4R
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MCAT Practice Test 4R
Physical Sciences Time: 100 minutes Questions: 1-77 Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202828-0690).
Periodic Table of the Elements
1
H
2
He 4.0 10
1.0 3
4
Li
Be
B
C
N
O
F
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
5
6
7
8
9
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
P
S
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
K
Ca
Sc
Ti
V
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1 37
40.1 38
45.0 39
47.9 40
50.9 41
52.0 42
54.9 43
55.8 44
58.9 45
58.7 46
63.5 47
65.4 48
69.7 49
72.6 50
74.9 51
79.0 52
79.9 53
83.8 54
Rb
Sr
Y
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
I
Xe
85.5 55
87.6 56
88.9 57
91.2 72
92.9 73
95.9 74
(98) 75
101.1 76
102.9 77
106.4 78
107.9 79
112.4 80
114.8 81
118.7 82
121.8 83
127.6 84
126.9 85
131.3 86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
W
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9 87
137.3 88
138.9 89
178.5 104
180.9 105
183.9 106
186.2 107
190.2 108
192.2 109
195.1
197.0
200.6
204.4
207.2
209.0
(209)
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac†
Unq†
Unp
Unh
Uns
Uno
Une
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262) 58
(263) 59
(262) 60
(265) 61
(267) 62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1 90
140.9 91
144.2 92
(145) 93
150.4 94
152.0 95
157.3 96
158.9 97
162.5 98
164.9 99
167.3 100
168.9 101
173.0 102
175.0 103
* †
Th
Pa
U
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Passage I Student researchers conducted an experiment to study static friction between common building materials. They used a wooden board and three sets of blocks. Each set included one wooden block, one stone block, and one steel block. All of the blocks were of equal mass. Within each set, all blocks had the same base area. A block was placed at rest on the flat wooden board. One end of a lightweight string was attached to the block, and the other end of the string was attached to a hook. The string passed over a pulley (of negligible mass and friction) at the edge of the board. Mass was added to the hook until the block began to slide along the board. Table 1 shows the threshold mass, MT, necessary to initiate sliding of each block.
Table 1 Static Friction Data Block Threshold base area Block mass (m2) material (kg) 0.001 wood 0.049 Set 1 0.001 stone 0.068 0.001 steel 0.055 0.002 wood 0.049 Set 2 0.002 stone 0.068 0.002 steel 0.055 0.003 wood 0.048 Set 3 0.003 stone 0.068 0.003 steel 0.055
1. The kinetic energy of a sliding block came from the: A) kinetic energy of the string. B) kinetic energy of the board. C) gravitational potential energy of the block. D) gravitational potential energy of the mass on the hook. 2. Based on Table 1, which of the following statements describes the relationship between static friction and base area? A) Static friction is independent of base area. B) Static friction is directly proportional to base area. C) Static friction is directly proportional to the square of base area. D) Static friction is inversely proportional to base area. 3. Which of the following force(s) on a sliding block did work on the block?
Figure 1 Static friction apparatus
A) String tension only B) Kinetic friction only C) String tension and kinetic friction D) String tension and gravity 4. Based on Table 1, attractive molecular forces between surfaces were weakest between: A) metal surfaces. B) wood surfaces. C) wood and stone surfaces. D) wood and steel surfaces.
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5. If the wooden board is coated with a lubricant, MT will: A) decrease. B) decrease only for the wood blocks. C) increase. D) not change. 6. After a block began to slide, how did its speed vary with time? (Note: Assume that the tension and kinetic friction forces on the block were constant in magnitude.) A) It was constant in time. B) It increased exponentially with time. C) It was first constant, then increased linearly with time. D) It increased linearly with time. 7. The researchers devised a second procedure to measure static friction. They removed the string from a block, placed the block at rest on a board, and raised one end of the board until the block began to slide. To determine the static friction force on the block when sliding began, which of the following measurements did they make? A) Time it took for the block to slide down the board B) Distance the block slid down the board before coming to rest C) Mass of the board D) Angle of the board with respect to the horizontal
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Passage II Four chemicals produced in large quantities in the United States are H2SO4, NH3, N2, and O2. The latter three are gases, and H2SO4 is produced by gaseous reactions. The preparation of H2SO4 involves the following Reactions (I–III). S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)
2SO3(g)
∆H = –197.8 kJ/mol
Reaction II SO3(g) + H2O(ℓ) → H2SO4(aq)
∆H = –132.6 kJ/mol
Reaction III
NH3 is prepared commercially by the reaction of N2 with H2 (Reaction IV). NH3 has a tendency to form coordination compounds, such as [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, in which NH3 forms covalent bonds with a transition metal ion. N2(g) + 3H2(g)
A) Addition of H2 B) A decrease in pressure C) An increase in temperature D) Addition of a catalyst
∆H = –296.8 kJ/mol
Reaction I
2SO2(g) + O2(g)
10. When Reaction IV is in a state of equilibrium, which of the following changes will cause more NH3 to form?
2NH3(g) Reaction IV
∆H = –92 kJ/mol
11. In the fractional distillation of air, the N2 separates before the O2 because N2: A) is less reactive than O2. B) is less electronegative than O2. C) has a triple bond and O2 has a double bond. D) has a lower boiling point than O2. 12. If 36 g of S and 32 g of O2 were used in Reaction I, which of the following would be the limiting reagent? A) S B) O2 C) SO2 D) There would not be a limiting reagent.
N2 and O2 are both prepared by the fractional distillation of air. Air samples are first condensed to the liquid state and then passed through a distilling column. The N2 separates first, and then the O2 is obtained. 8. The ability of NH3 to form coordination compounds with transition metal ions can best be accounted for by the fact that NH3: A) acts as an electron pair donor. B) is capable of hydrogen bonding. C) is a weak base in aqueous solution. D) contains N with a –3 oxidation number. 9. N2 has a lower boiling point than O2. Which of the following statements best accounts for this difference? A) N2 is less reactive than is O2. B) N2 is less electronegative than is O2. C) N2 has a lower molecular weight than does O2. D) N2 contains a triple bond, and O2 contains a double bond.
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Table 2 Constant Transmitted f and λ with Different Jet Speeds Away from Receiver
Passage III The wavelength of a radio wave measured by a stationary receiver differs from the emitted wavelength when the transmitter is moving. The frequency measured by the receiver also changes when the transmitter is moving. Three experiments were conducted to determine relationships between the speed of a moving radio transmitter and the changes in wavelength and frequency measured at the receiver. In each of the experiments, a jet flew at constant altitude and emitted a signal that was measured by a receiver on the ground. Experiment 1 The jet flew directly away from the receiver at 268 m/s. Signals with different frequencies (f) and wavelengths (λ) were transmitted in four trials. The transmitted frequencies and wavelengths are listed in Table 1 along with the measured changes in frequency and wavelength. Table 1 Changing Transmitted f and λ with Constant Jet Speed Away from Receiver
f 6 (10 Hz) 1.20 1.50 2.00 3.00
Change in f (Hz) –1.07 –1.34 –1.79 –2.68
λ (m) 250 200 150 100
Change in λ (10–5m) 22 18 13 9
Experiment 2 The frequency of the transmitted radio signal was kept constant at 2.0 x 106 Hz, and the transmitted wavelength was kept constant at 150 m as the jet flew directly away from the receiver at the four different speeds listed in Table 2.
Speed (m/s) 246 322 447 671
Change in f (Hz) –1.64 –2.15 –2.98 –4.47
Change in λ (10–5m) 12 16 22 34
Experiment 3 The frequency of the radio signal was kept constant at 2.0 x 106 Hz and the wavelength was kept constant at 150 m as the jet flew directly toward the receiver with the two speeds listed in Table 3. Table 3 Constant Transmitted f and λ with Different Jet Speeds toward Receiver Speed (m/s) 300 490
Change in f (Hz) 2.00 3.27
Change in λ (10–5m) –15 –24
13. A stationary receiver detects a change in frequency of the signal from a jet flying directly away from it at 300 m/s. Which of the following receivers will detect the same change in frequency from a jet moving away at 600 m/s? A) A receiver moving at 900 m/s in the opposite direction as the jet B) A receiver moving at 300 m/s in the opposite direction as the jet C) A stationary receiver D) A receiver moving at 300 m/s in the same direction as the jet 14. If the jet in Experiment 1 transmits a 2.5 x 106 Hz radio wave, what will be the approximate change in frequency measured at the receiver? A) –1.2 Hz B) –1.5 Hz C) –2.2 Hz D) –3.0 Hz
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15. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the relationship between speed of the transmitter away from the receiver and the increase in wavelength of the received signal?
17. Why are the percentages of the change in frequency and wavelength much greater when sound waves are used instead of radio waves in these experiments?
A)
A) Sound waves travel more slowly. B) Sound waves have a much higher frequency. C) Sound waves have a much shorter wavelength. D) Interference in the atmosphere affects sound waves much more.
B)
18. A receiver is in a jet flying alongside another jet that is emitting 2.0 x 106 Hz radio waves. If the jets fly at 268 m/s, what is the change in frequency detected at the receiver? A) 0 Hz B) 0.90 Hz C) 1.79 Hz D) 3.58 Hz
C) 19. An astronomer observes a hydrogen line in the spectrum of a star. The wavelength of hydrogen in the laboratory is 6.563 x 10-7m, but the wavelength in the star’s light is measured at 6.56186 x 10-7m. Which of the following explains this discrepancy? D)
A) The star is moving away from Earth. B) The wavelength of light that the star is emitting changes constantly. C) The frequency of light that the star is emitting changes constantly. D) The star is approaching Earth.
16. As the speed of the jet flying away from the receiver increases, what happens to the distance between adjacent peaks of the transmitted waves, as measured at the receiver? A) It decreases. B) It remains constant. C) It increases. D) It changes, but is not dependent on the speed.
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9
Passage IV Coulometric methods offer a means of monitoring gases. For example, Figure 1 shows a schematic diagram of an apparatus that can be used to determine ultrasmall concentrations of oxygen.
O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e-
4OH-
Εo = +0.40 V
Equation 1
Ag+ + e-
Ag(s)
Εo = +0.80 V
Equation 2 Cd(s) + 2OH-
Cd(OH)2(s) + 2e-
Εo = +0.81 V
Equation 3
The current produced is measured by recording the potential drop as it passes through a standard resistor (R). The oxygen concentration is proportional to the potential. The procedure is reported to be accurate over a range from 1 ppm up to 1% of the gas stream. The accuracy of the procedure depends on an adequate flow rate.
20. How is the accuracy of the oxygen determination affected by the addition of a gas into the stream that is reduced by a reaction analogous to that of oxygen? A) Increased, because the smaller the amount of oxygen in the stream, the more effective is microanalysis B) Increased, because the larger the sample reduced, the less effect a small variation in measurement will have on results C) Decreased, because the partial pressure of oxygen will be decreased D) Decreased, because the method cannot distinguish oxygen from the added gas
Figure 1 Coulometric determination of oxygen concentration The oxygen is bubbled over a silver electrode where it is reduced according to the reactions represented by Equations 1 and 2. The electrochemical reaction is completed at the cadmium electrode. The half reaction is given by Equation 3.
21. If 10 L oxygen at 30oC and 756 mm Hg passes through the apparatus described in the passage, what is the volume at STP? A) (10)(756)(303)/(760)(273) L B) (10)(760)(303)/(756)(273) L C) (10)(756)(273)/(760)(303) L D) (10)(760)(273)/(756)(303) L
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22. In the schematic diagram shown in Figure 1, the Cd electrode is: A) the anode, because oxygen gas is reduced there. B) the anode, because the silver electrode is where reduction occurs. C) the cathode, because the silver electrode is where reduction occurs. D) the cathode, because the silver electrode is where oxidation occurs. 23. How many ppm is 1%? A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 100,000 24. Would methane gas (CH4) be a candidate for determination by the method described in the passage? A) Yes, because carbon, like oxygen, is a nonmetal B) Yes, because carbon, like oxygen, is in the 2nd period of the periodic table C) No, because hydrogen is already at its lowest oxidation state in methane D) No, because carbon is already at its lowest oxidation state in methane
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11
These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
25. An aqueous solution of a salt made by mixing which of the following acids and bases displays the lowest pH? A) Strong acid, weak base B) Strong acid, strong base C) Weak acid, weak base D) Weak acid, strong base 26.
Depth (cm) 5 10 15
28. A student has a thin copper beaker containing 100 g of a pure metal in the solid state. The metal is at 215oC, its exact melting temperature. If the student lights a Bunsen burner and holds it for a fraction of a second under the beaker, what will happen to the metal? A) A small amount of the metal will turn to liquid, with the temperature remaining the same. B) All the metal will turn to liquid, with the temperature remaining the same. C) The temperature of the metal at the top of the beaker will increase. D) The temperature of the whole mass of the metal will increase slightly.
Pressure (N/m2) 250 450 650
The table above gives pressure measured at various depths below the surface of a liquid in a container. A second liquid, whose density is twice that of the first liquid, is poured into a second container. Similar pressure measurements are taken for the second liquid at various depths below the surface of the second liquid. What is the pressure at a depth of 10 cm for the second liquid? A) 250 N/m2 B) 450 N/m2 C) 850 N/m2 D) 1650 N/m2 27. An object with 15 grams mass is immersed in benzene and suffers an apparent loss of mass of 5 grams. What is the approximate specific gravity of the object? (Data: Specific gravity of benzene = 0.7) A) 1.4 B) 1.8 C) 2.1 D) 3.0
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Table 2 shows some of the data collected by the students.
Passage V Five students (A-E) used volumetric analysis to determine the molar mass of a weak acid of unknown composition. Table 1 lists the acids issued by the instructor as unknowns (unk). Table 1 Weak Acids Name Acetic Benzoic Bromobenzoic Chlorobenzoic Methylbenzoic Succinic
Formula HC2H3O2 HC7H5O2 HC7H4BrO2 HC7H4ClO2 HC8H7O2 H2C4H4O4
The instructor prepared a solution of NaOH(aq) by dissolving 8 g of NaOH(s) (MM = 40.00) in 2 L of H2O, as shown in Equation 1. The temperature of the solution rose during the mixing process. NaOH(s) + H2O(ℓ) → NaOH(aq)
Equation 1 The NaOH(aq) was standardized by each student by titration against a pure sample of KHP (potassium acid phthalate, MM = 204.2), as shown in Equation 2. KHP(aq) + NaOH(aq) → KNaP(aq) + H2O(ℓ)
Equation 2
Each unknown was dissolved in approximately 30 mL of water or water-ethanol and titrated with the standardized NaOH(aq), as shown for benzoic acid in Equation 3. HC7H5O2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaC7H5O2(aq) + H2O(ℓ)
Equation 3
Table 2 Partial Data of Students A-E A
B
C
D
E
0.5500 g Mass KHP 0.002752 Moles KHP 25.02 mL 25.20 mL Vol NaOH vs KHP 0.1022 0.1056 M NaOH Mass unknown Vol NaOH vs unknown Moles unknown 201.0 156.1 136.2 59.1 Equivalent Wt 122.2 unknown Succinic Unknown
29. How many moles of KHP are present in the sample of KHP of student A? A) 2.752 x 10-1 mol B) 2.693 x 10-2 mol C) 2.693 x 10-3 mol D) 3.712 x 102 mol 30. Which of the following changes in state functions occurred during the dissolution shown in Equation 1? I. II. III.
∆H < 0 ∆G > 0 ∆S > 0
A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only 31. What is the approximate molarity of the solution prepared by the instructor? A) 0.1 M B) 0.2 M C) 0.4 M D) 4.0 M
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13
32. At the stoichiometric (equivalence) point in a titration of benzoic acid with NaOH(aq) shown by Equation 3, the pH is: A) < 4. B) > 4 and < 7. C) = 7. D) > 7. 33. What is the conjugate base of chlorobenzoic acid? A) OHB) H2O C) C7H4ClOD) C7H4ClO234. Student E accounted for the equivalent weight found for succinic acid by analyzing its titration with NaOH(aq) and concluding that it is: A) diprotic and requires one-half the number of moles of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid. B) diprotic and requires twice the number of moles of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid. C) triprotic and requires one-third the number of moles of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid. D) triprotic and requires three times the number of moles of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid. 35. If a student did NOT remove all the moisture from the KHP before the titration with NaOH(aq), then the molarity determined for the NaOH(aq) would be: A) too high because the actual number of moles of KHP titrated would be less than the number used in the calculations. B) too low because the actual number of moles of KHP titrated would be more than the number used in the calculations. C) too low because the actual number of moles of KHP titrated would be less than the number used in the calculations. D) unaffected because the weighed KHP was dissolved in water, making any moisture in the sample unimportant.
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14
Passage VI Novae are faint stars that suddenly brighten enormously and then fade to their original luminosity days to weeks later. One type of nova repeats this process approximately every 50 years, typically releasing 1038 J of energy each time. Novae are observed to be members of compact double-star systems, and this membership forms the basis for hypotheses about this phenomenon. Nova systems are composed of a white dwarf star and an ordinary star. A white dwarf star, with mass comparable to that of the Sun but a much smaller radius, has an intense gravitational field at its surface. In a close pair, gas (mainly hydrogen) pulled from the ordinary star collects in a cloud encircling the white dwarf star and then falls onto it at tremendous speed. Three different hypotheses for this transfer and the ensuing reaction are proposed. Hypothesis I The gas transfers in huge globs that on impact achieve temperatures high enough to initiate nuclear fusion. Energy is released at the surface of the dwarf star and there is a sudden brightening. Hypothesis II The gas transfers smoothly to the white dwarf star. The temperature rises gradually until a runaway fusion reaction starts on the surface. Hypothesis III Hydrogen pulled onto the white dwarf star drifts to its carbon-rich core, where fusion starts again (having ceased earlier), producing an explosion. However, since the nova effect is recurrent, the catastrophic nature of this mechanism argues against the hypothesis. In each of the hypotheses, if enough new material accumulates in the core of the white dwarf star, carbon there must eventually begin to fuse rapidly, perhaps explosively. This sequence is most likely for a Type I supernova, characterized by an expanding, glowing cloud.
36. Why would the surface temperature of the white dwarf star immediately rise when gas from the ordinary star impacts the white dwarf star? A) The white dwarf star transfers heat more rapidly to the surface from its core, where fusion is taking place. B) The ordinary star, because of its proximity, continues to exert tremendous pressure on the gas. C) The kinetic energy of the gas is randomized at impact, becoming heat energy. D) Momentum is not conserved in the inelastic collision but is converted to heat energy. 37. The gravitational force at the surface of a white dwarf star is much greater than that at the surface of the Sun because: A) gravitation follows an inverse-square law and the Sun has a much larger radius. B) the Sun continues to support fusion in its core whereas white dwarf stars do not. C) gravitation is a nonsaturating force and is not diminished by the presence of a companion star. D) the encircling gas clouds produce additional gravitational effects on the surface of the white dwarf star. 38. Nuclei in stellar interiors are fully ionized, and they fuse because of the extreme temperatures and pressures there. Hydrogen fusion proceeds more readily than does carbon fusion in a star’s core because: A) there is a strong tendency toward diatomic bonding in hydrogen but not in carbon. B) the electrostatic repulsion between two carbon nuclei is much greater than that between two hydrogen nuclei. C) carbon has a tendency to take on one or more of several crystalline forms and hydrogen does not. D) at the same high temperature, hydrogen nuclei move more slowly and collide more often than do carbon nuclei.
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15
39. In a Type I supernova the expanding cloud is rich in 56Ni undergoing the radioactive decay process 56 Ni → 56Co →56Fe. This two-stage process is thought to furnish energy for the months-long glow of this type of supernova. Which of the following particles is emitted in both of these radioactive decays? A) An α particle (energetic 4He nucleus) B) A deuteron (2H nucleus) C) A thermal neutron (slowly moving neutron) D) A positron (a positively charged electron-like particle) 40. In considering Hypothesis II, what evidence suggests that the fusion reaction must nevertheless start suddenly, in a “runaway” fashion? A) The nova effect repeats periodically over great spans of time. B) The mass of the white dwarf star has a high density. C) The core of the white dwarf star produces high energy photons. D) Novae are observed to brighten suddenly and enormously.
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16
Passage VII A class was studying electrochemistry. The instructor gave each student an unknown. Some of the data are shown in Table 1. Table 1 Student Data Student 1 2 3 4 5
Nature of unknown 0.01 M monoprotic acid 0.001 M monoprotic acid 1.0 M cation White solid (58.5 g/mol) Solution of Fe2(SO4)3
Measurement pH = 4.0 pH = 3.0 Εo = 1.10 V – –
Some students required the Nernst equation, Equation 1. Εcell = Εocell – (0.0592/n)log10(Q)
Equation 1 In Equation 1, n equals the number of moles of electrons transferred in the redox reaction, and Q is the reaction quotient. The expression for Q in terms of concentrations of reactants and products is written in the same manner as is the expression for the equilibrium constant, Keq, for a reaction. The standard cell potential Εocell (in volts) of a galvanic cell is obtained when all the components of the cell are in their standard (thermodynamic) states. Thus, Εcell equals zero, when Q equals Keq. All of the students studied the reaction given by Equation 2 (unbalanced), for which Εocell = 0.32 V. MnO4-(aq) + H+(aq) + ClO3-(aq) → ClO4-(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + H2O(ℓ)
Equation 2 (unbalanced)
41. If Student 3’s measurement (Table 1) was obtained from a cell made by connecting the unknown solution to a standard zinc electrode (Table 2) by means of a salt bridge, which of the following ions was Student 3’s unknown? A) Ag+ B) Cu2+ C) Al3+ D) Ca2+ 42. If Student 4 prepared a solution by dissolving 29.25 g of the assigned unknown in water to a total volume of 250.0 mL, the molarity of the solution was: A) 0.250 M. B) 0.500 M. C) 1.00 M. D) 2.00 M. 43. The name of Student 5’s unknown is: A) iron(II) sulfate. B) iron(II) sulfite. C) iron(III) sulfate. D) iron(III) sulfite. 44. Which expression gives the reaction quotient for a spontaneous reaction between standard silver and aluminum electrodes (Table 2)? A) [Al3+][Ag+] B) [Al3+]/[Ag+]3 C) [Ag+]3/[Al3+] D) [Al3+][Ag(s)]3/[Ag+]3[Al(s)]
Standard reduction potentials for certain electrodes are given in Table 2. Table 2 Standard Reduction Potentials Half-reaction Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s)
Εo, Volts +0.80
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s)
+0.34
2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g)
0.00
Zn2+(aq) + 2e- → Zn(s)
-0.76
Al3+(aq) + 3e- → Al(s)
-1.66
Ca2+(aq) + 2e- → Ca(s)
-2.76
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17
Passage VIII Potassium nitrate (101.1 g/mol) is a white, crystalline solid. It is very soluble in water, having a solubility of 34 g/100 g H2O at 20oC. The enthalpy of solution of KNO3(s) is the algebraic sum of its lattice energy, hydration energy, and the energy needed to separate water molecules. The standard heat of solution (∆Hodiss) at 20oC for KNO3 is 34.9 kJ/mol. A student prepared a 20% wt/wt solution of KNO3 at 20oC. A weighed amount of KNO3 was placed in a beaker, and enough water was added to completely dissolve the salt. The solution was quantitatively transferred to a 1-L volumetric flask, calibrated at 20oC, and the volume was brought to the 1-L mark on the flask. The student collected the data shown in Table 1 for a 20% by mass solution of KNO3 in water at 20oC.
45. Which of the following expressions gives the mole fraction of KNO3 in the solution prepared by the student? A)
B)
C)
D)
Table 1 Properties of an Aqueous Solution, 20% by Mass KNO3 at 20oC Property density solute conc. molarity water conc. g H2O displaced by solute condosity
Value 1.1326 kg/L 226.5 g/L 2.241 mol/L 906.1 g/L 92.2 g/L 2.49 mol/L
46. Crystals precipitate when each of the following compounds is added to a saturated solution of KNO3(aq) EXCEPT: A) NH4NO3(s). B) Ca(NO3)2(s). C) NH4Cl(s). D) KCl(s).
The condosity of a solution is defined as the molar concentration of sodium chloride that has the same specific conductance (electrical) as the solution.
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47. Which point on the condosity plot shown below represents the student-prepared solution of KNO3(aq), if the point labeled NaCl represents 2.49 M NaCl(aq)?
A) A B) B C) C D) D 48. How many grams KNO3 are in 100 mL of the student-prepared solution of KNO3(aq)? A) 11.33 g B) 22.41 g C) 22.65 g D) 34.00 g 49. What is the approximate number of potassium ions in the student-prepared solution of KNO3(aq)? A) 109 B) 1016 C) 1020 D) 1024
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These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
53. A square-wave voltage signal is sent into a resistor-capacitor circuit as shown.
50. Suppose that CH4(g) reacts completely with O2(g) to form CO2(g) and H2O(g) with a total pressure of 1.2 torr. What is the partial pressure of H2O(g)? A) 0.4 torr B) 0.6 torr C) 0.8 torr D) 1.2 torr 51. A compound was analyzed and found to contain 12.0 g carbon, 2.0 g hydrogen, and 16.0 g oxygen. What is the empirical formula for this compound? A) CH2O B) C6HO8 C) C6H12O6 D) C12H2O16 52. The fundamental, resonant wavelength of a pipe open at both ends that is 1 m long and 0.1 m in diameter is: A) 0.1 m. B) 0.2 m. C) 1.0 m. D) 2.0 m.
Which plot gives the typical voltage response between points A and B? A)
B)
C)
D)
54. Mechanical waves in a medium such as water function to transport: A) matter only. B) energy only. C) both matter and energy. D) neither matter nor energy.
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Passage IX Scientists hypothesize that motions of the Earth’s surface brought the present-day continents of North America and Africa into contact over 200 million years ago. The collision was brief on the time scale of geological events but resulted in the formation of the Appalachian Mountains near the east coast of North America and the Mauritanian Mountains near the west coast of Africa. The time of the event has been determined by an investigation of rock formations, magnetic measurements, and radioactive dating of rocks brought to the surface during the collision. In radioactive dating, the age of a rock can be determined by measuring the amount of radioactive potassium (40K, half-life = 2.4 x 108 years) in the rock and the amount of its decay product, argon gas (40Ar), in the sample. Consider a simplified model of this collision in which the continents are circular, uniform slabs of identical thickness free to move on a frictionless fluid mantle surface. Using this simplified model and modern measurements of continent drift speeds and positions, one determines that the continents should have collided 120 million years ago, a significantly more recent time than evidence from the scene would suggest.
57. If two continents of masses m1 and m2 and collinear velocities v1 and v2 collide and stick together, their common final velocity is: A) (m1v1 + m2v2)/(m1 + m2). B) (v12 + v22)1/2. C) v1 + v2. D) m1v1/m2 + m2v2/m1. 58. What kind of object is emitted in the decay of 40K? A) A gamma ray B) An alpha particle C) An electron D) A positron 59. A continent of mass m collides with a continent of mass m/2 that is initially at rest. During the collision, the more massive continent is found to exert a force F on the less massive continent, causing the smaller continent to accelerate. At the same time, the less massive continent exerts a force on the larger continent of magnitude: A) F/2. B) F. C) 2F. D) 0.
55. Which of the following quantities was necessarily conserved in the collision of the model continents? A) Momentum B) Kinetic energy C) Potential energy D) Impulse 56. Which of the following is a necessary condition for providing an accurate estimate of the age of a rock through radioactive dating? A) The rock must contain traces of organic material. B) Any gases present before the rock formed must have remained trapped in the rock. C) Gases must have remained trapped in the rock only since its formation. D) The rock must have been excavated from far beneath the Earth’s surface. Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
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Passage X A vacuum photodiode detector utilizes the photoelectric effect to detect light. The photoelectric effect causes electrons to be ejected from a metal plate when photons of light are absorbed by the metal. The energy of a photon is given by the equation E = hf, where h = 6.6 x 10-34 J·s (Planck’s constant), and f is the frequency of the photon. To free an electron, the energy of a photon must be greater than a quantity called the work function of the metal. The ejected electron will have a kinetic energy equal to the photon’s energy minus the work function. A vacuum photodiode is constructed by sealing two electrodes, a cathode and an anode, in a vacuum tube. The electrodes are separated by a distance, L = 0.01 m, and connected to a battery and a resistor, R = 100 Ω, as shown in Figure 1. The cathode is made of a photoelectric metal and is connected to the negative terminal of the battery. The potential difference between the cathode and anode is approximately equal to the battery voltage, V = 50 V. The electric field at all points between the electrodes is equal to the electrode voltage difference divided by L. The potential energy of an electron immediately after it is released from the cathode is equal to qV, where q = -1.6 x 10-19 C is the charge of an electron. The work function for the vacuum photodiode is 2 x 10-19 J.
60. Which of the following changes to the circuit will decrease the electric field between the electrodes by the greatest amount? A) Increasing L by a factor of 2 B) Decreasing L by a factor of 2 C) Increasing R by a factor of 2 D) Decreasing R by a factor of 2 61. An electron is ejected from the cathode by a photon with an energy slightly greater than the work function of the cathode. How will the final kinetic energy of the electron upon reaching the anode compare to its initial potential energy immediately after it has been ejected? A) It will be 2 times as large. B) It will be approximately equal. C) It will be 1/4 as large. D) It will be 0. 62. When the number of photons incident on the cathode with energies above the value of the work function increases, which of the following quantities also increases? A) Number of electrons ejected B) Potential energy of each ejected electron C) Magnitude of the electric field between the electrodes D) Speed of electrons at the anode 63. Which of the following best describes the movement of an electron after it is ejected from the cathode? A) It is stationary until collisions propel it toward the anode. B) It moves with constant speed toward the anode. C) It accelerates toward the anode. D) It exits through a side of the vacuum photodiode. 64. When the current in the circuit described in the passage is 1 x 10-3 A, what power is dissipated as heat in the resistor?
Figure 1 Vacuum photodiode detector
A) 1 x 10-6 W B) 1 x 10-4 W C) 1 x 10-2 W D) 1 x 10-1 W
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65. Which of the following occurs when electrons are ejected from the cathode? A) The voltage across the electrodes reverses polarity. B) The voltage difference between the electrodes increases. C) Current flows through the circuit. D) The total resistance of the circuit increases. 66. Increasing the frequency of each photon that is directed at the cathode will: A) decrease the number of photons ejected. B) increase the number of photons ejected. C) decrease the speed of the ejected electrons. D) increase the speed of the ejected electrons.
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Passage XI A chemist measured some physical properties of an unknown element (X) and its oxide. The results are summarized in Table 1. Table 1 Physical Properties of Element X and Its Oxide
Density (g/cm3) Melting point (oC) Boiling point (oC) Solubility (g/100 g H2O at 25oC)
Element X 1.54 839 1484 not measured
Oxide of X 3.30 2614 2850 0.12
The chemist concluded that the oxide was an ionic compound because of its high melting and boiling points. When the solubility experiment was conducted, the element reacted with water at room temperature and liberated a flammable gas. Dissolution of the oxide in water produced a pH greater than 7. The boiling point of the oxide solution was slightly higher than 100oC. The emission spectrum of element X displayed a number of lines in the visible region; the red emissions were particularly intense. The chemist compared certain properties of the unknown with those of oxygen. The data are shown in Table 2. Table 2 Properties of Element X and Oxygen Electronegativity First ionization energy (kJ/mol) Second ionization energy (kJ/mol) Third ionization energy (kJ/mol)
Element X 1.0 590 1100 4912
Oxygen 3.5 1300 3400 5300
67. What is the physical state of the unknown element X at 1200oC? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) Plasma 68. If the molar mass of the oxide is known, what other characteristic of the solution is required to calculate the molarity of its saturated solution? A) Its density B) Its mass C) Its volume D) Its pH 69. According to data presented in the passage, which of the following charge distributions best describes the oxide of element X? A) Element X positive, oxygen positive B) Element X positive, oxygen negative C) Element X negative, oxygen positive D) Element X negative, oxygen negative 70. The gas that evolved when the chemist tried to dissolve element X was most likely: A) water vapor produced from the heat of reaction. B) oxygen produced by chemical reaction. C) hydrogen produced by chemical reaction. D) nitrogen that had been dissolved in the water from air. 71. According to the ionization energies shown in Table 2, element X is: A) an alkali metal. B) an alkaline earth metal. C) a transition metal. D) a nonmetal.
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These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
72. In the Bohr model of the atom, radiation is emitted whenever electrons: A) change orbits. B) undergo acceleration. C) move to orbits of lower energy. D) move to orbits of larger radius. 73. Which of the following phase changes is used to determine the heat of fusion for a pure substance? A) Melting of a solid B) Sublimation of a solid C) Boiling of a liquid D) Condensation of a gas 74.
75. Suppose that a stream of fluid flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of varying crosssectional diameter. Neglecting viscosity, where is the fluid pressure greatest? A) At the intake point B) At the point of maximum diameter C) At the point of minimum diameter D) At the point of maximum change in diameter 76. Suppose a certain far-sighted person can see objects clearly no closer than 300 cm away. What is the minimum distance from a plane mirror such a person must be to see his reflection clearly? A) 75 cm B) 150 cm C) 300 cm D) 600 cm 77. A solution of H2SO4(aq) has a pH of 6.0. What is the H3O+(aq) concentration? A) 1 x 106 B) 5 x 10-7 C) 2 x 10-6 D) 1 x10-6
In the circuit shown above, the current in the 2ohm resistance is 2 A. What is the current in the 3ohm resistance? A) 2 A B) 3 A C) 4 A D) 6 A
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Verbal Reasoning Time: 85 minutes Questions: 78-137 There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
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Passage I Human rights as an idea, as an issue in religious, political, and moral philosophy, has an ancient and illustrious pedigree. The English Bill of Rights, and more emphatically the U.S. Declaration of Independence and the French Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen, were all based on the idea of inalienable, universal, and absolute rights. Nor is it true that the idea of human rights is an invention alien to most non-Western cultures and that it has been foisted on a more or less unwilling world. Even if there were no explicit covenants to that effect in traditional societies in Asia, Africa, and Latin America, the idea of freedom was hardly alien to those civilizations. Throughout the last century, it was commonly argued that international law concerned states alone, but this interpretation is no longer widely held. A new approach manifested itself in the Atlantic Charter of 1941, in the Declaration of the United Nations the year after, and in countless speeches of wartime leaders. This new approach found expression in the United Nations Charter and, more specifically, in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, approved without a dissenting voice in December 1948. The president of the General Assembly, Dr. H. V. Evatt of Australia, said at the time that this was the first occasion on which the organized world community had recognized the existence of human rights and fundamental freedoms transcending the laws of sovereign states. But although millions of men and women have indeed turned to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, they have received very little guidance and no help from the organization that propagated it. The failure of the United Nations to live up to early expectations and to become an effective instrument for the promotion of human rights has induced individual governments and nongovernmental bodies to take fresh initiatives in this area. In 1947, the Organization of American States passed a declaration on the rights and duties of humankind; in 1950, the Council of Europe agreed on a covenant for the protection of human rights and fundamental freedoms and established the European Commission for Human Rights as well as a European court in Strasbourg that has heard many cases since it first met in 1960. Various private bodies, such as the International League for Human Rights, Freedom
House, and Amnesty International, have published reports about conditions of oppression in various parts of the world, drawing attention to particularly flagrant violations, and on occasion mobilizing public support to bring pressure on the governments concerned. It was clear from the very beginning that the walls of oppression would not crumble at the first clarion call. The cultural and social context, the level of development of each country, are factors that have to be taken into account. What has especially to be considered is the general trend in a country: Has there been a movement toward greater human rights or away from them? However underdeveloped a country, there is no convincing argument in favor of torture, of arbitrary execution, of keeping sections of a population or a whole people in a state of slavery. The case for human rights is unassailable. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: C. Ozick, Art & Ardor: Essays. ©1983 by C. Ozick.
78. According to the passage, when judging the human rights record of a country, one must take into account: I. II. III.
the country’s level of development. the country’s social and cultural circumstances. whether the country is moving toward or away from greater human rights.
A) II only B) III only C) I and II only D) I, II, and III 79. Regarding the concept of human rights, the author asserts that non-Western cultures: A) originated the concept of human rights. B) understood human rights before being exposed to Western cultures. C) initially resisted the concept of human rights introduced by Western cultures. D) developed explicit covenants about human rights before Western cultures did so.
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80. The U.S. Declaration of Independence and the French Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen are cited in the passage as evidence that:
84. Which of the following statements most strongly challenges one of the assertions made in the passage?
A) the concept of human rights was not alien to early non-Western cultures. B) the English Bill of Rights was not the only early document that promoted human rights. C) throughout the last century, it was commonly held that international law applied only to states. D) the issue of human rights has been prominent in world thinking for centuries.
A) The citizens of any country have the right to disobey unjust laws. B) Countries have the right to manage their own internal affairs without outside interference. C) Some governments may move more slowly than others toward implementing human rights laws. D) Even the passage of universal human rights laws will not immediately stop all oppression.
81. The passage implies that an underdeveloped country that replaces a repressive dictator with a democratic leader sworn to oppose the persecution of the country’s citizens should be: A) praised cautiously for its first steps at moving away from human rights abuses. B) monitored intensely for possible human rights abuses. C) forgiven its past persecutions due to the poor condition of its economy. D) criticized harshly for not having instituted democratic reforms sooner. 82. On the sole basis of the passage, determine which of the following acts the author would most want to see forbidden by international law, regardless of the level of development of the country in which it takes place. A) Using private property for state purposes B) Placing certain conditions on the right to vote C) Suspending certain freedoms in times of national emergency D) Torturing political dissidents 83. Passage information indicates that if a people were suffering persecution by their government, they would probably most benefit by bringing their case to the attention of: A) the United Nations. B) the Organization of American States. C) Amnesty International. D) the elected leader of their country.
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Passage II Women who write with an overriding consciousness that they write as women are engaged not in aspiration toward writing but chiefly in a politics of sex. A new political term makes its appearance: woman writer, not used descriptively – as one would say “a lanky, brownhaired writer” – but as part of the language of politics. Now a politics of sex can be very much to the point. No one would deny that the movement for female suffrage was a politics of sex, and obviously any agitation for equality in employment, in the professions, and in government is a politics of sex. But the language of politics is not writers’ language. Politics begins with premises; imagination goes in search of them. The political term woman writer signals in advance a whole set of premises: that, for instance, there are “male” and “female” states of intellect and feeling, hence of prose; that individuality of condition and temperament do not apply, or at least not much, and that all writing women possess – not by virtue of being writers but by virtue of being women – an instantly perceived common ground; that writers who are women can best nourish other writers who are women. I deny this. There is a human component to literature that does not separate writers by sex but that – on the contrary – engenders sympathies from sex to sex, from condition to condition, from experience to experience, from like to like, and from unlike to unlike. Literature universalizes. Without disparaging particularity or identity, it universalizes; it does not divide. Does a “woman writer” have a body of separate experience by virtue of being a woman? It was this myth-fed condition of segregation that classical feminism was created to bring to an end. Insofar as some women, and some writers who are women, have separate bodies of experience or separate psychologies, to that degree has the feminism of these women not yet asserted itself. In art, feminism is that idea which opposes segregation; which means to abolish mythological divisions; which declares that the imagination cannot be “set” free, because it is already free.
historian, nor a literary critic, nor a journalist, nor a politician. The newspeak term woman writer has the following sociological or political message: “Of course we believe in humanity-as-a-whole. Of course we believe that a writer is a writer, period. But let us for a little while gather together, as women, to become politically strong, strong in morale, a visible, viable social factor; as such, we will separate ourselves only temporarily, during this strengthening period, and then, when we can rejoin the world with power and dignity in our hands, we will rejoin it and declare ourselves for the unity of the human species. This temporary status will be our strategy in our struggle with Society.” That is the voice of the “woman writer.” But it is a mistaken voice. Only consider: In intellectual life, a new generation comes of age every four or five years. For those who were not present at the inception of this strategy, it will not seem a strategy at all; it will be the only reality. Writers will very soon find themselves born into one of two categories, woman writer or writer, and all the writers will be expected to be male – an uninspiring social and literary atmosphere the world has known before. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: W. Laqueur and B. Rubin, eds., The Human Rights Reader. ©1989 by W. Laqueur and B. Rubin.
85. According to the passage, women writers say they will end their voluntary segregation when: A) women writers gain sufficient political power. B) literature recognizes humanity-as-a-whole. C) women writers’ imaginations are set free. D) a new generation of women writers appears. 86. The author of the passage states that in the arts, feminism is a force that: A) gives women writers an instantly perceived common ground. B) opposes segregation and mythological divisions. C) groups writers into two categories. D) helps women writers to accept humanity-as-awhole.
A writer – I mean now a fiction writer or a poet, an imagining writer – is not a sociologist, nor a social Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
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87. The passage indicates that its author would NOT agree with which of the following statements? A) Because women have different life experiences than do men, each sex must develop its own values. B) Women who write should feel free to express their political viewpoints. C) Literature can help men and women to become more sympathetic toward one another. D) Women should earn the same wages as men. 88. According to the passage, if women who write are labeled women writers, then eventually: A) these women will become classical feminists. B) these women will become political. C) the human component of literature will disappear. D) only male writers will be called writers. 89. If the author of the passage admired the fiction or poetry of one of the self-labeled women writers, this admiration would be most discrepant with the passage assertion that: A) classical feminism was created to bring an end to intellectual segregation. B) women writers believe that they can be nourished only by other women writers. C) a world in which all writers are men would be uninspiring. D) an imagining writer should not use the language of politics. 90. Which of the following works would the author of the passage be most likely to describe as literature? A) A play in which men’s and women’s lives are treated sympathetically B) An essay about the women’s liberation movement of the 1970s C) A novel that attacks men for their ignorance of feminism D) A tract arguing that the next president of the U.S. should be a woman
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Passage III A predetermined covenant of confidentiality characterizes the physician-patient relationship. Possession of contraband in prison is illegal, but suppose that during a routine medical examination, a prison physician notices that Prisoner A has drugs and paraphernalia. Should the physician report a crime or should confidentiality prevail? Professional communications between physicians and patients are statutorily protected as confidential. A routine physical examination is part of the confidential communication, like information obtained by taking a medical history and data entered in the patient’s health record. Health professionals have an interest in maintaining confidentiality so that patients will feel comfortable in revealing personal but necessary information. Prisoners do not possess full Constitutional rights to privacy, but they generally retain rights to privacy when there is a special relationship between communicants, such as the physician-patient relationship. In fact, respect for confidentiality is particularly important in a prison hospital setting, in which patients feel distrust because physicians are often employed by the incarcerating institution. Clinical autonomy for health professionals in the prison setting is essential for good medical practice. Physicians working in prisons also retain the privilege of confidential interactions with patients, although the prison authorities may try to pressure doctors to supply information. Even if physicians are employed by the prison, their first responsibility is to their patients. The circumstances in which to give privileged information to prison authorities remains the physician’s decision. The finding that contraband detected during an examination has the appearance of drugs and paraphernalia, like all results of the examination, is privileged information to be treated confidentially. The right to privacy supersedes a duty to report the discovery because there is no imminent threat to others. In contrast, a weapon harbored by a prisoner represents an imminent threat to other prisoners and to prison staff. Thus, upon discovering a sequestered weapon during the course of a routine examination, the physician has a “duty to warn.” According to case law, when the physician believes that a significant threat of
harm exists, the duty to warn takes precedence over the patient’s right to privacy. The case of Prisoner A raises the issue of the point at which to draw the line between the duty to protect the public and the duty to protect patients’ privacy. Although legal guidelines can assist the physician in making the choice, the health professional must rely on a guiding principle of the medical profession: Where no danger to others exists, patients come first. The possibility of discovering contraband during routine examinations of prisoner patients reinforces the need for informed consent at several stages. First, prisoner patients should be evaluated and treated only after they provide informed consent, unless they are incompetent. Before an X ray is taken, they should be informed that it can demonstrate metal and other foreign bodies, and their agreement to the procedure should be obtained. Second, if a concealed weapon is discovered during a routine examination, the prisoner patient should be informed that the discovery will be reported and given the opportunity to surrender the weapon to authorities before more forcible means are taken to remove it. If Prisoner A is harboring drugs and a needle, drug use is quite possibly contributing to A’s health problem. It is the physician’s responsibility to educate A about the potential harm of drug use. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: C. Levine (Ed.), Cases in Bioethics: Selections from the Hastings Center Report. ©1989 by St. Martin' Press.
91. Assume that a prison did not have a policy of obtaining informed consent before a diagnostic procedure, and almost all of the inmates refused to be X-rayed. The author’s comments suggest that this situation could reasonably be interpreted as evidence that prisoners: A) believe that they have a Constitutional right to privacy. B) are less concerned about their health than are nonprisoners. C) distrust physicians who are employed by the prison. D) feel a need to carry weapons for self-protection.
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92. Suppose that a prisoner under sedation for a medical procedure inadvertently reveals that a weapon is hidden in the prisoner’s cell. Passage information suggests that the author would be most likely to advise the physician to report the incident: A) only if the prisoner threatened to use the weapon. B) only if the prisoner consented to the report. C) only if the prisoner subsequently denied that the weapon existed. D) regardless of the patient’s assertions. 93. The author argues that a routine examination is part of the confidential communication between a patient and a physician and that the clinical autonomy of the physician is essential for good medical practice in prisons. These beliefs imply that: A) if the quality of medicine practiced in a prison declines, a physician has violated the confidentiality of a routine examination. B) if all physicians in a prison refuse to reveal information about prisoners obtained during routine examinations, the physicians in that prison have clinical autonomy. C) if all physicians who conduct routine examinations in a prison respect their patients’ confidence, the quality of medicine practiced in the prison is high. D) if a physician is required to reveal information about a prisoner obtained during a routine examination, the quality of medicine practiced in the prison suffers.
95. Which of the following conclusions about physician confidentiality can be inferred from the passage? A) It is more likely to be assumed in a private setting than in a prison. B) It is especially important when patients are incompetent to give informed consent. C) It is threatened by the use of invasive diagnostic tools such as X rays. D) It is an aspect of a Constitutional right that is lost by prisoners. 96. Which of the following objections, if valid, would most weaken the argument made for the special importance of the physician-patient covenant within prisons? A) Prisoners understand that X rays will detect hidden weapons. B) Prisoners assume that physicians are independent of the institution. C) Prison officials often question physicians about prisoners. D) Prisoners often misunderstand their Constitutional rights.
94. With respect to prisoners, “necessary information”probably refers most specifically to a patient’s: A) past criminal activities. B) use of illegal drugs. C) intent to harm others. D) psychiatric history.
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Passage IV In Civilization and Its Discontents, Sigmund Freud examined the agonizing dilemma of human social life. We are by nature selfish and aggressive, yet any successful civilization demands that we suppress our biological inclinations and act altruistically for the common good and harmony. Freud’s argument is a particularly forceful variation on a ubiquitous theme in speculations about “human nature.” What we criticize in ourselves, we attribute to our animal past. These are the shackles of our apish ancestry–brutality, aggression, selfishness; in short, general nastiness. What we prize and strive for (with pitifully limited success), we consider as a unique overlay, conceived by our rationality and imposed upon an unwilling body. One nagging scientific argument does seem to support this ancient prejudice. The essential ingredient of human kindness is altruism –sacrifice of our personal comfort, even our lives in extreme cases, for the benefit of others. Yet if we accept the Darwinian mechanism of evolution, how can altruism be part of biology? Natural selection dictates that organisms act in their own self-interest. They know nothing of such abstract concepts as “the good of the species.” How, then, could anything but selfishness ever evolve as a biological trait of behavior? We owe the resolution of this paradox to the theory of kin selection, which was developed in the early 1960s by W. D. Hamilton, a British theoretical biologist. According to this theory, animals evolve behaviors that endanger or sacrifice themselves only if such altruistic acts increase their own genetic potential by benefiting kin. Altruism and the society of kin must go hand in hand; the benefits of kin selection may even propel the evolution of social interaction. Kin selection seems to explain the key features of social behavior in ants, bees, and wasps. But what can it do for us? How can it help us to understand the contradictory amalgam of impulses toward selfishness and altruism that form our own personalities? I am willing to admit –and this is only my intuition, since we have no facts to constrain us – that kin selection probably resolves Freud’s dilemma of the first paragraph. Basic human kindness may be as “animal” as human nastiness. But here I stop – short of any deterministic speculation that attributes specific
behaviors to the possession of specific altruist or opportunist genes. Upbringing, culture, class, status, and all the intangibles that we call “free will” determine the way we restrict our behaviors from the wide spectrum – extreme altruism to extreme selfishness – that our genes permit. Although I worry long and hard about the deterministic uses of kin selection, I applaud the insight it offers for my favored theme, biological potentiality. For it extends the realm of genetic potential even further by including the capacity for kindness, once viewed as intrinsically unique to human culture. Freud argued that the history of our greatest scientific insights has reflected, ironically, a continuous retreat of our species from center stage in the cosmos. Before Copernicus and Newton, we thought we lived at the hub of the universe. Before Freud, we imagined ourselves as rational creatures (surely one of the least modest statements in intellectual history). If kin selection marks another stage in this retreat, it will serve us well by nudging our thinking away from domination and toward a perception of respect and unity with other animals. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: R. Lewin, In the Age of Mankind: A Smithsonian Book of Human Evolution. ©1988 by The Smithsonian Institution.
97. Which of the following statements best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A) What we criticize in ourselves we attribute to our animal past. B) Natural selection dictates that organisms act in their own self-interest. C) Altruism and the society of kin must go hand in hand. D) Basic human kindness may be as “animal” as human nastiness. 98. The term unique overlay refers implicitly to our human: A) altruistic behavior. B) tendency toward animalistic behavior. C) propensity toward selfishness. D) ability to be self-critical.
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99. An important comparison is made in the passage between: A) altruism and rationality. B) selfishness and aggressiveness. C) altruism as a uniquely human trait and as a trait shared with lower animals. D) determinism and rationality. 100. Suppose the author had inserted the following sentence at the end of paragraph 4: “Both the miser’s tendency to hoard and the philanthropist’s tendency to give have, at times, been attributed to genetics.” This example would best illuminate the author’s discussion of: A) free will. B) rationality. C) determinism. D) human nature. 101. Which of the following assertions in the passage is NOT supported by an example or by reference to an authority? A) “Free will” determines our behaviors within the wide range our genes permit. B) The history of science has marked the continuous retreat of humanity from center stage. C) Animals evolve altruistic behaviors only if such acts increase their own genetic potential. D) Successful civilization demands that we suppress our biological inclinations. 102. The author asks, “Yet if we accept the Darwinian mechanism of evolution, how can altruism be part of biology?” This question is most directly dealt with in the author’s discussion of: A) natural selection. B) kin selection. C) civilization. D) evolution.
103. The last paragraph of the passage implies that we may be nudged “toward a perception of respect and unity with other animals” because: A) we live at the hub of the universe and can therefore see things with relative clarity. B) we are rational creatures and can therefore see the importance of kindness toward other animals. C) our behavior, like that of other animals, is entirely governed by our genetic makeup. D) we see that our altruistic traits, like traits of other animals, may be due to biological evolution. 104. It has been said that war is inevitable because brutality is a part of our biological heritage. The author would probably disagree by saying that: A) we may be brutal by nature, but we are also kindly by nature. B) contrary to past beliefs, our true biological nature is not brutal but altruistic. C) although our biological nature may be brutal, our spirituality can help us to transcend this trait. D) biologically we may be brutal, but our human ability to reason can help us to overcome this trait. 105. In another essay, the author quotes Benjamin Franklin as saying, “We must all hang together, or assuredly we shall all hang separately.” This quotation could best be used in the passage to illustrate the survival value of: A) biological determinism. B) reciprocal altruism. C) animal aggression. D) genetic mutation. 106. Freud’s argument that to behave altruistically we must renounce many of our innate animalistic, biological instincts is most weakened by which idea that is implicit in the passage? A) Our tendency toward selfishness is directly linked to our animal ancestry. B) Darwin’s theory of natural selection dictates that an animal always acts in its own best interest. C) Lower animals such as ants, wasps, and bees are capable of acts of self-sacrifice. D) Human social life entails agonizing dilemmas.
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Passage V The fossil record indicates that flowers originated some time during the middle of the Mesozoic Era, about 150 million years ago. Flowers probably made their first humble appearance in the age of conifers, cycads, dinosaurs, and beetles. Most of the seedbearing plants of that age were probably pollinated by wind. They possessed the same kinds of reproductive structures, including separate sexes and in some instances, winged pollen, that are associated with wind pollination in their modern survivors. The ovules were borne in cones or on leaves and exuded drops of sap. In the course of time, beetles feeding on the sap and resin of stems and on leaves must have discovered that the liquid droplets from the ovules and the pollen in the male cones were nutritious foods. Some of these beetles, returning regularly to the newly found source of food, would have accidentally carried pollen to the ovules. For some Mesozoic plants, this new method of pollination may have represented a more efficient method of cross-pollination than did the releasing of enormous quantities of pollen into the air. Through natural selection, they would develop adaptations to the potentialities of beetle pollination. The ovules, first of all, must be placed behind some protective wall to prevent their being chewed up by the beetles. One means of accomplishing this isolation would be to fold the ovule-bearing leaf or branch into a hollow, closed carpel. The pollen-collecting function would then have to be transferred from the individual ovules to a central stigma serving all the ovules in the carpel. The beetles could be drawn to the stigma by a special secretion of nectar, which would replace the droplets previously given off by the individual ovules. A beetle visiting the stigma would be apt to leave behind sufficient pollen for the fertilization of numerous ovules. The number of seeds formed in a single pollination would no longer be one, as in the windpollinated ancestor, but ten or twenty. So the transition from wind to beetle pollination would increase the fertility of the plant. The chance that the beetle would bring pollen to the stigma would be increased if the male stamens were in close proximity to the carpels. The stamens and carpels
might even be advantageously grouped within the same cone. The stamens would have to be present in large number so that they would not all be devoured by the beetles. In the course of time, the outer stamens might become sterilized and pigmented and transformed into a set of showy petals. When these conditions had been fulfilled, there would have come into existence a structure possessing all the essentials of a modern flower. When the bees, moths, butterflies, and long-tongued flies arrived on the earth at the beginning of the Tertiary Period, some 70 million years ago, the evolution of flowers was greatly broadened. In flowers pollinated by the long-tongued insects, the petals became fused into a tubular corolla with the supply of nectar concealed at its base. The carpels were similarly fused into a compound ovary with a more localized and centralized stigma. The tubular structure of the corolla tended to screen out the beetles and small flies and to restrict visitors to those insects–the bees, moths, and long-tongued flies – that fly regularly from flower to flower of the same species. This was a great step forward in floral design: It marked a transition from promiscuous pollination by miscellaneous unspecialized insects to restricted pollination by specialized and flower-constant animals. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: V. Grant, The Pollination of Flowers. ©1965 by Harper and Row.
107. The ideas in the passage seem to derive primarily from: A) evidence on the behavior of living insect species. B) speculation based on an accepted theory. C) knowledge of ongoing evolutionary trends. D) facts observable in the fossil record. 108. The passage discussion most clearly suggests the hypothesis that as flowers evolve they increasingly form reproductive structures that: A) are attractive to numerous insects. B) accommodate the structure of insects. C) exclude insects not of a particular type. D) determine the direction of insect evolution.
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109. The author’s reasoning about flower evolution could most reasonably be extended to questions about: A) climatic influences on flower shape. B) the biochemistry of nectar and pollen. C) flower color as an insect attractant. D) the era in which winged insects originated. 110. Which of the following findings would most compromise the author’s conclusions about the evolution of flowers with corollas? A) Flowers with corollas often become extinct shortly after their insect pollinator becomes extinct. B) The long-tongued insects of the Tertiary Period had not developed wings. C) The genes that control the formation of a corolla also cause vulnerability to a fungus. D) Flowers without corollas can be chemically stimulated to form this structure. 111. A botanist hypothesizes that as flowers evolved tubular corollas, their nectar attracted a particular species of long-tongued fly that became their only insect pollinator. For this hypothesis to be reasonable, what issue should the botanist address? A) The reason that the beetles of the period did not develop long tongues B) The reason that bees, moths, and butterflies evolved along with these flies C) The means by which these flies survived before tubular corollas existed D) The advantage of pollination by these flies over pollination by multiple species
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Passage VI Perhaps the least likely place to find deep knowledge about animals is in a trained-orangutan act performed on a Las Vegas stage by Bobby Berosini and his five orangutans. According to Berosini, orangutans are the hardest of all the apes to teach a trick to because they are so self-contained. The same idea is expressed in scholarly literature on orangutans with reference to their marked lack of social interaction in the wild. Unlike most other apes, they are not dependent on social support and approval. An orangutan is irredeemably his or her own person–“the most poetic of the apes,” as primate researcher Lyn Miles once told me. Chimpanzees are much admired for their use of tools and their problem-solving relationship with things as they find them. A chimpanzee looks inferential, ingenious, and ever so active while taking the various IQ tests that science presents – a hexagonal peg, say, and several holes of different shapes, only one of them hexagonal. Here, the chimpanzee shows tremendous initiative right away. Holding the peg this way and that, it experiments, filled with the inventor’s work ethic. Give your orangutan the hexagonal peg and the several different holes, and it uses the peg to scratch its back, has a look-see at its right wrist, stares dreamily out the window, if there is one, and at nothing in particular, if there is not, then casually, and as if thinking of something else, the orangutan slips the hexagonal peg into the hexagonal hole and continues staring off dreamily. Professor Miles says that this sort of behavior contradicts the traditional finding that orangs are dumber than chimps. It is rather, she says, that chimps are problem oriented, whereas orangs are insight oriented, the dreamers and visionaries of the world of the great apes. If Berosini’s act can be said to have one overriding theme, it is training–obedience–itself. Obedience comes from an old French word that means “to hear,” or “to heed,” “to pay attention to.” The great trainers of every kind of animal have said for millennia that you cannot get an animal to heed you unless you heed the animal; obedience in this sense is a symmetrical relationship. It may start with the human, who perhaps says to the dog, “Rex, sit!” Soon, however, Rex will take the command and turn it, use it to respond, to say
something back. A dog might take to sitting in a sprightly fashion when one picks up a leash, as if to say: “Yes, that’s it, let’s go!” It is at this moment that true training with any species, including humans, either begins or fails. If the human “obeys,” hears, heeds, responds to what the animal is now saying, then training begins. If the human “drops” the animal at this point, not realizing that the task has only begun, then the dog or orangutan will disobey. The intelligent responsiveness of animals is for us one of the most deeply attractive things about them, not only because we are a lonesome and threatened tribe but because intelligent responsiveness is a central, abiding good. The intelligent responsiveness of trainers, which some of them call respect, is what makes them attractive to animals, and may be the whole of the secret of “having a way with animals.” The knowledge trainers have may contain clues to imaginative and enlightened ways we might escape the violence and sentimentality of our age toward the nonhuman world and thereby genuinely take up the burden of our responsibility to other species. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: V. Hearne, Can an ape tell a joke? ©1993 by Harper's Magazine.
112. The central thesis of the passage is that: A) orangutans are especially difficult to train. B) orangutans are more interesting than chimpanzees. C) respecting other species may help us to respect humans. D) obedience is best achieved through sensitivity. 113. The author’s comparison of chimpanzees and orangutans indicates that: A) chimpanzees understand problems more quickly but solve them more slowly than do orangutans. B) chimpanzees use more appropriate problem-solving techniques than do orangutans. C) the problem-solving process is observable in chimpanzees but not in orangutans. D) intelligence can be evaluated in chimpanzees but not in orangutans.
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114. The author cites Lyn Miles’s description of the orangutan as “the most poetic of the apes” to make the point that this species is especially: A) nonaggressive in social encounters. B) unresponsive to external stimuli. C) temperamental during training. D) independent of others. 115. The author suggests that the difficulty of training orangutans to perform tricks results from their: A) lack of problem-solving initiative. B) indifference to approval. C) limited attention span. D) distrust of humans. 116. The aphorism “you cannot get an animal to heed you unless you heed the animal” means that a trainer should: A) show as much respect for an animal as is expected from it. B) proceed with training only when an animal is attentive. C) utilize the natural social structure of the species. D) be alert to signs that an animal may become disobedient. 117. What is the intended relevance of the comment that humans “are a lonesome and threatened tribe” to the rest of the passage? A) To explain the satisfaction that can be gained from interacting with animals B) To indicate a basic similarity between humans and the great apes C) To express the sentimentality of the author’s attitude toward animals D) To provide a moral justification for requiring obedience from animals
118. A dog is being trained correctly, according to the author’s views, when the owner: A) punishes disobedience immediately, fairly, and consistently. B) uses a calm, even tone in praising or correcting the dog. C) provides a reward for any advance toward the desired behavior. D) establishes a cooperative relationship with the dog. 119. If the species in question were human children, the author’s ideas suggest that a teacher should: A) not attempt to interact with children who are inattentive. B) continue to encourage children who perform well in class. C) demonstrate obedience by yielding to demands by the children. D) assure the class frequently that the teacher likes children. 120. Suppose researchers discover that only wild-born orangutans respond to IQ tests in the way described, whereas those born in captivity behave in the same way as chimpanzees. Which of the following hypotheses is most compatible with passage information? A) Orangutans have no need to solve problems systematically in their natural habitat. B) Wild-born orangutans are less intelligent than are those reared in captivity. C) Orangutans can be trained to increase their problem-solving efficiency. D) The same difference exists between wild-born chimpanzees and those born in captivity. 121. What distinction is implied in the passage between cognition in chimpanzees and orangutans, respectively? A) The ability and the inability to concentrate B) More rapid and slower thought processes C) More and less advanced stages of mental development D) Trial-and-error learning and insight
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Passage VII When Charles Darwin published his On the Origin of Species, he wrought an intellectual revolution that would forever alter humankind’s view of itself. Humans, as all other organisms, had evolved by the process of natural selection from more primitive ancestral forms and were therefore not separate from, but a part of, nature. Anthropologists long have struggled with the dilemma resulting from Darwin’s revolution: If Homo sapiens is “nothing but an animal,” then how do we account for our sense of specialness? Part of the answer is that although we are animals, two qualities arose in the course of our evolution that were novel in the animal kingdom. The first quality is consciousness, the facility for deep introspection that enables us to see into our own minds and those of others. An animal without consciousness may “know” the world it inhabits, but only the human animal knows it knows. The second evolutionary innovation crucial to the unusual course of human history is culture, the facility not only to impose an unprecedented degree of artificiality on the world but to participate in a collective, cumulative learning experience. A vital part of this facility is language, a vehicle for complex thought processes. Through culture, each new generation benefits not only from its own experience and that of its parents but also from the collective wisdom of all previous generations. Combine consciousness and culture in a species and a truly different kind of animal is created. This animal can build a civilization. And within civilization exists an animal with concerns that can be totally divorced from the business of subsistence, an animal with frontiers that can extend beyond its immediate material surroundings, an animal that wants – indeed needs – to discover things about itself and the world it inhabits. This animal has an insatiable appetite for knowledge.
success in “the struggle for existence.” The process is one of passive selection, notwithstanding the active striving implied by Darwin’s phrase. The mechanism of natural selection works, as evidenced by the usually excellent fit between most species and their environments. But it is very slow. When biologists speak of rapid evolutionary change, they mean something on the order of 10,000 years. What has enabled Homo sapiens to speed up the pace of change in its world is culture: Cultural evolution is incomparably faster than genetic evolution. It’s true that cultural evolution may appear to obey some of the rules of natural selection. “Good” ideas will catch on and be promulgated, for example, while “bad” ones perish. The components of culture, however, are artificially created; they are “selected for” not only between generations but also within them – hence the potential for exceedingly rapid rates of cultural change. Genetic evolution deals with gene mutations, which usually have modest influence on the way an individual behaves or grows; if favored by selection, genetic mutations may become dominant in a population after tens of thousands of years. Cultural evolution deals with novel artifacts, which sometimes transform entire societies virtually instantaneously – witness the effects of the electronic computer today. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: S.J. Gould, Ever Since Darwin: Reflections in Natural History. ©1977 by S.J. Gould.
One characteristic of our scientific civilization is rapid change, whether it be in fashion, technology, or political alliances. Change is the core of the Darwinian world of natural selection, too: adaptation to shifting circumstances and environments. The process of adaptation occurs generation by generation; individuals that are genetically most suited to prevailing conditions are equipped to produce more surviving offspring. This reproductive advantage is what Darwin meant by Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
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122. The author implies that an animal without consciousness is not: A) aware of its individuality. B) able to learn from its experiences. C) able to express its knowledge. D) fully aware of its surroundings. 123. The author’s argument that culture contributes to human evolution depends on the acceptance of which of the following premises? A) Darwin’s theory revolutionized the conception of human nature. B) Consciousness and culture give humans a sense of specialness. C) Only humans are curious about the world around them. D) Genetic mutations do not cause rapid social changes.
126. The author’s discussion of the relationship of language to culture and complex thought implies that: A) before a culture existed, language could not have developed. B) nonhuman animals may have languages but not cultures. C) complex problems cannot be solved through visual imagery. D) teaching is a particularly important function of language.
124. Which of the following situations would NOT be an example of the operation of natural selection within cultural evolution? A) Foreign languages are taught to young children in private schools but not to those in public schools. B) The most popular television shows are those that glorify violence, and the number of such shows increases. C) In a period of economic decline, only the candidates with coherent social programs are elected. D) As each generation creates terminology, the language is gradually transformed. 125. Assume that few humans give much thought to anything except their immediate material surroundings. Which of the following hypotheses does this assumption suggest? A) Consciousness provides no significant advantages. B) Cultural evolution has not kept pace with genetic evolution. C) Language does not make complex thought possible. D) Civilization does not create a desire to understand.
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Passage VIII Many scholars see an incompatibility between democracy and economic growth for both economic and political reasons. The economic reasons relate to the fact that growth requires an economic surplus available for investment. Such a surplus can be either invested or consumed. Hence, the only way to increase the investable surplus is to reduce consumption. The argument is that a democratic regime will not be able to pursue policies of curbing consumption (holding down real wages) because the consumers are also voters and they will punish the politicians the next time they get the chance at the ballot box. Those with political reservations about democracy take as their starting point the fact that economic development is best promoted when there is a high degree of political stability and order. According to this position, democracy opens the already weak institutions of the developing countries to all kinds of pressures from different groups in society. Instability and disorder are the result. They argue that the odds are increasingly being stacked against the successful promotion of development, and thus the demands for comprehensive state action in order to promote development have increased dramatically over time. There is more competition from the world market and a higher internal urgency for development than was the case when the industrialized Western countries went through the early phases of development. And in the past hundred years, there has been no case of successful economic development without comprehensive political action involving massive state intervention in the economy. Such concerted state action is difficult, if not impossible, under democratic conditions.
Although it is true that a specific amount of economic surplus can be either invested or consumed but not both, the conclusion that there is thus a sharp contradiction between growth and welfare is not as straightforward as it seems. For example, public expenditure in such areas as health and education constitutes investment in human capital, which simultaneously improves welfare for large groups in the population. Indeed, the choice may be not between growth and welfare but between two different kinds of investment policy – one that supports welfare and one that does not. Next, these critics turn the argument that democracy cannot secure order and stability on its head by pointing out that authoritarianism can mean arbitrary rule and undue interference in citizens’ affairs. Only a democracy can provide the predictable environment in which economic development can prosper. Moreover, political and economic pluralism reinforce each other. Without basic civil and political liberties, citizens will not feel secure to pursue economic goals consistently. Finally, there is the argument concerning the need for comprehensive and concerted state action in order to promote economic development. Advocates of democracy reply that although strong state action may be needed, it cannot be taken for granted that a strong state capable of taking a leading role in economic development efforts is also necessarily a nondemocratic state. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: G. Sorensen, Democracy and Democratization: Processes and Prospects in a Changing World. ©1993 by Westview Press.
They also assert that the current tasks of nation building are indeed formidable. Political order and governmental authority are needed to get through the early, difficult stages of economic development. Only at a later stage do participation and distribution become relevant. Critics of the viewpoint that there is a trade-off between democracy and economic growth counter the argument about democracy hurting growth as follows: Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
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127. Apparently, both sides participating in the debate assume that the primary necessity for developing nations is: A) economic growth. B) democratic institutions. C) social benefits. D) authoritarian rule. 128. The opinion that “the only way to increase the investable surplus is to reduce consumption” is challenged in the passage by the argument that: A) an increase in production would increase the surplus for investment. B) some consumption is a form of investment that contributes to the surplus. C) some investment produces enough surplus to enable steady consumption. D) consumption decreases demand, thereby releasing surplus for investment. 129. According to one of the positions presented, all recent cases of successful development have involved massive state intervention in the economy, and development is best promoted when there is a high degree of political stability. If both of these premises are true, what conclusion is most reasonable?
130. In recent years, low-paid workers in South Korea were required to keep a certain percentage of their income in savings accounts. The argument presented for the incompatibility of economic growth with democracy suggests that this policy: A) strengthened the economy. B) led to political instability. C) blocked economic development. D) prevented democracy. 131. What does the argument that democracy hurts growth imply about the kind of political system appropriate for a developing country that is divided by religious, ethnic, regional, and class differences? A) An authoritarian government would have trouble obtaining the popular support needed for economic growth. B) An authoritarian government would be more likely to provide the stability needed for economic growth. C) A democratic government would be better able to protect the interests of the minority groups. D) A democratic government would have trouble ensuring a fair distribution of the economic surplus.
A) The governments of countries that have recently developed successfully have intervened in the economy and have been stable. B) Successful development has not occurred recently in countries with governments that have been unstable. C) The governments that have been unstable have not intervened recently in the economy of their country. D) The governments that have intervened in the economy of their country recently have been stable.
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Passage IX Zoroaster, the founder of the Zoroastrian religion, was an Iranian who lived between about 1400 and 1200 B.C. He was thirty when revelation came to him. It is said that Zoroaster went at dawn to a river to fetch water and had a vision of the god Ahura Mazda calling him to his service, a summons that he wholeheartedly obeyed. Mazda had been worshipped of old as the greatest of the three Ahuras, the guardians of order; but Zoroaster went much further and, in a startling departure from accepted beliefs, proclaimed Ahura Mazda to be the one uncreated god, existing eternally, and creator of all else that is good. In the vision, Zoroaster beheld, co-existing with Ahura Mazda, an adversary, the “hostile spirit,” Angra Mainyu, equally uncreated but ignorant and wholly malign. An essential element in this revelation is that the two primal beings each made a deliberate choice between good and evil, an act that prefigures the identical choice that all persons must make for themselves in this life. Ahura Mazda fashioned the world as a battleground for their two forces. At the end of history, Ahura Mazda will win the great struggle to destroy evil and so achieve a universe that will be wholly good forever. The lucid and comprehensive doctrines taught by Zoroaster left little scope for heresy or schism. Yet they must have given the magi (Zoroastrian converts of the sixth century B.C.) much new matter to ponder. One of the most striking elements in the prophet’s teachings was the concept of history having an end. The magi had also become familiar with very different Babylonian speculations about history being divided into great recurrent cycles of time in which all events repeated themselves; and contrasting such theories with Zoroaster’s teachings may well have led them to reflect much on time and its nature. The result was the Zurvanite heresy. The word zurvan means time. The Zurvanites came to believe that time, Zurvan, did not merely provide the framework for events but was actually in control of them, hence a sentient being. They found their main scriptural justification for this belief in Zoroaster’s verse: “Truly there are two primal spirits, twins, renowned to be in conflict.” Meditating upon this text, they postulated with scholastic ingenuity that for twins, there must be a
father; and the only possible father for Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu was Zurvan, time. Zurvan was held to be a remote first cause. He does not himself intervene in the present struggle between his “sons.” The Zurvanites felt themselves to be the most truly orthodox followers of Zoroaster, who had divined the correct meaning of the prophet’s words. But theirs was in fact a deep and grievous heresy, for by declaring that Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu were brothers, the Zurvanites betrayed Zoroaster’s fundamental doctrine that good and evil are utterly separate and distinct by origin and nature. They also diminished the grandeur of Ahura Mazda. Moreover, the Zurvanite preoccupation with fate and the inexorable decrees of time obscured the basic Zoroastrian doctrine of free will and the power of individuals to shape their own destiny through the exercise of choice. Zurvanism finally disappeared some centuries after the coming of Islam. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the following source: M. Boyce, Zoroastrians: Their Religious Beliefs and Practices. ©1979 by M Boyce.
132. The author asserts that in Zoroastrianism, both humans and the two primal spirits are: A) required to choose between good and evil. B) destined to exist eternally. C) creations of Ahura Mazda. D) subordinate to Zurvan. 133. Suppose it is discovered that the first Zurvanites were influenced more by Indian than by Babylonian conceptions of cyclical time. Does this discovery support the author’s argument? A) Yes; it confirms it. B) No; it does not affect it. C) No; it weakens it. D) No; it disproves it.
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134. The author’s assertion that the utter separateness of the primal spirits was Zoroaster’s fundamental doctrine supports which of the passage conclusions? A) Zoroaster’s teaching that Ahura Mazda created all that is good was unprecedented. B) The Zurvanites’ interpretation of Zoroaster’s teachings was heretical. C) The Zurvanites were familiar with the Babylonian concept of time as cyclical. D) The Zurvanites obscured Zoroaster’s teaching that individuals have free will. 135. Which of the following discoveries, if genuine, would most weaken the author’s argument? A) A text by a pre-Zoroastrian asserting that history would eventually end B) A text by an early Zurvanite denying that history would ever end C) A text by Zoroaster asserting that Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu had a common parent D) A text by Zoroaster foretelling the development of the Zurvanite heresy 136. Passage information indicates that which of the following statements must be true? A) All religions acknowledge at least one divine being. B) Some religions maintain wholly consistent doctrines. C) All interpretations of religious doctrines can be justified. D) Some interpretations of religious doctrines are inconsistent. 137. The Orphic Greeks of the sixth century b.c. held that history began when Chronos (time) gave birth to the twin forces of divine Aether and dark Chaos. The similarity between this theory and Zurvanism could NOT have resulted from the influence of: A) the Orphic Greeks on the Zurvanites. B) the Zurvanites on the Orphic Greeks. C) the Orphic Greeks on Zoroaster. D) Zoroaster on the Orphic Greeks.
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Writing Sample Time: 60 minutes 2 Prompts, separately timed: 30 minutes each This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you can make it in the time allotted.
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138. Consider this statement: Governments have a responsibility to regulate companies that provide necessary services to citizens. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a government might not have a responsibility to regulate a company that provides a necessary service to citizens. Discuss what you think determines whether or not governments have a responsibility to regulate companies that provide necessary services to citizens.
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139. Consider this statement: Only those politicians who have learned the art of compromise can achieve their political goals. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a politician might achieve a political goal without compromising. Discuss what you think determines when politicians should compromise to achieve a political goal.
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Biological Sciences Time: 100 minutes Questions: 140 - 216 Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
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Periodic Table of the Elements
1
H
2
He 4.0 10
1.0 3
4
Li
Be
B
C
N
O
F
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
5
6
7
8
9
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
P
S
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
K
Ca
Sc
Ti
V
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1 37
40.1 38
45.0 39
47.9 40
50.9 41
52.0 42
54.9 43
55.8 44
58.9 45
58.7 46
63.5 47
65.4 48
69.7 49
72.6 50
74.9 51
79.0 52
79.9 53
83.8 54
Rb
Sr
Y
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
I
Xe
85.5 55
87.6 56
88.9 57
91.2 72
92.9 73
95.9 74
(98) 75
101.1 76
102.9 77
106.4 78
107.9 79
112.4 80
114.8 81
118.7 82
121.8 83
127.6 84
126.9 85
131.3 86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
W
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9 87
137.3 88
138.9 89
178.5 104
180.9 105
183.9 106
186.2 107
190.2 108
192.2 109
195.1
197.0
200.6
204.4
207.2
209.0
(209)
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac†
Unq†
Unp
Unh
Uns
Uno
Une
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262) 58
(263) 59
(262) 60
(265) 61
(267) 62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1 90
140.9 91
144.2 92
(145) 93
150.4 94
152.0 95
157.3 96
158.9 97
162.5 98
164.9 99
167.3 100
168.9 101
173.0 102
175.0 103
* †
Th
Pa
U
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Passage I The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) are the parasympathetic (PS) and the sympathetic (S) divisions. Structurally, the S ganglia appear near the spinal cord in the thoracic and lumbar regions and connect with each other to form the sympathetic trunk. PS innervation originates in either the brain stem or the sacral region of the spinal cord. The PS ganglia lie in or near the organs they connect to but do not connect with each other (Figure 1). The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released at the ganglia in both the PS and the S divisions. However, acetylcholine is released at the motor synapse (at the organ) only in the PS division; the corresponding neurotransmitter in the S division is norepinephrine.
The motor portion of the pupillary light reflex (constriction of the pupil in bright light to protect the retina from excessive illumination) consists of the PS innervation of the circular muscle. Light entering the retina stimulates the optic nerve to send impulses to the midbrain, which in turn activates the PS pathway leading to the circular muscle. This results in constriction of the pupils. In contrast, when the PS pathway is not being stimulated (as in darkness), signals from the S system to the radial muscles predominate, causing the pupils to dilate.
140. Opiates, such as morphine and heroin, increase impulse traffic on the PS nerves to the iris. Therefore, after a morphine injection, the pupils will be more: A) constricted, due to release of acetylcholine. B) constricted, due to release of norepinephrine. C) dilated, due to release of acetylcholine. D) dilated, due to release of norepinephrine. 141. Drugs affecting the ANS may have either an “active” mechanism (that mimics the activity of the PS or the S division) or a “passive” mechanism (that blocks the effect of the opposing division). The drug atropine prevents acetylcholine from attaching to its receptors on the circular muscle. Is this mechanism active or passive? A) Passive, because PS innervation is blocked B) Passive, because S innervation is blocked C) Active, because PS innervation is mimicked D) Active, because S innervation is mimicked
Figure 1 General structure of autonomic nervous system, showing innvervation of iris muscles. (Figure is not proportional.) A typical example of the function of the ANS is the regulation of pupil size by the iris musculature. The circular muscle of the iris is innervated by the PS division of the ANS, and the radial muscles are innervated by the S division (Figure 1).
142. If acetylcholine is removed from the circulation faster than norepinephrine is, which of the following autonomic processes would be most rapidly inactivated? A) Dilation of the pupils B) Dilation of blood vessels in the skeletal muscles C) Rise in blood pressure D) Stimulation of digestive secretions
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143. The autonomic nerve fibers that directly innervate the heart to cause cardiac slowing are: A) sympathetic motor fibers. B) sympathetic sensory fibers. C) parasympathetic motor fibers. D) parasympathetic sensory fibers. 144. Based on information in the passage, would the S or the PS division of the ANS be expected to produce a more rapid systemic (whole-body) response to a stimulus? A) The S division, because its ganglia are interconnected B) The S division, because it secretes norepinephrine C) The PS division, because its ganglia are not interconnected D) The PS division, because it secretes acetylcholine 145. The ocular drug physostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, the enzyme responsible for the hydrolysis of acetylcholine. Administration of physostigmine would be expected to cause the pupil to: A) dilate, due to decreased acetylcholine levels. B) dilate, due to increased acetylcholine levels. C) constrict, due to decreased acetylcholine levels. D) constrict, due to increased acetylcholine levels.
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Passage II A few species of vertebrates from northern latitudes are freeze tolerant; they can survive episodes of cold temperatures during which some of their body water freezes. Formation of ice within cells disrupts structural organization and metabolic function, and ultimately causes cell death. But in these animals, slow cooling permits redistribution of water among the various fluid compartments, such that only extracellular water freezes. Studies of the wood frog, Rana sylvatica, suggest that a main cryoprotective strategy involves accelerated glucose release from hepatic glycogen stores that consequently raises the glucose concentration of body fluids. This hyperglycemia (high glucose concentration) may protect tissues and organs by depressing the freezing point of body fluids, thereby facilitating the dehydration of cells and other secondary cryoprotective mechanisms. Figure 1 shows the time course of various physiological parameters during one freeze-thaw episode in a wood frog.
Figure 1 Responses to freezing and thawing in Rana sylvatica In an experiment, scientists injected frogs with saline alone or with saline containing one of two concentrations of glucose before testing their survival in a freeze-thaw episode. After the episode, blood samples were taken and centrifuged; the blood plasma was analyzed for hemoglobin content. Results are shown in Figure 2.
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147. The extreme hyperglycemia of these animals suggests that major changes in the normal glucose regulatory mechanisms occur during freezing. Which of the following observations would support this hypothesis? A) Suppression of insulin secretion during freezing episodes B) Suppression of glucagon secretion during freezing episodes C) Slowing of glycogen catabolism in the liver during freezing episodes D) Increased sensitivity of all pancreatic endocrine responses during freezing episodes 148. The persistence of a pulse for several hours after the onset of ice formation (Figure 1) is crucial to the cryoprotective role of glucose because: A) circulating blood distributes the glucose throughout the body tissues. B) circulating blood equilibrates the temperature throughout the body. C) a beating heart warms body tissues and slows ice formation. D) a beating heart requires a constant supply of glucose as an energy source. Figure 2 Effects of exogenous glucose on frog response to freezing
146. Presumably, hyperglycemia promotes cellular dehydration because: A) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates the osmotic work performed by plasma membranes. B) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates plasma membrane ion exchange pumps. C) glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the extracellular space. D) glucose molecules are exchanged for water molecules across the plasma membrane.
149. According to the passage, which of the following parts in the frozen body of a freeze-tolerant frog would contain ice? I. Cytoplasm II. Blood plasma III. Lymph A) II only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only 150. During what time period of the freeze-thaw episode shown in Figure 1 were the frog’s tissues relying entirely on anaerobic respiration? A) Before 0 hours B) Between 0 and 6 hours C) Between 0 and 24 hours D) Between 12 and 26 hours
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151. Do the results presented in Figure 2 support the hypothesis that glucose has a cryoprotective role in frogs? A) Yes; survival and protection against hemolysis are promoted by exogenous glucose. B) Yes; death caused by freezing is directly correlated to the extent of hemolysis. C) No; injected glucose lowered blood hemoglobin levels, suggesting that the survival rates are not related to the treatment. D) No; injected saline promoted hemolysis, suggesting death was most likely related to circulatory collapse. 152. According to the passage, which of the following physiological conditions would increase a wood frog’s chance of surviving freezing temperatures most effectively? A) Dehydration B) Ample liver glycogen stores C) High blood hemoglobin concentration D) High tissue glucose concentration
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Passage III
Table 1 Possible Structures of Compound C
A chemist performed a variety of experiments to determine the identity of an unknown compound (Compound A). It was discovered that, at room temperature, Compound A was insoluble in water and soluble in dilute HCl. It was also observed that Compound A slowly dissolved in refluxing aqueous NaOH to result in the formation of two new compounds. The first compound (Compound B) was a watersoluble alcohol and was removed from the NaOH reaction mixture. The proton NMR spectrum of Compound B consisted of a quartet, a triplet, and a singlet. The second compound (Compound C), which had a melting point (mp) of 187-190oC, was formed when the remaining NaOH mixture was carefully acidified. Compound C was optically inactive and soluble in both dilute acid and base. Compound C was determined to be one of the compounds shown in Table 1. The identity of Compound C was confirmed by comparing its IR spectrum with a reference spectrum.
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153. The solubility data indicate that Compound C most likely contains which of the following functional groups?
158. The compounds in Table 1 can be most unequivocally distinguished from each other by comparing their:
A) Carboxylic acid and amide B) Amine and amide C) Amide and nitro D) Amine and carboxylic acid
A) solubility behaviors. B) reactivities toward alcohols. C) melting points. D) molecular weights.
154. The IR spectrum of each compound in Table 1 should contain a strong, sharp band at approximately: A) 3150 cm-1. B) 2100 cm-1. C) 1700 cm-1. D) 1000 cm-1. 155. A sample of 4-aminobenzoic acid is contaminated with a small percentage of camphoric acid. What can be determined about the melting point of this mixture? A) The mixture will have a broad melting range above 189oC. B) The mixture will have a broad melting range below 188oC. C) The mixture will have a sharp melting point of 186oC. D) The mixture will have a sharp melting point of 189oC. 156. Compound B is most likely water soluble because it: A) is nonpolar. B) has a plane of symmetry. C) can form hydrogen bonds. D) can form ionic bonds. 157. Based on the passage, Compound A most likely contains which of the following functional groups? A) Ether B) Ester C) Ketone D) Aldehyde
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Passage IV Escherichia coli, a bacterial species that inhabits the colon, benefits humans by breaking down foods for which we lack digestive enzymes and by producing vitamins such as B12 and K. About every 20 min, E. coli undergo asexual reproduction. Copies of the bacterial chromosome, which are attached to the cell membrane, move to opposite ends of the cell as the cell divides. Plasmids (small, circular DNA molecules within the bacterial cell) contain various nonessential genes–including genes that confer resistance to specific antibiotics. Because plasmids are not attached to the cell membrane, they may not be equally distributed among daughter cells. Bacteria also carry out a form of “sexual” reproduction called conjugation. Conjugation occurs when the plasmid genes of one bacterium direct the building of a cytoplasmic bridge, or sex pilus, between that organism and a bacterium lacking such genes. Following plasmid DNA replication, a copy of the plasmid DNA moves unidirectionally through the pilus, bestowing new genes upon the recipient cell. Conjugation may occur between members of the same, or different, bacterial species. A man was hospitalized with a ruptured appendix and received massive doses of the antibiotics ampicillin and kanamycin over a period of weeks. Shortly after leaving the hospital, he contracted Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the pathogen that causes tuberculosis, from a coworker. He was again hospitalized and treated with large doses of first ampicillin and then kanamycin, with no effect. Recovery was rapid when a third antibiotic, streptomycin, was administered.
159. A bacterium containing genes for sex pilus construction gave rise to a daughter cell lacking these genes. This most probably occurred because: A) the bacterial chromosome was not completely replicated prior to cell division. B) the cell membrane failed to move the replicated chromosomes apart. C) copies of the plasmid containing the genes were not equally distributed to the new daughter cells. D) one copy of the plasmid containing the genes was digested by a bacterial lysosome. 160. At the end of his initial hospital stay, a few E. coli cells remained in the patient’s colon, even though he was taking antibiotics. These cells were most likely present because: A) the antibiotics caused drug-resistance mutations to occur in the bacterial DNA. B) the bacteria in the patient developed an immune reaction to the antibiotics. C) the patient’s colon cells became increasingly resistant to the antibiotics during his hospitalization. D) chance mutations in a few E. coli before the treatment made these cells and their descendants antibiotic-resistant. 161. Tests performed on the M. tuberculosis strain infecting the patient’s coworker indicated that the strain was susceptible to both ampicillin and kanamycin, and the coworker was successfully treated. TheM. tuberculosis most likely survived in the patient because it had: A) undergone conjugation with cells of resistant E. coli. B) undergone an antibiotic-induced mutation that conferred antibiotic resistance. C) reproduced more rapidly than the strain in the coworker. D) adapted to its new environment by modifying its metabolism.
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162. The patient’s ruptured appendix required treatment with antibiotics because he had a bacterial infection caused by: A) M. tuberculosis. B) E. coli entering the colon from the appendix. C) E. coli entering the abdominal cavity from the appendix. D) E. coli entering the appendix from the colon. 163. Following the antibiotic treatment, the patient’s colon will be recolonized by other bacteria. The factor that will ultimately determine whether antibiotic-resistant E. coli cells will persist in the colon at this time is E. coli’s ability to: A) produce more viable descendants than the other bacteria. B) produce more vitamin B12 than the other bacteria. C) metabolize glucose faster than the other bacteria. D) cause fewer incidences of diarrhea or constipation than the other bacteria. 164. If the E. coli population in the colon is severely reduced due to extended antibiotic treatment, which of the following effects on digestion and nutrition are most likely to occur? A) Deficiencies of necessary digestive enzymes B) Deficiencies of specific vitamins C) Intestinal tract infections due to increased populations of other bacteria D) Greatly reduced absorption of caloric nutrients 165. Bacterial conjugation is similar to the sexual reproduction of eukaryotic organisms in that it: A) results in genetic recombination. B) results in the combination of 2 sets of chromosomes within a single nucleus. C) increases the number of organisms in the population. D) can only occur between members of the same species.
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168. These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
166. Actin filaments within cells can be identified experimentally by the use of a labeled molecule that binds specifically to actin and not to other cell substances. Which of the following would be best to use as the labeled molecule? A) ATP B) Myosin C) Albumin D) Myoglobin 167.
Which of the following assignments of formal charge correctly represents the structure shown above? A) – on N-1 only B) + on N-7 only C) – on N-1 and + on N-7 D) + on N-1 and – on N-7
The above diagram represents the neural pathway that causes an individual to retract a stubbed toe. If one were to modify this diagram to represent the pathway involved in feeling pain in the stubbed toe, where could additional neurons be placed? A) At II and III B) At II and IV C) At III and IV D) At I and IV 169. Suppose that in a randomly mating population of mammals, 160 of its 1,000 members exhibit a specific recessive trait that does not affect viability of the individual. How many individuals in this population are carriers of the trait? A) 160 B) 400 C) 480 D) 600
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Passage V Stem cells are immature cells that continually replace cells having short life spans, such as those of the skin and blood. When stem cells divide, one of the daughter cells remains a stem cell and the other differentiates to produce a mature cell. A pluripotent stem cell can replicate often, but can only produce a few cell types. A totipotent stem cell cannot replicate as often as a pluripotent cell, but can differentiate into many cell types. A committed stem cell is committed to producing a particular specialized cell line, such as leukocytes. Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are located in the bone marrow and have the potential to differentiate into blood cells. HSCs can also be pluripotent, totipotent, or committed; totipotent cells can replace all the types of blood cells of the immune system. Current investigations into the mechanism governing HSC differentiation have revealed two properties common to all stem cells. First, receptors on stem cells respond to hormones that regulate the production of different types of blood cells. Second, stem cells grown in cultures lacking naturally occurring support cells differentiate randomly. Two hypotheses describe different mechanisms governing differentiation. The deterministic view holds that external signals, such as hormones, direct stem cell differentiation. The stochastic view maintains that differentiation into various cell types occurs randomly.
170. HSCs are vital to human body function because blood cells: A) typically have short life spans. B) are not stored in the body. C) constantly leave the body through the urinary and digestive systems. D) constantly differentiate into other types of cells. 171. Which of the following observations supports the deterministic view? A) Cultured stem cells develop hormone receptors when exposed to naturally occurring support cells. B) When cultured stem cells are exposed to hormones, they divide more rapidly. C) When cultured stem cells are reintroduced into the body, they continue random differentiation. D) When genes for erythrocytes are introduced into cultured stem cells, erythrocytes are formed. 172. Which of the following observations supports both the deterministic and stochastic views? A) When hormone X is presented to a culture of HSCs, only erythrocytes are formed. B) When stem cells initially express hormone receptors, they do so randomly. C) The receptors on HSCs are expressed in response to external signals from surrounding bone marrow. D) Genes within the HSCs are turned on according to internal signals early in fetal development.
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173. Damaged or destroyed bone marrow can be replaced with transplanted tissue. If the main goal of such a transplant is to replace all blood cell types, the transplanted tissue should contain which of the following cell types? A) Pluripotent HSCs, because they differentiate stochastically and therefore would replicate the fastest B) Pluripotent HSCs, because they differentiate stochastically and the body could therefore signal which types of cells it needs C) Totipotent HSCs, because they can differentiate stochastically and the random differentiation would therefore produce the most types of blood cells D) Totipotent HSCs, because they can differentiate deterministically and the cells would therefore have the greatest ability to differentiate in response to the new host 174. If only the deterministic hypothesis is correct, undifferentiated stem cells isolated from bone marrow and grown in vitro will: A) require the correct external signal to replicate. B) start to develop new receptors in adaptation to their new environment. C) differentiate non-randomly only when specfic hormones are present. D) develop receptors in a random fashion.
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a skeletal rearrangement, and is stereoselective in both steps.
Passage VI Three reactions that produce alcohols are shown below. Equation 1 shows the hydration of an alkene. The reaction is regioselective, not stereoselective, and molecular rearrangements may occur.
Equation 1 Equation 2 shows an oxymercuration-demercuration reaction sequence.
Equation 3
175. Which of the following reactions could be used to prepare the alcohol from the alkene shown in the following equation?
Equation 2 An organomercurial alcohol is formed in the first step, followed by removal of the mercury by sodium borohydride. Molecular rearrangements do not occur in this procedure. It is regioselective, and the first step is stereoselective. The demercuration step is not stereoselective because the borohydride reduction proceeds through a free-radical mechanism.
I. II. III.
Hydration Hydroboration-oxidation Oxymercuration-demercuration
A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only
Equation 3 shows a hydroboration-oxidation reaction. The overall reaction is regioselective, does not involve
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176. Which compound is the major product of the following sequence of reactions?
A)
B)
C)
D)
177. The IR spectra of the alcohols shown in Equations 1-3 all display a broad band centered near a frequency of: A) 1000 cm-1. B) 1500 cm-1. C) 2500 cm-1. D) 3500 cm-1. 178. The two isomeric organomercurial alcohols in Equation 2 are: A) constitutional isomers. B) diastereomers. C) enantiomers. D) optical antipoles.
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Passage VII Important discoveries often result from the thoughtful analysis of an incidental observation. The main function of endothelial cells that line blood vessels was long thought to be exchange of nutrients and waste products between blood and interstitial fluid. In 1980, two scientists noticed that vasodilation of arteries in response to acetylcholine was inhibited if the endothelial layer of the artery was accidentally damaged during experimental preparation. Subsequently, the scientists compared the responses of undamaged and deliberately damaged segments of arteries to various signals and showed that endothelial cells release a substance that causes the adjacent arterial smooth muscle to relax, allowing an increase in blood flow. Figure 1 shows the results of their initial experiment, in which two rings cut from rabbit aorta were studied in separate saline baths. One ring was undamaged, but the endothelium of the other ring had been scraped off. Both rings were first contracted by adding norepinephrine to the baths. Subsequently, the relaxation of the intact and scraped rings in response to different concentrations of acetylcholine was compared.
Figure 1 Effect of acetylcholine on tension in rabbit aorta with and without endothelium NE = norepinephrine added; ACH = acetylcholine; at washout, NE and ACH are removed
The relaxing substance was found to be nitric oxide (NO), which is derived from the amino acid L-arginine. To study the physiological role of NO, competitive inhibitors of the enzyme responsible for NO synthesis (NO synthase) were developed; L-NMMA is one such inhibitor. Thus, a serendipitous observation led to the discovery of a new function of vascular endothelium, the regulation of blood flow.
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179. In Figure 1, which of the following observations led to the conclusion that intact endothelium is necessary for the relaxation of smooth muscle when acetylcholine (ACH) is applied? A) The tension initially changes when norepinephrine (NE) is added. B) The tension decrease occurs more quickly in the ring without endothelium. C) The tension decreases upon addition of 10-7MACH, only in the ring with endothelium. D) The tension decreases during washout in the ring without endothelium. 180. From the data in Figure 1, one can conclude that the sensitivity of aortic smooth muscle to acetylcholine is: A) decreased by the presence of norepinephrine. B) increased by the presence of norepinephrine. C) increased at least 10 times by the presence of the endothelium. D) greatest at 10-8M, with or without endothelium. 181. The concentration range within which muscle tension is most sensitive to acetylcholine (Figure 1) is: -8
A) less than 10 M. B) near 10-7M. C) greater than 10-6M. D) much wider in the ring without endothelium than in the ring with endothelium.
183. Information in the passage suggests that acetylcholine and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters in the: A) parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system, respectively. B) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system, respectively. C) motor and sensory pathways of the somatic nervous system, respectively. D) sensory and motor pathways of the somatic nervous system, respectively. 184. Increased vasoconstriction has an important role in which of the following situations? A) Causing the decrease in blood pressure associated with fainting B) Increasing blood flow to muscle during exercise C) Increasing blood flow to skin during blushing D) Maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage 185. Assume that NO is continuously synthesized. The addition of a saturating concentration of L-NMMA to a relaxing aortic ring with intact endothelium would probably: A) increase its sensitivity to acetylcholine. B) cause the ring to dilate (reduce its tension). C) cause the ring to contract (increase its tension). D) prevent norepinephrine from increasing ring tension.
182. Two factors that normally determine the level of blood pressure are: A) the blood concentration of L-NMMA and norepinephrine. B) the cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow. C) the blood volume and the amount of L-arginine in the diet. D) the heart rate (heartbeats/minute) and the cardiac stroke volume.
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Passage VIII Oxiranes (1,2-epoxides) are cyclic ethers that contain one oxygen atom and two carbon atoms in a 3-member ring. The strain in the structure makes oxiranes amenable to ring-opening reactions. Examples of oxiranes are shown in Figure 1.
186. What is the approximate C-O-C bond angle in (R)-styrene oxide? A) 60o B) 90o C) 109o D) 120o 187. If 1,2-epoxycyclohexane is hydrolyzed under acidic conditions, what is the structure of the predominant conformer of the diol produced?
Figure 1 (R)-Styrene oxide and 1,2-epoxycyclohexane
A) A trans, diequatorial diol B) A trans, axial and equatorial diol C) A cis, diequatorial diol D) A cis, axial and equatorial diol
There are two generally accepted mechanisms for ring opening, which depend on the reaction conditions. Ring opening occurs under basic or neutral conditions by Mechanism 1 and under acidic conditions by Mechanism 2.
188. The first step in a reaction that produces its major product by Mechanism 1 (R = tert-butyl and R´ = methyl) is given by which of the following equations?
Mechanism 1 A nucleophile attacks an unsymmetrical oxirane predominantly at the least substituted carbon atom, inverting its configuration. An alkoxide is produced, which abstracts a proton from the solvent.
A)
B)
Mechanism 2 The oxygen atom of the oxirane is protonated in a rapid and reversible first step. The second, ratedetermining step is the partial cleavage of a carbonoxygen bond and the partial production of a carbocation, which then bonds with a nucleophile with inversion of stereochemistry.
C)
D)
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189. If (R)-styrene oxide undergoes ring opening in the presence of NaOH(aq), what is the size of the ring that is formed as a result of intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the product? A) 3-Member B) 4-Member C) 5-Member D) 6-Member 190. What property accounts for diethyl amine reacting more readily with styrene oxide than does ethanol? A) Its volatility B) Its solubility C) Its electrophilicity D) Its nucleophilicity
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191. Which of the bromomethanes is LEAST polar?
195. Hemophilia, a disease in which the time required for blood to clot is greatly prolonged, is determined by a sex-linked gene. Suppose a man with normal blood clotting marries a woman with normal blood clotting whose father was a hemophiliac. If this couple has three sons, what is the probability that hemophilia will be transmitted to all three of them?
A) CBr4 B) CHBr3 C) CH2Br2 D) CH3Br
A) 1/8 B) 1/4 C) 3/8 D) 1/2
These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
192. The phenomenon exemplified in the equilibrium equation below is called:
A) reduction. B) resonance. C) tautomerism. D) mutarotation. 193. Most fungal spores are: A) metabolically active and diploid. B) metabolically inactive and haploid. C) relatively sensitive to environmental changes. D) encased in a porous nuclear membrane. 194. Which of the following structures is derived from the same germ cell layer as the heart? A) Eye B) Bone C) Spinal cord D) Liver
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Passage IX Lipopolysaccharide antigens on the surface of gramnegative bacteria are called endotoxins. People infected with gram-negative bacteria sometimes develop septic shock syndrome in response to the endotoxins (see Figure 1). To reduce the mortality rate of septic shock two treatment plans were proposed.
Treatment 1: Administration of a general antiinflammatory drug to block the inflammatory cell response in patients infected with endotoxin Treatment 2: Administration of an antibody that blocks the attachment site for the endotoxin-binding protein complex on macrophages Patients were selected who had signs of septic shock. They were treated with either Treatment 1 drug, Treatment 2 drug, or placebo.
Figure 1 Cascade of events that is important in causing septic shock
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196. For Treatment 2 to be effective, the antibody must:
199. Fever in septic shock leads to which of the following compensation mechanisms?
A) stimulate macrophage activation. B) stimulate T-cell production. C) inhibit T-cell production. D) inhibit macrophage activation.
A) Dilation of capillary beds in the skin B) Increased skeletal muscle activity C) Decreased respiration rate D) Decreased fluid loss
197. What is a danger of using the drug in Treatment 1?
200. If the anti-inflammatory drug in Treatment 1 interfered with DNA replication, in which phase of the cell cycle would cells tend to be arrested?
A) It may decrease endogenous antibacterial activities. B) It may increase the platelet count. C) It may decrease the red blood cell count. D) It may increase the blood pressure.
A) G0 phase B) G1 phase C) S phase D) G2 phase
198. Which of the following would NOT be predicted as a consequence of venous blood pooling in septic shock? A) An increase in blood lactic acid levels B) A decrease in blood pressure C) A decrease in lymphatic fluid volume D) A decrease in the oxygen content in the blood
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Passage X Acetoacetic ester (1) and malonic ester (2) serve as synthetic precursors for the preparation of a variety of methyl ketones and carboxylic acids. The starting ester is alkylated, saponified, acidified, and pyrolyzed (heated strongly); a typical procedure is shown in Scheme 1. The final product is determined by the alkylating agent.
Table 1 Target Compounds Product number Name 2-butanone 3 2-pentanone 4 4-methyl-2-pentanone 5 4-methyl-2-hexanone 6 pentanoic acid 7 3-methylbutanoic acid 8 4-methylpentanoic acid 9 decanoic acid 10
201. Which of the following alkyl halides can be used in an acetoacetic ester synthesis to make Product 5? A) Methyl chloride B) Ethyl bromide C) Propyl chloride D) Isopropyl iodide 202. The saponification product is acidified to convert: Scheme 1 Acetoacetic ester 1 enolizes regioselectively in sodium ethoxide/ethanol to one of two possible enolate ions, which is stabilized by delocalization of charge to two oxygen atoms. The enolate ion is then alkylated by an alkyl halide. A second alkylation step may be incorporated into the synthesis, but a different base is sometimes used for the second enolization and alkylation.
A) an ester into an acid. B) an acid into a salt. C) a salt into an acid. D) an ester into a salt.
Acetoacetic ester may also be converted into a dianion by successive deprotonation steps with sodium hydride and butyllithium, respectively. The alkylation of the dianion results in a substitution at the less substituted enolate ion. Table 1 shows eight target compounds that may be synthesized by either an acetoacetic ester or malonic ester synthesis, as appropriate.
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203. How can 3-ethyl-2-pentanone, below, be synthesized starting with acetoacetic ester 1?
A) By an alkylation of the enolate with isobutyl iodide B) By successive alkylations with methyl iodide C) By successive alkylations with ethyl iodide D) By alkylation of the dianion with isopropyl iodide 204. Why is a different base often used for a second alkylation of acetoacetic ester? A) Because the active hydrogen of the monoalkylated product is less acidic, making a stronger base more effective B) Because the active hydrogen of the monoalkylated product is more acidic, making a weaker base more effective C) Because the monalkylated product is sterically hindered, making a larger base more effective D) Because the monoalkylated product is more soluble in ethanol, requiring a different solvent and base
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Passage XI Researchers have isolated G proteins, a new family of membrane-associated proteins. These proteins are believed to regulate all or most of the intracellular signaling systems operating across the plasma membrane, including those involving hormones and action potentials. Figure 1 depicts how this mechanism is hypothesized to function. According to this hypothesis, extracellular signals such as some hormones bind to specific receptors on the surface of the plasma membrane. This binding activates the receptor that then binds to a G protein
embedded in the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. This, in turn, causes the G protein to release guanosine diphosphate (GDP) and bind guanosine triphosphate (GTP). The G protein with bound GTP interacts with various enzymes or proteins in the plasma membrane. The end result is either activation or inactivation of the enzyme, depending on the specific system. The G protein is then inactivated, which “turns off” the initial steps of the signaling system. Adenylate cyclase, the enzyme that synthesizes the intracellular signal cyclic AMP (cAMP), is believed to be activated by this mechanism.
Figure 1 Intracellular signaling by G proteins
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205. Which of the following observations best supports the hypothesis that G proteins regulate intracellular signaling? A) Membrane-bound receptors for extracellular signals directly activate the intracellular signaling systems. B) The absence of G proteins in a mutant cell line results in the cells’ inability to operate signaling systems. C) All cells are found to contain varying ratios of G protein to adenylate cyclase. D) Adenylate cyclase is found to be activated without the aid of G proteins. 206. According to the passage, all of the following events must occur in order to activate a G protein EXCEPT: A) binding of the G protein to the receptor. B) binding of the extracellular signal to the receptor. C) displacement of GDP by GTP on the G protein. D) phosphorylation of GTP. 207. Binding an activated G protein to an inactive enzyme changes which of the following? A) Primary structure of the G protein B) Primary structure of the enzyme C) Secondary structure of the G protein D) Tertiary structure of the enzyme
209. Which of the following best explains the role of GTP in controlling the function of G proteins? A) GTP is required for binding the G protein to the hormone receptor. B) GTP alters the conformation of the G protein allowing interaction with the enzyme. C) Hydrolysis of GTP acts as a source of energy to activate the G protein. D) Hydrolysis of GTP is required for activation of the membrane-bound enzyme. 210. Binding of G proteins to a membrane-bound enzyme was observed to inactivate the signaling system. Is this observation consistent with the information presented in the passage? A) No, because G proteins are believed to activate signaling systems B) No, because G proteins should have been activated by binding to the signal-receptor complex C) Yes, because the effect of G proteins is dependent upon the specific signaling system involved D) Yes, because binding of G proteins to the membrane-bound enzyme results in the hydrolysis of GDP, which inactivates the signaling system
208. Which of the following, if found to be true, would best refute the hypothesis that a membrane-bound enzyme is activated by a G protein? A) The enzyme can be activated in the absence of bound GTP. B) The enzyme is activated only when hormone is present. C) The enzyme cannot be activated when GDP is bound to a G protein. D) The enzyme is always found in the activated state.
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These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
211. Inflation of the lungs in mammals is accomplished by: A) diffusion of gases. B) active transport of gases. C) positive pressure pumping action. D) negative pressure pumping action. 212. An organism is a bacterium rather than a virus if it: A) reproduces via fission. B) has a rigid cell wall. C) lacks a nuclear membrane. D) contains both RNA and protein. 213. Would an increase in the level of plasma aldosterone be expected to follow ingestion of excessive quantities of NaCl? A) No; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. B) No; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules. C) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. D) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules.
215. The sequence of events in the human menstrual cycle involves close interaction among which organs? A) Hypothalamus-thyroid-ovary B) Hypothalamus-pituitary-ovary C) Pituitary-thyroid-ovary D) Pituitary-adrenal glands-ovary 216. In a certain plant, the gene for red flowers is incompletely dominant to the gene for white; hence, heterozygotes are pink. In the same plant species, long leaf is dominant to short leaf and the single gene controlling leaf length is not linked to the gene for flower color. Homozygous long, white plants are crossed with homozygous short, red plants (P1 generation). The resulting offspring (F1) are bred randomly among themselves. How many different color and leaflength phenotypes will occur in the F2 generation? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6
214. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a retrovirus, an RNA virus that can insert itself into the human genome. This virus can reproduce in host cells because it contains: A) enzymes that destroy T cells. B) viral DNA that is compatible with human DNA. C) core proteins rather than DNA. D) reverse transcriptase.
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MCAT Practice Test 4R Answer Sheet Physical Sciences 1 (A) (B) (C) 2 (A) (B) (C) 3 (A) (B) (C) 4 (A) (B) (C) 5 (A) (B) (C) 6 (A) (B) (C) 7 (A) (B) (C) 8 (A) (B) (C) 9 (A) (B) (C) 10 (A) (B) (C) 11 (A) (B) (C) 12 (A) (B) (C) 13 (A) (B) (C) 14 (A) (B) (C) 15 (A) (B) (C) 16 (A) (B) (C) 17 (A) (B) (C) 18 (A) (B) (C) 19 (A) (B) (C) 20 (A) (B) (C) 21 (A) (B) (C) 22 (A) (B) (C) 23 (A) (B) (C) 24 (A) (B) (C) 25 (A) (B) (C) 26 (A) (B) (C) 27 (A) (B) (C) 28 (A) (B) (C) 29 (A) (B) (C) 30 (A) (B) (C) 31 (A) (B) (C) 32 (A) (B) (C) 33 (A) (B) (C) 34 (A) (B) (C) 35 (A) (B) (C) 36 (A) (B) (C) 37 (A) (B) (C) 38 (A) (B) (C) 39 (A) (B) (C) 40 (A) (B) (C) 41 (A) (B) (C) 42 (A) (B) (C) 43 (A) (B) (C) 44 (A) (B) (C) 45 (A) (B) (C) 46 (A) (B) (C) 47 (A) (B) (C) 48 (A) (B) (C) 49 (A) (B) (C) 50 (A) (B) (C) 51 (A) (B) (C) 52 (A) (B) (C) 53 (A) (B) (C) 54 (A) (B) (C) 55 (A) (B) (C)
(D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D)
56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77
(A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A)
(B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B)
(C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C)
(D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D)
Verbal Reasoning 78 (A) (B) (C) (D) 79 (A) (B) (C) (D) 80 (A) (B) (C) (D) 81 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) 88 (A) (B) (C) (D) 89 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 92 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 (A) (B) (C) (D) 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) 96 (A) (B) (C) (D) 97 (A) (B) (C) (D) 98 (A) (B) (C) (D) 99 (A) (B) (C) (D) 100 (A) (B) (C) (D) 101 (A) (B) (C) (D) 102 (A) (B) (C) (D) 103 (A) (B) (C) (D) 104 (A) (B) (C) (D) 105 (A) (B) (C) (D) 106 (A) (B) (C) (D) 107 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137
(A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A)
(B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B)
(C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C)
(D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D)
Writing Sample 138 139 Biological Sciences 140 (A) (B) (C) (D) 141 (A) (B) (C) (D) 142 (A) (B) (C) (D) 143 (A) (B) (C) (D) 144 (A) (B) (C) (D) 145 (A) (B) (C) (D) 146 (A) (B) (C) (D) 147 (A) (B) (C) (D) 148 (A) (B) (C) (D) 149 (A) (B) (C) (D) 150 (A) (B) (C) (D) 151 (A) (B) (C) (D) 152 (A) (B) (C) (D) 153 (A) (B) (C) (D) 154 (A) (B) (C) (D) 155 (A) (B) (C) (D) 156 (A) (B) (C) (D) 157 (A) (B) (C) (D) 158 (A) (B) (C) (D) 159 (A) (B) (C) (D) 160 (A) (B) (C) (D) 161 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216
(A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A)
(B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B)
(C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C)
(D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D) (D)
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