April 25, 2017 | Author: sid120119973 | Category: N/A
Hindi TM
PAPER CODE
CAREER INSTITUTE Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
0 1 CM2 1 3 0 7 7
FORM NUMBER
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 MAJOR TEST # 02
AIPMT (11TH Syllabus)
DATE : 19 - 01 - 2014
INSTRUCTIONS ( ) 1.
A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3 180 720
Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
1 A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. OMR
8.
Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to
[email protected] within 2 days along with Your Form No. & Complete Test Details. Correction Form No. Test Details
[email protected] mail
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so / Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003 E-Mail:
[email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in
Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
19–01–2014
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A 3iˆ 2ˆj kˆ . If A B is a unit vector along X-axis, then B is :-
1.
B
(1) ˆi
(2) 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
(1) ˆi
(2) 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
(3) 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
(4) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ
(3) 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
(4) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ
(Use Newton's law of cooling)
80°C 60°C 40 sec 30°C 60°C 50°C
(1) 35 sec
(1) 35 sec
A cup of tea cools from 80°C to 60°C in 40 sec. The ambient temperature is 30°C. In cooling from 60°C to 50°C. It will takes :-
2.
(2) 30 sec
(3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec A golf ball of mass 0.05 kg placed on a tee, is struck by a golf stick. The speed of the golf ball as it leaves the tee is 100 m/s, the time of contact between them is 0.02 s. If the force decreases to zero linearly with time, then the force at the beginning of the contact is :(1) 500 N (2) 250 N (3) 200 N (4) 100 N A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what height will the ball rise after second bounce ? (1) 2m (2) 4m (3) 8m (4) 16m A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 20 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum :-
3.
4.
5.
(3) terminal velocity will be greater than 20 m/s
(iii) Power (1) (2) (3) (4)
Only (i) and (ii) (i), (ii) & (iii) (i), (ii) & (iv) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(iv) Torque
(4) 48 sec 0.05 kg
100 m/s 0.02
(2) terminal velocity will be less than 20 m/s (4) no terminal velocity will be attained Which of the following have same dimensions :(i) Work (ii) Energy
(2) 30 sec
(3) 32 sec
(1) terminal velocity will be 20 m/s
6.
A 3iˆ 2ˆj kˆ . A B , X-
6.
(1) 500 N (3) 200 N
(2) 250 N (4) 100 N
(1) 2m
(2) 4m
(3) 8m
(4) 16m
32 m 0.5 ?
(terminal velocity) 20 m/s :(1) 20 m/s (2) 20 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (i), (ii) (iii) (3) (i), (ii) (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) (iv)
01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 1/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
7.
The velocity (v) of a body moving along the positive x-direction varies with displacement (x)
7.
O
x
The radius of gyration of a uniform disc about a line perpendicular to its plane is equal to its radius (r). Then the distance of that line from centre of disc is :-
r (1) 2 9.
10.
11.
12.
(2)
r 2
r (3) 3
(4)
(4) O
t
8.
r 3
9.
A bread gives 5 kcals of heat to a person. How much
11.
O
t
t
(r) :- (1)
Six identical rods are joined end to end, to form a hexagon mass of each rod is m and length is . Then moment of inertia of system w.r.t. an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to plane is :(2) 5m2 (1) 6m2 (3) 10m2 (4) None Which of the following expressions does not represent SHM :(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t (3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t
t
x
(3) O
t
O
t
x
(4) O
(2) O
t
x
(3) 8.
(1)
(2) t
x
x
x
(1) O
x- (v), (x) v k x k (x-t)
from the origin as v k x , where k is a constant. Which of the graphs shown in figure correctly represents the displacement-time (x-t) graphs of the motion ? x
19–01–2014
r 2
(2)
r 2
(3)
r 3
(4)
r 3
m
:
10.
(1) 6m2
(2) 5m2
(3) 10m2
(4)
:(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t (3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t 5 kcals
height he can jump against gravity by using this
30% 60 kg
energy if his efficiency is 30% and mass is 60 kg
(1) 15.5 m
(2) 10.5 m
(1) 15.5 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 5 m
(3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m –1 36 km h 108 km h–1
A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 36 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief's car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 108 km h–1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 140 ms–1, with what speed will the bullet hit the theif's car? (1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1 (3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1 H - 2/32
12.
(2) 10.5 m
140 ms–1
(1) 120 ms–1 (3) 140 ms–1
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(2) 130 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1 01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
13.
A toy gun uses a spring of force constant k. When charged before being triggered in the upward direction, the spring is compressed by a distance x. If mass of the shot is m, on being triggered it will go upto a height of :(1)
14.
kx 2 mg
16.
17.
(3)
kx 2 2mg
(4)
k 2x2 mg
The least coefficient of friction for an inclined plane inclined at an angle of 30° with horizontal, in order that a solid cylinder will roll down without slipping is :-
1 (1) 3 15.
x2 kmg
(2)
1 (2) 3
(3)
1 3 3
13.
(4)
3 15.
A mass 'm' rests on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the mass and surface is s. The mass is pulled by a force 'F' as shown. Find limiting friction between the mass and the surface :F (1) s mg
17.
x2 kmg
(2)
1 3
1 3
(2)
16.
(1) 4 kg (3) 16 kg
m
(4) (k2/k1)1/2
(2) 8 kg (4) 32 kg
3
0°C 1 5 10°C 80 cal/g (1) 5°C
(2) 0°C
(3) –5°C
(4)
m
F
:F
(1) s mg
30°
(2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F]
18.
m
m :-
2
1 4kg
k 2x2 mg
(4)
3 3
(3) k2/k1
(4) s(mg + F/2)
m
1
(2) (k1/k2)1/2
(4) s(mg + F/2) If the system is in equilibrium in both the cases then value of m is :-
16kg
(3)
(1) k1/k2
(3) s[mg – F/2]
1
(4)
s
m
2
kx 2 2mg
k1 k2
(3) s[mg – F/2]
1
(3)
( ):-
30°
18.
kx 2 mg
30° :- (1)
Two springs of constants k1 and k2 have equal highest velocities, when executing SHM. Then, the ratio of their amplitudes (given their masses are equal) will be :(2) (k1/k2)1/2 (1) k1/k2 (3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2 One gm of ice at 0°C is added to 5 g of water at 10°C. If the latent heat is 80 cal/g, final temperature of the mixture is :(1) 5°C (2) 0°C (3) –5°C (4) None of these
(2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F]
k x m :(1)
14.
19–01–2014
16kg
2
1
m
(1) 4 kg (3) 16 kg
m
2
4kg
(2) 8 kg (4) 32 kg
Filling Key 01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 3/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
19.
Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero, is :(1) –
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
6Gm 9Gm (2) – (3) zero r r
(4) –
4Gm r
Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100 rad/s and 1000 rad/s have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum acceleration is :(2) 1 : 104 (1) 1 : 103 (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102 In the following figure, a P–V curve is drawn for a gas the work done in the process will be–
(1) 1 Joule (2) 2 Joule (3) 4 Joule (4) –2 Joule Mass of a particle is 0.50 kg. It is moving initially with the speed of 80 m/s towards East. At t = 0, when particle is at x = 0, a force of 20 N directed towards west is being applied on it for 4 sec. Its position after 5 sec is (1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m A particle of mass m moving towards east with speed v collides with another particle of same mass and moving towards the north with same speed v. If the two particles stick to each other the new particle of mass 2 m will have a speed of :(1) v (2) v/2 (3) v / 2 (4) v 2 Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to-
(1)
n +1 R 2
(3)
Rn
H - 4/32
(2)
(4)
n -1 R 2 n -2 R 2
19.
m 4m r (1) –
20.
19–01–2014
6Gm 9Gm 4Gm (2) – (3) (4) – r r r
100 rad/s 1000 rad/s
:(1) 1 : 103 (3) 1 : 10 21.
(2) 1 : 104 (4) 1 : 102
P–V
(1) 1 (3) 4
22.
23.
(2) 2 (4) –2 0.50 kg 80 m/s t = 0 x = 0 20 N 4 sec 5 sec (1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m v m
(v) 2 m :-
24.
(1) v
(2) v/2
(3) v / 2
(4) v 2
n R (1)
n +1 R 2
(3)
Rn
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(2) (4)
n -1 R 2 n -2 R 2
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
A body oscillates with an amplitude of 10 cm on a horizontal platform. The maximum angular frequency with which the platform can vibrate vertically such that the body of mass 10 kg will not leave contact, is :(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec (3) 20 rad/sec (4) None of these 140 calories of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 moles of a gas at constant pressure from 0°C to 10°C. How much heat will be required to heat it from 0°C to 10°C at constant volume :(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal (3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal Two billiards ball P and Q, each of mass 20g and moving in opposite directions with speed of 5m/s each, collide and rebound with the same speed. If the collision lasts for 10–3 sec, which of the following statement are true ? (1) The impulse imparted to each ball is 0.8 N-s (2) The impulse imparted to each ball is 0.4 N-s and the force exerted on each ball is 400 N (3) The impulse imparted to each ball is 0.4 kg m/s and the force exerted on each ball is 4 × 10–5 N (4) The impulse and the force on each ball are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction A block of mass m moving at a velocity collides with another block of mass 2m at rest. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. Then the coefficient of restitution is :-
25.
26.
19–01–2014
10 cm 10 kg :(1) 1 rad/sec
(2) 10 rad/sec
(3) 20 rad/sec
(4)
2 0°C 10°C. 140 0°C 10°C : (1) 60 cal (3) 140 cal
27.
(2) 100 cal (4) 180 cal
20g P Q,
5 m/s
10–3 sec, (1) 0.8 N-s (2) 0.4 N-s 400 N (3) 0.4 kg m/s
4 × 10–5 N
(4)
28.
m 2m :-
(1)
1 2
(2) 1
(1)
1 2
(2) 1
(3)
1 3
(4)
1 4
(3)
1 3
(4)
The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes
g (where g = the acceleration due to 9
gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is :(1)
R 2
01CM213077
(2)
2R
(3) 2R
(4)
R 2
29.
1 4
R g
g = ) 9 (
:(1)
R 2
(2)
2R
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(3) 2R
(4)
R 2
H - 5/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
30.
31.
32.
The equation for the displacement of a stretched
x t . string is given by, y = 4 sin 2 0.02 100
x t y = 4 sin 2 0.02 100
Where, y and x are in cm and t in sec. The (i) frequency (ii) velocity of the wave (iii) maximum particle velocity are :(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s (2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s (3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s (4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s If E m refers to the maximum intensity of
y x t (i) (ii) (iii) :(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s (2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s (3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s 31.
(4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s m Em
radiations and m is the wavelength corresponding to the maximum intensity of radiations, the Wein's
:
displacement law tells that:(1) Increase in Em when temperature is increasing
(1) Em
(2) Decreasee in E m when temperature is increasing (3) Increase in m when temperature is increasing (4) Decrease in m when temperature is increasing For which of the following graphs, the average velocity of a particle moving along a straight line for time interval 0 to t must be negative :Position
(2) Em (3) m (4) m 32.
Position
v
(1) 0
t
time 0
t
t/3
t
(4)
(2) 0
time
Position x
Velocity
v
(1) 0
time
Velocity
x
(2)
(3)
0 t
Velocity
x
33.
30.
19–01–2014
t
0
time
t
(3)
A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 54 km/hr in 5 sec. The average power of the engine during this period in watt is :- (neglect friction) (1) 2000 (2) 22500 (3) 5000 (4) 2250
33.
time 0
time
Position x
Velocity
0
t
t/3
t
(4)
t 0
1000 5 54
:- ( ) (1) 2000 (3) 5000
(2) 22500 (4) 2250
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question H - 6/32
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
34.
A small ball of density is immersed in a liquid of density (>) to a depth h and released. The height above the surface of water up to which the ball will jump is : (1) – 1 h
35.
34.
(2) – 1 h
(3) 1 h (4) 1 h A transverse wave is described by the equation
35.
(1) – 1 h
(2) – 1 h
(3) 1 h
(4) 1 h
x y = y0sin 2 ft
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if
:
y 0 y 0 (2) = 4 2 (3) = y0 (4) = 2y0 The temperature of an ideal gas is –68°C. To what temperature should it be heated so that the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules be doubled :(1) 547°C (2) 137°C
37.
(3) –272°C (4) 820°C Position vector of a particle is given as r (t 2 4t 6)iˆ (t 2 ) ˆj . The time after which,
38.
the velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with initial velocity v0. If (3/4)th of its kinetic energy is lost due to friction in time t0, then coefficient of friction between the particle and the ground is :-
v0 (1) 2gt 0 39.
(>) h :-
x y = y 0 sin 2 ft . The maximum particle
y 0 4 (3) = y0
v0 (2) 4gt 0
3v (3) 4gt 0
36.
(2) =
:-
37.
(1) 547°C
(2) 137°C
(3) –272°C
(4) 820°C
r (t 2 4t 6)iˆ (t 2 ) ˆj
38.
(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 10 sec
v0 t0 (3/4)th :-
v0 (1) 2gt 0
v0 (4) gt 0
The density of water at the surface of ocean is . If the bulk modulus of water is B, then the density of ocean water at depth, when the pressure is p0 and p0 is the atmospheric pressure, is :-
y 0 2 (4) = 2y0 –68°C
(1) =
(1) =
36.
19–01–2014
39.
v0 (2) 4gt 0
v0 (4) gt 0
3v (3) 4gt 0
B p0 (p0 )
pB (1) B – – 1 p 0
pB (2) B – 1 p 0
pB (1) B – – 1 p 0
pB (2) B – 1 p 0
pB (3) B – p 0
pB (4) B p 0
pB (3) B – p 0
pB (4) B p 0
01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 7/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
40.
41.
It takes 2.0 seconds for a sound wave to travel between two fixed points when the day temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises to 30°C the sound wave travels between the same fixed points in :(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec (3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec The degree of freedom f for a gas is given by :(1)
2CV R
2 (3) 1
42.
40.
41.
10°C 2 30°C : (1) 1.9 sec
(2) 2.0 sec
(3) 2.1 sec
(4) 2.2 sec
f :-
2C V (2) C C P V
(1)
(4) All the the above
2 (3) 1
Two bodies A and B of masses 15 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall as shown in the figure. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. If a force 300 N is applied horizontally to A, then force exerted by B on A is :-
42.
19–01–2014
2C V (2) C C P V
2C V R
(4)
15 kg 10 kg A B 0.2. A 300 N B A A
A
15 kg 10 kg
300 N 15 kg 10 kg
300 N
43.
(1) Zero (2) 150 N (3) 250 N (4) 300 N Four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass m, 2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of mass of all the four rods :D
43.
(1)
(2) 150 N
(3) 250 N
(4) 300 N
4m AB, BC, CD m, 2m, 3m DA :-
C 1
D
2
A
45.
2 0 3 4
B
(1) Lie in region 1 (2) Lie in region 2 (3) Lie in region 3 (4) Lie at 0 Two wires of the same material and same mass are stretched by the same force. Their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 3. Their elongations are in the ratio:(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4 The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance travelled (in meters) by the sound during the time in which the tuning fork completes 32 vibrations is :(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 129 H - 8/32
C 1
3 04
44.
B
B
A
(1) 1 (3) 3 44.
45.
B
(2) 2 (4) 0
2 : 3 :(1) 3 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4 256 Hz –1 344 ms 32 : (1) 21
(2) 43
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(3) 86
(4) 129 01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
46.
What is the total number of electrons present in 18 ml of water :(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023
10 (3) 6.02310 23 47.
48.
49.
46.
(4) 6.02 × 1023
H2O2 can oxidise :(1) Mn2+ in alkaline medium (2) MnO4– in acidic medium (3) F– in acidic medium (4) All Which of the following is correct :(1) If under some conditions, CCl 4 & SiCl 4 hydrolyse then Kc for CCl4 hydrolysis will be larger (Kc = equilibrium constant) (2) If under some conditions, CCl 4 & SiCl 4 hydrolyse then Kc for SiCl4 hydrolysis will be larger (3) K c for CCl 4 hydrolysis = K c for SiCl 4 hydrolysis (4) None Consider the following two reactions : (i) Propene + H2 Propane, H1 (ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H2 Then, H2 – H1 will be : (1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C – BEC = C (3) BEC = C (4) 2BEC = C – BEC – C
47.
19–01–2014
18 ml :(1) 10
(2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023
10 (3) 6.02310 23
(4) 6.02 × 1023
H2O2 :-
Mn2+ MnO4– F– 48. :(1) CCl4 SiCl4 CCl4 Kc (1) (2) (3) (4)
(Kc = equilibrium constant) (2) CCl4 SiCl4 SiCl4 Kc (Kc = equilibrium constant) (3) CCl4 Kc = SiCl4 Kc (4) 49.
(i) Propene + H2 Propane, H1 (ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H2 H2 – H1 (1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C – BEC = C (3) BEC = C (4) 2BEC = C – BEC – C O
O
NO2 Product is :-
O–C
50.
O
O
NO2
O
O NO2
O–C
(2)
NO2 (4)
O–C
O
(3) O2N
NO2
O O–C
NO2
O–C
(2)
O
(3) O2N
NO2
O–C
(1)
O–C
(1)
NO2 :-
O–C
50.
(4)
O–C
O O–C
Take it Easy and Make it Easy 01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 9/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
51.
52.
53.
6 × 1020 molecules of CO2 are removed from 220 milligram of CO2. What are the remaining moles of CO2 :(1) 4 × 10-3 moles (2) 5 × 10-3 moles -3 (4) 6 × 10-3 moles (3) 2 × 10 moles No. of pair of F atoms which subtents 90° angle on S in SF6 will be :(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16 Symmetrical H bonding will occur in :(1) HF------HF H (2) H H
54.
55.
53.
(2) H
+
O--------H–O
H
H
H
OH
OH
54.
(3) F --------H–F (4) PCl5(g)
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
: (i) (ii) Cl2 (iii) (iv) (v) PCl5 (1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (3) (i), (ii) & (v) 55.
(2) (iii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)
OH
OH
OH
OH
(II) (III) (I) (IV) (1) I < IV < II < III (2) I < IV < III < II (3) I < III < II < IV (4) I < III < IV < II What is the empirical formula of the compound containing H, C, O and N in the mass ratio of 1 : 3 : 4 : 7 respectively :(2) H4CON2 (1) HC3O4N7 (3) HC4O2N 2 (4) None
OH
OMe
Cl
Cl
NO2
NO2
H - 10/32
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16 :Symmetrical H bonding (1) HF------HF H
+
OMe
56.
220 CO2 6 × 1020
CO2 : (1) 4 × 10-3 (2) 5 × 10-3 (3) 2 × 10-3 (4) 6 × 10-3 52. F S 90° :-
O--------H–O
(3) F --------H–F (4) All For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured by :(i) Introducing inert gas at constant volume (ii) Introducing Cl2 gas at constant volume (iii) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure (iv) Increasing the pressure of the container (v) Introducing PCl5 (1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v) (3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii) The correct increasing order of reactivity for following molecules towards electrophilic aromatic substitution.
OH
51.
19–01–2014
(II)
(I) (1) (2) (3) (4) 56.
I I I I
< < < <
(III)
(IV)
IV < II < III IV < III < II III < II < IV III < IV < II
H, C, O N 1 : 3 : 4 : 7 :(1) HC3O4N7 (3) HC4O2N 2
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(2) H4CON2
(4) 01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
57.
Which is correctly matched :Compound (1) (2) (3) (4)
58.
59.
60.
No. of pp 3 1 2 0
SO3 SO2 XeO3 POCl3
57. No. of dp 0 0 1 1
200 mL gas A at 300 torr and 300 mL gas B at 200 torr are taken in a container of 2L. Then find out partial pressure of gas A in mixture. (1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr (3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr If degree of ionisation of 0.001 M CH3 COOH is 2 × 10 –2 %. Then find out the ionisation constant of acetate ion :(2) 4 × 10–11 (1) 2 × 10–11 (3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3 Which of the following compounds is most basic ? (1)
–NH2
(3)
–CH2 NH2
(2) O2N–
Compound (1) (2) (3) (4) 58.
59.
60.
••
(4)
–N–COCH3
The energy of the electron in the first orbit of He + is –871.6 × 10 –20 J. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen would be:(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J (3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J Which correctly matched :Facts Reason (1) Aq. solution of Ka of H3BO3 < 10–7 Borax is alkaline
(2) In recovery of NH3
N H 4 generate NH3
from NH4Cl in solvay in acidic medium process, acidic due to acid base medium is required reaction (3) SnCl4 can be reduced Due to inert pair by Cr2(SO4)3 effect, SnCl2 is more stable than SnCl4 (4) AlCl3 can form non In dimer form of planar dimer AlCl3, hybridisation of Al = sp2 01CM213077
SO3 SO2 XeO3 POCl3
No. of pp 3 1 2 0
No. of dp 0 0 1 1
2 L 300 torr 200 mL A 200 torr A 300 mL B
(1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr (3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr 0.001 M CH 3 COOH 2 × 10–2 % :(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11 (3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3 ? (1)
–NH2
(3)
–CH2 NH2
(2) O2N–
–NH2
–NH2 ••
(4)
–N–COCH3 H
H
62.
:-
••
••
61.
19–01–2014
61.
He+ –871.6 × 10–20 J
:
62.
(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J
(2) –435.8 × 10–20 J
(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J :
(4) –108.9 × 10–20 J
(1) Borax
H3BO3Ka < 10–7
(2) solvay NH4Cl
N H 4
NH3 NH3 (3) SnCl4 Cr2(SO4)3 SnCl2, SnCl4 (4) AlCl3 AlCl3 Al 2 = sp
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 11/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
Rate of diffusion of NH3 is double of X2 gas. Then find out molecular weight of X2 gas. (1) 68 (2) 17 (3) 34 (4) 136 A buffer solution with pH = 9 is to be prepared by mixing NH4 Cl and NH4OH. Calculate the number of moles of NH4Cl that should be added to one litre of 1.0 M NH4OH [Kb = 1.8 × 10–5] (1) 3.4 (2) 2.6 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.8 Among the following four compounds :(a) phenol (b) methyl phenol (c) metanitrophenol (d) paranitrophenol, The acidity order is : (1) c > d > a > b (2) c > d > c > b (3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at :-
63.
64.
65.
66.
19–01–2014
NH3 X2 X2 (1) 68 (2) 17 (3) 34 (4) 136 NH4Cl NH4OH pH = 9 1.0 M NH4OH NH4Cl [Kb = 1.8 × 10–5 ] (1) 3.4 (2) 2.6 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.8 :(a) (b) (c) (d) , : (1) c > d > a > b (2) a > d > c > b (3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b
:
(1)
5R cm 1 36
(2)
3R cm 1 4
(1)
5R cm 1 36
(2)
3R cm 1 4
(3)
7R cm 1 144
(4)
9R cm 1 400
(3)
7R cm 1 144
(4)
9R cm 1 400
Which is correct order :(1) Cl2 < F 2 < Br2 < I2 (Bond length) (2) F2 > Cl 2 > I2 > Br2 (Oxidising power) (3) F > Cl > Br > I (Electron affinity) (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (acidic order) A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.5% Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe in this compound ? [Atomic weight of Xe = 132] (1) –4 (2) 0 (3) +4 (4) +6 Which of the following are tertiary radicals :–
CH3 (a) CH3 C
67.
68.
:-
(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 ( ) ) (2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 ( (3) F > Cl > Br > I ( ) ) (4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI ( Xe F 53.5% Xe Xe
[Xe = 132]
(1) –4 (3) +4 69.
(2) 0 (4) +6 (3°)
CH3 (b) CH3 CH
(a) CH3 C
(b) CH3 CH
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
(c) CH 3 C C2H5
(d) CH3 C CH2
(c) CH 3 C C2H5
CH3
(1) a and b (3) a and c
(2) b and c (4) b and d
(d) CH3 C CH2 CH3
(1) a b (3) a c
(2) b c (4) b d
H - 12/32
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
C
70.
CH
Hydration of
C
in presence of
COCH3
CH2CH2OH
73.
(2)
CH2CHO
CH2CH3
(4)
Out of first four ordits of H-atom. The radius ratio of two orbits is 1: 4. The difference of energy of these orbits will be :(1) 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV (2) 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV (3) 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV (4) 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV Which statement is correct :(1) Na + Liq NH3 can act as reducing agent (2) KO2 can oxidise CO2 into O2 (3) Both Li3N & Mg3N2 can exist (4) All Which of the following oxides cannot work as a reducing agent? (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) ClO2 (1) CO2
71.
(4)
H- 1 : 4 : (1) 12.09 eV 3.4 eV (2) 13.6 eV 3.4 eV (3) 2.55 eV 10.2 eV
72.
73.
(4) 3.4 eV 0.85 eV :(1) Na + Liq NH3 (2) KO2, CO2, O2 (3) Li3N Mg3N2 (4)
(1) CO2
C=O is :-
The IUPAC name for
76.
(1) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentanal (2) 2–Formyl–1–hydroxy cyclopentane (3) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde (4) Cyclopentane–2–ol–1–al The major product obtained on treatment of – CH3 CH2 CH(F)CH3 with CH3O /CH3OH is (1) CH3 CH2CH(OCH3)CH3 (2) CH3 CH CHCH3 (3) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 (4) CH3CH 2 CH2 CH2 OCH3 The no. of C-C links in fullerine is x. Then total C in fullerine is :-
(2) NO2
(3) SO2
(4) ClO2
H C=O IUPAC
74.
OH
OH
75.
CH2CHO
(3)
H
74.
CH2CH2OH
(1)
CH2CH3
(3)
72.
COCH3
(2)
(1)
H2SO4 / HgSO4
H2 SO4 / HgSO4 gives
71.
CH
70.
19–01–2014
75.
(1) 2– (2) 2– –1– (3) 2– (4) –2– –1– – CH 3CH 2CH(F)CH 3 CH 3 O /CH 3 OH
76.
(1) CH3 CH2CH(OCH3)CH3 (2) CH3 CH CHCH3 (3) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 (4) CH3CH 2 CH2 CH2 OCH3 fullerine C-C links x fullerine C :-
(1)
2x 3
(2)
5 x 6
(1)
2x 3
(2)
5 x 6
(3)
6 x 5
(4)
x 3
(3)
6 x 5
(4)
x 3
01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 13/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
Which of the following compounds can not exist? (a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6 Correct code is :(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d For the process H2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamic parameters is : (1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve (3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-
Br Cl CHO (1) (2R, 4Z)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal (2) (2R, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal (3) (2Z, 5R)-3-bromo-5-chloro-5-formyl-2-hexene (4) (2S, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually :(1) Stop water cycle (2) Prevent precipitation (3) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants (4) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water plants Which statement is correct :(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP = Ionisation potential EA = electron affinitiy] + (2) Conduction of H < Conduction of Li+ (3) IP of F– > IP of Cl– (4) All H2 can't be prepared using :(1) H2O
77.
78.
79.
(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve (3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve IUPAC :
80.
Cl CHO (1) (2R, 4Z)-4- -2- -2- -4- (2) (2R, 4E)-4- -2- -2- -4- (3) (2Z, 5R)-3- -5- -5- -2- (4) (2S, 4E)-4- -2- -2- -4- :Br
(1) (2)
(3)
(4) 81.
82.
: (1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP = EA = ] + + (2) H < Li (3) IP of F– > IP of Cl– (4) H2 :(1) H2O
(2) Zn
Ba(OH)2 solution + Ni– electrode dil.H2SO4 (2) Zn
Conc.HNO3 (3) Zn
Conc.HNO3 (3) Zn
H - 14/32
(4) a, c, d
electrolysis Ba(OH)2 solution + Ni– electrode dil.H2SO4
The species which by definition has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is (1) Br2(g) (2) Cl2 (g) (4) CH4 (g) (3) H2O (g) The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show metamerism :– (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
(d) SCl6
H2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K),
electrolysis
electrolysis
84.
? (a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 : (1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d
(4) NaCl aq. solution Hg Cathode
(4) NaCl aq. solution HgCathode 83.
19–01–2014
83.
(1) Br2(g) (3) H2O (g)
84.
(2) Cl2 (g) (4) CH4 (g)
:–
(1) 3
(2) 4
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(3) 5
(4) 6 01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
85.
86.
An increase in CO 2 concentration in the atmosphere will result in :(1) Adverse effect of natural vegetation (2) Global warming (3) Temperature decrease in global atmosphere (4) Genetic disorders in plants and animals If A is tetravalent atom & form AB 4, then compound will have zero dipole moment if :1
6
88.
89.
1
2 4
3 A
5
87.
CO2 :(1) (2) (3) (4) 86. 'A' AB4 , zero :dipole moment 85.
2 4
Cube
19–01–2014
Body centre 8
A
5 7
6
(a) All B are placed at 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) B are placed at 2, 4, 6, 8 (c) B are placed at 1, 3, 6, 8 (d) B are placed at 1, 3, 7, 5 Correct Code is :(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d (3) b, d (4) a, c Which of the following can perform redox reaction with water :(1) Li Metal (2) Na metal (4) All (3) F2 Standard enthalpies of formation of O 3 , CO2, NH3 and Hl are 142.2, –393.2, –46.2 and 25.9 kJ mol–1 respectively. The order of their increasing stabilities will be : (1) O3 , CO2 , NH3 , HI (2) CO2 , NH3, HI, O3 (3) O3, HI, NH3 , CO2 (4) NH3 , HI, CO2, O3 Which of the following is optically active :-
OH
3 Body centre 8
Cube
7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
87.
88.
All B are placed at 1, 2, 3, 4 B are placed at 2, 4, 6, 8 B are placed at 1, 3, 6, 8 B are placed at 1, 3, 7, 5 :(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d (3) b, d (4) a, c Redox :(1) Li Metal (2) Na metal (4) (3) F2 O3 , CO2, NH3 Hl
142.2, –393.2, –46.2 25.9 kJ mol–1
89.
(1) O3 , CO2 , NH3 , HI
(2) CO2 , NH3, HI, O3
(3) O3, HI, NH3 , CO2
(4) NH3 , HI, CO2, O3
:-
OH
OH
OH
CH3 (1)
OH OH (3) 90.
CH3
(2)
(1)
01CM213077
OH OH
CH3
(4)
Acid rain occure due to atmospheric pollution of (2) NH3 (3) CO2 (4) N2 O (1) SO2
(2)
CH3
(3) 90.
(4)
(1) SO2
(2) NH3
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
(3) CO2
(4) N2 O H - 15/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
91.
Read the following statements :-
91.
(A) They are immotile, they float on the surface of water, with the help of low molecular weight stored fats.
(A) (B) (1) ,
(A) and (B) statement are related with which option respectively ? (1) Dinoflagellates, Virus
(2) ,
(2) Diatoms, Bacteria
(3) ,
(3) Virus, Diatoms
(4) ,
(4) Diatoms, Virus Sexual reproduction oogamous type and accompaned by complex post fertilization development can be observed in-
92.
(1) Chorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae (3) Xanthophyceae (4) Rhodophyceae 93.
94.
The digestive tract of Doliolum & Salpa can be represented as :-
93.
(1) (2) (3) (4) :-
(1) Incomplete type
(1)
(2) Tube within a tube
(2)
(3) Blind sac
(3)
(4) Pseudocoel type
(4)
Identify true statements :
94.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) A, C D (2) A, B D (3) B D (4) A D
95.
? (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) Cnidarians have blind-sac body plan (B) Digestion in Ctenophora is both intra as well as extracellular (C) Agnathans are endoparasite in fishes. (D) Ichthyophis belongs to tetrapoda group
95.
(A)
(B)
(B) They enter in to host cells and capture its all metabolic activities.
92.
19–01–2014
(1) A, C and D
(2) A, B and D
(3) B and D
(4) A and D
Which of the following family belongs to subclass gamopetalae ? (1) Brassicaceae
(2) Malvaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Leguminosae
H - 16/32
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
96.
The four sketches (A, B, C and D ) given below, represent four different types of cells. Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given, along with its correct shape and character :-
(A, B, C D ) :-
96.
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
Cell
Shape
Character
(C)
Nerve cell
Branched and long
Chloroplast present
1.
(C)
2.
(A)
Red blood cell
Round and Biconcave
Cell membrane absent
2.
(A)
3.
(D)
Sieve tube cell
Elongated
Chromoplast present
3.
(D)
4.
(B)
White blood cells
Amoeboid
Ribosome present
4.
(B)
98.
99.
The both strands of DNA run in opposite direction, and they are called :(1) Parallel (2) Semi conservative (3) Conservative (4) Anti parallel In biological nitrogen fixation, the ammonia synthesis by nitrogenase enzyme requires a very high input of energy and that is :(1) 16 ATP for each NH3 produced (2) 32 ATP for each NH3 produced (3) 8 ATP for each NH3 produced (4) 4 ATP for each NH3 produced Which of the following are correctly matched ? (A) Ethylene – Thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut (B) ABA – Antagonist to Gibberellic acids (C) Cytokinin – Speed up the malting process in brewing industry (D) Auxins – Prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages Choose the correct option : (1) (A), (B) and (D) (2) (A) and (B) (3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (C) and (D)
01CM213077
97.
98.
99.
1.
97.
19–01–2014
DNA :(1) (2) (3) (4)
:NH3 16 ATP (1) (2) NH3 32 ATP (3) NH3 8 ATP (4) NH3 4 ATP ? (A) – (B) – (C) – (D) – : (1) (A), (B) (D) (2) (A) (B) (3) (B), (C) (D) (4) (C) (D)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 17/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
100. In human being, the second cervical vertebral helps in rotatory movements of head through knob-like process called :(1) Metapophysis (2) Prezygapophysis (3) Postzygapophysis (4) Odontoid process 101. Agar-Agar, which is used in culture media due to its high capacity of water imbibition is obtained from :(1) Laminaria
(2) Porphyra
(3) Chondrus (4) Gelidium 102. In which of the following group there is no independent free living existance of gametophyte? (1) Thallophyta (2) Pteridophyta (3) Bryophyta (4) Gymnosperm 103. Given diagram below is the body organisation of animal, select the correct animal
(1) Lancelet (2) Neophron (3) Taenia (4) Physalia 104. In dicot root cork cambium develops in the (1) Pith region (2) Cortical region (3) Epidermal region (4) Stelar region 105. Carpophore is found in :(1) Castor (2) Coriander (3) Gram (4) Pea 106. Read the following statements :(i) Presence of DNA (ii) Presence of cristae (iii) Ribosome (iv) Enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis (v) Site for oxidative phosphorylation How many of the above statements are similar in mitochondria and chloroplast ? (1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three H - 18/32
19–01–2014
100.
? (1) (2) (3) (4) 101. ? (1)
(3)
(4) (2)
102.
(1) (2) (3) (4) 103. :-
(1) (3)
(4) (2)
104. ( )
(1) () (2) (3) (4) 105. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 106. :(i) DNA (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
107. In the structure of DNA molecule at each step of ascent, the strand turns :(1) 36º (2) 20º (3) 40º (4) 75º 108. In flowering plants, photosynthesis is essentially a light dependent reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable oxidisable compound reduces carbon dioxide to carbohydrates, this oxidisable compound is (2) H2S (1) H2O (3) H2O or H2S (4) C6H12O6 109. What is the characteristic of metanephric kidney :(1) Hypotonic urine production (2) Excess secretion of uric acid (3) Loop of Henle (4) Hormone production 110. Which statement is wrong ? (1) Postzygapophysis is present in ATLAS (2) Coronoid fossa is found in humerus (3) Centrum is absent in ATLAS (4) Prezygapophysis is absent in 2nd cervical vertebrae 111. Which structure is formed in the life cycle of moss between spore and main plant ? (1) Prothallus
(2) Spore mother cell
(3) Protonema (4) Embryo 112. Choose the incorrect statement about Phycomycetes(1) Some members are found in aquatic habitats. (2) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium. (3) A zygospores is formed by reduction division. (4) They show all type of syngamy. 113. During the embryonic development, coelom is formed by splitting of mesodermal plate. This type of coelom is found in (1) Pila
(2) Antedon
(3) Hookworm (4) All of the above 114. The cells of phelloderm (secondary cortex) are (1) Collenchymatous (2) Sclerenchymatous (3) Parenchymatous (4) Meristematic
19–01–2014
107. DNA :(1) 36º (2) 20º (3) 40º (4) 75º
108.
(1) H2O (3) H2O H2S
(2) H2S (4) C6H12O6 109. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 110. ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
111. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 112.
(1)
(2) (3) (4)
113.
:(1) (2) (3) (4) 114. () (1) ( ) (2) ( ) (3) ( ) (4)
01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 19/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
115. Which set's member have same edible part ? (1) Pear & Apple (2) Grape & Coconut 116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
(3) Litchi & Apple (4) Coconut & Apple Which events is not related with meiosis I :(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes (2) Crossing over between non sister chromatids (3) Seperation of sister chromatids (4) Condensation of chromatin In full turn of B-DNA , How many steps are present (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5 Radioisotopic technique was used to establish some facts regarding : (1) light reaction of photosynthesis (2) biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis (3) both (1) and (2) (4) neither light reaction nor biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis Which one of following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephorn :(1) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerulus toward renal vein (2) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration blood into the Bowman's capsule (3) Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major substance from the glomerular filtrate (4) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries Consider the following statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones:(a) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Alveolar air are 104 mmHg and 40 mm Hg (b) Partial pressures of O 2 and CO 2 in deoxygenated blood are 40 mmHg and 45 mm Hg respectively (c) Partial pressures of O 2 and CO 2 in deoxygenated blood are 95 mmHg and 40 mm Hg (d) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Atmospheric air are 40 mmHg and 46 mm Hg Options : (1) Statements a,b and c are correct (2) Statements a,b,c and d are correct (3) Statements a, b are correct (4) Staements c and d are correct
H - 20/32
19–01–2014
115. ? (1) (2) (3)
(4) 116. -I :(1) (2) (3) (4) 117. B-DNA (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5 118. : (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4)
119. :- (1) :
(2) : ( ) (3) : (4) : K+ 120. :(a) O2 CO2 104 mmHg 40 mm Hg (b) O 2 CO 2 40 mmHg 45 mmHg (c) O 2 CO 2 95 mmHg 40 mm Hg CO 2 (d) O 2 40 mm Hg 46 mmHg : (1) a,b c (2) a,b,c d (3) a b (4) c d
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
19–01–2014
:121.
121. Choose the correct match :-
-
(1) Gonyaulax - Water bloom
(1)
(2) Algin - obtained by red algae
(2) -
(3) Carrageen - obtained by green algae
(3) -
(4) Dinoflagellates - Chief producers in oceans
(4) -
122. Mad cow disease (Bovine spongiform encephalopathy), potato spindle tuber disease, Aster yellow disease of sun flower and tungro disease of rice are respectively, caused by :(1) Prions, Virus, Mycoplasma, Viroids (2) Viroids, Prions, Mycoplasma, Virus (3) Virus, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Prions (4) Prions, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Virus 123. In the above given diagram match the coelomic condition with respective animals :-
(A)
(B)
(1) (A) Pteropus (B) Planaria (C) Hookworm (2) (A) Liver Fluke (B) Macaca (C) Wuchereria (3) (A) Ascaris (B) Fasciola (C) Corvus (4) (A) Hyla (B) Ancylostomata (C) Taenia 124. Lenticels are formed by the activity of (1) Vascular cambium (2) Cork cambium (3) Both vascular & cork cambium 01CM213077
(1) , , , (2) , , (3) , , , (4) , , ,
123. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(4) None of these
122. ( ), , :
(1) (A) (B) (C) (2) (A) (B) (C) (3) (A) (B) (C) (4) (A) (B) (C)
124. (1) ( ) (2) ( ) (3) (4)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 21/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
125. Which pair is not incorrect ?
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
19–01–2014
? 125.
(1) Leaf tendril – Opuntia
(1) –
(2) Leaf bladder – Nepenthes
(2) –
(3) Leaf pitcher – Nepenthes
(3) –
(4) Leaf spine – Sweet pea During gamet formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during :(1) Prophase II (2) Anaphase I (3) Anaphase II (4) Prophase I In full turn of B-DNA, How many N2-bases are present (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5 Except for plants in shade or in dense forests, light is rarely a limiting factor in nature. This statement is supported by which of the following facts ? (1) Light causes the excitation of chlorophyll (2) Light causes the splitting of water (3) Light saturation occurs at 10 percent of the full sunlight (4) Light causes the breakdown of chlorophyll at low light intensity Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of correctly matched (1) Oxyntic cells - A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0 (2) Alpha cells of islets - Secretion that of Langerhans decreases blood sugar level (3) Kupffer cells - A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids (4) Sebaceous glands - A secretion that evaporates for cooling Read the following statements :(A) Relaxation of diaphragm and inter costal muscles. (B) Increase in the volume of thoracic chamber (C) Lifts up the ribs and the sternum (D) Intra pulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure. (E) Increase the pulmonary volume. How many statements are correct about expiration :(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
(4) –
H - 22/32
126. :II (2) I (1) (4) I (3) II
127. B-DNA N2
(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 5
128.
? (1) (2) (3) 10 (4) 129. (1) - 2.0 3.0 pH (2) - (3) - (4) - 130. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (Expiration) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
19–01–2014
131. Which bacteria is responsible for wine turn sour :(1) Clostridium butylicum (2) E.coli (3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Acetobacter aceti
131. :-
132. Cross section of animal body is given below.
132.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Which one of the following creature will satisfy the above cross section :-
(1) Planaria
(2) Pleurobrachia
(1)
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Nereis
(3)
133. Creatures with single opening serving both as mouth and anus is found in :(1) Coelenterates & Aschelminthes (2) Platyhelminthes & Ctenophora (3) Coelenterate & Porifera (4) All of the above 134. Vascular cambium of dicot root originates from (1) Tissue located just below the phloem bundles & a portion of pericycle tissue. (2) Tissue located just below the xylem bundles & a portion of pericycle tissue. (3) Tissue located just below the xylem bundles & a portion of endodermis tissue. (4) Tissue located just below the phloem bundles & a portion of endodermis tissue. 135. How many of the given statements are correct for earth worm (A) The dorsal surface of the body is marked by a dark median mid dorsal line (dorsal blood vessel) (B) The first body segment is called prostomium (C) Calciferous glands, present in the stomach neutralise the humic acid present in humus
(2) (4)
133. : (1)
(2) (3) (4)
134. ( )
(1)
(2) (3) (4) 135. (A) ( )
(B) (prostomium)
(C)
(D) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th
(D) 4th, 5th 6th
(1) Four
(2) Three
(1)
(2)
(3) Two
(4) One
(3)
(4)
01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 23/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
136. Which one of the following does not have nuclear membrane :(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Azolla (3) Rhizobium (4) Amoeba 137. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diffusion ? (1) It is the only means for gaseous movement within the plant body (2) It is a slow process and is not dependent on a living system (3) In diffusion, molecules move in a random fashion with the help of energy expenditure (4) In diffusion, substances moving from regions of higher concentration to regions of lower concentration 138. If the energy released by respiratory substrate is to be useful to the cell, it should be able to utilise it to synthesise other molecules that the cell requires. Which of the following strategies will be helpful to achieve this goal ? (1) Oxidise the respiratory substrate only in the absence of O2 (2) Oxidise respiratory substrate not in one step but in several small steps (3) Utilise only glucose as a respiratory substrate (4) Oxidise the respiratory substrate only in the cytoplasm 139. Amount of saliva secreted daily in humans is :(1) 250 ml (2) 500 ml (3) 100 ml (4) 1000 ml–1200 ml 140. Which of the following structure receives and integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs :(1) Cerebellum (2) Pons (3) Mid brain (4) Medulla 141. Read the following statement carefully (A) Gymnosperms are exclusively heterosporous. (B) All Pteridophyte's sporophytes are may be monoecious or dioecious. (C) Double fertilization is character of spermatophytes. (D) Spermatophytes are completely successful land plant. Which of the above statements are incorrect ? (1) A, B, C (2) A, D (3) B, C H - 24/32
(4) B, C, D
19–01–2014
136. :(1) (2) (3) (4)
137.
? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
138. ? (1) O2 (2) (3) (4) 139. :(1) 250 ml (3) 100 ml
(2) 500 ml (4) 1000 ml–1200 ml
140. :(1) (3)
(2) (4)
141.
(A)
(B) (C) (D) (1) A, B, C
(2) A, D
(3) B, C
(4) B, C, D
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
142. Animals possess various type of symmetry, select the incorrectly matched :-
145.
146.
147.
148.
142.
:-
(1) Echinodermates possess radial symmetry
(1)
(2) Arthropods possess bilateral symmetry
(2)
(3) Sponges are mostly symmetrical
(3)
(4) All of these
(4)
143. Closed blood vascular system found in :-
144.
19–01–2014
(1) Bombyx (2) Sepia (3) Balanoglossus (4) Ascidia The cells of the tunica layer divide in :(1) Periclinal plane (2) Anticlinal plane (3) All planes (4) None of the above On an average, female cockroach produce ______ oothecae, each ootheca containing______eggs. (1) 2–20, 4 (2) 9–10, 14–16 (3) 1–10, 2 (4) 14–16, 9–10 The monomer units of chitin or fungal cellulose is (1) Mannitol (2) N-Acetyl glucosamine (3) Ascorbic acid (4) Glucuronic acid The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore or stomatal aperture, is : (1) thick and nonelastic (2) thick and elastic (3) thin and elastic (4) thin and nonelastic In aerobic respiration when pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl CoA :(1) both pyruvic acid and NAD+ get oxidised
143. :(1) (2) (3)
(4)
144. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 145. ______ ______ (1) 2–20, 4 (2) 9–10, 14–16
(3) 1–10, 2 (4) 14–16, 9–10 146. :(1) (2) N- (3)
(4)
147. : (1) (2) (3) (4) 148. CoA :(1) NAD+
(2) both pyruvic acid and NAD+ get reduced
(2) NAD+
(3) pyruvic acid get reduced and NAD + get oxidised
(3) NAD+
+
(4) pyruvic acid get oxidised and NAD get reduced 149. Kupffer cells are same in function to (1) Dust cells (2) Deiter cells (3) Quartz cells (4) Hensen's cells 01CM213077
(4) NAD+ 149. (1) (2) (3) (4)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 25/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
150. Read the following statements :- (A-D) (A) The medulla contains centres, which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions. (B) The organ of corti is a structure which contains hair cells that act as auditory receptors and is located on the basilar membrane. (C) Inner ear also contains a complex system located above the cochlea called vestibular apparatus. (D) The cerebellum integrates information received from the semicircular canals of the ear and the auditory system. How many of the above statements are true :(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2 151. In the five kingdom classification, which kingdom occupies intermediate position from phylogenetic point of view ? (1) Monera (2) Mycota (3) Plantae (4) Protista 152. The phyla showing radial symmetry :-
19–01–2014
:- (A-D) 150.
(A)
(B) (C) (D) :(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2
151.
? (1) (3)
(2) (4)
152. :-
(1) Echinodermata, Coelenterata and Ctenophora
(1)
(2) Porifera, Coelenterata an Echinodermata
(2)
(3) Protozoa and Coelenterata, Ctenophora
(3)
(4) Coelenterata, Ctenophora and Annelida
(4)
153. The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called round worms, having numerous distinguishiable character, but which of the following can not be considered as their character?
153.
(1) These are pseudocoelomate animals
(1)
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical
(2)
(3) Organ system level of body organisation
(3)
(4) Round worms are monoecious.
(4)
154. The meristematic tissue present near the nodes is
154.
(1) Apical meristem
(1)
(2) Primary meristem
(2)
(3) Lateral meristem
(3)
(4) Secondary meristem
(4)
Time Management is Life Management H - 26/32
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
155. A few statements are made about the characteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Mark the correct statement :(1) All porokaryotes lack nuclear envelope but nuclear envelope is present in mitochondria of eukaryotes. (2) All eukaryotes have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane but cell wall is absent in mycoplasma. (3) All eukaryotic cells are identical but all prokaryotic cells are not identical. (4) Most of eukaryotic chromosomes are associated with histone protein but the genome of chloroplast lack histones 156. Arachidonic acid is :(1) Non–essential fatty acid (NEFA) (2) Polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) (3) Essential fatty acid (4) (2) & (3) both 157. Which of the following is/are pre-requisite (s) for imbibition ? (a) Presence of mucilage in the adsorbent (b) Affinity between the adsorbent and the liquid (c) Water potential gradient between the adsorbent and the liquid (d) Presence of cuticle on the surface of the adsorbent Choose the correct option : (1) (b) and (c) (2) only (b) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d) 158. Which of the following ratio is correct regarding dehydrogenation : decarboxylation : substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle ? (1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 1 159. The course of blood from heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called :(1) Systemic circulation (2) Pulmonary Circulation (3) Blood circulation (4) Single circuit circulation 160. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly :(1) Sex pheromone – civetone (2) Aggregation pheromone – muskone (3) Alarm pheromone – formic acid (4) First aid hormone – kinins 01CM213077
19–01–2014
155.
:(1) (2) (3) (4) 156. :- (1) (NEFA) (2) (PUFA) (3) (4) (2) (3) 157. ? (a) (b) (c) (d) : (1) (b) (c) (2) (b) (3) (a), (b) (c) (4) (a) (d) 158. : : ? (1) 1 : 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 3 : 1
(2) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 1
159. : (1) (2) (3) (4) 160. :(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) –
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 27/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
161. Read the following statement (A) Inclusion bodies which are found in prokaryotic cells are not bounded by any membrane system. (B) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. (C) Pili are surface structure of the bacteria which may be play role in motility. (D) Cell membrane of prokaryotes is structurally similar to the eukaryotes. Choose the option of correct statements :(1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C and D (3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D 162. Consider the following statements: Aurelia typically has A. A radially symmetrical body
19–01–2014
161. (A)
(B) (C) (D) (1) A, B, C D (2) B, C D (3) A, B D (4) A, C D 162. A.
B. A gastovascular body
B.
C. Both a polyp and medusoid form.
C.
(1) A, B and C are correct
(1) A, B C
(2) B and C are correct
(2) B C
(3) A and B are correct
B (3) A (4) A C
(4) A and C are correct 163. Which of the following statements is wrong ? (1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid (2) The bone cells are present in the lacunae (3) Communication junctions are present in cardiac muscles (4) Bone has pliable ground substance 164. Pulvinate leaf base & root nodules are found in:(1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Fabaceae (4) Brassicaceae 165. In a given diagram of cell membrane, which letter represents a molecule of integral protein, cholesterol, and sugar respectively :R
(1) P,Q,R (3) Q,R,P H - 28/32
(1) (2)
(3)
(4) 164. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 165.
:R
Q
P
163.
Q
P
S
P (2) R,P,S (4) S,P,R
(1) P,Q,R (3) Q,R,P
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
P
S (2) R,P,S (4) S,P,R 01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
166. How many types of pyrimidine N2 bases may present in a nucleic acid :(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1
167. Which of the following is wrong statement ?
19–01–2014
166. N2
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1
167. ?
(1) Potassium is involved in the maintenance of the turgidity of cells
(1)
(2) Nitrogen accumulates in older leaves and is one of the major constituents of proteins and nucleic acids
(2)
(3) Chlorine is essential for the water splitting reaction in photosynthesis (4) Copper is involved in redox reactions and is reversibly oxidised from Cu+ to Cu+2 168. Which of the following plant growth regulators, is derivative of accessory photosynthetic pigments ? (1) Abscisic acid (2) Gibbesellic acid (3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) Ethylene 169. The main difference in the structure of arteries and veins is :-
(3)
(4)
Cu+ Cu+2 168. ? (1) (2) (3) -3- (4) 169. :(1) -
(1) Tunica interna - made up of simple squamous epithelium
(2) -
(2) Tunica media is less developed in veins
(3) -
(3) Tunica externa is less developed in veins
(4) -
(4) Tunica externa is well develope in arteries 170. In which of the following defect of eye, a watery liquid oozes out from eyes in excess amount so eyes become red due to irritation – (1) Astigmatism
(2) Cataract
(3) Trachoma
(4) Night blindness
171. Which statement is correct about Pteridophyte ? (1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte
– (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
171.
(1)
is parasite. (2) Sporophyte is semiparasite and gametophyte is
(2)
autotrophic (3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually autotrophic. (4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while gametophyte is parasitic. 01CM213077
170.
(3)
(4)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 29/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
172. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom, which of the following features have evolved for the first time in phylum Aschelminthes ?
19–01–2014
172.
A. Metameric segmentation
A.
B. organ level of organisation
B.
C. Closed circulatory system
C.
D. Tube within a tube plan E. Bilateral symmetry Select the correct answer -
D. E.
(1) B and D
(1) B D
(2) A, B, C
(2) A, B, C (3) E
(3) Only E (4) Only D 173. Which one of the statements is incorrect ? (1) Factors for blood clotting present in blood plasma found in an inactive form (2) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum (3) Basophils are involved in inflammatory reactions (4) Neutrophil are the most and eosinophils are the least among leucocytes 174. Swollen placenta & oblique septum is found in family :(1) Asteraceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Fabaceae (4) Solanaceae 175. Which of the following is not correctly matched :(A) Formation of cell – Golgi body plate (B) Catalase enzyme – SER
(4) D
173.
(1)
(2) (3) (4) 174. :(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
175. :(A) – (B)
(C) Connect cytoplasm – Plasmodesmata
(C)
of adjacent animal cells (D) Cytochrome p450 – SER (E) Anthocyanine – Chromoplast
(D) (E)
pigment (F) Protein factory of cell
– Nucleolus
(F)
– SER – p450 – SER – –
(1) B, D, E, F
(2) C, D, E, A
(1) B, D, E, F
(2) C, D, E, A
(3) E, C, B, A
(4) F, E, C, B
(3) E, C, B, A
(4) F, E, C, B
176. Position of nitrogen in purine N2 bases are :(1) 1, 3, 5, 7
(2) 1, 5, 7, 9
(3) 1, 3, 6, 7
(4) 1, 3, 7, 9
H - 30/32
176. N2 (1) 1, 3, 5, 7
(2) 1, 5, 7, 9
(3) 1, 3, 6, 7
(4) 1, 3, 7, 9
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
177. Which of the following symptoms is/are caused by the deficiency of potassium ? (1) Chlorosis (loss of chlorophyll) (2) Necrosis (death of tissue) (3) Inhibition of cell division (4) All of the above 178. Which of the following events in plants is/are affected by interaction of more than one PGR ? (1) Apical dominance (2) Abscission and senescence (3) Dormancy in seeds/buds (4) All of the above 179. Our heart consists of :i. Epithelial tissue iii. Muscular tissue (1) Only iii (3) ii, iii & iv only
ii. Connective tissue iv. Neural tissue (2) i & ii only (4) All of these
180. Which of the following is not the function of parasympathetic nervous system :-
19–01–2014
177. ? ( ) (1) (2) ( ) (3) (4) 178. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 179. :i. ii. iii. iv. (1) iii (2) i ii (3) ii, iii iv (4)
180. :
(1) Constricts pupils
(1)
(2) Inhibits secretion of lachrymal glands
(2)
(3) Stimulates contraction of arrector pilli muscles
(3)
(4) Erection of penis
(4)
Your moral duty is to prove that is
01CM213077
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
H - 31/32
MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
19–01–2014
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
H - 32/32
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
01CM213077