Andhra Pradesh Ntse Stage 1

[fi •

Medium: ENGLISH

Roll No.

~ Language: ENGLISH

~-------------------NTSE - NOVEMBER, 2014 MENTAL ABILITY AND SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST Time: 180 Minutes

Mental Ability Test Language Comprehensive Test Aptitude Test Total

Instructions

50 Marks 40 Marks 90 Marks : 180 Marks

to Candidates

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. AnsweI;s~::reto be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with HB Pencil. Re~r~!'uhe Instructions printed on the OMRSheet carefully before answering the que~tion. 1.

2.

Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the OMR Sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose your Center Code Number and Roll Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card. The Test is in THREE PARTS. Part - I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50), Part - II (Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 40 Questions (Q. Nos. 51 to 90) and Part - III (Aptitude Test) consists of 90 questions (Q. Nos. 91 to 180).

3.

All questions carry one mark each.

4.

Since all questions a,:"ecomI>til~oriY,do not try to read through th'el w~hole question paper before begin:hi;ng to answer it.

5. . Begin with the first question and: keep trying one question after another tiUyou finish all three parts~ 6.

If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to next one. If time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.

7.

Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.

I----,-----------------------.~!!!!!

,-~r'----------------

..

NTSE (EE) . 8. A bla~k page is provided for rough work at the end of each part. 9. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED. 10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct alternative in OMR Sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.

11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions. 12. After the examination,

you should

hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator of the room. 13. The candidate need not return

this

Question Paper booklet and can take it after completion of the examination. No candidate

should

leave

the

examination hall before the end of the examination.

NTSE (EE)

PART-I MENTAL ABILITY TEST (Q. Nos. 1 to 50) Max. Marks - 50 Note:

SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided,

from amongst

the ones given agarRst

the

corresponding question in the Question Booklet. For shaafultg the circles, use HB Pencil.

I

1

I

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I

me,

a

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NTSE(EE)

i Directions: Questions (1 to 6) : In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by five alternative answers, (1), (2),(3),(4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the "Instructions".

~

)q'2-

~3072 (4) 1536

~ J f 2 11 ')...

I

(5) 1152,

...

J1..~

r~)

~

/~J

6. 365, 345, 320, 290, .... (1) 300

(1) 90

>

(2) 245

L

;Jtif

'-1

(2) 85

255

(4) 260

. (3) 49

(5) 265

(4) 40

$94 _

Directions: Questions (7 to 10) are based on letter analogy. There are two pa~irs of letter combinations in each questipn. ~he first (left side) pair has some ,te~1"~J9P:S'hip between its members. In tIr',f.'l:l"dl.pair one member is missing•.:Fin~. J,fiom answers (1), (2),(3),(4),(n~&(5)}~pi.".~t~this pair has similar relati'bnsliipi as\~lietfirst pair. Indicate your answer as per the "Instructions" .

'7

2. 90,81, 74, 69, ..... (1) 64

?,66 (3) 65 (4) 78 (5) 72

,1.' 3. 785,664, 543,422, ...

pf301

7. PBL: NDJ : : VCR: ? ~

(2) 201

(1) SEP

(3) 101

(2) SEO (3) SEN

(4) 300

~.SFO

(5) 303

(5) SFN 4. 1875, ...., 75~15,3

8. ACEG: . ..BDEF : : JLNP : ?

(1) 370

(1) KLNO

(2) 275

I"

(2) KMNP (3) LMNP (4) LMNO

)

(3) 380

''375 (5) 365

'JJIf' KMNO [1]

,....

--

D

'1.

.

[Turn Over

~~

2- \.;N ~ .

, ,?:. t(

:ff f6

• r ~' .... M ~ ""-"

1 ';

:r....'

. ')

(2) 576

"j~

7

L

(1) 2972

1. 4, 13,31,58, .....

1

1r

5. 3, 6, 24, 192, ...

'C t " -.

1;

9. SRCA: ONDB : : TSGE : ? 13. YXV, BeE, UTR, .... ~FGI (2) FGH (3) FHI

~POHF , (2) POFH (3) POGH (4) POHG

(4) EGI

(5) OPHF

(5) FGJ '2. ? l,S \ .

10. ABCDE: CDEAB,: : RSTUV : ? (1) TUVSR (2) SRTUV (3) RTUVS

,-

U \f.

14. LMNOP, MNOPL, NOPLM, .... (1) PLMNO (2) PONLM (3) ONMLP '. (4) NMLOP

R5

. Y'TUVRS

~OPLMN

(5) STUVR

Directions:

Directions: Questions (11 to 14) : In the fOllowing questions Letters/Letter groups are arranged in a particular order with some underlying criterion. Study the order and choosethe answer from the alternatives to fill the gaps.

Qliestions (15 to 20) : In each of the following questions, five words are given. Four ofthem are alike in some way. One is different from them. Identify and indicate it as'per the "Instructions". 15.

(1) Korea

(2) China (3) Thailand

11. ACFH, BDGI, CEHJ, .... (1) DEIK

~Finland (5) Bangladesh

;jIIf'DFIK (3) DFJK

16.

(4) DEJK

(1) Leopard 'Elephant (3) Tiger (4) Cheetah (5) Lion

(5) DEHJ 12. UABP, TBCO, SCDN, .... (1) RDEN

17. .J'Moon

(2) RDEO

~;

(3) RDEM (4) RDFM ~REFM [2]

Earth (6) Saturn ('4) Neptune (5) Venus [Turn Over

I,

N'FSE (EE).

Directions:

Directions:

Questions (26 to 30) are based on the following diagrams. Study them carefully and indicate correct answer as per "Instructions" .

Questions (31 to35) : With vhehelp of the given diagram, answer the')JfO'llowing questions making the rightcnOld~;'fi:om the given alternatives.lndica.te the7~ri.s\Veras per the "Instructions" . Artists

1

(1)

(2)

(3)

i Musicians

o

i

Philosophers

31. Doctors who are also Artists and Philosophers are indicated by the letter. (1) h

(4)

(2) e (3) f

(4) b

(5)000

'jff".g 32. Which letter indicatesRJiilbsophers who are also Musicians and-Artists?

26. Snakes, Cobra, Vipers ~.

(1) f

27. Elephants, Camel, Cows ~ 28. Kil~gram, Centigram, Milligram 29. Apple, Fruits, Potato

;pri

\.

(3) e (4)

~.

g

(5) I

30. Musicians, Pianist, Guitarist~. [4]

[Turn Over

NTSE (EE)

18.

(1) Portuguese

22. Godaan: Munshi Premchand : : Anandamath : ?

(2) Romanian (3) Italian

(1) K. M. Munshi

(4) Russian

(2) Lokmanya Tilak

'(fJ[' Pali 19.

"If[ Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

(1) Srinivasa Ramanujan

(4) Sitakant Mahapatra

(2) Sir C. V. Raman

(5) Tripuraneni Gopichand

'@} U. R. Anantha Murthy

23. rpheoryof evolution: Darwin: : Crescograph: ?

(4) U. R. Rao (5) M. S. Swaminathan

(1) S. S. Bhatnagar 20.

~

.Coimbatore

(2) Raja Ramanna

(2) Shimoga

(3) Srinivasa Ramanujan

(3) Patiala

(4) C. R. Rao

(4) Ranchi

'mlg(~

2 (4) 2 mg

102. A body is made in the form of wedge with an angle 45°. See figure'. A ball of mass m, moving horizont3'lly at'a

(2) The cork is completely immersed in the liquid if

(3)

(2) 3mg

(1)

2mfs

(3)

Imfs (Turn Over

IiiiIIIoIiIliilllM_~_

___lJ

!

1"\ ('..:~_.... ~!

I

11':'-.::.'

, "I'

I..1-

.~J

~ ~

•.••

_.

---+)

MgO + Cu

relating to the above reaction?

= 4 ; 1= 0 ; m = 0 ; m

s

= + 1/2

(1) C-uOgets reduced

- 4 .l= 1, . m= 0 ,. m s = + II2 n-,

(2) Mg gets oxidised

= + 112

.(3) CuO gets oxidised

(4) n = 4 ; l = 3 ; m = 2; ms = + 1/2

104.

l1S- 3d

Which of the following is wrong

1

s

'< .•~ 3p

bNTSJ:;) (EE)'\

I

of Scandium (Z = 21) ?

= 4 ;l =2 ;m = 1 ; m

". ~

l..

Mg + CuO

106LI

quantum numbers of 19th electron

(3) n

1,)

1

103. What are the values of the

oJn/ ¥)

f'

'i,) 25 2~

CHEMIS'FRY

(1) n

.(

~t

First and second ionisation energies

is a redox reaction

!

of magnesium are 7.646 eV and

107~ ! How many number of ,sigma' bonds

15.035 eV respectively. The amount

are present in CH3

II

of energy in kJ needed to convert

-

C =N?

1(1) 4

all the atoms of magnesium into

I

Mg2+ ions present in 12xl0-3 g of

1(2) 3

magnesium vapour is [Ie V atom-I

!

~(3) 2

= 96.5 kJmol-I]

I

(4) 5

(1) 2.0

I

I

(2) 1.5

108.

.

The IUPAC name of 1

(3) 1.1 (4)

!

CHis PH2

0.5

-

CH2

-

CH - CH2 CH2 CH3

I...• 105.

Which one of the following

CH=CH2

,

possesses covalent, ionic as well as

IS I

co-ordinate covalent bonds? :1

j I.

(1) 4 - ethelene - 1 - heptane

(1) HCI

1

(2) 3 - propyl-

~NH4CI

hex - 1 - ene

I

(3) Cl2

(3) 4 - propyl-

(4) CH4

'4)

hex - 6 - ene

I

3 - propyl-

1- heptane

I

[18]

[Turn Over

NTSE (EE) ~

109.

How many number of protons and electrons are present in Ca2+?

112.

one kilogram ? Mass of electron

(1) 20 protons; 2'0 electrons

= 9.108xl0-31 kg; Avagadro number = 6.023xl023.

(2) 20 protons; 22 electrons (3) 18 protons;

110.

How many moles of electrons weigh

18 electrons (1)

What is the wavelength of radiation whose frequency is 2xl014 8-1 ? Velocity of radiation is 3xI08 m/s.

(2) 6.023x1023 (3)

(1) 1.5xlQ+6m

I

(2) 1.8 x 10-6 m (3) 1.2 x 106 m

(4) 1.5 x 10-6 m Ill.

I 9.108x6.023

(4) 20 protons; 18 electrons

113.

xI08

I xI031 9.108 6.023 xI054 9.108

Which one of the following oxides gives pink colour with

The electronic configuration of the atom of an element 'X' is (n - 2) S2(n - 1) s2(n - 1)p6 ns2np5.

phenolphthalein

indicator in

aqueous solution?

If n = 3, the element 'X' is placed in modern periodic table

(1) N20 .J

(1) 7th group, 3rd period

(2) NO

(2) 17th group, 3rd period

~CaO

(3) 17th group, 5th period

(4) CO2

(4) 3rd group; 3rd period ~'

[19]

[Turn Over

NTSE (EE)

BIOLOGY" 114. Plant cells can withstand

changes in surrounding

greater

117.

medium

The element present in Chlorophyll (1) Iron

than animal cells because of their

(2) Magnesium

-.Jt)

~Manganese

Cell wall

(4) Copper

(2) Plasma membrane

lIB. In animals,

(3) Chlorophyll

the protective

tissue

inside or outside the body is __

(4) Root system

(1) Epithelial tissue 115.

The following eukaryotic cells do not (2) Nerve tissue

contain nucleus a) Red blood cells

(3) Muscular tissue

b) Slime molds

(4) Connective tissue 119.

c) Phloem sieve tube

food enters the

body through

d) White blood cells

(1) Mouth

(1) a) and b)

(2) Pseudopodia

\(Zf b) and c)

fIf

(3) a) and c)

Cilia

(~) Cytosome

(4) d) and a) 116.

In paramoecium,

120.

Study of tissues is

'nne longest part in human a:)imentary canal is

(1) Cytology

(I~ Oesophagus ~Pathology

'('l}

(3) Tissueology

Small intestine

(3) Large Intestine

(4) Histology

(4) Stomach [20]

[Turn Over

r NTSE (EE)

121. In this disease, caused due to protein deficiency face and limbs are swollen

124.

Scopolamine, a sedative is produced from

"'If'

Kwashiorkor (2) Marasm us

~

(3) Rickets

_

Neem (2) Rose

(4) Pellagra 122.

During respiration, gaseous exchange takes place in

(3) Datura _

(4) Tobacco

(I) Alveoli 125.

(2) Pharynx

is

. (3) Trachea ~Nasal 123.

The hormone that effects urination

cavity

_

(1) Adrenalin

Metanephridia are the excretory organs In _

~

Vasopressin

(1) Reptilians (3) Estrogen

'(l,f Arthropodans

(4) Thyroxin

(3) Annelids (4) Molluscans

I [21]

[Turn Over

NTSE (EE)

MATHEMATI(CS 126. Triangle

130. a and b are both 4-digit numbers a > b and one is obtained from the other by reversing the digits. Then

ABC has a right angle

2 at C. If sin A = 3 then tan B is

(1)

3

-

(2)

5

(4)

a+b b-1 the value ofb if -5- = -2- is

.J5 3

(1) 2003 (2) 1002

J5 2

(3) 2005 (4) 2015

127. Find the smallest positive number from the numbers below (1)

10 -

131. The value of

3.J11

~3m-10 (3) 51-1 (4) 18-

0.J26

IS

5.[13

128. If x = 9ab where a is an integer consists of a sequence of 2014 eights and the integer b consists of a sequence of 2014 fives. What is the sum of the digits of x ?

(1) 324

(2) 400

f3) 373

(4) 1024

132.:6et x = 0.123456789101112 . 998999 where the digits are obtained oy writing the integers 1 through 999 ih order. Then the 2014th digit to right of the decimal point is

(1) 9000

(1) 7

(2) 6

(2) 18135

(3) 5

(4) 9

(3) 18000

133. M3C is a right angled triangle with

(4) 8585

11= 90°. M is the

129. If a2 + b2 + 2c2 - 4a + 2c - 2bc + 5 = 0 then the possible value of a + b - c

mid point of AC

(1) 1

g.nd BM = .J1fi em. Sum of the lengths of the sides AB and BC is 30 em. The area of the triangle is

(2) 2

(1t) 96 cm2

(2) 108 cm2

(3) -1

(3) 114 cm2

(4) 125 cm2

(4) -2

A

[22]

.....-.. •..-.-"

.•.

\..

,J

~ '-.' ..

-;

~ ~ .

.'

S~:c..2. B

.7 ~~---...,-~

[Turn Over

NTSE~t}E) 137. As shown in the figure on the right ~ABC is divided into six smaller triangles. by lines drawn Eorn the vertices through a common interior point. The areas of four of these triangles are indicated in,the figure. Then the area of the triangle is

134. In a triangle ABC, the incircle touches the sides BC, CA and AB at D, E, F respectively. If the radius of the incircle is 4 units and if BD, CE and AF are consecutive integers the lengths of the sides ofthe triangle are (1) 13, 14, 15

C

(2) 6,8,10 (3) 3,4,5 (4) 5,12,13 135. In the coordinate plane, the set of B

points Ao' AI' A2, A3, .,. An are determined as follows.~ is the origin. Al is the point (3, 4), ~ is the image ofAl reflected through the origin, for k ~ 31\ is the image of1\_1 reflected through 1\- 2' Then the length of the

(1) 315 (2) 240 (3) 275 (4) 185

138. If a. and ~ are the angles in the first

line segment AoA7 is

1 1 Quadrant tan a. = 7' sin ~ = ,,10 r.;-;::;

(1) 100 (2) 215

then the value of a + 2~.is

(3) 125

(1) 00

(4) 251

(2)450 (3) 600

136. The value of

r

(4) 900

139. The point which is equi~distant from the points (0,0) (0,8) and (4,6) is

(20142 - 2020)(20142 + 4028- 3)(2015) . (2011)(2013)(2016)(2017) IS (1) 2014

(1)

(2) 2015 (3) 2016

(~.-4)

(3) (~. 4 )

(4) 2017 [23]

(2)

(4)

(-2 ,4) (-2 ,-4) 1

1

[Turn .Over

" ,....

"."ft"

1 \

'--'''''--

\

NTSE (EE)

\

\

triangle ABC, 140. In the obtuse AM = MB, MD 1- BC, EC 1- BC. If the area of .1.ABCis 24, then the area of .1.BED is

143. Ifx2 + x;- 1 = 0, then what is the value ! i

3

.

~r(x3 x~) +

?

\

([1) -8

A

.

\

(2) -1

~

j:"~':;l

0 \

.:.

.,-}

(4) 1

-t. .~ l \ TA, TB are tangents

,-

...Ir , i

144. B

c

D

(2) 12

4fi

~ ~

r