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Welcome Messag Me ssage e
Adhikary Education Education welcomes you once again to the journey ahead in pursuit of success in your life. We congratulate and thank you for enrolling in the Apsc prelim GS TEST SERIES 2017 program, which will be of immense help for your preparation of APSC CCE (Prelim) Exam to be held in 02 July 2017. To get maximum benefit and cover your GS syllabus on time, please do attempt these 15 tests according to the schedule. This Test 1 covers the Polity section, which has (1) Indian Polity and (2) Political system in India topics of APSC GS Prelim syllabus. We are releasing the PDF format of the Test 1 Question paper with answer keys at the end of the document, especially for those candidates who are not able to attempt the test in Online Mode. The Test 2 to be activated from 08 May 2017, which will cover History section of the syllabus. Please do let us know view about the questions, and any suggestion regarding questions for upcoming tests. Thank you for being with us and hope to have a fruitful and meaningful long lasting relationship.
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APSC Pre GS Test Series 2017 Test 1 With Answer Keys –
Q1. The Supreme Court is a court of record, which means a. its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory. b. it can punish for contempt of Supreme court. c. it can punish for contempt of High court. d. All of the Above Q2. In the order of precedence, the speaker has an equal rank with a. Chief Justice of India b. Prime Minister c. Cabinet Ministers d. Vice-President Q3. Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then a. a joint sitting is called. b. the bill ends and becomes dead c. legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time. d. none of the above Q4. Consider the following statements are true about National emergency a. A revocation of emergency by Pr esident must be approved by the Parliament within one month. b. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation. c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q5. A political party shall have to apply to Election Commission of India for registration, if any question arises in this regard, whose decision is final a. President Page | 3
b. Election Commission of India c. Supreme Court d. High Court Q6. Which articles of the constitution does not has a bearing on the rights of women are a. Article 123 b. Article 42 c. Article 39 d. Article 15 Q7. With reference to regionalism, which of the statements given below is/are correct? (1) Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force. (2) Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Q8. Civil services plays which of the following important roles in a democracy a. policy making b. policy implementation c. socio-economic development d. all of the above Q9. India follows the First Past the Post (FPTP) system in Election process, FPTP system which of the following advantage a. providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes. b. less wastage of votes. c. establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies. d. encourages tactical voting, as voting is often not based on likeness but against voters’ dislike for the candidates.
Q10. Apart from law making, Indian parliament does not have which of the following function a. custodian of Constitution of India Page | 4
b. providing representation. c. constraining executive power. d. providing legitimacy to government Q11. Kalelkar Commission set up in 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar with regard to which of the following issues a. Backward classes b. State reorganisation on language basis c. Boundary settlement between India and East Pakistan d. Community development Q.12. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), which of following statement is incorrect a. As the FC is a constitutional body
b. It’s recommendations are binding on the government. c. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment. d. It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution Q13. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), Which of the statements given above is incorrect a. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC. b. The chairman can be reappointed. c. President appoints the Chairman on the recommendation of committee headed by the Prime Minister. d. Justice Ranganath Misra was the first Chariman Q14. A person can file a suit against which of the following a. Union of India. b. Union Government of India. c. State Government of India. d. Parliament of India
Q15. Consider the following statements about delimitation commission is correct a. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. b. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court. Page | 5
c. Main task of the commission is redrawing the boundaries of the Lok Sabha constituencies only. d. The total representation from each State can changed during this exercise. Q16. Which of the following statement is true about Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) a. CEC receive salary equal to other election commissioners (EC). b. CEC along with other EC are provided with security of tenure. c. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails. d. CEC is assisted by three other EC Q17. In India, the council of ministers does not a. Have Individual responsibility b. Have legal responsibility c. Have collective responsibility d. Hold office during the pleasure of the president Q18. The Union executive of India does not include a. President b. Vice-President c. Prime Minister d. Governor Q19. Which of the Provision regarding the Attorney General of India is correct a. He is a part of Union Executive b. Provisions regarding AG have been duly enshrined in Part-VI of the constitution c. He has executive authority d. He is a neutral person
Q20. About the chairman of a state public service commission, consider the following statements a. He/she is appointed by governor and also can be removed by governor. Page | 6
b. He/she is appointed by UPSC and also can be removed by Central Govt. c. He/she is appointed by governor but can only be removed by president. d. He/she is appointed by President and also can be removed by governor. Q21. During the time of national emergency, the President can not a. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states. b. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states. c. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states. d. suspend all fundamental rights Q22. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by which of the following authority a. Government via a resolution b. President c. Parliament d. (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension Q23. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts a. Special officer for linguistic minorities b. Advocate general c. Solicitor general d. PSC Chairman and members Q24. Find the wrong statement about the 21st Law Commission of India (LCI) a. Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan is Chairman of the commission b. Law commission is constituted for period of 3 years with effect from 1 September 2015 to 31 August 2018. c. It is a constitutional body d. First commission was constituted in 1955 Q25. If the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the Speaker, then which of the following would happen a. All pending notices would lapse. b. All bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses. c. All bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president get lapsed d. None of the above
Q26. The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government, which of following does not contribute to make India Federal a. Rigidity of constitution Page | 7
b. Single citizenship c. Separate list of subjects for Union and state govt. d. Supremacy of constitution Q27. Rajya Sabha does not have power equal to that of Lok Sabha in which of the following regards a. Approval of ordinances b. Approval of national emergency c. Voting on demand for grants d. Election of President of India Q28. With regard to the controversial legislation of Armed Forces Special powers
Act (AFSPA), which authority can declare a particular area as ‘disturbed area’ a. Governor and Chief Minister b. Chief Minister and his council of minister only c. President and Central Government d. Governor and Central Government Q29. Which of the following tax is being levied by the central govt a. Octroi b. Professional tax c. Corporation tax d. Excise duty on liquor Q30. Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax a. increase it b. decrease or abolish it c. full power to increase, decrease or abolish it d. Parliament has no power, only Finance ministry can take decision on tax
Q31. With reference to starred questions, which of following statements is correct a. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given in written form. b. Questions are asked and answered in the same sitting only Page | 8
c. Can be asked and answered by private MPs only d. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions. Q32. Which of the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice a. Question hour b. Zero hour c. Half-an-hour discussion d. Parliament doesn’t use any informal practises Q33. Which is/are not a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) a. Gram Nyayalaya b. Fast Track Courts c. Lok Adalats d. Both, Gram Nyayalaya and Lok Adalats Q34. For withdrawing fund which of the following accounts, Parliamentary authorization is required a. Public account of India b. Consolidated fund of India c. Contingency Fund of India d. Foreign Exchange Reserve Q35. Who participates in the voting process for election of Vice-President a. elected MPs and nominated MP s only b. elected MPs, nominated MPs, elected MLAs and nominated MLAs c. elected MPs and elected MLAs only d. elected MPs only Q36. In total how much time it took for Constituent Assembly to finalise the constitution a. 2 Years 11 Months 18 Days b. 2 Years 9 Months 8 Days c. 2 Years 7 Months 18 Days d. 2 Years 5 Months 20 Days
Q37. Which Article is related to Equality before law a. Art. 15 b. Art. 16 c. Art. 14 Page | 9
d. Art. 13 Q38. Which Article is related with "Abolition of Untouchability" a. Article 17 b. Article 21 c. Article 15 d. Article 18 Q39. Currently, how many Schedules are present in Constitution of India a. 10 Schedules b. 12 Schedules c. 14 Schedules d. 16 Schedules Q40. Which article is related to "Equal Justice and free legal aid" a. Article 39 b. Article 43 c. Article 43 A d. Article 39 A Q41. Which of the following language is not included in the Eight Schedule of Indian constitution a. Santali b. Sanskrit c. Bodo d. English Q42. In which Constitutional Amendment Act Sikkim was made full fledged State of the Union of India a. 21st Constitutional Amendment Act b. 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 c. 31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973 d. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974
Q43. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided reservation in admissions in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes a. 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 Page | 10
b. 94th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006 c. 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009 d. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 Q44. According to the constitution of India, who are the ultimate Sovereign a. People of India b. Prime Minister of India c. President of India d. Parliament 45. Which of the following is not a constitutional body a. Election Commission b. UPSC c. NITI Aayog d. Inter State Council Q46. Meghalaya was created as a separate state in the year a. 1960 b. 1972 c. 1971 d. 1973 Q47. Which of the following is not among six fundamental rights given in our Constitution a. Right to equality b. Right against exploitation c. Right to freedom of religion d. Right to Protest Peacefully Q48. Article 19 provides six freedoms, which is not among them a. Reside and settle in any part of citizen’s own state only. b. Freedom of speech and expression. c. Assemble peacefully and without arms. d. Form associations or unions.
Q49. When was the Right to Information Act came into force in India a. 15 august 2005 b. 02th October 2005 c. 13th October 2005 Page | 11
d. 12th October 2005 Q50. What is the minimum age criteria to become the President of India a. 30 years b. 35 Years c. 36 years d. 22 Years Q51. The provision of fundamental duties of Indian constitution was borrowed from which document a. Constitution of USA b. United Nations Charter c. Constitution of Socialist Countries d. Constitution of UK Q52. Which is the largest High court of India, in terms of number of sanctioned Judges a. Guwahati High Court b. Bombay High Court c. Madras High Court d. Allahabad High Court Q53. Which is the oldest High Court in the country, being established in 1862 a. Madras High Court b. Calcutta High Court c. Bombay High Court d. Allahabad High Court Q54. After the presentation of Union Budget, all money bills related are mandatorily needed to be passed within what period a. One month b. Three month c. 45 days d. 75 days
Q55. President of India nominates how many members in Rajya Sabha a. 2 members b. 24 members c. 12 members Page | 12
d. 10 members Q56. The Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under jurisdiction of which High court of India a. Calcutta High Court b. Madras High Court c. Bombay High Court d. Allahabad High Court Q57. Which of the following kind of emergency has not been declared so far a. National emergency under Article 352 b. President Rule under Article 356 c. Financial emergency under Article 360 d. All kinds of emergency has been declared at least once Q58. In which parts of Indian Constitution does we find mentions of India as a secular state a. Directive Principles of state policy b. Preamble c. Fundamental Rights d. The Union
Q59. a. b. c.
What is mean by ‘amicus curiae’ An impartial adviser to a court of law in a particular case. Postponement of a court session until another time or place A judge's decision to end the case.
d. Testimony given by a witness who tells second or third hand information. Q60. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3 -tier system of Panchayati Raj with what percentage of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Women a. 50 % b. 33 % c. 66.7 % d. 25 %
Q61. For all practical purpose, ‘real executive authority ‘ of Union of India stay Page | 13
with a. President b. Lok Sabha c. Rajya Sabha d. Council of Minister Q62. What is the minimum no. of seat required for a political party to form a majority government in the state a. 94 b. 126 c. 64 d. 75 Q63. Who holds the record for being the Chief Minister of Assam for maximum no. of days a. Bimala Prasad Chaliha b. Gopinath Bordoloi c. Tarun Gogoi d. Hiteswar Saikia Q64. Assam has how many Autonomous Councils, being constituted in terms of the Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution a. Six b. Two c. Five d. Three Q65. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the States a. PART II b. Part VI c. Part VIII d. Part XII
Q66. What is the minimum strength of council of ministers in a state as per the Constitution of India a. 15 Page | 14
b. 12 c. 8 d. 6 Q67. Which of the following set of items are available in Concurrent List of Indian Constitution a. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Insurance. and Economic and social planning. b. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Forests and Economic and social planning. c. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Forests and Foreign affairs d. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Extradition and Economic and social planning. Q68. The 3-tier Panchayat Raj system was first introduced in which state a. Andhra Pradesh b. Rajasthan c. Uttar Pradesh d. Goa Q69. The executive power of the state is with which of the following authority a. President b. Chief Minister c. Governor d. Council of Ministers in the state Q70. Who has the power to dismiss Governor of a state a. President b. State Legislative Assembly c. Parliament d. None can remove Governor since it’s a constitutional post
Q71. The Part VI of constitution of India is not applicable to a. Goa b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Jammu & Kashmir Page | 15
d. Sikkim Q72. First Inter-state council was constituted in 1990, under which Article of Indian constitution a. Article 263 b. Article 143 c. Article 109 d. Article 110 Q73. Which Article of Indian Constitution is also described as the "Heart and Soul" of it a. Article 20 b. Article 32 c. Article 36 d. Article 50 Q74. The Preamble was recognised as a part of the constitution in which of the following case a. Bebubari Case b. Golaknath Case c. Minerva Mills Case d. Kesavananda Case Q75. Citizenship Act 1955 provides for how many modes for acquisition of Citizenship of India a. Two modes b. Five modes c. Three modes d. This act does not specifies any modes of acquiring Citizenship of India Q76. a. b. c.
Definition of Fundamental Rights are Found in Article 12 of the Constitution of India Found in Article 13 of the Constitution of India Found in Part III of the Constitution of India
d. Not Found in the Constitution of India
Q77 . Fundamental Rights given under which of the following articles are available Page | 16
to Citizens only a. Article 15,16,19 and 30 b. Article 14,15,16,19 and 30 c. Article 16,17,19 and 30 d. Article 15,16,19,21 and 30 Q78. 77th Constitutional Amendment has added the Provision for Reservation in matters of Promotion for SCs and STs in which Article of Indian Constitution a. Article 14 b. Article 16 c. Article 48 d. Article 21
Q79. Which of the following constitutional remedy is commonly known as ‘Stay Order’ a. b. c. d.
Mandamus Habeas Corpus Prohibition Quo Warranto
Q80. Directive Principles of State Policy of our constitution promotes the idea of a a. Welfare State b. Nation State c. Police State d. Economically developed state only Q81. Fundamental Duties which are the Part IV of Indian Constitution, are incorporated in a. Article 48 b. Article 51 c. Article 39 d. Article 51A
Q82. Parliamentary Govt or Responsible form of Govt is found in which of Page | 17
following set of countries a. Britain, Canada, Japan and Bangladesh b. Britain, China, USA and Japan c. Britain, UAE, Canada and Japan d. Britain, USA, Canada and Bhutan Q83. Which of the following statement is false regarding the demerits of Presidential System of government a. Conflict between legislature and executive b. Non-responsible government c. May lead to Autocracy d. Unstable Government Q84. Who should decide and gives final verdict regarding any disputes arising out of election of President of India a. Election Commission b. Supreme Court c. Parliament d. Business Advisory Committee of Parliament Q85. What types of Vero Power does the President of India has a. Absolute veto and suspensive veto onlyAbsolute veto, pocket veto, b. Qualified veto and suspensive veto only c. Absolute veto, pocket veto and suspensive veto only d. Pocket veto and suspensive veto only Q86. Which of the following is not a discretionary power of President of India a. Can return bill passed by the Parliament once for it’s reconsideration b. Exercising pocket veto c. Selecting Prime minister when no party has majority d. Giving accent to money bill.
Q87. Which of the statement is correct about resolution to remove Vice-President of India a. Resolution can be moved in any of the house of parliament Page | 18
b. Resolution can be moved in Lok Sabha only c. Resolution can be moved in Rajya Sabha only d. Resolution can be moved only in a joint sitting of both the house of the parliament Q88. Who among the following acts as a link and buffer between the Politicians and executives a. Governor b. Secretary of various ministries c. Political party d. Cabinet Secretary Q89. On the recommendation of which committee, does the Railway budget was separated in 1921 a. Balwantray committee b. Butler Committee c. Acword Committee d. It’s separately mentioned in Constitution Q90. which of the statement regarding the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is correct a. It comes under the Union Ministry of Finance b. It is a statutory authority established by the Government of India c. It is regarded as the world's second largest biometric ID system d. Nandan Nilekani is the CEO of UIDAI
Q91. Which Article of Indian Constitution is related to the appointment of Attorney General of India a. Article 76 b. Article 53 c. Article 61 d. Article 75
Q92. Supreme court has given the Vishaka guidelines in the Vishaka Case, this guideline is related to a. Child labour Page | 19
b. Under-wage of women for any job c. Domestic violence related to dowry case d. sexual harassment of women at workplace Q93. Who can include or exclude any tribe from the list of Scheduled Tribe a. Parliament only b. Parliament and President Only c. Governor and State Legislative Assembly Only d. All the Above Q94. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) was established in 1987, for which of the following main purpose a. Institutionalise trade of Minor Forest produce and Surplus Agricultural Produce b. Developing Markets in interior tribal areas c. Institutional Development of Tribal Area d. Develop marketing skill of rural India Q95. Which of the following commission was setup to examine the relationship and balance of power between union and state govt and to recommend necessary steps to improve the relation a. Mandal commission b. States Reorganisation Commission c. Sarkaria Commission d. Nachiket More Committee Q96. Which of the following statement is/are not correct regarding the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 a. It ensures self governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India. b. It has extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to cheduled Areas, which were not covered by the Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian Constitution. c. Makes prior consultation with Gram Sabhas before acquisition of any land for developemtn purpose. d. It made a National body for Tribal Panchayats to interact and discuss various development works
Q97. Which of the following is not a duty of the Public Information Officers (PIOs), as specified under the Right To Information Act 2005 a. He/She to deal with the requests frompublic seeking information Page | 20
b. He/she to provide the information within 30 days of receipt of request, if the request it to be accepted c. Wherever a request is rejected, He/She shall communicate the reason to the information seeker. d. His/Her decision is final with regards to the information of the concern Public Authority, and there is no appeal for his/her action
Q98. Which committee has recommended for setting up of the Central Vigilance Commission a. Wanchoo Committee b. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee c. Santhanam Committee d. Jyoti Basu Committee
Q99. Which is the first country in the world to create the post of Ombudsman, as an officer to handle complain against administrative and judicial action a. India b. Sweden c. Norway d. Japan Q100. Which of the following options are not correct regarding the Ninth Schedule of Indian Constitution a. Added by first Amendment Act of 1951 b. This part is out of the scope of Judicial Review c. Related to Laws relating to land reform d. Deals with Article 31 (B) of the constitution
Answer Keys in the Next Page
APSC Prel im GS Test Seri es Answer Keys for Test 1 Page | 21
Qs 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans D A C D B A D D C A A B B A B A B D A C B C C C D
Qs 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B C D C B D B D B A A C A B D D B D A C B D A D B
Qs 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans C D B D C A C B A B D C C D B B B B C A C A B D B
Qs 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D A B C A D A D B C D C D C B A D B A C D D C B B
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