Auditing Theory Test Bank

Auditing Theory Test Bank Select the best answer for each of the following questions. 1. Broadly defined, the subject matter of any audit consists of a) Financial statements b) Economic data c) Assertions d) Operating data 2. The third standard of field work states that sufficient competent evidential matter may in part be obtained through the following methods except a) Inspection b) Observation c) Confirmation d) Reconciliation 3. If an auditor believes that material error or fraud exist, the auditor should a) Consider the implications and discuss the matter with appropriate levels of management b) Make the investigation necessary to determine whether errors or fraud have in fact occurred c) Request that management investigate whether errors or fraud have in fact occurred d) Consider whether errors or fraud where the result of employee's failure to comply with specific controls 4. Which of the following is not normally performed in the pre-planning or pre-engagement phase? a) Deciding whether to accept or reject an audit engagement b) Inquiring from predecessor auditor c) Preparing an engagement letter d) Making a preliminary estimate of materiality 5. On the basis of the audit evidence gathered and evaluated, an auditor decides to increase the assessed level of control risk from that originally planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the planned audit risk level, the auditor would a) Decrease substantive testing b) Increase inherent risk c) Decrease detection risk d) Increase materiality levels 6. An effective internal control a) Cannot be circumvented by management b) Can reduce the cost of an external audit c) Can prevent collusion among employees d) Eliminates risks and potential loss to the organization 7. In auditing through a computer, the test data method is used by auditors to test the a) Accuracy of input data b) Validity of the output c) Procedures contained within the program d) Normalcy of distribution of test data

8. An auditor's working papers will generally be least likely to include documentation showing how the a) Client's schedules were prepared b) Engagement had been planned c) Client's system of internal control had been reviewed and evaluated d) Unusual matters were resolved 9. Which of the following sampling methods would be most appropriate in performing tests of controls over authorization of cash disbursements a) Attributes b) Variables c) Ratio d) Stratified 10. Analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of an audit generally include a) Considering unusual or unexpected account balances that were not previously identified b) Performing test of transactions to corroborate management's financial statement assertions c) Gathering evidence concerning account balances that have not changed from the prior year d) Re-testing control procedures that appeared to be ineffective during the assessment of control risk 11. Results of the financial statement audit are communicated to users through a) Financial statement b) Written management assertion c) Audit report d) None of the above 12. What is the primary difference between financial reporting risk and audit risk? a) The application of accounting principles b) Responsibilities of the respective parties involved c) Demands of users of financial statements d) Risks of being sued by third parties 13. Relationship between control risk and detection risk is ordinarily a) Parallel b) Inverse c) Direct d) Equal 14. A representation letter issued by a client a) Is essential for the preparation of the audit program b) Is a substitute for testing c) Does not reduce the auditor's responsibility d) Reduces the auditor's responsibility only to the extent that it is relied upon 15. The recruitment of senior management for an assurance client, such as those in a position to affect the subject of the assurance engagement may least likely create a) Self-interest threat b) Advocacy threat c) Intimidation threat d) Familiarity threat

16. In reviewing the audit work performed, the engagement partner a) Must review all audit documentation b) Need not review all audit documentation, but may do so c) Need not review all audit documentation d) Must ask the staff performing the audit work to sign the audit report 17. The independent auditor lends credibility to client’s financial statements by a) Maintaining a clear-cut distinction between management’s representations and the auditor’s representation b) Testifying under oath about client’s financial statements c) Stating in the auditor’s management letter that the examination was made in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards d) Attaching an auditor’s opinion to the client’s financial statements 18. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect is fraud based on a) The over-recording of transactions b) The non-recording of transactions c) Recorded transactions in subsidiaries d) Related party receivables 19. Assuming a recurring audit, in which of the following situations would the auditor be unlikely to send a new engagement letter to the client? a) A recent change in partner and/or staff involved in the audit engagement b) A change in the terms of engagement c) A recent change of client management d) A significant change in the nature or size of the client's business

a) Net liability or net current liability position b) Change from credit to cash-on-delivery transactions with suppliers c) Labor difficulties or shortages of important supplies d) Compliance with capital or other statutory requirements 23. Which of the following procedures is not included in a review engagement on a nonpublic entity a) Inquiries of management b) Inquiries regarding events subsequent to the balance sheet date c) Any procedures designed to identify relationships among data that appear to be unusual d) A study and evaluation of internal control structure 24. In planning the audit engagement, the auditor should consider each of the following except a) The kind of opinion that will likely be given b) Matters relating to the entity’s business and the industry in which it operates c) The entity’s accounting policies and procedures d) Anticipated levels of control risk and materiality 25. What assurance is provided by the practitioner in an agreed-upon procedures engagement? a) Reasonable b) Absolute c) Moderate d) No assurance 26. To test for unsupported entries in the journal, the direction of audit testing should be from the a) Journal entries b) Ledger entries c) Original source documents d) Externally generated documents

20. When an auditor expresses an adverse opinion he/sheshould disclose the substantive reasons for such anopinion in an explanatory paragraph a) Within the notes to the financial statements b) Preceding the opinion paragraph c) Following the opinion paragraph d) Preceding the introductory paragraph

27. For good internal control, the purchasing department should not be responsible for a) Authorizing the acquisition of goods b) Finding the lowest cost vendor c) Reviewing the vendors catalog descriptions and prices for standardized items d) Designing the purchase order form

21. Tolerable error means a) An error that arises from an isolated event that has not recurred other than on specifically identifiable occasions and is therefore not representative of errors in the population b) An error that the auditor expects to be present in the population c) The maximum error in a population that the auditor is willing to accept d) The possibility that the auditor's conclusion, based on a sample may be different from the conclusion reached if the entire population were subjected to the same audit procedure

28. Involves tracing a few transactions through the accounting system a) Test of controls b) Walk-through test c) Analytical procedures d) Substantive procedures

22. Examples of events or conditions, which individually or collectively, may cast significant doubt about the going concern assumption include the following except

29. This exists, when other information, not related to matters appearing in the financial statements, is incorrectly stated or presented a) Material inconsistency b) Material misstatement c) Material misstatement of fact d) Material error affecting the other information 30. Who appoints the members of the Board of Accountancy a) The chairman of BOA

b) The president of the Philippines c) The chairman of the PRC d) The president of PICPA 31. An auditor is required to obtain an understanding of the entity's business, including business cycles and reasons for business fluctuations. What is the audit purpose most directly served by obtaining this understanding? a) To enable the auditor to accurately identify significant deficiencies in internal control b) To assist the auditor in accurately interpreting information obtained during an audit c) To allow the auditor to more accurately perform tests of controls d) To decide whether it will be necessary to perform analytical procedures 32. Which of the following is not true about the report release date? a) It is defined as the date after which existing documentation must not be deleted, and additions to the documentation file must be documented as such b) It is often the date on which the report is delivered to the client c) It is the date on which the auditor grants the client permission to use the report d) It is used to define the beginning of the retention period 33. An auditor should not issue a report on a) Quarterly financial information b) Internal control c) Management performance d) The achievability of forecasts 34. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events? a) Confirming a sample of material accounts receivable established after year-end b) Comparing the financial statements being reported on with those of the prior period c) Investigating personnel changes in the accounting department occurring after year-end d) Inquiring as to whether any unusual adjustments were made after year-end 35. To which of the following matters would materiality limits not apply when obtaining written client representations? a) Violations of state labor regulations b) Disclosure of line-of-credit arrangements c) Information about related party transactions d) Instances of fraud involving management 36. Who ultimately determines the scope of the audit? a) The auditor b) The client c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b 37. Financial statements prepared in accordance with a financial reporting framework designed to meet the financial information needs of specific users are

referred to as a) Special purpose financial statements b) Special purpose framework c) General purpose financial statements d) Specific purpose financial statements 38. An auditor plans to apply substantive tests to the details of asset and liability accounts as of an interim date rather than as of the balance sheet date. The auditor should be aware that this practice a) Eliminates the use of certain statistical sampling methods that would otherwise be available b) Presumes that the auditor will reperform the tests of the balance sheet date c) Should be especially considered when there are rapidly changing economic conditions d) Potentially increases the risk that errors that exist at the balance sheet date will not be detected 39. Close family include the following, except a) Parent b) Sibling c) Non-dependent child d) Spouse 40. A computer-assisted audit technique that is most likely to be effective in a continuous auditing environment is a) Parallel simulation b) Controlled reprocessing c) Embedded audit modules d) Transaction tripping 41. Which of the following is not prohibited by the Code of Professional Ethics for CPAs? a) Advertising and solicitation of clients b) Payment of commissions to obtain a client c) Receiving a contingent fee on a tax case before the Bureau of Internal Revenue d) Offering employment to a staff member of another CPA without first informing the CPA 42. The management's assessment of the entity's ability to continue as a going concern covers a period of a) Not longer than 12 months from balance sheet date b) At least 12 months from the balance sheet date c) Not longer than 12 months from the date of audit report d) At least 12 months from the date of audit report 43. To obtain evidential matter about control risk, an auditor selects tests from a variety of techniques including a) Inquiry b) Analytical procedures c) Calculation d) Confirmation 44. The need for independent audits of financial statements can be attributed to all of the following conditions except a) Remoteness

b) Consequence c) Complexity of subject matter d) Validity 45. After issuing a report an auditor includes that an auditing procedure considered necessary at the time of the examination was omitted from the examination. The auditor should first a) Undertake to apply the omitted procedure or alternative procedures that would provide a satisfactory basis for the auditor's opinion b) Assess the importance of the omitted procedure to the auditor's ability to support the opinion expressed on the financial statements taken as a whole c) Notify the audit committee or the board of directors that the auditor's opinion can no longer be relied upon d) Review the results of other procedures that were applied to compensate for the one omitted or to make its omission less important 46. This quality control element requires a CPA firm to establish policies and procedures to provide it with reasonable assurance that engagements are performed in accordance with professional standards and regulatory and legal requirements, and that the firm or the engagement partner issue reports that are appropriate in the circumstances a) Ethical requirements b) Engagement performance c) Monitoring d) Human resources

47. Communication with a predecessor auditor is initiated by a) Management b) The successor auditor c) The audit committee of the board of directors d) The chair of the board of directors

48. In which of the following may confidential information not be disclosed? a) To comply with the quality review of a member body or professional body b) To submit evidence in the course of legal proceedings c) Acquiring information in the course performing professional services and use that information for personal advantages d) When consent to disclose information is given by the client 49. The auditor should perform the following risk assessment procedures to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, except a) Inquiries of management and others within the entity b) Reperformance

c) Analytical procedures d) Observation and inspection 50. The auditor should determine overall responses to address the risks of material misstatement at the financial statement level. Such responses most likely include a) Assigning less experienced staff b) Performing predictable further audit procedures c) Performing substantive procedures at an interim date instead of at period end d) Emphasizing to the audit team the need to maintain professional skepticism in gathering and evaluating audit evidence 51. The need for assurance services arises for all of the following reason except a) Potential bias in providing information b) Closeness between a user and the organization c) Complexity of the processing systems d) Remoteness between a user and the organization 52. Which one of the following is not a key attribute needed to perform assurance? a) Subject matter knowledge b) Independence c) Established criteria or standards d) Accounting skills 53. Which one of the following is not part of the attest process? a) Providing the accuracy of the books and records b) Gathering evidence about assertions c) Evaluating evidence against objective criteria d) Communicating the conclusions reached 54. Users of the audit report can reasonably expect the audited financial statements to be a) Complete and contain many of the important financial disclosures b) Presented fairly according to the substance of GAAP c) Free from all errors d) All of the above 55. Which of the following services is the broadest and most inclusive a) Audit b) Attestation c) Assurance d) Compliance 56. One reason why an auditor makes an analytical review of the client’s operations is to identify a) Improper separation of accounting and other financial duties b) Weakness of a material nature in the system of internal accounting control c) Unusual transactions d) Non-compliance with prescribed control procedures 57. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on identifying a) Material weaknesses in the internal control structure

b) The predictability of financial data from individual transactions c) The various assertions that are embodied in the financial statements d) Areas that may represent specific risk relevant to audit

64. Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of the functions of a) Authorization, execution, and payment b) Authorization, recording, and custody c) Custody, execution, and reporting d) Authorization, payment, and recording

58. An integrated test facility (ITF) would be appropriate when the auditor needs to a) Trace a complex logic path through an application system b) Verify processing accuracy concurrently with processing c) Monitor transactions in an application system continuously d) Verify load module integrity for production programs

65. Control risk should be assessed in terms of a) Specific controls b) Types of potential fraud c) Financial statement assertions d) Control environment factors

59. The rotation of senior accounting personnel can be regarded as a safeguard a) Created by the profession b) Within the client’s systems and procedures c) In the work environment d) Created within the business community 60. If certain forms are not consecutively numbered a) Systematic sampling may be appropriate b) Selection of a random sample probably is not possible c) Stratified sampling should be used d) Random number tables cannot be used 61. A cash shortage may be concealed by transporting funds from one location to another or by converting negotiable assets to cash. Because of this, which of the following is vital? a) Simultaneous confirmations b) Simultaneous bank reconciliations c) Simultaneous verification d) Simultaneous surprise cash count 62. Which of the following is most likely to indicate a significant deficiency relating to a client's anti-fraud programs? a) A broad scope of internal audit activities b) A "whistle-blower" program that encourages anonymous submissions c) Audit committee passivity when conducting oversight functions d) Lack of performance of criminal background investigations for likely customers 63. Which of the following is not an attestation standard? a) Sufficient evidence shall be obtained to provide a reasonable basis for the conclusion that is expressed in the report b) The report shall identify the subject matter on the assertion being reported on and state the character of the engagement c) The work shall be adequately planned and assistants, if any, shall be properly supervised d) A sufficient understanding of internal control shall be obtained to plan the engagement

66. Which of the following is not a step in an auditor's assessment of control risk? a) Evaluate the effectiveness of internal control with tests of controls b) Obtain an understanding of the entity's information system and control environment c) Perform tests of details of transactions to detect material misstatements in the financial statements d) Consider whether controls can have a pervasive effect on financial statement assertions 67. Which of the following procedures would an auditor ordinarily perform first in evaluating management's accounting estimates for reasonableness? a) Develop independent expectations of management's estimates b) Consider the appropriateness of the key factors or assumptions used in preparing the estimates c) Test the calculations used by management in developing the estimates d) Obtain an understanding of how management developed its estimates 68. An entity's income statements were misstated due to the recording of journal entries that involved debits and credits to an unusual combination of expense and revenue accounts. The auditor most likely could have detected this fraudulent financial reporting by a) Tracing a sample of journal entries to the general ledger b) Evaluating the effectiveness of internal control c) Investigating the reconciliations between controlling accounts and subsidiary records d) Performing analytical procedures designed to disclose differences from expectations 69. Which of the following is most likely to be unique to the audit work of CPAs as compared to work performed by practitioners of other professions? a) Due professional care b) Competence c) Independence d) Complex body of knowledge 70. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor's preliminary judgment about materiality? a) The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive tests b) The entity's annualized interim financial statements

c) The results of the internal control questionnaire d) The contents of the management representation letter

d) Is responsible for expressing an opinion on the financial statements, which arc the responsibility of management.

71. Which of the following conditions identified during fieldwork of an audit is most likely to affect the auditor's assessment of the risk of misstatement due to fraud? a) Checks for significant amounts outstanding at yearend b) Computer generated documents c) Missing documents d) Year-end adjusting journal entries.

77. Which of the following services would be most likely to be structured as an attest engagement? a) Advocating a client's position in tax matter. b) A consulting engagement to develop a new database system for the revenue cycle. c) An engagement to issue a report addressing an entity's compliance with requirements of specified laws. d) The compilation of a client's forecast information.

72. An auditor ordinarily uses a working trial balance resembling the financial statements without footnotes, but containing columns for a) Cash flow increases and decreases b) Audit objectives and assertions c) Reclassifications and adjustments d) Reconciliations and tick marks

78. Which of the following is ordinarily considered to be a fraud risk factor? a) The company's financial statements include a number of last minute material adjustments. b) Management regularly informs investors of forecast information. c) The company has experienced increasing earnings over the previous five years. d) The company's president is included as a member of the board of directors.

73. The risk that an auditor will conclude, based on substantive tests, that a material misstatement does not exist in an account balance when in fact such misstatement does exist is referred to as a) Detection risk b) Sampling risk c) Non-sampling risk d) Inherent risk 74. The usefulness of the standard bank confirmation request may be limited because the bank employee who completes the form may a) Be unaware of all the financial relationships that the bank has with the client b) Not believe that the bank is obligated to verify confidential information to a third party c) Sign and return the form without inspecting the accuracy of the client's bank reconciliation d) Not have access to the client's cutoff bank statement 75. A material weakness is a significant deficiency (or combination of significant deficiencies) that results in a reasonable possibility that a misstatement of at least 'what amount will not be prevented or detected? a) An amount greater than zero b) An amount greater than zero, but at least inconsequential c) An amount greater than inconsequential d) A material amount 76. The existence of audit risk is recognized by the statement in the auditor's standard report that the auditor a) Obtains reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement. b) Assesses the accounting principles used and also evaluates the overall financial statement presentation. c) Realizes some matters either individually or in the aggregate, are important while other matters are not important.

79. Which is least likely to be a question asked of client personnel during a walk-through in an audit of the internal control of an issuer (public) company? a) What do you do when you find an error'? b) Who is most likely to commit fraud among your coworkers? c) What kind of errors have you found? d) Have you ever been asked to override the process or controls? 80. An auditor who uses the work of a specialist may refer to and identify the specialist ill the auditor's report if the a) Specialist is also considered to be a related party. b) Auditor indicates a division of responsibility related to the work of the specialist. c) Specialist's work provides the auditor greater assurance of reliability. d) Auditor expresses an "except for" qualified opinion or an adverse opinion related to the work of the specialist. 81. Which of the following statements concerning evidential matter is correct? a) Appropriate evidence supporting management's assertions should be convincing rather than merely persuasive. b) Effective internal control contributes little to the reliability of the evidence created within the entity. c) The cost of obtaining evidence is not an important consideration to an auditor in deciding what evidence should be obtained. d) A client's accounting data cannot be considered sufficient audit evidence to support the financial statements. 82. Confirmations of accounts receivable address which assertion most directly? a) Completeness b) Existence

c) Valuation d) Classification 83. When performing a review of an issuer company, which is least likely to be included in the CPA's inquires of management members with responsibility for financial and accounting matters? a) Subsequent events b) Significant journal entries and other adjustments c) Communications with related parties d) Unusual or complex situations affecting the financial statements 84. The adverse effects of events causing an auditor to believe there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern would most likely be mitigated by evidence relating to the a) Ability to expand operations into new product lines in the future. b) Feasibility of plans to purchase leased equipment at Jess than market value. c) Marketability of assets that management plans to sell. d) Committed arrangements to convert preferred stock to long-term debt. 85. One reason that an auditor only obtains reasonable, and not absolute, assurance that financial statements are free from material misstatement is a) Comprehensive basis reporting b) Employee collusion c) Material misstatements d) Professional skepticism 86. When an auditor concludes there is substantial doubt about a continuing audit client's ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time, the auditor's responsibility is to a) Issue a qualified or adverse opinion, depending upon materiality, due to the possible effects on the financial statements. b) Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the client's possible inability to continue as a going concern. c) Report to the client's audit committee that management's accounting estimates may need to be adjusted. d) Reissue the prior year's auditors report and add an explanatory paragraph that specifically refers to "substantial doubt" and "going concern." b) Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the client's possible inability to continue as a going concern. 87. The accountant who is not independent may perform which of the following types of engagements? a) Audit b) Agreed-upon procedures c) Compilation d) Review c) Compilation

88. Which of the following should an auditor obtain from the predecessor auditor prior to accepting an audit engagement? a) Analysis of balance sheet accounts b) Analysis of income statement accounts c) All matters of continuing accounting significance d) Facts that might bear on the integrity of management d) Facts that might bear on the integrity of management 89. Which is least likely to be a response when an auditor has obtained evidence indicating a risk of material misstatement in the area of inventory? a) Request inventory counts at the end of each month. b) Discuss questions of inventory valuation with any other auditors involved with the audit. c) Make oral inquiries of major suppliers in addition to written confirmations. d) Perform inventory observations on an unannounced basis. a) Request inventory counts at the end of each month. 90. The independent auditor selects several transactions in each functional area and traces them through the entire system, paying special attention to evidence about whether or not the controls are in operation. This is an example of a(n) a) Application test b) Test of controls c) Substantive test d) Test of a function b) Test of controls 91. Accounting control procedures within computer processing may leave no visible evidence indicating that the procedures were performed. In such instances, the auditor should test these controls by a) Making corroborative inquiries. b) Observing the separation of duties of personnel. c) Reviewing transactions submitted for processing and comparing them to related output. d) Reviewing the run manual. c) Reviewing transactions submitted for processing and comparing them to related output. 92. If information is for management's use only, which of the following forms of CPA association with financial information is most likely to result in no report being issued? a) An agreed-upon procedures engagement b) An audit c) A compilation d) A review

c) A compilation 93. In obtaining an understanding of a manufacturing entity's internal control over inventory balances, an auditor most likely would a) Review the entity's descriptions of inventory policies and procedures. b) Perform test counts of inventory during the entity's physical count. c) Analyze inventory turnover statistics-to identify slow-moving and obsolete items. d) Analyze monthly production reports to identify variances and unusual transactions. a) Review the entity's descriptions of inventory policies and procedures. 94. When auditing merchandise inventory at year-end, the auditor performs a purchase cutoff test to obtain evidence that a) All goods owned at year-end are included in the inventory balance. b) All goods purchased before year-end are received before the physical inventory count. c) No goods held on consignment for customers are included in the inventory balance. d) No goods observed during the physical count are pledged or sold.

97. Which of the following statements best describes the ethical standard of the profession pertaining to advertising and solicitation? a) All forms of advertising and solicitation are prohibited. b) There are no prohibitions regarding the manner in which CPAs may solicit new business. c) A CPA may advertise in any manner that is not false, misleading, or deceptive. d) A CPA may only solicit new clients through mass mailings. c) A CPA may advertise in any manner that is not false, misleading, or deceptive. 98. A note to the financial statements of a bank indicates that all of the records relating to its business operations are stored on magnetic disks; and that there are no emergency back-up systems or duplicate disks stored since the bank and their auditors consider the occurrence of a catastrophe to be remote. Based upon this, one would expect the auditor's report to express a) An adverse opinion b) An "except for" opinion c) An unqualified opinion d) A qualified opinion c) An unqualified opinion

a) All goods owned at year-end are included in the inventory balance. 95. A company has changed its method of inventory valuation from an unacceptable one toone in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles. The auditor's report on the financial statements of the year of the change should include a) No reference to consistency. b) A reference to a prior period adjustment in the opinion paragraph. c) An explanatory paragraph explaining the change. d) A justification for making the change and the impact of the change on reported net income. c) An explanatory paragraph explaining the change. 96. An abnormal fluctuation in gross profit that might suggest the need for extended audit procedures for sales and inventories would most likely be identified in the planning phase of the audit by the use of a) Tests of transactions and balances b) A preliminary review of internal control c) Specialized audit programs d) Analytical procedures d) Analytical procedures

99. Which of the following is not typically performed when accountants are performing a review of the financial statements of a nonissuer? a) Analytical procedures applied to financial data b) Inquiries about significant subsequent events c) Inquiries of the client's attorney about legal matters d) Obtaining an understanding of the accounting principles followed by the client's industry c) Inquiries of the client's attorney about legal matters. 100. Which of the following is least likely to be a restricted use report? a) A report on financial statements prepared following a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles. b) A report on internal control significant deficiencies noted in an audit. c) A required communication with the audit committee. d) A report on compliance with aspects of contractual agreements. a) A report on financial statements prepared following a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles.