pearl is (A) Nacre (B) Ostracum (C) Periostracum (D) Both A and B. Pearl is secreted when a foreign particle happens to enter between (A) Ostracum and periostracum (B) Periostracum and hypoostracum (C) Shell and mantle (D) Inside mantle cavity. Time taken for the pearl to he formed is (A) One year (B) Three years (C) Five years (D) Seven years. Nacre or mother of pearl is secreted by mantle’s (A) Cubical epithelial cells (B) Columnar epithelial cells (C) Columnar endothelial cells (D) Cubical endothelial cells. The two valves of Unio are hinged (A) Dorsally (B) Ventrally (C) Anteriorly (D) Posteriorly. Unio is (A) Edible Oyster (B) Marine Shellfish (C) Fresh Water Mussel (D) Sea Mussel. Fresh Water Mussel has (A) A radula for feeding (B) Inhalent siphon (C) Exhalent siphon (D) Both B and C. A terrestrial mollusc is (A) Pila (B) Helix (C) Limax (D) Both B and C. Limax is a (A) Plano-convex mollusk (B) Naked gastropod (C) Gastropod with external shell (D) Amphibious gastropod. Linw.r and Helix respire with the help of (A) Ctemdia (B) General body surface (C) Pulmonary sac (D) Buccal cavity. Land Snail is

69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76.

77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

(A) Cypraea (B) Helix (C) Limax (D) Pila. Pila is (A) Temple Shell (B) Apple Snail (C) Pond Snail (D) Both B and C. Coiling in the shell of Pila is (A) Dextral or sinistral (B) Dextral and sinistral (C) Dextral (D) Sinistral. Tentacles are replaced by captacula in (A) Pila (B) Dentalium (C) Neopilina (D) Both B and C. Shell is. curved, tubular and open at both ends in (A) Dentalium (B) Chiton (C) Neopilina (D) Turbinella. A mollusc in which the detached body gets coiled like a millipede is (A) Turbinella (B) Neopilina (C) Chiton (D) Helix. Eyes of cephalopods are (A) Exactly similar to vertebrate eyes (B) Functionally similar to vertebrate eyes (C) Structurally similar to vertebrate eyes (D) Superficially similar to vertebrate eyes. Balancing organ of molluscs is (A) Radula (B) Statocyst (C) Osphradium (D) Tentacles. In mollusca, nervous system is represented by (A) A paired nerve cord (B) A paired nerve cord with brain and circumpharyngeal connectives (C) 3—4 paired ganglia (D) Primitive brain and nerve cord. Molluscs have (A) 3—4 pairs of hearts (B) A single tubular heart (C) 2—3 chambered heart (D) Multichambered heart. Molluscs are (A) Unsegmented (B) Soft bodied (C) Shelled (D) All the above. Internal segmentation is present in mollusks belonging to class (A) Monoplacophora (B) Polyplacophora (C) Gastropoda (D) Scaphopoda. Aplysia is (A) Gastropod (B) Bivalve (C) Scaphopod (D) Siphonopod. Edible Oyster is (A) Pinctade (B) Ostrea (C) Mytilus (D) Lamellidens. In molluscs, head and foot regions have come together in (A) Scaphopods (B) Pelecypods (C) Siphonopods (D) Both A and B. Visceral mass is segmented in (A) Neopilina (B) Aplysia (C) Denlalium (D) Xancus. A mollusc with parapodia is (A) Aplysia (B) Doris (C) Chiton (D) Pila Giant Land Snail is (A) Lirnax (B) Helix (C) Achatina (D) Pila Doris is (A) Fresh water mollusk (B) Marine mollusc (C) Terrestrial mollusk (D) Connecting link between mollusks annclids. Which gastropod emits coloured liquid camouflage (A) Turbinella (B) Cypraea (C) Doris (D) Aplysia Cerata are (A) Toothed tentacles (B) Feathery primary gills (C) Secondary anal gills (D) Retractile tentacles Anal gills occur in (A) Doris (B) Limax (C) Slug (D) Nautilus Sea Lemon is

91.

(A) Echinoarachinus (B) Doris Sea Hare is (A) Chiton (B) Nautilus

(C) Limax

(D) Nautilus

(C) Aplysia

(D) Cypraea

Revision Questions 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113.

Eye of the molluscan group that resembles vertebrate eye is (A) Bivalvia (B) Gastropoda (C) Pelecypoda (D) Cephalopoda. In cephalopoda (A) Head is fused with foot (B) Head is fused with thorax (C) Foot is located on head (D) Head is located on foot. Cuttle Fish is a member of (A) Mollusca (B) Echinodermata (C) Pisces (D) Amphibia. A wood boring mollusc/Shipworm is (A) Chiton (B) Teredo (C) Limax (D) Patella. Sea Hare is (A) Sepia (C) Aplysia (B) Teredo (D) Pila. Octopus is a member of class (A) Chaetopoda (B) Pelecypoda (C) Gastropoda (D) Cephalopoda. Study of molluscan shells is (A) Conchology (B) Malacology (C) Entomology (D) Mastology. Haemocyanin, the blue colouring pigment of molluscan blood contains (A) Iron (B) Magnesium (C) Copper (D) Manganese Filter feeding occurs in (A) Dent alium (B) Unio (C) Pila (D) Amoeba. Pearl producing Indian species is (A) Pincta4a vulgañs (B) Pinctada indica (C) Ostrea indica (D) Ostrea vulgans. An animal without segmentation is (A) Tapeworm (B) Earthworm (C) Glow Worm (D) Shipworm Which of the following eats its prey? (A) Leech (B) Sepia (C) Star Fish (D) Both B and C. Which of the following is not a class of Mollusca? (A) Decapoda (B) Gastropoda (C) Scaphopoda (D) Cephalopoda Closed circulatory system occurs in (A) Snail (B) Cockroach (C) Cuttle Fish (D) All the above. Animals producing natural pearls belong to (A) Echinodermata (B) Cyclostomata (C) Mollusca (D) Fishes. Molluscan blood contains/respiratory pig ment of molluscs is (A) Haemoglobin (B) Haemozoin (C) Haemocyanin (D) All the above. Which molluscan group is primarily used in pearl production? (A) Pelecypods (B) Gastropods (C) Cephalopods (D) Monoplacophorans. Which is associated with pearl formation? (A) Pecten (B) Ostrea (C) Nautilus (D) Pinctada. Trochophore larva occurs in (A) Anneida and Porifera (B) Coelenterata and Annelida (C) Mollusca and Coelenterata (D) Annelida and Mollusca. Which one belongs to the class of Sea Hare? (A) Sea Cow (B) Snail (C) Sepia (D) Sea Squirt. Pila shows summer (A) Hibernation (B) Aestivation (C) Emigration (D) Inunigration. Which is correct? (A) Echinodermata — Starfish, Petromyzon, Solen

114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121.

122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131.

(B) Mollusca—Pila, Dentalium, Octopus (C) Porifera—Spongilla, Teredo, Leucoso lenia (D) Arthropoda — Pinworm, Ascwis, Cockr-oach Foot is displaced to near the mouth and is divided into arms in (A) Neopilina (B) Pila (C) Chiton (D) Sepia. Class bivalvia is characterised by (A) Presence of tentacles around mouth (B) Absence of head (C) Coiled shell (D) Absence of gills Father of pearl industry is (A) Harvey (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Kokichi Mikimoto (D) Ivanosky. Octopus, Squid and Cuttic Fish belong to class (A) Cephalopoda (B) Apoda (C) Decapoda (D) Scaphopoda. Pigment haemocyanin occurs in (A) Echinodermata (B) Mollusca (C) Chordata (D) Annelida. Mollusca is differentiated from others by (A) Bilateral symmetry and external skeleton(B) Mantle and gill (C) Shell and nonsegmented body (D) Mantle and nonsegmented body. Pick up the properly matched (A) Arthropoda — Arachnida — Lobster (B) Arthropoda — Myriapoda — Scorpion (C) Mollusca — Cephalopoda — Octopus (D) Mollusca — Gastropoda — Squid. Annelida and mollusca resemble in many embryonic features because both have (A) Spiral cleavage and mesoderm formation (B) Identical conspicuous segmentation in body, muscles and nervous system (C) Meroblastic cleavage and ectoderm formation (D) Special types of mouth parts. Shell is internal in (A) Loligo (B) Chiton (C) Dentalium (D) Unio. Osphradium of Pila/molluses is (A) Chemoreceptor (B) Photoreceptor (C) Tangoreceptor (D) Phonoreceptor. Eyes of Pila/molluscs occur over (A) Pseudopodia (B) Ommatophores (C) Cephalic tentacles (D) Both B and C. Ammonites are fossil shell remains of (A) Pelecypods (B) Cephalopods (C) Gastropods (D) Scaphopods. Which one belongs to mollusca (A) Silver Fish and Star Fish (B) Cuttle Fish and Mussel (C) Feather Star and Sea Cucumber (D) Sea Urchin and Pila Which one occurs in molluscs but not in echinoderms (A) Flame cells (B) Malpighian tubules(C) Kidney (D) Nonc of the above. To which group does Giant Squid belongs (A) Mollusca (B) Arthropoda (C) Annelida (D) Reptilia. Pearl is obtained from (A) Sepia (B) Starfish (C) Oyster (D) Whale (E) Fish Asymmetry develops due to torsion in mollusc (A) Octopus (B) Pila (C) Dentallium (D) Toredo Match the columns and choose the correct combination. Coloumn I Column II a) Polychaeta (p) Scorpion b) Trematoda (q) Pila c) Arachnida (r) Liver Pluke d) Gastropoda (s) Neries (t) Star Fish (A) a—s, b—r, c—p, t —q (B) a—r, h—s, c—p, d

132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139.

140. 141.

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145.

146. 147.

(C) a—q,b—s,c—t,d—p (D) a—t, b—q, c—s, d—r. Which one contains hard shell, muscular body, ommitidiophores and foot (A) Penpianeta (B) Limulus (C) Pilà (D) Tortoise. Ink gland occurs in (A) Astenas (B) Sepia (C) Pila (D) Fasciola. A loose mantle is present over the body in (A) Echinoderms (B) Mammals (C) Plat9helniinthes (D) Molluscs. Torsion occurs in the visceral mass of (A) Gastropoda (B) Pelecypoda (C) Cephalopoda (D) Monoplacophora. Cilia of gills in bivalve help in (A) Reproduction (B) Swimming (C) Feeding (D) All the above. Which is not correctly matched? (A) Mollüsca — Pseudocoel (B) Annelida — Chloragogen cells (C) Echinodermata — Water vascular systemD) Cnidaria — Nematocysts Lepidopleurus belongs to (A) Echinoidea (B) Cephalopoda (C) Asteroidea (D) Polyplacophora. Coelom of animals commonly known as tooth shells originates (A) By enterocoelic method (B) By schizocoelic method and filled with coelomic fluid (C) By splitting of embryonic mesoderm and filled with blood (D) From blastocoel Osphradium is meant for (A) Excretion (B) Nutrition (C) Grinding of food (D) Selection and rejection of food. Which one of the following is matching set of phylum and its three examples? (A) Porifera — Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula (B) Cnidaria — Bonellia, Physalia Aurelia (C) Platyhelminthes —Planaria, Schistos toma, Enterobius (D) Mollusca — Loligo, Teredo, Octopus Which one is mismatched pair (A) Apis indica Honey(B) Kerria laucca Lac (C) Boinbax mon Silk (D) Pita globosa Pearl. Doris is (A) Sea Lemon (B) Shipworm (C) Sea Hare (D) Pearl Oyster Statement (S). In many gastropods, the anus and mantle cavity are placed anteriorly above the head. Reason (R). During embryonic development, in many gastropods one side of the visceral mass grows faster than the other side. The uneven growth rotates the visceral organs upto 180° in many gastropods (A) Both S and R are true and R explains S (B) Both S and R are true but R cannot explain S (C) Only S is correct R is wrong (D) Both S and R are wrong. Which is matched with two general characteristics? (A) Echinodermata — Pentamerous radial symmetry, internal fertilisation (B) Mollusca — Normally oviparous, trochophore or veliger larva (C) Arthropoda — Body divisible into head, thorax and abdomen, tracheal respiration (D) Chordata — Notochord, separate anal and urine apertures Devil Fish and Sea Hare are (A) Coelenterates (B) Marine fish and mammal (C) Crustaceans (D) Molluscs Correctly matched set of phylum, class and example is (A) Mollusca — Bivalvia —Pinactada (B) Protozoa — Mastigophora — Entamoeba (C) Chordata— Cyclostomata—Phiynosoma(D) Arthropoda — Diplopoda — Scolopendra

1) A

2) C

3) A

ANSWER – KEY 5) D 6) B

4) D

7) B

8) A

9) B

10)

B

11)

D 12)

D 13)

B

14)

B

15)

A 16)

C 17)

B

18)

B

19)

A 20)

C

21)

D 22)

D 23)

C

24)

B

25)

A 26)

B

27)

C

28)

C

29)

D 30)

B

31)

C 32)

A 33)

B

34)

D

35)

C 36)

A 37)

D

38)

D

39)

B 40)

C

41)

D 42)

D 43)

B

44)

D

45)

C 46)

A 47)

B

48)

C

49)

D 50)

B

51)

A 52)

C 53)

B

54)

A

55)

D 56)

D 57)

C

58)

A

59)

C 60)

D

61)

B

62)

A 63)

C

64)

D

65)

D 66)

B

67)

C

68)

B

69)

D 70)

A

71)

B

72)

A 73)

C

74)

D

75)

B 76)

C 77)

C

78)

D

79)

A 80)

A

81)

B

82)

C 83)

A

84)

A

85)

C 86)

B

87)

D

88)

C

89)

A 90)

B

91)

C 92)

D 93)

C

94)

A

95)

B 96)

C 97)

D

98)

A

99)

C 100) B

101) A 102) D 103) B

104) A

105)

C 106)

C 107) C

108) A

109) D 110)

111) B

113) B

114) D

115)

B 116)

C 117)

118)

119)

121) A 122) A 123) A

124) B

125)

B 126)

B

127) C

128) A

129) C 130) B

131) A 132) C 133) B

134) D

135)

A 136)

C 137) A

138) D

139) C 140) D

141) D 142) D 143) A

144) A

145)

B 146)

D 147) A

148)

149)

112) B

A

B

D

D 120) C

150)

Echinodermata 1. In Echinodermata locomotion is by mean of (A) Muscles (B) Feet (C) Ambulacral system (D) None of the above. 2. Which echinoderm is fresh water? (A) Asterias (B) Pentaceros (C) Astropecten (D) None of the above 3. Which gives the lily-like appearance? (A) Brittle star (B) Pentaceros (C) Antedon (D) None of the above, 4. Excretory organs are absent in (A) Asterias (B) Sepia (C) Unio (D) Pila. 5. Echinoderms show (A) Bilateral symmetry (B) Radial symmetry (C) Asymmetry (D) None. 6. The larvae of Echinodermates are (A) Trochophore and Auricularia (B) Bipinnaria and Brachiolaria (C) Radia and Cercaria (D) Miracidium and Cysticerci. 7. Madreporite is associated with (A) Water vascular system (B) Canal system (C) Blood vascular system ( Digestive system. 8. Similarity between echinoderms and chordates is (A) Dcuterostomatjc tube-within-a-tube plan(B) Protostomatic tube-within-a-tube plan (C) Water vascular system (D) Kidneys. 9. Water vascular system is a trait of (A) Porifers (B) Molluscs (C) Echinoderms (D) Arthropods. 10. An echinoderm is (A) Torpedo Fish (B) Star Fish (C) Electric Ray (D) Shark. 11. Which of the following is fixed (A) Antedon (B) Asterias (C) Echjnus (D) Cucumaija. 12. Starfish does not possess (A) Mouth (B) Anus (C) flead (D) Arms. 13. Respiratory tree occurs in (A) Sea Fan (B) Sea Lily (C) Sea Cucumber (D) Sea Urchin. 14. In echinoderms and molluscs the skeleton is (A) Chitinous (B) Siliceous (C) Calcareous (D) Nacreous. 15. Microscopic stalked pincer-like structures present in echinoderms are (A) Tube feet (B) Spines (C) Pedicellariae (D) Ossicles. 16. Echinoderms are named so due to presence of (A) Arms (B) Spines (C) Pedicellarjae (ID) Tube feet. 17. Structures peculiar to echinoderms are (A) Tube feet (B) Pedicellarjae (C) Ambulacral system (D) All the above. 18. Coelornate animals devoid of excretory organs are (A) Annelids (B) Echinoderms (C) Molluscs (D) Arthropods. 19. A speciality of echinoderms is presence of (A) Both epidermal exoskeleton and mesodermal endoskeleton (B) Ciliated epidermis (C) Coelom (D) None of the above. 20. Circulatory system of echinoderms is (A) Closed (B) Open (C) Haemal (D) Both B and C. 21. Echinodermata possesses (A) Pseudocoelom (B) Schizocoelom (C) Enterocoelom (D) None of the above. 22. Opening of water vascular system is called (A) Osculum (B) Ostium (C) Madreporite (D) Mouth.

23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48.

Endoskelcton of echinoderins is made of (A) Silica (B) Lime (C) Chitin Exoskeleton of echinoderms is (A) Chitinous (B) Siliceous (C) Calcareous Pedicellariae take part in (A) Cutting food (B) Holding substratum(C) Removing debris Coelomic fluid of echinoderms possess cells (A) Coelomocytes (B) Amoebocytes (C) Phagocytes Respiratory tree occurs in (A) Holothuroidea (B) Echinoidea (C) Ophiuroidea Attached echinoderms occur in class (A) Echinoidea (B) Holothuroidea (C) Asteroidea Three jawed pedicellariae occur in (A) Asteroidea (B) Crinoidea (C) Echinoidea Both mouth and anus occur on the same side in (A) Crinoidea (B) Asteroidea (C) Holothuroidea A distinct anus is absent in echinoderms (A) Asteroidea (B) Ophiuroidea (C) Echinoidea Tube fuet are without suckers in (A) Echinoidea (B) Ophiuroidea (C) Crinoidea Sea Star is (A) Asterias . (B) Ophiothrix (C) Antedon Digestion is external in (A) Echinus (B) Ophiothrix. (C) Cucumaria Star Fish is (A) Nekton (B) Neuston (C) Benthomc Star Fish is able to crawl over substratum by means of (A) Arms (B) Spines (C) Pedicellariae Star Fish is (A) Saprozoic (B) Carnivorous (C) Herbivorous Star Fish is predator of (A) Clams and Oysters (B) Crabs (C) Devil Fish Arms are not sharply delimitcd from central disc in (A) Ophiuroidea (B) Asteroidea (C) Crinoidea A blind sac body plan occurs in (A) Echinoidea (B) Astcroidea (C) Ophiuroidea An echinoderm which can both creep and swim actively is (A) Oreaster (B) Ophiothrix (C) Echinus Jointed arms occur in (A) Echinus (B) Cucumaria (C) Ophiothrir A biting and chewing apparatus found in echinoidea is (A) Radula (B) Aristotle’s lantern (C) Rostrum Autotomy of arms is shown by (A) Star Fish (B) Brittle Star (C) Sea Lily Sand Dollar is (A) Bell-shaped (B) Flat and circular (C) Cylindrical An echinoderm which shows eversion of stomach during feeding (A) Antedon (B) Cucumaria (C) Asterias Movable spines used for locomotion occur in (A) Echinus (B) Ophiothrir (C) Holothuria Echinus is like a (A) Spiny ball (B) Spiny disc (C) Smooth ball

(D) Cartilage. (D) None of the above. (D) All the above. (D) Scieroblasts. (D) Crinoidea. (D) Crinoidea. (D) Holothuroidea. (D) Echinoidea. (D) Holothuroidea. (D) Both B and C. (D) Echinus. (D) Asterias (D) Terrestrial. (D) Tube feet. (D) Omnivorous. (D) Mosquitoes. (D) Both A and B. (D) Crinoidea. (D) Cucurnaria. (D) Echinoarachinus. (D) None of the above. (D) All the above. (D) Star-like. (D) Ecliinus. (D) Antedo. (D) Smooth disc.

49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66.

67. 68. 69.

Small eyes and tentacles occur in Star Fish (A) Over the oral surface of disc (B) Proximal part of each arm (C) Near distal part of each arm (D) Over the aboral surface of disc. Tentacles are branched and retractile in (A) Holothuria (B) Gucwnaria (C) Echinus (D) All the above. Cuvierian glands arc connected with (A) Respiratory tree of Sea Cucumber (B) Aristotle’s lantern (C) Eversihie stomach of Star Fish (D) Aboral surface of Sea Lily. Arms arc absent in (A) Feather Star (B) Brittle Star (C) Star Fish (D) Sea Dollar. Pinnules occur over the arms of (A) Astenas (B) Antedon (C) Astropecten (D) Holothuria. Arms are higbly fragile in (A) Ophiothrix (B) Astenas (C) Antedon (D) All the above. In echinoderms, the nervous system is (A) Well developed (B) With large brain (C) Devoid of brain (D) Both A and B. A common Star Fish is (A) Pentaceros (B) Astropecren (C) Neometra (D) Ophiothrir. Cloacal respiration occurs in (A) Sea Dollar (B) Sea Urchin (C) Sea Cucumber (D) Sea Lily. Sea Cucumber is (A) Flat disc (B) Globular (C) Herb-like (D) Cylindrical. Perforated surface plate of water vascular system is (A) Stone canal (B) Madreporite (C) Ring canal (D) Ossicle. In echinodenns, ossicles are (A) Exoskeletal plates (B) Endoskeletal plates (C) Regions of ambulacral grooves (D) Regions from. where oral tentacles develop. Attaching structures of Sea Lily are known as (A) Cirri (B) Tentacles (C) Rhizines (D) Holdfasts. Which one is absent in echinoderms (A) Nervous system (B) Muscular system (C) Cephalisation (D) All the above. Organisation present in echinodermata is (A) Cell tissue level (B) Tissue level (C) Organ level (D) Organ system level. Dermal branchiae (papulae) present in Star Fish take part in (A) Respiration (B) Excretion (C) Both A and B (D) Producing current of water. Echinoderms are (A) Ammonotdic and aminotelic (B) Ureotelic (C) Uricoteic (D) Both B and C. Star Fish is (A) Flat and radiate (B) Globular and radiate (C) Cylindrical with repeatedly branched tentacles (D) Like a spiny ball. In Star Fish the upper side contains (A) Mouth (B) Mouth and ambulacral grooves (C) Anus (D) Anus and madreporite. In Serpent Star, the lower side contains (A) Anus and madreporite (B) Anus only (C) Mouth and madreporite (D) Mouth only. In Sea Cucumber, the side in contact with substratum is (A) Anal (B) Oral (C) Lengthwise ventral (D) None of the above.

70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77.

Evisceration is characteristic of (A) Cucumaria (B) Echinus (C) Echüzoarachinus An echinoderm that resembles a small herbaceous plant is (A) Holothuria (B) Antedon (C) Salmacis Radial symmetry of echinoderms is (A) Primary (B) Secondary (D) Biradial Stone canal of Star Fish is (A) Straight (B) Rounded (C) Pentangular Heart Urchin belongs to class (A) Asteroidea (B) Ophiuroidea (C) Echinoidea Ophiura is (A) Brittle Star (B) Feather Star (C) Sand Dollar Which echinoderm does not possess arms? (A) Aste,ias (B) Echinocardjum (C) Ophiura A test is present in echinoderm (A) Asterias (B) Ophiura (C) Echinocardium

(D) Neometra. (D) Echinus. (D) Triradial. (D) S-shaped. (D) Holothuroidea. (D) Sea Lily (D) Astropecten (D) Antedon

Revision Questions 78. 79.

80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

Star Fish belongs to (A) Asteriodea (B) Ophiuroidea (C) Holothuroidea (D) Crinoidea. Which is unmatching group? (A) Sea Pen, Sea Fan, Coral, Swimming Bell (B) Cuttle Fish, Shell Fish, Devil Fish and Sea Squid (C) Sea Star, Sea Urchin, Sea Anemone and Sca COW (D) Globe Fish, Bat Fish, Gold Fish and Pipe Fish Cephalization is absent in (A) Molluscs (B) Arthropods (C) Both A and B (D) Echinoderms. An animal having unsegmented coelom, superficial radial symmetry in adult but bilateral symmetry in larva is member of (A) Molluscs (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Annelida. Antedon is a member of class (A) Echinoidea (B) Asteroidea (C) Crinoidea (D) Ophiuroidea. A phylum exclusively marine is (A) Coelenterata (B) Porifera (C) Protozoa (D) Echinodermata. Organs of locomotion in Echinodermata are (A) Parapodia (B) Pscudopodia (C) Feet (D) Tube Feet. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in (A) Sea Urchin (B) Astenas (C) Ophiothrix (D) Sea Anemone. Which one occurs in echinodermata (A) Bilateral symmetry (B) Radial symmetry (C) Porous body (D) Soft skin Echinodermata is a group of animals (A) Coelomate, spiny and marine (B) Acoelomate, spiny and marine (C) Coelomate, horny and marine (D) Jointed legged, coclomate and marine. Which is characteristic feature of Echinodermata? (A) Vascular system (B) Radial symmetry (C) Radial canal (D) Ambulacral system. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class (A) Echinoidea (B) Asteroidea (C) Holothuroidea (D) Ophiuroidea. Echinoderms are (A) Fresh water forms (B) Both fresh water and marine (C) Exclusively marine (D) None of the above

91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 10!. 102. 103. 104.

105. 106. 107.

108. 109

110. 111.

Tube feet are locomotory organs of (A) Cockroach (B) Star Fish (C) Cuttle Fish (D) Cat Fish. Which is not a member of echinodermata? (A) Star Fish (B) Ascaris (C) Sea Lily (D) Ophiuthrix. Which one is an ophiuroid? (A) Brittle Star (B) Sea Star (C) Sand Dollar (D) Sea Urchin. Ambulacral grooves are absent in (A) Asteroidea (B) Crinoidea (C) Ophiuroidea (D) Nautioidea. Which is unrelated? (A) Sea Cucumber (B) Sea Star (C) Sea Urchin (D) Sea Squid. Bipinnaria is larval stage of (A) Asteroidea (B) Holothuroidca (C) Echinoidea (D) Crinoidea Which one i3 the common ancestral larval form of echinodcrms, hemichordates and chordates? (A) Tornaria (B) Bipinnaria (C) Dipleurula (D) Trochophore. The adults are radially symmetrical but larvae exhibit bilateral symmetry in (A) Mollusca (B) Hemichordata (C) Echinodermata (D) Cephalochordata Evisceration is found in (A) Echinodermata (B) Annelida (C) Coelenterata (D) Chordata. Radial symmetry occurs in (A) Cockroach (B) Anopheles (C) Asteri as/Star Fish (D) Snail. Aristotle’s lantern is connected with (A) Respiration (B) Mastication (C) Excretion (D) Support An enterococlomate invertebrate group is (A) Annelida (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca. Deuterostomate and enterocoelomate invertebrate is (A) Pila (B) Ascaris (C) Aphrodite (D) Asterias. Echinoderms are headless, brainless and heartless. Yet they are placed at the top of invertebrates because of presence of (A) Enterocoel (B) Exclusive marine forms (C) High power of regeneration (D) Great power of reproduction. Box like calcareous test occurs in (A) Sea Lily (B) Sea Star (C) Sand Dollar (D) Sea Cucumber. Which is not characteristic of echinoderms (A) Endodermal skeletal system (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Free floating larva (D) Water vascular system Animal with unsegmented, coelomated and radially symmetrical body having distinct oral and aboral surfaces belong to (A) Annelida (B) Mollusca (C) Echinodermata (D) Porifera (E) Arthropoda. Which one occurs echinodermates (A) Flame cells (B) Malpighian tubules (C) Kidney (D) None of the above. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), both are wrong (D). Assertion. Ossicles around the mouth of Sea Urchin form Aristotle’s Lantern. Reason. Teeth of Aristotle’s Lantern are analogous to human teeth as both are masticatory (A) (B) (C) (D) Exoskeleton of echinodermis is (A) Calcareous (B) Siliceous (C) Tunicin (D) Chitinous Select the correct statement (A) All arthropods have at least one pair of antennae (B) All molluscs have an external or internal shell

112. 113. 114.

115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122.

123. 124. 125.

(C) All annelids have setae (D) All echinoderms have water vascular system Star Fish belongs to (A) Coelenterata (B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca. What is correct (A) Blue-green alga is a kind of fungus (B) Sea Horse is related to Dolphin (C) Maiden Hair Tree is an angiosperm (D) Sea Lily is an echinoderm. Which is false? (A) Male roundworm is smaller than female (B) Earthworms are hermaphrodite (C) Human teeth are comparable to scalesof shark (D) Echinoderms are protostomic coelomates (E) Hair are derivatives of skin. Star Fish is (A) Asymmetrical (B) Radially symmetrical (C) Bilaterally symmetrical (D) None of these Arms, pedicellariae and spines are absent in the echinoderm (A) Star Fish (B) Sea Cucumber (C) Sea Lily (D) Sea Urchin. Find out the odd example (A) Sea Cucumber. (B) Sea Urchin (C) Sea Lily (D) Sea Fan. Arms do not occur in (A) Sea Urchin (B) Sea Cucumber (C) Both A and B (D) Sea star. Identify a deuterostome (A) Leucosolenia (B) Dentalium (C) Dugesia (D) Ophiothrix. Sea Cucumber belongs to class (A) Echinoidea (B) Holothuroidea (C) Asteroidea (D) Ophiuroidea. The bilateria member showing pentaradial symmetry is (A) Nautilus (B) Neometra (C) Neomenia (D) Neopilina. Which is properly matched? (A) Echinodermata — Asteroidea — Starfish (B) Arthropoda — Insecta — Spider (C) Mollusca — Cephalopoda — Unio (D) Platyhelminthes — Trematoda — Planaria. Which trait is not characteristic of echinodermata? (A) Aristotle’s lantern (B) Water vascular system (C) Radial and indeterminate cleavage (D) Trochophore larva. Tube feet are characteristic of phylum (A) Arthropoda (B) Annelida (C) Echinodermata (D) Mollusca (E) Nematheiminthes Secondary radial symmetry occurs in (A) Jelly fish (B) Echinodermata (C) Hemichordata (D) Cnidaria.

1) C

2) D

3) C

ANSWER – KEY 5) B 6) B

4) A

7) A

8) A

9) C

10)

B

11)

A 12)

C 13)

C

14)

C

15)

C 16)

B

17)

D

18)

B

19)

A 20)

D

21)

C 22)

C 23)

B

24)

A

25)

C 26)

A 27)

A

28)

D

29)

C 30)

A

31)

B

32)

D 33)

A

34)

D

35)

C 36)

D 37)

B

38)

A

39)

B 40)

C

41)

B

42)

C 43)

B

44)

D

45)

B 46)

C 47)

A

48)

A

49)

C 50)

B

51)

A 52)

D 53)

B

54)

A

55)

C 56)

A 57)

C

58)

D

59)

B 60)

B

61)

A 62)

C 63)

B

64)

C

65)

A 66)

A 67)

D

68)

C

69)

C 70)

A

71)

B

72)

B

73)

D

74)

C

75)

A 76)

B

77)

C

78)

A

79)

C 80)

D

81)

B

82)

C 83)

D

84)

D

85)

A 86)

B

87)

A

88)

D

89)

A 90)

C

91)

B

92)

B

A

94)

C

95)

D 96)

A 97)

C

98)

C

99)

A 100) C

101) B

93)

102) B

103) D

104) A

105)

C 106)

A 107) C

108) C

109) B 110)

111) D 112) B

113) D

114) D

115)

B 116)

B

118)

119)

D 120) B

122) A 123) D

124) C

125)

B 126)

129)

130)

121) B

117) 127)

D

128)

C

Chordata-Protochordata 1. Chordates differ from other animals in having (A) Notochord (B) Ventral nerve cord(C) Dorsal heart (D) Schizocoel. 2. Chordates have (A) Dorsal nerve cord (B) Dorsal tubular nerve cord (C) Brain (D) Ventral nerve cord. 3. Notochord occurs in the adult animal of (A) Osteichthyes (B) Chondrichthyes (C) Protochordata (D) Amphibia. 4. Which one of the following is a protochordate (A) Amphiarus (B) Lamprey (C) Labeo (D) Exocoetus. 5. Which group of protochordates contains Balanoglossus (A) Urochordata (B) Caphalochordata (C) Tunicata (D) Hemichordata. 6. Only the tail portion contains notochord in (A) Chordata (B) Caphalochordata (C) Hemichordata (D) Urochordata. 7. A free swimming urochordate is (A) Herdmania (B) Botiyllus (C) Salpa (D) Ciona. 8. A member of cephalo is (A) Herdmania (B) Ciona (C) Amphioxus (D) Balanoglossus. 9. The most important character of chordata (A) Dorsal hollow nervous system (B) Vertebral column (C) Kidneys (D) None of the above. 10. Which is a protochordate (A) Herdmania (B) Labeo (C) Lung fish (D) None. 11. A current of water is produced in Branchiostoma by (A) Cilia (B) Cirri (C) Wheel organ (D) Rostruna. 12. Which one is absent in Branchiostoma (A) Head (B) Gill slits (C) Notochord (D) Dorsal hollow nerve cord. 13. The anterior part of Amphioxus is (A) Oral hood (B) Rostrum (C) Mouth (D) Both A and B. 14. Cephalochordate Branchiostoma possesses (A) Laterally compressed spindle-shaped body (B) Caudal fin (C) Dorsal and ventral fins (D) All the above. 15. Hepatic portal system has evolved in protochordates (A) Hemichordates (B) Urochordates (C) Cephalochordates (D) All the above. 16. In Aniphioxus, circulatory system is (A) Closed (B) Without heart (C) Without respiratory pigment (D) All the above.

D

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

Branchiostoma is (A) Filter feeder (B) Carnivorous (C) Omnivorous (D) Herbivorous. In Branchiostoma, notochord is present in (A) Larva stage (B) Head region (C) Tail region (D) Throughout body. In urochordates, the chordate characters are (A) Well developed (B) Present only in larva (C) Present in adult (D) Present both in adult and larva. The larva of urochordatcs contains notochord (A) Throughout (B) Head region (C) Tail region (D) Trunk region. An ascidian is (A) Balanoglossus (B) Herdmania (C) Branchiostoma (D) None of the above. Tunic is (A) Sac-like covering of urochordates (B) A string inside cephalochordates (C) Collar of hemichordates (D) None of the above. Tunicin is (A) Lipopolysaccharide (B) Cellulose-like polysaccharide (C) Non-cellulosic polysaccharide (D) Proteinaceous. Retrogressive metamorphosis is peculiar to (A) Urochordates (B) Hemichordates (C) Cephalochordates (D) All the above. Mouth of Herdmanja is (A) Atrial aperture (B) Excurrent aperture(C) Branchial aperture (D) Both A and B. Atrial and branchial apertures of Herdmania are surrounded by (A) Two lips (B) Three lips (C) Four lips (D) Five lips. Water current is maintained in Herdmanja Lancelet is (A) Hermania (B) Salpa (C) Branchiostoma (D) Dolioluni. Lancelet is (A) Hermania (B) Salpa (C) Bran chi ostoma (D) Dolioluni. In protochordates, the epidermis is (A) Absent (B) Multilayered (C) A few layered (D) Single layered. Part of Herdmanja embedded in sand is (A) Test (B) Foot (C) Tunic (D) Both A and C. Herdmanja is (A) Sea Purse (B) Sea Squirt (C) Sea Potato (D) Both B and C. Which one emits jet of water when disturbed (A) Balanoglossus (B) Herdinania (C) Salpa (D) Branchiostoma. In adult urochordate, the dorsal nerve cord of larva is changed into (A) Ganglión (B) Brain and spinal cord (C) Brain and nerve cord (D) Remains as such. In cephalochordates, the coelom is (A) Reduced (B) Absent (C) Schizocoel (D) Lined by ectoderm. Coelom of urochordate is (A) Schizocoel (B) Absent (C) Enterocoel (D) Segmented. Acorn Worm is (A) Doliolum (B) Salpa (C) Balanoglossus (D) Rhabdopleura. The body of Tongue Worm Balanoglossus is differentiated into (A) Head, trunk and tail (B) Trunk and tail (C) Proboscis, collar and trunk (D) Proboscis and collar. Balanoglossus lives in (A) U-shaped burrow (B) Vertical burrow (C) Oblique burrow (D) Horizontal burrow. Which one swallows mud (A) Anzphioxus (B) Sea Squirt (C) Tongue Worm (D) Asymmetron.

40. 41.

42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

In hemichordates the dorsal nerve cord is (A) Absent (B) Present throughout (C) Restricted to tongue region (D) Restricted to collar region. Coclom of hemichordates is (A) Schizocoel (B) Enterocoel (C) Enterocoel with differentiation of three regions (D) Absent. Heart of hemichordates is (A) Ventral (B) Dorsal (C) Lateral (D) Absent. Who raised the status of hemichordates from subphylum to phylum (A) Linnaeus (B) Lamarck (C) Horst (D) Belfour. Notochord like structure is present in hemichordates in the region (A) Proboscis (B) Collar (C) Trunk (D) Tail. Notochord like structure of hemichordates (A) Protochord (B) Stomochord (C) Pallium (D) Glomerulus. Pharyngeal gill slits are dorsal in (A) Cephalochordates (B) Urochordates (C) Hemichordates (D) Euchordates. Protochordates are (A) Marine (B) Fresh water (C) Terrestrial (D) All the above. Protochordates are (A) Nonvertebrates (B) Acraniates (C) Prevertebrates (D) All the above. Chorda dorsalis is (A) Dorsal solid nerve cord (B) Dorsal hollow nerve cord (C) Notochord (D) Stomochord Amongst chordates, the paired appendages are absent in (A) Hemichordates (B) Urochordates. (C) Cephalochordates (D) All the above. Notochord is (A) Solid (B) Hollow (C) Lacunate (D) Partially solid and partially hollow. Notochord is used in (A) Attachment of muscles (B) Development of dorsal nerve cord (C) Formation of gill slits (D) Development of kidneys. Notochord is (A) Flat plate (B) Rod-like (C) Made of turgid vacuolated cells (D) Both B and C. Epidermis of chordates is (A) Single layered (B) Transitional (C) Stratified (D) Absent. Gill slits of chordates are (A) Paired (B) Lateral perforations (C) Pharyngeal (D) All the above. Nerve cord of chordates is (A) Dorsal (B) Hollow (C) Ventral (D) Both A and B. Notochord has been replaced in vertebrates by (A) Brain and spinal cord (B) Cranium and vertebral column (C) Post-anal tail (D) Both A and B. Brain and spinal cord of vertebrates have been derived from (A) Dorsal hollow nerve cord (B) Ventral solid nerve cord (C) Lateral nerve cord (D) Dorsal solid nerve cord. Type of coelom present in chordates is (A) Psuedocoelom (B) Schizocoelom (C) Enterocoelom (D) Both A and C. In higher chordates, pharyngeal gill slits are (A) Absent (B) Present in the embryo

(C) Replaced by abdominal gill slits

(D) Replaced by thoracic gill slits.

Revision Questions 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78.

79. 80.

Larva of Balanoglossus is (A) Muller’s larva (B) Tadpole (C) Tornaria (D) Kentrogen larva. A chordate character is (A) Gills (B) Spiracles (C) Post-anal tail (D) Chitinous exoskeleton. Which is not a vertebrate (A) Fish (B) Amphioxus (C) Oryctolagus (D) Sparrow. All chordates possess (A) Exoskeleton (B) Limbs (C) Skull (D) Axial skeletal rod of not In which group, the notochord is limited to only anterior part or proboscis (A) Hemichordata (B) Urochordata (C) Cephalochordata (D) Mammalia Amphioxus belongs to (A) Craniata (B) Hemichordata (C) Urochordata (D) Cephalochordata. Which is an exclusive chordate character (A) True coelom (B) Pharyngeal gill slits(C) Bilateral symmetry(D) Triploblastic. Which one is a link between chordates and nonchordates? (A) Tadpole larva (B) Sphenodon (C) Balanoglossus (D) Crocodilia Notochord occurs only in the larva of (A) Balaiioglossus (B) Amphioxus (C) Herdmania (D) epha1odiscus. Phosphorescence occurs in (A) Salpa (B) Pyrosoma (C) Petromyzon (D) Rana. Group where adults are degenerated while larvae are well developed is (A) Tunicata (B) Agnatha (C) Amphibia (D) Cephalochordata. Which is not characteristic of all chordates (A) Dorsal nerve cord (B) Diaphragm between thorax and abdomen (C) Coelom (D) Pharyngeal gill slits A primary character of chordates is (A) Paired nerve cord (B) Ganglionated nerve cord (C) Dorsal tubular nerve cord (D) Solid ve’ntral nerve cord. Acraniata contains (A) Hemichordata (B) Urochordata (C) Cephalochordata (D) All the above Notochord occurs all through the length of body and throughout life in (A) Hemichordata (B) Urochordata (C) Cephalochordata (D) Vcrtcbrata. Tunicates are (A) Mixotrophic (B) Parasitic (C) Macrop (D) Ciiary feeders. Which one belongs to hemichordata (A) Salpa (B) Balanoglossus (C) Petromyzon (D) Myxine. Which is true? (A) Chordates have ventral hollow nerve cord (B) All vertebrates have open circulatory system (C) All chordates are vertebrates (D) All vertebrates are chordates. Notochord occurs in the embryonic stage in (A) Some chordates (B) All chordates (C) All vertebrates (D) Some vertebrates. Which one is common feature of Amphioxus, Frog, Sea Horse and Crocodile (A) Skeleton of cartilage and bone (B) Pharyngeal gill slits at least in developmental stages (C) Dorsal solid nerve cord (D) Three chambered heart.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86.

87.

88. 89.

All chordates at one or other stage, possess (A) Two pairs of pentadactyl limbs (B) Movable jaw (C) Vertebral column (D) Pharyngeal gill slits Acorn worms are included in (A) Cestoda (B) Trematoda (C) Hemichordata (D) Echinodermata. Which one is distinct character of chordates? (A) Chorda dorsalis (B) Cephalization (C) Claws (D) Pharyngostomy The animal having notochord throughout life is (A) Fish (B) Amphioxus (C) Snakes (D) Birds. Retrogressive metamorphosis is found in (A) Cephalochordata (B) Urochordata (C) Fishes (D) Amphibia. Which of the following statements is/are not true? (a) In urochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail (b) In cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to tail (c) Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordata (d) Only one class of living members, class cyclostomata, represents the super class agnatha (A) a, b and d only (B) c, d and a only (C) c only (D)a and d only (E) c and d only Three fundamental characters of all chordates are (A) Dorsal tubular nerve cord, diaphragm, notochord (B) Notochord, diaphragm, gill slits (C) Gill slits, diaphragm, dorsal tubular nerve cord (D) Notochord, gill slits, dorsal tubular nerve cord. In which of the following a notochord is absent (A) Adult tunicate (B) Amphioxus (C) Myrine (D) Larval tunicate. Postanal tail occurs in (A) Vertebrates (B) Invertebrates (C) Chordates (D) All the above.

1) A

2) B

3) C

ANSWER – KEY 5) D 6) D

4) A

7) C

8) C

9) A

10)

A

11)

C 12)

A 13)

B

14)

D

15)

C 16)

D 17)

A

18)

D

19)

B 20)

C

21)

B

A 23)

B

24)

A

25)

C 26)

C 27)

D

28)

C

29)

D 30)

B

31)

D 32)

B

33)

A

34)

A

35)

B 36)

C 37)

C

38)

A

39)

C 40)

D

41)

A 42)

B

43)

C

44)

A

45)

B 46)

C 47)

A

48)

D

49)

C 50)

D

51)

A 52)

A 53)

D

54)

C

55)

D 56)

D 57)

B

58)

A

59)

C 60)

B

61)

C 62)

C 63)

B

64)

D

65)

A 66)

D 67)

B

68)

C

69)

C 70)

B

71)

A 72)

B

73)

C

74)

D

75)

C 76)

D 77)

B

78)

D

79)

B 80)

B

81)

D 82)

C 83)

A

84)

B

85)

B 86)

C 87)

D

88)

A

89)

C 90)

22)

Vertebrata-Agnatha and Pisces 1. Flying Fish is (A) Torpedo (B) Scoliodon (C) Anguilla (D).Exocoetus. 2. Lamprey (Petromyzon) belongs to (A) Chondrichthyes (B) Osteichythes (C) Agnatha (D) Amphibia. 3. Agnatha or Cyclostomata are characterised by (A) Absence of jaws and presence of suctorial mouth (B) Presence of suctorial mouth, absence of jaws, presence of single nostril and unpaired fins (C) Absence of mouth, presence of single nostril (D) Round mouth with triradiate lips. 4. Non-tetrapod vertebrates contain (A) Osteichythes and chondrichthyes (B) Agnatha, osteichthyes and chondri chthyes (C) Agnatha and chondrichthyes (D) Agnatha. 5. Cartilaginous fishes do not contain (A) Fins (B) Gill cover/operculum(C) Scales (D) Mouth. 6. Which is a connecting link between fishes and amphibians (A) Catfish (B) Gambusia (C) Frotopterus (D) Clupea. 7. Potamodromous fishes migrate from (A) Fresh to fresh water (B) Fresh to marine water (C) Marine to fresh water (D) Marine to marine water. 8. Oceanodromous fishes migrate from (A) Fresh to fresh water (B) Fresh to marine water (C) Marine to fresh water (D) Marine to marine water. 9. Catadromous fishes migrate from (A) Fresh to fresh water (B) Fresh to marine water (C) Marine to fresh water (D) Marine to marine water. 10. Anadromous fishes migrate from (A) Fresh to fresh water (B) Fresh to marine water (C) Marine to fresh water (D) Marine to marine water

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.

Which is a catadromous fish? (A) Hilsa (B) Mystus (C) Anguilla (D) Ghana. Which is an anadromous fish? (A) Hippocampus (B) Petromyzon (C) Exocoetus (D) Anabas. A scale-less fish is (A) Scoliodon (B) Remora (C) Catfish (D) Labeo. In fishes the exoskeleton is made of (A) Cartilage (B) Bones (C) Hairs (D) Scales. Which of the following is lung fish? (A) Exocoetus (B) Neoceratodus (C) Necturus (D) Scoliodon. Chondrichthyes can be differentiated from osteichthyes externally by (A) Naked gills (B) Heterocercal tail (C) Ventral mouth (D) All the above. Fish characteristic is (A) Dermal scales (B) Epidermal scales (C) Lateral line organs (D) Both A and C. Pefromyzon belOngs to class (A) Osteichthyes (B) Chondrichthyes (C) Cyclostomata (D) Amphibia. A fish which produces electric current is (A) Trygon (B) Torpedo (C) Fri stis (D) All the above. Sharks are (A) Ovoviviparous (B) Viviparous (C) Oviparous (D) None of the above. Sea Horse is a (A) Coelenterate (B) Bony fish (C) Mammal (D) Reptile. Lateral line organs occur in (A) Fishes (B) Fishes and amphibian larvae (C) Cartilaginous fishes and amphibian larvae(D) Fishes and larvae of other vertebrates. The tympanum is absent is (A) Dog fish (B) Cat fish (C) Bony fishes (D) All the fishes. A homocercal tail is found in (A) Teleosts (B) Sharks (C) Rays .(D) Lung fishes. Placoid scales are found in (A) Cartilaginous fishes(B) Bony fishes (C) Lung fishes (D) None of the above. Parental care by males is found in (A) Hippocampus (B) Labeo (C) Anaba (D) Scoliodon. Paired fins of fishes arc (A) Caudal and ventral (B) Dorsal and ventral (C) Pectoral and pelvic (D) Caudal and pectoral. Bony/teleost fishes are characterised by (A) Cloaca (B) Air bladder (C) Placoid scales (D) Ventral mouth. The sucker of Remora is modification of (A) Dorsal fm (B) Pectoral fin (C) Mouth (D) Operculum. Vertebrata is also called (A) Acraniata (B) Craniata (C) Euchordata (D) Both B and C. Internal naris is present in (A) Agnatha (B) Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes (C) Choanichthyes (D) None of the above. Latiineria is (A) Coelacanth (B) Has two dorsal fms (C) Possesses two pairs of external nares (D) All the above. In Latirneria, the fins are (A) All lobed (B) Nonlobed (C) Lobed except dorsal fins (D) Lobed except pelvic fins. Latimeria swims by means of

35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49.

50. 51. 52. 53. 54.

(A) Flapping movement of its pectoral and pelvic fins (B) Rotational movement of its pectoral fins (C) Flapping movement of pectoral fins and rotational movement of pelvic fins (D) Rotational movement of tail fin. Lung Fish of Africa is (A) Protopterus (B) Lepidosiren (C) Neoceratodus (D) Muraena. Lung fish found in Australia is (A) Lepidosiren (B) Neoceratodus (C) Muraena (D) Cyprinus. Lepidosiren is (A) Mackerel (B) Sardine (C) American lung fish (D) Pilot fish. Salmon is (A) Wallogonia (B) Sardinella (C) Dussumicria (D) Scoinber. Heart of fishes is (A) One chambered (B) Two chambered and mixed (C) Two chambered and venous (D) Three chambered and mixed. In lung fishes, the heart is (A) One chambered (B) Two chambered (C) Three chambered (D) Incompletely four chambered. Lung fishes have (A) Uncovered well developed gills (B) Covered well developed gills (C) Reduced but covered gills (D) Air bladder. Lung fishes (A) Seldom swim (B) Swim like eels (C) Creep over paired fins(D) Both B and C. Dorsal and ventral fins are continuous with caudal fin in (A) Lung fishes (B) Eel (C) Both A and B (D) Sea Horse. Pregnant male is the term used for (A) Gambusia (B) Muraena (C) Hippocampus (D) Echeneis. Hippocwnpus has (A) Head at right angles to body (B) Prehensile tail (C) Only dorsal fin and reduced pectoral fins(D) All the above. A tubular snout with terminal mouth occurs in (A) Solea (B) Hippocampus (C) Echeneis (D) Anguilla. Exocoelus is able to leap into air by means of (A) Large strong pectoral fins (B) Powerful tail (C) Pelvic fins (D) Suddenly flashing of dorsal and ventral fins. Climbing Perch is able to creep over land by means of (A) Pectoral fins (B) Opercular spines (C) Both A and B (D) Lobed fins. Dorsal and ventral fins of Anabas have (A) Stiff rays (B) Soft rays (C) Stiff rays in anterior region and soft rays in posterior region (D) Soft rays in anterior region and stiff rays in posterior region. A herbivorous fish is (A) Labeo (B) Rita (C) Anabas (D) All the above. As compared to cartilaginous fishes, bony fishes have dorsal fin (A) Single instead of two (B) Two instead of one (C) Single in both (D) Two in both. Pelvic fins of bony fishes are (A) Near tail B) Near ventral fins C) In middle (D) Anterior below pectoral fms. Unpaired external naris occurs in (A) Petromyzon (B) Torpedo (C) Anabas (D) Solea. Scroll valve is present in

55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76.

(A) Respiratory system of cartilaginous fishes (B) Intestine of cartilaginous fishes (C) Intestine of bony fishes (D) Respiratory system of bony fishes. In Torpedo or Electric Ray the electric organs are modified (A) Nerve nets (B) Cartilage complexes(C) Branchial muscles (D) Respiratory centres. In Sting Ray, the stinger is modified (A) Dorsal fin (B) Ventral fin (C) Anal fin (D) Caudal fin. In sharks, the mouth and nares are (A) Ventral and dorsal B) Terminal and dorsal C) Ventral and ventral D) Dorsal and ventral. Claspers of male Scoliodon develop in relation to (A) Pectoral fins (B) Pelvic fins (C) Anal or ventral fin (D) Dorsal fins. Rabbit Fish Chimaera is connecting link between (A) Cartilaginous and bony fishes (B) Bony fishes and lung fishes (C) Lung fishes and amphibians (D) Cyclostomates and chondrichthyes. Caudal fin is heterocercal in bony fish (A) Solea (B) Anabas (C) Ang,uiila (D) Exocoetus. Cartilaginous fishes are (A) Ureotelic (B) Ammonotelic (C) Uricotelic (D) Aminotelic. A larvaevorous fish is (A) Gambusia (B) Solea (C) Anabas (D) Diodon. Lophius occurs in (A) Fresh water ponds(B) Streams (C) Sea bottom (D) Sea shores Lophius is popularly called (A) Angler fish ‘ (B) Devil fish (C) Frog fish (D) All the above. Angler fish attracts its preys through (A) Bait present over the tip of first ray (B) Leaf like skin flaps (C) Phosphorescence (D) All the above. Devil fish has (A) Broad head with wide mouth (B) Broad tail with flap-like caudal fin (C) Broad dorsal fin (D) All the above. Lates occurs in (A) Sea (B) Estuary (C) Fresh water ponds (D) Muddy waters Lates possesses (A) Vomerine teeth (B) Palatine teeth (C) Maxillary, vomerine and palatine teeth (D) Maxillary and palatine teeth. Lata fish is (A) Channa (B) Lates (C) Heteropneustes (D) Catla. A fish capable of hibernating during drought is (A) Heteropneustes (B) Channa (C) Catla (D) Lates A fish of muddy waters is (A) Catla (B) Labeo (C) Heteropneustes (D) Diodon. A fresh water fish which can inflict injury to its prey and other animals is (A) Clarius (B) Heteropneustes (C) Solea (D) Gambusia. Dog fish (A) Bony fish (B) Cartilaginous fish (C) An aquatic reptile (D) An aquatic mammal. A filter feeder shark is (A) Carcharodon (B) Carcharinus (C) Whale Shark (D) Scoliodon. Rhincodon is (A) Basking Shark (B) Whale Shark (C) White Shark (D)Indian Shark The largest fish is

(A) Cetorhinus

(B) Carcharinus

(C) Carcharodon

(D) Rincodon

Revision Question 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91.

92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97.

Which is viviparous (A) Bony Fish (B) Shark (C) Lung Fish (D) Frog. Which one is a fish? (A) Sea Horse (B) Sea Cow (C) Sea Cucumber (D) Sea Urchin Vertebrates have (A) Dorsal tubular nerve cord (B) Ventrally situated heart (C) Body cavity with alimentary canal (D) All the above The group devoid of gliding/flying animals is (A) Fishes (B) Cyclostomates (C) Reptiles (D) Mammals. Bony plates/scutes occur in addition to scales in (A) Sea Horse (B) Flying Fish (C) Climbing Perch (D) Eel Association between Sucker Fish (Remora) and Shark is (A) Commensalism (B) Symbiosis (C) Predation (D) Parasitism. Gwnbusia is (A) Parasitic Fish (B) Pest of fishes (C) Fish predator of mosquito larvae (D) A mosquito spreading yellow fever. Vertebral column is derived from (A) Dorsal nerve cord (B) Ventral nerve cord (C) Outgrowth of cranium (D) Notochord Heart pumps impure blood in (A) Frog/Amphibia (B) Whale/Cetacea (C) Lizard/Reptilia (D) Shark/Pisces. True Fish is (A) Whale/Cuttle Fish(B) Silver Fish (C) Cray Fish/Jelly Fish.(D) Flying Fish/Cat Fish. Living fossil is (A) Dog Fish (B) Flying Fish (C) Dodo (D) Coelacanth/Latimena. Branch of biology dealing with study of fishes is (A) Fishery (B) Toxicology (C) Ichthylogy (D) Piscology. A vertebrate having entire cartilaginous skeleton is (A) Scoliodon (B) Rana (C) Labeo (D) Dolphin. In fishes the kidney is (A) Pronephric (B) Metanephric (C) Mesonephric (D) Nephridial. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is (A) Presence of skull (B) Division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail (C) Presence of two pairs of functional appendages (D) Body is covered with an exoskeleton. Which is cold blooded animal A) Pigeon (B) Kangaroo (C) Shark (D) Rabbit. Common name of marine fish Anguilla is (A) Rohu (B) Eel (C) Hilsa (D) Bombay Duck. Sea Horse is an example of (A) Mammalia (B) Reptilia (C) Ayes (D) Pisces. Endoskeleton is cartilaginous in (A) Elasmobranchs (B) Dipnoi (C) Mollusca (D) Osteichthyes. Electric organs occur in (A) Sharks (B) Goldfish (C) Porpoises (D) Rays. Isinglass (gelatine-like transparent substance) is obtained from (A) Air bladder of fishes (B) Scales of fishes

98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118.

119.

(C) Liver of Frog (D) Cartilage of shark. Which one is migratory fish (A) Shark (B) Ribbon fish (C) Salmon (D) Carp. Shagrecn is skin of (A) Cod fish (B) Sole fish (C) Shark (D) Whale. Tcleost fish is differentiated externally from elasmobranch fish by (A) Endoskeleton (B) Exoskeleton (C) Operculum (D) Stream lined body. Anus opens into a central chamber in vertebrates called (A) Rectum (B) Cloaca (C) Caecum (D) None of the above. Lateral line occurs in (A) Star fish (B) Jelly fish (C) Dog fish (D) All the above. Fish vertebrates originated during (A) Devonian (B) Silurian (C) Carboniferous (D) Ordovician. Bony fishes are (A) Ammonotelic (B) Ureotelic (C) Uricotelic (D) Both B and C Which is not found in vertebrates? (A) Gill opening (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Cnidoblasts (D) Body scales. Which are primitive vertebrates? (A) Amphioxus and Herdrnania (B) Doliolum and Scoliodon (C) Balanoglossus and Salpa (D) Petromyzon and Myxine. Fertilization is internal in (A) Cat Fish (B) Dog Fish (C) Frog (D) Toad. Scoliodon is called Dog Fish because of its (A) Carnivorous nature (B) Mouth (C) Power of smell (D) Gait Which one is age of fish? (A) Devonian (B) Silurian (C) Permian (D) Cretaceous. An example of agnatha (jaw vertebrate)/cyclostomata is (A) Labeo rohita (B) Scoliodon (C) Rana tigrina (D) Petromyzon. Vertebrates do not possess (A) Dorsal heart (B) Ventral heart (C) Vertebral column (D) Coelom In fast swimming fishes, propulsion is mainly dueto (A) Pelvic fins (B) Caudal fin (C) Dorsal fins (D) Pectoral fms. Elasmobranchs lack (A) Gill slits (B) Operculum (C) Notochord (D) Placoid scales A cartilaginous fish with an operculum is (A) Scoliodon (B) Chimaera (C) Torpedo (D) Tiygon. Herbivorous carps are (A) Labeo and Hilsa (B) Catla and Magur (C) Shark and Singla (D) All the above. First vertebrates are (A) Ostractodermi (B) Placodermi (C) Cyclostomates (D) Choanochthyes. An edible fresh water teleost is (A) Shark (B) Ray and Skate (C) Catla catla (D) Hilsa hilsa. Match the columns Coloumn I Column II a) Psoudopodia (p) Mollusca b) Parapodia (q) Chondrichthyes c) Muscular Foot (r) Protozoa d) Pins (s) Annelids (A) a—p, b—r, c—s, d—q (B) a—r,b—s,c—p,d—q (C) a—r,b—p,c—s,d—q (D) a—s,b—r,c—q,d—p. An indigenous fish used in biological control is

120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129.

130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141.

(A) Catla (B) Labestes (C) Ganibusia (D) Aplocheilus Fishes with swim bladder without direct communication with exterior and where there is little separation of secretory and absorbent parts are (A) Physostomes (B) Physoclists (C) Euphysoclists (D) Paraphysoclists. Stenohaline fishes are (A) Marine fishes only (B) Those which tolerate narrow range of salinity (C) Those which tolerate wide range of salinity(D) Fresh water fishes only. Salmon fishes are also known as (A) Trout (B) Cod (C) Cartilaginous fishes (D) Bony fishes Which one has a brood pouch for caring of eggs? (A) Anabas (B) Scoliodon (C) Hippocampus (D) Cuttle fish. Aquatic animals with prehensile tail is (A) Chamaeleon (B) Macaca (C) Exocoetus (D) Hippocampus. A fresh water fish is (A) Chanos (B) Hilsa (C) Clarius (D) Rostelliger. Which one has heterocercal tail (A) Dipnoi (B) Bony fish (C) Cartilaginous fish (D) All the above One of the following is not a fish (A) Sucker fish (B) Flat fish (C) Flying fish (D) Cuttle fish. (E) Pipe fish Which one belongs to dipnoi? (A) Lung fish (B) Cat fish (C) Rat fish (D) Star fish. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), both wrong (D). Assertion. Lateral line system is found in fishes and aquatic larval amphibians. Reason. Lateral line system has receptors which are the clusters of sensory cells derived from ectoderm. (A) (B) (C) (D) Fishes have poor sense organs for (A) Sound perception (B) Vibrations (C) Odours (D) Light perception. Which one is a true fish? (A) Cuttle fish (B) Dog fish (C) Jelly fish (D) Silver fish. Tooth-shaped scales are (A) Cycloid (B) Ctenoid (C) Ganoid (D) Placoid Which of the following statements is true (A) All chordates are vertebrates (B) All vertebrates are chordates (C) Invertebrates possess a tubular nerve cord(I)) Nonchordates have a vertebral column. Growing more than one species of fish in the same water body is (A) Moriculture (B) Aquaculture (C) Monoculture (D) Polyculture. Lung fish is (A) Protopterus (B) Coelacanik (C) Scoliodon (D) Labeo. Which one is a true fish (A) Sea Horse (B) Bombay Duck (C) Salmon (D) All the above In cartilaginous fishes, restiform (rope-like) bodies occur in (A) Heart (B) Brain (C) Eyes (D) Intestine Which is unique in fishes? (A) Gills (B) Tails (C) Lateral line sensory organs (D) Lungs Air bladder occurs in (A) Torpedo (B) Scoliodon (C) Anabas (D) Elasmobrach Scoliodon is also called (A) Dog Fish (B) Cuttle Fish (C) Jelly Fish (D) Whale Fish In elasmobranchs, oviducts are called

142.

143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149.

150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161.

(A) Woiffian ducts (B) Fallopian tubes (C) Mullerian ducts (D) Mullerian bodies. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion is true but ieason is worng (C), and beth are worng (D). Assertion. Fish meal is rich source of protein for cattle and poultry. Reason. Fish meal is produced by nonedible parts of fishes like fms, tails, etc. (A) (B) (C) (D) Which one is a Cat Fish (A) Labeo rohita (B) Catla catla (C) Cirrhina mrigala (D) Wallago attu. Placoid scales are found in (A) Cartilaginous fishes/sharks (B) Bony fishes (C) Lung fishes (D) All the above. Pancreas is absent in (A) Amphibia (B) Osteichthyes (C) Chondrichthyes (D) Cyclostomata. Which one is an incorrect match? (A) Silver Fish — Arthropoda (B) Shell Fish — Pisces (C) Cuttle Fish — Móllusca (D) Star Fish — Echinodermata. Hippocampus belongs to class (A) Agnatha (B) Chondrichthyes (C) Osteichthyes (D) Mammals. Cartilaginous fishes belong to the class (A) Osteichthyes (B) Agnatha (C) Dipnoi (D) Chondrichthyes. Which is true? (A) All living members of class cyclostomata are parasites on some fishes (B) There are about 2000 species in the class osteichthyes (C) Ciona belongs to subphylum cephalo chordata (D) Arthropods are diploblastic animals (E) Ascaris lumbricoides is a flatworm. Fishes belonging to dipnoi are (A) Organ fishes (B) Dog fishes (C) Lung fishes (D) None of the above. Illicium is modified (A) Dorsal fin (B) First dorsal spine (C) Scales (D) Caudal fm. Which one is not characteristic feature of subphylum vertebrata? (A) Dorsal tubular nerve chord (B) Ventral muscular heart (C) Notochord in adult (D) Kidneys (E) Lateral appendages. Which is correctly paired? (A) Pristis—Saw fish (B) Trygon—Monitor (C) Ichthyophis — Crow (D) Varanus—Sting Ray (E) Corvus—Limbless amphibian. Bombay Duck is (A) Bird (B) Fish (C) Reptile (D) Mammal. Sting Ray is (A) Tiygon (B) Torpedo (C) Fri stis (D) Syllum. Bony fishes can stay at any particular depth in water without spending energy due to presence of (A) Operculum (B) Tympanum (C) Pneumatic bones (D) Swim bladder. Number of gills found in osteichthyes is (A) Two pairs (B) Four pairs (C) Five pairs (D) 6—15 pairs (E) 12 pairs. Which is not a major carp? (A) Cirrhinus mrigala (B) Labeo rohita (C) Puntius tieto (D) Ctenophwyngodon idella. Group anamniota includes (A) Fishes and amphibians (B) Reptiles and birds (C) Birds and mammals (D) Reptiles and mammals Glomerular kidney occurs in fish (A) Tulipia (B) Cirrhinus (C) Sphyrna (D) Exocoetus. What is true of Neaceratodus?

162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171.

(a) It is a crossptcrygian fish (b) It is found in river chuturnnac (c) It does not exhibit aestivation (d) It is a ureotelic animal. (A)aandb (B)bandd (C)aandc (D)aandd. Pectoral fins arc enlarged in (A) Hippocampus (B) Exocoetus (C) Coccosteus (D) Scoliodon. In sharks, one of the following is absent (A) Claspers (B) Cartilaginous endoskeleton (C) Placoid scales (D) Air bladder Isinglass is employed in (A) Preparation of wines (B) Distillation of wines (C) Preservation of wines (D) Clearing of wines Heart is two chambered in (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Birds (E) Mammals. Ampullae of Lorenzini occur in (A) Fish (B) Lizard (C) Frog (D) Rabbit. A viviparous fish is (A) Labeo (B) clarias (C) Gambusia (D) Exocoelus. Sharks and rays belong to class (A) Cyclostomata (B) Osteichthyes (C) Amphibia (D) Chondrichthyes. Which one pair comprises jawless fishes? (A) Mackerels and Rohu (B) Lampreys and Hag Fishes (C) Lampreys and Eels (D) Guppies and Hag Fishes. Which one is a fish? (A) Star fish (B) Silver fish (C) Shark (D) Jelly fish. The most primitive vertebrates are (A) Ostracodcrms (B) Cephalochordates (C) Placoderms (D) Cyclostomates.

1) D

2) C

3) B

ANSWER – KEY 5) B 6) C

4) B

7) A

8) D

9) B

10)

C

11)

C 12)

B

13)

C

14)

D

15)

B 16)

D 17)

D

18)

C

19)

B 20)

A

21)

B

B

23)

D

24)

A

25)

A 26)

A 27)

C

28)

B

29)

A 30)

D

31)

C 32)

D 33)

C

34)

B

35)

A 36)

B

37)

C

38)

B

39)

C 40)

C

41)

D 42)

D 43)

C

44)

C

45)

D 46)

B

47)

B

48)

C

49)

C 50)

A

51)

A 52)

D 53)

A

54)

B

55)

C 56)

A 57)

C

58)

B

59)

A 60)

D

61)

A 62)

A 63)

C

64)

D

65)

D 66)

A 67)

B

68)

C

69)

A 70)

B

71)

C 72)

B

73)

B

74)

C

75)

B 76)

D 77)

B

78)

A

79)

D 80)

B

81)

A 82)

A 83)

C

84)

D

85)

D 86)

D 87)

D

88)

C

89)

A 90)

C

91)

A 92)

C 93)

B

94)

D

95)

A 96)

D 97)

A

98)

C

99)

C 100) C

104) A

105)

C 106)

D 107) B

108) C

109) A 110)

113) B

114) B

115)

A 116)

A 117)

118)

119)

121) B

122) A 123) C

124) D

125)

C 126)

C 127) D

128) A

129) B 130) A

131) B

132) D 133) B

134) D

135)

A 136)

D 137) B

138) C

139) C 140) A

143) D

144) A

145)

D 146)

B

147) C

148) D

149) A 150) C

152) C 153) A

154) B

155)

A 156)

D 157) B

158) C

159) A 160) D

101) B

22)

102) C 103) D

111) A 112) B

141) C 142) B 151) B

A

B

D

B 120) D

161) C 162) B

163) D

164) D

165)

A 166)

171) A 172)

173)

174)

175)

176)

A 167) C 177)

168) D

169) B 170) C

178)

179)

180)

Amphibia —Vertebrate 1. Tetrapods include (A) Amphibia, reptilia, ayes and mammalian (B) Reptilia, mammalia and amphibia (C) Amphibia and reptiia (D) Ayes and mammalia. 2. The number of appendages present in most vertebrates is (A) One pair (B) Two pairs (C) Three pairs (D) Four pairs. 3. The limbless amphibian is (A) Glass Snake (B) Hyla (C) lchthyoplzis (D) Salamander. 4. In amphibians (A) Exoskeleton is absent (B) Skin is respiratory (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. 5. An amphibian having gills in adult stage is (A) Salamander (B) Aquatic frogs (C) Limbless amphibian(D) Newt/Mud Puppy. 6. Hyla is a (A) Tree Frog (C) Salamander (B) Mud Puppy (D) Blind worm. 7. Tympanum or ear drum occurs in (A) Bony fishes (C) Necturus (B) Cartilaginous fishes (D) None of the above. 8. A limbless amphibian is (A) Amphiunia (B) Necturus (C) Uraeotyphlus (D) Cryptobranches 9. Persistence of larval traits is known as (A) Neogenesis (B) Paedogenesis (C) Paedomorphosis (D) Parthenogenesis. 10. Male frogs can croak louder than females because of (A) Large size (B) Being strong (C) Large sound box (D) Vocal sacs. 11. Summer sleep of cold-blooded animals is called (A) Hibernation (B) Neoteny (C) Aestivation (D) Paedogenesis. 12. Largest amphibian is (A) Necturus (B) Ichthyophis (C) Ciyptobranches (D) Amphiunza. 13. In amphibia, the heart has (A) Two auricles and two ventricles (B) Two auricles and one ventricle (C) One auricle and two ventricles (D) One auricle, one ventricle and one sinus venosus. 14. Salamander can swim with the help of (A) Webbed hind limbs(B) Tail (C) Webbed fore limbs (D) Webbed toes. 15. Axolotl undergoes metamorphosis as soon as (A) Sex organs, develop (B) Food becomes plenty (C) It is exposed to air (D) Both B and C. 16. Axolotl larva possesses (A) External gills (B) Laterally compressed tail (C) Caudal fin (D) All the above. 17. Neciuius or Mud Puppy is found in (A) North America (B) South America (C) North India (D) South India. 18. Necturus or Mud Puppy is also known as (A) Water Newt (B) Water Dog (C) Both A and B (D) Himalayan Salamander. 19. Flying Frog is (A) Hyla (B) Rhacophorus (C) Alytes (D) Pipa. 20. Hyla or Tree Fog is (A) Brown (B) Green (C) Spotted green and brown (D) Dark brown and yellow. 21. Hyla is able to climb trees with ‘the help of (A) Long prehensile tail (B) Long curved hind limbs (C) Adhesive pads on digits (D) Claws at tips of digits. 22. Flying Frog Rhacophorus (A) Flies with the help of patagia (B) Flies with the helps of wings (C) Walks very fast (D) Jumps long distances.

23. 24.

25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

Midwife Toad is (A) Alytes (B) Pipa (C) Bufo (D) Discoglossus. In Alytes obstetricans (A) The female collects the fertilised eggs and hides the same in safe place (B) The female after collecting the eggs, hides itself in a safe place (C) The male collects eggs around its neck and hides itself (D) The male collects eggs around its legs and hides itself. In Surinam Toad, eggs are taken care of by (A) Male (B) Female (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above. Bombinator threatens its adversary by (A) Sprinkling blood (B) Exposing its belly having orange red patches (C) Producing hissing sound (D) Both B and C. In Toad, Bufo melanostictus, toxins occur in (A) Secretion of parotid glands (B) Skin warts (C) Both A and B (D) Saliva. Bufo differs from Bull Frog Rana in (A) Absence of teeth and nonbifurcatect tongue(B) Non-implexus (C) Absence of vocal sacs (D) All the above. In Toad, the skin is (A) Smooth and slimy (B) Warty, dry and rough (C) Olive green colour (D) Without glands. Bufo lacks (A) Webs in hind limbs (B) Shorter fore limbs (C) Tympana (D) Longer hind limbs. In male Frog and male Toad, the number of vocal sacs is (A) One and one (B) One and zero (C) Two and zero (D) Two and one. In Toad, the amplexusory pad is (A) Absent (B) Found on one inner finger (C) Present on two inner fingers (D) Present on two inner toes. In sitting posture (A) Both Frog and Toad develop a hump (B) Frog has hump which is absent in Toad (C) Toad has hump which is absent in Frog (D) Both Frog and Toad lack hump. Salamandra atra is (A) Ovoviviparous (B) Oviparous (C) Sexually sterile (D) Parthenogenetic. Longest gestation period is that of (A) Human being (B) Camel (C) Rhino (D) Saiwnandra aim. Gestation period of Salamandra atra is (A) 200 days (B) 540 days (C) 36 months (D) 440 days. Mud Eel is (A) Amphiaum (B) Anguilla (C) Siren (D) Muraena. Mud Eel possesses (A) Short forç limbs (B) No hind limbs (C) Elongated cylindrical body (D) All the above. Frogs and Toads belong to order (A) Apoda (B) Anura (C) Urodela (D) Caecilia. Vocal cords develop for the first time in (A) Anurans (B) Urodelans (C) Caecilians (D) None of the above. Both middle and internal ears occur in (A) Caecilians (B) Necturans (C) Salamanders (D) Frogs and Toads. Middle ear and tympanum are absent in (A) Anura (B) Apoda (C) Urodela (D) Both B and C. Necturus possesses

44.

45.

46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59.

(A) Two pairs of external gills and three pairs of gill slits (B) Three pairs of external gills and two pairs of gill slits (C) Three pairs each of external gills and gill slits (D) Two pairs each of external gills and gill slits. Mud Eel (Siren lacertina) has (A) Five pairs of both external gills and gill slits (B) Four pairs of both external gills and gill slits (C) Three pairs each of external gills and gill slits (D) Two pairs each of external gills and gill slits. Nictitating membrane is useful to Frog in (A) Far sight (B) Short sight (C) Covering and protecting eye ball from mud and water (D) Covering and protecting eye lids from mud and other particles. Caccilians differ from common amphibians in (A) Absence of middle ear and vocal cords (B) Absence of limbs and girdles (C) Absence of eye lids (D) All the above. Apoda resemble pisces in (A) Presence of dermal scales (B) Functionless eyes (C) Absence of tail (D) All the above. An eversible cloaca for copulation occurs in the male of (A) Rana (B) Nectwus (C) Ichthyophis (D) Hyla. Salientia is the alternate name of (A) Anura (B) Urodela (C) Apoda (D) None of the above. Amphibians evolved in (A) Sea (B) Fresh water (C) On banks of fresh water (D) Land. Age of amphibians is (A) Carboniferous (B) Ordovician (C) Devonian (D) Cambrian. In Frog and Toad, the tongue is attached (A) Posteriorly (B) Anteriorly (C) Laterally (D) Absent. Amphibians, are (A) Amniotes (B) Anamniotes (C) Homocothermic (D) Nontetrapod vertebrates. In amphibians the heart is (A) Two chambered and venous (B) Two chambered and arterial (C) Three chambered (D) Incompletely four chambered. Amphibians possess (A) Hepatic portal system (B) Renal portal system (C) Hypophyseal portal system (D) All the above. In Frog, the lower eye lid is (A) Rapidly movable (B) Slightly movable (C) Immovable (D) Absent. In Frog, the upper eye lid is (A) Absent (B) Slightly movable (C) Rapidly movable (D) Immovable. A structure, absent in pisces, has evolved in amphibians (A) Tail (B) Teeth (C) Scales (D) Internal flares. Neoteny is found in larva of (A) Saiwnandra (B) Rana (C) Necturus (D) Ichtlzyophis.

Revision Questions 60. 61.

Salamander is a member of (A) Ayes (B) Amphibia Which is not a true amphibian animal

(C) Mammalia

(D) Reptilia

62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84.

(A) Salamander (B) Toad (C) Tortoise (D) Frog Fire bellied toad is (A) Amphiuma (B) Discoglossus (C) Nectu,us (D) Salamandra An amphibian lacking tongue is (A) !chthyophis (B) Neciurus (C) Amphiuma (D) Salamandra. Necturus is (A) Hell Bender (B) Congo Eel (C) Mud Puppy (D) Blind Worm. Lateral line organs do not occur in adult amphibians due to (A) Metamorphosis (B) Evolution of terrestrial habit (C) Change in feeding habit (D) Development of legs A limbless am is (A) Hyla (B) Ichthyophis (C) Alytes (D) Bufo. A true terrestrial animal is (A) Frog (B) Nectwus (C) Tortoise (D) Toad. A frog has (A) Eyes but no lids (B) Jaws but no teeth (C) Hands but no fingers (D) Ears but no pinnae Frog has (A) Five fingers and four toes (B) Four fingers and five toes (C) Five fingers and five toes (D) Four fingers and four toes. A frog with body temperature of 20°C is transferred to an area with 30°C temperature. What will be the body temperature of frog in the new environment (A) 20°C (B) 30° (C) 25°C (D) Fluctuates between 20°-30°C. Bull Frog of India is (A) Rana tigerina (B) R. sylvaiica (C) R. ecutesbeiana (D) R. esculenta. Retention of larval characters even after sexual maturity is called (A) Parthenogenesis (B) Ontogenesis (C) Phyllogcnesis (D) Neoteny. All vertebrates possess (A) Renal portal system (B) Dorsal hollow central nervous system (C) Four chambered ventral heart (D) Pharyngeal gill slits The glands present in the skin of Frog are (A) Sweat and mammary (B) Sweat and sebaceous (C) Sweat and mucous (D) Mucous and poisonous Mucus helps frog in forming (A) Thick skin (B) Dry skin (C) Smooth skin (D) Moist skin. Frog is (A) Amnionotelic (B) Ureotelic (C) Uricotelic (D) None of the above, Neoteny is found in (A) Axoloti (B) Hyla (C) Salamander (D) Tadpole. Frog/Toad belongs tçi order (A) Apoda (B) Anura (C) Urodela (D) Caudata. The functional kidney of frog tadpole is (A) Archinephros (B) Pronephros (C) Mesonephros (D) Metanephros. Flying Frog is (A) Rhacophorus (B) Hyla (C) Pipa (D) Alytes Neoteny is characteristic of (A) Bufo (B) Ichthyophis (C) Ambystoma (D) Rana. Except mammals, the lungs occur in (A) Pleural cavity (B) Pleuro-peritoneal cavity (C) Thoracic cavity (D) Pericardial cavity Axolotl is the name of larva of (A) Amphioxus (B) Silkworm (C) Ambystoma (D) Roundworm. Neoteny is related to

85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93.

94. 95. 96.

97. 98.

99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104.

(A) North America due to aerial flow of iodine(B) Genetic feature of some amphibians (C) Larva develops sex organs (D) None of the above Croaking of Frog is (A) Hunger call (B) Sex call for female(C) Danger call (D) Musical note. Ichthyophis belongs to (A) Amphibia (B) Mollusca (C) Annelida (D) Reptila. RBCs are nucleated in (A) Rat (B) Cat (C) Frog (D) Rabbit. Which is the smallest taxonoic group having cranium, vertebral column, ventral heart, pulmonary respiration and two pairs of legs? (A) Chordata (B) Gnathostomata (C) Vertebrata (D) Tetrapoda. Reproduction in larval stage is known as (A) Paedogenesis (B) Parthenogenesis (C) Neoteny (D) None of the above. Dicondylic skull with 10 pairs of cranial nerves occur in (A) Pisces (B) Amphibia (C) Reptilia (D) Mammalia Ancestral amphibians or early tetrapods evolved during (A) Devoman (B) Carboniferous (C) Cretaceous (D) Jurassic Aquatic amphibians are ammonotelic in (A) Adult stage (B) Larval stage (C) Immature stage (D) Both A and B. Three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as four chambered human heart because (A) Oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods mix up (B) Ventricle does not pump blood properly (C) It does not hold enough blood (D) Heart muscles are not strong. In Frog, jelly around the eggs is deposited (A) In water after fertilization (B) In water during fertilization (C) In the oviduct (D) In the ovary Opening of rectum in Frog is called (A) Coccyx (B) Cloaca (C) Anus (D) None of the above. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), both wrong (D). Assertion. Amphibians have evolved from fishes. Reason. Take the example of fossil Arc haeopteriyx. (A) (B) (C) (D) Surinam Toad is (A) Pipa (B) Alytes (C) Bufo (D) Born binator. Toad contains (A) Salivary glands, mucus glands and parotid glands (B) Slippery skin, yellow pigment and abundant mucus glands (C) Farotid glands, warty skin and semicircular canals (D) Bifiçl tongue, slippery skin and mucus glands Amphibian heart is (A) Four chambered (B) Three chambered (C) Two chambered (D) One chambered Structure present in man but absent in frog is (A) Salivary glands (B) Pancreas (C) Adrenal glands (D) Thyroid gland. Tadpole respires through (A) Skin (B) Gills (C) Lungs (D) Tail fin. KidneyofFrogis (A) Archinephros (B) Pronephros (C) Mesonephros (D) Metanephros. An ectothermal cold blooded animal is (A) Penguin (B) Lemur (C) Owl (D) Frog. Midwife Toad is

105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113.

114. 115.

116. 117. 118. 119. 120.

121. 122.

(A) Bufo (B) Rana (C) Pipa (D) Alytes. Green Tree Frog is (A) Hyla (B) Rhacophon (C) Alytes (D) Pipa. Mcsonephric kidney is found in (A) Amphibia (B) Mammalia (C) Reptilia (D) Ayes. Lateral line system is not well developed in (A) Shark (B) Catla (C) Sea Horse (D) Frog. Tail of tadpole is (A) Locomotory organ (B) Attachment organ (C) Digestive organ (D) Excretory organ Presence of gills in tadpole of Frog indicates that (A) Frog will have gills in future (B) Frog evolved from gilled ancestors (C) Fishes were amphibians in the past (D) Fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors. In Frog, oviduct is formed by (A) Wolffian duct (B) Bidder’s canal (C) Metanephric duct (D) Mullerian duct Frog is amphibian because (A) It has no tail (B) It has lungs (C) Its tadpole is aquatic (D) It lives both on land and water Which one is useful in metamorphosis of tadpole into frog? (A) Aldosterone (B) Thyroxine (C) Pituitary hormone (D) Oxytocin. Neoteny is (A) Development of gonads (B) Pre-adult animal (C) Retention of larval traits in adult (D) Metamorphosis (E) Precocious development Exoskeleton is absent in (A) Frog (B) Scoliodon (C) Rabbit (D) Fowl. Which is not common between Newt and Hernidactylus? (A) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. (B) Head has a pair of eyes and tympanic membranes. (C) Trunk has two pairs of limbs. (D) Heart is three chambered. Excretion in tadpole is (A) Ureotelic (B) Ammonotelic (C) Uricotelic (D) None of the above The process by which tail of tadpole is dissolved and tadpole changes into adult is known as (A) Neoteny (B) Paedogenesis (C) Metamorphosis (D) Morphogenesis Limbless amphibians belong to the order (A) Anura (B) Urodela (C) Gymnophiona (D) Lissamphibia. Exoskeleton, a characteristic feature of reptiia, is absent in (A) Fish (B) Ayes (C) Mammals (D) Amphibians. Match the columns Coloumn I Column II a) Euplectella 1) Sea pen b) Physalla 2) Pin worm c) Pennatula 3) Venus Flower Basket d) Enterobius 4) Midwife Toad e) Alytes 5) Portuguese man of War A) a—5, b—4, c—3, d—2, e—1 (B) a—5,b—3,c—4,d—2,e—1 (C) a—4,b—5,c—1,d—2,c—3 (D) a—3, b—5, c—I, d—2, e—4 (E) a—2,b—1,c—3,d--4,e—5 The largest RBCs arc seen in (A) Amphibia (B) Man (C) Elephant (D) Whale. Select the correct classiflcation of Rana tigrina upto genus

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1) A

Chordata, Craniata, Amphibia, Gnathostomata, Rana Chordata, Craniata, Gnathostomata, Amphibia, Rana Chordata, Amphibia, Gnathostomata, Craniata, ligrzna Chordata, Craniata, Amphibia, Gnathostomata, tigrina Gnathostomata, Craniata, Chordata, Rana, tigrina

2) B

3) C

ANSWER – KEY 5) D 6) A

4) C

7) D

8) C

9) C

10)

D

11)

C 12)

C 13)

B

14)

B

15)

C 16)

D 17)

A

18)

C

19)

B 20)

B

21)

C 22)

D 23)

A

24)

D

25)

B 26)

D 27)

C

28)

A

29)

B 30)

A

31)

D 32)

C 33)

B

34)

A

35)

D 36)

C 37)

C

38)

D

39)

B 40)

A

41)

D 42)

D 43)

B

44)

C

45)

C 46)

D 47)

A

48)

C

49)

A 50)

C

51)

A 52)

B

53)

B

54)

C

55)

D 56)

C 57)

B

58)

D

59)

A 60)

B

61)

C 62)

B

63)

A

64)

C

65)

B 66)

B

67)

D

68)

D

69)

B 70)

B

71)

A 72)

D 73)

B

74)

D

75)

D 76)

B

77)

A

78)

B

79)

B 80)

A

81)

C 82)

B

83)

C

84)

C

85)

B 86)

A 87)

C

88)

D

89)

A 90)

B

91)

A 92)

D 93)

A

94)

C

95)

B 96)

C 97)

A

98)

C

99)

B 100) A

104) D

105)

A 106)

A 107) D

108) A

109) B 110)

B

118)

119)

D 120) D

129)

130)

101) B

102) C 103) D

111) D 112) B

113) C

114) A

115)

A 116)

121) A 122) B

123)

124)

125)

126)

117) 127)

C

128)

C

D

Reptilia — Creeping Vertebrates 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

The largest poisonous Indian snake is (A) Krait (B) King Cobra (C) Cobra (D) Python. Glass Snake is (A) Limbless amphibian (B) Limbless lizard (C) A snake (D) None of the above. Which of the following, is a nonpoisonous snake? (A) Python (B) Cobra (C) Krait (D) Viper. Which one of the following is poikilothermal? (A) Whale (B) Echidna (C) Tortoise (D) Fowl. Study of lizards is (A) Herpetology (B) Saurology (C) Nidology (D) Ichthyology Study of reptiles is (A) Rhitiology (B) Herpetology (C) Nidology (D) Ichthyology A snake ossesses (A) No cye lids (B) Movable eye lids (C) Immovable eye lids (D) Only nictitating membrane. Which of the following reptiles has four chambered heart? (A) Turtle (B) Crocodile (C) Sphenodon (D) King cobra. All reptiles arc (A) Poikilothermal and amniotic (B) Homoiothermal and (C) Poik and anamniotic (D) tiomoloihermal and anamniotic. The largest lizard is (A) Varanus (B) Heloderma (C) Ophisaurus (D) Chamaeleon A house Jizard can climb a smooto wall due to the proscence of (A) Suckers and mouth (B) Claws on digits (C) Adhesive lamellar pads on digits (D) Sticky ventral side of the animal. A parietal eye is found in (A) Sphenodon (B) Uromastix (C) Garden lizard (D) Marine Turtle. Which one of the snakes has remnants of hind legs? (A) Cobra (B) Python (C) Typhiops (D) Bungarus. A primitive mammal like fossil reptile of carboniferous period was (A) Dimetrodon (B) Rum apithecus (C) Rhynchocephalia (D) Stegosauius. Common Wall Lizard is (A) Heniidaclylus (B) Calotes (C) Heloderma (D) Ophisaurus. A limbless lizard is (A) Ophisaums (B) Amblyrhyncus (C) Draco (D) Uromastix. An exclusive marine chelonia is (A) Terrapin (B) Tortoise (C) Soft-shelled Turtle (D) Green Turtle. Ophisaurus/Glass Snake is (A) Semitransparent snake (B) Limbless amphibian (C) Limbless lizard (D) Fish. Age of dinosaurs is (A) Permian (B) Jurassic (C) Triassic (D) Cretaceous Ornithischia contains (A) Aquatic reptiles (B) Reptile hippcd dinosaurs (C) Bird hipped dinosaurs (D) Wingless birds. Reptilian hipped dinosaurs belong to (A) Saurischia (B) Lacertilia (C) Ophidia (D) Rhyncocephalia. A carn dinosaur was (A) Tyrannosaurus (B) Brontosaurus (C) Stcgosaui (D) All the above. Alligator is found in

24. 25. 26.

27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

(A) Ocean (B) Estuaries (C) Rivers and lakes (D) All the above. Alligator occurs in (A) India (B) America and China (C) Africa (D) Australia. Gavialis lives in (A) Sea (B) Rivers (C) Ponds and pools (D) All the above. Gavialis is characterised by (A) Prolonged snout (B) Green upper surface (C) Pot like anterior enlargement of snout in males (D) All the above. Snout is blunt in (A) Crocodile (B) Gavial (C) Alligator (D)All the above. Crocodile swims in water by means of (A) Laterally compressed tail (B) Webbed hind limbs (C) Webbed fore limbs (D) Both A and B. In crocodilia, the teeth are (A) Thecodant (B) Unequal (C) Not used for mastication (D) All the above. Head is prolonged to form snout in members of crocodilia for (A) Separating nostrils from eyes (B) Keeping head out of water while swimming (C) Increasing gape (D) None of the above. In crocodilians fore limbs are (A) Webbed and five digited (B) Webbed and four digited (C) Nonwebbed and five digited (D) Nonwebbed and four digited. Crocodiles resemble mammals in having (A) Urinary bladder (B) Longitudinal cloaca (C) Diaphragm (D) Mixing of arterial and venous bloods. Diaphragm found in crocodiles is (A) Incomplete (B) Complete (C) Present in the abdomen (D) Found inside thorax. Bony plates with horny epidermal scales occur in (A) Lizards (B) Crocodiles (C) Snakes (D) Both B and C. Green Turtle is known so because its (A) Shell is green (B) Fat is green (C) Body is green (D) All the above. Green Turtle is (A) Testudo (B) Tn onyx (C) Lissemys (D) Chelonfa. A chelone in which head cannot be withdrawn completely inside the shell is (A) Testudo (B) Clzelonia (C) Trionyx (D) Both B and C. The upper dorsal part of chelone shell is (A) Carapace (B) Plastron (C) Epivalve (D) Epitheca. Limbs are webbed for swimming in (A) Tortoise (B) Turtle (C) Terrapin (D) All the above. Limbs are modified into flippers in (A) Turtle (B) Terrapin (C) Tortoise (D) Crocodile. Chelones resemble birds in having (A) Four chambered heart (B) Beaked toothless jaws (C) Inelastic lungs (D) Presence of diaphragm. Tuatara belongs to (A) India (B) America (C) Africa (D) New Zealand. Tuatara Sphenodon is peculiar in having (A) Crest (B) Laterally compressed tail (C) Median eye (D) All the above. Which one is a living fossil

45. 46. 47. 48. 49.

50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

(A) Sphenodon (B) Hydrophis (C) Thonyx (D) Testudo. Snake produces hissing sound through (A) Vocal cords (B) Forceful expulsion of air from lungs (C) Forceful expulsion of air from narcs (D) Forceful inhalation. Snakes have (A) Highly developed lungs (B) Right lung reduced (C) Left lung reduced (D) None of the above. Permanently. ‘open’ or functional eyes found in (A) Snakes (B) Lizards (C) Crocodiles (D) Testudians. Snake regularly protrudes its forked tongue through a notch in (A) Upper jaw (B) Lower jaw (C) Jointly by upper and lower jaw (D) Opening of mouth. Snakes have movable jaw bones for (A) Wide gape (B) Crushing of their prey (C) Protection from violent movements of prey (D) All the above. Snakes lack (A) Scales (B) Tympanum (C) Ribs (D) Locomotion. Snakes regularly protrude their tongue as the latter is (A) Sensory (B) Catches small insects (C) Excretory (D) Dissipates body heat. Poison is neurotoxic in snakes (A) Viper (B) Cobra (C) Krait (D) Both B and C. Snake poison is hemotoxic in (A) Python (B) Viper (C) Eryx (D) Ptyas A poisonous lizard is A) Varanus (B) Phi ynosoma (C) Helodenna (D) Ophisaurus. Gila Monster Helodernza occurs in (A) Africa (B) America (C) Central Asia (D) China. Which animal ejects a stream of blood on being irritated (A) Horned Toad Phiynosoma (B) Glass Snake Ophisau (C) Indian Monitor Varanus (D) Garden Lizard Calotes. The lizard famous for changing its colour is (A) Wall lizard (B) Chwnaeleon (C) Heloderma (D) Uromastix. The lizard having over 20 cm long tongue is (A) Wall lizard (B) Varanus (C) Calotes (D) Chamaekon. The largest lizard is (A) Chwnaeleon zeylanicus (B) Helodenna suspectum (C) Varanus komodensis (D) Varanus monitor. A lizard where head and neck turn red on being excited is (A) Calotes (B) Chamaeleon (C) Varanus (D) Uromastir. Which one is known as Blood Sucker (A) Hemidactylus (B) Draco (C) Garden Lizard (D) Horned Toad. Draco is (A) Garden Lizard (B) Flying Dragon (C) Flying Lizard (D) Both B and C. Flying Lizard is able to glide in air with the help of (A) Wings (B) Patagia (C) Webbed digits (D) Flat tail. The regenerated tail of Wall Lizard is (A) Without vertebrae (B) Similar to normal tall (C) Stumpy (D) Very long. Double Headed Snake is

66.

(A) Typhlos (B) Ptyas The second head of Sand Boa is (A) Nonfunctional (B) Blunt tall end

(C) Eryx

(D) Bungwus.

(C) Fully functional

(D) Without poison fangs.

Revision Questions 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86.

A nonpoisonous snake is (A) Viper (B) Python (C) Bun (D) Sea snake. The most poisonous snake is (A) Pat snake (B) Tree snake (C) Krait (D) Python. Snakes do not have (A) Girdles (B) Eye lids (C) Limbs (D) All the above. Poisonous fangs of a snake are modified (A) Canines (B) Nasals (C) Mandible (D) Maxillary teeth. Snake moulting consists of (A) Stratum germinativum (B) Dermis (C) Epidermis (D) Cornified cells A poisonous lizard is (A) Helodenna (B) Ancistrodon (C) Chanlaeleon (D) Varaniss. Common trait amongst reptiles, fishes and amphibians is (A) Gills (B) Scales (C) Laying of eggs (D) Shelled eggs. Amniota includes (A) Reptiles and mammals (B) Birds and mammals (C) Reptiles and birds (D) Reptiles, birds and mammals. Typhlos is (A) Sea Snake (C) Blind Snake (B) Glass Snake (D) Grass Snake. Vestigial hind limbs occur in the snake (A) Krait (B) Russel’s Viper (C) Python (D) Cobra. Marine poisonous snake ‘is characterised by (A) Body colour (B) Pit between nostrils (C) Round tail (D) Laterally compressed tail. Teeth conducting poison in a snake are called (A) Bunodont (B) Canines (C) Fangs (D) Heterodont. The reptile which glides in the air is (A) Phiynosoma (B) Calotes (C) Draco (D) Anguis Some reptiles show autotomy which means (A) Signal for courtship (B) State of starvation prior to death (C) Signal for charging (D) Voluntary breaking tail to confuse enemy Which is not a poisonous snake? (A) Krait (B) Viper (C) Rat Snake (D) Cobra. Most favourable land adaptation in reptiles is (A) Lungs (B) Scales (C) Moist skin (D) Pentadactyl limbs. A depression or aperture where digestive urinary and reproductive ducts open is (A) Cloaca (B) Anus (C) Vestibule (D) Gonopore. Cold blooded animal is the one which has (A) Cold blood (B) Low .body temperature (C) Cold habitat (D) No regulatory system of body temperature. Which is correct for Indian snakes? (A) Only sea snakes are poisonous (B) Only. sea snakes are nonpoisonous (C) All sea snakes are poisonous (D) All water snakes are poisonous. Heart can be three or four chambered in the vertebrate group (A) Fishes (B) Salamanders (C) Reptilia (D) Birds.

87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.

Outside mammals, diaphragm is also present in (A) Crocodiles (B) Birds (C) Fishes (D) Toads. Gavial/Ghariyal is found in (A) Fresh water (B) Brackish water (C) Sea water (D) Terrestrial habitats Golden era/age of reptiles is (A) Palaeozoic (B) Mesozoic (C) Recent (D) Proterozoic. Jacobson’s organ is related to (A) Taste (B) Sight (C) Touch (D) Olfaction/Smell. Mesozoic era was dominated by (A) Gymnosperms (B) Mammals (C) Dinosaurs (D) Fishes. Horn Toad is (A) Reptile (B) Mammal (C) Amphibian (D) Fish Cold blooded animal is (A) Man (B) Cattle (C) Pigeon (D) Snake. Poison glands of snake are modified (A) Linguals (B) Sublinguals (C) Maxillaries (D) Parotids. Which one contains the thecodonts? (A) Lacertilia (B) Crocodilia (C) Anapsida (D) Ophidia. Turtles are nearest to (A) Lizards than snakes (B) Sphenodon than lizards (C) Dipnoi than Ayes (D) Crocodiles than lizards, snakes and mammals. Which one is not a snake? (A) Krait (B) Glass snake (C) Rattle snake (D) Viper Internal fertilization occurs in higher animals due to (A) Copulatory organs (B) Ensure fertilization (C) Protection of semen (D) Terrestrial residence Carapace occurs in (A) Toad (B) Frog (C) Bird (D) Tortoise/Testudo. Living fossil lizard of New Zeal and/Sphenodon belongs to (A) Rhyncocephalia (B) Squamata (C) Chelonia (D) Crocodilia. Cables versicobor is (A) Flying Lizard (B) Wall Lizard (C) Garden Lizard (D) Rock Lizard. Gharial is (A) Naja bungarus (B) Hernidaclylus flaviviridis (C) Rhacophorus leucomystax (D) Gavialis gangeticus Dinosaurs became extinct in (A) Permian (B) Jurassic (C) Triassic (D) Cretaceous. Which one is a living fossil? (A) Sphcnodon (B) Heboderma (C) Rabbit (D) Frog. Two extra cranial nerves occurring in amniotes are (A) Laryngeal and hypoglossal (B) Spinal accessory and hypoglossal (C) Hypoglossal and facial (D) Trigeminal and glossopharyngeal Vertebrae in sub-order ophidia are (A) Procoelous (B) Acoelous (C) Amphicoelous (D) Heterocoelus Organisms with amnion also possess other foetal membranes (A) Zona pellucida, vitclline membrane (B) Choroid, vitcilinc membrane (C) Zona pellucida, chorion (D) Allantois, chorion Urinary bladdet is absent in (A) Fishes (B) Snakes. (C) Crocodiles (D) All the above. Development which freed land vertebrates from water was (A) Four appendages (B) Four chambered heart (C) Cleidoic eggs (D) Lungs A limbless lizard is

111. 112.

113. 114. 115. 116.

117.

118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 126. 125. 127. 128. 129.

(A) Amblyrhynchus (B) Ophisaurus (C) Draco (D) Moloch Poison glands of snakes are modified (A) Salivary glands (B) Lacrymal glands (C) Thyroid glands (D) Oil glands. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both arc true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C),. and both wrong (D).Assertion. Snakes exposed to gamma rays become nonpoisonous. Reason. Poisonous snakes have poison glands and a pair of fangs. They are affected by gamma rays. (A) (B) (C) (D) Ventricle is incompletely divided in (A) Amphibians (B) Bony fish (C) Cartilaginous fish (D) Reptiles (E) Crocodiles Heart is four chambered in reptile (A) Crocodile (B) Frog (C) Snake (D) Lizard. Sinus venosus is characteristic of (A) Reptiles and birds (B) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles (C) Birds only (D) Birds and mammals Choose the correct one (A) Optic nerve is the shortest (B) In amniotes the last cranial nerve is spinal accessory (C) In nonamniotes the last cranial nerve is vagus (D) Olfactory nerves have mixed fibres. Given below are assertion and reason. Poiflt out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion is true but reason is wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Salamander and Sphenodon are classified as reptiles. Reason. Their skin is naked, moist and glandular. (A) (B) (C) (D) Ophisaums belongs to (A) Amphibia (B) Pisces (C) Reptiia (C) Ayes. Which of the’ following institutes prepares antivenins? (A) Flofkin, Mumhai (B) CDRI Luckhnow (C) CIT Lucknow (D) CIV Pune. Venom of Cobra affects (A) Respiratory system (B) Nervous system (C) Circulatory system (D) Digestive system A post-anal tail is found in (A) Scorpion (B) Earthworm (C) Snake (D) Lepisma. Crocodile, Alligator and Tortoise belong to (A) Chelonia (B) Rhyncocephalia (C) Rcptilia (D) Ayes. Skull is diapsid in (A) Crocodile, Turtle and Seymouria (B) Natrix, Draco and Turtle (C) Calotes, cobra and Varanosaurus (D) Sphenodc Crocodile and Viper. Autotomy occurs in (A) Cockroach (B) House Lizard (C) House Fly. (D) Pigeon. Dentition of Crocodile is (A) Acrndon (B) Thecodont (C) Bunodont (D) Pleurodont. In which subclass of Reptilia, the skull possesses, a solid roof (A) Anapsida (B) Diapsida (C) Parapsida (D) Synapsida. Turtles belong to (A) Pisces (B) Arthropoda (C) Mollusca (D) Reptilia. Crocodile heart is (A) Two chan (B) Three chambered (C) Four chambered (D) Multichambered. King Cobra is

130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141.

142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.

(A) Naja hunnnah (B) Naja naja (C) Vipera russelli (D) Bungarus coerulus. Loreal pit of Vipers is (A) Thermoreceptor (B) Gustatoreceptor (C) Photoreceptor (D) Phonoreceptor. Dinosaurs were dominant during (A) Jurassic (B) Cretaceous (C) Triassic (D) Palaeocene Which is vestigial in Python (A) Scales (B) Hind limbs (C) Teeth (D) Nose. Most dinosaurs became extinct in (A) Early triassic (B) Late Triassic (C) Late jurassic (D) Cretaceous Heart of Crocodile consists of (A) One auricle and one ventricle (B) One auricle and two ventricles (C) Two auricles and one ventricle (D) Two auricles and two ventricles Snake that builds a nest is (A) Marine and poisonous (B) Terrestrial and nonpoisonous (C) Terrestrial and poisonous (D) Fresh-water and nonpoisonous Venom of Viper affects (A) Nervous system (B) Circulatory system(C) Respiratory system(D) None of the above. Which one is correct matching (A) Chainaeleon — Binocular vision (B) Varanus — Prehensile tail (C) Helodenna — Poison gland (D) House Lizard - Four chambered heart A four chambered heart is not found in (A) Snakes (B) Birds (C) Mammils (D) Crcodile Zoological name of common Indian Krait is (A) Bungan coeruleus (B) Naja naja (C) Viper rasselli (D) Ophiophagus hann (Orissa 2005) To which category do the dinosaurs belongs (A) Amphibians (B) Reptiles (C) Birds (D) Mammals: A lizard like member of reptilia is sitting on a tree with its tail coiled around a twig. This animal should be (A) Jiemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism (B) Varanus showing mimicry (C) Garden Lizard (Calotes) showing camouflage (D) Chamoeleon showing protective colouration Reptile living on water as well as on land is (A) Python (B) Sphenodon (C) Turtle/Tortoise (D) Frog. Adaptation to colour vision occurs in (A) Reptiles (B) Aves (C) Mammals (D) All the above Choose the correct statements. (1) Venom of Cobra is neurotoxic (ii) Venom of sea snake is neurotoxic (iii) Venom of Viper is haemotoxic (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iii) Which group possesses an exoskeleton of scales and paired copulatory organs (A) Shark (B) Urodela (C) Lizards (D) Urochordata Calote; versicolor is (A) Reptile (B) Pisces (C) Protochordate (D) Amphibian Chameleon belongs to (A) Aniphibia (B) Reptilia (C) Birds (D) Arthropoda Syndactyly, prehensile tall and long protrusible tongue occur in (A) Horse Fish (B) Rhesus Monkey (C) Archaeopteryx (D) Chameleon. An animal having both exoskeleton and endoskeleton is (A) Fresh water Mussel (B) Frog (C) Tortoise (D) Jelly Fish Terrestrial, poikilothermal animal with cleidoic eggs is

151. 152. 153.

(A) Bufo bufo (B) Calotes versicolor (C) Columba livia (D Catla catla. Group having amniotes only is (A) Bufo, Fish, Frog (B) Fro& Fowl, Human (C) Wolf, Fowl, Rabbit (D) Vish, Frog, Fowl A marine dinosaur is (A) Ichthyosaur (B) Pelycosaur (C) Pterosaur (I)) Tyrannosaurus. Which is not common between Newt and Hemidactylus? (A) Body divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail (B) Trunk has two- pairs of limbs for locomotion (C) Heart is 3-chambered (D) Head ‘has a pair of eyes and tympanic membrane

1) B

2) B

3) A

ANSWER KEY 5) B 6) B

4) C

7) A

8) B

9) A

10)

A

11)

C 12)

A 13)

B

14)

A

15)

A 16)

A 17)

D

18)

C

19)

B 20)

C

21)

A 22)

A 23)

C

24)

B

25)

B 26)

D 27)

C

28)

D

29)

D 30)

C

31)

A 32)

C 33)

A

34)

B

35)

D 36)

D 37)

B

38)

A

39)

C 40)

A

41)

B

42)

D 43)

C

44)

A

45)

C 46)

B

47)

A

48)

B

49)

A 50)

B

51)

A 52)

D 53)

B

54)

C

55)

B 56)

A 57)

B

58)

D

59)

C 60)

A

61)

C 62)

D 63)

B

64)

A

65)

C 66)

B

67)

B

68)

C

69)

D 70)

D

71)

D 72)

A 73)

C

74)

D

75)

C 76)

C 77)

D

78)

C

79)

C 80)

D

81)

C 82)

B

83)

A

84)

D

85)

C 86)

C 87)

A

88)

A

89)

B 90)

D

91)

C 92)

A 93)

D

94)

D

95)

B 96)

D 97)

B

98)

A

99)

D 100) A

101) C 102) D 103) D

104) A

105)

B 106)

A 107) D

108) D

109) C 110)

111) A 112) A 113) D

114) A

115)

B 116)

C 117)

118)

119)

121) C 122) C 123) D

124) B

125)

A 126)

B

127) D

128) C

129) A 130) A

131) A 132) B

133) D

134) D

135)

C 136)

B

137) C

138) A

139) A 140) B

141) D 142) C 143) D

144) A

145)

C 146)

A 147) B

148) D

149) C 150) B

151) C 152) A 153) C

154)

155)

156)

158)

159)

157)

D

C

B

A 120) B

160)

Ayes—The Birds 1. Which is a missing link bôtween birds and reptiles (A) Strutlzio (B) Casuarias (C) Apteryx (D) Arc haeopterjx. 2. Which is a world champion bird (A) Pelicanus (B) Sterna (C) Capella (D) None of the above. 3. The smallest bird is (A) Cuban bee (B) Sun bird (C) Passer (D) None. 4. The bird that hibernates in winter is (A) Poorwill (Caprirnulgus) (B) Arctic Tern (Sterna) (C) Albatross (D) None, of. the above. 5. The largest bird is (A) Pavo (B) Strut hio (C) Pelican (D) None of the above. 6. Which is the flightless bird? (A) Fowl (B) Passer (C) Kiwi (D) None of the above. 7. Teeth are absent in the jaws of (A) Amphibians (B) Fishes (C) Birds (D) Mammals. 8. Thin walled air sacs are connected with lungs in (A) Amphibians (B) Reptiles (C) Birds (D) Mammals. 9. Pneumatic skeleton is found in (A) Amphibians/Rana (B) Reptiles/Wall Lizard (C) Birds/Pigeon (D) Mammals/Whale 10. Peacock is (A) Passer dornesticus (B) Pavo cristatus (C) Archaeopterx lithographica (D) Psittacula eupatrica. 11. Which one of the birds is viviparous (A) Ostrich (B) Penguin (C) Albatross (D) None. 12. Which of the birds has teeth (A) Pelican (B) Ostrich (C) Albatross (D) Archaeopteiyt 13. Birdman of India/Most famous ornithologist of India is (A) Salim Au (B) Vishwanathan (C) Kashyap (D) Hussain. 14. Which of the following can fly backwards (A) Penguin (B) Albatross (C) Humming bird (D) Elephant bird. 15. Birds do not possess (A) Teeth (B) Urinary Bladder (C) Gail Bladder (D) All the above. 16. The avian/reptilian eyes are peculiar because of the presence of (A) Pecten (B) Large number of cones (C) Large pupil (D) Sensitive retina. 17. The migration of birds is initiated by (A) Shortage of food (B) Purpose of breeding (C) Search of shelter (D) Day length affecting the endocrine gland 18. Migration of birds is studied under (A) Ornithology (B) Nidology (C) Phenology (D) Ecology. 19. The vertebrae of birds are characteristically (A) Heterocoelous (B) Acoelous (C) Opisthocoelous (D) Amphicoelous. 20. The skull of birds is (A) Monocondylic (B) Dicondylic (C) Amphicondylic (D) None of the above. 21. The power of young birds to return to the original grounds of parents is (A) Intelligence and intuition (B) False conception (C) Instinct only (D) Intuition and instinct. 22. A bird with movable upper jaw is (A) Vulture (B) Parrot (C) Sparrow (D) Pigeon. 23. A famous bird sanctuary is

24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

(A) Gir forest (B) Corbett National Park (C) Keoladeo Ghana Sanctuary (D) Bhandipur National Park. The fastest flying bird is (A) Albatross (B) Micropodus (C) Psittacula (D) Falcon. In birds, crop is (A) Modified oesophagus (B) Modified stomach (C) Early part of small intestine (D) Rectum Gizzard of birds is part of (A) Oesophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine (D) Large intestine. In birds, crop is used for (A) Digesting food (B) Crushing food (C) Storing and softening food (D) All the above. Bird’s milk is (A) Product of crop in female (B) Product of crop in male (C) Used for feeding the young ones (D) All the above. Voice box of birds is (A) Larynx (B) Syrinx (C) Pharynx (D) Synaptene. Syrinx is present in the region of (A) Origin of trachea (B) Middle of trachea (C) End of trachea (D) End of bronchi. Which one is developed in ayes (A) Both the aortas (B) Right aorta (C) Left aorta (D) A complex of three aortas. Avian pelvic girdle is (A) Broad (B) Short (C) Elongated (D) Vertical. Wish bone is a bone found in birds (A) Elbngated pelvic girdle (B) Keeled pectoral girdle (C) Product of fused clavicles (D) Knee bone. Flight feathers are (A) Contours (B) Quills (C) Coverts (D) Filoplumes Remiges are (A) Flight feathers of wings (B) Flight feathers of tail (C) Small feathers similar to quills (D) Small feathers that cover the body. Bastard wing is (A) Injured wing (B) Wing in which barbules get disconnected (C) Tuft of small feathers on last digit (D) Tuft of small feathers on first digit. Feathers covering the body of a newly hatched bird are (A) Coverts (B) Contours (C) Down feathers (D) Filoplumes. In birds, urinary bladder is present in (A) Parrot (B) Ostrich (C) American Rhea (D) Both B and C. Ovary and oviduct functional in birds is (A) Left (B) Right (C) Right ovary, left oviduct (D) Right ovary, both oviducts. In birds, the lungs are (A) Spongy (B) Spongy and inelastic (C) Solid (D) Solid and elastic. Pygostyle is complex fqrmed by fusion of (A) Thoracic and lumbar vertebrae (B) Tail vertebrae (C) Skull bones (D) All the above. Rhampotheca is (A) Scaly skin of bird legs (B) Feathery tail of birds (C) Horny sheath covering the beak (D) Naked area near the beak. Sternum of birds is prolonged to form boat-shaped structure called (A) Keel (B) Retrices (C) Xiphioid (D) Dagger

44 45. 46. 47.

48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58.

59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64.

Bones of birds are (A) Solid and heavy (B) Solid and light (C) Spongy and light (D) Spongy and heavy. Archaeopterp was discovered by (A) Darwin (B) Wagner (C) Williamson (D) Lyell. Archaeopteiyx lived on earth (A) 150 million years ago (B) 250 million years ago (C) 200 million years ago (D) 100 million years ago. A reptilian character present in Archaeopte is (A) Beak with teeth (B) Absence of pygostyle (C) Distinct digits in wings and claws on its fingers (D) All the above. A wingless bird is (A) Ostrich (B) Penguin (C) Hoopoe (D) Gallus. Each foot of Ostrich has (A) Four digits (B) Three digits (C) Two unequal digits (D) Two equal digits. Stiuthio is found in (A) Africa (B) Arabia (C) Both A and B (D) Turkey. Second largest bird is (A) Emu (B) Cassowary (C) Rhea (D) Ostrich Flightless birds lack (A) WIngs (B) Keel in Sternum (C) Both A and B (D) Feathers. Flightless bird Rhea is found in (A) Australia (B) South America (C) North America (D) Africa. National bird of New Zealand is (A) Kiwi (B) Emu (C) Cassowary (D) Ostrich. Aptei australis is (A) National bird of New Zealand (B) Flightless bird (C) Nocturnal (D) All the above Penguin is found in (A) Antarctica (B) Arctic (C) Tundra (D) Australia Penguin is (A) Flightless bird (B) Winged bird (C) Both A and B (D) Wingless bird. Penguins possess (A) Flipper like wings (B) Pouch for holding eggs (C) Two forward and two backwardlydirected toes (D) Long legs. Lungs without air sacs occur in (A) Sparrow (B) Pea Cock (C) Penguin (D) Falcon. Dove is (A) Columba. (B) Streptopelia (C) Passer (D) Psittacula. Koel or Cuckoo is (A) Passer (B) Psittacula (C) Eudynamis (D) Hierococcyx. Indian Nightingale is (A) Streptopelia (B) Pavo (C) Columba (D) Eudynamis. National Bird of India is (A) Pavo cristatus (B) Psittacula eupatoria (C) Streptopelia decaoto (D) Hierococcp varius. In Eudynamis (A) Male is black while female is white spotted brown (B) Female is black while male is white spotted brown

65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 86. 84. 85. 87. 88.

(C) Both male and female are black (D) Both the sexes are dark brown with white spots. Song Ku-oo of Eu4ynwnis is produced by (A) Female only (B) Male only (C) Both the sexes (D) Only young female birds Koel or Cuckoo lays eggs in the nest of (A) Weaver Bird (B) Cattle Egret (C) Crow (D) Kite. Brood parasite is (A) Crow (B) Pigeon (C) House Sparrow (D) Koel. Webbed toes occur in (A) Gallus (B) Anas (C) Ploceus (D) Chonotis. Exclusively scavenger bird is (A) Vulture (B) Owl (C) Kite (D) Duck. A bird with a number of domesticated varieties is (A) Eudynwnis (B) Pavo (C) Psittacula (D) Columba. In Bubo the head bears (A). Large ears (B) A tuft of feathers (C) Two tufts of feathers (D) Comb and Wattle. The legs of Great Horned Owl possess a covering of (A) Scales (B) Feathers (C) Hair (D) None. Owl is (A) Diurnal bird (B) Vespertine bird (C) Crepuscular bird (D) Nocturnal bird. Which one is wading bird (A) Grey Heron (B) Kingfisher (C) Flamingo (D) All the above. Grey Heron can be differentiated from Flamingo by A) Colour (B) Standing position (C) Beak (D) All the above. Which wading bird is omnivorous (A) Flamingo (B) King Fisher (C) Grey Heron (D) None of the above. Flight muscles of bird are attached to (A) Clavicle (B) Keel of sternum (C) Scapula (D) Coracoid. Birds have bipedal locomotion as it (A) Increases rate of locomotion (B) Reduces weight (C) Spares fore limbs for flight (D) Provides more support to body. Wish bone of birds is from (A) Pelvic girdle (B) Skull (C) Hind limbs (D) Pectoral girdle/clavicles. Beak is toothed in (A) Pelican (B) Kiwi (C) Ostrich (D) Archaeopte Sound box of birds is called (A) Pygostyle (B) Larynx (C) Syrinx (D) Synsacrum. Both male and female pigeons secrete milk through (A) Salivary glands (B) Modified sweat glands (C) Crop (D) Gizzard Feet of King Fisher are modified for (A) Wading. (B) Perching (C) Running (D) Catching. Penguin occurs in (A) Australia (B) Antarctica (C) Africa (D) America. Branch of biology dealing with the study of birds is (A) Anthropology (B) Herpetology (C) Ornithology (D) Onchology. Bird vertebrae are (A) Acoelous (B) Heterocoelous ( Amphicoelous (D) Procoelous. Bird differs from bat in the absence of (A) Homoiothermy (B) Four chambered heart (C) Tracheae (D) Diaphragm What is common between Ostrich, Penguin and Kiwi?

89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113.

(A) Running birds (B) Migratory birds (C) Flightless birds (D) Four toed birds. The largest eggs belong to (A) Elephant (B) Dinosaur (C) Whale (D) Ostrich. KiwilApteiyx occurs in (A) Australia (B) North India (C) New Zealand. (D) South Africa. Bone marrow does not occur in (A) Fishes (B) Birds (C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles. Preen gland occurs in (A) Reptilia (B) Ayes (C) Pisces (D) Mammalia. Flying animal is (A) Arboreal (B) Fossorial (C) Volant (D) Terrestrial. National Bird of India is (A) House sparrow (B) Peacock. (C) Hornbill (D) Black Swan. Which one is not a specific trait of birds? (A) Bipedal locomotion (B) Toothless beak (C) Wings (D) Feathers The sharpest vision is that of (A) Vulture (B) Owl (C) Shark (D) Bat. Cassowary occurs in (A) S.W. Australia (B) New Guinea (C) New Zealand (D) Africa. Quill feathers at the base of wing quills are (A) Down feathers (B) Filoplumes (C) Coverts (D) Barbüles. Four chambered heart occurs in (A) Amphibia (B) Chelonia (C) Birds and Crocodilia (D) Ophidia. Extinct bird Dodo belonged to (A) Australia (B) India (C) Indonesia (D) Mauritius. Long hollow bones connected by passages are characteristic of (A) Ayes (B) Mammals (C) Reptiles (D) All land vertebrates. Which is not detectable in birds? (A) Pectoral girdle (B) Pelvic girdle (C) Fore limbs (D) Hind limbs. Renal portal system is absent in (A) Amphibians (B) Reptiles (C) Birds (D) Both A and B. Archaeopfr is connecting link between (A) Reptiles and birds (B) Reptiles and mammals (C) Fishes and reptiles (D) Chordates and nonchordates. Flightless aquatic birds belong to (A) Ratitae (B) Impennae (C) Carinatae (D) Odontogni Bird eggs are (A) Alecithal (B) Isolecithal (C) Homolecithal (D) Telolecithal Skull of bird is (A) Dicondylic (B) Monocondylic (C) Amphicondylic (D) Tricondylic Pneumatic bones occur in (A) Whale (B) Dolphin (C) Peacock/Pigeon (D) Snake. Evidence for the reptilian origin of birds the occurrence of (A) Scales (B) Hairs (C) Claws (D) Feathers. Birds are able to recognise their home through (A) Memory (B) Smell (C) Orientation of magnetic field (D) Eye sight All animals having feathers are (A) Birds (B) Bats (C) Butterflies (D) Beetles. Archaeoptetyx is (A) Extinct mammal (B) Extinct bird (C) Star Fish (D) Marine fish In which group are animals more alike

114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124.

125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132.

(A) Mammals (B) Birds (C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles. In which group, high regulated body tempe rature and limited fat reserve, make a large requirement of food high in energy value (A) Mammals (B) Fishes (C) Reptiles (D) Birds Which is a flightless bird? (A) Albatross (B) Emu (C) Crane (D) Flamingo. Vertebrates having air sacs are (A) Birds (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Mammals. Besides pneumatic bones, another useful flight adaptation in birds is (A) Syrinx (B) Pygostyle (C) Furcula (D) Quill feathers. Toes of Owl are adapted for (A) Perching (B) Cursorial (C) Raptorial (D) Walking Ovary is single in (A) Mammals (B) Ayes (C) Reptiles (D) Amphibians Urinary bladder is absent in (A) Amphibians (B) Mammals (C) Lizards (D) Ayes. Feathers present over nestlings areS (A) Down (B) Contour (C) Filop (D) Quill Pneumatic bones, four chambered heart and feathers occur in (A) Cyclostomata (B) Ayes (C) Mammalia (D) Reptilia. Archaeopteiyx lived during (A) Cretaceous (B) Triassic (C) Permian (D) Jurassic. Given below are assertion and -reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. AU birds, except the ones like Koel (Cuckoo) build nests for retiring and taking rest during night time (day time for nocturnal). Reason. Koel lays its eggs in the nests of Tailor Bird (A) (B) (C) (D) Assertion. Owls can move freely during night Reason. They have large number of rods on their retina (A) (B) (C) (D) Birds have reptilian ancestry as they have (A) Four chambered heart (B) Shelled eggs (C) Beak and feathers (D) Both A and B. Which one is not a bird (A) Himalayan-Quail (B) Albatross (C) Bufo (D) Magpie A distinct feature of birds is (A) Feathers (B) Claws (C) Beak without teeth (D) Wings Function of amnion in birds is (A) Nutrition (B) Excretion (C) Protection (D) None. Which one is group of warm blooded (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Birds. Which one has a raft-like keel, a preen gland and a penis? (A) Dromaius (B) Passer (C) Struthio (D) Tinanzus. Match the columns Coloumn I Column II a) Limbicis reptile i) Lamprey b) Jawless vertebrate ii) Salamander c) Amphibian iii) Snake d) Cartilaginos fish iv) Shark e) Plightless bird v) Ostrich (A) a  (i), (b)  (ii), c  (iii), d  (iv), e  (v)

133. 134. 135. 136. 137.

138.

(B) a  (ii), (b)  (i), c  (iii), d  (iv), e  (v) (C) a  (iii), (b)  (i), c  (ii), d  (iv), e  (v) (D) a  (iv), (b)  (iii), c  (ii), d  (i), e  (v) (E) a  (v), (b)  (ii), c  (iii), d  (iv), e  (i) Some vertebrae of birds are fused to form (A) Sacrum (B) Synsacrum (C) Coccyx Saurus is also known as (A) Flamingo (B) Crane (C) Spoonbill Largest bird is (A) Kiwi (B) Emu (C) Penguin Scientific name of Peacock is (A) Psittacula krameri (B) Coivus splendens (C) Pavo cristatus (D) Columba livia. Which avian feature indicates reptilian ancestry? (A) Two special —chambers, crop and gizzard in digestive tract (B) Eggs with calcareous shells (C) Scales on hind limbs (D) Four chambered heart Select the odd number from the list (A) Bubo bubo (B) Varanus bengalensis(C) Gallus gallus

(D) None of the above. (D) Plover. (D) Ostrich.

(D) Pavo cristatus.

ANSWER – KEY 1) D

2) B

3) A

4) A

5) B

6) C

7) C

8) C

9) C

10)

B

11)

D 12)

D 13)

A

14)

C

15)

D 16)

A 17)

D

18)

C

19)

A 20)

A

21)

C 22)

B

23)

C

24)

B

25)

A 26)

B

27)

C

28)

D

29)

B 30)

C

31)

B

32)

C 33)

C

34)

B

35)

A 36)

D 37)

C

38)

D

39)

A 40)

B

41)

B

42)

C 43)

A

44)

C

45)

B 46)

A 47)

D

48)

A

49)

C 50)

C

51)

A 52)

C 53)

B

54)

A

55)

D 56)

A 57)

C

58)

A

59)

C 60)

B

61)

C 62)

D 63)

A

64)

A

65)

A 66)

C 67)

D

68)

B

69)

A 70)

D

71)

C 72)

B

73)

D

74)

D

75)

D 76)

A 77)

B

78)

C

79)

D 80)

D

81)

C 82)

C 83)

A

84)

C

85)

B 86)

B

87)

D

88)

C

89)

D 90)

C

91)

B

B

C

94)

B

95)

A 96)

A 97)

B

98)

C

99)

C 100) D

92)

93)

101) A 102) C 103) C

104) A

105)

B 106)

D 107) B

108) C

109) A 110)

111) A 112) B

113) B

114) D

115)

B 116)

A 117)

118)

119)

121) A 122) B

123) D

124) C

125)

A 126)

D 127) C

128) A

129) C 130) D

131) D 132) C 133) B

134) B

135)

D 136)

C 137) C

138) B

139)

D

C

C

B 120) D 140)

Mammalia 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 11. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

Which animal in India has become extinct? (A) Rhinoceros (B) Cheetah (C) Wolf (D) Giraffe. The respiratory organs in aquatic whale are (A) Gills (B) Lungs (C) Trachea (D) Skin. The tusk of elephant is formed from (A) Skull (B) Canine (C) Incisors (D) Snout. The mammals that does not possess I cervical vertebrae is (A) Horse (B) Giraffe (C) Elephant (D) Manatee. Ultrasonic sound is differentiated by (A) Cat (B) Dog (C) Bat (D) Bird. Mammals are characterised by (A) Hair on the body (B) Mammary glands (C) External glands (D) All the above. In mammals diaphragm makes a partition between (A) Lungs and stomach (B) Stomach and heart (C) Thoacic and abdominal cavity (D) Lungs and heart. Mammals have evolved from (A) Birds (B) Reptiles (C) Amphibians (D) None of the above. Dental formula of elephant is (A) 1.0.0.3/1.0.1.3 (B) 1.0.0.3/1.0.0.3 (3) 1.0.2.3/1.0.1.3 (D) 2.0.3.3/1.0.3.3 Mammal which never drinks water is (A) Kangaroo (B) Shrew (C) Kangaroo/Desert Rat (D) Hedgehog New World Monkey lacks (A) Tail (B) check pouches (C) Ischial callOsitics (D) Both B and C. A prehensile tail occurs in (A) Cebn4s (B) Macaca (C) Nyctecebus (D) Loris. Prosimians differ from simians in (A) Having claws instead of nails (B) Having claws in some of the digits (C) Having shorter hind limbs (D) Presence of tail. Hind limbs are slightly shorter than for limbs in (A) Lenrur (B) Loris (C) Rhesus Monkey (D) Tarsier. Broader inter-nasal septum occurs in (A) Rhesus Monkey (B) Baboon (C) Spider Monkey (D) Loris. Baboon differs from old world monkeys in (A) Presence of tail (B) Absence of ischial callosities (C) Absence of cheek pouches (D) Both B and C. Apes use while walking (A) Whole sole of feet(B) Edges of feet (C) Digits (D) Ankles. Which one uses knuckles while walking (A) Apes (B) Old world monkeys (C) New world monkeys (D) Prosimians. An ape having ischial callosities is (A) Gibbon (B) Orang Utan (C) Gorilla (D) Chimpanzee. The apes are usually (A) Insectivorous (B) Carnavorous (C) Herbivorous (D) Omnivorous. Brachiation is (A) Presence of longer arms (B) Presence of shorter arms (C) Occurrence of grasping hands (D) Jumping with the help of arms. The ape found in India is (A) Orang Utan (B) Gibbon (C) Chimpanzee (D) Gorilla Gorilla and Chimpanzee occur in

24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 3!. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

46.

(A) Australia (B) South America (C) Africa (D) China. Orang Utan is found in the forests of (A) Malayasia (B) Indonesia (C) Africa (D) America. Heavy belly is characteristic of primate (A) Gorilla (B) Orang Utan (C) Baboon (D) Gibbon. Hands and feet are of grasping type in (A) New World Monkey (B) Old World Monkey (C) Apes (D) All the primates. Ruminants belong to (A) Artiodactyla (B) Perissodactyla (C) Proboscidea (D) All the above. A nonruminant member of artiodactyla is (A) Camel (B) Pig (C) Hippopotamus (D) Both B and C. The stomach of Camel is (A) Five chambered (B) Four chambered (C) Three chambered (D) Two chambered. Pouches are found over the first two chambers of stomach in (A) Deer (B) Camel (C) Buffalo (D) Giraffe. Riverine Horse is (A) Rhino (B) Hippopotamus (C) Tapir (D) Zebra. Hollow horns occur in (A) Deer (B) Giraffe (C) Buffalo (D) All the above. Horns are deciduous in (A) Goat (B) Sheep (C) Cow (D) Deer. Even-toed unguligrade mammal which has nails instead of hoofs is (A) Giraffe (B) Camel (C) Cow (D) Sheep. Sweat is reddish in (A) Hippopotamus (B) Elephant (C) Rhino (D) Musk Deer. Moschus nwschife is (A) Hog Deer (B) Swamp Deer (C) Mus,k Deer (D) Barking Deer. Upper lip is cleft in (A) Hare (B) Rabbit (C) Camel (D) All the above. Fore limbs and neck are elongated in (A) Arabian Camel (B) Turkish Camel (C) Giraffe (D) African Elephant. The animal hunted for its horns is (A) Ceivus axis (B) Rhinoceros (C) Giraffa (D) Wild Boar. Horn of Rhino is (A) Keratinised bundle of hair (B) Bony (C) Cartilaginous (D) Partially bony and partially cartilaginous. Horse is (A) Digitigrade (B) Unguligrade (C) Plantigrade (D) None of the above. Zebra has stripes (A) Reddish (B) Whitish• (C) Greenish (D) Yellowish. What is characteristic of Zebra stripes (A) Longitudinal (B) Transverse (C) Specific for every animal (D) Oblique. Upper lip and nose is prolonged to form proboscis in (A) Giraffe (B) Tapir (C) Horse (D) Ass. Perissodactyla consists of (A) Even toed hoofed unguligrade mammals (B) Odd toed hoofed unguligrade mammals (C) Even toed non-hoofed digitigrade mammals (D) Odd toed non-hoofed digitigrade mammals. Human beings are

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53.

54.

55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66.

(A) Plantigrade (B) Digitigrade (C) Unguligrade (D) None of the above. A digitigrade animal is (A) Bear (B) Elephant (C) Cow (D) Deer. Horse does not possess (A) Gall bladder (B) Urinary bladder (C) Molars (D) Premolars. Animals in which premolars and molars are similar (A) Elephants (B) Otters (C) Jackals (D) Ass and Horse. Proboscis of Elephant is formed of (A) Prolongation of nose (B) Enlargement of upper lip (C) Both A and B (D) Prolongation of lower lip. Tusks of female Elephant are (A) Long (B) Small (C) Rudimentary (D) Absent. In male Elephant, the testes are (A) Abdominal (B) Scrotal (C) Change position with season (D) Change position with breeding. Elephant drinks water through (A) Proboscis (B) Mouth (C) First sucks water in proboscis and then pours the same in mouth (D) Elephant does not drink water. Gait of Elephant is different from others (A) The statement is wrong (B) There is no bending of limbs (C) There is bending of limbs in the region of ankles (D) Limbs bend both at knees and ankles. Tusks of Elephant are made of (A) Ivory (B) Hard bone (C) Fortified cartilage (D) Mixture of calcium and silica. In Elephant, external nares occur (A) Adjacent to mouth (B) Sides of trunk (C) Tip of proboscis (D) Base of trunk. Number of cervical vertebrae in Manatee is (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 6. Cervical vertebrae in Bradypus are (A)5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9. In Sea CowfManatee (A) Hind limbs are absent (B) Fore limbs are modified into paddles (C) Tail has tin (D) All the above. Seal (Phoca) is (A) Marine mammal (B) Carnivore (C) Both A and B (D) Swimmer as well as fast runner. A marine mammal of order Carnivora is (A) Otter (B) Walrus (C) Porpoise (D) Both B and C. Walrus has tusks which develop from (A) Upper incisors (B) Lower incisors (C) Upper canines (D) Lower canines. Big Cat which can climb a tree is (A) Panthera leo (B) Panthera pardus (C) Panthera tigris (D) Both B and C. Claws are retractile in (A) Cats (B) Dogs (C) Fox (D) Hyaena. National mammal of India is (A) Panther (B) Tiger (C) Lion (D) Bear. Sea Lion is (A) Otter (B) Walrus (C) Seal (D) None of the above.

67. 68. 69.

70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

Fastest land animal is (A) Cheetah (B) Lion (C) Tiger (D) Panther. Carnivorous teeth adapted for cutting are (A) Molars (B) Carnassial (C) Premolars (D) Canines. Carnassial teeth are (A) Last premolar first molar of each jaw (B) Last premolar of kwer jaw and first molar of upper jaw (C) Last premolar of upper jaw and first molar of lower jaw (D) Canines and first premolars. A mammal which can imitate human laughter is (A) Dolphin (B) Seal (C) Walrus (D) Whale. A mammal with a voice similar to crackling human laughter is (A) Jackal (B) Hyaena (C) Fox (D) Panda. Whale bone is related to (A) Sternum (B) Pectoral girdle (C) Upper jaw (D) Lower jaw. In Whale and Dolphin the tail bears (A) Dorsal fin (B) Caudal fin (C) Two vertical flukes (D) Two horizontal flukes. Gnawing teeth occur in (A) Rodentia (B) Lagomorpha (C) Both A and B (D) Pholidota. Diastema is (A) Toothless part of jaw (B) Teeth bearing part of jaw (C) Hard palate (D) Soft palate. Diastema occurs in place of (A) incisors (B) Canines (C) Premolars (D) Molars. Canines are reduced or absent in (A) Lagomorpha (B) Rodentia (C) Perissodactyla (D) All the above. A nocturnal rodent producing pig like grunts is (A) Porcupine (B) Guinea Pig (C) Rat (D) Beaver. In Porcupine, hair of the back are modified into (A) Scales (B) Horns (C) Spines (D) Plates Beaver is hunted for (A) Fur (B) Meat (C) Castoreuni (D) All the above. Beaver is harmful to vegetation as it feeds over (A) Leaves (B) Tender shoots (C) Fruits (D) Bark. An arboreal rodent with longitudinal stripes is (A) Beaver (B) Squirrel (C) Guinea Pig (D) Shrew. Digits present on fore and hind limbs of Guinea Pig are (A) 5 and 5 (B) 4 and 5 (C) 5 and 4 (D) 4 and 3. Which one leads a solitary life (A) Rabbit (B) Guinea Pig (C) Hare (D) Hystrix. Rabbit has a peculiar mode of nutrition (A) Herbivory (B) Carnivory (C) Coprophagy (D) All the above. In Rabbit and Hare, the incisors of upper and lower jaw halves are (A) 1/1 (B) 2/1 (C)2/2 (D)2/0. Indian Pangolin is (A) Scaly Ant Eater (B) Manis crassicaudata (C) Dasypus novemeinctus (D) Both A and B. Indian Pangolin is characterized by (A) Absence of teeth (B) Long protrusible tongue (C) Stones in its stomach(D) All the above. The animal which hangs upside down from tree branches is (A) Sloth (B) Baboon (C) Rhesus Monkey (D) Gibbon. 9-banded Armadillo has

91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113.

(A) Elongated snout and only molar teeth (B) Bony plates (C) Cleavage polyembryony (D) All the above. Vampire bats are found in (A) India (B) America (C) Africa (D) Australia. Vampire bats are (A) Large sized (B) Small sized (C) Sanguivorous (D) Both B and C. Remote ancestor of apes is (A) Water shrew (B) Musk shrew (C) Tree shrew (D) Mole. Hedge Hog belongs to order (A) Rodentia (B) Dermoptera (C) Insectivora (D) Pholidota. Hedge Hog resembles Porcupine in being (A) Herbivorous (B) Covered on back by spines (C) Insectivorous (D) Both B and C. Spiny Ant Eater belongs to (A) Prototheria (B) Metatheria (C) Eutheria-Pholidota (D) Eutheria-Insectivora. Scaly Ant Eater is (A) Eutherian (B) Metatherian (C) Prototherian (D) None of the above Opossum belongs to (A) Prototheria (B) Metatheria (C) Edentata (D) Pholidota. Scrotum developed in metatheria occurs (A) On sides of penis (B) Behind penis (C) In front of penis (D) The statement is incorrect as scrotum is absent. A mammal in which both the sexes produce milk is (A) Omithorhyncus (B) Tachyglossus (= Echidna) (C) Macropus (D) Dideiphis. A trait found in all mammals is (A) Seven cervical vertebrae (B) Placenta (C) Hair (D) All the above Hair occur in all mammals except those of (A) Rodentia (B) Chiroptera (C) Primata (D) Cetacea. A mammal which lays eggs is (A) Scaly Anteater (B) Spiny Anteater (C) Porcupine (D) Hedgehog. Rodents have (A) Hooves (B) Long spine (C) Long incisors (D) Long canines. Mammals having traits of both reptiles and mammals are (A) Monotremes (B) Marsupials (C) Whales (D) Bats. The earliest mammals are (A) Eutheria (B) Metatheria (C) Prototheria (D) Cetacea. An egg laying mammal is (A) Kangaroo (B) Platypus (C) Koala (D) Whale. Mammary glands are modified (A) Salivary glands (B) Lacrimal glands (C) Sweat glands (D) Sebaceous glands. Which one uses radar system for locomotion of its food (A) Cat (B) Tiger (C) Rat (D) Bat. Milk glands occur in (A). All prototherians (B) Metatherians (C) Eutherians (D) All mammals Echidna is (A) A reptile native of Australia (B) A mammal native of Australia (C) A reptile native of Africa (D) A mammal native of Africa. An exclusive mammalian trait is (A) Diaphragm (B) 4-chambered heart(C) Thecodont dentition(D) Vivipary. Biggest living creatures belong to

(A) Mammals (B) Birds (C) Reptiles (D) Echinoderms. What is correct? (A) A is connecting link between Ayes and Mammalia (B) Sea Horse is connecting link between fish and horse (C) Duck Billed Platypus is connecting link between reptiles and mammals (D) Hydra is connecting link between protozoa and metazoa. 115. Equus rests on (A) Five digits (B) Four digits (C) Three digits (D) One digit. 116. The smallest eggs belong to (A) Mammals (B) Fishes (C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles. 117. Ornithorhyncus is a (A) Duck (B) Dinosaur (C) Monotreme mammal (D) A fossil bird. 118. Kangaroo is inhabitant of (A) Austria (B) Australia (C) Mexico (D) Africa 119. Egg laying mammals are mostly native of (A) India (B) Africa (C) Australia (D) Arabia. 1:20. Whale Fish is a member of (A) Reptilia (B) Arthopoda (C) Coelenterata (D) Mammalia. 121. Locomotion in Kangaroo is (A) Volant (B) Saltatorial (C) Cursorial (D) GraviportaL 122. Kidney of adult Rabbit is (A) Pronephros (B) Metanephros (C) Mesonephros (D) Opisthonephros. 123. Hallux is (A) An inward facing part of foot (B) An inward facing part of hand (C) An outward part of foot (D) An outward part of hand 124. Eutherians are characterised by (A) Hairy skin (B) True placentation (C) Ovoviviparity (D) Glandular skin. 125. Animals active during the day are (A) Nocturnal (B) Diurnal (C) Crepuscular (D) Fossorial. 126. Homoiothermal animals are (A) Frog, Lion and Fish (B) Bat, Pigeon and Rabbit (C) Pigeon, Lizard and Tortoise (D) Rat, Snake and Crocodile. 127. The cervical vertebrae in humans is (A) Same as in Whale (B) More than that in Rabbit (C) Double than that of Horse (D) Less than that in Giraffe. 128. What is common in Whale, Bat and Rat? (A) Absence of neck (B) Muscular diaphargm between thorax and abdomen (C) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high temperature of body (D) Presence of external ears. 129. Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and Humans belong to the same (A) Species (B) Genus (C) Family (D) Order. 130. Pinna/external ear is found in (A) Insects (B) Ayes (C) Reptiles (D) Mammals. 131. A mammal in which milk is squirted down to throat of baby by muscular contraction of mother is (A) Bear (B) Camel (C) Whale (D) Rhinoceros. 132. Kangaroo belongs to (A) Monotremata (B) Marsupialia (C) Prôtotheria (D) Insectivora. 133. Which one has become extinct form India (A) Lion (B) Dodo (C) Two-horned Rhino (D) Tiger 134. Which one has a poisonous gland (A) Frog (B) Female Wail Lizard(C) Tiygon (D) Male Platypus. 114.

135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149.

150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156.

In most mammals testes are located in scrotal sacs for (A) More space to visceral organs (B) Sex differentiation (C) Independent functioning of kidney (D) Sperm development Heart of mammal is (A) Two chambered (B) Three chambered (C) Four chambered (D) One chambered Marsupial Kangaroo is (A) Viviparous (B) Oviparous (C) Ovoviviparous (D) A distinct category. A monkey with prehensile tail is (A) Bonnet Monkey (B) Rhesus Monkey (C) Spider Monkey (D) Semnov;thecous. Pouched or marsupium containing mammals are (A) Prototheria (B) Metatheria (C) Eutheria ID) Theria. Mammary glands are without teats in (A) Prototheria (B) Metatheria (C) Eutheria (D) Theria. Which one is not exclusively marine (A) Seal (B) Walrus (C) Whale (D) Dolphin. Mammals giving rise to immature young ones and nursing them in a pouch are (A) Monotremes (B) Marsupiales (C) Primates (D) Carnivores. Arboreal mammals possess characteristics for (A) Jumping (B) Flying (C) Burrowing (D) Climbing. Membranous partition between pericardial cavity and pleuropericardial cavity is (A) Septum transversum (B) Mediastinal septum (C) Diaphragm (D) None of the above Which is common trait of mammals (A) Carnivores (B) Ventral nerve cord (C) Moulting (D) Seven Cervical vertebrae Blubber is (A) Subcutaneous fat of whale (B) Irregular heart beats (C) Artificial rubber (D) None of thç above. Testes in Whale are (A) Extra-abdominal (B) Half external, half internal (C) Internal (D) None of the above. State Animal of Rajasthan is (A) Horse (B) Camel (C) Cow (D) Ox. One of the following is not a trait of prototherians (A) Egg laying (B) Absence of teats over mammary glands (C) Absence of corpus callosuin (D) Presence of testes outside of the abdominal cavity. Cavity lodging lungs is (A) Thorax (B) Abdomen (C) Chest (D) Stom Largest and heaviest mammal of the world is (A) Elephant (B) Tiger (C) Lion (D) Blue whale Ruminants belong to order (A) Proboscidea (B) Artiodactyla (C) Sirenia (D) Catacea Bat can travel (A) Ears plugged and eyes covered (B) Eyes covered and ears open (C) Ears plugge4 and eyes open (D) All the above. Closest relative of modern day man is (A) Prosimians (B) Orang-Utan (C) Monkey (D) Chimnanzee Long snout and backwardly directed claws occur in (A) Arboreal animals (B) Fossorial animals (C) Cursorial animals (D) Aquatic animals. Which is a mammal?

157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165.

166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179.

(A) Psittacula (B) Manis (C) Planorbis (D) Hydrophis. Which is not an odd digitate pentadactylous? (A) Rhinoceros (B) Zebra (C) Camel (D) Donkey Marsupials occur in (A) Africa (B) North America (C) Asia (D) Australia Prototheria or subclass of egg laying mammals is connected with (A) Kangaroo (B) Echidna (C) Omithorhyncus (D) Both B and C. Mammalian brain differs from amphibian brain in having (A) Olfactory lobes (B) Corpus callosum (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus. Haversian system is characteristic of (A) All bones (B) Reptilian bones (C) Mammalian bones (D) Avian bones. Which one is a burrowing marsupial? (A) Notoiyctus (B) Thylacinus (C) Mynnecobius (D) Phascolaretus. In terms of number of genera and species, which ones have the maximum number (A) Aquatic mammals (B) Herbivore mammals (C) Terrestrial mammals (D) Carnivore mammals Which one has the smallest cranial capacity? (A) Orang Utan (B) Gorilla (C) Chimpanzee (D) Rhesus Monkey Long neck of Camel is due to (A) Increase in number of cervical vertebrae (B) Increase in length qf cervical vertebrae (C) Development of muscular pads between successive vertebrae (D) Developing of extra bony plates between successive cervical vertebrae. In Horse, the single large hoof represents (A) Third digit (B) First digit (C) Fourth digit (D) All the above. Corpus callosum occurs in the brain of (A) Pigeon (B) Frog (C) Crocodile (D) Elephant. Zoological name of Lion is (A) Panthera tigris (B) J’anthera leo-persica(C) Panthera pardus (D) Fells leo An example of marsupialia is (A) Elephant (B) Horse (C) Macropus (D) Rabbit. Sonar system is found in (A) Otter (B) Bat (C) Whale (D) Both B and C. A mammal devoid of corpus callosum is (A) Omithorhyncus (B) Balaenoptera (C) Macrépus (D) Macaca. Which is correct? (A) Platypus lays eggs (B) Camel has biconcave RBCs (C) Rat has cloaca (D) Bat has feathers Closest primate relative of human being is (A) Rhesus Monkey (B) Gorilla (C) Gibbon (D) Orang Utan. Dissection of Rat is done from the side (A) Dorsal (B) Ventral (C) Anterior (D) Lateral. Prototherians have evolved from (A) Reptiles (B) Birds (C) Amphibians (D) Eutherians. Vestigial pelvic girdle and bone remnants of hind limbs are characteristic of (A) Whale (B) Dolphin (C) Shark (D) Seal. Number of cervical vertebrae in Camel/Whale/Giraffe is (A)9 (B)7 (C) 6 (D) 8. Orang-utan belongs to family (A) Homonidae (B) Pongidae (C) Hyalobatidae (D) Bradipolidae (E) Hapalidae. In which animal, there is post-anal tail as well as heterodont teeth

180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203.

204. 205. 206. 207.

(A) Scorpion (B) Krait (C) Elephant (D) Cobra. Animal with placenta shows (A) Euvivipary (B) Ovovivipary (C) Ovipary (D) Parthenogenesis. Whale is mammal because it has (A) Diaphragm (B) Protruded scrotum (C) Vivipary (D) Mammary glands. Eggs of egg laying mammals are (A) Macrolecithal (B) Alecithal (C) Mesolecithal (D) Telolecithal. Which one of the following is not a member of eutheria (A) Gorilla (B) Pangolin (C) Mole (D) Platypus (E) Pangolin. Order insectivora belongs to (A) Class manunalia (B) Class insecta (C) Phylum arthropoda (D) Phylum echinodermata. Testes descend into scrotum in mammals for (A) Spermatogenesis (B) Fertilization (C) Development of sex organs (D) Development of visceral organs. A reptilean character of protherian is presence of (A) Left aortic arch (B) T-shaped clavicle (C) Diaphragm (D) Seven cervical vertebrae. Sea Cows belong to (A) Sirenia (B) Cetacea (C) Lagomorpha (D) Proboscidia. An egg laying mammal is (A) Lons (B) Lemur (C) Galago (D) Bush Baby. All mammals (A) Possess uterus (B) Give birth to live young (C) Nourish their young ones with milk (D) Contain thick coat over their young. In which manunals do the testes remain in the abdomen (A) Humans (B) Rabbit (C) Ox (D) Elephant The character which differentiates mammals from birds is (A) Seven cervical vertc brae (B) Parental care (C) One aortic arch (D) Metanephric kidney Which one of the following is not a mammalian character (A) Enucleated RBCs (B) Three chambered heart (C) Muscular diaphragm (D) Hairy skin Ecolocation through high frequency sound is trait of (A) Bats (B) Birds (C) Insects (D) Monkeys. (E) Rats Animals giving birth to young ones are (A) Viviparous (B) Oviparous (C) Triploblastic (D) Coelomate. Most animals domesticated by humans belong to (A) Carnivora (B) Rodentia (C) Logomorpha (D) Ungulata Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong (C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Bats and whales are classified as mammals. Reason. Bats and whales are four chambered heart. (A) (B) (C) (D) Indian Monkey is (A) Macaca (B) Gorilla (C) Ramapithecus (D) Sunia. In Rhinoceros, horn is formed from (A) Adipose tissue (B) Stratum germinativum (C) Stratum lucidum (D) Stratum corneum A specific system found in Bat is (A) Echoflight (B) Echobalance (C) Echolocation (D) Echoposition Unique feature of mammalian body is presence of

208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218.

219.

220.

221.

(A) Four chamberd heart (B) Presence of diaphragm (C) Homeothermy (D) Rib cage. Very large animal with a single nostril is (A) Shark (B) Whale (C) Python (D) Tortoise Ancestors of mammals belong to (A) Therapsida (B) Ornithischia (C) Silusoidea (D) Chelonia. Besides bats, echolocation also occurs in (A) Primates (B) Wild Cat (C) Whales and Dolphins (D) Beavers Two toed hoofed feet occur in (A) Horse (B) Elephant (C) Zebra (D) Sheep. Bat is a member of order (A) Chiroptera (B) Urodela (C) Hymenoptera (D) Lagomorpha. Zoological name of North Indian Hare is (A) Lepus nigricollis (B) Sorer araneus (C) Lepus mficaudatus (D) Qiynctolagus cuniculus. Which one is egg laying mammal? (A) Macropus (B) Dideiphis (C) Echidna/Ornithorhynchus (D) Sorex. Sweat glands and external ears are characters of group (A) Birds (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Mammals. Which one is not viviparous? (A) Mole (B) Platypus (C) Kangaroo (D) Shrew. Which one of the following has nuclei in its mature red blood corpuscles? (A) Cow (B) Horse (C) Camel (D) None of the above. Match the columns Coloumn I Column II a) Echindna i) Ophidia b) Echinus ii) Teleostei c) Echeneis iii) Platyhelminthes d) Echis iv) Echinoides e) Echinococcus v) Prototheria (A) (a) — (v), (b)— (i), (c) — (ii), (d) — (iv), (e) — (iii) (B) (a)—(v), (b)—(i), (c)—(ili), (d)—(iv), (e) — (ii) (C) (a)—(v), (b)—(iv), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iii), (e) — (I) (D) (a)—(v), (b)—(iv), (c)—(ii), (d)—(i), (e)—(iii) Match the columns and choose the correct combinations Coloumn I Column II a) Earthworm i) Gizzard b) Cockroach ii) Caccum c) Frog iii) Clitellum d) Rad iv) Cloaca (A) (a) — (i), (b) — (ii), (c) —(iv), (d)— (iii) (B) (a)—(iii), (b)—(i), (c)—(iv), (d)—(ii) (C) (a)—(ii), (b)—(i), (c)—(iii), (d)—(iv) (D) (a)—(iii), (b)—(i), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iv) (E) (a)—(i), (b)—(iii), (c)—(iv), (d)—(ii) Hoolock Gibbon (India’s only ape) is found in (A) Simplipal National Park (B) Desert National Park (C) Kaziranga National Park (D) Rajaji National Park. A muscular transverse partition in mammals that separates thorax from abdomen is (A) Diaphragm (B) Pharynx (C) Stomach (D) Duodenum.

222.

223. 224. 225. 226.

Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Duck-billed Platypus and Spiny Ant Eater, both are egg laying animals, yet they are grouped under mammals. Reason. Both are having seven cervical vertebrae and twelve pairs of cranial nerves (A) (B) (C) (D). (A.LI.M.S. 2005) Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class mammalia? (A) Thecodont dentition (B) Alveolar lungs (C) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (D) Seven cervical vertebrae. They give birth to young ones (A) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris (B) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich (C) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus (D) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi Which exhibits vivipary? (A) Frog, Kangaroo (B) Whale, Rabbit (D) Snake, Lizard (D) Cockroach, Ayes. Which one is correctly matched?

227.

228.

229. 230. 231. 232.. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239 240. 241. 242.

Animal Characterstic Taxon a) Millipodo Ventral nerve cord Arachnida b) Silverfish Pectoral pelvic fins Chordata c) Duck-billed Platypus Oviparous Mammalia d) Sea Anomone Triploblastic Cnidaria All mammals, without any exception, are characterised by (A) Viviparity and biconcave red blood cells (B) Extra-abdominal testes and a four-chambered heart (C) Heterodont teeth and 12 pairs of cranial nerves (D) A muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands Which are true and false? (a) In Torpedo the electric organs are capable of generating strong electric shock to paralyse prey (b) Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal, anal and caudal fins in swimming (c) Amphibian skin is moist and has thick scales (d) Birds are poikilothermous animals (e) Mammalian character is milk producing mammary glands for nourishing young ones. (A) a, b and c an true, d and e are false (B) a,bandearetrue,canddarefalse (C) a, d and e are true, b and c are false (D) a, b and d are false, c and e are true (E) Only d is true, a, b, c and e are false. Order primata contains (A) Shrew and Hedge Hog (B) Bats and Vampires (C) Monkey and Man (D) Horse and Zebra. Tusks of Elephant are (A) Upper canines (B) Upper incisors (C) Lower incisors (D) Lower canines Duck-billed Platypus is connecting link between (A) Reptiles mammals (B) Reptiles and birds (C) Echinoderms and chordates (D) Living and non-living A tail-less primate is (A) Lemur (B) Spider Monkey (C) Lons (D) African Baboon. What is coi among Parrot, Platypus and Kangaroo (A) Toothless jaws (B) Functional post anal tail. (C) Oviparity (D) Homoiothórmy Number of teeth in New World Monk is (A) 12 (B)16 (C) 32 (D)36. Arboreal adaptation occurs in (A) Duck (B) Squirrel (C) Horse (D) Parrot. Animal with cursorial adaptation is (A) Tree Frog (B) Monkey (C) Chamaeleon (D) Horse. Members of hominidae are (A) Man, Lemur, Ape (B) Man, Chimpanzee, Gorilla (C) Monkey, Ape, Lemur (D) Chimpanzee, Lemur, Ape. Which one has a copulatory organ? (A) Squirrel (B) Snake (C) Toad (D) Parrot. Which is correct set belonging to single group? (A) Bat, Pigeon, Crow (B) Man, Monkey, Chimpanzee (C) Oyster, Octopus, Otter (D) Cattle Fish, Jelly Fish, Silver Fish Right systemic arch is absent in (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Amphibians (D) Birds. Which is not a cat? (A) Lion (B) Tiger (C) Cheetah (D) Jackal. Baleen (hanging horny plates) occurs in

(A) Dolphin 243.

244. 245.

246.

247.

(B) 4rchaeoptei

(C) Blue whale

(D) Shark.

Which is not characteristic of all chordates? (A) Presence of coelom (B) Pharyngeal gill clefts in early embryonic stages (C) Diaphragm separating thorax from abdomen (D) Dorsal nerve cord A common scent producing manunalian gland is (A) Prostate gland (B) Adrenal gland (C) Bartholin’s gland (D) Anal gland. In prototherians what are true (a) Pectoral girdle associated with T-shaped interciavicle (b) Mammary glands are modified sebaceous glands (c) Pelvic girdle possesses epipubic bones (d) Vertebrae are with epiphyses. (A) a andc (B) a and b (C) c and b (D)bandc. Which one is correctly matched Animal Characteristic Taxon (A) Millipede Ventral nerve Arachnida cord Arachnida (B) Duck-billed Platypus Oviparous Mammalia (C) Silver Fish Pectoral and pelvic fins Chordate (D) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidarla Cnidaria All mammals (A) Possess seven cervical vertebrae (B) Are viviparous (C). Are hornodont (D) Nourish young ones with milk.

1) B

2) B

3) C

ANSWER – KEY 5) C 6) D

4) D

7) C

8) B

9) A

10)

C

11)

D 12)

A 13)

B

14)

C

15)

C 16)

C 17)

B

18)

A

19)

A 20)

C

21)

D 22)

B

23)

C

24)

B

25)

B 26)

D 27)

A

28)

D

29)

C 30)

B

31)

B

32)

C 33)

D

34)

B

35)

A 36)

C 37)

D

38)

C

39)

B 40)

A

41)

B

42)

D 43)

C

44)

B

45)

B 46)

A 47)

B

48)

A

49)

D 50)

C

51)

C 52)

A 53)

C

54)

B

55)

A 56)

C 57)

D

58)

D

59)

D 60)

C

61)

B

62)

C 63)

B

64)

A

65)

B 66)

C 67)

A

68)

B

69)

C 70)

A

71)

B

72)

C 73)

D

74)

C

75)

A 76)

B

77)

D

78)

A

79)

C 80)

D

81)

D 82)

B

83)

D

84)

C

85)

C 86)

B

87)

D

88)

D

89)

A 90)

D

91)

B

D 93)

C

94)

C

95)

B 96)

A 97)

A

98)

B

99)

C 100) B

92)

101) D 102) D 103) B

104) C

105)

A 106)

C 107) B

108) C

109) D 110)

111) B

112) A 113) A

114) C

115)

D 116)

A 117)

118)

119)

121) B

122) B

123) A

124) B

125)

B 126)

B

127) A

128) B

129) D 130) D

131) C 132) B

133) C

134) D

135)

D 136)

C 137) A

138) C

139) B 140) A

141) D 142) B

143) D

144) B

145)

D 146)

A 147) C

148) B

149) D 150) A

151) D 152) B

153) B

154) D

155)

B 156)

B

157) C

158) D

159) D 160) B

161) C 162) A 163) C

164) D

165)

B 166)

A 167) D

168) B

169) C 170) B

171) A 172) A 173) B

174) B

175)

A 176)

A 177) B

178) B

179) C 180) A

181) D 182) A 183) D

184) A

185)

A 186)

B

188) D

189) D 190) B

C

187) A

B

D

C 120) D

191) A 192) C 193) B

194) D

195)

B 196)

C 197) D

198) A

199) B 200) A

201) A 202) D 203) B

204) A

205)

D 206)

C 207) B

208) B

209) A 210) C

211) D 212) A 213) A

214) C

215)

D 216)

B

217) D

218) D

219) B 220) C

221) A 222) A 223) C

224) A

225)

B 226)

C 227) D

228) B

229) C 230) B

231) A 232) C 233) D

234) D

235)

B 236)

D 237) B

238) A

239) B 240) A

241) D 242) C 243) C

244) D

245)

A 246)

B

248)

249)

247) D

250)

Brain Teasers 1. Wheel Animalcules are (A) Coelenterates (B) Echinoderms (C) Rotifers (D) Protozoans. 2. Rotifers arc (A) Unicellular animals (B) Multicellular animals (C) Smallest metazoans (D) Both B and C. 3. Characteristic of rotifers is (A) Small size (B) Ring of cilia (C) Multicellular nature (D) All the above. 4. Naked Ape is (A) Homo sapiens (B) Simia pygnzaeous (C) Gorilla (D) Pan saty,us. 5. Largest fish is (A) Whale (B) Whale Shark (C) Basking Shark (D) White Shark. 6. Smell is most acute in (A) Shark (B) Whale (C) Vulture (D) Cat. 7. Part of the brain connected with sense of smell in Shark is (A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 50% 8. A shark can detect blood in sea from a distance of (A) 100 m (B) 1000 m (C) 2 km (D) 5 km 9. Size of Rhinocodon typus or Whale Shark is (A) Sm (B) 10 m (C) 18 m (D) 30 m 10. Remigration is (A) Migration outside the home range (B) One time migration with no return (C) Return migration (D) Return by next generation. 11. Remigration is shown by (A) Stork (B) Swallow (C) Golden Plover (D) Locust. 12. Rearing of shell fishes was first carried out by (A) Japanese (B) Romans (C) Britishers (D) Swedes 13. Cultivation of pearls was undertaken first by (A) Japanese in 17th century (B) Japanese towards the end of 19th century (C) Britishers in 18th century (D) Americans in the beginning of twentieth century. 14. Cultivation of pearls was pioneered by (A) Mikimoto (B) Hoshimoto (C) Yabuta (D) Kurosawa. 15. Number of verebrate species is (A) 210,000 (B) 41,000 (C) 141,000 (D) 181,000. 16. Number of viruses per ml of sea/lake water is (A) Nil (B) 10,000—100,000 (C) 5—10 million (D) 500,000—5,000,000 17. Largest egg is that of (A) Ostrich (B) Whale (C) Whale Shark (D) Cycas 18. Zoidiogamy is found in (A) Algae (B) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes (C) A few gymnosperms (D) All the above. 19. Egg of Rhinodon t is (A) 17 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 23 cm (D) 21 cm. 20. Hydrostatic skeleton is found in (A) Earthworm (B) Pigeon (C) Shark (D) Whale. 21. A species brought from outside which does not require human support is (A) Exotic species (B) Introduced species(C) Naturalised species (D) Native species. 22. In birds and fish, an order ends in (A)  ales (B)  a (C)  formes (D)  idae. 23. Agar is used as culture medium because it

24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

(A) Provides nourishment (B) Remains as solid jelly (C) Resistant to microorganic breakdown (D) Both B and C. The least dense solid material is (A) Foam (B) Sea Gel (C) Agar-agar (D) Bacterial plastic Sea gel is (A) Lighter than water (B) Lighter than air (C) Heavier than air but lighter than water (D) Lighter than air but made heavier by entrapping air in it. Great Barrier Reef of Australia is (A) Fossil remains of ancient coral (B) Coral reef that is under erosion and reduction (C) Growing coral reef (D) Coral reef without any living content. Coelacanth (Latimeria chalumnae) is hunted for (A) Meat (B) Spinal fluid (C) Liver oil (D) Scales. Spinal fluid of Latimena is believed to be (A) Antibiotic (B) Antiseptic (C) Aphrodisiac (D) Life extending. A bird which can fly backwards is (A) Humming bird (B) Swift (C) Albatross (D) Weaver Bird. Chemosynthetic bacteria are important producers of (A) Areas around hydrothermal vents (B) Ocean bed (C) Lake bed (D) Deltas. A bacterium which can check growth of Listeria and botulism bacteria is (A) Hay bacterium (B) Methane bacterium (C) Nitrifying bacterium (D) Lactic acid bacterium. Largest organism is a (A) Tree (B) Fungus (C) Vine (D) Animal. The fungus which occupies the maximum areais (A) Bracket fungus Ganodenna (B) Giant puffball aavatia (C) Sacred Mushroom (D Honey Fungus. Honey Fungus (Annilaria ostoyae) has been found to occupy an area of (A) 600 hectares (B) 200 hectares (C) 20 hectares (D) 2 hectares. DNA polymerase required for synthesising copies of DNA at high temperature is obtained from (A) Ther,nus aquaticus (B) Cephalosporium minimum (C) Bacillus megatherium (D) Thermoproteus species. Clubroot is a (A) Moss (B) Disease (C) Medicinal plant (D) Coral. ‘Finger and Toe’ disease is a disease of (A) Humans (B) Birds (C) Roots of crucifers (D) Cattle. A mammal with social life having different castes is (A) Naked Mole Rate (B) Deer (C) Elephant (D) Monkey. A fish with transparent blood is (A) Pleuronectes (B) Sardinella (C) Neoceratodus (D) Chaenocephalus. Hydra reproduces sexually during (A) Spring (B) Summer (C) Autumn (D) Winter. Asexual reproduction occurs in Hydra during (A) Summer (B) Winter-spring period(C) Autumn-winter (D) Throughout the year. Insect population is estimated to be (A) 1012 (B) 1015 (C) 1018 (D) 1021. The smallest mammal is (A) Pigmy Mole (B) Pigmy Water Shrew(C) Hog Nose Bat (D) Both B and C. Double uterus and double vagina are characteristic of (A) Prototheria (B) Metatheria (C) Chiroptera (D) Cetacea.

45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.

Red sweat is characteristic of (A) Kangaroo (B) Camel (C) Hippopotamus (D) Bat. Ruminants produce methane due to presence of (A) Rumenococcus (B) Methanomonas (C) Methanobacterium (D) All the above. Water of river Ganges remains ‘pure’ due to presence of -. (A) Bacteriophages (B) Zooplankton (C) Bdellovibrios (D) Dinoflagellates. Bdellovibrios is (A) Virus (B) Viroid (C) Prion (D) Bacterium. Dinoflagellates are (A) Fire Algae (B) Whorling Whips (C) Cause of marine Chernobyl (D) All the above. Excessive growth of dinoflagellates produces (A) Hydrothermal vents (B) Red tides (C) Coloured snow (D) Small hills. Dinoflageliates undergo binary fission (A) Longitudinal (B) Transverse (C) Oblique (D) Irregular Chla nivaiis is a (A) Cryophyte (B) Thermophile (C) Halophile (D) Oxyphile. Chiwnydomonas nivalis colours the snow (A) Red (B) Yellow (C) Green (D) Purple brown. A metatherian without a marsupiuni is (A) Dideiphis. (B) Myrmecobius (C) Bandicoot (D) Koala. Stridulat!on is (A) Gate of crickets (B) Respiratory movement of grassphoppers (C) Harsh shrill sound of crickets and grasshoppers (D) Copulatory dance. Stridulation is produced by crickets to (A) Mark territory (B) Attract mate (C) Invite prey (D) Both A and B. Stridulatory organs of grasshopper are (A) Wings (B) Legs (C) Hind-legs and wings (D) Fore-legs and fore-wings. Prions were studied by (A) Raymer (B) Diener (C) Prusiner (D) Jacob. The smallest pathogens are (A) Bdellovibrios (B) Virus (C) Viroids (D) Prions. Prion is made of (A) DNA only (B)RNA only (C) Protein only (D) All the above. Scrapie of sheep and Cruetzfeldt-Jacob nervous disease of humans are caused by (A) Priona (B) Viroids (C) RNA-viruses (D) DNA-viruses. Largest eye is that of (A) Deer (B) Whale (C) Giant Squid . (D).Stnsthio. The diameter of eye in Giant Squid (Architeuthis) is (A) 375 cm (B) 27 5cm (C)2Ocm (D)lScm. Homonomous metamerism is found in (A) Arthropods (B) Annelids (C) Molluscs and vertebrates (D) All the above. In vertebrates, metamerism is (A) Both external and internal (B) External only (C) Internal only (D) External in certain regions and internal in others. Radiata includes (A) Nematodes (B) Nemerteans (C) Cnidaria (D) All the above. Animals included under radiata are (A) Triploblastic (B) Diploblastic (C) Unicellular and colonial (D) All the above.

68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74.

75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89.

Trophoblasts of Plasmodium feed on (A) Haemoglobin molecules (B) Cytoplasm of erythrocytes (C) Globin part of haemoglobin. (D) Raematin part of haemoglobin. Toxic melanin/haemozoin that causes malarial fever is formed from host (A) DNA. (B) RNA (C) Protein (D) Haematin. Eosinophilic Schufiner’s granules observed in trophozoite stage of Flasmodium are absent in (A)Plasmodiuni fa1c (B) P. malariae (C) P. ovale (D) P. vivax. Small white stone-like Charcot-Leydon crystals are found in the faeces of a person suffenng from (A) Amoebiasis (B) Malaria (C) Giardiasis (D) Chagas’ fever.. Aestivo-autumnal fever is malaria caused by (A) Plasmodsum ovale (B) P. nalanae (C) P. vivax (D) P. falciparurn. Moonga is obtained from (A) Corallium (B) Heliopora (C) Euplectella (D) Chelina Solenocytes differ from flame cells in (A) Absence of cilia (B) Absence of connection with excretory canals (C) Presence of blood vessels (D) All the above. . Which one is an incidental parasite A) Taenw solium (B) Echinococcus grwzulosus (C) Schistosoma haematob:um D) Ancylostoma duodenale. Coelom is reduced to baemocoehc channels in (A) Polychaeta (B) Oligochaeta (C) Hirudinea (D) Arachianneida. The viviparous arthropod is (A) Lac Insect (B) Spanish fly (C) Cockroach (D) Scorpion. Ecdysone, the hormone controlling moulting in insects, is secreted by (A) Corpora allata (B) Prothoracic glands (C) Corpora cardiaca (I)) Both A and B. Fastest insect, Cephen emyia grandis, can fly at a speed of (A) 1360 km/hr (B) 1060 km/hr (C) 860 km/hr (D) 360 km/hr. Torsion occurs in group (A) Hirudinea (B) Gastropoda (C) Pelecypoda (D) Scaphopoda. In Cockroach, the organs sensitive to ground vibrations are (A) Elytra (B) Anal styles (C) Anal cerci (D) Tarsus. Johnston’s organs are meant for perceiving (A) Mechanical and sound vibration (B) Smell (C) Taste (D) Temperature. Johnston’s or occurs in (A) Spiders (B) Centipedes (C) Crabs (D) Insects. Devil’s Fish expels an ink for (A) Paralysing prey (B) Camouflage (C) Insensitising smelling power predator (D) Both B and C. Ambergris, a source of perfume, is intestinal excretion of (A) Sperm Whale (B) Blue Whale (C) Musk Deer (D) Seal. Antlers are (A) Hollow (B) Solid (C) ‘ermanent (D) Both B and C. Amphwxus is devoid of A) Heat Bj Blood vessels (C) Kidney (D) All the above. In Cycas, fertthsation occurs through (A) Isogamy (B) Siphonogamy (C) Zoidiogamy (D) Both B and C. Gymnosperms with vessels are

90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101.

(A) Cycadales (B) Coniferales (C) Gnetales (D) Ginkgoales. Besides normal roots, Cyca.s possesses another type of roots near the soil surface and called (A) Surface feeders (B) Coralloid (C) Mycorrhiza (D) Adventitious Maiden Hair Tree is (A) Bottle Brush (B) Araucwia (C) Ginkgo (D) Juniperus. Maiden Hair Fern is (A) Adiwitum (B) Dryopteris (C) Cyatlzaea (D) Pteris. Which one is aVwater Fern (A) Azolla (B) Salvinia (C) Marsilea (D) All the above. Telome theory (Zimmermann, 1930) is related to origin of (A) Pollen tube (B) Vascular plants (C) Seed (D) Fruit. Transfusion tissiic occurs in (A) All embryophytes (B) Angiosperms (C) Gymnosperms (D) Ferns. Sago Palm is (A) Borassus (B) Cocos (C) Elceis (D) Cycas. Hydrostereom or transfusion tissue is found. in (A) Gymnosperm roots (B) Gymnosperm leaves (C) Gymnosperm stems (D) All the above. Cryptogams refer to (A) Algae and Fungi (B) Bryophytes (C) Pteridophytes (D) All the above. Phenomenon of halotism or controlled parasitism is shown by (A) Leguniinous roots (B) Lichens (C) Mycorrhiza (D) All the above. Lichens growing on rocks are called (A) Saxicolous (B) Corticolous (C) Lignocolous (D) Terricolous. Roots of Trtfolium alxandrinum contains nitrogen fixing (A) Rhizobium (B) Nostoc (C) Aerorhizobium (D) Anabaena.

1) C

2) D

3) B

ANSWER – KEY 5) B 6) A

4) A

7) C

8) B

9) C

10)

D

11)

D 12)

B

13)

B

14)

A

15)

B 16)

C 17)

C

18)

D

19)

B 20)

A

21)

C 22)

C 23)

D

24)

B

25)

D 26)

C 27)

B

28)

D

29)

A 30)

A

31)

D 32)

B

33)

D

34)

A

35)

A 36)

B

37)

C

38)

A

39)

D 40)

D

41)

A 42)

C 43)

C

44)

B

45)

C 46)

A 47)

C

48)

D

49)

D 50)

B

51)

C 52)

A 53)

A

54)

B

55)

C 56)

D 57)

C

58)

C

59)

D 60)

C

61)

A 62)

C 63)

A

64)

B

65)

C 66)

C 67)

B

68)

C

69)

D 70)

B

71)

A 72)

D 73)

A

74)

C

75)

B 76)

C 77)

D

78)

B

79)

A 80)

B

81)

C 82)

A 83)

D

84)

D

85)

A 86)

B

87)

D

88)

D

89)

C 90)

B

91)

C 92)

A 93)

D

94)

B

95)

C 96)

D 97)

B

98)

D

99)

B 100) A

101) B