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December 26, 2016 | Author: Hermando Dejero Lozano | Category: N/A
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1. Where do producers obtain their energy? A. From other producers B. From the consumers C. From the decomposers D. From the sun 2. Why do you experience not seeing things clearly for some seconds when you enter suddenly a well-lighted room after coming from a dark room, you? A. The pupils are not adapted to the dark B. The eyes are adapted to the light only C. The pupils are not dilated yet D. Light had caused temporary blindness 3. What term is used to describe the ability to maintain a constant internal environment? A. Metabolism B. Growth and development C. Homeostasis D. Thermoregulation 4. What is the most common cause of cardiovascular disease? A. Fatty deposits in the arteries B. Inadequate supply of red blood cells C. Lack of sodium in the diet D. Increased heartbeat 5. Which is the smallest unit of life that can survive and reproduce on its own? A. Cell B. Organ C. Tissues D. Population 6. Which region of a vertebrate forebrain is considered with the neutral- endocrine control of visceral activities? A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary 7. Which of the following is the building block carbohydrate? A. Amino acid B. Nucleotide C. Fatty acid D. Monosaccharide

8. Why it is necessary men have more red blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood than women? A. Man does strenuous activities and need more energy B. They have bigger physique and need more blood C. Man waste more blood cells and need extra D. They are more prone to anemia disorders 9. Which of the following is the building block of protein? A. Amino acid B. Nucleotide C. Fatty acid D. Monosaccharide 10.Where does protein synthesis take place? A. Ribosomes B. Lysosomes C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi bodies 11.Why are our lips “redder” than our palm? A. There is increased blood flow in the lips B. Lips are heavily keratinized C. Lip epidermis is thinner D. Many blood vessels are located around the lips 12.Which of the following cannot be found in prokaryotes? A. Cytoplasm B. Plasma membrane C. Membrane-bound nucleus D. DNA 13.What do we call mutation that is brought about by the earth natural radioactivity? A. Continuous B. Induced C. Lysosomes D. Chloroplast 14.Which of the following organelles produces turbo pressure against cell wall and mainly acts as water reservoir A. Plastids B. Vacuole C. Lysosomes D. Chloroplast 15.What is the branch crobial organisms is used in the creation of genetically modified organisms? A. Pseudomonas vulgaris B. Bacillus thuringensis C. Agro bacterium tumafaciens D. Escherichia coli

16.What is the branch of zoology that is devoted to the study of fish? A. Helmintology B. Ichthyology C. Chondrichthyes D. Ornithology 17.The process involved in the production of mRNA using DNA as template is termed _______? A. Transcription B. Replication C. Gene manipulation D. Reverse transcription 18.What is the most abundant inorganic compound in the protoplasm? A. Fluid B. Blood C. Plasma D. Water 19.Which is the riches type of tropical rain forest in the Philippines? A. Molave forest B. Dipterocarp forest C. Mangrove forest D. Pine forest 20.What muscle is described as involuntary, not striated, and have a single nucleus? A. Smooth B. Skeletal C. Cardiac D. Connective 21.We feel warmer just before it rains because __________. A. Heat is released by the evaporation of water B. The clouds prevent heat from escaping the earth C. There is an increased relative humidity D. Heat is released by the condensation of water vapor 22.Which of the following is not considered as a reproductive cell? A. Gamete B. Somatic cell C. Egg cell D. Sperm cell 23.The cell wall of plant is made of _______. A. Lipids B. Cellulose C. Protein D. Cell membrane 24.Which of the following is the correct sequence of the level of organization from lowest to highest? A. Cells-system-organs-tissues

B. System-organs-tissues-cells C. Cells-tissues-organs-system D. Tissues-systems-cells-organs 25.At metaphase of the meiotic division, the chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers as ________. A. Double chromatids B. Non-homologous pairs C. Single chromatid strands D. A tetrad of four chromatids 26.Which of the following is an example of behavioral adaption? A. Thick green stems of the cactus plant B. Thick fur of the bear C. Shedding leaves during summer D. Presence of cuticle on the upper surface of the leaves 27.The bipolar nature of the cell membrane is due to _______. A. Presence of carries B. Presence of C. Phospholipids bilayer D. Integral proteins 28.Which of the following is made up of diploid number of cells? A. Zygote B. Sperm cell C. Egg cell D. Both B and C 29.Which plant has underground stem modified for reproduction? A. Ginger B. Camote C. Tubers D. Strawberry 30.Which of the following structures serve as a passageway of food and air? A. Epiglottis B. Trachea C. Pharynx D. Larynx 31.Which kind of relationship is exhibited by algae and fungi in lichen? A. Commensalism B. Parasitism C. Symbiosis D. Competition 32.What do you call the finger-like folds on the inner linings of the small intestine? A. Villi B. Appendix C. Rugae

D. Cecum 33.Aside from ADP, what else is the end production of the dark-reaction phase of photosynthesis? A. Carbon dioxide B. Sugar C. Carbon D. Starch 34. What is that flap-like structure that prevents the food from going the wrong way during swallowing? A. Epiglottis B. Larynx C. Esophagus D. Pharynx 35. Which pigment is dominant in red algae? A. Phycocyanin B. Fucoxanthin C. Chlorophyll D. Pharynx 36.What is the membrane that surrounds the lungs? A. Pleura B. Meninges C. Peritoneum D. Pericardium 37.What is that 3-carbon sugar formed during the dark reaction phase of the photosynthesis? A. ADP B. NADPH C. ATP D. PGAL 38.What is the product of carbohydrate digestion? A. Fatty acid B. Glucose C. Amino acid D. Nucleic acid 39.What process is responsible for the upward movement of the water in very tall trees? A. Osmosis B. Capillary action C. Turgor pressure D. Transpiration 40.What is the enzyme in the mouth that breaks starch to maltose? A. Peptidase B. Ptyalin C. Pepsin D. Maltase 41.What do you call the types of symmetry where the body parts are paired on either side of the body? A. Dorsal

B. Bilateral C. Radial D. Ventral 42.Which is considered as the respiratory center of the brain? A. Cerebellum B. Medulla oblongata C. Cerebrum D. Thalamus 43.Which stage of incomplete metamorphism is undergone by grasshopper? A. Nymph, pupa, adult B. Egg, larva, pupa, adult C. Egg, nymph, adult D. Egg, pupa, adult 44.Which of the following is NOT part of the thoracic cage? A. Clavicle B. Ribs C. Costal cartilages D. Sternum 45.Where does the toxin substance secreted by bees and ants through their sting originate? A. Silk glands B. Intestines C. Rectal glands D. Salivary glands 46.What is the longest bone in the body? A. Humerus B. Ferum C. Tibia-fibula D. Clavicle 47.Which cause our bones to turn brittle and easily break? A. Turning into muscle tissues B. Increase in flexibility C. Turbidity decrease D. Removal of collagen 48.How many bones does an adult human body has? A. 201 B. 200 C. 217 D. 206 49.What do you call automatic responses to an external stimulus? A. Reflex B. Instinct C. Impulse D. All of these

50.What structure provides flexible support and protection to the spinal cord? A. Skull B. Ribs C. Vertebral column D. Sternum 51.Which hormone is insufficient in cretinism? A. Glucagon B. Adrenalin C. Insulin D. Thyroxine 52.Which of the following is both endocrine and an exocrine gland? A. Gastric glands B. Thyroid glands C. Pituitary glands D. Pancreas 53.What organ is controlled by the automatic nervous system? A. Skeletal B. Muscles C. Heart D. Both A and B 54.What do you call food in a semi-liquid form, partially digested and mixed with hydrochloric acid? A. Gastric secretion B. Gastric fluid C. Mucosa D. Chime 55.Which is considered the master gland due to its influence on the activity of all the other glands? A. Thyroid B. Adrenal C. Pituitary D. Parathyroid 56.Which part of the brain is responsible for intelligence, memory and learned behavior? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Medulla D. Thalamus 57.Which of these materials is not a major component of the plasma membrane? A. Phospholipids B. Glycoprotein C. Proteins D. DNA 58.Which form of RNA delivers information fromDNA to be used in making protein? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA

C. Transfer RNA D. All of the above 59.Which of the following is not a type of cell? A. Bacterium B. Amoeba C. Sperm D. Virus 60.Which property of water is probably MOST important for the functioning of organisms at the molecular level? A. Cohesion and high surface tension B. High specific heat C. High heat of vaporization D. Versatility as a solvent 61.Which of the following statements is true of diffusion? A. It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell B. It is a passive process C. It occurs when molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration D. It requires a membrane 62.Which of the following is FALSE in comparing prophaseI of meiosis and prophase of mitosis? A. The chromosomes condense in both B. Tetrads form in both C. The nuclear envelope disassembles in both D. A spindle forms in both 63.Which are small, irregularly-shaped cells without nuclei but are rich in ATP? A. Leukocytes B. Thrombocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Erythrocytes 64.What branch of Biology is involved when one is studying the characteristic structure and functions of all kinds of cells? A. Cytology B. Morphology C. Physiology D. Histology 65.Which part of seed appears as a scar which marks the entry of the pollen tube during fertilization? A. Seed leaf B. Cotyledon C. Testa D. Hilum 66.Which type of tissue is responsible for the secondary growth in stems and roots of vascular plants? A. Meristematic cells B. Cambium

C. Palisade layer D. Epidermis 67.Which biome grows tropical grassland with scattered individual trees and larger herbivores? A. Tundra B. Rain forest C. Grassland D. Savanna 68.What do you call that process in birds wherein they shed off features at least once a year? A. Skinning B. Molting C. Furrowing D. Migrating 69.What chemical controls metamorphosis among insects? A. Enzymes B. Estradol C. Pheromones D. Ethylene 70.Which of the following makes up the plant cell wall? A. Nucleic acid B. Cellulose C. Protein D. Lipids 71.Which of the following is not true of fungi? A. Some are pathogenic B. Some are photosynthetic C. Some are edible D. Form symbiotic relation with algae 72.Which of the following is not true of plants? A. Some are pathogenic B. Some are photosynthetic C. Some are edible D. Form symbiotic relation with algae 73. Which of the following is considered multi-cellular? A. Embryo B. Fertilized egg C. Egg cell D. Sperm cell 74.What hormone promotes the growth of the uterine lining for the implantation of the embryo? A. Lactogenic hormone B. Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Oxytocen 75.Which of the following pair of organisms are closely related?

A. Spider and mosquito B. Frog and crocodile C. Man and monkey D. Ants and aphids 76.What does it mean if the blood pressure of human is 110/70? A. The systolic pressure is 70 B. The diastolic pressure is 70 C. The pulse rate is 110 beats per minute D. Both B and C 77.Which of the following happens when man exhale? A. The residual volume of the lungs decreases B. The diaphragm contracts C. The volume of the thoracic cavity decreases D. The lung contracts 78.Which of the following regulate breathing? A. RBC concentration B. Number of hemoglobin C. Hormone level in blood D. CO2 and O2 concentration and pH level sensors 79.Which of the following has the lowest velocity of blood flow A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Arterioles 80.How many carbon atoms can each pyruvic acid supply into the Kirb’s cycle? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 81.How many oxygen is required each time to a molecule of glucose is completely oxidized through aerobic respiration? A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24 82.Which of the following will not be accepted by glycolysis for catabolism? A. Starch B. Glycerol C. Fatty acid D. Sucrose 83.Which of the following characteristic is common between echinoderms and cnidarians? A. They are both radically symmetrical B. They have segmented bodies

C. Both have stinging cells D. They have three embryonic tissue layers 84.Which of the following is true of Phylum Chordata? I. Presence of notochord that provides skeletal support II. Pharyngeal slits that have become modified for gas exchange III. Dorsal hallow nerve cord that develops into the central nervous system A. II and III B. I and II C. I and III D. I, II and III 85.Which of the following cannot be associated with fungi? A. Absorptive nutrition B. Decomposers C. Autotrophs D. Spore production 86.Which of the following does not involve mitosis? A. Development of embryo B. Growth C. Production of gametes D. Repairing of damaged tissues 87.Which of the followings is true of mammals? I. They have four chambered heart II. They produce milk for the young III. They are warm blooded A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III 88.What term describes an egg develop into a new organism without itself being fertilized be a sperm? A. Regeneration B. Conjugation C. Parthenogenesis D. Fusion 89.Which of the following is responsible for formation of blood cell? A. Cartilage B. Bone narrow C. Joints D. Tendons 90.What is most likely happen when a species cannot adapt to the changes in the environment? A. It will be transform to another form B. It will become extinct C. It will be isolated

D. It will grow old 91.What term is used to describe the released of matured egg cell from the ovary? A. Fertilization B. Copulation C. Ovulation D. Germination 92.Which of the following blood cells is responsible for blood clotting? A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Thrombocytes D. Neutrophils 93.Where does ectopic pregnancy occur? A. Uterus B. Ovary C. Cervix D. Fallopian tube 94.Why is cell membrane semi permeability important? A. It is important in determining the size of the cell B. It controls the kind of substances that enters and leaves the cell C. It controls the pressure and energy gradient D. It allows the molecules to diffuse freely in and out of the cell 95.What theory of evolution accounts for snake’s disappearance of legs and development of giraffe’s long neck? A. Theory of use and disuse B. Theory of natural selection C. Theory of chromosomal change D. Theory of action and interaction 96.Which of the following is an exocrine gland? A. Plastids and pigments B. Asters and centrioles C. Chloroplasts and vacuoles D. Cell wall and cell membrane 97.Which of the following is an exocrine gland? A. Thyroid gland B. Salivary gland C. Pituitary gland D. Adrenal gland 98.Which of the following is not an accessory organ of digestion? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Salivary gland D. Adrenal gland 99.What hormone stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics?

A. Estrogen B. Prolactin C. Testosterone D. Progesteron 100. Which of the following parts performs both as reproductive and urinary functions in males? A. Ureter B. Testes C. Urethra D. Scrotum ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. D 37. D 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. C 51. D 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. B 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. D 68. B 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. C 76. B 77. C 78. D 79. A 80. D 81. B 82. C 83. A 84. D 85. C 86. C 87. D 88. C 89. B 90. B 91. C 92. C 93. D 94. B 95. A 96. B 97. B 98. D 99. C 100.C

1. The _________ method is used when the learners are made to observe things in a certain place like the market. 1) Participatory 2) Case study 3) Simulation 4) Field trip 2. The recommended method to use if the teachers wishes each learner to concentrate in learning a topic to his skills are properly assessed is. 1) Semantic webbing 2) Independent study 3) Role playing 4) Field trip 3. The ________ method is observed if we wish the pupil learn from real life situation dilemmas. 1) Situation 2) Lecture 3) Textbooks 4) Observation 2. 4. The ________ method is used to make the learners study in detail a specific thing, person or place not known to them 1) Case study 2) Participation 3) Project 4) Field trip 5. Which of the following method will you used to verify a certain findings and to make the learners handle apparatus properly? 1) Textbook method 2) Laboratory method 3) Field trip method 4) Project method 6. The ________ method is utilized if the learners are trained to do creative products. 1) Project 2) Case study 3) Field trip 4) Simulation 7. If the material is dangerous for the learners to handle, which of the following method will you use? 1) Textbook 2) Group discussions 3) Lecture-demonstration 4) Eclectic 8. Which method is used to develop scientific inquiry among the learners? 1) Project 2) Case study 3) Problem solving 4) Simulation 5) 9. The ________ method is used to find out the learner’s knowledge about a certain topic assigned to them. 1) Independent study 2) Textbook 3) Lecture

3. 4) Question and answer 10.The ________ approach is utilized when the learners are trained to ask intelligent question. 1) Process 2) Discovery 3) Inquiry 4) Value certification 11.If you wish to relate a subject matter to one of the four principles of learning, the ________ approach should be used. 1) Multidisciplinary 2) Interdisciplinary 3) Conceptual 4) Integration 12.The ________ approach is used if the teacher wishes to solve a problem being met in the school. 1) Mastery 2) Integration 3) Action learning 4) Value clarification 13.You wish to make the learners learn or internalized fully a subject matter to be taught to them. Which of the following will you need? 1) Integrated 2) Multi-media 3) Master 4) Multi-disciplinary 14.Which of the following approaches will be used if you wish to relate a particular subject to all disciplines of learning? 1) Multidisciplinary 2) Interdisciplinary 3) Value clarification 4) Integration 15.To enable the learners to learn by their own pace of growth, _________ approach is used. 4. 1) Inquiry 2) Discovery 3) Mastery 4) Modular 16.The ______ approach is observed when the learners want to meet the criterion level of success act set by the teachers. 1) Mastery learning 2) Interdisciplinary 3) Conceptual 4) Modular 17.Which approach is used to emphasize the skills in informing conclusions? 1) Multidisciplinary 2) Interdisciplinary 3) Conceptual 4) Inquiry 18.Which of the following approaches is used to include issues confronting the societies? 1) Integration 2) Interdisciplinary 3) Conceptual 4) Inquiry 19.The _______ approach is used to make the learners enunciate their feelings or attitudes about certain issues. 1) Value clarification 2) Mastery 3) Integration 4) Interdisciplinary 20.The _________ method is used if the learners are to use their senses effectively. 1) Textbook 2) Lecture demonstration 3) Observation 4) Independent study 5. ANSWER KEY 1. 4 2. 1 3. 4 4. 1 5. 2 6. 1 7. 3 8. 3 9. 4 10. 3 11. 4 12. 3 13. 3 14. 1 15. 2 16. 1 17. 3 18. 2 19. 1 20. 2

1. ________ is an example of learning task with direct authenticity. A. Simulation B. Role playing C. Small group discussion D. Filling in the blank application form 2. ________ is the process of organizing materials to make it clear for the learners. A. Structuring B. Elaborating C. Sequencing D. Balancing 3. Instructional materials must be connected with __________. A. The course guide B. The curriculum C. The teaching technique D. The level of students 2. 4. Which is not a reason why it is not important for a teacher to know how to evaluate instructional materials? A. Writings one’s material is time consuming B. Teachers area able to identify learners need C. Teachers area able to use the material properly and effectively D. Not all books are error-free 5. It is important to _______ to ensure the relevance of instructional materials to the curriculum. A. Base them on a textbook used B. Include test evaluation C. Consider the grade/year level D. Have a list of goals and objectives 6. Under which phase/s of curriculum

development do setting goals and objectives falls? A. Planning B. Implementation C. Implementation and evaluation D. Planning and implementation 7. Which is not a teacher’s personality factor that may influence the production of instructional materials? A. Financial status B. Philosophy in life C. Teaching style D. Beliefs and values 8. A teacher is doing _________ when he studies skills covered, and activities presented in a book. A. Internal evaluation B. Content evaluation C. External evaluation 3. D. Physical evaluation 9. Which is not considered in designing instructional materials? A. Socio-economic environment B. Teacher’s creativity C. Students and their schema D. Teacher’s pedagogical principles 10. Materials are considered _______ if they are brought from the real world to the classroom to expose learners to language in real use. A. Authentic B. Graded C. Suitable D. Appropriate 11. _________ Materials provides learners with communicative samples to different context. A. Learner-authentic B. Graded text C. Learner centered D. Textually authentic 12. Which is not under external evaluation? A. Blurbs B. Activities C. Table of contents D. Introduction 13. The communicative approach emphasizes _________. A. Students interaction in real life situations B. Students sharing of personal experiences C. Listening and speaking D. Correct pronunciation 4. 14. ________ is an example of sequencing materials. A. Whole to parts B. By stages C. Top to bottom D. Bottom to top 15. What must be included in instructional materials? A. Teaching strategies B. Learning texts and tasks C. Reference material D. Material instruction 16. Which is correct about textually authentic materials? A. Improve learner’s vocabulary B. Promote interest in language learning C. Interactive in character D. Not written for teaching 17. This principle in preparing for an instructional material provides continues and cumulative learning. A. Pacing B. Sequencing C. Balancing D. Evaluating 18. Preparation for instructional material falls under what phase/s of curriculum development? A. Planning and implementation B. Implementation and evaluation C. Planning D. Evaluation 5. 19. _________ is an instructional material that a student can do without any help from the teacher. A. Pictograph B. Word paragraph C. Module D. Video tape 20. It is needed to make a list of what learners’ ________ in preparing the aims, goals and objectives of the curriculum. A. Do in make-believe situation B. Should do as citizens in a democratic country C. Are expected to do in school D. Are required to do in real world ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D

1. The adoption of scientific techniques to control and manipulate environment such as modem methods for farming and fishing is called A. social change B. cultural change C. technological change D. discovery change 2. Heavily sanctioned folkway which no one dares to question because they embody moral laws are called A.

beliefs B. mores C. customs D. tradition 3. What is that inevitable force in history which takes place from time to time? A. change B. progress C. development D. evolution 4. Nora Aunor became a legend in the showbusiness because of her talent, determination and hard work. What role does this illustrate? A. achieved role B. ascribed role C. hereditary role 2. D. temporary role 5. Pinning veil around the bride and the groom / exchange of rings, releasing of doves, etc. during wedding ceremony show that culture A. symbolic B. historical C. continuous D. changeless 6. Aling Maria has taught her daughter how to prepare good and delicious desserts from local fruits and vegetables. What cultural transmissionprocess is this? A. observation B. acculturation C. enculturation D. indoctrination 7. Mr. Francisco was teaching something on mores, folkways, customs and beliefs in his Social Studies class. What was his lesson about? A. material culture C. tangible culture B. non-material culture D. hereditary culture 8. It was the first day of school . Miss Dale Rosa prepared activities which will make her Grade III children sing, play, talk, learn and introduce themselves to the class. What process did the teacher emphasize? A. enculturation 3. B. indoctrination C. socialization D. acculturation 9. Mildred, an accountant, who now lives with a married man was disowned by her family and friends. This punishment is a form of _____________. A. isolation B. ostracism C. deportation D. character assassination 10.When a certain culture is acceptable to one group and questionable to others, it shows that: A. culture is borrowed B. culture is varied C. culture is a shared product D. culture is relative 11. The teaching and learning of religion and values mostly make use of A. enculturation B. culturation C. indoctrination D. acculturation 12. Which of the following situations presents a value conflict? A. The teacher pressures the student to get higher grades. B. The teacher and his students have better class standing as their priorities. C. The teacher and the administrator follow a set of criteria in giving grades D. The teacher has students whose parents want their children to obtain higher 4. grades than what they are capable of getting. 13. Miss Santiago is a stickler for cleanliness and orderliness in the classroom. For this, she asks her students to A. do the same even when they're at home B. remove their shoes in entering the classroom. C. formulate norms and remind them often to follow these norms. D. bring cleaning materials and clean the room before, during, and after classes 14. Which situation shows that a sense of nationhood is exemplified? A. When Miss Aguas asked her Grade II students in what country they wish to live, most of them chose Australia. B. The class was asked which brand of chocolate they would rather have, no one chose "chocnut." C. There is a class program. The girls volunteered to do a "balagtasan' D. The boys opted to make a choral rendition of the theme song of the movie "Titanic." 15. Which statement best indicates a balance between responsibility and authority? Miss Soriano has just provided a group activity to her class. While the class is at it, she says... A. You can talk as much as you want. B. You are forbidden to talk with each other. C. I'll send you out of the room if you so much

create noise. D. You can talk provided you finish the work on time and do not disturb the other group 16. Which of the following behaviors bespeaks of a professional teacher? A. Speaks ill of the Filipino ways 5. B. Advocates the theme of nationhood C. Imparts his personal beliefs and ideology D. Seeks the cooperation of the parents for her own interests 17. Which situation shows a desirable relationship between teachers and other groups of people? A. Mrs. Magsino, a newly-assigned principal to Barangay San Andres, calls on the barangay chairman. B. The new teacher was requested to help the barangay council in a case involving one of his students. He declined. C. Mr. Tiglao feels that the barangay council is against his plans; so, he does not consult the council even if there is a need for it. D. The principal does her own way of campaigning for cleanliness in and outside the school; she never gets involved with the same campaign of the barangay officials. 18. If you were Mrs. Norman, which action would you take to show a balance between balance and accountability? A. Give them more free time during the camping period. B. See to it that the older boy scouts take charge of the safety of the group C. Let the boy scouts do the scheduled activities during the camping while he had a drinking spree with the other scout masters. D. Prepare structured activities that allow independent work among the boy scout groups and rate them according to the agreed criteria. 19-20. Which two characteristics of eastern philosophies might have influenced Philippine education? A. Focus on the individual. B. The group is above self. 6. C. Knowledge comes about through meditation. D. Man's way of life must be characterized by harmony. 21. Which situation shows that action is legal but not moral? Public official, entitled to specific privileges from the government A. Takes the most economical fare in going about his duties. B. Does his job without getting favors from the client he serves. C. Reverts back to the public coffers the 10% commission due him. D. Buys the latest and the most expensive car model for his department. Posted by hyperkulit at 8:09 PM 6 comments: Labels: LET Reviewer LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 1] LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 1] 1. Which assumption underlies the teacher's use of performance objectives? A. Not every form of learning is observable. B. Performance objectives assure the learrier of learning. C. Learning is defined as a change in the learner's observable performance. D. The success of learner is based on teacher performance. 2. In the parlance of test construction what does TOS mean? A. Table of Specifics B. Table of Specifications C. Table of Specific Test Items D. Team of Specifications 3. A student passes a research report poorly written but ornately presented in a folder to make up for the poor quality of the book report content. Which Filipino trait does this practice prove? Emphasis on __________. A. art over academics B. substance overporma 7. C. art over science D. pormaover substance 4. In a criterion-referenced testing, what must you do to ensure that your test is fair? A. Make all of the questions true

or false. B. Ask each student to contribute one question. C. Make twenty questions but ask the students to answer only ten of their choice. D. Use the objectives for the units as guide in your test construction. 5. Which does Noam Chomsky, assert about language learning for children? I. Young children learn and apply grammatical rules and vocabulary as they are exposed to them. II. Begin formal teaching of grammatical rules to children as early as possible. III. Do not require initial formal language teaching for children. A. I and III B. II only C. I only D. I and II 6. Which Filipino trait works against the shift in teacher's role from teacher as a fountain of information to teacher as facilitator? A. Authoritativeness B. Authoritarianism C. Hiya D. Pakikisama 7. If a teacher plans a constructivist lesson, what will he most likely do? Plan how he can A. do evaluate his students' work B. do reciprocal teaching C. lecture to his students D. engage his students in convergent thinking 8. Who among the following needs less verbal counseling but needs more concrete and operational forms of assistance? The child who __________. A. has mental retardation B. has attention-deficit disorder C. has learning disability D. has conduct disorder 9. How would you select the most fit in government positions? Applying Confucius teachings, which would be the answer? A. By course accreditation of an accrediting body B. By merit system and course accreditation C. By merit system D. By government examinations 8. 10. Which types of play is most characteristic of a four to six-year old child? A. Solitary and onlooker plays B. Associative and coooperative plays C. Associative and onlooker plays D. Cooperative and solitary plays 11. A teacher's summary of a lesson serves the following functions, EXCEPT A. it links the parts of the lesson B. lt brings together the information that has been discussed C. it makes provisions for full participation of students. D. it clinches the basic ideas or concepts of the lesson. 12. All of the following describe the development of children aged eleven to thirteen EXCEPT __________. A. they shift from impulsivity to adaptive ability B. sex differences in IQ becomes more evident C. they exhibit increase objectivity in thinking D. they show abstract thinking and judgement 13. Teacher T taught a lesson denoting ownership by means of possessives. He first introduced the rule, then gave examples, followed by class exercises, then back to the rule before he moved into the second rule. Which presenting technique did he use? A. Combinatorial B. Comparative C. Part-whole D. Sequence 14. "In the light of the facts presented, what is most likely to happen when ... ?" is a sample thought question on A. inferring B. generalizing C. synthesizing D. justifying 15. Teacher E discussed how electricity flows through wires and what generates the electric charge. Then she gave the students wires, bulbs, switches, and dry cells and told the class to create a circuit that will increase the brightness of each bulb. Which one best describes the approach used? A. It used a taxonomy of basic thinking skills B. It was contructivist C. It helped students understand scientific methodolgy D. It used cooperative learning 16. Teacher B uses the direct instruction strategy. Which sequence of steps will she follow? I. Independent practice

9. II. Feedback and correctiveness III. Guided student practice IV. Presenting and structuring V. Reviewing the previous day's work A. V-II-IV-III-I B. III-II-IV-I-V C. V-lV-IIIII-I D. I-V-II-III-IV 17. Which are direct measures of competence? A. Personality tests B. Performance tests C. Paper-and-pencil tests D. Standardized test 18. Under which program were students who were not accommodated in public elementary and secondary schools because of lack of classroom, teachers, and instructional materials, were enrolled in private schools in their respective communities at the government's expense? A. Government Assistance Program B. Study Now-Pay Later C. Educational Service Contract System D. National Scholarship Program 19. Which activity should a teacher have more for his students if he wants them to develop logical- mathematical thinking? A. Problem solving B. Choral reading C. Drama D. Storytelling 20. An effective classroom manager uses low-profile classroom control. Which is a low-profile classroom technique? A. Note to parents B. After-school detention C. Withdrawal of privileges D. Raising the pitch of the voice 21. Your teacher is of the opinion that the world and everything in it are ever changing and so teaches you the skill to cope with change. What is his governing philosophy? A. Idealism B. Existentalism C. Experimentalism D. Realism 10. 22. To come closer to the truth we need togo back to the things themselves.This is the advice of the A. behaviorists B. phenomenologists C. idealists D. pragmatists 23. Test norms are established in order to have a basis for __________. A. establishing learning goals B. interpreting test results C. computing grades D. identifying pupils' difficulties 24. A stitch on time saves nine, so goes the adage.. Applied to classroom management, this means that we __________ A. may not occupy ourselves with disruptions which are worth ignoring because they are minor B. must be reactive in our approach to discipline C. have to Jesolve minor disruptions before they are out of control D. may apply 9 rules out of 10 consistently 25. Which criterion should guide a teacher in the choice of instructional devices? A. Attractiveness B. Cost C. Novelty D. Appropriateness Posted by hyperkulit at 1:25 AM 15 comments: Labels: LET Reviewer LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 2] LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 2] 26. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the sensimotor stage? A. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skill. B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering. C. Activities for hypothesis formulation. D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with. 27. Who among the following puts more emphasis on core requirements, longer school day, longer academic year and more challenging textbooks? A. Perennialist 11. B. Essentialist C. Progressivist D. Existentialist 28. The search for related literature by accessing several databases by the use of a telephone line to connect a computer library with other computers that have database is termed __________. A. compact disc search B. manual search C. on-line search D. computer search 29. With synthesizing skills in mind, which has the highest diagnostic value? A. Essay

test B. Performance test C. Completion test D. Multiple choice test 30. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the concrete operational stage? A. Activities for hypothesis formulation. B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering. C. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skills. D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with. 31. Read the following then answer the question: TEACHER: IN WHAT WAYS OTHER THAN THE PERIODIC TABLE MIGHT WE PREDICT THE UNDISCOVERED ELEMENTS? BOBBY: WE COULD GO TOTHE MOON AND SEE IF THERE ARE SOME ELEMENTS THERE WE DON'T HAVE. BETTY: WE COULD DIG DOWN TO THE CENTER OF THE EARTH AND SEE IF WE FIND ANY OF THE MISSING ELEMENTS. RICKY: WE COULD STUDY DEBRIS FROM THE METEORITES IF WE CAN FIND ANY. TEACHER: THOSE ARE ALL GOOD ANSWERS BUT WHAT IF THOSE, EXCURSIONS TO THE MOON, TO THE CENTER OF THE EARTH, OR TO FIND METEORITES WERE TOO COSTLY AND TIME CONSUMING? HOW MIGHT WE USE THE ELEMENTS WE ALREADY HAVE HERE ON EARTH TO FIND SOME NEW ONES? Question: Which questioning strategy/ies does/do the exchange of thoughts above illustrate? A. Funneling B. Sowing and reaping C. Nose-dive D. Extending and lifting 32. Which is NOT a sound purpose for asking questions? A. To probe deeper after an answer is given. B. To discipline a bully in class. C. To remind students of a procedure. 12. D. To encourage self-reflection. 33. The main purpose of compulsory study of the Constitution is to __________ A. develop students into responsible, thinking citizens B. acquaint students with the historical development of the Philippine Constitution C. make constitutional experts of the students D. prepare students for law-making 34. A child who gets punished for stealing candy may not steal again immediately. But this does not mean that the child may not steal again. Based on Thorndike's theory on punishment and learning, this shows that __________ A. punishment strengthens a response B. punishment removes a response C. punishment does not remove a response D. punishment weakens a response 35. As a teacher, you are a reconstructionist. Which among these will be your guiding principle? A. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill, and value that he needs for a better future. B. I must teach the child to develop his mental powers to the full. C. I must teach the child so he is assured of heaven. D. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything. 36. How can you exhibit expert power on the first day of school? A. By making them feel you know what you are talking about. B. By making them realize the importance of good grades. C. By reminding them your students your authority over them again and again. D. By giving your students a sense of belonging and acceptance. 37. A sixth grade twelve-year old boy comes from a dysfunctional family and has been abused and neglected. He has been to two orphanages and three different elementary schools. The student can decode on the second grade level, but he can comprehend orally material at the fourth or fifth grade level. The most probable cause/s of this student's reading problem is/are __________. A. emotional factors B. poor teaching C. neurological factors D. immaturity 38. Teacher Q does not want Teacher B to be promoted and so writes an

anonymous letter against Teacher B accusing her of fabricated lies Teacher Q mails this anonymous letter to the Schools Division Superintendent. What should Teacher Q do if she has to act professionally? A. Submit a signed justifiable criticism against Teacher B, if there is any. B. Go straight to the Schools Division Superintendent and gives criticism verbally. C. Hire a group to distribute poison letters against Teacher B for information dissemination. D. Instigate student activists to read poison letters over the microphone. 13. 39. In self-directed learning, to what extent should a teacher's scaffolding be? A. To a degree the student needs it. B. None, to force the student to learn by himself. C. To the minimum, to speed up development of student's sense of independence. D. To the maximum, in order to extend to the student all the help he needs. 40. If your Licensure Examination Test (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed in the syllabi, it can be said that the LET possesses __________ validity. A. concurrent B. construct C. content D. predictive 41. Which guideline must be observed in the use of prompting to shape the correct performance of your students? A. Use the least intrusive prompt first. B. Use all prompts available. C. Use the most intrusive prompt first. D. Refrain from using prompts. 42. It is not wise to laugh at a two-year old child when he utters bad word because in his stage he is learning to __________. A. consider other's views B. distinguish sex differences C. socialize D. distinguish right from wrong 43. In a treatment for alcoholism, Ramil was made to drink an alcoholic beverage and then made to ingest a drug that produces nausea. Eventually, he was nauseated at the sight and smell of alcohol and stopped drinking alcohoL Which theory explains this? A. Operant conditioning B. Social Learning Theory C. Associative Learning D. Attribution Theory 44. Which is a true foundation of the social order? A. Obedient citizenry B. The reciprocation of rights and duties C. Strong political leadership D. Equitable distribution of wealth 45. As a teacher, what do you do when you engage yourself in major task analysis? A. Test if learning reached higher level thinking skills. 14. B. Breakdown a complex task into sub-skills. C. Determine the level of thinking involved. D. Revise lesson objectives. 46. In instructional planning it is necessary that the parts of the plan from the first to the last have __________. A. clarity B. symmetry C. coherence D. conciseness 47. In a study conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they preferred, if given a choice. Majority of the pupils wanted to be Americans. In this case, in which obligation relative to the state, do schools seem to be failing? In their obligation to __________. A. respect for all duly constituted authorities B. promote national pride C. promote obedience to the laws of the state D. instill allegiance to the Constitution 48. The best way for a guidance counselor to begin to develop study skills and habits in underachieving student would be to __________. A. have these underachieving students observe the study habits of excelling students B. encourage students to talk about study habits from their own experiences C. have them view film strips about various study approaches D. give out a list of effective study approaches 49. What is most likely to happen to

our economy when export continuously surpasses importis a thought question on __________. A. creating B. relating cause-and-effect C. synthesizing D. predicting 50. Direct instruction is for facts, rules, and actions as indirect instruction is for __________, __________, __________. A. hypotheses, verified data and conclusions B. concepts, patterns and abstractions C. concepts, processes and generalizations D. guesses, data and conclusions

50. The environment is greatly abused which is why schools are teaching sustainable development. Which is the best practice among the following? A. focus the curriculum on environment B. integrate sustainable development on the curriculum C. sustainable development is not within the grasp of students D. promote environmental drive in the school 51. “The curriculum is a total learning experience for an individual.” This point of view is considered to be of A. Traditional C. Materialist B. Progressivist D. Cognitivist 52. The grassroots approach insists that teacher who teach or implement the curriculum should participate in developing it. This is based on the A. Ralph Tyler Model C. Hilda Taba Model B. Sigmund Freud Model D. Allan Glatthorn Model 53. When the curriculum includes materials resources that would help in the implementation of the written curriculum such as textbooks, computers, audio-visual materials, laboratory equipment, playgrounds, zoos, and other facilities, this curriculum could be categorized as A. Taught Curriculum C. Learned Curriculum B. Assessed Curriculum D. Supported Curriculum 54. Which psychological foundation explains that the curriculum should be organized so students experience success in master the subject matter? A. Behaviorism C. Humanism B. Psychoanalysis D. Gestalt 55. A teacher desire that her students realize the “wholeness” of the problem. With this premise, the teachers is manifesting which psychological principle? A. Cognitivism C. Humanistic B. Gestalt D. Existentialist 56. Which among the following is NOT a component of the curriculum? A. Curriculum Aims, Goals and Objectives B. Curriculum Content or Subject Matter C. Curriculum Experience D. Curriculum Evaluation 57. Which of the following when partnered with the different instructional strategies and methods would comprise the core of the curriculum? A. Curriculum Aims, Goals and Objectives C. Curriculum Evaluation B. Curriculum Experience D. Curriculum design 58. The objective to continue to promote the objectives of elementary education and to discover and enhance the different aptitudes and interests of the students so as to equip him with skills for productive endeavour and/or prepare him for tertiary schooling can be found in which article and selection under the Educational Systems. A. Article III Selection 21 C. Article III Selection 23 B. Article III Selection 22 D. Article III Selection 24 59. The program of Decentralized Educational Development or PRODED is supposed to be content based curriculum. Therefore it A. Does not focus on the learner and learning process B. Focuses on the learner and learning process C. Focuses on the learner only D. Focuses on the learning process 60. Which period you could have probably lived if the curriculum you follow includes

the code of Klantiao and Maragtas? A. Pre-Spanish C. American B. Spanish D. Japanese 61. Which psychological view is associated with the work of Lev Vygotsky? A. Child is an active agent in his or her educational process B. Child a passive agent in his or her educational process C. Morality is based on what other people feel D. Child learns by imitating other people 2. 62. Which curriculum model gave emphasis on “backward design”? A. NESC C. RBEC B. NSEC D. UBD 63. The program that gives access to every Filipino the access to early childhood education is A. Universal Kindergarten C. Generic Elementary Education B. Bantay Bata D. Vocational School Program 64. Which program address the learner and learning process? A. Program Decentralized Educational Development (PRODED) B. The Basic Educational Curriculum (BEC) C. Secondary Education Development Program (SEDP) D. Both b and c. 65. Building proficiency through language in the K to 12 program expects a Grade 1 pupil to ____. A. gain knowledge in areas such as Biology, Geometry, Earth Science, Chemistry, and Algebra B. can read in his or her Mother Tongue. C. choose a specialization based on aptitude, interests, and school capacity D. acquire in-depth knowledge, skills, values, and attitudes through continuity and consistency across all levels and subjects. 66. Whose role is to be the curriculum leader and at the same time instructional leader and is supposed to be the general manager? A. The Principal B. The Are Chairman C. The Subject Teacher D. The School Guidance Counselor 67. A “curriculum” is defined as a delivery system that provides children with ___________. A. Guidance and feedback C. Enjoyment and knowledge B. Finessed and motor skills D. Sequence and direction 68. Which three learning domains are involved in teaching physical education? A. Cognitive, affective, psychomotor B. Aerobic, strength, flexibility C. Motor Skill, manipulative skills, physical fitness D. Behavioural, cognitive, psychological 69. The initial level in curriculum design is to: A. Define objectives B. Define a philosophy of the subject C. Organize a curriculum committee D. Define goals 70. The following are SubjectCantered Curriculum, which should NOT be include? A. Correlation Design C. Subject Design B. Discipline Design D. Life-situations Design 71. The Principal shares the thought with his teachers that the subject matter should help students understand and appreciate themselves as unique individuals who accept complete responsibility of their thoughts, feelings and actions. From which point of view is this thought based? A. Essentialism C. Progressivism B. Rationalism D. Existentialism 72. Hilda Tab’s Grassroots approach believes: A. That teacher who teach or implement the curriculum should participate in developing it. B. That schools should operate with a specific curriculum C. That administrators are educational qualified in order to facilitate an appropriate curriculum D. That school principals should implement rules among teachers when teaching. 73. If teacher Angel wants to follow Piaget’s theory, what should she provide for her pupils who are in the sensorimotor stage? A. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering B. games and other physical activities to develop motor skills C. Activities which formulates hypothesis D. Wide space with minimal object to play with.

3. 74. In what era could you possibly lived if education us characterized as practical training –satisfy basic needs and transmit social ideas, belief and traditions? A. Spanish Era C. Pre-Spanish Era B. American Era D. Japanese Era 75. Learners at the center of the curriculum implies the following EXCEPT. A. The learner is place at the center B. The learners are the very reason a curriculum is developed. C. They are the ones who are directly influenced by learning. D. Learners in all levels make or unmake the curriculum by their passive and indirect involvement. Educational Technology 76. Teacher Liah wants to show her class a magnified picture of Tall Volcano fixed on a bond paper. Which among the following should she utilize to accomplish her goal? A. Video Tape C. LCD projector B. Slides D. Opaque projector 77. Which of the computer based system instructional tool can help you revise written work such as short stories and essays? A. Word processing C. Spreadsheet B. Database D. Desktop 78. It refers to the lowest level of involvement using computer technology. A. ICT C. E-Learning B. IT D. Web-browsing 79. Teacher Kylie monitors, evaluate and facilitate students’ use of tools and applications to collaborate, access information, and communicate to analyze and solve problems. Her competency in ICT is considered as A. Basic C. Advanced B. Proficient none of the above 80. The following are roles of information technology in Education, which is supposed to be REMOVED: A. Mobile devices that utilize information and communication technology give students and teachers more sources of information, which makes learning nearly anything more accessible. B. Staff member can find and send transcript information and other records quickly by accessing a digital filing system, saving time and paper. C. Information and communication technology opens the doors for better distance learning programs, allowing those in disadvantaged areas to have access to the same education as the privileged. D. Teachers can enter grades and assignment in their class records saving electricity from computers. 81. Which of the following activity integrates technology to education? A. Technology is mostly being used by the instructor. B. Technology is mostly being used by the students. C. Technology is used purely for the sake of using technology 82. What is the initial stage in educational technology? A. Coupled with the use of aids like charts, maps, symbols, models, specimen and concrete materials. B. Associated with the ‘electronic revolution’ with the introduction and establishment of sophisticated hardware and software. C. Linked with the development of mass media which in turn led to ‘communication revolution’ for instructional purposes. D. Discernible by the individualized process of instruction. The invention of programmed learning and programmed instruction provided a new dimension to educational technology. 83. Which rationale of the used technology is attributed to engagement? A. Using technology transforms the teacher from authority-expert to facilitator when the students are guided to use technology to find answers online. B. Students transformed from passive recipients of the teacher’s knowledge to active participants in knowledge-seeking and knowledgeconstruction. C. Students using technology become active in learning process instead of passive listeners. D. The internet provides access to an incredible array of information sources, media, and communications. 84. Which of the following best

gives life to the subject matter? A. Instructional Materials C. individualized Learning B. Computer Technology D. Mass Instruction 85. Teacher Angel want to supplement learning for her SPEd class, which of the following may she utilized as a supplemental material? A. Magazine C. Use LCD projectors 4. B. Mass Instruction D. Use slides 86. Teacher Mira will borrow audio-visual aids from the library, which of the following should be REMOVED from her requisition form? A. Motion Pictures C. Videotape B. Television D. Specimen 87. If teacher Leo wants his students to see exhibits, which place should he arranged foa a tour? A. Library C. Clinic B. Museum D. School’s storage room 88. Field trips falls under the _______________. A. Demonstrations C. Programmed Instruction B. Graphic Materials D. Community Resources 89. Mrs. Reyes asks her students to bring graphic materials for tomorrows lessons. Which of the following should her students bring? A. Maps and Globes C. Bulletin Board B. Television D. phonograph 90. Of which mode of technology teaching should Sandy participate should she wants to give emphasis much on the approach or technique rather than a reliance on specific type of hardware? A. Mass Instruction C. Group Learning B. Individualized Learning D. none of the above 91. State the best reason as not to bring snakes when the topic to be discussed is about reptiles? A. Affordable C. Extreme B. Interesting D. Feasible 92. It is mentioned that the “teacher is the best visual aid”, why is this so? A. The Teacher is always expected to prepare the best visual aids. B. The teacher acts as a medium in the teaching-learning process. C. The teacher is able to utilize visual aids expertly. D. The teacher is a source of mastery. 93. Teacher Biance was absent for 2 days because of flu. Which is the fastest way to send her lectures to her students so they could read them? A. Email the lectures to her students B. Send the lecture through their group in a social networking site. C. Blog the message D. Send it through a courier 94. Sir Joey is a Grade 4 and 5 teacher in Polilo, Quezon. The place has a ration of electricity which is switched on only from 2pm until 6am the following day. The topic he has for his lesson this week ai all about the different bodies of water. Which audio-visual material should he use for the lesson? A. PowerPoint presentation C. transparencies and projector B. Video film D. pictures 95. The following are different teaching methods that Ms. Cindy is utilizing. Which method should she use if is going to utilize computers? A. Cooperative Learning C. Individualized Instruction B. Role Play D. Distance Learning 96. What happen to your files if you compress the? A. The size will be smaller B. The files will be bigger C. The file size will be deleted D. The file will be infected by viruses 97. Technology like the internet can be used so that students may visit museums, listen to or watch great performances, and have their own music practice supported and analysed. This is known as ____________. A. Virtual interaction C. Virtual communication B. Virtual performance D. Virtual tour 98. Teacher Dora aims at developing deep competency using the problem solving environment provided by the computer. Which rationale of using technology is she using? A. Reflection of Current Practice B. ProblemSolving and Project-Based Learning C. Archiving D. Cooperative Grouping 99. The

following area are the contribution of ICT in the classroom EXCEPT A. Provision for individual resources B. Shared learning spaces 5. C. The promotion of collaborative learning D. The movement towards autonomous learning 100. “An Act to integrate information technology into public elementary and secondary curricula and approaching funds therefor” can be found in A. House Bill 845 C. RA 7610 B. BP 232 D. RA 90210

LET Physical Science 1. The radius of the path of an object in uniform circular motion is doubled. The centripetal force needed if its speed remains the same is ________. A. Four times as before B. Half as great as before C. Twice as much D. Three times as much 2. Car A has a mass of 1000kg and a speed of 60km/hr. car B has amass of 2000kg and a speed of 30km/hr. compare the kinetic energy foe car A with that of car B. A. Half as much B. Four times as much C. Equal D. Twice as much 3. What would be the horizontal line in a position-time graph means? A. Changing position, constant velocity B. Constant position, constant velocity C. Changing position, increase velocity D. Constant position, zero velocity 2. 4. What is the car’s acceleration if ten seconds after the starting from rest; it is moving at 40m/s? A. 4.0m/s2 B. 10m/s2 C. 2.5m/s2 D. 0.25m/s2 5. A heavy object and a light object are released from the rest at the same height and time in a vacuum. As they fall, they have equal ________. A. Weights B. Moments C. Acceleration D. Energies 6. Airplanes are designed with pointed nose and thin tails in order to__________. A. Produce fluid friction B. Reduce drag C. Increase the lift of the wing D. Lessen the forward thrust 7. A stone was thrown upward from the roof, at the same time that an identical stone was dropped from there. The two stones will ________. A. Have the same velocity upon reaching the ground B. Take the same time to reach the ground C. Have they same acceleration when they reach the ground D. Reach the ground at the same time 8. In a pair of scissors, the fulcrum is located at the ________. A. Handle 3. B. Screw C. Tip of the blades D. Sharp edges 9. What kind of energy is possessed by water falling from a dam? A. Potential B. Kinetic C. Accelerating D. Interacting 10. If an object were equipped with a speedometer and allowed to fall freely on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 20m/s2, by, how much will the reading on the speedometer increase each second? A. 30m/s B. 20m/s C. 40m/s D. 10m/s 11. According to the kinetic molecular theory, liquids are similar in solids in that _______. A. Their molecules are arrange in a regular manner B. The motion of their particles changes with temperature C. The motion of their particles cannot be determined D. There is very little space in their molecules 12. When the solid block of materials is cut in half, its density is ________. A. Unchanged B. Halves C. Doubled D. Tripled 13. A ball is launched at an angle of 60 degrees from the horizontal. What do you call the horizontal distance traveled by the ball?

4. A. Trajectory B. Projectile C. Range D. Hyperbola 14. Which of the following is TRUE about an object thrown horizontally? A. The vertical distance traveled increases uniformly B. The horizontal motion is uniformly accelerated C. The horizontal component of velocity increases D. The velocity of the subject increases 15. In the absence of the air resistance, a projectile has a maximum range when thrown at an angle of __________. A. 90 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 45 degrees 16. A 400 N woman stands on top of a very tall ladder so she is one earth radius above the earth’s surface. How much does she weights? A. 100N B. Zero C. 200N D. 400N 17. What must be the minimum length of the plane mirror in order for you to see a full view of yourself? A. Your full height B. One-fourth C. One-half D. Three-fourths 18. A rifle recoils from firing a bullet. The speed of the recoil is slow because ___________. 5. A. The force against the rifle is less B. The rifle has more mass than the bullet C. The impulse on the rifle is less D. The momentum of the rifle is unchanged. 19. Which statements differentiate weight for mass? A. Weight is distance from a reference point B. Weight has volume, mass has none C. Weight is a full of gravity, mass is space occupied D. Weight is a force while mass is amount of matter 20. Who established the relationship between the volume of a gas and the pressure when the temperature is constant? A. Blaise Pascal B. Robert Boyle C. Lavoisier D. Archimedes ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. B 6. 19. D 20. B

1. Most cars have ‘’four-stroke internal combustion engines.” Which of the following gives thecorrect sequence of the four strokes?A. Power-compression-intakeexhaustB. Compression-exhaust-power-intakeC. Intake-power-compressionexhaustD. Intake-compression-power-exhaust2. The image in a plane mirror is _______________.A. Inverted, virtual with a magnification of 1B. upright, real with a magnification of 2C. inverted, real with a magnification of ½D. upright, virtual with a magnification of 13. Which of the following wave characteristics remains unchanged when a wave crosses aboundary into a different medium?A. Velocity C. FrequencyB. Amplitude D. Wavelength4. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the lowest frequencies?A. Gamma rays C. Ultraviolet raysB. Radio waves D. X-rays5. If something gets a positive electric charge, then follows that something else__________.A. become magnetizedB. becomes equally negatively chargedC. becomes equally positively chargedD. becomes negatively charged, but not necessarily equally negatively charged6. Hydrocarbons which do NOT have maximum number of hydrogen atoms are _______.A. aromatic C. saturatedB. isometric D. unsaturated

2. 7. Metals have been used for making coins and jewelry. Which of the following characteristics istrue of metals?A. Metals are malleable and ductileB. Metals have high tensile strengthC. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricityD. all of the above8. Which of the following is that single force applied at the same point that will produce thesame effect?A. reactant force C. resultant forceB. composite force D. concurrent force9. How many grams of chloral are needed to produce 10.5 g of DDT?A. 10.5 g C. 4.36 gB. 8.72 g D. 13.1 g10. The half-life Carbon- 14 is 6739 years. Suppose a container was found to contain one half asmuch Carbon- 14 as a new basket of the same material. What is the approximate age of thebowl?A. 3716 years C. 2856 yearsB. 1432 years D. 6739 years11. What kind of energy is present whenever a body is at a distance from the ground?A. elastic potential energyB. electric potential energyC. electromagnetic potential energyD. gravitational potential energy12. A lunar eclipse occurs when the ____________.A. moon is between the sun and the earthB. moon, earth and sun form a right angleC. earth is between the moon and sunD. sun is in between moon and earth13. How long does it takes the moon to go through all of its phases?A. 1 year B. 29 ½ days C. 24 hours D. 27 1/3 days14. Which of these minerals is present in seawater with the highest percentage?A. Sodium chloride C. Magnesium chlorideB. Magnesium sulfate D. Calcium sulfate15. What must be the minimum length of a plane mirror in order for you to see a full view o fyourself?A. Your full height C. One-halfB. One-forth D. Three-fourths16. At what particular instance will the period and frequency of a wave changed?A. When it travels from one medium to anotherB. When it is at its equilibrium positionC. When it interferes with another waveD. When it reflects17. What laws states that there is decrease in pressure at the side of a moving stream of fluid?A. Bernoulli’s Law C. Archimedes’ LawB. Pascal’s Law D. Hooke’s Law 3. 18. Whose discovery involved the production of magnetism by means of electricity?A. Ohm B. Lenz C. Faraday D. Oersted19. In the absence of air friction, what happens when a balls allowed to roll down one hill and upa second hill?A. The ball would lose speed more slowly as it moves up the second hill.B. The ball would travel a longer distance uphill.C. The ball would travel a shorter distance as it moves up.D. The ball would practically reach the same horizontal level from where it started.20. A car travels at 80 km/hr for 0.5 hr, then goes 100 km/hr for 1 hour, and finally 60 km/hr for0.5 hr. What is the average speed for the 2-hour travel?A. 80 km/hr C. 100 km/hrB. 90 km/hr D. 85 km/hr21. In Moh’s scale, which is the softest and the hardest mineral?A. Talc – Diamond C. Calcite – FeldsparB. Gypsum – Quartz D. Talc – Corundum22. According to the kinetic molecular theory, liquids are similar to solids in that ___________A. their molecules are arranged in a regular manner.B. the motion of their particles changes with temperature.C. the motion of their particles cannot be determined.D. there is very little space between their molecules.23. When two or more objects collide the quantity that does NOT change is the total__________.A. Momentum of all the objects C. kinetic energy of all the objectsB. kinetic energy of each object D. momentum of each object24. What is the correct formula for finding the efficiency of a machine?A. Efficiency = input force

/output force x 100%B. Efficiency = output force/input force x 100%C. Efficiency = output work/input work x 100%D. Efficiency = input work/ output work x 100%25. The energy of a hammer hitting a nail isA. heat C. electricB. chemical D. mechanical26. Disregarding air resistance, an object falling towards the earth’s surface has an accelerationthat is _____________.A. decreasing C. constantB. increasing D. depending on object’s weight27. If the moon’s gravity becomes 1/4 that of Earth, which of the following will apply?I. The moon will no longer cause tides on the earth’s oceans.II. A 65–kilo person on earth will weigh about 18 kilos on the moon.III. It will be easy to lift heavy objects on the moon.IV. The moon will not hold a thick atmosphere of gasses.A. II, III and IV C. I, II and IIIB. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV 4. 28. The headings of a car with a 12V electrical system are 40W each the tail lights 6.0 W each,and the radios is 20 W. What is the total power of this circuit?A. 1200 W C. 110 WB. 240 W D. 3600 W29. Abundance of waste materials in water decreases primary productivity due to ___________.A. blockage of light penetrationB. amount of nutrients availableC. reduced amount of oxygen in the waterD. accumulation of aquatic organisms30. What is the direction of the magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave?A. parallel to the electric field C. parallel to the motionB. perpendicular to the electric field D. random31. A ball of mass 0.15 is thrown with a speed of 20 m/s against a wall. What is its momentum ifit rebounds after colliding elastically?A. +3.0 kg m/s B. -30 kg m/s C. -3.0 kg m/s D. +30 kg m/s32. How are echoes minimized in halls and auditoriums?A. covering hard reflecting surfaces with curtainsB. opening the doors of the auditoriumsC. creating a wider space for sound to travelD. limiting the accessories installed inside33. A large depression caused by a collapse of the slopes of a volcano is called a _________.A. basin C. base levelB. syncline D. caldera34. Where does the pick up needle on a phonograph move the fastest across the record?A. At the endB. The needle move at the same speed throughoutC. In the middle of the phonograph recordD. At the beginning35. Compared to the density of seawater, a kind of fish that lives at the bottom of the ocean has adensity that is __________.A. lesser C. sameB. greater D. equal36. The additional of Br2 is used as the reaction to distinguish between alkenes and alkanes.Which of the following observations accompanies this test?A. When Br2 is added to the double bond of alkenes to make a dibromide, it becomescolorless.B. A bright red color is produced when Br2 reacts with alkenes.C. The red color of bromine disappears when it dissolves in alkenes.D. Bromine dissolved in alkenes but not in alkenes.37. Which statement is CORRECT about a rechargeable battery?A. Its REDOX reactions are not complete.B. Its REDOX reactions are not reversible.C. Its REDOX reactions are complete.D. Its REDOX reactions are reversible. 5. 38. A ray of light is incident on a plane surface separating two transparent substances ofrefractive indices 1.70 and 1.50. The angle of incidence is 30 deg and the ray originates in themedium of higher index. The angle of refraction is _________.A. 79.0 C. 45.0B. 34.5 D. 26.239. Chrome plating is one method to prevent

corrosion. This process can be carried outby_______.A. using secondary cells C. using primary cellsB. electrolytic process D. zone refining40. What does the slope of the graph of stretching force against elongation indicate?A. elastic limit C. gravitational limitB. resistivity constant D. spring constantGOOD LUCK! –Prof. Cris PanerAnswer Key:1. D 11. D 21. A 31. C2. D 12. C 22.B 32. A3. C 13. B 23. A 33. D4. B 14. A 24. C 34. B5. D 15. C 25. D 35. D6. D 16. C 26. C 36. A7. D 17. A 27. C 37. D8. D 18. C 28. A 38. A9. D 19. A 29. C 39. B10. D 20. D 30. B 40. D

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about slang expressions? a. Are expressions that are not considered standard in the speaker's language or dialect b. Are considered acceptable in certain social settings c. Are widely used in informal and formal speech and writing d. May be new words or old ones used with a new meaning e. Have a very short, momentary life 2. Which of the following words qualifies as slang? a. Spyware d. Goalie b. Scrub suit e. None of the Above c. Ammo 3. Which of the following linguists introduced the term “register” in 1956? a. Thomas Bertram Reid d. Robert Lado b. M.A.K. Halliday e. Benjamin Sapir c. Henry Widdowson 4. What term is used to refer to a variety of language used for a particular purpose or in a particular social setting? a. Register d. Idiolect b. Basilect e. None of the Above c. Dialect 5. The following words seem to belong to the same register, EXCEPT--- a. desist d. debit b. null e. litigation c. mitigate 6. Which of the following statements characterize ESP in the context of English language teaching? a. It is designed to meet specified needs of the learner. b. It is related in content to particular disciplines, occupations and activities. c. It is centred on the language appropriate to those activities in syntax, lexis, discourse, semantics, etc., and analysis of this discourse. d. It is in contrast with General English. e. All of the above NAME DATE SCORE /100 2. 7. The following are characteristics of “casual register,” EXCEPT--- a. Common among friends in a social setting b. Wording is exactly the same every time it is spoken c. No background information provided d. Contains a lot of ellipsis e. Tends to be slangy 8. Which of the following is a jargon of academe? a. pedagogy d. deficit b. leveraging e. none of the above c. bureaucracy 9. Which is an example of a course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)? a. English for Medical Studies d. English for Technicians b. English for Research Writing e. English for Classroom Application c. English for Social Advocacy 10. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and variable characteristics? a. Tony Dudley-Evans d. Martin Joos b. Tom Hutchinson e. David Nunan c. Peter Strevens 11. The following writing outputs are products of English for Academic Purposes (EAP), EXCEPT--- a. business letters d. laboratory reports b. financial reports e. thesis abstracts c. poems 12. What refers to terminology especially defined in relationship to a specific activity, profession, group, or event? a. Subculture slang d. Mesolect b. Genre e. Jargon c. Style 13. Who identified the three types of ESP as a restricted language, as English for Academic and Occupational Purposes, and as English with specific topics? a. David Carter d.

Marianne Celce-Murcia b. Ruqaiya Hasan e. Peter Trudgill c. Alan Waters 14. What is an “argot”? a. An inferior dialect resulting from corrupting a particular language b. A euphemistic expression used by a particular group of individuals c. An informal specialized vocabulary related to a hobby, job, sport, etc. d. An invented language resulting from geographical isolation e. None of the above 15. Which of the following texts are products of “academic writing”? a. Conference papers d. Opinion columns b. Blog articles for students e. All of the above c. Personal essays PART TWO STYLISTICS RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure your stored knowledge of the key concepts, general theoretical framework, the levels of style and the corresponding devices, and procedures applied to the analysis of style in literary texts. 3. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  STYLISTICS 1. What is a “motif” in literary writing? a. The main insight, central idea, or universal truth found in a literary work b. An image or idea repeated throughout a work or several works of literature c. The element of surprise in a work of fiction, such as twist ending d. The writing style adopted by the author which is revealed in his/her word choice e. None of the above 2. Which of the following statements define stylistics accurately? a. It deals with expressive means which secure the desirable effect of the utterance b. Is the study of literary discourse from a linguistic orientation c. Explicates the message to interpret and evaluate literary writings as works of art d. All of the Above e. None of the Above 3. Which of the following best illustrates “understatement”? a. “That’s wrong, Einstein.” (Addressing somebody who does not know the answer.) b. “I think our opinions differ slightly.” (“I don’t agree with you at all.”) c. “I’m so hungry I could eat a horse!” d. “That sounds really interesting.” (Said about a lame idea) e. None of the Above 4. In this excerpt from Emily Dickinson’s poem, I Heard a Fly Buzz When I Died, what stylistic device was employed by the poet as illustrated by the underlined phrase? “And breaths were gathering sure/ For that last onset, when the king/ Be witnessed in his power.” a. Paradox d. Antithesis b. Irony e. Oxymoron c. Parallelism 5. In stylistics parlance, what term refers to the appropriateness of a work to its subject, its genre, and its audience? a. Diction d. Point of View b. Decorum e. Style c. Tone 6. Which of the following terms refers to the emotional color of or the prevalent emotion in a poem or work of fiction? a. Local color d. Diction b. Theme e. Mood c. Imagery 7. Which of the following lines best exemplifies “paradox”? a. “The child is father of the man.” (Wordsworth) b. “O hateful love, o loving hate! I burn and freeze like ice!” (Shakespeare) c. “At the drunkard’s funeral, four of his friends carried the bier.” d. “Don’t we all love peace and hate war? / Shouldn’t we try to be friendlier towards each other?” e. None of the Above 8. In Hawthorne's The Scarlet Letter, Rev. Dimmesdale metaphorically fades away (dims) as the novel progresses, while Chillingworth has a cold (chilled) heart. What figurative language is used here? a. Symbol d. Pun b. Charactonym e. Metaphor c. Allusion

4. 9. Which of the following expressions exemplify the stylistic device called “allusion”? a. Shakespeare is a literary titan. d. Philippines, O, Pearl of the Orient! b. Death, be not proud! e. All of the Above c. Not yet, Rizal, not yet. 10. What rhetorical device did Bacon use in the following excerpt from his essay, “Of Studies,” when he drew a comparison between reading and medicine? Nay, there is no obstacle or impediment in the wit, but may wrought out by fit studies; like as diseases of the body may have appropriate exercises: bowling is good for the stone and reins; shooting for the lungs and breast; gentle walking for the stomach; riding for the head; and the like. a. Anaphora d. Irony b. Analogy e. Understatement c. Metaphor 11. Which branch of stylistics studies functions of direct and figurative meanings, as well as the way contextual meanings of words are realized in the text? a. Grammatical Stylistics d. Individual Style Study b. Functional Stylistics e. Lexical Stylistics c. Phonostylistics 12. Which of the following passages best exemplifies “antithesis”? a. For everything there is a season, and a time for every matter under heaven: a time to be born, and a time to die; a time to plant, and a time to pluck up what is planted. (Ecc. 3:1) b. To err is human; to forgive, divine. (Alexander Pope) c. A man without ambition is dead. A man with ambition but no love is dead. A man with ambition and love for his blessings here on earth is ever so alive. (Pearl Bailey) d. The mistakes of the fool are known to the world, but not to himself. The mistakes of the wise man are known to himself, but not to the world. (Charles Caleb Colton) e. Tell me and I forget. Teach me and I may remember. Involve me and I will learn. (Benjamin Franklin) 13. The first line in the following excerpts from Shakespeare’s play “The Tempest” illustrates a clever combination of two poetic devices. What are these? Full fathom five thy father lies; Of his bones are coral made; Those are pearls that were his eyes: Nothing of him that doth fade, But doth suffer a sea change Into something rich and strange. Sea nymphs hourly ring his knell: Ding-dong. Hark! Now I hear them – Ding-dong bell. a. Personification and apostrophe d. Alliteration and assonance b. Oxymoron and metaphor e. Assonance and consonance c. Irony and apostrophe 5. 14. What creative use of language is illustrated in this excerpt from Dylan Thomas’ poem, Do not go gentle into that good night: “Grave men, near death, who see with blinding sight” ? a. Assonance d. Apostrophe b. Metaphor e. Pun c. Symbolism 15. The last two lines: Sea nymphs hourly ring his knell:/Ding-dong. Hark! /Now I hear them – Ding-dong bell/ contain a “sound technique” commonly used by poets to add musicality to their work. What techniques are these? a. Consonance and rhythm d. Onomatopoeia and assonance b. Onomatopoeia and rhyme e. None of the above c. Assonance and rhyme 16. Which of the following expressions best exemplifies a stylistic device called “litotes”? a. It’s not unusual to find Richard everyday at the library. b. Defeating a chess grandmaster is no ordinary feat. c. They aren’t the happiest couple around d. Einstein was not a bad mathematician. e. All of the above 17. Frost is making a serious point about human nature in his poem, Fire and Ice, but his tone is completely at odds with his message. What type of irony is employed here? Some say the world will end in fire,

Some say in ice. From what I’ve tasted of desire I hold with those who favour fire. But if I had to perish twice, I think I know enough of hate To say that for destruction ice Is also great And would suffice. a. Irony of Situation d. Irony of Fate b. Dramatic Irony e. Cosmic Irony c. Verbal Irony 18. Which of the following is NOT an example of “metonymy”? a. The controversial couple are living under the same roof. b. The White House declared full support for child-friendly campaigns. c. Empty pockets never held anyone back. Only empty heads and empty hearts can do that. (Norman Vincent Peale) d. This land belongs to the crown. e. The pen is mightier than the sword. (Edward Bulwer-Lytton) 6. 19. To concretize the concept of hatred, Frost chose the word “ice.” What kind of figurative language is the word “ice” in this poem? a. Symbol d. Paradox b. Metonymy e. Motif c. Imagery 20. This excerpt from Ovid’s Daedalus and Icarus illustrates a structural device used by writers to prepare the reader for a future event. What device is this? And Icarus, his son, stood by and watched him, Not knowing he was dealing with his downfall, Stood by and watched, and raised his shiny face To let a feather, light as down, fall on it, Or stuck his thumb into the yellow wax, Fooling around, the way a boy will, always, Whenever a father tries to get some work done. a. Flashbacking d. Epiphany b. Foreshadowing e. Allusion c. Frame story 21. In this excerpt from the short story A Spring by the Seaside, author N.V.M. Gonzalez makes masterful use of which literary device? After Longos River, the trail to Mauhaw climbs the Hill of the White Cows and for ten kilometres or so wanders about the rolling cogon country before finally entering the woods. Only then may one get glimpses of the sea, heart-warming pictures framed in by palmabrava and dao trees. Mauhaw Bay itself comes after woods, the winding trail, after the resin-fragrant winds that strum the buri leaves as though these were guitars. a. Symbolisms d. Metaphors b. Local color e. None of the above c. Allusions 22. In Percy Bysshe Shelley’s Ozymandias, he startles us by depicting an ancient boast that survives on the vacant pedestal. What literary device was employed in this excerpt? And on the pedestal these words appear: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” Nothing beside remains. Round the decay Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare The lone and level sands stretch far away. a. Oxymoron d. Irony b. Paradox e. Anticlimax c. Metaphor 23. What stylistic device is exemplified by the underlined words in Shelley’s sonnet? a. Symbol d. Metaphor b. Allusion e. None of the above c. Overstatement 24. What sound technique is used in this excerpt from A.E. Housman’s poem? Loveliest of trees, the cherry now Is hung with bloom along the bough a. Rhyme d. Alliteration b. Repetition e. Consonance c. Assonance 7. 25. In I.R. Galperin’s five styles in present-day English, which of the following falls under what he called “Belles Lettres”? a. Oratory and speeches d. News and advertisements b. Emotive prose and the drama e. All of the above c. Essays and articles PART THREE THE STRUCTURE of ENGLISH RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure your knowledge and understanding of the structural and grammatical

aspects of language, as well as of the tools and methods of modern linguistics used in describing how English sentences are constructed. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. In which of the following structures does the word “off ” function as an “adverbial particle”? a. You’re off the hook. d. Their on and off relationship b. Off with you! e. We put it off too long c. I’m not off yet. 2. The following words may belong to the same lexical category, EXCEPT --- a. give d. book b. place e. play c. fame 3. Which of the following statements about sentence structure is NOT correct? a. Two words (lexis) that belong to the same category (lexical category) can substitute each other in a sentence. b. Each word has a limitless range of possible functions. c. There are restrictions on how the words can combine to form grammatical phrases. d. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of words called ‘phrasal categories.’ e. The distribution of a word in a sentence structure determines its function. 4. Which of the following phrases would be generated by this Phrase Structure Rule: NP  Art(Adj)N + PP  Prep Det N? a. An old letter beneath your pillow b. The house at the end of the street c. My one chance at winning the lottery d. One day at a time e. That old powerful beast of burden 5. Which of the following word groups is a sentence fragment? a. They fought d. A family just moved in b. Quit it e. All of the Above c. The boy and the girl’s uncle 6. In which of the following sentences does the verb “be” (is) function as the intensive verb or copula? a. Ed is annoying. d. Ed is annoying me. b. Ed is fooling around. e. Ed is going out of control. c. Ed is giving me a hard time. 8. 7. Which type of grammar deals with the rules determining the structure and interpretation of sentences that speakers accept as belonging to the language? a. Comparative Grammar d. Performance Grammar b. Theoretical Grammar e. Generative Grammar c. Universal Grammar 8. Which of the following are “optional constituents” of this sentence: “The grumpy history teacher surprised us with an unannounced quiz.” a. grumpy, history, teacher d. grumpy, history, unannounced b. grumpy, surprised, unannounced e. grumpy, surprised, quiz c. grumpy, teacher, quiz 9. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”? a. A sequence of words that does not express a complete thought b. A sequence of words that can function as a sentence constituent c. A sequence of words that contains only a subject and no predicate d. A sequence of words that contains only a predicate and no subject e. None of the above 10. Which of the following sentence structures contains a “ditransitive verb group”? a. Max had replied to my letter. b. Max has turned a subtle shade of red. c. Max hates huge spiders. d. Max found his own jokes extremely funny. e. Max is giving his boss a headache. 11. The following can function as “intensive verbs,” EXCEPT--- a. make d. turn b. seem e. remain c. become 12. What is the function of the underlined constituent in the following sentence: “ Phil dreads wild animals in the jungle” ? a. Obligatory Complement d. Optional Complement b. Optional Modifier e. Objective Predicative c. Indirect Object 13. Which of the following is a “complex” sentence? a. Don’t make any comment

unless you are fully aware of the issue . b. I didn’t start this dispute and I don’t want to have anything to do with it. c. You can wallow in your miseries or you can start over and move on. d. Jen likes her new house, but she doesn’t like the front yard. e. My mind changed on my way to the party, so I headed home. 14. Which of the following sentence structures is “syntactically ambiguous”? a. The mayor invited all city hall employees to his birthday dinner. b. The columnist writes feature articles on antique writing desks. c. The man with a tall hat sits rather uncomfortably at the dinner table. d. The valet looks imposing in his purple velvet vest. e. None of the above 9. 15. Which approach to grammar refers to the structure of a language as it is actually used by speakers and writers? a. Prescriptive Grammar d. Descriptive Grammar b. Pedagogical Grammar e. Reference Grammar c. Mental Grammar 16. Which of the following structures qualifies as a “determiner phrase”? a. An anecdote d. Your property b. Her predicament e. All of the above c. My pet 17. Syntax deals with the following concepts, EXCEPT--- a. rules of correct usage d. lexical categories b. smaller units called constituents e. distribution and function c. structural analysis 18. In Chomsky’s Transformational Grammar, to what does a sentence’s “deep structure” refer? a. The version of a sentence that we articulate and hear b. The outward form of a sentence c. The final stage in the syntactic representation of a sentence d. The abstract representation of a sentence e. None of the above 19. “Lexical ambiguity” is best exemplified by which of the following sentences? a. He’s a sore loser. d. She’s a liar. b. That’s a good pitch. e. The tree fell over. c. You bet it’s real! 20. The following statements about prepositions and prepositional phrases are true, EXCEPT--- a. Prepositions indicate the relationship of a noun phrase to the rest of the sentence. b. Prepositions are structurally and functionally identical to particles. c. Prepositions serve as heads of prepositional phrases. d. Prepositional phrases perform adjectival and adverbial functions. e. Prepositions must not be separated from their following noun phrases. PART FOUR INTRODUCTION TO LINGUISTICS RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure how much you could recall of the concepts, theories, and special terms in linguistics and its subfields. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. What is the study of larger linguistic units, such as conversational exchanges or written texts? a. Rhetoric d. Discourse Analysis b. Stylistics e. Pragmatics c. Genre Analysis 2. Which of the following words contains a derivational morpheme? a. Men’s apparel d. Words uttered b. Larger than life e. None of the Above c. Vast improvement 3. Which theory of language origin claims that a number of words in any language are onomatopoeic? a. Divine Source Theory d. Glossogenetics Theory b. Natural-sound Source Theory e. None of the Above c. Oral-gesture Source Theory 10. 4. What do you call the smallest perceptible segments of speech sounds? a. Phones d. Morphemes b. Phonemes e. None of the Above c. Morphs 5. What are

allophones? a. Realizations of a phoneme d. Versions of a sound type b. Variants of one phoneme e. None of the Above c. Abstract units or sound types 6. What field of linguistics deals speaker-intended meanings? a. Semantics d. Syntax b. Pragmatics e. None of the Above c. Morphophonemics 7. Which of the following is NOT a minimal pair? a. Bear – Bare d. Pace - Face b. Site – Side e. None of the Above c. Bet – Bat 8. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The Speech Act Theory was proposed by John Austin and John Searle. b. Noam Chomsky introduced Functional Grammar and Generative Grammar. c. Hallidayan grammar is also called Systemic Functional Grammar. d. The term “communicative competence” was coined by Dell Hymes in 1966. e. None of the Above 9. What do you call the subsequent reference to an already introduced entity, used to maintain reference, as exemplified by the underlined word in these sentences: “I was waiting for the milkman, but he failed to show up this morning”? a. Referent d. Agent b. Deixis e. None of the Above c. Anaphora 10. Which of the following words is a result of coinage? a. Yogurt d. Infomercial b. Xerox e. None of the Above c. Smog 11. Which of the following is an accurate phonetic description of the phoneme [ g ]? a. Voiceless velar stop d. Voiceless alveolar stop b. Voiced alveolar stop e. None of the Above c. Voiced velar stop 12. In which of the following examples should the vowel “a” be treated as a bound morpheme? a. About d. AWOL b. A boy e. None of the Above c. Asexual 13. Which property of human language allows the users of language to talk about things and events not present in the immediate environment? a. Arbitrariness d. Discreteness b. Displacement e. None of the Above c. Productivity 14. Which of the following syllables have an “onset” and a “nucleus,” but no “coda”? a. bat d. wash b. for e. beg c. see 11. 15. Which of the following is a non-gradable adjective? a. Consummate d. Full b. Subtle e. None of the Above c. Vivid 16. Words like “movie” (moving pictures), “Aussie” (Australian), and “hankie” (handkerchief) are produced from a type of backformation favoured in Australian and British English. What is the technical term for this word formation process” a. clipping d. calque b. hypocorism e. conversion c. derivation 17. Which of the following examples shows noun in its genitive form? a. Their mothers are here d. My mother’s tired b. Your mother’s the best e. None of the Above c. My mother’s best friend 18. What is the semantic role of the underlined word in this sentence: “Mary borrowed a magazine from George and hit the bug with it.” a. Theme d. Source b. Agent e. Goal c. Instrument 19. Which of the following is phonetically described as “mid front tense unrounded” vowel? a. [ i ] d. [ e ] b. [ u ] e. None of the Above c. * α + 20. Which of the following are non-gradable antonyms? a. Tight – Loose d. True - False b. Fast – Slow e. Wide - Narrow c. Young – Old PART FIVE REMEDIAL INSTRUCTION IN ENGLISH RATIONALE: This part of the test will measure how much you could recall concepts on English language teaching (ELT) strategies and methods in the context of English language learners (ELL) who find themselves struggling in matters of communicative competence in any or all the domains in communication. DIRECTIONS: Read the questions and consider the options carefully. Use the answer sheet provided. Shade the appropriate bracket

neatly. If you want to change your answer, cross out the first one. Erasures are strongly discouraged. START  1. What term is used to refer to the process of recognizing words by putting together letters and sounds? a. Encoding d. Phrase reading b. Decoding e. None of the above c. Skimming 2. Which learning theory views organized knowledge as an elaborate network of abstract mental structures which represent one's understanding of the world? a. Transformative Learning Theory d. Elaboration Theory b. Constructivist Theory e. Attribution Theory c. Schema Theory 12. 3. Who introduced the concepts of Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills (BICS) and Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency (CALP) in second language development in 1979? a. Jim Cummins d. Dell Hymes b. Jack Richards e. M.A.K. Halliday c. Grant Wiggins 4. The following are true about Communicative Language Teaching, EXCEPT--- a. Language is seen as a social tool that speakers use to make meaning. b. Diversity is recognized and accepted as part of language development. c. A fixed set of techniques and methodology is prescribed. d. More than one variety of a language is recognized as a viable model for learning and teaching. e. It is essential that learners be engaged in doing things with language. 5. What term is used to refer to the provision of sufficient support to promote learning when concepts and skills are being first introduced to students with the intention of helping the student achieve his/her learning goals? a. Intervention d. Modelling b. Scaffolding e. Coaching c. Tutorial 6. Which approach to language teaching is based on the behaviorist belief that language learning is the acquisition of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to use the target language communicatively, overlearn it, so as to be able to use it automatically? a. Grammar-Translation Method d. Suggestopedia b. Direct Method e. Audio-Lingual Method c. Communicative Approach 7. Which of the following is NOT accurate about Content-Based Instruction (CBI)? a. CBI is designed to provide second-language learners instruction content and language. b. CBI uses content as a vehicle for second or foreign language teaching and learning. c. The goal of CBI is to prepare students to acquire the language while using the context of a prescribed subject matter. d. Rather than learning a language out of context, it is learned within the context of a specific academic subject. e. The CBI approach is comparable to English for Specific Purposes (ESP), which usually is for vocational or occupational needs or English for Academic Purposes (EAP). 8. The following are characteristics of an Emergent Reader, EXCEPT--- a. Can differentiate between fact and fiction b. Can make predictions and tell why c. Can use pictures for clues d. Can retell a simple story read to them e. Can blend phonemes or letter sounds 13. 9. Self-monitoring and paying attention belong to which category of learning strategies identified by Oxford in 1989? a. Metacognitive d. Compensation b. Affective e. Social c. Cognitive 10. Which of the following is a symptom of retention difficulty? a. Confusion about the meaning of words and sentences b. Difficulty connecting what is read to prior knowledge c. Difficulty distinguishing significant

information from minor details d. Lack of concentration while reading e. Inability to connect ideas in a passage 11. The following statements about dyslexia are accurate, EXCEPT--- a. Manifests itself as a difficulty with fluent reading b. Not related to I.Q., since reading and cognition develop independently c. Has been proposed to have three cognitive subtypes: auditory, visual and attentional d. Confusion between letters and the sounds they represent e. Mainly characterized by letter or word reversal 12. Which of the following refers to the reader’s overall background experiences and prior knowledge? a. Schemata d. Decoding skill b. Context e. Retention skill c. Comprehension 13. Which of the following characterizes a “strategic reader”? a. Refers to the dictionary when an unfamiliar word is encountered in the text b. Chooses reading materials that are easier to read c. Previews a selection and rereads difficult passages d. Refrains from taking notes while reading e. None of the above 14. Which approach to reading involves the breaking down of words into its parts in order to study them? a. Syllabic Approach d. Analytic Approach b. Synthetic Approach e. Phonic Approach c. Eclectic Approach 15. Which of the following characterize the “interpretive level” of comprehension? a. Drawing inferences b. Detecting opinions and biases c. Organizing information d. Selecting and rejecting information e. Analyzing strengths and weaknesses of arguments 16. Which of the following explain why learning disabled students struggle with comprehension? a. Ineffective search behaviours e. All of the above b. Impaired working memory c. Inadequate decoding skills d. Inability to connect causal relationships 14. 17. Which of the following is also known as “Meaning-Based Approach”? a. Sight Word Approach d. Global Approach b. Syllabic Approach e. None of the above c. Analytic Approach 18. Which of the following best characterizes a Fluent Reader? a. Begins to self-correct b. Identifies main characters c. Begins to feel confident when reading orally d. Evaluates characters’ actions or behaviors e. Identifies highfrequency words 19. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Bottom-Up Model of Reading? a. It is a deductive model of reading because it involves whole-to-part processing. b. Suggests that the reader constructs meaning from all available sources c. The primary focus of instruction should be the reading of whole selections d. Reading is driven by the text, not the reader. e. The emphasis is on comprehension, not decoding. 20. What do you call those structured outlines that can effectively introduce a new material to students by showing key facts and vocabulary necessary for understanding concepts to be covered? a. diagrams d. chapter headings b. lecture notes e. mind maps c. glossary 1. Principal E wants her teachers to apply constructivism in teaching. Which concept/s will Principal E NOT accept? I. “Empty vessel” II. “Tabula rasa” III. Candle to be lighted A. III only B. I only C. II only D. I and II 7. 2. Soc exhibits fear response to freely roaming dogs but does not show fear when a dog is on a leash or confined to a pen. Which conditioning process is illustrated A. Generalization B. Extinction C. Acquisition D. Discrimination

8. 3. If a teacher states that Specialization knows more and more about less and less, hence it is better to be a generalist. What kind of philosophy does he uphold? A. Positivism B. Essentialism C. Progressivism D. Existentialism 9. 4. Who among the following puts more emphasis on core requirements, longer school day, longer academic year and more challenging textbooks? A. Perennialist B. Essentialist C. Progressivist D. Existentialist 10. 5. Principal B tells her teachers that training in the humanities is most important. To which educational philosophy does he adhere? A. Existentialism B. Perennialism C. Progressivism D. Essentialism 11. 6. Teacher B engages her students with information for thorough understanding for meaning and for competent application. Which principle governs Teacher B's practice? A. Constructivist B. Gestalt C. Behaviorist D. Cognitivist 12. 7. Principal C shares this thought with his teachers: Subject matter should help students understand and appreciate themselves as unique individuals who accept complete responsibility for their thoughts, feelings, and actions. From which philosophy is this thought based? A. Perennialism B. Essentialism C. Existentialism D. Progressivism 13. 8. A guest speaker in one graduation rites told his audience: "Reminder, you are what you choose to be." The guest speaker is more of a/an __________. A. realistic B. pragmatist C. idealist D. existentialist 14. 9. Ruben is very attached to his mother and Ruth to her father. In what developmental stage are they according to Freudian psychological theory? A. Oedipal stage B. Latent stage C. Anal stage D. Pre-genital stage 15. 10. The concepts of trust vs. maturity, autonomy vs. self-doubt, and initiative vs. guilt are most closely related with the works of __________. A. Erikson B. Piaget C. Freud D. Jung 16. 11. Value clarification as a strategy in Values Education classes is anchored on which philosophy? A. Existentialism B. Christian philosophy C. Idealism D. Hedonism 17. 12. Rodel is very aloof and cold in his relationships with his classmates. Which basic goal must haye not been attained by Rodel during his developmental years, according to Erikson's theory on psychological development? A. Autonomy B. Trust C. Initiative D. Generativity 18. 13. To come closer to the truth we need to go back to the things themselves. This is the advice of the A. behaviorists B. phenomenologists C. idealists D. pragmatists

19. 14. Teacher U teaches to his pupils that pleasure is not the highest good. Teacher's teaching is against what philosophy? A. Realism B. Hedonism C. Epicureanism D. Empiricism 20. 15. A mother gives his boy his favorite snack everytime the boy cleans up his room. Afterwards, the boy cleaned his room everyday in anticipation of the snack. Which theory is illustrated? A. Associative Learning B. Classical Conditioning C. Operant Conditioning D. Pavlonian Conditioning 21. 16. Behavior followed by pleasant consequences will be be strengthened and will be more likely to occur in the future. Behavior followed by unpleasant consequences will be weakened and will be less likely to be repeated in the future. Which one is explained? A. Freud's Psychoanalytic Theory B. Thorndike's Law of Effect C. B. F. Skinner's Operant Conditioning Theory D. Bandura's Social Learning Theory 22. 17. It is not wise to laugh at a two-year old child when he utters bad word because in his stage he is learning to __________. A. consider other's views B. distinguish sex differences C. socialize D. distinguish right from wrong 23. 18. Which types of play is most characteristic of a four to six-year old child? A. Solitary and onlooker plays B. Associative and cooperative plays C. Associative and onlooker plays D. Cooperative and solitary plays 24. Let’s check! 25. 1. Principal E wants her teachers to apply constructivism in teaching. Which concept/s will Principal E NOT accept? I. “Empty vessel” II. “Tabula rasa” III. Candle to be lighted A. III only B. I only C. II only D. I and II 26. 2. Soc exhibits fear response to freely roaming dogs but does not show fear when a dog is on a leash or confined to a pen. Which conditioning process is illustrated A. Generalization B. Extinction C. Acquisition D. Discrimination 27. 3. If a teacher states that Specialization knows more and more about less and less, hence it is better to be a generalist. What kind of philosophy does he uphold? A. Positivism B. Essentialism C. Progressivism D. Existentialism 28. 4. Who among the following puts more emphasis on core requirements, longer school day, longer academic year and more challenging textbooks? A. Perennialist B. Essentialist C. Progressivist D. Existentialist 29. 5. Principal B tells her teachers that training in the humanities is most important. To which educational philosophy does he adhere? A. Existentialism B. Perennialism C. Progressivism D. Essentialism

30. 6. Teacher B engages her students with information for thorough understanding for meaning and for competent application. Which principle governs Teacher B's practice? A. Constructivist B. Gestalt C. Behaviorist D. Cognitivist 31. 7. Principal C shares this thought with his teachers: Subject matter should help students understand and appreciate themselves as unique individuals who accept complete responsibility for their thoughts, feelings, and actions. From which philosophy is this thought based? A. Perennialism B. Essentialism C. Existentialism D. Progressivism 32. 8. A guest speaker in one graduation rites told his audience: "Reminder, you are what you choose to be." The guest speaker is more of a/an __________. A. realistic B. pragmatist C. idealist D. existentialist 33. 9. Ruben is very attached to his mother and Ruth to her father. In what developmental stage are they according to Freudian psychological theory? A. Oedipal stage B. Latent stage C. Anal stage D. Pre-genital stage 34. 10. The concepts of trust vs. maturity, autonomy vs. self-doubt, and initiative vs. guilt are most closely related with the works of __________. A. Erikson B. Piaget C. Freud D. Jung 35. 11. Value clarification as a strategy in Values Education classes is anchored on which philosophy? A. Existentialism B. Christian philosophy C. Idealism D. Hedonism 36. 12. Rodel is very aloof and cold in his relationships with his classmates. Which basic goal must haye not been attained by Rodel during his developmental years, according to Erikson's theory on psychological development? A. Autonomy B. Trust C. Initiative D. Generativity 37. 13. To come closer to the truth we need to go back to the things themselves. This is the advice of the A. behaviorists B. phenomenologists C. idealists D. pragmatists 38. 14. Teacher U teaches to his pupils that pleasure is not the highest good. Teacher's teaching is against what philosophy? A. Realism B. Hedonism C. Epicureanism D. Empiricism 39. 15. A mother gives his boy his favorite snack everytime the boy cleans up his room. Afterwards, the boy cleaned his room everyday in anticipation of the snack. Which theory is illustrated? A. Associative Learning B. Classical Conditioning C. Operant Conditioning D. Pavlonian Conditioning 40. 16. Behavior followed by pleasant consequences will be be strengthened and will be more likely to occur in the future. Behavior followed by unpleasant consequences will be weakened and will be less likely to be repeated in the future. Which one is explained? A. Freud's Psychoanalytic Theory B. Thorndike's Law of

Effect C. B. F. Skinner's Operant Conditioning Theory D. Bandura's Social Learning Theory 41. 17. It is not wise to laugh at a two-year old child when he utters bad word because in his stage he is learning to __________. A. consider other's views B. distinguish sex differences C. socialize D. distinguish right from wrong 42. 18. Which types of play is most characteristic of a four to six-year old child? A. Solitary and onlooker plays B. Associative and cooperative plays C. Associative and onlooker plays D. Cooperative and solitary plays 43. Preparing for let • Ask help from others. • Prayer. LOTS of prayer. 44. ONE WEEK BEFORE EXAMS 45. One week before the exam • Ready everything you’ll need. • Stay healthy. • Relax-relax din (kahit walang time). 46. ON EXAMINATION DAY 47. ON THE “BIG DAY” • Set your alarm! • Go to the CR. • Come ON time. • Come BEFORE time. 48. ON THE “BIG DAY” “Dala ka foods.” “Dala ka rin drinks.” 49. ON THE “BIG DAY” • Don’t Panic! • Listen to instructions. • Preview the exam. • Shade gently. • Avoid erasures. • Observe proper posture. 50. multiple choice • Do not overreact, over-solve and over analyze. Tips in answering: Cancellation technique Positive-negative technique Synonyms are out. Look for keywords. All questions have answers. Don’t leave blanks. 51. What if I really have no idea? • Last resort: Snake Road Theory B or C Theory Never Say D Theory The Longer the Better Theory The More the Merrier Theory Intuition Theory

1. The adoption of scientific techniques to control and manipulate environment such as modem methods for farming and fishing is called A. social change B. cultural change C. technological change D. discovery change 2. Heavily sanctioned folkway which no one dares to question because they embody moral laws are called A. beliefs B. mores C. customs D. tradition 3. What is that inevitable force in history which takes place from time to time? A. change B. progress C. development D. evolution 4. Nora Aunor became a legend in the showbusiness because of her talent, determination and hard work. What role does this illustrate? A. achieved role B. ascribed role C. hereditary role

2. D. temporary role 5. Pinning veil around the bride and the groom / exchange of rings, releasing of doves, etc. during wedding ceremony show that culture A. symbolic B. historical C. continuous D. changeless 6. Aling Maria has taught her daughter how to prepare good and delicious desserts from local fruits and vegetables. What cultural transmissionprocess is this? A. observation B. acculturation C. enculturation D. indoctrination 7. Mr. Francisco was teaching something on mores, folkways, customs and beliefs in his Social Studies class. What was his lesson about? A. material culture C. tangible culture B. non-material culture D. hereditary culture 8. It was the first day of school . Miss Dale Rosa prepared activities which will make her Grade III children sing, play, talk, learn and introduce themselves to the class. What process did the teacher emphasize? A. enculturation 3. B. indoctrination C. socialization D. acculturation 9. Mildred, an accountant, who now lives with a married man was disowned by her family and friends. This punishment is a form of _____________. A. isolation B. ostracism C. deportation D. character assassination 10.When a certain culture is acceptable to one group and questionable to others, it shows that: A. culture is borrowed B. culture is varied C. culture is a shared product D. culture is relative 11. The teaching and learning of religion and values mostly make use of A. enculturation B. culturation C. indoctrination D. acculturation 12. Which of the following situations presents a value conflict? A. The teacher pressures the student to get higher grades. B. The teacher and his students have better class standing as their priorities. C. The teacher and the administrator follow a set of criteria in giving grades D. The teacher has students whose parents want their children to obtain higher 4. grades than what they are capable of getting. 13. Miss Santiago is a stickler for cleanliness and orderliness in the classroom. For this, she asks her students to A. do the same even when they're at home B. remove their shoes in entering the classroom. C. formulate norms and remind them often to follow these norms. D. bring cleaning materials and clean the room before, during, and after classes 14. Which situation shows that a sense of nationhood is exemplified? A. When Miss Aguas asked her Grade II students in what country they wish to live, most of them chose Australia. B. The class was asked which brand of chocolate they would rather have, no one chose "chocnut." C. There is a class program. The girls volunteered to do a "balagtasan' D. The boys opted to make a choral rendition of the theme song of the movie "Titanic." 15. Which statement best indicates a balance between responsibility and authority? Miss Soriano has just provided a group activity to her class. While the class is at it, she says... A. You can talk as much as you want. B. You are forbidden to talk with each other. C. I'll send you out of the room if you so much create noise. D. You can talk provided you finish the work on time and do not disturb the other group 16. Which of the following behaviors bespeaks of a professional teacher? A. Speaks ill of the Filipino ways 5. B. Advocates the theme of nationhood C. Imparts his personal beliefs and ideology D. Seeks the cooperation of the parents for her own interests 17. Which

situation shows a desirable relationship between teachers and other groups of people? A. Mrs. Magsino, a newly-assigned principal to Barangay San Andres, calls on the barangay chairman. B. The new teacher was requested to help the barangay council in a case involving one of his students. He declined. C. Mr. Tiglao feels that the barangay council is against his plans; so, he does not consult the council even if there is a need for it. D. The principal does her own way of campaigning for cleanliness in and outside the school; she never gets involved with the same campaign of the barangay officials. 18. If you were Mrs. Norman, which action would you take to show a balance between balance and accountability? A. Give them more free time during the camping period. B. See to it that the older boy scouts take charge of the safety of the group C. Let the boy scouts do the scheduled activities during the camping while he had a drinking spree with the other scout masters. D. Prepare structured activities that allow independent work among the boy scout groups and rate them according to the agreed criteria. 19-20. Which two characteristics of eastern philosophies might have influenced Philippine education? A. Focus on the individual. B. The group is above self. 6. C. Knowledge comes about through meditation. D. Man's way of life must be characterized by harmony. 21. Which situation shows that action is legal but not moral? Public official, entitled to specific privileges from the government A. Takes the most economical fare in going about his duties. B. Does his job without getting favors from the client he serves. C. Reverts back to the public coffers the 10% commission due him. D. Buys the latest and the most expensive car model for his department. Posted by hyperkulit at 8:09 PM 6 comments: Labels: LET Reviewer LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 1] LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 1] 1. Which assumption underlies the teacher's use of performance objectives? A. Not every form of learning is observable. B. Performance objectives assure the learrier of learning. C. Learning is defined as a change in the learner's observable performance. D. The success of learner is based on teacher performance. 2. In the parlance of test construction what does TOS mean? A. Table of Specifics B. Table of Specifications C. Table of Specific Test Items D. Team of Specifications 3. A student passes a research report poorly written but ornately presented in a folder to make up for the poor quality of the book report content. Which Filipino trait does this practice prove? Emphasis on __________. A. art over academics B. substance overporma 7. C. art over science D. pormaover substance 4. In a criterion-referenced testing, what must you do to ensure that your test is fair? A. Make all of the questions true or false. B. Ask each student to contribute one question. C. Make twenty questions but ask the students to answer only ten of their choice. D. Use the objectives for the units as guide in your test construction. 5. Which does Noam Chomsky, assert about language learning for children? I. Young children learn and apply grammatical rules and vocabulary as they are exposed to them. II. Begin formal teaching of

grammatical rules to children as early as possible. III. Do not require initial formal language teaching for children. A. I and III B. II only C. I only D. I and II 6. Which Filipino trait works against the shift in teacher's role from teacher as a fountain of information to teacher as facilitator? A. Authoritativeness B. Authoritarianism C. Hiya D. Pakikisama 7. If a teacher plans a constructivist lesson, what will he most likely do? Plan how he can A. do evaluate his students' work B. do reciprocal teaching C. lecture to his students D. engage his students in convergent thinking 8. Who among the following needs less verbal counseling but needs more concrete and operational forms of assistance? The child who __________. A. has mental retardation B. has attention-deficit disorder C. has learning disability D. has conduct disorder 9. How would you select the most fit in government positions? Applying Confucius teachings, which would be the answer? A. By course accreditation of an accrediting body B. By merit system and course accreditation C. By merit system D. By government examinations 8. 10. Which types of play is most characteristic of a four to six-year old child? A. Solitary and onlooker plays B. Associative and coooperative plays C. Associative and onlooker plays D. Cooperative and solitary plays 11. A teacher's summary of a lesson serves the following functions, EXCEPT A. it links the parts of the lesson B. lt brings together the information that has been discussed C. it makes provisions for full participation of students. D. it clinches the basic ideas or concepts of the lesson. 12. All of the following describe the development of children aged eleven to thirteen EXCEPT __________. A. they shift from impulsivity to adaptive ability B. sex differences in IQ becomes more evident C. they exhibit increase objectivity in thinking D. they show abstract thinking and judgement 13. Teacher T taught a lesson denoting ownership by means of possessives. He first introduced the rule, then gave examples, followed by class exercises, then back to the rule before he moved into the second rule. Which presenting technique did he use? A. Combinatorial B. Comparative C. Part-whole D. Sequence 14. "In the light of the facts presented, what is most likely to happen when ... ?" is a sample thought question on A. inferring B. generalizing C. synthesizing D. justifying 15. Teacher E discussed how electricity flows through wires and what generates the electric charge. Then she gave the students wires, bulbs, switches, and dry cells and told the class to create a circuit that will increase the brightness of each bulb. Which one best describes the approach used? A. It used a taxonomy of basic thinking skills B. It was contructivist C. It helped students understand scientific methodolgy D. It used cooperative learning 16. Teacher B uses the direct instruction strategy. Which sequence of steps will she follow? I. Independent practice 9. II. Feedback and correctiveness III. Guided student practice IV. Presenting and structuring V. Reviewing the previous day's work A. V-II-IV-III-I B. III-II-IV-I-V C. V-lV-IIIII-I D. I-V-II-III-IV 17. Which are direct measures of competence? A. Personality tests B. Performance tests C. Paper-and-pencil tests D. Standardized test 18. Under which program were students who were not accommodated in public elementary and

secondary schools because of lack of classroom, teachers, and instructional materials, were enrolled in private schools in their respective communities at the government's expense? A. Government Assistance Program B. Study Now-Pay Later C. Educational Service Contract System D. National Scholarship Program 19. Which activity should a teacher have more for his students if he wants them to develop logical- mathematical thinking? A. Problem solving B. Choral reading C. Drama D. Storytelling 20. An effective classroom manager uses low-profile classroom control. Which is a low-profile classroom technique? A. Note to parents B. After-school detention C. Withdrawal of privileges D. Raising the pitch of the voice 21. Your teacher is of the opinion that the world and everything in it are ever changing and so teaches you the skill to cope with change. What is his governing philosophy? A. Idealism B. Existentalism C. Experimentalism D. Realism 10. 22. To come closer to the truth we need togo back to the things themselves.This is the advice of the A. behaviorists B. phenomenologists C. idealists D. pragmatists 23. Test norms are established in order to have a basis for __________. A. establishing learning goals B. interpreting test results C. computing grades D. identifying pupils' difficulties 24. A stitch on time saves nine, so goes the adage.. Applied to classroom management, this means that we __________ A. may not occupy ourselves with disruptions which are worth ignoring because they are minor B. must be reactive in our approach to discipline C. have to Jesolve minor disruptions before they are out of control D. may apply 9 rules out of 10 consistently 25. Which criterion should guide a teacher in the choice of instructional devices? A. Attractiveness B. Cost C. Novelty D. Appropriateness Posted by hyperkulit at 1:25 AM 15 comments: Labels: LET Reviewer LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 2] LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET) PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEWER [SET 2 - PART 2] 26. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the sensimotor stage? A. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skill. B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering. C. Activities for hypothesis formulation. D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with. 27. Who among the following puts more emphasis on core requirements, longer school day, longer academic year and more challenging textbooks? A. Perennialist 11. B. Essentialist C. Progressivist D. Existentialist 28. The search for related literature by accessing several databases by the use of a telephone line to connect a computer library with other computers that have database is termed __________. A. compact disc search B. manual search C. on-line search D. computer search 29. With synthesizing skills in mind, which has the highest diagnostic value? A. Essay test B. Performance test C. Completion test D. Multiple choice test 30. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the concrete operational stage? A. Activities for hypothesis formulation. B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering. C. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skills. D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to

play with. 31. Read the following then answer the question: TEACHER: IN WHAT WAYS OTHER THAN THE PERIODIC TABLE MIGHT WE PREDICT THE UNDISCOVERED ELEMENTS? BOBBY: WE COULD GO TOTHE MOON AND SEE IF THERE ARE SOME ELEMENTS THERE WE DON'T HAVE. BETTY: WE COULD DIG DOWN TO THE CENTER OF THE EARTH AND SEE IF WE FIND ANY OF THE MISSING ELEMENTS. RICKY: WE COULD STUDY DEBRIS FROM THE METEORITES IF WE CAN FIND ANY. TEACHER: THOSE ARE ALL GOOD ANSWERS BUT WHAT IF THOSE, EXCURSIONS TO THE MOON, TO THE CENTER OF THE EARTH, OR TO FIND METEORITES WERE TOO COSTLY AND TIME CONSUMING? HOW MIGHT WE USE THE ELEMENTS WE ALREADY HAVE HERE ON EARTH TO FIND SOME NEW ONES? Question: Which questioning strategy/ies does/do the exchange of thoughts above illustrate? A. Funneling B. Sowing and reaping C. Nose-dive D. Extending and lifting 32. Which is NOT a sound purpose for asking questions? A. To probe deeper after an answer is given. B. To discipline a bully in class. C. To remind students of a procedure. 12. D. To encourage self-reflection. 33. The main purpose of compulsory study of the Constitution is to __________ A. develop students into responsible, thinking citizens B. acquaint students with the historical development of the Philippine Constitution C. make constitutional experts of the students D. prepare students for law-making 34. A child who gets punished for stealing candy may not steal again immediately. But this does not mean that the child may not steal again. Based on Thorndike's theory on punishment and learning, this shows that __________ A. punishment strengthens a response B. punishment removes a response C. punishment does not remove a response D. punishment weakens a response 35. As a teacher, you are a reconstructionist. Which among these will be your guiding principle? A. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill, and value that he needs for a better future. B. I must teach the child to develop his mental powers to the full. C. I must teach the child so he is assured of heaven. D. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything. 36. How can you exhibit expert power on the first day of school? A. By making them feel you know what you are talking about. B. By making them realize the importance of good grades. C. By reminding them your students your authority over them again and again. D. By giving your students a sense of belonging and acceptance. 37. A sixth grade twelve-year old boy comes from a dysfunctional family and has been abused and neglected. He has been to two orphanages and three different elementary schools. The student can decode on the second grade level, but he can comprehend orally material at the fourth or fifth grade level. The most probable cause/s of this student's reading problem is/are __________. A. emotional factors B. poor teaching C. neurological factors D. immaturity 38. Teacher Q does not want Teacher B to be promoted and so writes an anonymous letter against Teacher B accusing her of fabricated lies Teacher Q mails this anonymous letter to the Schools Division Superintendent. What should Teacher Q do if she has to act professionally? A. Submit a signed justifiable criticism against Teacher B, if there is any. B. Go straight to the Schools Division Superintendent and gives criticism verbally. C. Hire a group to distribute poison letters against Teacher B

for information dissemination. D. Instigate student activists to read poison letters over the microphone. 13. 39. In self-directed learning, to what extent should a teacher's scaffolding be? A. To a degree the student needs it. B. None, to force the student to learn by himself. C. To the minimum, to speed up development of student's sense of independence. D. To the maximum, in order to extend to the student all the help he needs. 40. If your Licensure Examination Test (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed in the syllabi, it can be said that the LET possesses __________ validity. A. concurrent B. construct C. content D. predictive 41. Which guideline must be observed in the use of prompting to shape the correct performance of your students? A. Use the least intrusive prompt first. B. Use all prompts available. C. Use the most intrusive prompt first. D. Refrain from using prompts. 42. It is not wise to laugh at a two-year old child when he utters bad word because in his stage he is learning to __________. A. consider other's views B. distinguish sex differences C. socialize D. distinguish right from wrong 43. In a treatment for alcoholism, Ramil was made to drink an alcoholic beverage and then made to ingest a drug that produces nausea. Eventually, he was nauseated at the sight and smell of alcohol and stopped drinking alcohoL Which theory explains this? A. Operant conditioning B. Social Learning Theory C. Associative Learning D. Attribution Theory 44. Which is a true foundation of the social order? A. Obedient citizenry B. The reciprocation of rights and duties C. Strong political leadership D. Equitable distribution of wealth 45. As a teacher, what do you do when you engage yourself in major task analysis? A. Test if learning reached higher level thinking skills. 14. B. Breakdown a complex task into sub-skills. C. Determine the level of thinking involved. D. Revise lesson objectives. 46. In instructional planning it is necessary that the parts of the plan from the first to the last have __________. A. clarity B. symmetry C. coherence D. conciseness 47. In a study conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they preferred, if given a choice. Majority of the pupils wanted to be Americans. In this case, in which obligation relative to the state, do schools seem to be failing? In their obligation to __________. A. respect for all duly constituted authorities B. promote national pride C. promote obedience to the laws of the state D. instill allegiance to the Constitution 48. The best way for a guidance counselor to begin to develop study skills and habits in underachieving student would be to __________. A. have these underachieving students observe the study habits of excelling students B. encourage students to talk about study habits from their own experiences C. have them view film strips about various study approaches D. give out a list of effective study approaches 49. What is most likely to happen to our economy when export continuously surpasses importis a thought question on __________. A. creating B. relating cause-and-effect C. synthesizing D. predicting 50. Direct instruction is for facts, rules, and actions as indirect instruction is for __________, __________, __________. A. hypotheses, verified data and conclusions B.

concepts, patterns and abstractions C. concepts, processes and generalizations D. guesses, data and conclusions

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