Anatomy Review Questions

September 28, 2017 | Author: Vince Cabahug | Category: Lymphatic System, Human Anatomy, Animal Anatomy, Anatomy, Primate Anatomy
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Anatomy Review Questions

1. A patient with an isolated oculomotor nerve paralysis would present with the following findings on the affected side A) constricted pupils (+CNIII) B) eyeball deviated laterally (-CNIII) C) weakness of eyelid closure (CNVII) D) all of the above   • MPL .5

2. Reproductive adaptations noted in the female true pelvis include the following EXCEPT A) greater pubic angle B) wider sacrosciatic notches C) longer pelvic cavity D) cylindrical pelvic cavity

*3.A high velocity bullet penetrates the posterior aspect of the shoulder and severely injures the origin of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Each of the following nerves might possible be affected EXCEPT the A) upper subscapular B) Radial C) Thoracodorsal D) medial pectoral

Brachial Plexus Cords • posterior – – – – –





upper subscapular nn thoracodorsal nn lower subscapular nn axillary nn radial nn

lateral – – –

lateral pectoral nn musculocutaneous nn lateral root of median nn

medial – – – – –

medial pectoral nn medial brachial cutaneous nn medial antebrachial cutaneous nn ulnar nn medial root of median nn

proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, one can observe that

a. the endometrium thickens largely because of edema b. glycogen disappears in the basal cytoplasm of the glandular epithelium c. there is a two to threefold increase in the thickness of the endometrium d. the endometrial glands become quite tortuous

5. Bile formed by hepatic cells is first secreted into the A) bile canaliculi B) bile ducts C) space of Disse D) hepatic duct

6. A patient with an isolated injury to the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve would present with A) atrophy of the temporalis muscle on the affected side B) flattened nasolabial fold on the affected side C) numbness of the cheek on the affected side D) A and C only

7. The landmark structure noted during the dissection of the gluteal area A) gluteus medius B) piriformis C) quadratus femoris D) obturator externus

8.Semen is composed of products produced by all of the following EXCEPT the A) seminiferous tubules B) seminal vesicles C) bulbourethral glands D) rete testis

*9. True ribs include A) 5th B) 7th C) 8th D) A and B

*10. A patient was noted to have atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscles on one side of the face. His corneal reflex on the affected side was normal and he had no sensory deficit in the cheek area. This patient most probably has a lesion involving the a. mandibular division of CN V b. maxillary division of CN V c. ophthalmic division of CN V d. terminal branches of CN VII

*11. The primary hip flexor is the

A) sartorius B) rectus femoris C) iliopsoas D) pectineus

*12. The following secretions are correctly attached with their cells of origin in every pair EXCEPT A) glucagon - pancreatic alpha cells B) intrinsic factor- parietal cells of the stomach C) insulin - pancreatic beta cells D) hydrochloric acid chief cells of the stomach

• Answer: • Parietal cells produce gastric acid • Chief cells produce pepsinogen

13. A patient presented with complete paralysis of one side of the face with intact lacrimation and taste sensation (anterior 2/3 of tongue) The cranial nerve involved in this case most probably has a tension at the level of the A) internal auditory meatus B) geniculate ganglion C) sytlomastoid foramen D) external auditory meatus

*14. This structure is highly vulnerable in surgical manipulation of the ductus arteriosus A) Esophagus B) left bronchus C) left vagus nerve D) left recurrent laryngeal nerve

15. The three types of granulocytes usually can be distinguished best under the light microscope on the basis of A) nuclear morphology and cell size B) nuclear morphology only C) cell size only D) staining reaction of cytoplasmic granules

*16. The liver is anatomically divided into right and left unequal halves along the fissure of the A) ligamentum venosum B) inferior vena cava C) falciform ligament D) porta hepatic

17. Both skeletal and smooth muscle can be found in the muscularis externa of the A) Stomach B) Duodenum C) Colon D) esophagus

• Mid esophagus has skeletal and smooth muscles

*18. This structure is highly vulnerable in cancerous growth in R pulmonary hilum and posterior mediastinum A) Trachea B) superior intercostal vein C) vagus nerve D) pulmonary ligament

19. During erection of the penis, the volume of the blood occupying the spaces of the cavernous sinuses is increased by a. b. c. d.

contraction of the musculature of the dorsal artery of the penis relaxation of the musculature of the dorsal artery of the penis contraction of the musculature of the helicine arteries relaxation of the musculature of the helicine arteries

*20.The granules found in the cells of the adrenal medulla consist of A) hydrocortisone B) Glucocorticoid s C) Epinephrine D) mineralocortic oids

21. The deep perineal space in the male contains each of the following EXCEPT A) membranous urethra B) prostate gland C) bulbourethral glands D) sphincter urethrae muscle

*22. Loss of extension of the knee would result from damage to the A) femoral nerve B) tibial nerve C) tibial and common fibular D) obturator nerve

23. Which of the following epithelia can usually be found in the normal female reproductive system? A) stratified squamous and simple columnar B) transitional and stratified squamous C) simple columnar and transitional D) simple columnar and pseudostratified

24. By inserting the finger into the rectum, the following can be readily felt and examined A) enlarged seminal vesicles B) prostate gland C) A and B D) none of the above

25. The ventral rami of the brachial plexus are seen at the A) posterior cervical triangle B) carotid triangle C) submandibular triangle D) muscular triangle

26. The function of the interstitial endocrine cells of the testis is to a. form acrosome b. secrete testosterone c. support the germinal epithelium d. supply nutrients to the sex cells

27. The vermiform appendix is best located by following the A) anterior cecal artery B) descending branch of the right colic artery C) ileum to the ileocolic juncture D) teniae coli of the ascending colon

28. From which of the following sites is primary cancer most likely to metastasize to the lung by venous spread? A) Ileum B) Appendix C) Kidney D) transverse colon

29. Simple cuboidal epithelium is usually found in a. parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule b. descending limb of the loop of Henle c. rete testis d. single layer on the free surface of the ovary

30. The roof of the adductor canal is formed by the A) rectus femoris B) vastus medialis C) adductor longus D) sartorius

31. Trauma to the sternocostal surface of the heart would more likely damage the A) right atrium B) right ventricle C) left ventricle D) left atrium

32. Interruption of blood flow in the internal iliac artery would affect blood flow to each of the following EXCEPT the a. medial thigh muscles b.ductus deferens c.lower abdominal wall and rectus abdominis muscle d.rectum

*33. A child suspected of aspirating a small button is seen in the ER. While there is no complain of pain, there is frequent coughing. Physical examination showed absence of breath sounds. Aspirated small objects tend to lodge in the right inferior lobar bronchus for all the following reasons EXCEPT a. left main stem ( primary) bronchus is more horizontal b. right inferior lobar bronchus nearly continues the direction of the trachea c. right lung has no middle lobe d. right main stem(primary) bronchus is of greater diameter than the left

34. This structure separates the perineum from the pelvic cavity A)ischiorectal fossa B)urogenital diaphragm C)pelvic diaphragm D)urogenital triangle

35. Drug detoxification occurs in the A)Golgi apparatus B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum C)rough endoplasmic reticulum D)lysosomes

36. The ligament that prevents C1 vertebrae from translating against C2 is A)alar ligament B)tentorial ligament C)transverse ligament D)posterior longitudinal ligament

37. The scala vestibuli of the inner ear communicates with the scala tympani via the A)Modiolus B)Helicotrema C)cecum cupulare D) aqueduct

38. The Haversian canals of bone tissue A) contain chondrocytes B) are lined by cement lines C) form the central structure of a Haversian system D)run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone

39. The hepatic portal vein is correctly described by each of the following EXCEPT a. it drains most of the venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract b.it forms by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins c. it is located in the hepatoduodenal ligament d.it forms posterior to the head of the pancreas

• 40. The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the a.external oblique aponeurosis b.Peritoneum c.transversus abdominis aponeurosis d.transversalis fascia

41. The vagus nerve enters the abdominal cavity through the A)aortic hiatus B)esophageal hiatus C)sternocostal hiatus D)vena caval aperture

• 42. The part of the uterine tube which is removed during fimbriectomy A)Cornua B)Isthmus C)Ampulla D)infundibulum

• 43. Pressure developing deep to the flexor retinaculum would affect each of the following EXCEPT the A) median nerve B) ulnar nerve C) tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle D) tendons of the flexor pollicis longus muscle

44. A patient enters the emergency room not being able to raise his foot. The nerve that is suspected to be damaged is the A)Tibial B)common fibular C)Obturator D) medial plantar

45. Sinusoids are correctly described by each of the following EXCEPT a. they have a irregular tortuous lumen b. they are lined by endothelial cells c. they have a dense connective tissue wall d. they have no phagocytic elements

46. The opening into the lesser sac is through the A)foramen of Bochdalek B)foramen of Winslow C)foramen of Morgagni D) foramen transversarium

47.Damage to the obturator nerve on the lateral wall of the pelvis would affect the function of each of the following muscles EXCEPT the A)Sartorius (femoral n) B)Gracilis C)adductor longus D)Pectineus (femoral n, occl obturator n)

48. When removing the right lung, the surgeon has to be careful to protect which of the following structures passing posterior to the root of the lung? A)hemiazygos vein B)right vagus nerve C)right phrenic nerve D)thoracic aorta

49. Which muscle is responsible for expelling the last drops of urine in the male A)sphincter urethrae B)bulbocavernosi C)sphincter vesicae (internal urethral sphincter) D)Ischiocavernosi Bulbospongiosus constricts around the bulb of the penis to express last drop of urine from “urethra”

50. At the hepatoduodenal ligament, the structure that occupies a medial location is the A)common bile duct B)portal vein C)inferior vena cava D)hepatic artery

51. The thoracic duct enters the venous circulation at the junction of A) superior vena cava and right atrium B) left subclavian and left internal jugular vein C) left and right brachiocephalic vein D) right subclavian and right internal jugular vein

• 52. The axillary artery may be ligated at this point without compromising the blood supply to the upper extremity • A) proximal to the thyrocervical trunk • B) distal to the subscapular artery • C) between the thyrocervical trunk and subscapular artery • D) none of the above

53. Separates the submandibular triangle from the carotid triangle A)posterior belly of digastric B)Omohyoid C)sternohyoid D) hyoid bone

54. An occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery would result in necrosis of each of the following EXCEPT the A)ascending colon B)Rectum C)Ileum D)cecum

55. Occupies the tracheoesophageal groove A)vagus nerve B)sympathetic trunk C)recurrent laryngeal nerve D)phrenic nerve

56. A woman’s inability to supinate the forearm could result from an injury to which of the following pair of nerves A)axillary and radial B)median and ulnar C)radial (supinator, brachioradialis)and musculocutaneous (biceps) D) suprascapular and axillary

57. Following tonsillectomy, a patient noted loss of general sensation and taste from the posterior one third of the tongue. It could be assumed that the injured nerve was a branch of the A)glossopharyngeal nerve B)facial nerve C)lingual nerve D)hypoglossal nerve

58. The median cubital vein is a communication between the A)cephalic and basilic B)basilic and axillary C)cephalic and axillary D) axillary and subclavian

59. Fenestrated capillaries have A) extremely attenuated areas of endothelium with pores B) thickened areas with pores C) diaphragm that have the same thickness as unit membranes D) pores that are evenly spaced over the entire surface of the endothelium

60. A severe blow to the side of the head could fracture which one of the following bones in the roof of the orbit? A)Palatine B)Maxilla C)Frontal D)zygomatic

61. Occupies a medial location within the carotid sheath A)internal jugular vein B)ansa cervicalis C)vagus nerve D) common carotid artery

62. Each of the following characterizes the levator ani muscles EXCEPT a. it forms the principal part of the pelvic diaphragm b. it separates the floor of the pelvis from the ischioanal fossa c. it arises from the inner surface of the superior ramus of the pubis d. it separates the superficial and deep inguinal spaces

• 63. A basketball player who trips and falls, landing on his outstretched hand will most likely fractures which carpal bone? A)trapezium B)Capitate C)Scaphoid D)hamate

• Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can't Handle

64. Lymphatic nodules are found in each of the following EXCEPT A)lymph nodes B)Thymus C)Tonsils D)walls of urinary tract

65. A spleen may be ruptured in traumatic injuries to the chest if these ribs are fractured and displaced A) 5th, 6th, 7th level of the posterior axillary line B) 7th, 8th , 9th level of the midaxillary line C) 9th, 10th, 11th level of the left posterior axillary line D) 10th, 11th, 12 anteriorly

66. A diastolic murmur coming from a stenosed mitral valve in patient with RHD is best heard or auscultated at the A)5th ICS left midclavicular line B)4th ICS left parasternal border C)2nd ICS left parasternal border D)4th ICS right parasternal border

67. Surgically, it is important to locate which one of the following structures located immediately posterior to the second part of the duodenum A)transverse colon B)left lobe of the liver C)hilum of right kidney D)gallbladder

68. Podocytes are associated with which of the following parts of the urinary system A)distal convoluted tubule B)thick limb of loop of Henle C)major calyces D)visceral layer of Bowmans capsule

69. A baby sustained a lower brachial plexus injury due to traumatic childbirth (forceful pulling on the arm). The following is/are true statements regarding this type of injury A) results in loss of abduction, flexion and lateral rotation of the shoulder B) results in clawhand deformity (c8, t1; ulnar>median) C) leads to sensory deficit in the lateral aspect of the upper extremity D) all of the above

70. Which of the following layers in the wall of a medium sized artery contains smooth muscle A)internal elastic membrane B)external elastic membrane C)tunica adventitia D)tunica media

• 71. A lesion of the lingual nerve immediately after it receives the chorda tympani nerve could result in each of the following EXCEPT • loss of sublingual gland secretion • sensory loss from lower teeth • loss of taste from anterior two thirds of the tongue • loss of submandibular gland secretion

• 72. The superior vena cava could be damaged by a stab wound deep to the A)right first costal cartilage B)right fourth costal cartilage C)right sternoclavicular joint D)left second costal cartilage

73. All of the following statements concerning the uterus are correct EXCEPT a. the broad ligament reflects from the posterior surface of the uterus to the rectum to form the rectouterine pouch b.the round ligament connects the uterus to the ovary c. the broad ligament extends from the anterior surface of the uterus onto the bladder forming the vesicouterine pouch d. the uterine tubes enter the uterus in the superior border of the broad ligament

74. A 58-year-old man presented with a year history of chest pain. The attacks were increasing in frequency and were only relieved by rest. Cardiac catheterization revealed an area of occlusion of the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery. The damage to the heart would probably involve the A)left atrium and left ventricle B)right atrium and left ventricle C)right and left ventricles D)apex of the heart

75. A severe infection that obstructs the middle meatus would affect drainage from each of the following sinus EXCEPT the A)maxillary sinus B)frontal sinus C)nasolacrimal duct D)anterior ethmoid air cells

76. Plicae circulares is most abundant in what part of the gastrointestinal tract A)Duodenum B)jejunum C)Ileum D)large intestine

77. A woman on her 3rd trimester of pregnancy developed paresthesia of the hands. She has difficulty in doing her cross-stitch hobby. Her most likely problem affects the A)median nerve B)ulnar nerve C)radial nerve D)axillary nerve

78.A 9-year-old boy fell hitting his elbow. Physical examination showed weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction. Loss of sensation was noted on the medial side of his hand. What nerve was most probably injured A)Musculocutaneous B)Ulnar C)Radial D)median

79. Carcinoma of the _____part of the pancreas usually shows itself first by painless progression jaundice with enlargement and distention of the gall bladder A)Head B)Neck C)Body D)tail

80. Sperms found in these structures are capable of fertilizing ova A)seminiferous tubules B)rete testis C)ductuli efferentes D) epididymis

81. A myocardial infarction that damages the heart muscle in the anterior two thirds of the interventricular septum would result primarily from occlusion of the A) posterior interventricular artery B) marginal branch of the right coronary artery C) marginal branch of the left coronary artery D) anterior interventricular artery

82. The horizontal fissure of the right lung separates the A)superior and middle lobe B)superior and inferior lobe C)inferior and middle lobe D) superior lobe from cardiac notch

83. In Dupuytren’s contracture, the flexion of the MCP joints is actually due to A) compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to atrophy of the muscles of opposition B) inflammation of the synovium of the long flexor tendons, leading to scarring C) atrophy of the lumbrical muscles due to disuse D) fibrosis of the digital slips of the palmar aponeurosis

84. It would be difficult for a gallbladder infection to easily reach which one of the following viscera A)Liver B)third part of the duodenum C)cystic duct D)transverse colon

85. After leaving the trabecular sinuses of a lymph node, lymph passes directly into the A)afferent lymphatic vessels B)efferent lymphatic vessels C)subscapular sinuses D)medullary sinuses

86. A vertical incision through the midline of the anterior abdominal wall will traverse the A)rectus abdominis B)external oblique C)internal oblique D)linea alba

87. The contents of an indirect inguinal hernia enters the inguinal canal ______ to the inferior epigastric artery A)Lateral B)Medial C)Inferior D)none of the above

88. A penetrating knife wound to the posterior shoulder in the quadrangular space would damage the axillary nerve and the A)anterior circumflex humeral artery B)posterior circumflex humeral artery C)subscapular artery D)superior thoracic artery

89.A tumor involving the fifth to twelfth thoracic vertebrae could affect each of the following structures in the posterior mediastinum EXCEPT the A)thoracic duct B)phrenic nerve C)azygos vein D)descending aorta

90. Damage to the anatomic snuffbox might be expected to injure the A)ulnar nerve B)capitate bone C)ulnar artery D)radial artery

• 91. The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is formed by branches of the internal carotid artery and the A)external carotid artery B)vertebral artery C)basilar artery D)middle meningeal artery

92. AS a result of an injury to the ulnar nerve in the arm, all of the following changes in the hand will be noted EXCEPT A) sensory loss on the little finger and one half of the ring finger B) the thumb is strongly adducted C) loss of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the fourth and fifth digits D) marked wasting in the hypothenar eminence

• For questions 93-95 • A 63 year old woman shows a fine, pill-rolling tremor in both upper extremities, with tremors at rest. There is an overall poverty of movements. The patient’s gait is shuffling and motor performance is delayed.

93. The most likely diagnosis is A)Wilson’s disease B)Parkinson’s disease C)Benedikt’s syndrome D)Liver-brain disease

94. Dysfunction of this structure is implicated in the above disease A) substantia gelatinosa B) red nucleus C) substantia nigra D) cerebellum

95. Treatment involves administration of A)Dopamine B)Ldihydroxyphenylal anine (levodopa) C)Acetylcholine D)serotonin

96. The powerful extension of the thigh required when one is standing from a sitting position is the function of the A)gluteus maximus B)iliacus muscle C)psoas major D)piriformis

97. Ejaculatory fluid is composed of products produced by all of the following EXCEPT the A)seminiferous tubules B)seminal vesicles C)bulbourethral glands D)rete testis

98. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs most commonly because a. too few mature alveoli have developed b. surfactant production is insufficient c. the lungs are partially filled with amniotic fluid d. type I alveolar epithelial cells produce a greatly thickened basement membrane

• For question 99-100 •   • A 55-year-old woman complained of numbness in the legs, which spread to involve her hands. There were sudden sharp pains, variable in location, but usually localized to one or the other leg. On examination, her pupils were of unequal size. Argyll-Robertson pupils and Romberg’s sign were present. Although the patient’s strength was normal she was areflexic in all limbs.

• Prostitute’s pupils, accommodate but not react

99. The most likely diagnosis is A)Brown Sequard syndrome B)tabes dorsalis C)multiple sclerosis D)meningiona

• Syphilis

100. Above findings is the result of a. degeneration of posterior columns b. upper motor neuron damage c. cerebellar disease d. degeneration of basal ganglia

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