Anatomy Review Questions

ANATOMY REVIEW QUESTION SET1 URINARY 1. How many ureteric constrictions are there? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 2. The main arteries supplying the bladder are branches of the? a. Uterine artery b. Internal iliac arteries c. Superior vesical arteries d. Inferior vesical arteries

processes of the lumbar vertebrae and psoas muscle. a. Urethra b. Urinary bladder c. Ureter d. Kidney 9. In relation of the ureter to the uterine artery, the ureter is: a. Above and in front of the artery b. Above and behind the artery c. Below and behind the artery d. Below and in front of the artery 10. What is the maximum capacity of the urinary bladder? a. 300ml b. 500ml c. 700ml d. 1000ml

3. The male urethra is divided into four parts, which of the following is not included? a. Intramural part b. Prostatic urethra c. Perineal part d. Membranous part

THORAX AND RESPIRATORY ORGANS QUESTIONS

4. Blood is supplied to the female urethra by the? a. Internal pudendal artery b. Vaginal artery c. A,b d. None of the above

11. Part of the pleura that covers the lungs and adheres to all its surfaces a) Mediastinal part of the parietal pleura b) Visceral pleura c) Diaphragmatic part of the parietal pleura d) Cervical pleura

5. Which of the following will become the permanent kidneys? a. Pronephros b. Mesonephros c. Metanephros d. Mullerian duct

12. Part of the parietal pleura that covers the superior surface of the diaphragm on each side of the mediastinum a) Mediastinal part of the parietal pleura b) Visceral pleura c) Diaphragmatic part of the parietal pleura d) Cervical pleura

6. The kidney extends from a. T10- L2 b. T12-L2 c. T12-L3 d. T10-L3 7. The right kidney lies a little lower that the left? a. True b. False 8. It is a muscular tube that begins with the renal pelvis, descend on the transverse

13. Which part of the lungs that has a blunt superior end ascending above the level of the 1st rib into the root of the neck that is covered by cervical pleura a) Apex b) Body c) Base d) Right lung 14. Pressure within the lungs during inspiration a) 4 mmHg b) 5 mmHg c) 7 mmHg d) 8 mmHg

15. This is to insert a hypodermic needle through an intercostal space into the pleural cavity a) Thoracoscopy b) Pleurectomy c) Thoracentesis d) Pleurodosis 16. Percussion help detect whether the underlying tissue are filled. If it has a dull sound what is it filled with? a) Air b) Fluid c) Solid d) B and c 17. The mucous membranes covering the carina is one of the most sensitive areas of the of tracheobronchal tree and is associated with what? a) Cough reflex b) Vomiting reflex c) Muscle reflex d) Injury 18. Aspirated foreign bodies or food is more likely to lodge in what part of the bronchus a) Left b) Right c) Equally for both d) Any by chance 19. This pleura is insensitive to pain because it recieve no nerves of general sensations. a) Visceral pleura b) Parietal pleura c) Both d) None 20. Which lung has 3 segments a) Left b) Right c) Both d) none

b. Facial vein c. Angular vein d. Retromandibular vein 22. This begins in the abdomen at the cistern chyli, which is the dilated junction of the intestinal, lumbar and descending intercostal trunks? a. Right Lymphatic duct b. Left Lymphatic duct c. Thoracic duct d. Mediastinal duct 23. This receives lymph from the lower abdominal wall, buttocks, penis, scrotum, labium majus, and the lower parts of the vagina and anal canal? a. Superior Inguinal lymph node b. Inferior inguinal lymph node c. Lymphatics in the region above the umbilicus d. Lymphatics in the region below the umbilicus 24. This receives lymph from the common, internal, or external iliac? a. Paraaortic lymph node b. Lumbar lymph node c. Lateral Aortic lymph node d. All of the above e. None of the above 25. This drains along the gonadal vessels directly into the aortic nodes? a. Lymph from the testis b. Lymph from the epididymis c. Lymph from the ovary d. All of the above e. None of the above

LYMPHATIC

26. Where does the efferent vessels of the lymph nodes of the perineum drain? a. Internal iliac lymph node b. Sacral lymph node c. Thoracic lymph node d. All of the above e. None of the above

21. This divides into an anterior branch, which joins the facial vein to form the common facial vein, and a posterior branch, which joins the posterior auricular vein to form the external jugular vein? a. Deep facial vein

27. A facial muscle that compresses cheek to keep it taut? a. Mentalis b. Risorius c. Procerus d. Bucccinator

D. None 28. The origin of Mentalis? a. Fascia over masseter b. Incisive fossa of the mandible c. Zygomatic arch d. Pterygomandibular raphe 29. This is a dense layer of interlacing collagen and elastic fibers; these fibers provide skin tone and account for the strength and toughness of skin? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous tissue d. Deep fascia 30. This tends to spiral longitudinally in the limbs and run transversely in the neck and trunk? a. Arrector muscles of hairs b. Cleavage lines c. Lanners lines d. B & C

35. fissure of liver located between caudate lobe and lateral portion of left lobe? A. Ligamentum venosum B. Ligamentum teres hepatis C. Ligament of Treitz D. None 36. lies in the right iliac fossa and surrounded by peritoneum but has no mesentery A. Appendix B. Sigmoid C. Duodenum D. Cecum 37. sickle-shaped peritoneal fold connecting the liver to the diaphragm and the anterior abdominal wall. A. Phrenicolic ligament B. Falciform ligament C. Coronary ligament D. Ligamentum venosum

GIT 31. which source of innervation to the GIT is inhibitory? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Enteric D. None 32. It is located at the junction of the right 9th costal cartilageand lateral border of the rectus abdominis A. Transverse colon B. Ascending colon C. Spleen D. Gallbladder 33. it is formed by the union of the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein and receives the right and left gastric vein. A. Hepatic artery B. Hepatic vein C. Portal vein D. Celiac trunk 34. fissure of liver located between lateral portion of left lobe and quadrate lobe? A. Ligamentum venosum B. Ligamentum teres hepatis C. Ligament of Treitz

38. the most common site of impaction of gallstones A. Common hepatic duct B. Cystic duct C. Right and left hepatic ducts D. None 39. extends from the body of L1 to the transverse process of L1 and passess over the psoas muscle and the sympathetic trunk. A. Right crus B. Left crus C. medial arcuate ligament D. Lateral arcuate ligament 40. Extends from the transverse process of L1 to rib 12 and passes over the quadratus lumborum. A. Right crus B. Left crus C. medial arcuate ligament D. Lateral arcuate ligament BACK AND UPPER EXTREMITIES 41. In the inferior part of the neck, the roots of the brachial plexus unite to form three trunks that includes all of the ff, except: a. Superior trunk b. Middle trunk

c. Posterior trunk d. Inferior trunk 42. Wrist drop, the inability to extend the wrist and the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints, is the characteristic clinical sign of which nerve injury: a. Ulnar nerve b. Radial nerve c. Median nerve d. Cutaneous nerve of the forearm 43. Injury to this nerve results in the paralysis of the coracobrachialis, biceps, and brachialis muscles: a. Musculocutaneous nerve b. Radial nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. Median nerve 44. May produce muscle spasms and severe disability in hikers (“ backpacker’s palsy”) who carry heavy backpacks for long periods: a. Medial brachial plexus injury b. Inferior brachial plexus injury c. Superior brachial plexus injury d. Deep brachial plexus injury 45. Distal attachment of triceps brachii muscle: a. Distal end of the olecranon of the ulna and fascia of forearm b. Lateral end of the olecranon of the ulna c. Superior ulna d. Proximal end of olecranon of the ulna and fascia of forearm 46. This artery arise from the brachial artery around the middle of the arm, and enters the nutrient canal on the anteromedial surface of the humerus: a. Profunda brachi artery b. Humeral nutrient artery c. Superior ulnar collateral artery d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery 47. Largest branch of the brachial artery and has the most superior origin: a. Profunda brachi artery b. Humeral nutrient artery c. Superior ulnar collateral artery

d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery 48. It terminates by dividing into middle and radial collateral arteries, which participate in the peri-articular arterial anastomoses around the elbow: a. Profunda brachi artery b. Humeral nutrient artery c. Superior ulnar collateral artery d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery 49. Commonly injured during repetitive use of the upper limb above the horizontal (e.g. during throwing and racquet sports, swimming and weightlifting): a. Musculotendinous rotator cuff b. Acromioclavicular joint c. Supraspinatus d. Sternoclavicular joint 50. Commonly occurs in athletes who throw a baseball or football and in those who have shoulder instability and subluxation (partial dislocation) of the glenohumeral joint: a. Axillary nerve injury b. Glenohumeral joint injury c. Bursitis of the elbow d. Glenoid labrum tear NEUROANATOMY 51. The circle of Willis is supplied by a. External carotid and internal carotid arteries b. Internal carotid and vertebral arteries c. Vertebral and facial arteries d. Cerebral artery 52. This arteries supplies the occipital lobe, brain stem cerebellum and posterior part of the thalamus a. Vertebral arteries b. External carotid c. Internal carotid d. Cerebral arteries 53. Are the arteries tha connect the posterior and anterior portion of the circle of willis? a. Anterior communicating b. Posterior communicating

c. Superior cerebellar d. Inferior cerebellar 54. The internal carotid is a branch of what artery a. Subclavian b. Brachiocephalic c. Cephalic d. Common carotid 55. The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery a. Subclavian b. Brachiocephalic c. Cephalic d. Common carotid 56. Supplies the anterior portion of the brain a. ACA b. MCA c. Inferior cerebellar 57. Branch that supplies the corpus callosum a. ACA b. MCA c. Inferior cerebellar d. Basilar artery 58. Primay motor Tract a. Corticospinal b. Spinothalamic c. Corticothalamic d. Subcortical pathways 59. Tract for pain a. Spinothalamic b. Spinocerebellar c. Somatosensory tract d. Reticulospinal 60. The motor cortex is located a. Post central sulcus b. Pre central sulcus c. Below the occipital lobe d. In the cerebellum LOWER EXTREMITY 61. A relatively weak member of adductor group of muscles usually used in transplantation since it can be removed without noticeable loss of its actions on the legs

a. b. c. d.

Gracilis Sartorius Vastus lateralis Adductor longus

62. The ff comprises the knee joint except a. Femur b. Tibia c. Fibula d. Patella 63. Which muscle is the prime extensor at the knee joint a. Popliteus muscle b. Quadriceps femoris c. Gracilis d. Sartorius 64. Footdrop (inability to dorsiflex the foot) indicates injury of: a. Femoral nerve b. Common peroneal nerve c. Saphenous nerve d. Sciatic 65. Which muscles are responsible for plantar flexion at the ankle? a. Extensor hallucis longus b. Gastrocnemius c. Extensor digitorum longus d. Tibialis anterior 66. What nerve provides sensory innervations to the sole of the foot a. Tibial nerve b. Sural nerve c. Saphenous nerve d. Sciatic 67. The ff are muscles of the posterior leg compartment except a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Plantaris muscle d. Peroneus longus 68. What is the longest vein in the body a. Great saphenous vein b. Femoral vein c. External pudendal vein d. Accessory saphenous vein

69. Which structure in the femoral triangle is not contained within the femoral canal? a. Femoral nerve b. Femoral artery c. Femoral vein d. Fascia lata 70. Unhappy triad except a. ACL b. MCL c. Medial meniscus d. None of the above CARDIO 71. What is the most posterior of the four chambers? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle 72. These fibrous strands connect the apices in the Right ventricle a. Trabeculae carnae b. Papillary muscles c. Chordate tendinae d. Moderator band 73. Which forms the venous coronary sinus? a. Left horn of the sinus venosus b. Right horn of the sinus venosus c. Primitive atrium d. Bulbus cordis

74. When a child is diagnosed with Atrial Septal Defect, what structure/s is/are hypertrophied? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Pulmonary trunk d. All of the above

75. In fetal circulation, what structure carries the oxygenated blood? a. Umbilical veins b. Placenta c. Superior vena cava d. Inferior vena cava 76. The fossa ovalis (remnant of foramen ovale) is seen in what chamber of he heart? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle 77. After birth, when do the ductus arteriosus and ligamentum arteriosum complete their obliteration and fibrosis? a. 1-2 wks b. 1 month c. 1 wk d. 3-4 nwks 78. How many pairs of aortic arches usually develop? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3 79. This becomes the Caval system in a venous drainage pattern of an embryo a. Umbilical veins b. Allantoic veins c. Cardinal veins d. Vitelline veins 80. Which embryonic structure that is most likely responsible for the origin of PDA? a. Right 4th arch b. Left 6th arch c. Left 5th arch d. Right 6th arch

ANATOMY OF THE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

81. In the process of spermatogenesis, the developmental sequence is: a) spermatids, spermatozoa, spermatogonia, spermatocytes b) spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatozoa c) spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa d) spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatozoa 82. The accessory organs in the male that secrete into the ejaculatory ducts and the urethra are: a) seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands b) adrenal glands, bulbourethral glands, and seminal glands c) epididymis, seminal vesicles, and vas deferens d) prostate gland, inguinal canals, and raphe 83. Which of the following would be found in the myometrium of the uterus? a) spiral arteries b) endometrial glands c) skeletal muscle d) arcuate arteries 84. Ovum transport in the uterine tubes presumably involves a combination of: a) flagellar locomotion and ciliary movement b) active transport and ciliary movement c) ciliary movement and peristaltic contractions d) movement in uterine fluid and flagellar locomotion 85. The outer limits of the vulva are established by the: a) prepuce and vestibule b) vestibule and the labia minora c) mons pubis and labia majora

d) lesser and greater vestibular glands 86. The principal hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy is: a. b. c. d.

progesterone FSH LH estrogen

87. The mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus is the: a. broad ligament b. suspensory ligament c. mesovarium d. uterosacral ligament 88. The body of the spermatic cord is a structure that includes: a. epididymis, ductus deferens, blood vessels, and nerves b. vas deferens, prostate gland, blood vessels, and urethra c. ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics d. all of the above 89. The enzymes needed to bore into the corona radiata reside in which portion of the sperm?

a. acrosomal cap b. nucleus c. spiral mitochondria of the neck d. tail 90. Powerful, rhythmic contractions in the ischiocavernosus and bulbocavernosus muscles of the pelvic floor result in: a. erection b. emission c. ejaculation d. all of the above