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PHARMACY PREP FINAL TEST 1 1-. A person seeking information information about his GERD condition treatment and he describes that he is currently on medication for his constipation condition. Which of the following antacid, is suitable for his GERD condition. cond ition. I.Magnesium hydroxide II.Aluminum hydroxide III.Calcium carbonate A.I only B.III only C.I and II only D.II and III only E. All of the above 2- Calcium, one of the most abundant metal in the body suffers reabsorption in which  part of the kidney? a) Proximal Tubules  b) Distal tubules c) Collecting tubules d) Nefrons e) Glomerulus 3- Treatment for CNS toxicity associated with anticholinergic a nticholinergic poisoning A. Atropine B.Neostigmine C.Pyridostigmine C.Pyridostigmine D.Edrophonium E. Physostigmine 4- Which of the following cytochrome is the most abundant in the body? a) 3A4  b) 3A2 c) 2A6 d) 2C6 e) 1A4 5- Hoshimoto disease is the most common form of chronic thyroiditis. It most often occurs in middle aged woman and most patient show evidence of: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Thyroid carcinoma D. Malignant hyperthyroidism E.Malignant hypothryroidism

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6- 20. Safe antiemetic drug used in morning sickness? A. Scopolamine B.Diphenhydramine. C.Meclizine D.Promethazine E. Dimenhydrinate 7- Unsafe food is the common cause of travelers diarrhea, what kind of food considered safe food during traveling? I.Peeled fruits II.Carbonated beverages with no ice cubes III.Fresh soft cheese A.I only B.III only C.I and II only D.II and III only E. All of the above 8- Patients have diarrhea should avoid all of the following drug EXCEPT: A. Magnesium containing antacids B. H2 Receptor Antagonists C. Proton Pump Inhibitors D. Muscarinic antagonist E. β-blockers 9- Nowadays, we have a variety of medications used to treat diaper rash in babies. Treatment of uncomplicated diaper rash may include: I- Nystatin II- Zinc oxide III- White petroleum a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 10- Constipation is a common problem in elderly patient, treatment include the what type of following laxatives? I.Docusate sodium (emollient laxatives) II.Lactulose III.Glycerine suppositories A.. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above

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11- All are examples of drugs used for hypersensitivity allergic reactions EXCEPT: a) Diphenhydranate  b) Loratidine c) Cimetidine d) Hydroxyzine e) Promethazine 12- All of the following eye drops can be used in allergic ophthalmic disorders EXCEPT: a) Latanoprost  b) Hydrocortisone c) Dexamethasone d) Prednisone e) Cromolyn 13- Possibilities that should be considered in additive or multiple effects of aspirin therapy leading to impaired blood clotting and/or increased risk of bleeding may occurs if Salicylate are used concurrently with: a) Medication having significant potential to cause hypoprothrombinemia  b) Medication having significant potential to cause thrombocytopenia c) Medication having significant potential to cause gastrointestinal ulceration d) Medication having significant potential to cause hemorrhage e) All are correct answers. 14- Cholecystitis, normally characterized by edema and congestion to severe infection with gangrene and perforation is an inflammation of: I- Gallbladder II- Liver III- Heart a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 15- All of the following increase the risk of metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT a) Renal failure  b) Starvation c) Methanol toxicity d) Thiazides e) Carbonic anhydrase diuretics 16- All of the following may be examples of drugs that may be taken with food, EXCEPT: a) Celebicox

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 b) Indomethacin c) Acetaphinocen d) Chlaritromycin e) Sulcrafate 17- Safe antiemetic drug used in in morning sickness? A. Scopolamine B.Diphenhydramine. C.Meclizine D.Promethazine E. Dimenhydrinate 18- Antineoplastic immunosupressant agent having hemorrhagic cystitis as side effect, include: a) Cytarabine  b) Vincristine c) Tamoxifen d) Cyclophosphamide e) Stilbestrol 19- Poisoning symptoms symptoms such as Diarrhea, Urination, Urination, Miosis, Miosis, Bronchoconstriction, Salivation or sweating caused by antiacetylcholinesterases can be treated by: A.Pralidoxime (2-PAM) B.Atropine C.Physostigmine D.Neostigmine E.Donepezil 20- Characteristics of nephrotic syndrome may include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Protein urea  b) Hypoalbuminemia c) Edema d) Hyperalbuminemia e) Hyperlipidemia 21- Conditions that may be the result of long-term treatment with cortisone may include: I- Cushing syndrome II- Osteoporosis III- Addison’s disease a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 22- Which of the following agent is the most indicate to treat Athlete’s foot?

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a) Tolnaftate  b) Terbinefrine c) Fluconazole d) Bethamethasone e) Clotrimazole

23- Atropine blocks which of the following neurotransmitter A.Epinephrine B.Norepinephrine C.Acetylcholine D.Dopamine E.methyl dopa 24- Acetaminophen and aspirin may be therapeutically similar. Which of the following case(s) we can give acetaminophen instead of aspirin? I- Fever II- Headaches III- Blood thinner a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 25- Factors that my increase the risk of renal failure may include: a) Hemorrhage  b) Heart diseases c) Oliguria d) Pulmonary edema e) All are correct 26- Differences between H1 and H2 inhibitors may include: I- They have a very similar chemical structure II- H1 is involved in allergic reactions inhibition while H2 is involved in gastric acid inhibition III- Tertiary amine, alkyl chain, and aryl or heteroaryl groups are essential for activity of H1 and H2 antihistamines. a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 27- Excessive pressure known as pressure atrophy may be caused by: a) Gigantism b) Bed sores

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c) Postural hypotension d) Postural position e) All are wrong 28- All of the following may be side effects associated with corticosteroids treatment, EXCEPT: a) Hypoglycemia  b) Sketetal muscle weakness c) Sodium retention d) Peptic ulceration e) Lower resistance to infection 29.Drug of choice Gastroesophageal reflux disease symptoms relief (GERD) I.H2 antagonist II.Alginic acid III.Liquid antacids a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 30- The xanthine oxidase inhibitor allopurinol indicated in gout, which is the principle metabolite of allopurinol. A.Dextropurinol B.Oxipurinol C.Purineol D.Purine E.Thiolpurine 31- Local injection therapy for erectile deficiency may include which of the following agents? a) Sildenafil  b) Prazosin c) Yohimbine d) Alprostadil e) Finasteride 32- Which of the following agents may be classified as 5HT1 receptor antagonist used for the treatment of migraine? a) Propanolol b) Sumatriptam c) Indomethacin d) Amitriptiline e) Naproxen

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33- Which of the following statements is wrong regarding antifungal drugs? a) They essentially assist the host immune system with the fight against fungus.  b) In general, they are poorly soluble drugs. c) They can be classified against systemic or superficial fungal infection. d) Polyene antifungals work by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol. e) Azole antifungal work by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol. 34- What should be considered when selecting a drug for breast-feeding mother? a) Quantity of milk that the child receives daily  b) Inherent toxicity of the drug c) Rate and extent of drug passage into breast milk d) Basic drugs may diffuse more into breast milk than acid drugs e) All of the above are correct 35- Wrong statement regarding the use of etidronate may include which of the following? a) It is a biphosphonate  b) It is used to treat Paget’s disease c) It is used to treat hypercalcemia of malignancy d) Patient should not lie down for at least 30 minutes after the taken dose e) Can be taken before bed time. 36- Prophylactic treatment of osteoporosis in a menopause woman normally is done by the oral administration of which of the following agents? a) Estrogen only  b) Progesterone only c) Estrogen + progesterone d) Calcitrol e) Vitamin D 37- Antifungal agent that is not absorbed from the GI tract and therefore needs to be administrated only intravenously or topically: a) Fluconazole  b) Clotrimazole c) Amphotericin B d) Nystatin e) Itraconazole 38- Immunosupressant drug normally used as the drug of choice in the prevention of transplant rejection include: a) Cyclosporine  b) Neostigmine c) Vincristine d) Cytarabine e) Muromonab

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39- The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis may be best treated by administration of which of the following agents? a) Salbutamol  b) Diphenhydramine c) Adrenaline d) Acetazolamine e) Aminiphyline 40- Muscles are present all over the body. Biceps muscles are part of: I- Arm II- Thigh III- Rib cage a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 41- Bones are responsible for the support of human body. Ileum, ischium and pubis are skeletal structure of: a) Hip bones  b) Brain bones c) Shoulder bones d) Leg bones e) Arm bones 42- What is normally found in all connective tissues? a) Mucoids  b) Albuminoids c) Lipid d) Polysaccharides e) All of the above 43- Correct statements regarding the management of diabetes in Canada include: I- The fasting glucose in diagnosis is 7.8mmol/L II- Mass screening for type II diabetes is not n ot recommended III- Glycosylated hemoglobin should be measured every 6 months in people taking hypoglycemic agents a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 44- Bacturia and polyuria are normally characteristics of which of the following conditions?

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a) Gastrointestinal infections b) Urinary tract infections c) Respiratory tract infections d) Cardiovascular infections e) Ocular infections 45- Capsaicin, also known as Zostrix is an OTC medication with which of the following characteristics? I- It is a hot pepper extract II- Produce an analgesic effect after several doses III- Produce heat, a transient burning on application a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 46- Examples of drug used as antihelmintic, their side effect cause red urine, stool and vomit coloration include: a) Metronidazole  b) Amphoterricin c) Pyrvinium pamoate d) Tolnaftate e) Capsaicin 47- Process normally used to decrease the absorption at site of an injection may include: I- Cooling II- Heating III- Massage a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 48- Vincristine is an anticancer drug with which of the following characteristics? I- Inhibit mitotic spindle formation II- Fatal if administrated intrathecally, intravenous administration only. III- It is an antineoplastic agent a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

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49- Bones are very important in the support of the human body. The most important  bone(s) found in the leg may include: I- Tibia II- Fibular III- Radius a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 50- Bones found in the skeletal structure of shoulder may include which of the following? I- Scapula II- Humerus III- Spine a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 51- The skeletal anatomical structure of o f spine is constituted of: I- Cervical spine II- Thoracic spine III- Lumbar spine a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 52- Example of corticosteroid with lower sodium retention side effect may include: I- Betamethasone II- Dexamethasone III- Prednisone a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 53- Which of the following women has a predominate incidence of Urinary Tract Infection-UTI? a) Women taking cranberry juice regularly  b) Breast-feed women c) Normal health women

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d) Pregnant women e) Women taking oral contraceptives 54- Adrenergic antihistaminic agents are classified as: a) α-blockers  b) β1-stimulants c) Phosphodiesterol d) β-blockers e) β2-stimulants 55- Examples of drug used for prophylaxis of tuberculosis may include: a) Isoniazide  b) Penicillin c) Streptomycin d) Amphoterricin e) Fluconazole 56- Example of sympathetic α-reductase inhibitor agent include: a) Prazosin  b) Finasterid c) Alprostadil d) Sildenafil e) Yohimbine 57- Correct statements regarding Fe salts may include which of the following? a) Used in megaloblastic anemia  b) Require intrinsic factor c) Used in pernicious anemia d) High doses can damage liver and tissues (Hemachromatosis) e) Parenteral Fe salts can never be administrated 58- Liver cirrhoses may be characterized by: I- Ascitis II- Jaundice III- Bleeding a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 59- Gold therapy is normally associated with many adverse reactions. Side effects of Gold Therapy may include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Pruritis  b) Decrease in WBCs count c) Thrombocytopenia

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d) Anaphylactic shocks e) All are correct 60- Antiarrhythmic lidocaine pharmacological effect is characterized by which of the following mechanisms? a) No effect on the SA node  b) Suppress automatically in purkinje fibers and atrial muscle c) Depression of phase Q depolarization d) Decreases the effective refractory period on purkinje fibers and inhibit the duration action potential e) Shows a very little change in ECG 61- Bismuth subsalicylate may be used in chronic cases of diarrhea. Which of the following mechanism is the most appropriate for bismuth subsalicylate? a) Inhibit protein by local action  b) Has adsorbent proprieties c) Salicylate portion has antidiarrheal action due to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis that may be a mediator of intestinal secretion d) Blocks the stool due to inhibition of bisulphit e) It frequently causes GIT hemorrhage 62- Medication that should be advised to be taken with plenty of fluids may include: I- Lopressor II- Clotrimazole III- Allopurinol a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 63- All of the following may be symptoms associated with BPH, EXCEPT: a) Nocturia  b) Oliguria c) Incontinence d) Weak urination e) Speed jet of urine 64- Erectly deficiency may be aggravated by which of the following conditions? a) Hypertension  b) Diabetes c) Depression d) Alcoholism e) All the above aggravate ED

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65- Conjunctivitis is eye inflammation and may be caused by: I- Viral agents II- Bacterial agents III-Allergic agents a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 66- Edema is normally retention of water. All of the following may cause edema, ede ma, EXCEPT: a) Corticosteroids  b) Steroids medications c) Antibiotics d) Renal failure e) Diabetes 67- Considerations that should be taken in applying corticosteroids include: a) Quantity applied  b) Kind of lesion c) Frequency of dose d) Pigmentation of skin e) Area to apply 68- Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by which of the following? a) elevation of arterial pH  b) Low CO2 c) Elevation of serum bilirrubine d) Elevated H ions e) Low O2 69- All of the following eye drops may cause dilatation of pupil known as mydriac effect, EXCEPT: a) Atropine  b) Cyclopentolate c) Homatropine d) Neostigmine e) All are right 70- All of the following eye drops d rops may cause a miosis effect, EXCEPT: a) Pilocarpine  b) Neostigmine c) Atropine d) Timolol e) Physostigmine

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71- Glaucoma is eyes develop condition. Which of the following statements is/are right regarding glaucoma? I- Progressive optic neuropathy involving changes in optic nerve and visual field II- Characterized by increase in intraocular pressure III- Glaucoma may be classified in narrow and open angle. a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 72- Drug used in the treatment of open angle glaucoma but contra indicated in the treatment of narrow angle glaucoma may include: a) Epinephrine  b) Timolol c) Pilocarpine d) Latanoprost e) Levobunolol 73- PGE analog used in the treatment of glaucoma include: a) Alprostadil  b) Dinoprostone c) Finasteraid d) Latanoprost e) All are correct 74- Which of the following is a false statement regarding glaucoma? a) Open angle glaucoma affect 90% of the total glaucoma population  b) Narrow angle glaucoma affect 50% of the total glaucoma population c) Open angle glaucoma may be caused by chronic use of topical corticosteroids d) Timolol eye drops can be used only in open angle glaucoma e) Open angle glaucoma is due to obstruction of aqueous drainage 75- Example of drug(s) used in stimulation of hair growth include: I- Finasteride II- Minoxidil III- Diazoxide a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 76-Alendronate sodium (Faxomax) is indicated in the treatment of:

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I.Corticosteroid induced osteoporosis II.Paget’s disease III.Osteoarthritis A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 77-Which of the following calcium salts provides the highest amount of elementary calcium. A.Calcium citrate B.Calcium carbonate C.Calcium acetate D.Calcium chloride E.Calcium + Vitamin D 78- Which of the following presentation is isotrentinoin, a vitamin A derivative used in acne treatment? a) Orally only  b) Topically only c) Orally and topically d) For children only e) Available over-the-counter 79- The rate limit step in ophthalmic oph thalmic drug absorption is known as: a) Pupil  b) Cornea c) Retina d) Iris e) Optic disk 80- Carbamide peroxide 10% in used in teeth as: a) Antiplaque agent  b) Antitartar agent c) Anti-calcubus agent d) Whiting agent e) Breath-freshen agent 81- Which of the following is considered the largest muscle in the body? a) Latissimus dorsi  b) Deltoid c) Gluteus d) Masseter e) Triceps

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82- Which of the following statements is right regarding the mechanism of action of ASA as anti-inflammatory? a) Inhibit phospholipase enzymes  b) Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis c) Inhibit prothrombin time d) Inhibit leukotrienes secretion e) Stimulates the release of COX1 and COX2 83- All of the following are examples of NSAIDs, EXCEPT a) Indomethacin  b) Aspirin c) Rofecoxib d) Ketorolac e) Sulindac 84- One of the most safe and inexpensive NSAID when compared with other drugs in this class may include: a) Indomethacin  b) Ketoralac c) Ibuprophen d) Naproxen e) Diclofenac 85- Example of drug(s) used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis may include: I- Neostigmine II- Pyridostigmine III- Physostigmine a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 86- Iron is the most abundant metal in the body and is required by the body to maintain normal levels of: a) Leukocyte development  b) Ascorbic acid absorption c) Bone growth d) Immune function e) Oxygen transport 87-After an oral administration, the greatest amount of o f iron absorption occurs in the: a) Ascending colon  b) Stomach c) Duodenun d) Transverse colon

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e) Sigmoid colon 88- Correct statement regarding finasteride may include: I- Useful in treating BPH II- Used to treat some types of alopecia alopec ia III- It is a corticosteroid a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 89- Finasteride used in the treatment of BPH can best be described as a (an): a) Androgen inhibitor  b) Estrogen inhibitor c) Androgen d) Estrogen e) Testosterone analog 90- Which of the following is/are employed as antifungal agent? I- Cycloserine II- Terbinafine III- Clotrimazole a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 91-.A solution contains 10% of potassium p otassium ions, express the concentration in terms of mEq/L. A.39mEq/L B.2.56mEq/L C.0.39mEq/L D.3.56mEq/L E.2.00 mEq/L 92- you have a stock solution of 1:750 and would like to prepare 60mls of 1:10.000, how much you need to use of the stock solution? a) 2.4mls  b) 4.6mls c) 1.3mls d) 46mls e) 0.46mls

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93 - How many millimoles of monobasic sodium phosphate is present in 100 g of the substance: A.1.38 mmol B.725mmol C.724mmol D.138mmol E.1380mmol 94.ZnSO4 is a 2 ion electrolyte, dissociating 40% in a certain concentration. Calculate dissociation constant. A.1.8 B.1.4 C.2.6 D.3.4 E.2.0 94-B 95- If the pKa of aspirin is 5.6, what fraction of drug would be ionized at pH 8.6? a) 80%  b) 90% c) 99% d) 99.9% e) 100% 96- Dissociation factor (i)  plays an important role in determining the contribution of a substance towards isotonicity. If it is assumed that HCl undergoes 80% dissociation, what will be its dissociation factor? a) 2.3  b) 3.2 c) 6.1 d) 3.6 e) 1.6 97- What is the concentration in mg/mL of a solution containing 5mEq of KCl per mL? A.5 mg/mL B.74.5mg/mL C.372 mg/mL D.157 mg/mL E.58.5 mg/mL 97-C 98- Assuming you have alcohol 95% and need to prepare 60mls of alcohol 12%. How much of alcohol 95% should be used to make this new concentration of alcohol? a) 4.32mls  b) 7.57mls c) 8.64mls

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d) 6mls e) 6.57mls 99- You are giving ZnCl2 0.7%, phenilephrine 0.1% and boric acid 1.1% with E values 0.16, 0.32 and 0.5 respectively. This solution will be: a) Isotonic  b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic d) Iso-osmotic e) Isotonicity cannot be finding. 100- You receive a Rx with the following signature: Start with double dose of 5mls, than take 2.5mls BID for 7 days. How many mls of amoxicillin suspension should be dispensed to this patient: a) 30mls  b) 35mls c) 40mls d) 45mls e) 50mls 101- A formula for a cosmetic cream require 6 gram of emulsifying agent. Consisting of spn 90 and tween 90 emulsifying agents. Required HLB is 10.5. How many gram of each emulsifying agent should be used in preparing the emulsions. HLB of span 4.3 and Tween 15. A.Span 3.47 and tween 2.57 B.Span 2.57 and Tween 3.47 C.Span 4.5 and Tween 4.2 D.Span 4.2 and Tween 4.5 E. span 4.3 and Tween 15 102- How much lidocaine is present at a 1:1000, in 30 ml solution. A.3 gram B.300 mg C.30 mg D.3 mg E.1.5 gram 103- What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance with sensitivity requirements of 15mg of a 5% error is permissible a) 100mg  b) 200mg c) 300mg d) 400mg e) 500mg

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104- What is the sensitivity of a balance that can weight 120mg of a substance and has a  permissible error of 5%? a) 6mg  b) 16mg c) 66mg d) 26mg e) 1.6mg The next four questions have as reference the following information: In a biostatistics analysis of a drug we found the following results 2, 4, 8, 5, 7, 4 and standard deviation deviation 5. 105- What is the mean in this analysis? a nalysis? a) 4  b) 5 c) 30 d) 15 e) 6 106- What is the median in this analysis? a nalysis? a) 2  b) 5 c) 4.5 d) 7 e) 8 107- What is the mode in this analysis? a nalysis? a) 2  b) 4 c) 5 d) 7 e) 8 108- What is the Coefficient of variance? a) 5  b) 10 c) 25 d) 50 e) 100 109- Type I error, also called alpha-error give what kind of results? a) False-positive  b) False-negative c) Positive false d) False-false e) Positive-positive

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110- Correct statements regarding biostatics error may includ e: I- Type I error also known as α-error can admit a variance error of 1 to 5% II- Type II error also known as a s β-error is a positive-false type of error because it shows a very small difference-delta error (99,99998) III- In type I error the data shows no difference but there is difference, it is false-positive a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 111- Working in a hospital pharmacy you were asked to verify the cost/effectiveness of a medication that is available in 5 different brands. The cost of each tablet was $3.00, $7.00, $2.00, $3.00 and $5.00 from brand 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. The mean cost of your analysis is: a) 3hr  b) 2hr c) 5.4hr d) 4hr e) 4.5hr 112- In pharmacoepidemiology, studies in which subsets of a defined population are identified. Groups characterized by defined populations which, as a whole, are followed in an attempt to determine distinguishing subgroup subg roup characteristics is know as: a) Cluster  b) Segment c) Strata d) Control e) Cohort 113- Studies that determines the prevalence and not the incidence of a disease is known as: a) Cross sectional studies  b) Strata studies c) Case control studies d) Retrospective studies e) Cluster studies 114- An increase in the incidence of diseases, conditions or other health related events in a defined human population that is clearly in excess of that which was expected during a specific time is called: a) Epidemics  b) Endemics c) Pandemics

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d) Epidemiologic predisposition e) All are correct 115- Endemic diseases are conditions or health related behaviors that are constantly  present in human population. Example of endemic disease may include: a) SARS  b) AIDS c) Flu d) Influenza e) Cancer 116- Correct statement regarding primary prevention may include: a) Early detection and treatment of the disease  b) Involve the palliative treatment and rehabilitation therapy c) Reduction in the incidence of disease through immunization, education and others d) The diagnostic of disease e) Treatment of disease 117- In biostatistic the difference between the highest and lowest data observation is called: a) Mean  b) Mode c) Median d) Range e) Standard deviation 118- One of the most commonly encountered e ncountered estimates of variability in statistics that is equal to the square root of the variance is know as: a) Estimates of variance  b) Standard deviation of the mean c) Standard deviation d) Sample mean e) Range 119- In a biostatistic test of a drug, the normal distribution found was equal to 68%. We may assume that the standard deviation from the mean value is: a) 1  b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 120- In epidemiology, a widespread epidemics that achieve large geographic proportion is know as: a) Pandemics  b) Epidemics

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c) Endemics d) Epidemiologics e) None of the above 121- Statistical test where two treatments are applied to a single group of experimental unit is called: a) Student’s test  b) Paired-t test c) F-distribution d) Chi-square test e) Measures of central tendency 122- Correct statements regarding BIAS include: I- They are experimental errors II- They can be classified in selection bias, information bias and confounding bias III- Selection bias happens when the study results are distorted by the selection process a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 123- Experimental error resulted from poor data collection or inaccurate measurement is called: a) Selection bias  b) Information bias c) Confounding bias d) Type II error e) Type I error 124- In a clinical trial for development of a new drug, phase II procedures include: a) Animal experiments  b) Pharmacokinetic test in a health adult c) Safety and efficacy tests done in a limited population that have the disease or condition for what the drug is developed d) Test the new drug with comparison of standard drug e) Studies to compare the drug with its competitor 125- Which of the following conditions cond itions is quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used? a) Respiratory tract infections  b) Urinary tract infections c) Gastrointestinal tract infections d) Endocarditis e) Cerebral infections

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126- Burns classification: I1st degree: skin red, no blisters II.2nd degree: blisters and pain III.3rd degree: no blisters and leather skin a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 127- Which of the following complications is considered con sidered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment? a) Cardiac dysfunction  b) Mental dysfunction c) Hepatitis d) Renal complications e) Discoloration of skin 128- The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? a) Thiamine  b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid d) Niacin e) Cyanocobalamin 129- All of the following are examples ex amples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT: a) Ampicillin  b) Cloxacillin c) Amoxacillin d) Bicampicilin e) All are correct 130- Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV? I- Acyclovir II- Zidovudine III- Stavudine a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 131- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: I- Mutation II- Adaptation

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III- Gene transfer a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 132- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: a) Virus  b) Gram-negative bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias d) Both gram-positive and negative bacteria e) Plasmodium 133- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: a) 30s ribosomal subunit only  b) 50s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits 134- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents? a) Tetracycline  b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin 135- Drugs NOT associated with osteoporosis: A.Phenytoin B.Levothyroxine C.Heparin D.Warfarin E.Corticosteroids 136- Main difference between column chromatography and high-pressure liquid chromatography is: a) The high-pressure pump  b) The particle size c) The capillary action d) The stationary phase e) The mobile phase 137- The most common used agent in the stationary phase of TLC-Thin Layer Chromatography is:

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a) Iodine  b) Amino sugars c) Silica gel d) Chloroform e) Ninhydrin 138- The stationary phase of TLC is constituted of: a) Liquid reagent  b) Pure solvent c) Liquid absorbent d) Solid adsorbent e) Solid absorbent 139- Ninhydrin is used in TLC as spray reagent for detection of: I- Amino acids II- Amino sugars III- Amines a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 140- In gas chromatography the mobile phase is: a) Liquid  b) Solid c) Gas d) Solid adsorbent e) Iodine vapor 141- Inert gas used in gas chromatography include: I- Nitrous oxide II- Nitrogen III- Helium a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 142- Characteristics of Derivativation in gas chromatography include: I- Permit analysis of compounds with inadequate inadequa te volatility or stability II- Improve chromatographic behavior or detectability III- Silylation is the most used technique in derivativation a) I only  b) III only

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c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 143- Immunoassays are used to detect: a) Amino acids  b) Proteins c) Antigens d) Antibodies e) C and D are right 144- Assay used to test antigens in HIV include: a) Immunoassay  b) Radioimmunoassay c) Enzyme immunoassay d) ELISA assay e) Western blotting assay 145- Method that separates macromolecules in nucleic acids and proteins on the base of size and electric charge is called: a) Immunoassay  b) Radioimmunoassay c) Enzyme immunoassay d) ELISA assay e) Western blotting assay 146. Cetrizine inhibits which of the following receptors? A.Histamine B.Serotinin C.Prostaglandin D.Leukotriene E.Bradykinins 147.The principal side effect of bupropion? A.Seizures B.Hemolytic anemia C.Respiratory depression D.Diarrhea E.Constipation 148.Which of the following may cause pink to brownish black skin discoloration A.Dapsone B.Edrophonium C.Clofazimine D.Entacapone E,Nisoldipine

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149-Which of the following is an antidote for Methotrexate overdose? A.Deferoxamine B.EDTA C.Atropine D.Leucovorin calcium E.Calcium 150.Which of the following should be avoided in patient with hyperkalemia? A.Labetalol B.Triamterene C.Hydrochlorothiazide D.Fluconazole E.Thiazides 151- Humectants enable hygroscopic nature of emollients, the example of humectant include: A.Zinc oxide B.Glycerine C. Petrolatum D.Lip balm E.alpha hydroxyl acids

152- Treatment of tricyclic antidepressants overdose is done by all the following  procedures, EXCEPT: a) Control the seizures and cardiotoxicity  b) Administration of benzodiazepinics or phenytoin to control seizures c) Activated charcoal can be used d) MAO antidepressants can helps to overcome the patient’s seizure e) Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate 153- Specific antidote used for poisoning caused by snake and black spider bits a) Deferoxamine  b) Ancrod c) Antivenin d) Psysostigmine e) Naloxone 154- Best treatment for carbon monoxide intoxication: a) Alkalinization of urine  b) Oxygen therapy c) Supportive therapy d) Acidification of urine e) Gastric lavage

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155- Treatment for head lice Treatment for head lice: I.Permethrine 1% (drug of choice) II.Pyrethrins with piperonyl shampoo III.Lindane 1% shampoo a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 156- Osteoporosis caused by the deficiency of the following: I.Estrogen II.Androgens III.Alcohol a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 157- The major first step in the initial management of ANY intoxication and poisoning is the supportive care treatment that involve: a) Detoxification  b) Decontamination c) Hydration d) Evaluation and support of vital function (Airway, Breath and Circulation-ABC) e) Toxicology laboratory tests

158- General management in treating patients with depressed mental status include: I- Treat hypoglycemia with 50mls of dextrose 50% II- Administration of thiamine 100mg IV push III- Administration of naloxone a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 159- Decontamination procedures may unconscious patient: a) Gastric lavage  b) Emesis c) Administration of activated charcoal d) Administration of adsorbent agents

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e) All are correct 160- Intravenous calcium administration is used in which of the following situations? a) Verapamil overdoses  b) Cocaine overdose c) Verapamil overdose and hyperkalemia d) Hyperkalemia e) Nifedipeno overdose 161. 1-methyl cyclopentane and cyclohexane are A. Enantiomer B. Diastereomers C. Constitutional isomers D. Identical E.Geometrical 161-C 162. Alkenes such 2-Butene, 3-hexene are planar hydrocarbons, their double bond can generate specific type of isomer has; A. Constitutional isomers B. Geometrical isomers (cis/trans) C. Enantiomers D. Identical E.Diatereomers 162-B 163. (R)-glyceraldehyde and (S)-glyceraldehyde

A. Diastereomers B. Epimers C. Enantiomers D. Geometrical isomers E.Identical 163-C 164. 1-methyl cyclopentane can generate which of the following isomer: A. Cylcohexane B. Hexane C. Pentane D.1-methyl cyclohexane E.1-methyl cylcopentane

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165. Molecule contain one stereogenic center can generate the following type of isomers: I.Diastereomers II.Geometrical isomers III.Enantiomers a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 166. The following structures are: S S

N Cl CH2CH2N(CH3)2

N Cl CH2CH2CH2N(CH3)2 Chlorprozamine   (Thorazine)

Fenethazine A. Analogs B. Homologs C. Bioisosters D. Isomers E.Diastereomers 166-B

167. Biological activity of meperidine is due to presents in Meperidine include; CH3 N

OC3H5 O Meperidine

A. Tertiary amine B. N-methyl 4-phenyl piperidine C. Propyl ester D. Alkyl amines E. aromatic esters 167-B 168. Hydrolysis of ester gives when heated with aqueous acid or base; A. Amines and carboxylic acid B. Carboxylic acids and alcohol C. Alcohols only Copyright  2003-2004 TIPS Inc

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D. Carboxylic acid only E. None of the above 168-B 169 Which of the following reactions is most likely to occur on a primary aromatic amine? I. Oxidation II.Amination III. Acetylation A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct 169-B 170- Carboxylic acids are one of the most common groups present in the molecular structure of drugs mainly metabolized by: a) Oxidation  b) Hydrolysis c) Conjugation d) Estherification e) Deamination 170-A 171- Imidazoline is a molecular structure that contain a heterocyclic ring and belongs the molecular structure of: a) Prazosin  b) Nifedipine c) Atropine d) Clonidine e) Allopurinol 171-D 172.Wich of the following are metabolites of ester type local anesthetics: I.PABA II.alcohols III.esters A.I only B.III only C.I, II only D.II and III only E. All of the above are correct 172-A 173.The classic NSAIDs consist of different structurally diverse acids, which of the following propionic acid derivative I.Ibuprofen II.Ketoprofen

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III.Naproxen A.I only B.III only C.I, and II only D.II and III only E. All of the above are correct 173-C 174.Selective COX II inhibitors celecoxib and refecoxib are A.Propionic acid derivative B.Pyrazole derivative C.acetic acid derivatives D.ergot alkaloids E.Indole derivatives 174-B 175.Nitroglycerine and isosorbide are: A.Nitrites B.Nitrates C.Polyhydroxy compounds D.Monohydroxy compounds E.xylyl derivative 175-B

176- The abrupt release of large and uncontroled amount of drug from the modified release dosage form affecting the bioavailability is called: a) Dose extended release  b) Dose dumping c) First-pass dose effect d) Fast release dose e) Tumbeling 177- Absorption from the GIT can be affected by a) Intestinal motility  b) Blood flow c) pH of stomach d) Empting time e) All are correct 178- Absorption of water-soluble drug: a) Well absorbed all over the body  b) Cross BBB very fast c) Poor absorption through BBB d) Poor absorption through placenta e) C and D are right 179- Fick’s law is a theory very used in pharmacokinetic that describes: a) The movement of the molecules across barriers

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 b) The stability of a drug molecule in room temperature c) The rate of drug absorption versus the rate of drug elimination d) The process of bioavailability of drugs e) The drugs mechanism of action at its receptor site 180- Correct statements regarding FIRST-PASS EFFECT include: I- Just for intravenous dose II- Quantity of drug that do not reach the systemic circulation III- Caused by incomplete or poor absorption of the drug. a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 181- All of the following are problems related to first-pass effect, EXCEPT: a) Liver metabolizes the drug before it reaches the systemic circulation  b)) Rapid biotransformation of drug by liver enzymes  b c) The drug has half base and half acid proprieties d) The drug is too acid or too basic proprieties e) Poor gastrointestinal absorption 182-Rate and extent of drug distribution are very important in determining the velocity and quantity of drug that would reach the systemic circulation. An important factor that affects the RATE of drug distribution is: a) Protein binding  b) Blood flow c) Lipid solubility d) pKa of the drug e) pH of the drug 183- Best described pathway of o f a drug after oral administration: a) GIT absorption →mesenteric vein →liver → systemic circulation →kidney  b) Mouth →stomach→ liver → blood →liver →kidney c) GIT →mesenteric vein→ hepatic vein→ lung →systemic circulation →kidney d) GIT absorption→ mesenteric veins →hepatic vein and portal artery→ liver → hepatic vein→ systemic circulation→ kidney e) GIT absorption →mesenteric veins →hepatic artery and portal vein→ liver hepatic artery→ systemic circulation→ kidney 184- Metabolism reaction predominant in men: a) Glucuronidation  b) Oxidation c) Hydrolysis d) Methylation e) Conjugation

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185- We can assume that most of the drugs today in the market follows first-order kinetic, however we can find some drug(s) that follows a zero-order kinetic. Examples is/are: I- Phenytoin II- High doses of aspirin III- Theophillin a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 186- We can define the drug’s half-life (t1/2) as: a) Time required for the drug to reach ½ of its maximum pharmacological effect  b) Time requires for the drug to reach ½ of its onset of action c) Time required for the drug to reduce the amount of drug in the body by half d) Time requires for the drug to reduce the first-pass effect e) Time requires for the drug to reduce the amount of drug in the body by ¼. 187- The major organ used for excretion of drugs: a) Liver  b) Kidney c) Lung d) Heart e) Brain 188- Processes that may be involved during drug excretion by the kidney include: I- Glomerular filtration II- Tubular reabsorption III- Active tubular secretion a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 189- Drugs that are lipid soluble or non-ionized cannot be eliminated by the kidney, so these drugs are reabsorbed and put back into systemic circulation to be one more time metabolized, become more water soluble and easily eliminated. This renal excretion  process is known as: a) Glomerular filtration  b) Active tubular secretion c) Creatinine clearance d) Tubular reabsorption e) Elimination

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190- Which of the following is considered the normal renal clearance level in a normal health adult? a) 80mls/min  b) 100mls/min c) 120mls/min d) 140mls/min e) 160mls/min 191- PD, a patient in the doctor’s office with normal renal function is being monitorized to follow up the activity of a new drug. PD was found to have a drug renal clearance LESS than 120mls/min, we can assume that PD is been treated with a drug that has: a) Glomerular filtration only  b)  b) Glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption c) Tubular reabsorption only d) Active tubular secretion only e) Glomerular filtration and active tubular secretion 192-Correct statements regarding Clearance of Drugs may include: I- Measurement of a drug eliminated from the body b ody II- Clearance can be measured as renal, hepatic and total III- Relates the rate of elimination to the plasma concentration a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 193- Which of the following may may be the rate-limiting step step for drug absorption from an orally administrated drug product? I- Disintegration of the drug II- Dissolution of the active drug III- Diffusion of active drug through the intestinal wall a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 194- Requirements for drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives” include having the same: I- Active drug or precursor II- Dosage form III- Salt or ester a) I only  b) III only

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c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 195- Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Vigorous exercise  b) Fatty food c) Hot meals d) Hunger e) Emotional stress 196- Which of the following values is likely to increase in the geriatric population? a) Blood levels of albumin  b) Enzymatic metabolism c) Total body water d) Volume of distribution of lipophilic drugs e) Volume of distribution of water-soluble drugs 197- Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Maltase  b) Sucrose c) Glucose d) Cellulose e) Frutose 198- Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as: a) Monosaccharideo  b) Polysaccharide c) Disaccharide d) Oligosaccharide e) Aminoacid 199- Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide: a) Glucose + frutose  b) Glucose + glucose c) Glucose + galactose d) Frutose + frutose e) Galactose + galactose 200- Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called: a) Oxidoreductase enzymes  b) Transferase enzymes c) Hydrolyses enzymes d) Isomerasis enzymes e) Lyasis enzymes

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201- Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by: I- Consume of energy II- Release stored energy from carbohydrates III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 202- The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called: a) Glycogenolysis  b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) None of the above 203- GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by: b y: a) The breakdown of glycogen into glucose  b) The transformation of glucose to glycogen c) The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate d) The breakdown of sugar into lactate e) The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates non-carboh ydrates sources 204- Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN? a) Glycogenolysis  b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) Anaerobic glycolysis 205- Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include: a) Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome  b) Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis c) Enable DNA fragments to be joined d) Synthesize RNA e) Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells 206- Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin: a) Iron  b) Zinc c) Cobalt d) Magnesium d) Calcium

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207- Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins? a) Thiamine  b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid

208- Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy? a) Cyanocobalamin  b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin 209- Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan? a) Thiamine  b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid 210- Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA? a) Cyanocobalamin  b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin 211- Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine: a) Cyanocobalamin  b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin 212- Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis? a) Vitanin A  b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin E 213- Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:

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I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues II- It is absorbed from the small intestine III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 214- Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids? a) Nucleotides  b) Nucleosides c) Monosaccharides d) Purines e) Amino acids 215- Proteins are formed from: a) Purines  b) Carbohydrates c) Amino acids d) Monosaccharides e) Nucleosides 216- Which of the following is a pro-inflammatory cell responsible for initiation of an acute inflammation? a) Eosinophils  b) Platelets c) Macrophages d) Basophiles e) Neutrophils 217- Rejection of organ implants mainly happens due to the action of: a) B cells  b) T cells c) Toxins d) Cytokines e) Interferon 218- Lymphokines, interferons and interleukins are examples of: a) T cells  b) Lymphoid organs c) Stem cells d) Cytokines e) Antibodies

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219- Which of the following is the most abundant antibodies in human body is? a) IgA  b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG e) IgM 220- Which of the following immunoglobulin is secreted during symptoms of allergic reactions? a) IgA  b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG e) IgM 221- White blood cells with ability to swallow and digest microscopic organism and  particles is called: a) Macrophages  b) Mast cell c) Basophile d) Neutrophil e) Eosinophil

222- True statements regarding CSFs-Colony Stimulating Factor include: I- Encourage bone marrow stem cells to divide and develop WBCs, RBCs and platelets II- CSFs are widely used in cancer therapy III- Examples of CSFs agents are erythropoietin and oprelvekin a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 223- True statements regarding monoclonal antibody include: I- They are antibodies made in laboratory II- They increase patient’s immune response to cancer III- They can be programmed to act against cells cancer growth a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 224- Wrong statement regarding hypersensitivity reaction type I include:

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a) Exaggerated, inappropriate or prolonged immune response that cause damage of otherwise normal tissue.  b) Inappropriate or exaggerated secretion of IgE c) Allergy reactions are the most common hypersensitivity reaction type I d) Rejection of organ transplants can be classified as hypersensitivity reaction type I e) Characterized by secretion of histamine and leukotrienes

225- All of the following are examples ex amples of autoimmune diseases, EXCEPT: a) Systemic Lupus Erythromatous  b) Osteoporosis c) Diabetes Mellitus d) Rheumatoid arthritis e) Multiple sclerosis 226- AIDS syndrome is an example of: a) Immunodeficiency disease  b) Autoimmune disease c) Lymphoid organ disease d) Immunoglobulins deficiency disease e) Bone marrow disease 227- All of the following are examples of attenuated vaccines, EXCEPT: a) Influenza  b) Hepatitis c) Chickenpox d) Typhoid IM e) Cholera 228- Class of lymphokine protein with the ability to inhibit certain types of cancer cells and virus include: a) Interleukin  b) Interferon c) Cytokine d) Toxin e) T cells 229- In biotechnology, the process of combining segments of DNA from two different sources and form a new DNA is called: c alled: a) Xenotransplantation  b) Radioimmunoassay c) Retrovirus d) Recombinant DNA e) Transplantation 230- Drugs made from biotechnology techniques are all the following, EXCEPT:

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a) Human insulin  b) Hepatitis B vaccine c) Filgrastin d) Interferon e) Heparin 231- Most of the drugs or products made by biotechnology techniques after reconstitution should be storage in: a) Freezer  b) Room temperature c) Fridge d) Warm places e) No excessive heat room 232- Which of the following is a folate antagonist used in cancer treatment? a) Sulphametoxazole  b) Methrotexate c) Fludarabine d) Tamoxifen e) Vincristine 233- Doxorubicin and daunorubicin are anthracyclines used in the treatment of cancer. The major side effect found with the use of these drugs is: a) Cardiotoxicity  b) Tissue necrosis c) Hemorrhagic cystitis d) Hair loss e) Pulmonary fibrosis 234- Which is a current clinical application of intravenous human immune globulin? a) Prophylaxis after hepatitis B virus exposure expo sure  b) Treatment of humoral immunodeficiency c) Prophylactic infant immunization for polio d) Prophylactic adult immunization for mumps e) Prophylaxis for Rh disease by infant immunization 235- Graft-versus-host (GVH) disease is associated primarily with which type of transplantation? a) Kidney  b) Heart c) Bone marrow d) Liver e) Cornea 236- In antiviral immunity, what directly recognizes and kills viral-infected cells? I- Cytotoxic T-cells

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II- Antiviral antibodies III- Interferons a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 237-Pharmacist advice patient with eye problem to see a doctor in which of the following cases? I-Red eye II-Blurred vision III-Ocular pain a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 238- Patient taking diphenhydramine as sleep help should be advised I- To take the tablet everyday II- To take 30 minutes before bedtime III- Increasing the dose will not increase the induction of sleep a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 239- When concealing the parents of a 10 years old child with a prescription for Bactroban® to treat impetigo, all should be said to the parents, EXCEPT: a) Impetigo is common among child in this age  b) S. Pyogens is one of the agents that cause the disease c) Impetigo is very communicable d) Oral medications do not work in impetigo treatment e) Bactroban® is commonly used in impetigo treatment 240- The manager of the pharmacy made a list of work that should be done by his employers in order of priority, this is called a) Delegation  b) Job analysis c) Job description d) Negligence e) None of the above 241- True statement about nicoderm patches is/are: I-Apply to non-hair and dry area

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II-Rotate the site of application to avoid irritations III-Topical mild hydrocortisone can be applied on irritated areas a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 242- How can you provide the best concealing to your patient I- The pharmacy assistant gives an information sheet to the patient II- The pharmacist explain how to use the drug III- The pharmacist discuss with patient side effects, therapy and listening the expectations of patient a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 243-You are a male pharmacist and you need to conceal a women patient to an initial treatment of a vaginal cream. The patient is having an issue to receive the concealing  because her culture do not permit that she talks to other man than her husband about intimacy problems. What would be the best way to manage this situation? a) Leave the patient go home without concealing  b) Ask permition to her husband and bring her to the concealing area alone c) Ask her husband to participate of the concealing together with his wife and you d) Ask a woman pharmacy assistant to be present during the concealing e) Ask the other pharmacist, woman and that is also working to concealing the patient 244- The latin abbreviation for: “Take one tablet four time daily after meals and at  bedtime” is: a) İ QID AC & PC  b) İ QID PC & HS c) İİ BID PC & HS d) İİİ OD AC & PC e) İ QID AC & HS 245- The supervisor of a pharmacy demand regular screening of the pharmacist and his assistants, this is known as: a) Appraisal form  b) Supervision form c) Qualification form d) Business performance e) Business control of quality 246- Financial statement that is total income minus expenses is:

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a) Income statement  b) Profit statement c) Retained statement d) Net income e) Income sheet 247- Financial statement that is used to determine the total value of RXs drug sales for a  pharmacy during the course of a year is known as: a) Income statement  b) Profit statement c) Retained statement d) Net income e) Balance sheet

248- Computer software and hardware program very useful in pharmacies that combines and track all the business information as product information, cash register, inventory, stocks and so on. a) Pharmaprix system  b) Health Watch system c) POS Point of sale d) Universal Pharmacy system e) Business update computer system 250- Regulation rules of Canadian pharmacies are mainly done by a) Provincial authorities  b) Pharmacy college authorities c) Governmental authorities d) NAPRA-National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities e) None of the above 251- Calculate the turn over ov er of a pharmacy with the following sales information: -Inventory of the beginning of the year: $3.000,00 -Inventory of the end of the year: $27.000,00 -Average inventory: $15.000,00 -Total of sales: $75.000,00 a) 2  b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 251- Pharmacoeconomics means: a) Analyses of cost and benefit of the drug therapy for the patient  b) Cost of pharmaceutical dispensing fee c) Cost of products sold in a pharmacy

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d) Analyses of cost and benefit for the pharmacy business e) Prices determined by the provincial authorities to be followed by the pharmacy

252- Vicarious: I- Responsibility of the pharmacist manager for negligence negligenc e of his employers II- Responsibility of the pharmacy assistant for his/her own negligence III- Responsibility of the patient for his/her miss used of the medication a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

253- When a pharmacist is sued for his negligence the court requires: I- That the patient harmed decides which action should be done II- That the pharmacist manager decides which standard action should be done III- That the licensure body gives the standard action that should be applied a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 254- A pharmacist is required to give knowledge of drugs and supply the patient with enough pieces of information to overcome the patient ignorance. This is done by: a) Written information only  b) Verbal information only c) Verbal and written information d) Magazines and folders information e) Video information 255- The ethical principle of veracity requires that a) We respect the rights of others to make choices  b) We act with honesty, without deception c) We avoid, remove or prevent harm d) We do good to patients e) We act with fairness 256- MT, a pharmacy technician, has a worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. He is well trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him, should: I- Discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project II- Negotiate a time schedule for completation of the project III- Provide support and follow up as required

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a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 257- The latin abbreviation for after meals is: a) ac  b) aa c) pc d) ic e) cc 258- The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employers to observe at all times is referred as: a) Participative  b) Bureaucratic c) Benevolent d) Consultative e) Passive 259- Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include: I- “Shake well before using” II- “Take with plenty of fluids” III- “Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions” a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

260- A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be advised to store the medication: a) In the refrigerator  b) In a plastic vial with childproof cap c) With the original cotton d) In an amber glass bottle with metal cap e) In a warm, dry place

261- The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100mg for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a) If the sumatriptan does not release the headache within 4 hours, ergotamin may be used

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 b) If no relieve is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated c) If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs 8 hours latter, sumatriptan may  be used for the second headache d) The maximum dosage in any 24 hours is 6 tablets e) If the relieved is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.

262- All are considered to be patient drug problem, EXCEPT: a) Take the medication properly and improve treatment and compliance  b) Don’t take the medication c) Take Take the medication in low dosage than the one recommended by the doctor  d) Take the medication in higher dosage than the one recommended by the doctor e) Take the medication in different schedule than the one recommended by the doctor

263- A young patient needs sleep aid; before you give any OTC sleep aid to him, advise him: a) Try to do exercises  b) Try to read a book before go bed c) Try regular sleep d) Try to adjust a regular sleep schedule e) All are correct 264- Closed vial of regular insulin can be used until labeled expired date, if the vial is: a) Refrigerated  b) Frozen c) Normal temperature d) Cool place e) Above 30ºC 265- The pharmacist can do all, EXCEPT: a) Prescribe schedule II medications  b) Prescribe schedule III medications c) Verify the diagnostic d) Counseling patients e) Charge professional dispensing fee to patients 266- Important analysis that should be done prior to choose an area to build a pharmacy: a) Demographic analysis  b) Concurrence analysis of hardware and food store c) Traffic analysis d) Market area analysis e) School location analysis 267- Which of the following is/are correct regarding microbial filter-filtration method I- Microbial filtration is not a sterilization method

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II- Microbial filter ensure complete microbial removal and sterilization III- Microbial filter are O.22 µm a) I only  b) II only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 268-The rate limit of transdermal drugs is known as a) Epidermis  b) Dermis c) Striatum Cornium d) Deep dermis e) Skin 269- Which of the following is a true statement regarding transdermal diffusion? a) Avoid drug from the first pass metabolism  b) Improve drug therapy c) Overcome pharmaceutical problems d) Mainly for biological potent drugs e) All are correct 270- Regulation of body temperature can be done by: a) Skin  b) Urine c) Sweat d) Faeces e) All are correct 271- In a syringe, what HUB means? a) Portion of the needle that is ground for sharpness  b) Extension of the needle that fits onto the syringe c) The back portion of bevel d) The shaft portion of the needle e) The needle hole 272- The needle hole is known as: a) Hub  b) Bevel c) Heel d) Cannula e) Lumen 273.What is the concentration, in grams per milliliter of a solution containing 4 mEq. Of CaCl2.2H2O per milliliter? A.4 g/ml

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B.294 mg/ml C. 0.294 g/ml D.294 g/L E.294 mEq 274- Drug used in the treatment of hypertension that may cause hemolytic anemia. a) Clonidine  b) Guanabenz c) Thiazides d) Atenolol e) Methyldopa 275- One of the most safe antihypertensice drugs used in pregnancy is: a) Metoprolol  b) Captopril c) Sodium nitroprusside d) Methyldopa e) Prazosin 276- Direct vasodilator drug used in the treatment of baldness may include: a) Hydralazine  b) Sodium nitroprusside c) Minoxidil d) Enalapril e) Captopril 277- All of the following may be examples of calcium channel blocker, EXCEPT: a) Enalapril  b) Amlodipino c) Nifedipeno d) Diltiazen e) Verapamil 278- First line treatment in mild to moderate CFH-Congestive Heart failure include: a) β-Blockers + diuretics  b) Glycosides + ACE inhibitors c) Calcium channel blockers d) Vasodilators e) Nitrates 279- Drug used in cardiovascular complications which metabolism produce cyanide: a) Hydralazine  b) Nitrates c) Nitroglycerine d) Isosorbid e) Nitroprusside

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280- Nitrates used in cardiovascular complications mainly in CHF induce the formation of: a) Nitric oxide  b) Cyanide c) Zinc oxide d) Nicotinic acid e) Nalidixic acid 281- Angina is a type of: a) Congestive heart failure disease  b) Hypertension disease c) Ischemic disease d) Atherosclerosis disease e) Dysrhytmiac disease 282- Examples of common used antithrombolytic agents agen ts may include: I- Streptokinase II- Recombinant tPA III- Warfarin a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 283- All are examples of low molecular weigh we igh heparins, EXCEPT: a) Orgaron  b) Enoxaparin c) Dalteparin d) Fragmin e) All are correct 284- Which of the following β-agonist drugs has no effect in α-agonists receptors? a) Isoproterenol  b) Dopamine c) Norepinephrine d) Epinephrine e) Clonidine 285- Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is considered a prodrug: I- Minoxidil II- Methyldopa III- Clonidine a) I only  b) III only

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c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 286- Predominant sympathetic adrenergic receptor in the heart may include: a) α-receptors  b) β-receptors c) Mu receptors d) M1-receptors e) D3-receptors 287- Ketoacidoses are acidosis accompanied by the accumulation of ketone bodies in the  body tissues and fluids and may be a result of: I- Starvation II- Juvenile type diabetes III- Inadequate insulin treatment a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) all of the above

288- What does insulin pump mean? a) Insulin with fast action  b) Insulin supply for long period of time c) Insulin with fast absorption d) Insulin rapidly excreted e) Insulin rapidly metabolized 289- Hypofunction of adrenal cortex may cause: a) Cushing disease  b) Gray’s disease c) Addison’s disease d) Reye’s disease e) All are wrong 290- Cushing syndrome a disorder of adrenal cortex is mainly due to: I- Hyper function of adrenal cortex II- High secretion of cortisone III- Hypofunction of adrenal cortex a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

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291- Correct mechanism of methimazole as antithyroid drug may include: I- Inhibit iodine oxidation II- Catalyze the incorporation of iodine into tyrosine III- Inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones a) I only  b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 292- All of the following cells are normally presented in pancreas, EXCEPT: a) β-cell  b) α-cell c) Sertoli cell d) Delta cell e) F-cell

293- Correct statement regarding pernicious anemia may include: a) Due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12  b) Prevented by oral administration of vitamin B12 c) Treated by parenteral administration of folic acid d) Treated by parenteral administration a dministration of vitamin B12 e) Caused by dietary deficiency of iron

294- Iron deficiency may cause a type of anemia known as: a) Pernicious anemia  b) Megaloblastic anemia c) Pernicious and megaloblatic anemia d) Microcystic anemia e) All of the above

295- Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all the following, EXCEPT: a) Fluid retention  b) Headaches c) Hypertension d) Constipation e) Depression

296- The most appropriate insulin for diabetic patients with ketoacidoses may include: a) Crystalline Zinc Insulin  b) Ultralent Insulin

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c) Protamine Insulin d) Extended Insulin Zinc Suspension e) Isophane Insulin 297- Which is not secreted from the anterior pituitary a) Prolactin  b) Vasopressin c) Gonadotropin hormones d) LH e) FSH 298- Example of oral antidiabetic agent most likely to cause lactic acidosis is: a) Glyburine  b) Chlorpropamide c) Metformin d) Repaglinide e) Acarbose 299- The starting dose for methotrexate (MTX) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. A.25 mg Q wk B.15 mg Q wk C.7.5 mg to 25 mg Q wk D.20 mg Q wk E. 2.5 mg Q wk 300- Medical condition related to hypothyroidism, the decrease of thyroid hormones might include: a) Cushing syndrome  b) Addison’s syndrome c) Grave’s disease d) Myxodiema or Gull’s disease e) Myasthenia Gravis

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