Apmc Prev Med Compilation

DEPARTMENT OF PREVENTIVE AND COMMUNITY MEDICINE

Outcomes

Contents Concept of Health and Disease Natural History of Disease Levels of Prevention Epidemiology Definition Descriptive Epidemiology Analytic Epidemiology Rates, Ratios and Proportions Disease Outbreak Disease Prevention and Control General Principles Water Sanitation Waste Disposal Nutrition Population Dynamics Research Proposal Writing Data collection Sampling and Sample size Research Designs Data analysis Bias Primary Health Care Alternative Health Care Community Organizing Gov’t Health Programs Public Administration TOTAL

Recall

Analysis

Application

3 3 1 1 2 1 9 2 5 4 1 1 1

2 2 4 1 4 3 3 9 3 65

1

2

Total No of Items 3 3 4 18

1 2 20 1 4 4

1 20

3 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 28

3

2 7

6 5 4 11 5 100

University of the East RAMON MAGSAYSAY MEMORIAL MEDICAL CENTER College of Medicine Department of Preventive and Community Medicine 1. The WHO definition of health states that HEALTH is: A. the state of complete absence of all known disease B. the harmonious functioning of the human body C. the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being of the individual D. feeling of wholeness 2. The three components of ecologic triad that influence occurrence and distribution of diseases are: A. disease agent, spectrum of disease, environment B. disease agent, host factors, environmental factors C. environmental factors, disease agent, spectrum of disease D. host, disease agent, spectrum of disease 3. This term refers to the ability of the biological agent to invade and enter the host and multiply: A. infectivity B. pathogenicity C. virulence D. antigenicity 4. The stage in the natural history of disease where interaction between agent, man and environment takes place to determine the actual occurrence of disease in man, is: A. prepathogenesis B. incubation C. clinical horizon D. pathogenesis 5. Entry and multiplication of an infectious agent in the body of man or animal before signs and symptoms set in is: A. pre-pathogenesis stage B. actual infection C. incubation period D. convalescence 6. Pathogenesis stage starts when: A. disease manifests itself with non-specific signs and symptoms B. disease manifests itself with symptoms characteristic of the disease C. once the infectious agent enters the host D. any of the above 7. Nationwide educational campaign targeting high school students about the ill effects of smoking and alcohol, fall under what level of prevention? A. Primary level B. Secondary level C. Tertiary level D. All of the above 8. The objectives of secondary level of prevention include/s: A. to cure the disease B. to minimize spread of the disease C. to reduce serious consequences of the disease D. All of the above 9. Mass screening for TB in a rural community using Sputum AFB Smear falls under what level of prevention? A. Primordial B. Primary C. Secondary D. Tertiary 10. Which of the following statements about tertiary level of prevention is correct? A. it includes activities geared toward disability limitation B. it prevents “social drift” among handicapped individuals C. it includes psychological rehabilitation like crisis intervention D. all of the above 11. A phenomenon where the proportion of immune individuals in the community has exceeded a significant level such that the infectious organism is unable to maintain itself, leading to control of further transmission of the disease, is known as: A. Mass immunization B. Herd immunity C. Infection control D. All of the above 12. The following are characteristics of reservoir of infection, EXCEPT: A. it is a source or setting where an infectious organism normally lives B. it provides for the organism’s survival and multiplication C. it permits transfer of infection to a susceptible host D. None of the above

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13. Examples of diseases that may be directly transmitted include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Hepatitis A B. Rabies infection C. Tuberculosis D. Amoebiasis 14. The practice of close supervision of contracts for the purpose of prompt recognition of the infection without restriction of the their movements, is called: A. surveillance B. isolation C. segregation D. quarantine 15. The practice of restriction the freedom of movement of a well person who has recently been exposed to a communicable disease, is called: A. surveillance B. isolation C. segregation D. quarantine 16. Compared to formula milk, human milk has:

A. B. C. D.

More proteins More sugar More vitamin A

All are correct 17. The most useful indicator of undernutrition:

A. B. C. D.

Skinfold Head circumference Waist circumference

Weight for height 18. The following is an indirect method of nutritional assessment: A. Weight for height B. Percentage of low birth weight babies C. Height for age D. Measles mortality rate 19. The group most vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies: A. Pregnant women B. Working group C. Adolescents D. Non-lactating mothers 20. A clinical sign seen in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus: A. Failure to thrive B. Wasting C. Edema D. Attention deficit 21. The most sanitary source of water is:

A. B. C. D.

Groundwater Rainwater Surface water

Brackish water 22. The primary disinfectant in water treatment:

A. B. C. D.

Fluorine Chlorine Aluminum sulfate

Ferric sulfate 23. The process of water purification is as follows:

A. B. C. D.

Coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection Coagulation, filtration, disinfection, sedimentation Sedimentation, coagulation, filtration, disinfection

Filtration, sedimentation, coagulation, disinfection 24. The material that falls to the bottom of the tank during water treatment is called:

A. B. C.

Effluent Precipitate Sludge

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D. Scum 25. Dissolved gases in water are removed by: A. B. C. D.

Filtration Sedimentation Chlorination

Aeration 26. The method of waste disposal wherein decomposition occurs through mild reactions mediated by bacteria in the ground over a long period of time.

A. B. C. D.

Incineration Sanitary landfill Dumping

Resource recovery 27. The preferred method of human waste management in urban areas:

A. B. C. D.

Aqua privy Septic tank Chemical privy

Pit privy 28. Unsanitary waste disposal may be associated with the following disease:

A. B. C. D.

Malaria Tuberculosis Trichinosis

Cholera 29. The qualities of a suitable latrine include:

A. B. C. D.

Acceptable to people Simple in construction and use Hygienic and sanitary

All are correct 30. The preferred method of hospital waste disposal:

A. B. C. D.

Incineration Composting Dumping

Landfill 31. Epidemiology is defined as: A. a study of distribution and determinants of disease in human population B. a study of the natural history of a disease C. a study of disease prevention in human population D. a study of etiologies of epidemic diseases in humans 32. The aim of Descriptive Epidemiology is/are: A. to establish disease etiology B. to provide general observations regarding a disease, as to person, place and time C. to prove cause-and-effect relationship D. all of the above 33. The component of epidemiology that involves testing of hypothesis of disease causation is known as: A. Descriptive Epidemiology B. Analytic Epidemiology C. Inferential Epidemiology D. Any of the above 34. Person characteristics that may be used to describe distribution of disease in a population include all, EXCEPT: A. age B. sex C. ethnic group D. None of the above 35. Which of the following patterns of occurrence of disease DOES NOT exemplify secular changes? A. decline of stomach CA in the United States in the past 40 yrs B. decline in deaths due to communicable diseases in the Philippines for the past 20 yrs C. increased incidence of asthma attacks during cold months of December to February D. increase in the morbidity rate of Diabetes in the Philippines in the last decade 36. A disease that occurs at an unusual or unexpected number is said to be A. Epidemic B. Endemic

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C. Sporadic D. Any of the above 37. The first step in outbreak investigation is: A. establish the diagnosis B. formulate the hypothesis C. establish case definition D. characterize afflicted individuals 38. The rate that measures the probability of a person dying in a year regardless of age, sex, race, etc is:

A. B. C. D.

case fatality rate neonatal mortality rate crude death rate

specific death rate 39. The age specific death rate:

A. B. C. D.

compares population with different age and sex composition is generally higher among males than females is higher in the urban areas than in rural

is higher in the extremes of ages 40. Used to describe the relative importance of different fatal disease in the population of different age, sex, occupation etc.

A. B. C. D.

specific death rate attack rate cause of death rate

proportionate mortality rate 41. The number of death from a given cause in a specified time period divided by the total deaths in the same time peiod is

A. B. C. D.

crude death rate indirect death rate case fatality rate

proportionate mortality ratio 42. The true mortality trend of a disease declines when there is

A. B. C. D.

improved recognition of the disease better prevention of the disease better treatment of the disease

B and C 43. The following indices use the midyear population as the denominator, EXCEPT:

A. B. C. D.

crude birth rate measles incidence rate crude death rate

proportionate mortality rate 44. Infant mortality of a community is determined by the number of deaths of infants less than one year old divided by:

A. B. C. D.

the total number of births the number of births the number of babies born alive

the midyear population of infants less than 1 year 45. A measure of the risk of death during the first month (28 days) of life is:

A. B. C. D.

perinatal mortality rate neonatal mortality rate infant mortality rate

fetal mortality rate 46. Post-neonatal mortality has been closely linked to:

A. B. C. D.

environmental factor maternal health prior to pregnancy events during pregnancy

maternal health during pregnancy 47. A low infant mortality rate suggests:

A. B.

good pre-post-natal systems good infant and maternal nutrition

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C. D.

good environment sanitation

all of the above 48. The rate that measures the numbers of death from causes associated with delivery and diseases of the mother during pregnancy is:

A. B. C. D.

infant mortality rate neonatal mortality rate maternal morbidity rate

maternal mortality rate 49. A proposed study on whether or not abortion should be legalized is not a good research problem because it does not satisfy this criterion: A. Intellectual curiosity B. Researchability C. Significance D. Feasibility 50. A researcher comes across several studies which suggest that certain parameters in the chest X-ray are useful in assessing the intravascular volume of critically ill patients. He decides to validate the study in the Philippines in the hope of identifying a possible alternative to Swan Ganz catheterization, which is inaccessible and too expensive for most Filipinos. This method of identifying a potential research problem is called: A. Analysis of needs and practice B. Serendipity C. Intellectual curiosity D. Organized and systematic determination of research needs 51. It is important to formulate a research hypothesis particularly when doing analytic studies because it helps the researcher in: A. Identifying the most appropriate study design to use B. Determining the best approach to how subjects are to be selected C. Anticipating the appropriate statistical analysis to use D. Estimating the sample size for the study 52. The schema for this study design essentially follows the same process as that of an experimental study: A. Descriptive B. Cross sectional C. Case control D. Cohort 53. The peculiar feature of a cross sectional study that distinguishes it from other study designs is: A. Information on both the independent and dependent variables are collected simultaneously at the time of the survey B. Information on the independent variable is collected first, after which the subjects are followed up later for assessment of the dependent variable C. Information on the dependent variable is obtained, after which assessment of the independent variable is made D. Information on both the independent and dependent variables are obtained by doing either queries or actual observation 54. The effect of an inadequate sample size for a study is: A. Subjects may not be a random representative of the base population B. There may not be enough subjects that will develop the outcome, in order to detect a difference C. The researcher will not be able to apply the appropriate statistical test for the kind of data available D. The researcher might find an association between independent and dependent variables, even if there actually is none 55. The following method of data analysis is most relevant for the cohort study design: A. Prevalence odds ratio B. Prevalence rate C. Odds ratio D. Relative risk 56. This is a sampling method wherein every subject falling within a fixed sampling interval is obtained from a population N which is arranged in some definite way: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic sampling C. Stratified sampling D. Cluster sampling 57. In this sampling method, there is proportionate representation of the different classes or subgroups in the population: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic sampling C. Stratified sampling D. Multi-stage sampling 58. Methods to increase the accuracy of observation and measurement include the following, EXCEPT: A. Blinding B. Training of observers C. Formulation of operational definition D. Sample size computation 59. Which method of collecting data is devoid of observer error and bias? A. Interview B. Self-administered questionnaire C. Observation D. Review of documents 60. This method of collecting data results to accumulation of “secondary data”: A. self-administered questionnaire

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B. observation C. measurement D. review of documents 61. The following statements are true regarding bias: A. it may result both from biologic as well as measurement variations B. it is a systematic deviation from a true underlying value C. it may result from sampling error D. All of the Above 62. Interpret the following: The 95% confidence interval of the relative risk is 2.0 to 4.0. A. The standard deviation for the relative risk is ± 1.0. B. There is a 95% probability that the relative risk is between 2.0 to 4.0. C. The range of all possible risks for the development of the outcome is 2.0 to 4.0. D. The variance for the relative risk is ± 1.0. 63. When a researcher wants to test for the association between two categorical variables, the appropriate statistic to use is: A. Chi square B. T test C. Analysis of variance D. Correlation coefficient 64. In situations where one extremely large or one extremely small observation occurs within a data set, the best measure of central tendency to use is the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Quartile deviation 65. In a normal distribution, normal limits are delineated by: A. The upper 5% of the observations B. The lower 2.5% and the upper 2.5% of the observations C. The lower 5% of the observations D. The middle 95% of the observations 66. Statistical results of a study relating an independent and dependent variable show that p3months but