Anatomy Compre Exams 2004 2005

ANGELES UNIVERSITY FOUNDATION COLLEGE OF MEDICINE DEPARTMENT OF ANATOMY COMPREHENSIVE EXAM AND BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DIRECTIONS: Choose the best answer. Write your FINAL ANSWERS in CAPITAL LETTERS. CARDIOVASCULAR ______ 1. The main branch of the left coronary artery is: A. Left Marginal Branch C. Circumflex branch B. Anterior Interventricular Branch D. AV nodal artery Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 103 ______ 2. Which of the following statements about the pericardium is/are correct? A. it encloses the heart and the root of the great vessels B. it restricts excessive movement of the heart C. it lies within the middle mediastinum D. all of the above are correct Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 94 ______ 3. This valve guards the atrioventricular orifice. A. tricuspid valve B. pulmonic valve

C. mitral valve D. aortic valve

Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 98 ______ 4. The thoracic aorta enters the abdominal cavity through the aortic hiatus which lies at the level of the A. 6th Thoracic Vertebra C. 10th Thoracic Vertebra th B. 8 Thoracic Vertebra D. 12th Thoracic Vertebra Comprehesion, Snell 6th ed. P. 109 ______ 5. Leakage from the thoracic duct in the pleural cavity may result to A. Pyothorax C. Hemothorax B. Pleural Effusion D. Chylothorax Clinical Application, Thorek, 2nd ed. P. 337 RESPIRATORY ______ 6. In doing thoracentesis, the aspirating needle is inserted A. below the rib C. Above the rib B. midway between two ribs D. any of the above Clinical Application, Snell 6th ed. P. 51 ______ 7. The most important muscle for respiration is the A. diaphragm C. intercostal muscles B. pectoralis muscle D. serratus muscles Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 57

______ 8. Which of the following statements about the lung is/are correct? A. the apex of the lungs projects about 1 inch above the clavicle B. the left lung is divided by a horizontal and oblique fissures C. the middle lobe is divided into an anterior and posterior bronchopulmonary segment D. all of the above are correct Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 83 ______ 9. Which of the following statements regarding the bronchopulmonary segments is/are correct? A. it is a subdivision of a lung lobule B. the apex of each segment is directed towards the root of the lung C. a diseased segment can be removed surgically. D. All of the above are correct Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 86 ______ 10. During inspiration, the carina descends at the level of the A. 4th thoracic vertebra C. 8th thoracic vertebra B. 6th thoracic vertebra D. 10th thoracic vertebra Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 82 ______ 11. Which of the following statements about the esophagus is correct? A. It passes through the diaphragm at the level of the tenth thoracic vertebra B. The upper third of the esophagus is supplied by the inferior thyroid artery C. It passes downward and to the left through the superior and posterior mediastinum as it enters the thorax D. All of the above Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 113 _____ 12. At the level of the neck, swallowed foreign body may lodge at the level of the cricopharyngeus muscle which lies opposite the level of A. 4th cervical vertebra C. 1st thoracic vertebra th B. 6 cervical vertebra D. 4th thoracic vertebra Clinical Application, Snell 6h ed. P. 130 _____ 13. above the costal margin, the anterior wall of the rectus sheath is formed by aponeurosis of A. external oblique muscle C. internal oblique muscle B. transversus abdominis muscle D. fascia transversalis Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 144 _____ 14. the posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the A. external oblique muscle C. internal oblique muscle B. transversus abdominis muscle D. fascia transversalis Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 149 _____ 15. Which of the following statements about the stomach is INCORRECT? A. the incisura angularis is a constant notch in the lesser curve of the stomach which marks the inferior border of the body of the stomach B. the right gastric artery usually arises as a direct branch of the celiac trunk C. the pyloric sphincter is formed mainly by the middle circular muscles of the stomach wall D. None of the above Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 205

_____ 16. The greater sac and lesser sac of the peritoneal cavity communicates through the A. foramen of Winslow C. foramen of Monro B. foramen of Wirsung D. foramen of Santorini Recall, snell 6th ed. P. 200 _____ 17. In order to palpate the distal common bile duct during biliary exploration, one should palpate the second portion of the duodenum at its A. anteromedial portion C. posteromedial portion B. anterolateral portion D. posterolateral portion Clinical Application, Snell 6th ed. P. 208 _____ 18. The upper half of the duodenum is supplied by the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery which is a branch of the A. gastroduodenal artery C. superior mesenteric artery B. inferior mesenteric artery D. left gastric artery Recall, snell 6th ed. P. 210 _____ 19. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the jejunum A. its mesentery is attached to the posterior abdominal wall above and to left of the aorta B. mesenteric vessels arise from a series of 3 or 4 or more arcades C. mesenteric fat is deposited throughout and extends from the root to the intestinal wall D. plicae circulares is smaller and widely separated and absent in the lower part Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 211 _____ 20. Peyer’s patches are found at the A. duodenum B. jejunum

C. ileum D. colon

Recall, Snell 6th ed. P. 212 _____ 21. The convergence of the taenia coli will help locate the A. base of the appendix C. blood supply of the colon B. haustrations D. plicae circularis Clinical Application, Snell 6th ed. P. 214 _____ 22. Volvulus is more commonly occurs at the A. Cecum B. Descending Colon

C. Transverse Colon D. Sigmoid Colon

Clinical Application, Snell 6th ed. P. 267 _____ 23. Which of the following is found in the colon? A. plicae semilunaris B. appendices epiplocae

C. Peyer’s patches D smooth intestinal wall

Recall, Snell 6th ed, p. 222 _____ 24. Which of the following statements about the liver is correct? A. the porta hepatis lies between the caudate and quadrate lobes of the liver B. the falciform ligament divides the liver into a right and left lobe C. the portal triad contains branches of the hepatic artery, portal vein, and a tributary of the bile duct D. All of the above Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 224

_____ 25. Which of the following statements about the pancreas is INCORRECT? A. the islets of Langerhans comprises the endocrine portion of the gland B. the Duct of Wirsung opens at the posteromedial portion of the second portion of the duodenum C. the pancreas receives its blood supply from the splenic artery and the superior and inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries D. None of the above Comprehension, Snell 6th ed. P. 230 KEY 1. 6. 11. 16. 21.

B C D A A

2. 7. 12. 17. 22.

D A B C D

3. 8. 13. 18. 23.

A A A A B

4. 9. 14. 19. 24.

D D D A D

5. 10. 15. 20. 25.

D B B C D

COMPRE. QUESTIONS , NEUROANATOMY, 15 ITEMS ( ALL TAKEN FROM SNELL NEUROANATOMY, 4th ED) __c___1. The only true space from the skull to the brain is the: A) extradural space C) subarachnoid space B) subdural space D) subpial space *Recall/ Analysis, pp.321 __c___2. Aqueduct of Sylvius is a narrow segment of the ventricular system of the brain found at the region of the: A) Cerebral hemispheres C) midbrain B) thalami D) pons & medulla *Recall, pp. 318-319 __d___3. The only sensory system that does not utilize a relay nucleus in the thalamus is: A) general sensory C) auditory B) visual D) olfactory *Analysis, pp. 400 __b___4. A lesion affecting the midline of optic chiasm may produce: A) binasal hemianopsia C) left homonymous hemianopsia B) bitemporal hemianopsia D) right homonymous hemianopsia *Analysis/ Application, pp. 402-403 __a___5. A central lesion of the auditory pathway results in: A) partial deafness of both ears more on the opposite side B) partial deafness of both ears more on the same side C) complete deafness of opposite ear D) complete deafness of ear on same side *Analysis/ Application, pp. 415-416 ___b__6. Interruption of the lateral spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain & temperature sense on: A) opposite side of the body above level of lesion B) opposite side of the body below level of lesion C) same side of the body above level of lesion D) same side of the body below level of lesion *Analysis/ Application, pp. 345 ___a__7. Lesion of the left posterior white column (funiculus) at C3-C4 levels of spinal cord results in loss of conscious proprioception & tactile discrimination on the: A) left upper & lower limbs C) left lower limb B) right upper & lower limbs D) right lower limb *Analysis/ Application, pp. 346

__d___8. An injury of the Pyramidal tract results in ipsilateral motor deficits if it occurs at the level of: A) cortex C) brainstem B) internal capsule D) spinal cord *Analysis, pp. 361 __c___9. Obstruction of the Right Anterior Cerebral artery by a thrombus may produce paralysis of: A) left upper limb C) left lower limb B) right upper limb D) right lower limb *Application, pp. 361 __d___10. In an Upper Motor Neuron lesion, a normal reflex that is abolished is: A) Babinski sign C) clonus B) knee jerk D) superficial (abdominal & Cremasteric) reflexes *Recall, pp. 371 ___b__11. A central lesion of the Facial nerve produces motor deficit on the: A) ipsilateral lower quadrant of the face B) contralateral lower quadrant of the face C) ipsilateral half of the face D) contralateral half of the face *Analysis/ Application, pp. 428 ___a__12. Paralysis of lateral gaze to the left at will points to a lesion in the: A) Right area 8 C) Right area 17,18,19 B) Left area 8 D) Left area 17,18,19 *Analysis / Application, ___c__13. The outflow of signals from the Basal Ganglia originate mainly from: A) caudate nucleus C) globus pallidus B) putamen D) substancia nigra *Recall, pp310 __d___14. The part of cerebellum concerned with vestibular function is: A) anterior lobe C) posterior lobe B) middle lobe D) flocculo-nodular lobe *Recall, pp. 211 __b___15. The limbic system expresses its endocrine & autonomic functions thru the: A) thalamus C) epithalamus B) hypothalamus D) subthalamus *Recall, pp. 298-303

BASIC HISTOLOGY, 15 ITEMS (ALL TAKEN FROM BASIC HISTOLOGY BY JUNQUEIRA, 10th ED.) __b___1. Protein synthesis is a function of ribosomes which are, in turn, pre-assembled in the: A) Golgi body C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Nucleolus D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum *Recall, pp.58 __d___2. The tissue of the body which is incapable of cell renewal after an injury is: A) epithelial tissue C) bone & cartilage B) connective tissue D) nervous tissue *Recall, pp. 162 __c___3. A component of the intercellular junctional complex which acts as the site of cell to cell ionic transfer is the: A) zonula occludens C) gap junction B) Zonula adherens D) desmosome *Recall, pp. 72 __a___4. The type of epithelium best designed to resist “wear & tear” is: A) stratified squamous C) pseudostratified columnar B) stratified columnar D) transitional *Analysis, pp. 76 __c___5. Epithelial tissue has these features, except: A) hypercellularity C) vascularity B) polarity D) cell renewal system  Analysis, pp. 83 __d___6. An exocrine gland with a repeatedly branching excretory duct and secretory portions which are both cylindrical and saccular is classified as: A) simple branched tubular C) compound tubular B) compound acinar D) compound tubuloacinar  Analysis, pp. 82 __b___7. The cell in the connective tissue whose granules contain the chemical mediators responsible for allergic reactions is the: A) plasma cell C) macrophage B) mast cell D) fibroblast  Application, pp. 102 __a___8. B-lymphocyte becomes an antibody-producing cell in connective tissue known as: A) plasma cell C) macrophage B) mast cell D) fibroblast *Recall, pp. 103

__d___9. Hyaline cartilage has homogenous matrix because: A) there are no fibers in the matrix B) the fibers are too small to be resolved by the light microscope C) the fibers do not take up stain D) the refractive index of the fibers equals that of amorphous ground substance  Comprehension? Or Analysis?, pp.136 __d___10. Enzymatically etched depression in a bone matrix called Howship’s lacuna houses: A) osteoprogenitor cell C) osteocyte B) osteoblast D) osteoclast  Recall, pp. 142 __b___11. You are examining under the microscope a tissue whose fibers were cut in crosssection; the fibers are of different sizes the larger of which show a central nucleus; most likely, this tissue is: A) skeletal muscle C) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle D) collagenous con. Tissue *Application, pp. 207 ___b__12. Skeletal muscle is characterized by: A) branching fibers multinucleated centrally B) Non-branching fibers multinucleated peripherally C) Branching fibers mononucleated centrally D) Non-branching fibers mononucleated peripherally *Recall, pp. 191 __a___13. A neuron is classified as multipolar when it has: A) one axon & many dendrites C) many axons with no dendrites B) one dendrite & many axons D) many dendrites with no axons *Recall, pp. 163 __c___14. The myelin sheath of nerve fibers in the central nervous system is formed by: A) fibrous astrocytes C) oligodendrocytes B) protoplasmic astrocytes D) microglia  Recall, pp. 172 __a___15. An acute bacterial infection results in a steep rise in the number of a leucocyte described as: A) A cell with numerous fine,lilac granules & a tri-lobed nucleus B) A cell with uniformly large red granules & a bi-lobed nucleus C) A cell with unevenly sized dark purple granules hiding an “S” or “U” Shaped nucleus D) A cell with azurophilic granules in a thin rim of cytoplasm & a large Nucleus occupying almost the entire cell * Application, pp. 238