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DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN STRUCTURAL BIOLOGY GROSS & MICROSCOPIC HUMAN STRUCTURAL BIOLOGY 1.Immunocyte of lymphocytes found in the germinal center of the lymphoid follicles is: A. T cell C. NK cell B. Null cell D. B cell 2. What phase of the cell cycle does the cell replicates DNA? A.GI Phase C. Interphase B. S phase D. M phase 3. Bone resorption by osteoclastic activity is: A. TSH C. Calcitonin B. PTH D. ACTH 4. Respiratory epithelium is seen in the following structures, EXCEPT: A. Trachea C. Terminal bronchiole B. Secondary bronchus D. Larynx 5. Endometrium of uterus is lined by: A. Simple squamous C. Simple cuboidal B. Simple ciliated columnar D. Stratified columnar 6. Which of the following organs contain reticular fibers? A. Stomach C. Pancreas B. Appendix D. Lymph node 7. Elastic connective tissue is seen in: A. Walls of blood vessels C. Wharton’s jelly of umbilical cord B. Lamina propria of intestines D. Subcutaneous tissue of skin 8. Destruction of these cells will lead to loss of intrinsic factor in the gastric mucosa. A. Oxyntic cells C. G cells B. Mucus cells D. Zymogenic cells 9. Apocrine sweat glands are distributed at: A. Face C. Palm B. Trunk D. Axilla 10. Lymphoid organ important for removal of particulate matters in circulation: A. Spleen C. Lymph nodes B. Palatine tonsils D. Thymus 11. Which of the following conducting airways of the lungs is characterized by a predominantly thick muscularis layer? A. Primary bronchus C. Lobar bronchus B. Bronchiole D. Segmental bronchus 12. Foreign bodies in the CNS are engulfed by: A. Microglia C. Astrocytes B. Ependymal cells D. Granule cells 13. Protective barrier of the skin against UV radiation is: A. Langerhans cell C. Melanocyte B. Merkel cell D. Keratinocyte 14. Part of the uterus that relaxes during time of parturition: A. Fundus C. Body B. Cervix D. Isthmus 15. Which of the following statements regarding stomach is correct? A. Mucosa is thrown into valve of Kerkring B. Anatomic sphincter is found at the pyloric portion C. Cells produce urogastrone D. Mucosa is disrupted by submucosa 16. Destruction of these cells will lead to low glucose level; A. Beta cells C. Delta cell B. Alpha cell D. G cell 17. Histologic features of appendix include: A. Presence of taenia coli C. Few and short crypts of Lieberkuhn B. Presence of intestinal villi D. Absence of submucosa 18. Adenohypophysis produced the following hormones, EXCEPT: A. ACTH C. Prolactine B. FSH D. Oxytocin 19. Mucus secreting columnar cells is characteristic of: A. Cervix C. Vagina B. Uterus D. Oviduct 20. The cells that participate in the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism: A. Podocytes C. Lacis cells B. Endothelial cells D. Macula densa 21. This condition results to reduction of the total surface area available for gas exchange in which many of the alveoli beyond the terminal bronchioles coalesce: A. Bronchitis C. Emphysema B. Tuberculosis D. Pneumonia 22. Benign prostatic hypertrophy will show an increase in the number of: A. Glandular acini and fibromuscular stroma C. Prostatic vasculature B. Corpora arenacea D. Fibrous capsule 23. Hirshsprung’s disease is characterized by complete absence of: A. Parasympathetic Auerbach’s plexus C. Muscularis externa B. Sympathetic Auerbach’s plexus D. Muscularis intima 24. A 50 year old female develops post surgical tetany after thyroidectomy. This is directly caused by: A. Transection of recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Complete removal of thyroid & parathyroid glands C. Hyperthyroid state prior to surgery D. Hypothyroid state prior to surgery

25. Marked leukocytosis with regenerative shifts to the left means: A. Absolute lymphocytosis B. Increase leukocytosis with neutropenia C. Absolute neutrophilic with stabosis D. Neutrophilia with predominantly hypersegmented forms 26. In acute inflammation of the appendix which WBC is expected to rise significantly in the peripheral blood: A. Eosinophil C. Lymphocyte B. Neutrophil D. Basophil 27. A diabetic insipidus patient manifests excessive thirst and polyuria because of deficiency of: A. Renin C. Aldosterone B. Oxytocin D. Vasopressin 28. Which of the following is associated with cryptorchidism? A. Direct inguinal hernia C. Varicocoele B. Hydrocoele D. Precocious puberty 29. Vasectomy will prevent the passage of sperm from this site: A. Ejaculatory duct C. Epididymis B. Duct of seminal vesicle D. Prostatic urethra 30. Overproduction of this hormone results in cushing syndrome: A. Cortisol C. Androgen B. Aldosterone D. Epinephrine 31. Which of the following controls visceral activity and the chief effector of the limbic system? A. Fornix C. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus D. Hippocampal formation 32. The only cranial nerve that is crossed dorsally from the brainstem: A. Optic C. Trochlear B. Oculomotor D. Facial 33. Rhomboid fossa is formed by the floor of: A. Lateral ventricles C. 3rd ventricle B. 4th ventricle D. Cerebral aqueduct 34. The denticulate ligaments are toothlike processes arising from: A. Pia C. Arachnoid B. Dura D. Ependyma 35. The corticospinal tract crosses the midline at the level of: A. Pons C. Midbrain B. Spinal cord D. Medulla 36. The frontal lobe performs the following function: A. Coordinate motor activity C. Control of motor speech B. Control reflex activity D. Understanding speech 37. Blockage of CSF drainage in the ventricles leads to: A. Stroke C. Myelocoele B. Hydrocephalus D. Encephalocoele 38. The dorsal column of the spinal cord carries the pathway of the following sensibilities, EXCEPT: A. Vibration C. Stereognosis B. Position sense D. Crude touch 39. A CSF pressure of 300mm H2O is significant of: A. Normal pressure C. Increased intracranial pressure B. Low pressure D. Hydrocephalus 40. The spinal meninges is differentiated from cerebral meninges by absence of: A. Arachnoid villi C. Epidural space B. Pial specializations D. Subarachnoid cisterns 41. Lesion of the facial nerve results to: A. Inability to open the eye C. impaired parotid gland secretion B. Impaired tearing D. Weakness of lower facial muscles 42. A sudden onset of right sided weakness associated with headache and vomiting in a 40 year old hypertensive suggests: A. Intracranial hemorrhage C. Bacterial meningitis B. Meningioma D. Hydrocephalus 43. Patient manifests past pointing intention tremor and he lists to the right on standing. The probable location of the lesion involved is: A. Cerebral cortex C. Cerebellum B.Brainstem D. Spinal cord 44. Ptosis and mydriasis are manifestations of injury to: A. Sympathetic nerve C. Abducens nerve B. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 45. In performing a light reflex on a patient, only the left eye constricts (both direct and consensual reflexes are positive on the left eye). What nerve is injured in this case? A. Right optic C. Left optic B. Right oculomotor D. Left oculomotor 46. Impaired hearing sense on the right may be due to a lesion in: A. Trapezoid body C. Medial geniculate body B. Inferior colliculus D. Cochlear nerve 47. Left homonymous hemianopsia results from injury to: A. Optic nerve C. Optic tract B. Optic chiasm D. Photoreceptors 48. Brown-Sequard syndrome at T10 segment results to: A. Weakness of the contralateral leg B. Impaired pain on ipsilateral leg C. Impaired position sense on contralateral leg

D. Impaired vibration sense on ipsilateral leg 49. Lesion of the decending brainstem pathway characterized by flexed arms and hyperextended legs: A. Flaccidity C. Decerebrate rigidity B. Decorticate rigidity D. Spasticity 50. A focal lesion that affects the posterior limb of internal capsule can result from cerebrovascular accident of: A. Anterior cerebral artery C. Middle cerebral artery B. Anteior communicating artery D. Posterior cerebral artery 51. The obturator internus passes through the: A. greater sciatic foramen C. obturator foramen B. lesser sciatic foramen D. obturator canal 52. In the female, which of the following is found in the deep perineal pouch? A. greater vestibular gland C. crus of clitoris B. vestibular bulb D. sphincter urethrae 53. The lateral wall of the pelvis is covered by: A. Pubococcygeus C. Obturator internus B. Puborectalis D. Piriformis 54. One of the complications of hysterectomy is accidental transection of the ureter. This may occur because the ureter: A. forms the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa B. crosses the bifurcation of the common iliac artery C. is crosses by the uterine artery E. enters the bladder wall obliquely 55. A 14 y.o. boy was riding his bicycle when he stood up on the pedals and then his left foot accidentally slipped from the pedal. His perineum hit the bar of the bicycle. A few hours later he had a perineal swelling and was unable to micturate. Diagnosis: ruptured urethra. Which of the following is correct? A. part of urethra commonly involved is the prostatic urethra B. extravasated urine is the cause of swelling in the superficial perineal pouch C. urine cannot possibly enter the anterior abdominal wall D. urine can extend posteriorly to the ischiorectal fossa 56. A 30 y.o. woman was found to have unstable right knee joint following a car accident. On examination it was possible to pull the tibia excessively forward on the femur. Diagnosis: ruptured anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Which of the following statements about ACL is not correct? A. more commonly torn than posterior cruciate ligament B. passes upward, backward and laterally from the tibia C. attached to the lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle D. attached to the tibia in the anterior part of the intercondylar area 57. During a fight a man was stabbed in the thigh which transected the femoral nerve just below the inguinal ligament. Which of the following signs and symptoms will the patient have? A. intact knee-jerk reflex B. skin sensation is lost over the anterior and medial thigh C. skin sensation is lost along the medial border of the big toe D. patient cannot flex the knee joint 58. A 47 y.o. man was riding his motorcycle when a jaywalker suddenly crossed his path. His sudden brake and turn caused him to lose control and he subsequently fell hitting the pavement with his head and shoulder. On examination his upper limb hung limply on the side, medially rotated and forearm pronated. Diagnosis: Erb-Duchenne Palsy. Which statement is true regarding Erb-Duchenne Palsy? A. involves upper brachial plexus B. caused by excessive abduction of the arm C. there is no paralysis of the arm muscles D. skin sensation of the whole arm is intact 59. A data encoder complained of “pins and needles” sensation over the right palm. She also complained that she has difficulty buttoning up her clothes. On examination, she pointed to her right thumb, index, middle and ring fingers as the areas where she felt discomfort. Diagnosis: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. The following are true about the median nerve , except: A. thenar muscles are supplied by the median nerve B. enters the palm through the carpal tunnel C. occupies a large space between the tendons behind the flexor retinaculum D. roots derived only from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus 60. The dorsal scapular nerve innervates: A. rhomboid major C. splenius capitis B. trapezius D. supraspinatus 61. Which muscle inserts to the lesser tubercle of the humerus? A. pectoralis major C. subscapularis B. supraspinatus D. teres minor 62. In movement of the arm, the coracobrachialis assists in: A. lateral rotation C. extension B. adduction D. supination 63. Inability to extend the forearm would indicate a lesion of: A. ulnar nerve C. median nerve B. musculocutaneous nerve D. radial nerve 64. Lesions of the median nerve in the hand is indicated by: A. loss of ability to abduct the digits B. clawhand C. loss of opposability of the thumb D. Dupytren’s contracture

65. The lateral boundary of the cubital fossa: A. brachiordialis C. palmaris longus B. pronator teres D. interepicondylar line 66. The glossopharyngeal nerve exits the skull through the: A. foramen ovale C. foramen rotundum B. jugular foramen D. internal acoustic meatus 67. In a tracheostomy performed inferior to the thyroid isthmus, which vessel or nerve could not be injured: A. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve B. thyroidea ima artery C. inferior thyroid vein D. jugular arch 68. The muscular triangle of the neck: A. is bounded superolaterally by the anterior belly of digastric B. contains the thyroid gland C. contains the carotid triangle D. inferior boundary is clavicle 69. The part of the larynx located between the vestibular and vocal folds is the: A. rima glottidis C. laryngeal vestibule B. laryngeal ventricle D. infraglottis 70. Damage to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen would affect: A. facial expression C. salivation B. taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue D. lacrimation 71. After a car accident the driver was noted to have fluid (apparently CSF) escape from the nose. The most likely cause is fracture of the ______ bone. A. frontal C. nasal B. ethmoid D. lacrimal 72. The superior orbital fissure transmits all of the following, EXCEPT: A. superior ophthalmic vein C. optic nerve B. oculomotor nerve D. abducens nerve 73. The lacrimal gland: A. receives sensory fibers from the optic nerve: B. secretes directly to the lacrimal sac C. located deep to the lateral portion of the upper eyelid D. receives postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the ciliary ganglion 74. If both lingual nerves are severed at the foramen ovale, there will be: A. loss of taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue B. loss of control of tongue muscles C. loss of general sensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue D. loss of speech 75. A patient with a lesion of the optic chiasm will most likely experience: A. homonymous hemianopsia C. bilateral anopsia B. unilateral anopsia D. bitemporal hemianopsia 76. The costodiaphragmatic recess extends inferiorly to the level of rib ____ at the midclavicular line, and rib ____ at the midaxillary line A. 6, 8 C. 10, 12 B. 8, 10 D. 6, 10 77. In the heart the papillary muscles are attached to the atrioventricular cusps via the: A. dentate ligaments C. moderator band B. chordae tendinae D. trabeculae carnae 78. The small intestine derives its blood supply from the: A. splenic artery C. inferior mesenteric artery B. left gastric artery D. superior mesenteric artery 79. The posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen of Winslow is formed by: A. portal vein C. caudate lobe of the liver B. duodenum D. inferior vena cava 80. The cystic artery usually originates from the _____ artery. A. right hepatic C. common hepatic B. left hepatic D. proper hepatic 81. If the portal vein is obstructed, blood from the jejunum could return to the heart through the: A. hepatic vein C. splenic vein B. esophageal vein C. inferior mesenteric vein 82. The gall bladder: A. is located on the visceral surface of the liver between the caudate and quadrate lobes. B. fundus lies against the anterior abdominal wall at the level of the 9 th costal cartilage C. always receives blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery D. lies in the lesser sac 83. A 60 y.o. man complains of recurring epigastric pain. A gastric consult revealed gastric ulcer. This type of ulcer is frequently located in the pyloric part of the stomach, and consequently: A. pain impulses from the stomach are carried by visceral afferent fibers that accompany parasympathetic nerves. B. vagotomy is not used in the treatment of gastric ulcers. C. posterior gastric ulcer may erode through the stomach wall into the pancreas. D. it is easy to differentiate between gastric and duodenal ulcers by location of the pain. 84. If the gastroduodenal artery were occluded, the duodenum and pancreas would be provided with blood by the ______ artery. A. superior mesenteric C. common hepatic

B. inferior mesenteric D. proper hepatic 85. Placing your finger in the epiploic foramen of Winslow, the ventral and dorsal structures immediately palpated are: A. duodenum and quadrate lobe of the liver B. portal vein and inferior vena cava C. hepatoduodenal ligament and caudate lobe of the liver D. gastroduodenal artery and common bile duct 86. The second part of the duodenum: A. is located anterior to the superior mesenteric artery B. lies within the peritoneal cavity C. is the transverse segment D. contains the greater duodenal papilla 87. The cardiac vein which does not drain into the coronary sinus: A. great cardiac vein C. posterior cardiac vein B. oblique vein D. anterior cardiac vein 88. The septomarginal trabecula is seen in which chamber of the heart? A. Left atrium C. Left ventricle B. Right atrium D. Right ventricle 89. The azygos vein ultimately collects posterior intercostals venous drainage: A. from the right side of the thorax only B. before it empties into the inferior vena cava C. from nearly the entire thorax D. before it empties into the brachiocephalic vein 90. Regarding the bifurcation of the trachea: A. it is usually at about the level of T6 B. its position is affected by respiratory movements C. the left bronchus is larger than the right D. foreign bodies usually find their way into the left bronchus 91. Which of the following is not true? A. the left suprarenal gland is triangular in shape B. the inferior mesenteric vein ascends behind the duodenal flexure C. the tail of the pancreas crosses the left kidney D. the left renal vein crosses in front of the aorta and receives the left testicular vein 92. Anatomic narrowing of the ureter where renal calculi may be arrested: A. before the ureter enters the bladder B. at the renal pelvis C. at the level of the pelvic brim D. at the level of the iliac crest 93. Most common type of intussuception: A. ileocolic C. ileoileal B. colocolic D. jejunoileal 94. Volvulus may be seen in which segment of the GIT? A. ileum C. descending colon B. ascending colon D. jejunum 95. The anterior rectus sheath: A. is formed by the aponeurosis of internal oblique and transverses abdominis. B. is formed by the aponeurosis of external and internal oblique abdominis. C. includes scarpa’s fascia. D. Ends at the semilunar fold of Douglas. 96. Hesselbach’s triangle is a potential weak area of the abdomen where direct inguinal hernia may occur. Which of the following is not a boundary of Hesselbach’s triangle? A. semilunar fold of Douglas C. inguinal ligament B. rectus abdominis D. inferior epigastric vessels 97. Liver biopsy is a common diagnostic procedure. To avoid hitting the lungs, the needle is inserted into the: A. 9th intercostals space, right midaxillary line B. 9th intercostals space, right scapular line C. 6th intercoastal space, right midclavicular line D. 5th intercostals space, left midclavicular line 98. Which of the following is a site of esophageal narrowing which may possibly offer resistance to insertion of a nasogastric tube? A. level of the thyroid gland B. when the arch of the aorta crosses in front of the esophagus C. just before entering the esophageal opening of the diaphragm D. level of C7 99. Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital anomaly of the: A. stomach C. jejunum B. duodenum D. ileum 100. Cancer of the head of the pancreas often causes: A. physiologic jaundice C. hemorrhagic jaundice B. obstructive jaundice D. pathologic jaundice