ASNT Level III Study Guide Basic

ASNT Level III Study Guide Basic PT-11 A commonly used method of checking the overall performance of a penetrant material system is to: a. b. c. d.

Determine the viscosity of the penetrant. Measure the wettability of the penetrant. Compare two sections of artificially cracked specimens. Do all of the above

PT-12 the function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified penetrant process is to: a. b. c. d. e.

More rapidly drive the penetrant into deep, tight cracks. React with the surface penetrant to make the penetrant water-washable. Add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant. Provide a coating to which dry powder developer can adhere. Emulsify surface oils and greases to facilitate their removal.

PT-13 which of the following statements does not apply to developers used during penetrant testing? a. Developers are normally highly fluorescent. b. Some developers furnish a contrasting background during inspection. c. Developers absorb or blot the penetrant that remains in discontinuities after the excess penetrant has been removed. d. All of the above are true statements. PT-14 the penetrant indication for a cold shut on the surface of a casting will normally be: a. b. c. d. e.

A dotted line. A cluster of small indications. A smooth continuous line. A large bulbous indication. Undetectable since cold shuts are closed over on the surface.

PT-15 A crack-type discontinuity will generally appear as: a. b. c. d.

A rounded indication. A continuous line, either straight or jagged. A broad, fuzzy indication. Random round or elongated holes.

PT-16 in a penetrant test, scattered round indications on the surface of a part could be indicative of: a. b. c. d. e.

Fatigue cracks. Porosity. Weld laps. Hot tears. Grinding carcks.

PT-17 which of the following are typical no relevant indications found in penetrant testing?

a. b. c. d. e.

Indications due to part geometry or part design configurations. Nonmagnetic indications. Multiple indications. Nonlinear indications. Indications on low-stressed areas of the part.

CHAPTER 6 , GENERAL APPLICATIONS OF VARIOUS NDT METHODS MT-11 The amount of amperage used for magnetic particle inspection using the prod method is based on the. a. b. c. d. e.

Thickness of the part. Distance between the prods. Diameter of the prods. Total length of the part. All of the above.

MT-12 Demagnetization of a part is usually not necessary if the part is: a. b. c. d.

Small. Inspected with the continuous method. To be hardened by heat treatment after inspection. High carbon steel to be welded after inspection.

MT-13 Which of the following is an advantage of the dry method over the wet method? a. It is more sensitive for detecting fine surface cracks. b. It is more capable of providing full surface coverage on irregularly shaped parts. c. It is easier to use for field inspection with portable equipment. d. It is faster when testing a number of small parts. MT-14 Fluorescent magnetic particles are used in preference to visible magnetic particles a. When parts are big and bulky. b. To take advantage of the fluorescent lights that are normally used in plants. c. If parts are for railroad applications. d. To increase the speed and reliability of detecting very small discontinuities. MT-15 The most versatile type of magnetic particle equipment is: a. b. c. d. e.

Portable equipment. The stationary horizontal machine. The mobile power unit. The automatic machine. A field kit.

MT-16 Magnetic particle inspection methods are recognized as superior to liquid penetrant techniques when the: a. b. c. d.

Surfaces of the test object are corroded. Surface is anodized. Parts are painted. Parts is made from austenitic steel.

MT-17 When using direct current, an indication is detected. What is the next logical step to determine if the indication results from a surface or subsurface condition? a. b. c. d.

Reinspect using the surge method. Demagnetize and apply powder. Reinspect at higher amperage. Reinspect using alternating current.

ASNT LEVEL III UT-11 In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the voltage that activates the search unit is called. a. b. c. d.

An amplifier. A receiver. A pulser. A synchronizer.

UT-12 The primary purpose of reference blocks is to a. b. c. d. e.

Aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflection. Obtain the greastest sensitivity possible from an instrument. Obtain a common reproducible reference standard. Enable testing of nonmetals. Establish the size and orientation of a discontinuity.

UT-13 The general use of distance amplitude calibrations is to compensate for: a. b. c. d. e.

Amplitude of noise signals. Velocity changes. Transducer size. Attenuation, distance, and beam spread. Vertical nonlinearity in the ultrasonic instrument.

UT-14 In area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottomed holes in the blocks are: a. All the same diameter. b. Different in diameter, increasing in 0,4mm (0, 02 in.) increments from the No. “1” block to the No. “8” block. c. Largest in the No. “1” block and smallest No. “8” block. d. Drilled to different depths from the front surface of the front surface of the test block.

UT-15 The amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity is dependent on: a. b. c. d. e.

The size of the discontinuity. The orientation of the discontinuity. The type of the discontinuity. All of the above. Only a and b.

UT-16 The presence of a discontinuity wl not produce a specific discontinuity will not produce a specific discontinuity indication on the CRT screen when which of the following techniques is being used? a. b. c. d. e.

Straight beam testing. Surface wave testing. Angle-beam testing. Through-transmission testing. Pulse-echo technique.

UT-17 Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the back surface: a. Mary result in a screen pattern that does not contain back reflection indications. b. Makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie parallel to the entry surface. c. Usually indicates a porous condition existing in the metal. d. Will decrease the penetrating power of the test.