Apmc Board Exam05

APMC BOARD EXAM INTERNAL MEDICINE 2005 Name________________________________________

Score__________

A. Write the best answer in the space provided before each number. _____1. Among the viruses associated with causing bronchiectasis, choose the main ones: A. Coxsackie virus B. Arena virus C. Influenza Virus D. Parvo virus _____2. In patients with hospital acquired pneumonia, the following organisms are commonly found in the ICU except: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Acinetobacter spp. D. Hemophilus influenzae _____3. In patients with asbestosis, smoking greatly increases the incidence of A. Lung Cancer B. Mesothelioma C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. A and C _____4. In the treatment of asthma, the following are classified as leukotriene modifiers except: A. Montelukast B. Nedocromil C. Zileuton D. Zafirlukast _____5. In evaluating a possible lesion on chest xray, which of the following radiologic procedure will give the best information. A. Magnetic resonance imaging B. CT scan with contrast C. Ultrasound of the thoracic area D. Radionuclide scanning

APMC Board exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 2 _____6. Pulmonary infections is common among patients with cystic fibrosis, therapy should be directed against which of the following organisms: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Chlamydia pneumoniae D. None of the above _____7. The following are radiologic signs which are found in patients with pulmonary embolism: A. Westermark’s sign B. Hampton’s sign C. Palla’s sign D. All of the above _____8. Aside from lung cancer, the other malignancy (cies) most commonly associated with pleural effusion are: A. Breast carcinoma B. Hepatoma C. Renal cell cancer D. Colon cancer _____9. Key features to describe primary alveolar hypoventilation includes: A. Chronic Respiratory Acidosis B. Frequent episodes of central hypopnea C. Development of daytime somnolence, disturbed sleep and morning headaches D. All of the above _____10. What is the most common disease condition in patients waiting for a lung transplant? A. COPD B. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis C. Cystic fibrosis D. Primary Pulmonary hypertension _____11. In an alcoholic who comes in the emergency room complaining of ophthalmoplegia, lateral rectus palsy and ataxia, the differential diagnosis should include: A. cerebrovascular accident B. Korsakoff’s psychosis C. Wernicke’s disease D. A and B

APMC Board exam Internal Medicine 2005 -page 3 _____12. In patients with atheroembolic stroke, the treatment most shown to have benefits included: A. Heparin B. Aspirin C. Dipyridamole D. A and B _____13. Current accepted treatment of asymptomatic carotid disease includes: A. Carotid endarterectomy B. Conservative management with statins and aspirin C. Balloon angioplasty with stenting D. All of the above _____14. Asking a patient what they ate for breakfast this morning is testing his: A. Working memory B. Episodic memory C. Long term memory D. Procedural memory _____15. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the following except: A. reduction of acetylcholine in the nucleus basalis of Meynert B. formation of neuritic plaques composed of AL amyloid, proteoglycans C. Maybe genetic in origin, involving the APP gene mutation in chromosome 21 D. May involve presenilin-1 and presenilin-2 in chromosome 14 and 1 respectively _____16. Patients with post infectious GN have the following findings: A. Depressed C3 level B. Depressed C4 level C. Elevated ASO titer D. A and B _____17. Patients with acute renal failure secondary to gentamicin has the following findings: A. oliguric renal failure B. elevated eosinophil count in the urine C. presence of dirty brown coarse granular cast in the urine sediments D. presence of red blood cell cast in the urine _____18. The correction of hyperkalemia which involves actual excretion of potassium is achieved by what method? A. administration of calcium gluconate B. administration of sodium bicarbonate C. administration of d50 water plus insulin D. administration of kayaxelate

APMC Board Internal Medicine –page 4 _____19. Kidney biopsy of a patient with membranous glomerulopathy will show: A. Mesangial deposits B. Subendothelial deposits C. Subepithelial deposits D. IgG linear antibodies _____20. Patients with kidney transplantation who have received anti-lymphocyte antibodies (OKT3) are prone to developing what type of infection in the immediate post transplant period? A. Hepatitis B infection B. Hepatitis C infection C. Cytomegalovirus infection D. None of the above _____21. Patients who are undergoing dialysis for the 1st time will experience this condition due to rapid removal of toxic metabolites: A. First use syndrome B. Disequilibrium syndrome C. Anaphylactic shock D. Recirculation _____22. Which of the following substances below are potent inhibitors of stone formation? A. Uric acid B. Inorganic pyrophosphate C. Oxalate D. None of the above _____23. A 5 year old male presenting with multiple cysts in the 2 kidneys associated with hepatic fibrosis is most likely to have: A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease B. medullary cystic kidney disease C. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease D. medullary sponge kidney _____24. Patient was complaining of reducing urine output after he started taking rifampicin and isoniazid for pulmonary tuberculosis. The lab test shows normal sgpt but creatinine is 3.5mg/dl (baseline of 1.0mg/dl at start of treatment). Urinalysis shows eosinophilia with WBC cast. What is the expected etiology of the renal failure? A. Acute tubular necrosis B. Acute Glomerulonephritis C. Acute Interstitial nephritis D. Acute Vascular thromobosis

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 5 _____25. Which of the following post transplant malignancy is/are common? A. Lung cancer B. Breast Cancer C. Colon cancer D. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma _____26. Which of the following physical findings suggest left ventricular heart failure? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus alternans C. Bisferiens pulse D. Pulsus tardus _____27. Which of the following statement is true of right bundle bunch block? A. Only occur in pathologic conditions, that is in coronary artery disease. B. May occur in subjects without structural heart conditions C. May occur in patients with atrial septal defect D. B and C _____28. Which of the following imaging procedures is best to detect “hibernating myocardium” A. Thallium 201 stress testing B. Adenosine stress echo C. Positron emission tomography with flurodeoxyglucose D. Technetium 99m nuclear imaging _____29. In patients with severe knee osteoarthritis and chronic obstructive lung disease, the best way to test for myocardial ischemia is to do: A. Adenosine stress echo B. Dipyridamole stress echo C. Dobutamine stress echo D. None of the above _____30.Which of the following conditions can cause AV nodal dysfunction? A. Lyme’s disease B. Sarcoidosis C. Digitalis intoxication D. All of the above

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 6 ____31. A Cardiac Pacemaker is absolutely indicated in the following condition: A. 3rd degree AV block B. 2nd degree AV block Mobitz type I C. 2nd degree AV block Mobitz type II following anteroseptal wall infarction D. A and C _____32. The method with the best chance to terminate Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome is: A. Digitalis B. Verapamil C. Beta-blocker D. Catheter ablation _____33. In a patient with abdominal aortic aneurysm, what diameter of the aortic aneurysm is surgery absolutely indicated? A. 4 cm B. 4.5 cm C. 5 cm D. 5.5 cm _____34. In treating deep vein thrombosis, the following statements are true: A. Anticoagulation should be continued for 1 to 3 months B. INR should be maintained between 2.5 to 3.5 C. Low molecular weight heparin should be started first then overlapped with warfarin D. all of the above _____35. In patients about to receive fibrinolytic therapy, what conditions are contraindicated to its use: A. Previous administration of streptokinase B. Recent history of surgical procedure within the last 2 weeks C. Patient taking anticoagulant with INR >2.0 D. All of the above _____ 36. In a patient presenting with upper respiratory tract infection, the sudden onset of chest pain with pericardial friction rub and heart failure is usually due to: A. Hepatitis B virus B. Herpesviruses C. Coxsackievirus D. Measles virus

APMC Board Exam –Internal Medicine 2005 page 7 _____37. In patients with suspected dengue hemorrhagic fever, the following should be done: A. Infusion of crystalloid or colloid to prevent hemoconcentration B. Administer steroid to prevent hypotension C. Blood transfusion if the hematocrit goes below 36% D. Prophylactic platelet transfusion if platelet count goes below 100,000 _____38. Which of the following viral agent does not cause hemorrhagic fever: A. Dengue virus B. Ebola virus C. Hantavirus D. HTLV I _____39. Deeply Invasive Candidiasis is treated best with: A. IV amphotericin B B. Oral Fluconazole C. Itraconazole D. IV Caspofungin _____40. The following are zoonotic infections, EXCEPT: A. Brucellosis B. Leptospirosis C. Filariasis D. Toxoplasmosis _____41. The following are human infections caused by bacteria located intracellularly, EXCEPT: A. Legionella infections B. Chlamydia infections C. Salmonella infections D. Streptococcal infections _____42. The drug of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is: A. Carbapenems B. Oxacillin C. Fluoroquinolones D. Vancomycin _____43. Which of the following antibacterial agents does not penetrate cells well A. Ampicillin B. Macrolide C. Metronidazole

D. Quinolones APMC Board Exam- Internal Medicine 2005 page 8 _____44. Which antimycobacterial agent should be stopped if the patient develops gouty arthritis A. Rifampicin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide _____45. Which vaccine is safe for use in pregnant women: A. Hepatitis B B. Measles C. Mumps D. Varicella _____46. Very distinctive, pruritic small wheals that are surrounded by large areas of erythema sometimes precipitated by fever or hot baths, are seen in: A. Cholinergic Urticaria B. Light urticaria C. Vibratory angioedema D. Aquagenic pruritus _____47. Differential diagnosis of localized hypomelanosis includes: A. Tinea Versicolor B. Vitiligo C. Nevus Depigmentosus D. All of the above _____48. Nikolsky’s sign which is separation of the epidermis is seen in: A. Pemphigus Vulgaris B. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome D. All of the above _____49. Tissue and blood eosinophilia are prominent features of: A. Wegeners Granulomatosis B. Allergic Granulomatosis C. Polyarteritis Nodosa D. Lymphomatoid Granulomatosis

APMC Board Exam –Internal Medicine 2005 page 9 _____50. A transient, pruritic linear wheal with a flare at a site in which the skin is briskly stroked with a firm object is known as: A. Dermatosis B. Dermographics C. Dermatography D. Dermographism _____51. The following are included in the criteria for the classification of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus except: A. Butterfly rash B. Alopecia C. Photosensitivity D. Serositis _____52. The following are true of systemic sclerosis: A. Acquired Disease B. Non-contagious multisystem disease C. Raynaud’s phenomenon is the most common symptoms D. All of the above _____53. The following are features of Behcet’s disease except: A. Multiple oral aphthous ulcers B. Uveitis C. Malar rash D. None of the above _____54. The following are true of Takayasu’s arteritis: A. Chronic vasculitis of the aorta and its branches B. Most common in young women of Asian descent C. Biopsy is rarely done because of the vessel size involved D. All of the above _____55. Antiphospholipid syndrome: A. Recurrent arterial or venous thrombosis B. 2nd & 3rd trimester fetal death C. (+) lupus anticoagulant D. all of the above _____56. Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by the following except: A. Dry eyes B . Dry mouth C. Dry hair D. none of the above

APMC Board Exam- Internal Medicine 2005 page 10 _____57. The following are tumors commonly associated with dermatomyositis: A. Melanoma B. Lung cancer C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia D. Pancreatic cancer _____58. What is true of Rheumatoid Factor? A. Can be found in patients with SLE and Sjogrens syndrome B. Presence of Rheumatoid factor establishes the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis C. High titers and low titers of Rheumatoid factor has the same significance D. All of the above _____59. Which of the following patients is the LEAST suspicious of SLE: A. 60 y.o female with fatigue, anorexia, cough, fever, increased ESR B. 40 y.o female with oral ulcers, rash over cheeks, anemia, thrombocytopenia increased ESR, arthritis C. 30 y.o male with anemia, leucopenia, casts in the urine, decreased C3, headache, pleural effusion D. 42 y.o female with skin rash, photosensitivity, anemia, fatigue _____60. HLA B-27 is associated with what condition? A. Ankylosing Spondylitis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Sjogren’s syndrome D. Scleroderma _____61. The most life threatening side effect of cytotoxic chemotherapy is A. Nausea and vomiting B. Leucopenia C. Alopecia D. Mucositis _____62. The following are goals of cancer treatment except: A. To cure or control the disease whenever possible B. To palliate symptoms in advanced disease C. To increase over-all survival in terminally ill patients D. To ensure that minimal functional impairment results from treatment

APMC Board Internal Medicine 2005 page 11 _____63. Telomerase, a protein found at the distal ends of DNA strands, normally fall off. However, if it does not fall off, one of the following occurs: A. Production of Immortal cells B. Diseases of aging C. Point mutation D. Spontaneous regression _____64. What is true of apoptosis A. Programmed death of cells that lose normal growth regulations B. Extrinsic pathway is activated by cross-linking members of the tumor necrosis receptor superfamily C. Intrinsic pathway is initiated by the release of cytochrome C and second mitochondrial activator of caspases in response to a variety of noxious stimuli D. All of the above _____65. Current principles in antiangiogenic therapy depend on the following mechanism to halt formation of new blood vessels in tumor growths: A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis C. Anoikis D. None of the above _____66. Which of the following treatment may reverse the cytopenia in patients with advanced Idiopathic myelofibrosis? A. Hydroxyurea B. Interferon C. Splenectomy D. Plateletpheresis _____67. The enzyme that promotes myeloid proliferation in chronic myelogenous leukemia is: A. thymidine kinase B. tyrosine kinase C. leucocyte alkaline phosphatase D. none of the above _____68. Fever in neutropenic patients is treated with empiric antibiotics against: A. Staphylococcus B. Gram positive aerobes C. Gram negative aerobes D. All

APMC Board Exam – Internal Medicine 2005 page 12 _____69. The differentiating agent that do not produce DIC and promotes promyelocytic maturation in AML M3: A. All-cis retinoic acid B. All-trans retinoic acid C. Tretinoin D. Vitamin A _____70.Which biochemical abnormality is associated with multiple myeloma? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypophosphatemia D. None of the above _____71. In a patient with hepatic cirrhosis, hepatic encephalopathy can be precipitated by all of the following except: A. Gastrointestinal bleeding B. Metabolic Acidosis C. Infection D. Vomiting _____72. Which of the following drug used for treating peptic ulcer disease should be avoided in patients with renal failure A. Sucralfate B. Famotidine C. Aluminum Hydroxide-Magnesium Hydroxide antacid D. A and C _____73. What can be said of type A gastric ulcer? A. Also called autoimmune gastritis B. Associated with Helicobacter Pylori infection C. Associated with pernicious anemia D. A and C _____74. The most common organism isolated from the ascitic fluid of patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Escherichia Coli D. Bacteroides Fragilis

APMC Board Internal Medicine 2005 page 13 _____75. The most serious pulmonary complication of pancreatitis is: A. Pleural effusion B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome C. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary embolism _____76. The following is true of Hepatitis B infection: A. Accounts for >50% of fulminant hepatitis, a sizable proportion of which is associated with Hepatitis D infection B. DNA virus C. Risk of chronic infection is much greater in adults than in infants D. A and B _____77. A 71 y.o. woman with a history of coronary artery disease presents to her family physician for a routine check up. The physician notices that she has lost 20 lbs since her last visit 6 months ago. When questioned, she gives a history of intermittent periumbilical pain that always begins about 30min. after eating and lasts for about 2 hours. She claims that the pain is more after a large meal so she began to eat less out of fear of the pain. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Pancreatitis B. Cholecystitis C. Small bowel obstruction D. Intestinal Ischemia _____78. A 48 y.o. man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room vomiting bright red blood. All of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis except: A. Ruptured Esophageal varices B. Esophageal Reflux secondary to a hiatal hernia C. Boerhaave’s syndrome D. Mallory Weiss Syndrome _____79. The most common site for ischemic colitis to occur is: A. Splenic Flexure B. Cecum C. Rectum D. Sigmoid Colon _____80. All of the factors listed below may play a role in the development of duodenal ulcer disease except: A. Tobacco smoking B. Helicobacter Pylori infection C. Spicy Food ingestion

D. Genetic Factors APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 – page 14 _____81. The cell mediated type of response is characterized by: A. T cell involvement B. Usually responsible for host defense against virus and fungus C. Type IV hypersensitivity type of reaction D. All of the above _____82. The smallest concentration of antibody in the serum is: A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgM _____83. The complement system can do all the following except: A. Activate phagocytes B. Lyze the target cells C. Activates chemotaxis D. inhibits opsonization _____84. Mast cell degranulation is due to: A. Crosslinking of 2 IgE antibodies B. Primary response to antigen C. antibody production D. T cell activation _____85.What is true of systemic mastocytosis: A. Result of a point mutation B. +Dariers sign C. Presence of hepatosplenomegaly D. all of the above _____86. The following are true of hyperosmolar nonketotic coma except: A. serum osmolality more than 320 B. ph 7.4 C. Hyperglycemia D. serum ketones more than 2:1 _____87. A 28 year old male with mild hypertension had controlled blood pressure, he suddenly developed hypertensive crisis with an elevated 24 hr urine metanephrines, what is the most likely cause of his condition A. Renal Artery Stenosis B. Cushings syndrome C. Pheochromocytoma D. none of the above

APMC Board Exam – Internal Medicine 2005 -page 15 _____88. The most reliable thyroid function test for diagnosing primary hypothyroidism: A. Thyrotropin B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone C. Free T4 D. Thyroid Scan _____89. Clinical Feature of Conn’s disease: A. Hyperkalemia B. Metabolic Alkalosis C. Hyponatremia D. Alternating Hypotension-Hypertension _____90. If a young female patient is amerorrheic with galactorrhea, complaining of slight visual problems, the blood test to check is: A. LH, FSH B. Prolactin C. Dopamine D. Estradiol _____91. You suspect a patient to have acromegaly. To screen for this problem you check: A. IGF 1 level B. Random Growth Hormone C. TSH and T4 levels D. serum ACTH level _____92. A patient presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Serum sodium is 145 meq/l with a dilute urine with specific gravity of 1.005. Patient has normal response to water deprivation without any response to exogenous AVP (vasopressin). The condition is consistent with: A. Dipsogenic diabetes insipidus B. Central diabetes insipidus C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. SIADH _____93. A 45 y.o. male presents with infertility. On examination he was noted to have small firm testes and gynecomastia. The following statements is true of the above condition: A. Most likely due to a secondary cause like pituitary gland trauma B. Rule out possibility of exogenous estrogen intake C. basic defect is a chromosomal abnormality= 47 XXY D. Biochemical tests will reveal: low testosterone and low LH/FSH levels

APMC Board Exam – Internal Medicine 2005 page 16 _____94. Clinical manifestations of Growth Hormone Excess includes the following except: A. Prognatism B. Anhydrosis C. Hypertension D. Glucose Intolerance _____95. 32 y.o. female with high blood sugar was examined to have “moon facies”, truncal obesity with thin extremities, easy bruisibility and abdominal striae. She has an excess of which hormone A. ACTH B. Growth Hormone C. Cortisol D. A and C _____96. This syndrome is described as “an imposter has replaced your relative”: A. Munchausen’s syndrome B. Capgras syndrome C. Delirium Tremens D. Rogers Syndrome _____97. The following drugs are used in the treatment of bipolar disorders: A. Lithium carbonate B. Valproic Acid C. Carbamezepine D. All of the above _____98. The following is true of schizophrenia: A. Affected by both genetic and environmental events B. Drugs which activate dopaminergic activities are used to treat it. C. There is gradual increase in cortical volume over time D. None of the above _____99. In the treatment of general anxiety disorders, what is true: A. Benzodiazepines can be given for more than 4 weeks without problems B. Buspirone takes more than 1 week to act but has no abuse potential C. Over 80% of patients with general anxiety disorders have depression D. B and C _____100. Criteria for major depression includes: A. Loss of energy every day B. depressed mood daily for at least 1 week C. Hypersomnia nearly every day

D. A and C Answer Key: 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. D 43. A

Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 240 page 1542 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 239 page 1539 Harrisons 16th Edition, chapter 238 page 1522-23 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 236 page 1513 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 235 page 1505 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 241 page 1545 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 244 page 1562 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 245 page 1567 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 246 page 1571 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 248 page 1577 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 372 page 2563 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 349 page 2375 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 349 page 2377 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2394 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2398-2399 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 264 page 1681 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 260 page 1645-1647 Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics 30th Chap. 3 page 58-59 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 264 page 1687 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 263 page 1673 Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics 30th Chap. 12 page 271 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 268 page 1712 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 265 page 1696 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 260 page 1648 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 263 page 1673 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 209 page 1305 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 210 page 1315 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 211 page 1325 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 211 page 1324 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 213 page 1336 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 213 page 1337 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 214 page 1350-1351 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 231 page 1483 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 232 page 1492 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 228 page 1453-1454 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 175 page 1145 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 180 page 1173 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 180 page 1170 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 187 page 1187 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 155 p988, chap 198 p1243 chap 202 p1260 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 132 p871, chap 160 p1011 chap 121 p824 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 120 page 821 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 118 page 790

44. D 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. D 49. B 50. D 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. D 56. C 57. A 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. A 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. C 81. D 82. C 83. D 84. A 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. B 89. B

Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 150 page 963 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 107 page 720 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1951 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 48 page 299 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 49 page 311 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 306 page 2007 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1951 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 page 1962 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 303 pages 1979-1981 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 307 page 2014 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 306 page 2009-2010 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 page 1964 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 304 pages 1990-1991 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 369 page 2541 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 301 page 1972 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 pages 1962-1963 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 296 page 1937 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 70 pages 479-481 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 70 page 467 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 454 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 458-459 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 462-463 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 95 page 629 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 96 page 637 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 254 page 1611 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 96 page 636 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 98 page 658 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 289 page 1868 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 page 1753-1754 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 page 1761 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 112 page 750 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 294 page 1898 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 285 pages 1822-1825, 1834 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 279 page 1799 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 273 pages 1745-1746 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 279 pages 1797-1798 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 pages 1750-1753 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 297 page 1940, 1946-7 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 295 page 1922 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 295 page 1907, 1913-1915 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1947-1949 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1953 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 323 page 2161 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 322 page 2151 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 320 page 2111 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 321 page 2139

90. B 91. A 92. A 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. D 98. A 99. D 100. D

MPL: 1. 65% 2. 70% 3. 80% 4. 90% 5. 75% 6. 90% 7. 70% 8. 75% 9. 70% 10. 80% 11. 80% 12. 90% 13. 85% 14. 80% 15. 60% 16. 85% 17. 75% 18. 95% 19. 60% 20. 70% 21. 65% 22. 75% 23. 75% 24. 65% 25. 60%

Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2086 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2090 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 319 page 2098-2099 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 328 page 2215 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2090 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 321 page 2134 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2398 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2556-2557 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2559-2560 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2549-2550 Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2553

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

80% 60% 65% 60% 60% 50% 50% 50% 55% 75% 70% 95% 85% 90% 65% 60% 100% 80% 65% 85% 70% 70% 65% 70% 70%

51. 52, 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

85% 65% 75% 75% 90% 65% 60% 60% 85% 85% 80% 70% 60% 40% 40% 50% 65% 90% 60% 65% 75% 45% 70% 85% 60%

76. 60% 77. 40% 78. 65% 79. 70% 80. 75% 81. 40% 82. 50% 83. 60% 84. 50% 85. 40% 86. 55% 87. 60% 88. 75% 89. 70% 90. 65% 91. 65% 92. 50% 93. 75% 94. 65% 95. 80% 96. 65% 97. 80% 98. 60% 99. 65% 100. 65%

Blueprint: A. Percentage by subject: 1. Pulmonary - 10% 2. Neurology - 5% 3. Nephrology - 10% 4. Cardiology - 10% 5. Infectious Diseases – 10% 6. Dermatology - 5% 7. Rheumatology – 10% 8. Oncology – 5% 9. Hematology – 5% 10. Gastroenterology – 10% 11. Allergy/Immunology – 5% 12. Endocrinology – 10% 13. Psychiatry – 5% B. Types of Questions: 1. Recall - 52 % 2. Analysis - 42 % 3. Case/Problem Solving - 6 %