2015 Bull Mock CAT 31.pdf_451ce8dd-094f-49f9-b4e9-570665c1cad9

2015 Bull Mock CAT - 31 DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question there are four sentences. The sentence has pairs of words or phrases that are highlighted. From the highlited words or phrases select the most appropriate word or phrase to form correct sentences. Mark as per your answer Question No. : 1 Many of our comrades (A) / colleagues (B) in the hotel and catering industry work long and unsocial hours. Is there anything in life to compare to (A) / compare with (B) that first magic moment: that moment when you realize that there is an infinity of possibilities opening up before you? The joint committee’s objective was to propose a definitive (A) / definite (B) standard of accounting and financial reporting. His social conscience had always been strong, even if his nature was too equable (A) / equitable (B) to be consumed by horror and disgust at the human condition.   A) BAAA

B) BBAB

C) AAAA

D) BBAA

Explanation:-   The ordinary word for someone with whom one routinely works from day to day is a colleague. A comrade is an active friend or associate, typically a fellow soldier or someone working for a cause that is comparable to fighting force (such as a radical political movement). Compare to is used to show similarity or likening and compared with is used to show contrast or balance. Here we need a word which means categorical and conclusive, hence definitive. Definite has the more self-contained meaning “clear of all ambiguity or doubt” whereas definitive looks more to consequences in its meaning” providing the required outcome or authority. Equable means even and moderate, regular while equitable means just, fair. Equitable is typically used with words to do with agreement, principle, and resolution.   DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of four/five sentences on a topic. Select the option that indicates grammatically incorrect or inappropriate sentence/s. Question No. : 2 A.  We’ve succeeded in reversing back the downward trend we were suffering from last year. B.  What’s more, we had managed to win back customers from the competition. C.  We had been losing out to international players but now we can D.  Pride ourselves on being able to offer better quality products at lower prices. E.  In the middle of the year we faced a hostile takeover bid from Diotechnics.   A) A and C

B) A and B

C) C, D and E

D) B and C

Explanation:-   'reversing back is redundant' thats why option 1 is wrong. in statement B it should be 'have managed' as the situation is in the present tense; thats why its wrong.  DIRECTIONS for the question: In each sentence, the highlighted word is used in different ways. Choose the option/ options in which the usage of the word is incorrect. Question No. : 3 TAKE A) He was put in charge of security but he was taken off after just two weeks as he was not strict enough. B) The tutor promised to take the problem up with the Head of Department.

B) The tutor promised to take the problem up with the Head of Department. C) The doctor took her off the pills as they were making her sick. D) Would you like me to take your concerns with the manager? Explanation:-   The correct expression is To take up your concerns, which means to deal with something in the discussions. DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question there are four sentences. The sentence has pairs of words or phrases that are highlighted. From the highlited words or phrases select the most appropriate word or phrase to form correct sentences. Mark as per your answer Question No. : 4 Many respondents are unprepared for the impact of their injuries on their long term capacity (A) / capability (B) to work. It is a crushing analysis of a decade of deception, dishonesty and abuse (A) / misuse (B) of power. By her own admittance (A) / admission (B), she’s not blessed with the best of complexions. Ahmed was afflicted (A) / inflicted (B) with remorse and guilt at the shape his life had taken.   A) ABBA

B) BBAA

C) AABA

D) BABA

Explanation:-   Capacity has a more logistic ring and conveys a notion of size.Capacity goes more naturally with 'to'. Capability is more usually followed by of with an ing verb. Abuse tends to imply use for a wrong purpose or to serve a wrong end whereas misuse implies a wrong type of use. Abuse has stronger connotations of offence against people and institutions. In the meaning “acknowledgment or acceptance as true” (corresponding to the verb admit), admission is the word to use and not admittance. Afflict has the victim of the unpleasantness as its grammatical object, whereas inflict refers to unpleasantness itself, with the victim optionally expressed by means of on ( upon)  Afflict is more common in the passive, in the form of afflicted with or by.   DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 5 No vertebrate is ubiquitous. All species are restricted in their area of distribution. The general topographic relations of land masses and oceans of the globe often set sharp bounds to the potential range of a species. The distribution of marine vertebrates has fewer restrictions placed upon it than is the case with land or fresh-water forms. A typical flying bird has few topographic difficulties in attaining wide distribution; in contrast, a fresh-water fish has the hardest problem, for it is not at home either on land or in the sea.   Islands separated from mainland by stretches of sea water usually have some fauna of terrestrial vertebrates. How have these been acquired? If the island is near shore, the problem is not too difficult. Most land animals can swim for at least short distances. Fluctuations in sea levels would have made it possible to reach areas that are now islands without suffering even wet feet.   Yet in the case of the Galapagos islands, more than a thousand miles off Ecuador’s coast, we find large tortoises and iguanid lizards that are purely terrestrial in nature. Their presence is little short of a miracle. In river systems flood waters on occasion bring together a tangled and compact mass of trees and bushes, along with a freight of small animals. Such rafts, with living cargo, have been seen as much as a thousand miles out at sea. The chances that this Noah’s ark should make a successful landing are extremely small. But given enough time, the almost impossible becomes the almost certain.   In the old world, there are two distinctive tropical zoogeographic regions, the Oriental, south of the Himalayas and extending eastward, and Africa.  More distinctive are South America and Australia. South America is connected to the north by a narrow isthmus, but we know that it has not existed long geologically. In consequence, the south’s fauna differs greatly from the North. In Australia, apart from the bats in the air, and seals on the shores, the mammalian population is unique. It has the only two egglaying mammals in the world – the duckbill and the spiny ant-eater. Nearly as distinctive, is a host of marsupials, which are unknown except for the American opossums.  

There are many curious examples of discontinuous distribution in these regions. Why are tapirs found in the Malay and South America, but in no intervening region? Why are the only relatives of the camels to be found in the Llamas of the South American Andes?   Excerpted from ‘The Verterbrate Story’ by Alfred Romer The author poses the questions at the end of the passage in order to: A) highlight and illustrate his dilemmas B) express his amazement on the workings of nature C) showcase his reservations and doubts D) prove that the given problem is unsolvable Explanation:-   The last paragraph of the passage primarily functions to illustrate the dilemma the author has posed in the passage. It effectively summarizes the confusion he has explained throughout the passage. Two options cause confusion here: option A and option C. Option C focuses on a negative way of portraying the author’s feelings whereas option A simply expresses the nature of the problem he faces. In the given context, the word dilemma is far better than reservations and doubts, as the author is essentially probing a riddle in this case. DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 6 No vertebrate is ubiquitous. All species are restricted in their area of distribution. The general topographic relations of land masses and oceans of the globe often set sharp bounds to the potential range of a species. The distribution of marine vertebrates has fewer restrictions placed upon it than is the case with land or fresh-water forms. A typical flying bird has few topographic difficulties in attaining wide distribution; in contrast, a fresh-water fish has the hardest problem, for it is not at home either on land or in the sea.   Islands separated from mainland by stretches of sea water usually have some fauna of terrestrial vertebrates. How have these been acquired? If the island is near shore, the problem is not too difficult. Most land animals can swim for at least short distances. Fluctuations in sea levels would have made it possible to reach areas that are now islands without suffering even wet feet.   Yet in the case of the Galapagos islands, more than a thousand miles off Ecuador’s coast, we find large tortoises and iguanid lizards that are purely terrestrial in nature. Their presence is little short of a miracle. In river systems flood waters on occasion bring together a tangled and compact mass of trees and bushes, along with a freight of small animals. Such rafts, with living cargo, have been seen as much as a thousand miles out at sea. The chances that this Noah’s ark should make a successful landing are extremely small. But given enough time, the almost impossible becomes the almost certain.   In the old world, there are two distinctive tropical zoogeographic regions, the Oriental, south of the Himalayas and extending eastward, and Africa.  More distinctive are South America and Australia. South America is connected to the north by a narrow isthmus, but we know that it has not existed long geologically. In consequence, the south’s fauna differs greatly from the North. In Australia, apart from the bats in the air, and seals on the shores, the mammalian population is unique. It has the only two egglaying mammals in the world – the duckbill and the spiny ant-eater. Nearly as distinctive, is a host of marsupials, which are unknown except for the American opossums.   There are many curious examples of discontinuous distribution in these regions. Why are tapirs found in the Malay and South America, but in no intervening region? Why are the only relatives of the camels to be found in the Llamas of the South American Andes?   Excerpted from ‘The Verterbrate Story’ by Alfred Romer The author uses the example of the Galapagos islands in order to: A) show an exception to the norm in the way islands sustain animals. B) illustrate the standard deviation observable in nature. C) highlight the miraculous way god and nature operate in. D) showcase the exceptional distribution of animals on islands. Explanation:-   Refer to the lines: Yet in the case of the Galapagos islands, more than a thousand miles off Ecuador’s coast, we find large tortoises and iguanid lizards that are purely terrestrial in nature. Their presence is little short of a miracle.

In this case, the best answer is option D. Option A commits the mistake of focusing on the aspect of sustenance, whereas the passage is about discovery of animals on unusual spots. Options B and C are purely out of context. The most appropriate option is option D, which focuses on the strange nature of the animal’s presence on these islands.  DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 7 No vertebrate is ubiquitous. All species are restricted in their area of distribution. The general topographic relations of land masses and oceans of the globe often set sharp bounds to the potential range of a species. The distribution of marine vertebrates has fewer restrictions placed upon it than is the case with land or fresh-water forms. A typical flying bird has few topographic difficulties in attaining wide distribution; in contrast, a fresh-water fish has the hardest problem, for it is not at home either on land or in the sea.   Islands separated from mainland by stretches of sea water usually have some fauna of terrestrial vertebrates. How have these been acquired? If the island is near shore, the problem is not too difficult. Most land animals can swim for at least short distances. Fluctuations in sea levels would have made it possible to reach areas that are now islands without suffering even wet feet.   Yet in the case of the Galapagos islands, more than a thousand miles off Ecuador’s coast, we find large tortoises and iguanid lizards that are purely terrestrial in nature. Their presence is little short of a miracle. In river systems flood waters on occasion bring together a tangled and compact mass of trees and bushes, along with a freight of small animals. Such rafts, with living cargo, have been seen as much as a thousand miles out at sea. The chances that this Noah’s ark should make a successful landing are extremely small. But given enough time, the almost impossible becomes the almost certain.   In the old world, there are two distinctive tropical zoogeographic regions, the Oriental, south of the Himalayas and extending eastward, and Africa.  More distinctive are South America and Australia. South America is connected to the north by a narrow isthmus, but we know that it has not existed long geologically. In consequence, the south’s fauna differs greatly from the North. In Australia, apart from the bats in the air, and seals on the shores, the mammalian population is unique. It has the only two egglaying mammals in the world – the duckbill and the spiny ant-eater. Nearly as distinctive, is a host of marsupials, which are unknown except for the American opossums.   There are many curious examples of discontinuous distribution in these regions. Why are tapirs found in the Malay and South America, but in no intervening region? Why are the only relatives of the camels to be found in the Llamas of the South American Andes?   Excerpted from ‘The Verterbrate Story’ by Alfred Romer All of the following factors are important in determining the presence of a vertebrate species in a region, except – A) Latitude

B) Soil conditions

C) Altitude

D) Rainfall

Explanation:-   Climate is an important factor to determine the presence of a vertebrate species in a region. Climate is related to latitude, altitude and rainfall. There is no relation of soil conditions to climate. DIRECTIONS for the question: In each sentence, the highlighted word is used in different ways. Choose the option/ options in which the usage of the word is incorrect. Question No. : 8 COME A) I came across this picture when I was cleaning out the attic B) Even if another job comes along this summer, I won't take it C) This plan will no doubt come into a great deal of criticism D) She comes on a bit too strong for my taste Explanation:-   “ no doubt come in for a great deal” and it means 'to be subjected to'.

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the given paragraph, the last line has been deleted. Choose the option that logically follows the paragraph. Question No. : 9 At least since 1918, statesmen and lawyers have dreamed of a world in which any scrupulous leader who sent troops across a state border could expect criminal prosecution. And for almost as long, some of the world’s best diplomatic and legal minds have retorted that trying to pin down a legal definition of aggression is at best fruitless, at worst harmful. The skeptics’ case was well put by Sir Austen Chamberlain, a British foreign secretary, who said in 1928 that such a definition could be a “trap for the innocent and a signpost for the guilty” A) He probably means aggression to be an expression of despair about the court of national law, which, even in its existence, is sometimes prone to manipulation B) A world court will work when there is a world government. Until then the International Criminal Court is just another example of the Europeans wanting to influence the world without actually exerting any military power C)In other words, by circumscribing the limits of criminal aggression, the world would seem to be permitting all that lay   outside those limits D) Thus if the International Criminal Court tries to define the word elaborately, the consensus it has built up over the atrocities to be included in aggression will break down Explanation:-   The statement elaborates on “ trap for the ……….guilty.” We have no mention or an hint of the International Criminal Court, hence we can rule out options 2 and 4. There in not enough information to substantiate option 1.   The right answer should have pointed towards the limitations of defining the term, which is only happening in option C. DIRECTIONS for the question: The question has four/five sentences. One of them is not acceptable in formal english as it is grammatically incorrect. Spot that sentence. Question No. : 10 A) Some days it is hard to summon up the energy to get out of bed in the morning B) Secretly you are hankering out a change in your career, but now is not the right time C) Poor old Mrs Jones is wasting away. She’s been so ill D) When she told me the joke I doubled up laughing Explanation:-   Hankering after a change – running after something or desiring a change DIRECTIONS for the question: In the given paragraph, the last line has been deleted. Choose the option that logically follows the paragraph. Question No. : 11 The unprecedented prosperity enjoyed by most Greeks during the past decade helped to disguise some sentiments that were far below the surface: ultra-leftism (including the violent sort which spills over into terrorism), ultra-nationalism and xenophobia. Such feelings may now be unleashed. The government claims some successes in rounding up a small ultra-leftist group of urban guerillas called “Revolutionary Struggle”. A) But there is a well-founded suspicion that light-fingered bureaucrats and greedy politicians will be held to account but won’t be B) But this is a confirmation of the fact that the country faces a new period of foreign backed despotism C) But there are conspicuous signs that the groups of revolutionaries are both bureaucrats and politicians D) But there are palpable fears that austerity and the riots that follow may give rise to several Robin Hoods Explanation:-   The last sentence states that there has been some success in rounding up a small group of guerillas. Because of the presence of the

counter indicator 'but' the correct answer has to be one that actually goes against the last line. Since the last line says that the govt. has controlled it, the counter should be that still lots are there on the ground.   Options 1, 2 and 3 are out of context as no mention of politicians and bureaucrats This means that there are many more who will surface to show their sentiments. Hence option 4 is the best choice which talks about the fears of riots and austerity and the rise of Robin Hoods. DIRECTIONS for the question: The question has four/five sentences. One of them is not acceptable in formal english as it is grammatically incorrect. Spot that sentence. Question No. : 12 A) We also need to factor in the loss of a major client – we lost the Popmaster contract this year B) They took the sting out of it by giving us a Christmas bonus C) Soldier on for now because next month will bring an exciting new development that will change everything D) The leader of the opposition party has hit at the government’s new proposal on tax Explanation:-   “ opposition party has hit out at the government. Hiting out means to strongly criticize. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 13 It’s hard not to feel a little sorry for Tom Vilsack and Sylvia Mathews Burwell. As the heads of the U.S. Department of Agriculture and the Department of Health and Human Services, respectively, Vilsack and Burwell are responsible for issuing this year’s update to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. The guidelines, which are expected to be published before the end of 2015, inform all of the federal government’s nutrition initiatives and food-assistance programs, including school lunches and breakfasts. They are estimated to affect one in every four meals consumed in this country. By law, the guidelines must be revised every five years according to the “preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time. Vilsack and Burwell have the unenviable job of determining what constitutes “knowledge” in a field that has long been mired in ambiguity.   The immensity of the challenge became even more apparent late last month, when Nina Teicholz, writing in the BMJ (formerly the British Medical Journal), published a blistering analysis of the scientific report that serves as the basis for the 2015 guidelines. The report, which was drawn up by the Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee (D.G.A.C.), a panel of nutrition experts, recommends plenty of low- or non-fat dairy, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, seafood, legumes, and nuts, and minimal red and processed meats, refined grains, and sweetened foods and drinks. But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to adequately consider two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help control certain health conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as catastrophically unhealthy as previously supposed.   Last Wednesday, Vilsack and Burwell sat down to defend the D.G.A.C.’s report at a hearing of the House Agriculture Committee. They offered few satisfying answers. The committee members cited a number of Teicholz’s charges, to which Vilsack repeatedly responded that the report could reflect only a preponderance of the evidence. “I wish there were scientific facts,” he said. He also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them. How Vilsack made this determination is not entirely clear. The D.G.A.C. charter fails to distinguish between prevention and treatment, nor does it necessarily make sense to draw a hard line between the two. As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,” told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this spectrum.”   Even if Vilsack were technically right that the guidelines are intended only to prevent disease, he would be leaving another question unanswered: why make recommendations that are irrelevant to a majority of his fellow-citizens? Depressing though it may be, the United States in 2015 no longer has the luxury of dietary advice aimed only at the metabolically healthy. More than two-thirds of adults in this country are overweight or obese, as are about a third of children and adolescents. What’s more, approximately half of all adults—and a rapidly growing number of adolescents—are now estimated to have Type 2 diabetes or prediabetes. (The percentages of the obese and diabetic are even higher among lower-income Americans, the very people who rely on food-assistance programs.) During the House hearing, Burwell asked her interlocutors to imagine what the United States

might look like today if no guidelines had ever been instituted. “We are on the wrong trajectory, but would the trajectory have been worse?” she asked. It’s hard to imagine, though, what worse could mean.   Vilsack’s seeming failure to grasp this point underscores the long-standing disconnect between the guidelines and the reality of America’s dietary woes. To the D.G.A.C.’s credit, the 2015 report includes several amendments to previous editions. Although it discourages the eating of saturated and trans fats, it places no limits on over-all fat consumption, and it calls for the revised guidelines to do away with warnings about the cholesterol in food, since it has little impact on cholesterol levels in the blood. And yet the overriding conclusion—that Americans should eat a grain-heavy diet low in saturated fat—is largely the same advice that has been given every five years since the guidelines were introduced, in 1980. Back then, less than fifteen per cent of Americans were obese, and Type 2 diabetes in children was extremely rare. Today, a growing body of research suggests that those who are prediabetic or diabetic might do best on a diet that is higher in total fat and lower in grains.   It is possible, of course, that the government has been providing sound advice for decades and that it hasn’t worked only because people have failed to pay attention. Defenders of the status quo point out that, when Americans were urged to avoid fat, no one told them to replace it with refined grains and sugar. But nutrition always involves trade-offs. If you strive to consume less whole milk and red meat, as Americans have indeed done, it is almost inevitable that you will end up replacing some of the calories from saturated fat with calories from carbohydrates. And it may become considerably harder to resist refined grains and sugars. “A kid who might a generation ago have had a glass of whole milk and two cookies might today have a glass of fat-free milk and three or four cookies,” Ludwig told me. “That is a bad trade-off.” What does the author mean when he says 'preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge'? A) The said guidelines must validate the findings of science and medical knowledge. B) The said guidelines must supersede the findings of science and medical knowledge. C) The said guidelines must be subservient to the findings of science and medical knowledge. D) The said guidelines must lead to the drawing scientific findings and medical knowledge. Explanation:-   Refer to the lines: By law, the guidelines must be revised every five years according to the “preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time. Preponderance means superiority in weight, force, importance, or influence. In the given case, option 3 is the best answer in the given case. Subservient means 'compliant and obedient to authority'. Option 1 is ruled out as these guidelines have to be derived from the findings of science and medical knowledge and not the other way around. Options 2 and 4 are illogical in nature.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 14 It’s hard not to feel a little sorry for Tom Vilsack and Sylvia Mathews Burwell. As the heads of the U.S. Department of Agriculture and the Department of Health and Human Services, respectively, Vilsack and Burwell are responsible for issuing this year’s update to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. The guidelines, which are expected to be published before the end of 2015, inform all of the federal government’s nutrition initiatives and food-assistance programs, including school lunches and breakfasts. They are estimated to affect one in every four meals consumed in this country. By law, the guidelines must be revised every five years according to the “preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time. Vilsack and Burwell have the unenviable job of determining what constitutes “knowledge” in a field that has long been mired in ambiguity.   The immensity of the challenge became even more apparent late last month, when Nina Teicholz, writing in the BMJ (formerly the British Medical Journal), published a blistering analysis of the scientific report that serves as the basis for the 2015 guidelines. The report, which was drawn up by the Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee (D.G.A.C.), a panel of nutrition experts, recommends plenty of low- or non-fat dairy, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, seafood, legumes, and nuts, and minimal red and processed meats, refined grains, and sweetened foods and drinks. But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to adequately consider two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help control certain health conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as catastrophically unhealthy as previously supposed.   Last Wednesday, Vilsack and Burwell sat down to defend the D.G.A.C.’s report at a hearing of the House Agriculture Committee.

They offered few satisfying answers. The committee members cited a number of Teicholz’s charges, to which Vilsack repeatedly responded that the report could reflect only a preponderance of the evidence. “I wish there were scientific facts,” he said. He also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them. How Vilsack made this determination is not entirely clear. The D.G.A.C. charter fails to distinguish between prevention and treatment, nor does it necessarily make sense to draw a hard line between the two. As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,” told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this spectrum.”   Even if Vilsack were technically right that the guidelines are intended only to prevent disease, he would be leaving another question unanswered: why make recommendations that are irrelevant to a majority of his fellow-citizens? Depressing though it may be, the United States in 2015 no longer has the luxury of dietary advice aimed only at the metabolically healthy. More than two-thirds of adults in this country are overweight or obese, as are about a third of children and adolescents. What’s more, approximately half of all adults—and a rapidly growing number of adolescents—are now estimated to have Type 2 diabetes or prediabetes. (The percentages of the obese and diabetic are even higher among lower-income Americans, the very people who rely on food-assistance programs.) During the House hearing, Burwell asked her interlocutors to imagine what the United States might look like today if no guidelines had ever been instituted. “We are on the wrong trajectory, but would the trajectory have been worse?” she asked. It’s hard to imagine, though, what worse could mean.   Vilsack’s seeming failure to grasp this point underscores the long-standing disconnect between the guidelines and the reality of America’s dietary woes. To the D.G.A.C.’s credit, the 2015 report includes several amendments to previous editions. Although it discourages the eating of saturated and trans fats, it places no limits on over-all fat consumption, and it calls for the revised guidelines to do away with warnings about the cholesterol in food, since it has little impact on cholesterol levels in the blood. And yet the overriding conclusion—that Americans should eat a grain-heavy diet low in saturated fat—is largely the same advice that has been given every five years since the guidelines were introduced, in 1980. Back then, less than fifteen per cent of Americans were obese, and Type 2 diabetes in children was extremely rare. Today, a growing body of research suggests that those who are prediabetic or diabetic might do best on a diet that is higher in total fat and lower in grains.   It is possible, of course, that the government has been providing sound advice for decades and that it hasn’t worked only because people have failed to pay attention. Defenders of the status quo point out that, when Americans were urged to avoid fat, no one told them to replace it with refined grains and sugar. But nutrition always involves trade-offs. If you strive to consume less whole milk and red meat, as Americans have indeed done, it is almost inevitable that you will end up replacing some of the calories from saturated fat with calories from carbohydrates. And it may become considerably harder to resist refined grains and sugars. “A kid who might a generation ago have had a glass of whole milk and two cookies might today have a glass of fat-free milk and three or four cookies,” Ludwig told me. “That is a bad trade-off.” If you were to meet the author of the passage, the question you are most likely to ask him is: A) Do we really need the health guidelines of the D.G.A.C.? B) Can any agency other than D.G.A.C. take over the health guidelines? D) What exactly should be the diet of Americans?

C) How to avoid diabetes?

Explanation:-   In this case, option 4 is the most relevant question in the given case. It represents what exactly needs to be asked from the author of the passage as the answer to this question is not exactly provided in the passage. Also, this is most relevant point in the given context. Option 1 is rejected as the importance of the guidelines is stated by the author of the passage. Option 2 is irrelevant and illogical. Option 3 is too general in nature and outside the scope of the passage.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 15 It’s hard not to feel a little sorry for Tom Vilsack and Sylvia Mathews Burwell. As the heads of the U.S. Department of Agriculture and the Department of Health and Human Services, respectively, Vilsack and Burwell are responsible for issuing this year’s update to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. The guidelines, which are expected to be published before the end of 2015, inform all of

the federal government’s nutrition initiatives and food-assistance programs, including school lunches and breakfasts. They are estimated to affect one in every four meals consumed in this country. By law, the guidelines must be revised every five years according to the “preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time. Vilsack and Burwell have the unenviable job of determining what constitutes “knowledge” in a field that has long been mired in ambiguity.   The immensity of the challenge became even more apparent late last month, when Nina Teicholz, writing in the BMJ (formerly the British Medical Journal), published a blistering analysis of the scientific report that serves as the basis for the 2015 guidelines. The report, which was drawn up by the Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee (D.G.A.C.), a panel of nutrition experts, recommends plenty of low- or non-fat dairy, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, seafood, legumes, and nuts, and minimal red and processed meats, refined grains, and sweetened foods and drinks. But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to adequately consider two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help control certain health conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as catastrophically unhealthy as previously supposed.   Last Wednesday, Vilsack and Burwell sat down to defend the D.G.A.C.’s report at a hearing of the House Agriculture Committee. They offered few satisfying answers. The committee members cited a number of Teicholz’s charges, to which Vilsack repeatedly responded that the report could reflect only a preponderance of the evidence. “I wish there were scientific facts,” he said. He also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them. How Vilsack made this determination is not entirely clear. The D.G.A.C. charter fails to distinguish between prevention and treatment, nor does it necessarily make sense to draw a hard line between the two. As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,” told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this spectrum.”   Even if Vilsack were technically right that the guidelines are intended only to prevent disease, he would be leaving another question unanswered: why make recommendations that are irrelevant to a majority of his fellow-citizens? Depressing though it may be, the United States in 2015 no longer has the luxury of dietary advice aimed only at the metabolically healthy. More than two-thirds of adults in this country are overweight or obese, as are about a third of children and adolescents. What’s more, approximately half of all adults—and a rapidly growing number of adolescents—are now estimated to have Type 2 diabetes or prediabetes. (The percentages of the obese and diabetic are even higher among lower-income Americans, the very people who rely on food-assistance programs.) During the House hearing, Burwell asked her interlocutors to imagine what the United States might look like today if no guidelines had ever been instituted. “We are on the wrong trajectory, but would the trajectory have been worse?” she asked. It’s hard to imagine, though, what worse could mean.   Vilsack’s seeming failure to grasp this point underscores the long-standing disconnect between the guidelines and the reality of America’s dietary woes. To the D.G.A.C.’s credit, the 2015 report includes several amendments to previous editions. Although it discourages the eating of saturated and trans fats, it places no limits on over-all fat consumption, and it calls for the revised guidelines to do away with warnings about the cholesterol in food, since it has little impact on cholesterol levels in the blood. And yet the overriding conclusion—that Americans should eat a grain-heavy diet low in saturated fat—is largely the same advice that has been given every five years since the guidelines were introduced, in 1980. Back then, less than fifteen per cent of Americans were obese, and Type 2 diabetes in children was extremely rare. Today, a growing body of research suggests that those who are prediabetic or diabetic might do best on a diet that is higher in total fat and lower in grains.   It is possible, of course, that the government has been providing sound advice for decades and that it hasn’t worked only because people have failed to pay attention. Defenders of the status quo point out that, when Americans were urged to avoid fat, no one told them to replace it with refined grains and sugar. But nutrition always involves trade-offs. If you strive to consume less whole milk and red meat, as Americans have indeed done, it is almost inevitable that you will end up replacing some of the calories from saturated fat with calories from carbohydrates. And it may become considerably harder to resist refined grains and sugars. “A kid who might a generation ago have had a glass of whole milk and two cookies might today have a glass of fat-free milk and three or four cookies,” Ludwig told me. “That is a bad trade-off.” Identify a suitable title for the given passage. A) Why the Government’s Dietary Guidelines are no longer needed? B) What the Government’s Dietary Guidelines may get right? C) What the Government’s Dietary Guidelines may get Wrong? D) What the Government’s Dietary Guidelines mean to the general public? Explanation:-   In the given case, option 3 is the best answer in the given case. In this case, options 1 and 4 are out rightly rejected as these are

illogical in nature. Options 2 and 3 are close but we select option 3 as the author adopts a tone of criticism in the passage and therefore, the title should also reflect a negative assessment of the situation. This is accomplished by option 3 by using the word 'wrong'.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 16 It’s hard not to feel a little sorry for Tom Vilsack and Sylvia Mathews Burwell. As the heads of the U.S. Department of Agriculture and the Department of Health and Human Services, respectively, Vilsack and Burwell are responsible for issuing this year’s update to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. The guidelines, which are expected to be published before the end of 2015, inform all of the federal government’s nutrition initiatives and food-assistance programs, including school lunches and breakfasts. They are estimated to affect one in every four meals consumed in this country. By law, the guidelines must be revised every five years according to the “preponderance of the scientific and medical knowledge” about nutrition at that time. Vilsack and Burwell have the unenviable job of determining what constitutes “knowledge” in a field that has long been mired in ambiguity.   The immensity of the challenge became even more apparent late last month, when Nina Teicholz, writing in the BMJ (formerly the British Medical Journal), published a blistering analysis of the scientific report that serves as the basis for the 2015 guidelines. The report, which was drawn up by the Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee (D.G.A.C.), a panel of nutrition experts, recommends plenty of low- or non-fat dairy, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, seafood, legumes, and nuts, and minimal red and processed meats, refined grains, and sweetened foods and drinks. But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to adequately consider two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help control certain health conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as catastrophically unhealthy as previously supposed.   Last Wednesday, Vilsack and Burwell sat down to defend the D.G.A.C.’s report at a hearing of the House Agriculture Committee. They offered few satisfying answers. The committee members cited a number of Teicholz’s charges, to which Vilsack repeatedly responded that the report could reflect only a preponderance of the evidence. “I wish there were scientific facts,” he said. He also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them. How Vilsack made this determination is not entirely clear. The D.G.A.C. charter fails to distinguish between prevention and treatment, nor does it necessarily make sense to draw a hard line between the two. As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,” told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this spectrum.”   Even if Vilsack were technically right that the guidelines are intended only to prevent disease, he would be leaving another question unanswered: why make recommendations that are irrelevant to a majority of his fellow-citizens? Depressing though it may be, the United States in 2015 no longer has the luxury of dietary advice aimed only at the metabolically healthy. More than two-thirds of adults in this country are overweight or obese, as are about a third of children and adolescents. What’s more, approximately half of all adults—and a rapidly growing number of adolescents—are now estimated to have Type 2 diabetes or prediabetes. (The percentages of the obese and diabetic are even higher among lower-income Americans, the very people who rely on food-assistance programs.) During the House hearing, Burwell asked her interlocutors to imagine what the United States might look like today if no guidelines had ever been instituted. “We are on the wrong trajectory, but would the trajectory have been worse?” she asked. It’s hard to imagine, though, what worse could mean.   Vilsack’s seeming failure to grasp this point underscores the long-standing disconnect between the guidelines and the reality of America’s dietary woes. To the D.G.A.C.’s credit, the 2015 report includes several amendments to previous editions. Although it discourages the eating of saturated and trans fats, it places no limits on over-all fat consumption, and it calls for the revised guidelines to do away with warnings about the cholesterol in food, since it has little impact on cholesterol levels in the blood. And yet the overriding conclusion—that Americans should eat a grain-heavy diet low in saturated fat—is largely the same advice that has been given every five years since the guidelines were introduced, in 1980. Back then, less than fifteen per cent of Americans were obese, and Type 2 diabetes in children was extremely rare. Today, a growing body of research suggests that those who are prediabetic or diabetic might do best on a diet that is higher in total fat and lower in grains.   It is possible, of course, that the government has been providing sound advice for decades and that it hasn’t worked only because people have failed to pay attention. Defenders of the status quo point out that, when Americans were urged to avoid fat, no one told them to replace it with refined grains and sugar. But nutrition always involves trade-offs. If you strive to consume less whole milk and red meat, as Americans have indeed done, it is almost inevitable that you will end up replacing some of the calories from

saturated fat with calories from carbohydrates. And it may become considerably harder to resist refined grains and sugars. “A kid who might a generation ago have had a glass of whole milk and two cookies might today have a glass of fat-free milk and three or four cookies,” Ludwig told me. “That is a bad trade-off.” Assuming the information provided in the passage to be correct, identify the correct statements.   I. D.G.A.C. were presumably based on the assumption that guidelines were focused on prevention of ailments and not their cure. II. There is a dietary option that can help combat diabetes. III. Type 2 diabetes is part of much larger sequence of health disorders. A) I & II

B) II & III

C) I & III

D) All of the above

Explanation:-   Statement I can be derived from the lines: He also claimed that information about the benefits of low-carb diets wasn’t relevant to the guidelines, because they are meant to prevent chronic conditions rather than to treat them. Statement II can be derived from the lines: But, according to Teicholz, the D.G.A.C. failed to adequately consider two relatively recent findings in nutrition science: first, that eating a low-carbohydrate diet may help control certain health conditions, notably Type 2 diabetes and obesity, and second, that saturated fats may not be as catastrophically unhealthy as previously supposed. Statement III can be derived from the lines: As David Ludwig, an obesity researcher at Boston Children’s Hospital and the author of the book “Always Hungry?,” told me in an e-mail, “Type 2 diabetes represents the end of a long progression, beginning with overweight and leading to severe metabolic disease. Health risks increase continuously along this spectrum.”  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Question No. : 17 A. Online, one can be anything, anyone, of any age, gender, nationality, biography or appearance. B. And yet one may use words and delve into verbal play to enact one’s deepest psyche, to reveal the identity that is buried in everyday life and useless in the real world of social interaction. C. To hook up by way of words is often to play hooky with a reality that doesn’t obey our words. D. It is to search for a psychic order that can be forcefully denied by social order and which one would like to stealthily achieve in the deepest recesses one one’s mind. E. Hence the intensely erotic nature of such play, which, in a way, is an alternative outlet for repressed energies and emotions, without any fear of being caught. A) CBEAB

B) CDEAB

C) ABCDE

D) ABDCE

Explanation:-   Sentence A is an ideal opener as the idea therein is explained further in a logical manner by the rest of the lines here.   Line C explains the purpose behind using particular words, an idea stated in line B (A-B-C). Sentence D elaborates on the purpose (to search ….) of using such words (A-B-C-D), while sentence D gives a concluding remark with its use of hence.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Question No. : 18 A. The latter’s straight language is akin to that used by professionals of the sex industry, some less licit than others, who offer a commodity, a consumable product that feeds on ever renewable longing and need. B. On the other hand, highbrow magazine ads that participate in the effort to change one’s life by Meeting Someone can be notoriously entertaining for stray outsiders C. There is a profound difference between the language used to attract a potential conjugal mate and that used to titillate erotic curiosity and initiate an exclusively sexual encounter—as a number of Internet dating sites put it, between those looking for Mr. or

Mrs. “Right” and those looking for Mr. or Mrs. “Right Now.” D. One can offer, or sell, or cry out for “the right stuff,” “erotic therapy,” “full-body touch,” “uninhibited, kinky fun,” and “fetish and S&M,” as long as the ad reads, “Discretion assured.” E. Anonymity remains, as always, the mark of personals: intimate qualities and fantasies can be broadcast to the world only insofar as the person they represent is invisible.   A) ECADB

B) CADBE

C) DECAB

D) CAEDB

Explanation:-   Notice the word latter in sentence A, which refers to the two distinctions made in sentence C only (C-A). Sentence D works to offer a relevant example of the idea contained in line A (C-A-D). Sentence B, with its on the other hand, offers a good contrast with the way the online sites work (E-C-A-D-B).   DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Question No. : 19 A. In democracies such as ancient Greece and in the modern Western world, this show of power may have been more reserved, but it is still distinguishable. B. Since this function usually is sought not so much to delight the patron as to demonstrate his social position to others, power architecture becomes communal as well as domestic. C. The same causes tend to replace the conservatism of the home with the aspirations of institutional architecture and to emphasize the expressive as well as the utilitarian function. D. Frequently, new structures are built using old techniques because experiment and innovation are more costly than repetition but in wealthy cultures, the economy permits and the customs encourage architecture to provide conveniences such as sanitation, lighting, and heating, as well as separate areas for distinct functions, and these may come to be regarded as necessities. E. Economic pressure is the major factor that causes the average individual to restrict his demands to a level far below that which the technology of his time is capable of maintaining. A) BACDE

B) EDCBA

C) EDCAB

D) EDACB

Explanation:-   Lines A, B, C and D here serve to explain the idea given in line E only. Line E, with a general introductory remark, is a good opener. Line D offers a suitable example to support the idea given in line E (E-D). Notice the word same causes in line C, which gels with D very well (E-D-C). This function of line B refers to what is mentioned in line C (E-D-C-B).  Note the link between social position in line B and this power in line A (E-D-C-B-A).   DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Question No. : 20 A. This group within the chronically disorganized population has an uncommonly profound and deep love of learning and researching: An extraordinarily strong drive to answer the questions of life and find meaning in everything that they do.  B. To boot, they often have a low tolerance level for mistakes and things that “don’t seem right.” C. While having an “aha” experience of deep understanding or insight, or making a new connection or seeing a new pattern, insight addicts experience a rush of endorphins and a sense of euphoric well-being, energy and ecstasy similar to the ecstasy that people describe from experiencing a “flow state,” runner’s high, religious ecstasy, or even a shopping addict’s high.  D. This cognitive intensity can be a source of social alienation and emotional trauma and even bullying.  E. This is also often associated with a tendency to challenge the status quo, challenge authority, and to seem argumentative and oppositional to people. A) CDABE

B) ACEDB

C) ACDEB

D) ABCDE

A) CDABE

B) ACEDB

C) ACDEB

D) ABCDE

Explanation:-   Line A provides a general introduction to the topic, which is explained further by the rest of the lines here. Therefore, it can be a good opening line. The idea given in A is elaborated by line C, which talks in details about the particular behaviours associated with such people (A-C). Notice the word This in line D, which refers to the idea given in line C only (A-C-D). Line E contains also, another important hint, which gives us A-C-D-E. Line B, with its to boot, completes the sequence arrived at earlier (A-C-D-E-B).   DIRECTIONS for question  The question consists of different statements  one of which does not fit into the paragraph. Identify that sentence which is a misfit and choose that option as your answer. Question No. : 21 A. Chronic disorganization is different because when life transitions happen to you, instead of “recovering” and “restoring order” after a few months or so, the disorganization does not improve and may even worsen over time. B. The clutter continues to accumulate and at a certain point, daily life becomes overwhelmingly stressful and chronic procrastination becomes a challenge as well. C. The clutter itself starts affecting your emotional state so strongly, you may find yourself so drained and depressed that you no longer have the heart or the energy to dig out alone. D. A feeling of being overwhelmed with responsibilities and commitments is a marked feature of disorganized individuals, who always find themselves perpetually short of time and energy. A) Statement A

B) Statement B

C) Statement C

D) Statement D

Explanation:-   Lines A, B and C here speak of chronic disorganization while line D speaks of disorganized individuals. DIRECTIONS for question  The question consists of different statements  one of which does not fit into the paragraph. Identify that sentence which is a misfit and choose that option as your answer. Question No. : 22 A. Hunger is about people; it is also about oppression and inequalities. B. Hunger is about corrupt politicians and corrupt bureaucracy; it is also about power and powerlessness. C. Hunger is about borrowed ideas of science and technology and development which have not worked in local realities; it is also about the disintegration of local communities; about loss of values, traditions, culture and spirituality. D. Ending hunger is the important unfinished agenda of this century and of independent India. A) Statement A

B) Statement B

C) Statement C

D) Statement D

Explanation:-   Only line D speaks of eliminating hunger while the rest only try to define and explain it. DIRECTIONS for question  The question consists of different statements  one of which does not fit into the paragraph. Identify that sentence which is a misfit and choose that option as your answer. Question No. : 23 A. Find a way to connect with others who do not judge you and can help you see your behavior more compassionately. B. Select your professional organizer carefully as recovery from chronic disorganization is usually a long term relationship that requires a lot of trust, respect and mutual commitment. C. Consider connecting with a group that addresses chronic disorganization and has members who have experienced it themselves. D. If the thought of having someone enter your home stresses you out, then joining an online support group can be a life transforming experience.

A) Statement A

B) Statement B

C) Statement C

D) Statement D

Explanation:-   Only Statement B talks about getting help from a professional trainer; the rest refer to connecting with other people.

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of four/five sentences on a topic. Select the option that indicates grammatically correct or appropriate sentence/s. Question No. : 24 A. The law in a democracy has a relevance that goes beyond the textbooks and the courtroom. B. Its germane to society and the way that society functions or chooses to function. C. The law, at critical points, can give to society a new direction and resolution. D. The long-awaited judgment of the Lucknow bench of the Allahabad High Court of the Ayodhya dispute can be interpreted to do just that. E. The judgment provides a legal platform for peaceful resolution of the dispute and a reconciliation of the conceding parties. A) A and C

B) B and C

C) A and D

D) B and E

Explanation:-   Sentence B is incorrect. It uses 'its' in place of 'it is'. The correct sentence is: It is germane to a society and the way that society functions or chooses to function. Sentence D commits a prepositional error. Instead of 'of', 'on' should be used. The correct sentence is: The long-awaited judgment of the Lucknow bench of the Allahabad High Court on the Ayodhya dispute can be interpreted to do just that. Sentence E commits a word usage error. It uses the word 'conceding' in place of 'contending'. DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage. Question No. : 25 A new law has proposed that all non-apartment houses in the city should have CCTV cameras that help in nabbing robbers who rob these houses. However, a group of members in the city council have argued that since more than 85% of the robbers are carried out by household helps, the installation of cameras will only marginally increase the number of robbers of caught.     Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument of the city council members? A) Since majority of the homes in the city are apartment complexes, the impact of the law will be insignificant. B) The installation of alarms in the houses costs significantly less than the installation of CCTV cameras. C) The largest proportion of loss in robberies results from thefts carried out by professional gangs that strike when no one is   at home. D) The time taken by police in the city to respond to robbery calls is greater than the national average. Explanation:-   In this case, option 1 actually strengthens the argument and option 2 is irrelevant. Options 3 and 4 both weaken the argument but option 3 is the better answer here. Option 3 showcases that how the robberies that cause the maximum damage are carried out by people other than helps and this means that installing cameras will be beneficial. Option 4 only mildly weaknes the argument.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 26 I’ve been puzzled for some time about why people flirt. Students of (non-human animal) behavior know that males of many

species aren’t typically subtle about signaling their interest in mating. A peacock displaying his tail feathers to a peahen is more or less saying, “My quality is this high, and I’m telling you this because I’d like to mate with you.” The males of other species sing, dance, strut, and generally make a big show to indicate their quality and their interest.   Set against this backdrop, humans seem, in a word, weird. People do signal to potential mates in various ways, displaying wealth and skills and so on, mirroring animal signals of quality. But at least some elements of human mating carry a certain ambiguity, especially regarding one’s intentions. “Do you want to visit the chili cook-off?” might reflect an intention for a casual, Platonic chat and a nice, hot bowl of chili. Or it might not.   As I say, I’ve puzzled over this for some time. So much so that from time to time I’ve conducted some field research on the subject, which led me to the conclusion that one important reason that people indicate their potential sexual intentions in a subtle way is that abandoning subtlety leads to drinks in one’s face, which in turn results in an unpleasant stinging sensation in the eyes. These informal investigations focused my attention on the issue of costs.   What are the costs of peacock-like signaling of sexual intent? In 2007, I had a talented group of undergraduates conduct a little study inspired by what we self-satisfyingly called the GIST model, standing for the Gradual Increase in Sexual Tension. One part of this model was the idea was that perhaps the costs of flirting had to do with third parties; if so, flirting should be more subtle when pairs were being observed. So, we had subjects chat with an opposite-sex partner in a chat room, either with or without a third party observer able to see the chat session. We got some small effects of this treatment – a bit more restraint when pairs believed (correctly) their chat session was being observed by another subjects – and a few additional undergraduate projects followed, many of which had similarly clever abbreviations and similarly small effects.   A key part of the idea is that in various species, third party observers interfere with others’ mating attempts. This is unsurprising; male-male competition is more or less all about interfering with others’ mating attempts. Could this be driving the human subtlety of signaling one’s sexual intentions?   Perhaps. But as the drink-in-face example illustrates, there could be potential costs even if no one else is watching. For instance, in the context of a Platonic opposite-sex relationship, a (relatively explicit) signal of sexual interest might damage the relationship. Everyday experience – and When Harry Met Sally – suggests that an unmistakable sexual proposition in a previously non-sexual relationship tarnishes the relationship. In contrast, a subtle signal of potential sexual interest, if gently brushed aside, leaves both parties able to maintain the fiction that the interest was never signaled in the first place.   If explicit signals of sexual interest carry potential costs, either from the receiver or third parties, then less explicit signals might reduce or eliminate these costs. That raises the problem of how to indicate interest. One way to do this is to indicate interest in such a way that observers might not be able to infer with certainty that one’s intentions are, in fact, sexual. Ideally, one wants to signal in such a way that a receiver can detect that there might be sexual interest but in a way that is plausibly deniable.   One way to use this is to use “indirect speech.” When I ask if you want to go to the chili cook-off, there are (at least) two different questions I might be asking you. The surface meaning is whether or not you want to get some chili. A second meaning is a question about whether you’re interested in a date, a prelude to mating. If you are not the least bit interested in a date, you can interpret my remark as a simple invitation to chili, and indicate that you don’t like spicy food, or what have you. Further, if you challenge me by indicating that you’re engaged and so really shouldn’t be going to chili cook-offs, then I can innocently say that I was just being sociable, as opposed to making anything resembling a sexual overture. Indirect speech, and other ambiguous moves in social dynamics, allow parties to test the waters for interest while simultaneously minimizing potential costs imposed by the target or observers by leaving a safety valve of deniability. The example of the chilli cook-off is used by the author to: A) illustrate his point by using an analogy B) highlights his point by using an exposition C) showcase his views by using a figure of speech D) display his ideas by using language metaphors Explanation:-   In the given case, options 3 and 4 can be directly ruled as they are not related to the given context. How does the author use the given example? He essentially uses it to explain his viewpoint. An exposition is a systematic interpretation or explanation (usually written) of a specific topic. This makes option 2 the apt answer for the given question. In an analogy, a write draws a comparison in order to show a similarity in some respect. In this case, no comparison is drawn, simply a description is provided.  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 27 I’ve been puzzled for some time about why people flirt. Students of (non-human animal) behavior know that males of many species aren’t typically subtle about signaling their interest in mating. A peacock displaying his tail feathers to a peahen is more or less saying, “My quality is this high, and I’m telling you this because I’d like to mate with you.” The males of other species sing, dance, strut, and generally make a big show to indicate their quality and their interest.   Set against this backdrop, humans seem, in a word, weird. People do signal to potential mates in various ways, displaying wealth and skills and so on, mirroring animal signals of quality. But at least some elements of human mating carry a certain ambiguity, especially regarding one’s intentions. “Do you want to visit the chili cook-off?” might reflect an intention for a casual, Platonic chat and a nice, hot bowl of chili. Or it might not.   As I say, I’ve puzzled over this for some time. So much so that from time to time I’ve conducted some field research on the subject, which led me to the conclusion that one important reason that people indicate their potential sexual intentions in a subtle way is that abandoning subtlety leads to drinks in one’s face, which in turn results in an unpleasant stinging sensation in the eyes. These informal investigations focused my attention on the issue of costs.   What are the costs of peacock-like signaling of sexual intent? In 2007, I had a talented group of undergraduates conduct a little study inspired by what we self-satisfyingly called the GIST model, standing for the Gradual Increase in Sexual Tension. One part of this model was the idea was that perhaps the costs of flirting had to do with third parties; if so, flirting should be more subtle when pairs were being observed. So, we had subjects chat with an opposite-sex partner in a chat room, either with or without a third party observer able to see the chat session. We got some small effects of this treatment – a bit more restraint when pairs believed (correctly) their chat session was being observed by another subjects – and a few additional undergraduate projects followed, many of which had similarly clever abbreviations and similarly small effects.   A key part of the idea is that in various species, third party observers interfere with others’ mating attempts. This is unsurprising; male-male competition is more or less all about interfering with others’ mating attempts. Could this be driving the human subtlety of signaling one’s sexual intentions?   Perhaps. But as the drink-in-face example illustrates, there could be potential costs even if no one else is watching. For instance, in the context of a Platonic opposite-sex relationship, a (relatively explicit) signal of sexual interest might damage the relationship. Everyday experience – and When Harry Met Sally – suggests that an unmistakable sexual proposition in a previously non-sexual relationship tarnishes the relationship. In contrast, a subtle signal of potential sexual interest, if gently brushed aside, leaves both parties able to maintain the fiction that the interest was never signaled in the first place.   If explicit signals of sexual interest carry potential costs, either from the receiver or third parties, then less explicit signals might reduce or eliminate these costs. That raises the problem of how to indicate interest. One way to do this is to indicate interest in such a way that observers might not be able to infer with certainty that one’s intentions are, in fact, sexual. Ideally, one wants to signal in such a way that a receiver can detect that there might be sexual interest but in a way that is plausibly deniable.   One way to use this is to use “indirect speech.” When I ask if you want to go to the chili cook-off, there are (at least) two different questions I might be asking you. The surface meaning is whether or not you want to get some chili. A second meaning is a question about whether you’re interested in a date, a prelude to mating. If you are not the least bit interested in a date, you can interpret my remark as a simple invitation to chili, and indicate that you don’t like spicy food, or what have you. Further, if you challenge me by indicating that you’re engaged and so really shouldn’t be going to chili cook-offs, then I can innocently say that I was just being sociable, as opposed to making anything resembling a sexual overture. Indirect speech, and other ambiguous moves in social dynamics, allow parties to test the waters for interest while simultaneously minimizing potential costs imposed by the target or observers by leaving a safety valve of deniability. According to the author of the passage, flirting becomes a part of human behaviour as:   I. It helps test the waters and prevent souring of relationship. II. It prevents one from being found out with one's pants down. III. It helps hide one's intentions from other predators vying for the same prize. A) I & II

B) II & III

C) I & III

D) All of the above

Explanation:-   Statement I can be derived from the lines: For instance, in the context of a Platonic opposite-sex relationship, a (relatively explicit) signal of sexual interest might damage the relationship. Everyday experience – and When Harry Met Sally – suggests that an unmistakable sexual proposition in a previously non-sexual relationship tarnishes the relationship. In contrast, a subtle signal of potential sexual interest, if gently brushed aside, leaves both parties able to maintain the fiction that the interest was never signaled in the first place.   Statement II can be derived from the lines: As I say, I’ve puzzled over this for some time. So much so that from time to time I’ve conducted some field research on the subject, which led me to the conclusion that one important reason that people indicate their potential sexual intentions in a subtle way is that abandoning subtlety leads to drinks in one’s face, which in turn results in an unpleasant stinging sensation in the eyes.   Statement III can be derived from the lines: A key part of the idea is that in various species, third party observers interfere with others’ mating attempts. This is unsurprising; male-male competition is more or less all about interfering with others’ mating attempts.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 28 I’ve been puzzled for some time about why people flirt. Students of (non-human animal) behavior know that males of many species aren’t typically subtle about signaling their interest in mating. A peacock displaying his tail feathers to a peahen is more or less saying, “My quality is this high, and I’m telling you this because I’d like to mate with you.” The males of other species sing, dance, strut, and generally make a big show to indicate their quality and their interest.   Set against this backdrop, humans seem, in a word, weird. People do signal to potential mates in various ways, displaying wealth and skills and so on, mirroring animal signals of quality. But at least some elements of human mating carry a certain ambiguity, especially regarding one’s intentions. “Do you want to visit the chili cook-off?” might reflect an intention for a casual, Platonic chat and a nice, hot bowl of chili. Or it might not.   As I say, I’ve puzzled over this for some time. So much so that from time to time I’ve conducted some field research on the subject, which led me to the conclusion that one important reason that people indicate their potential sexual intentions in a subtle way is that abandoning subtlety leads to drinks in one’s face, which in turn results in an unpleasant stinging sensation in the eyes. These informal investigations focused my attention on the issue of costs.   What are the costs of peacock-like signaling of sexual intent? In 2007, I had a talented group of undergraduates conduct a little study inspired by what we self-satisfyingly called the GIST model, standing for the Gradual Increase in Sexual Tension. One part of this model was the idea was that perhaps the costs of flirting had to do with third parties; if so, flirting should be more subtle when pairs were being observed. So, we had subjects chat with an opposite-sex partner in a chat room, either with or without a third party observer able to see the chat session. We got some small effects of this treatment – a bit more restraint when pairs believed (correctly) their chat session was being observed by another subjects – and a few additional undergraduate projects followed, many of which had similarly clever abbreviations and similarly small effects.   A key part of the idea is that in various species, third party observers interfere with others’ mating attempts. This is unsurprising; male-male competition is more or less all about interfering with others’ mating attempts. Could this be driving the human subtlety of signaling one’s sexual intentions?   Perhaps. But as the drink-in-face example illustrates, there could be potential costs even if no one else is watching. For instance, in the context of a Platonic opposite-sex relationship, a (relatively explicit) signal of sexual interest might damage the relationship. Everyday experience – and When Harry Met Sally – suggests that an unmistakable sexual proposition in a previously non-sexual relationship tarnishes the relationship. In contrast, a subtle signal of potential sexual interest, if gently brushed aside, leaves both parties able to maintain the fiction that the interest was never signaled in the first place.   If explicit signals of sexual interest carry potential costs, either from the receiver or third parties, then less explicit signals might reduce or eliminate these costs. That raises the problem of how to indicate interest. One way to do this is to indicate interest in such a way that observers might not be able to infer with certainty that one’s intentions are, in fact, sexual. Ideally, one wants to signal in such a way that a receiver can detect that there might be sexual interest but in a way that is plausibly deniable.

  One way to use this is to use “indirect speech.” When I ask if you want to go to the chili cook-off, there are (at least) two different questions I might be asking you. The surface meaning is whether or not you want to get some chili. A second meaning is a question about whether you’re interested in a date, a prelude to mating. If you are not the least bit interested in a date, you can interpret my remark as a simple invitation to chili, and indicate that you don’t like spicy food, or what have you. Further, if you challenge me by indicating that you’re engaged and so really shouldn’t be going to chili cook-offs, then I can innocently say that I was just being sociable, as opposed to making anything resembling a sexual overture. Indirect speech, and other ambiguous moves in social dynamics, allow parties to test the waters for interest while simultaneously minimizing potential costs imposed by the target or observers by leaving a safety valve of deniability. Which feeling does the author refer to by using the phrase 'drinks in one’s face'? A) a feeling of coyness

B) a feeling of discomfiture

C) a feeling of chutzpah

D) a feeling of chivalry

Explanation:-   Refer to the lines: So much so that from time to time I’ve conducted some field research on the subject, which led me to the conclusion that one important reason that people indicate their potential sexual intentions in a subtle way is that abandoning subtlety leads to drinks in one’s face, which in turn results in an unpleasant stinging sensation in the eyes. In the given case, the phrase is a reference to a feeling of embarrassment that one might have to encounter in case things go wrong. Keeping this in mind, discomfiture (Anxious embarrassment) is the best answer for the given question. The meanings of the other words are: Coyness: The affectation of being demure in a provocative way. Chutzpah: unbelievable gall; insolence; audacity. Chivalry: Courtesy towards women. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it. Question No. : 29 I’ve been puzzled for some time about why people flirt. Students of (non-human animal) behavior know that males of many species aren’t typically subtle about signaling their interest in mating. A peacock displaying his tail feathers to a peahen is more or less saying, “My quality is this high, and I’m telling you this because I’d like to mate with you.” The males of other species sing, dance, strut, and generally make a big show to indicate their quality and their interest.   Set against this backdrop, humans seem, in a word, weird. People do signal to potential mates in various ways, displaying wealth and skills and so on, mirroring animal signals of quality. But at least some elements of human mating carry a certain ambiguity, especially regarding one’s intentions. “Do you want to visit the chili cook-off?” might reflect an intention for a casual, Platonic chat and a nice, hot bowl of chili. Or it might not.   As I say, I’ve puzzled over this for some time. So much so that from time to time I’ve conducted some field research on the subject, which led me to the conclusion that one important reason that people indicate their potential sexual intentions in a subtle way is that abandoning subtlety leads to drinks in one’s face, which in turn results in an unpleasant stinging sensation in the eyes. These informal investigations focused my attention on the issue of costs.   What are the costs of peacock-like signaling of sexual intent? In 2007, I had a talented group of undergraduates conduct a little study inspired by what we self-satisfyingly called the GIST model, standing for the Gradual Increase in Sexual Tension. One part of this model was the idea was that perhaps the costs of flirting had to do with third parties; if so, flirting should be more subtle when pairs were being observed. So, we had subjects chat with an opposite-sex partner in a chat room, either with or without a third party observer able to see the chat session. We got some small effects of this treatment – a bit more restraint when pairs believed (correctly) their chat session was being observed by another subjects – and a few additional undergraduate projects followed, many of which had similarly clever abbreviations and similarly small effects.   A key part of the idea is that in various species, third party observers interfere with others’ mating attempts. This is unsurprising; male-male competition is more or less all about interfering with others’ mating attempts. Could this be driving the human subtlety of signaling one’s sexual intentions?   Perhaps. But as the drink-in-face example illustrates, there could be potential costs even if no one else is watching. For instance, in the context of a Platonic opposite-sex relationship, a (relatively explicit) signal of sexual interest might damage the relationship.

Everyday experience – and When Harry Met Sally – suggests that an unmistakable sexual proposition in a previously non-sexual relationship tarnishes the relationship. In contrast, a subtle signal of potential sexual interest, if gently brushed aside, leaves both parties able to maintain the fiction that the interest was never signaled in the first place.   If explicit signals of sexual interest carry potential costs, either from the receiver or third parties, then less explicit signals might reduce or eliminate these costs. That raises the problem of how to indicate interest. One way to do this is to indicate interest in such a way that observers might not be able to infer with certainty that one’s intentions are, in fact, sexual. Ideally, one wants to signal in such a way that a receiver can detect that there might be sexual interest but in a way that is plausibly deniable.   One way to use this is to use “indirect speech.” When I ask if you want to go to the chili cook-off, there are (at least) two different questions I might be asking you. The surface meaning is whether or not you want to get some chili. A second meaning is a question about whether you’re interested in a date, a prelude to mating. If you are not the least bit interested in a date, you can interpret my remark as a simple invitation to chili, and indicate that you don’t like spicy food, or what have you. Further, if you challenge me by indicating that you’re engaged and so really shouldn’t be going to chili cook-offs, then I can innocently say that I was just being sociable, as opposed to making anything resembling a sexual overture. Indirect speech, and other ambiguous moves in social dynamics, allow parties to test the waters for interest while simultaneously minimizing potential costs imposed by the target or observers by leaving a safety valve of deniability. The author of the passage would agree with the statement: A) Human beings follows mating rituals similar to other animals. B) Human beings follows mating rituals completely dissimilar to other animals. C) Human beings follows mating rituals somewhat dissimilar to other animals.

D) None of the above

Explanation:-   In the given case, the author of the passage highlights the difference in behaviour of human beings with respect to other species when it comes to mating. He species that even though the intentions might be the same, human beings act differently in some cases (where they hide their intentions under the garb of flirting).  Refer to the lines: But at least some elements of human mating carry a certain ambiguity, especially regarding one’s intentions. These lines imply a certain difference but do not imply that human beings are completely different. This makes option 3 the best answer in the given case. DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 30 Ever since the Great Recession, Americans have felt that something is profoundly wrong with the economy. Not only is it not working for them; it is not working the way it used to. Slow growth, stagnant wages, growing inequality, and a host of other economic problems have contributed to today’s economic pessimism. In her first major economic speech as a presidential candidate, Hillary Clinton offered a coherent explanation for America’s economic dysfunction. Expanding on the theme of “short-termism,” or quarterly capitalism, Clinton said, “Large public companies now return eight or nine out of every $10 they earn directly back to shareholders, either in the form of dividends or stock buybacks, which can temporarily boost share prices. Last year the total reached a record $900 billion. That doesn’t leave much money to build a new factory or a research lab or to train workers or to give them a raise.” With these words, Clinton not only opened up an important debate but also put on the political agenda a set of issues that have been developing for some years among academics, business schools, and forward-looking business executives. What has been missing is the link between the incentives for short-term behavior and their consequences for the economy as a whole.   In this essay we review the evidence and offer responses that could, we believe, make a difference. Let’s start with leaders from the business world. When the head of the world’s largest investment fund publicly questions the conduct of America’s leading corporations, we can be pretty sure that there’s a problem.   That’s what BlackRock Chairman Laurence Fink did last year in a letter to the Fortune 500 CEOs criticizing the short-term orientation that dominates today’s corporate behavior. “It concerns us,” he declared, that “in the wake of the financial crisis, many companies have shied away from investing in the future growth of their companies. Too many companies have cut capital expenditure and even increased debt to boost dividends and increase share buybacks.” And he concluded, “[W]hen done for the wrong reasons and at the expense of capital investment, [returning cash to shareholders] can jeopardize a company’s ability to generate sustainable long-term returns.”  

This is bad for the economy in two ways. As the growth of the U.S. workforce slows dramatically, economic growth will depend increasingly on improved productivity, most of which comes from raising capital investment per worker. Failing to make productivity-enhancing capital investments will doom our economy to a new normal of slow growth.   Many business leaders say that they are reluctant to make long-term investments without reasonable expectations of growing demand for their products. That brings us to the second way in which corporate short-termism is bad for the economy. Most consumer demand comes from wages. If employers refuse to share gains with their employees, growth in demand is bound to be anemic.   Although he clearly cares about his country, Fink is also acting as the steward of $4.8 trillion in investments. In an article published by McKinsey earlier this year, he warned that although the return of cash to shareholders is juicing equity markets right now, investors “will pay for it later when the ability to generate revenue in the long term dries up because of the lack of investment in the future.”   This strategy represents more than individual greed or the pervasive influence of bad ideas. Because current incentives are so perverse, Fink argues, “It’s hard for even the most dedicated CEO to buck this trend.” The constant pressure to produce quarterly results forces executives to go along—or risk losing their jobs. That pressure comes from investors who are, in Fink’s words, “renters, not owners, who are going to trade your stock as soon as they can pocket a quick gain.” According to the author of the passage, a lack of increase in capital investments:   I. leads to lowered productivity per worker. II. leads to stagnation in productivity levels of workers. III. has an impact on the long term growth of the economy.   A) I & II

B) II & III

C) I & III

D) All of the above

Explanation:-   Refer to the lines: This is bad for the economy in two ways. As the growth of the U.S. workforce slows dramatically, economic growth will depend increasingly on improved productivity, most of which comes from raising capital investment per worker. Failing to make productivity-enhancing capital investments will doom our economy to a new normal of slow growth.   We can see that a lack of increase in capital investments will lead to a situation where productivity will not increase (the passage does not say it will lower) and will have an impact on economic growth.   DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 31 Ever since the Great Recession, Americans have felt that something is profoundly wrong with the economy. Not only is it not working for them; it is not working the way it used to. Slow growth, stagnant wages, growing inequality, and a host of other economic problems have contributed to today’s economic pessimism. In her first major economic speech as a presidential candidate, Hillary Clinton offered a coherent explanation for America’s economic dysfunction. Expanding on the theme of “short-termism,” or quarterly capitalism, Clinton said, “Large public companies now return eight or nine out of every $10 they earn directly back to shareholders, either in the form of dividends or stock buybacks, which can temporarily boost share prices. Last year the total reached a record $900 billion. That doesn’t leave much money to build a new factory or a research lab or to train workers or to give them a raise.” With these words, Clinton not only opened up an important debate but also put on the political agenda a set of issues that have been developing for some years among academics, business schools, and forward-looking business executives. What has been missing is the link between the incentives for short-term behavior and their consequences for the economy as a whole.   In this essay we review the evidence and offer responses that could, we believe, make a difference. Let’s start with leaders from the business world. When the head of the world’s largest investment fund publicly questions the conduct of America’s leading corporations, we can be pretty sure that there’s a problem.   That’s what BlackRock Chairman Laurence Fink did last year in a letter to the Fortune 500 CEOs criticizing the short-term

orientation that dominates today’s corporate behavior. “It concerns us,” he declared, that “in the wake of the financial crisis, many companies have shied away from investing in the future growth of their companies. Too many companies have cut capital expenditure and even increased debt to boost dividends and increase share buybacks.” And he concluded, “[W]hen done for the wrong reasons and at the expense of capital investment, [returning cash to shareholders] can jeopardize a company’s ability to generate sustainable long-term returns.”   This is bad for the economy in two ways. As the growth of the U.S. workforce slows dramatically, economic growth will depend increasingly on improved productivity, most of which comes from raising capital investment per worker. Failing to make productivity-enhancing capital investments will doom our economy to a new normal of slow growth.   Many business leaders say that they are reluctant to make long-term investments without reasonable expectations of growing demand for their products. That brings us to the second way in which corporate short-termism is bad for the economy. Most consumer demand comes from wages. If employers refuse to share gains with their employees, growth in demand is bound to be anemic.   Although he clearly cares about his country, Fink is also acting as the steward of $4.8 trillion in investments. In an article published by McKinsey earlier this year, he warned that although the return of cash to shareholders is juicing equity markets right now, investors “will pay for it later when the ability to generate revenue in the long term dries up because of the lack of investment in the future.”   This strategy represents more than individual greed or the pervasive influence of bad ideas. Because current incentives are so perverse, Fink argues, “It’s hard for even the most dedicated CEO to buck this trend.” The constant pressure to produce quarterly results forces executives to go along—or risk losing their jobs. That pressure comes from investors who are, in Fink’s words, “renters, not owners, who are going to trade your stock as soon as they can pocket a quick gain.” The author of the passage illustrates that the problems with lack of capital investments in one's companies are: A) somewhat periodical in nature D) somewhat inflationary in nature

B) somewhat cyclical in nature

C) somewhat transient in nature

Explanation:-   Refer to the lines: Many business leaders say that they are reluctant to make long-term investments without reasonable expectations of growing demand for their products. That brings us to the second way in which corporate short-termism is bad for the economy. Most consumer demand comes from wages. If employers refuse to share gains with their employees, growth in demand is bound to be anemic. These lines indicate the cyclical nature of the situation with the cause leading to the effect and the effect, in turn, becoming the cause and further worsening the situation.   DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 32 Ever since the Great Recession, Americans have felt that something is profoundly wrong with the economy. Not only is it not working for them; it is not working the way it used to. Slow growth, stagnant wages, growing inequality, and a host of other economic problems have contributed to today’s economic pessimism. In her first major economic speech as a presidential candidate, Hillary Clinton offered a coherent explanation for America’s economic dysfunction. Expanding on the theme of “short-termism,” or quarterly capitalism, Clinton said, “Large public companies now return eight or nine out of every $10 they earn directly back to shareholders, either in the form of dividends or stock buybacks, which can temporarily boost share prices. Last year the total reached a record $900 billion. That doesn’t leave much money to build a new factory or a research lab or to train workers or to give them a raise.” With these words, Clinton not only opened up an important debate but also put on the political agenda a set of issues that have been developing for some years among academics, business schools, and forward-looking business executives. What has been missing is the link between the incentives for short-term behavior and their consequences for the economy as a whole.   In this essay we review the evidence and offer responses that could, we believe, make a difference. Let’s start with leaders from the business world. When the head of the world’s largest investment fund publicly questions the conduct of America’s leading corporations, we can be pretty sure that there’s a problem.

  That’s what BlackRock Chairman Laurence Fink did last year in a letter to the Fortune 500 CEOs criticizing the short-term orientation that dominates today’s corporate behavior. “It concerns us,” he declared, that “in the wake of the financial crisis, many companies have shied away from investing in the future growth of their companies. Too many companies have cut capital expenditure and even increased debt to boost dividends and increase share buybacks.” And he concluded, “[W]hen done for the wrong reasons and at the expense of capital investment, [returning cash to shareholders] can jeopardize a company’s ability to generate sustainable long-term returns.”   This is bad for the economy in two ways. As the growth of the U.S. workforce slows dramatically, economic growth will depend increasingly on improved productivity, most of which comes from raising capital investment per worker. Failing to make productivity-enhancing capital investments will doom our economy to a new normal of slow growth.   Many business leaders say that they are reluctant to make long-term investments without reasonable expectations of growing demand for their products. That brings us to the second way in which corporate short-termism is bad for the economy. Most consumer demand comes from wages. If employers refuse to share gains with their employees, growth in demand is bound to be anemic.   Although he clearly cares about his country, Fink is also acting as the steward of $4.8 trillion in investments. In an article published by McKinsey earlier this year, he warned that although the return of cash to shareholders is juicing equity markets right now, investors “will pay for it later when the ability to generate revenue in the long term dries up because of the lack of investment in the future.”   This strategy represents more than individual greed or the pervasive influence of bad ideas. Because current incentives are so perverse, Fink argues, “It’s hard for even the most dedicated CEO to buck this trend.” The constant pressure to produce quarterly results forces executives to go along—or risk losing their jobs. That pressure comes from investors who are, in Fink’s words, “renters, not owners, who are going to trade your stock as soon as they can pocket a quick gain.” According to the author of the passage, the current situation is an outcome of: A) individual greed D) all of the above

B) widespread influence of bad ideas

C) the current mal-incentivises of the system

Explanation:-   The answer can be derived from the portion in bold in the following lines: This strategy represents more than individual greed or the pervasive influence of bad ideas. Because current incentives are so perverse, Fink argues, “It’s hard for even the most dedicated CEO to buck this trend.” The constant pressure to produce quarterly results forces executives to go along—or risk losing their jobs. That pressure comes from investors who are, in Fink’s words, “renters, not owners, who are going to trade your stock as soon as they can pocket a quick gain.” DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.  Question No. : 33 Ever since the Great Recession, Americans have felt that something is profoundly wrong with the economy. Not only is it not working for them; it is not working the way it used to. Slow growth, stagnant wages, growing inequality, and a host of other economic problems have contributed to today’s economic pessimism. In her first major economic speech as a presidential candidate, Hillary Clinton offered a coherent explanation for America’s economic dysfunction. Expanding on the theme of “short-termism,” or quarterly capitalism, Clinton said, “Large public companies now return eight or nine out of every $10 they earn directly back to shareholders, either in the form of dividends or stock buybacks, which can temporarily boost share prices. Last year the total reached a record $900 billion. That doesn’t leave much money to build a new factory or a research lab or to train workers or to give them a raise.” With these words, Clinton not only opened up an important debate but also put on the political agenda a set of issues that have been developing for some years among academics, business schools, and forward-looking business executives. What has been missing is the link between the incentives for short-term behavior and their consequences for the economy as a whole.   In this essay we review the evidence and offer responses that could, we believe, make a difference. Let’s start with leaders from the business world. When the head of the world’s largest investment fund publicly questions the conduct of America’s leading corporations, we can be pretty sure that there’s a problem.

  That’s what BlackRock Chairman Laurence Fink did last year in a letter to the Fortune 500 CEOs criticizing the short-term orientation that dominates today’s corporate behavior. “It concerns us,” he declared, that “in the wake of the financial crisis, many companies have shied away from investing in the future growth of their companies. Too many companies have cut capital expenditure and even increased debt to boost dividends and increase share buybacks.” And he concluded, “[W]hen done for the wrong reasons and at the expense of capital investment, [returning cash to shareholders] can jeopardize a company’s ability to generate sustainable long-term returns.”   This is bad for the economy in two ways. As the growth of the U.S. workforce slows dramatically, economic growth will depend increasingly on improved productivity, most of which comes from raising capital investment per worker. Failing to make productivity-enhancing capital investments will doom our economy to a new normal of slow growth.   Many business leaders say that they are reluctant to make long-term investments without reasonable expectations of growing demand for their products. That brings us to the second way in which corporate short-termism is bad for the economy. Most consumer demand comes from wages. If employers refuse to share gains with their employees, growth in demand is bound to be anemic.   Although he clearly cares about his country, Fink is also acting as the steward of $4.8 trillion in investments. In an article published by McKinsey earlier this year, he warned that although the return of cash to shareholders is juicing equity markets right now, investors “will pay for it later when the ability to generate revenue in the long term dries up because of the lack of investment in the future.”   This strategy represents more than individual greed or the pervasive influence of bad ideas. Because current incentives are so perverse, Fink argues, “It’s hard for even the most dedicated CEO to buck this trend.” The constant pressure to produce quarterly results forces executives to go along—or risk losing their jobs. That pressure comes from investors who are, in Fink’s words, “renters, not owners, who are going to trade your stock as soon as they can pocket a quick gain.”   The tone of the passage can be identified as: A) carping and vituperative

B) analytical and objective

C) analytical and subjective

D) descriptive and conjectural

Explanation:-   In the given case, the author adopts an analytical approach and this is highlighted by the nature of analysis carried out in the passage. He also expresses his own view points on the situation and this makes his tone subjective as well. DIRECTIONS for question  The question consists of different statements  one of which does not fit into the paragraph. Identify that sentence which is a misfit and choose that option as your answer. Question No. : 34 A. Effective advertising must be built on an understanding of consumer but how do we understand such a fickle creature, who defies any neat categorization? B. But understanding the consumer has been a nightmare, to say the least for she has so many facets that are hardly amenable to a one-size-suits- all type of generalization. C. Of course, this is not to say that we know next to nothing about consumer behaviour but whatever little we know is so fluid and tentative that to base marketing decision and strategies on these insights would be risky, if not downright dangerous or stupid. D. Consumer behaviour is very closely associated with one’s socio-economic class, age, marital status, peer group and many other variables which deeply affect what she will tend to buy at a given point in time.   A) Statement A

B) Statement B

C) Statement C

D) Statement D

Explanation:-   While lines A, B and C speak of our inability to understand the consumer, line D talks about  , in general,  what affects consumer behavior. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 35 In a parking lot, there are seven vehicles parked in a row. Each of the vehicles is a car or a scooter or a bike. Each of the vehicles is owned by exactly one person among Ankita, Nitika and Ritika. Each person owns at least one vehicle. There is at least one vehicle of each type. No two of them own the same number of vehicles. For any two types of vehicles, the total number is different. All the vehicles of a particular type (if more than 1) is not owned by the same person and no one owned more than two vehicles of any one type. The names of the seven vehicles are - Kawasaki, Yamaha, Zen, Bajaj, Alto, Ritz and Priya. All the vehicles of a particular type are not parked together. No two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other. Each of Ankita's vehicles is to the immediate left of a scooter. Yamaha is owned by Nitika and is parked at one end of the row. Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj and these two are owned by the same person. Neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is at any end of the row. Ritz, a bike, is adjacent to a scooter and a car and each of these three is owned by a different person. Zen is to the right of Alto which is owned by Ritika. Priya is to the left of Ritz. Ritika owns a scooter. How many scooters are there? (in numerical value) A) 4

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-   There are seven vehicles of three types and three owners. No two types of vehicles are same in number and no two among the owners have the same number of vehicles. Hence the number of vehicles of each type is 4, 2 and 1 and the number of vehicles with each of them is 4, 2 and 1 in any order. As, no two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other, the vehicles of the person who own four vehicles will be at the first, third, fifth and seventh positions. As, the vehicle owned by Nitika is at one end, Nitika owned four vehicles. Now, as Ritz, the bike is adjacent to a scooter and a car and as these three are owned by different persons, the vehicle at the middle, i.e., Ritz must be one of the vehicles owned by Nitika, as his vehicles occupy alternate positions. So, Ritz must be the third or the fifth vehicle from the left end. As Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj, and neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is parked at any of the ends of the row, these two vehicles are not owned by Nitika. ∴ These two vehicles are parked at 2nd and 4th or 4th and 6th positions respectively. Again, it is given that Alto is owned by Ritika. Hence, the vehicles owned by Nitika are - Priya, Ritz, Zen and Yamaha. As Kawasaki and Bajaj are owned by the same person, that person must be Ankita, we know Ritika is the owner of Alto. As each of Ankita's vehicles i.e., Bajaj and Kawasaki is to the immediate left of a scooter, Ritz must be parked at the third position and Kawasaki and Bajaj are parked at 6th and 4th positions respectively from the left. As Priya is to the left of Ritz, Priya must be parked at the first position from the left. ∴Yamaha and Zen are parked at the 7th and 5th positions respectively from the left.∴ The vehicles parked at the 5th and 7th positions from the left must be scooters. So, Zen and Yamaha are scooters. Also, Alto, owned by Ritika must be parked at the second from the left. ⇒ Bajaj must be a car, since Ritz is adjacent a scooter and a car. ∴ There are more than two scooters, which implies there are four scooters. As, no person owns a particular type of vehicle more than two, the other scooter must be owned by Ankita. Priya cannot be a bike, in that case, both the bikes owned by Nitika, which is not possible. Hence, Priya is a car. The final arrangement is as follows. Priya

Alto

Car

Scooter Bike

Nitika Ritika

Ritz

Bajaj

Zen

Car

Scooter Scooter

Nitika Ankita Nitika

Kawasaki Yamaha Ankita

Scooter Nitika

  There are four scooters.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 36 In a parking lot, there are seven vehicles parked in a row. Each of the vehicles is a car or a scooter or a bike. Each of the vehicles is owned by exactly one person among Ankita, Nitika and Ritika. Each person owns at least one vehicle. There is at least one vehicle of each type. No two of them own the same number of vehicles. For any two types of vehicles, the total number is different. All the vehicles of a particular type (if more than 1) is not owned by the same person and no one owned more than two vehicles of any

one type. The names of the seven vehicles are - Kawasaki, Yamaha, Zen, Bajaj, Alto, Ritz and Priya. All the vehicles of a particular type are not parked together. No two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other. Each of Ankita's vehicles is to the immediate left of a scooter. Yamaha is owned by Nitika and is parked at one end of the row. Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj and these two are owned by the same person. Neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is at any end of the row. Ritz, a bike, is adjacent to a scooter and a car and each of these three is owned by a different person. Zen is to the right of Alto which is owned by Ritika. Priya is to the left of Ritz. Ritika owns a scooter. Which of the following gives the complete list of the cars? A) Priya and Yamaha

B) Bajaj, Ritz, Yamaha and Kawasaki

C) Alto, Priya and Zen

D) Priya and Bajaj

Explanation:-   There are seven vehicles of three types and three owners. No two types of vehicles are same in number and no two among the owners have the same number of vehicles. Hence the number of vehicles of each type is 4, 2 and 1 and the number of vehicles with each of them is 4, 2 and 1 in any order. As, no two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other, the vehicles of the person who own four vehicles will be at the first, third, fifth and seventh positions. As, the vehicle owned by Nitika is at one end, Nitika owned four vehicles. Now, as Ritz, the bike is adjacent to a scooter and a car and as these three are owned by different persons, the vehicle at the middle, i.e., Ritz must be one of the vehicles owned by Nitika, as his vehicles occupy alternate positions. So, Ritz must be the third or the fifth vehicle from the left end. As Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj, and neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is parked at any of the ends of the row, these two vehicles are not owned by Nitika. ∴ These two vehicles are parked at 2nd and 4th or 4th and 6th positions respectively. Again, it is given that Alto is owned by Ritika. Hence, the vehicles owned by Nitika are - Priya, Ritz, Zen and Yamaha. As Kawasaki and Bajaj are owned by the same person, that person must be Ankita, we know Ritika is the owner of Alto. As each of Ankita's vehicles i.e., Bajaj and Kawasaki is to the immediate left of a scooter, Ritz must be parked at the third position and Kawasaki and Bajaj are parked at 6th and 4th positions respectively from the left. As Priya is to the left of Ritz, Priya must be parked at the first position from the left.

∴Yamaha and Zen are parked at the 7th and 5th positions respectively from the left.∴ The vehicles parked at the 5th and 7th positions from the left must be scooters. So, Zen and Yamaha are scooters. Also, Alto, owned by Ritika must be parked at the second from the left. ⇒ Bajaj must be a car, since Ritz is adjacent a scooter and a car. ∴ There are more than two scooters, which implies there are four scooters. As, no person owns a particular type of vehicle more than two, the other scooter must be owned by Ankita. Priya cannot be a bike, in that case, both the bikes owned by Nitika, which is not possible. Hence, Priya is a car. The final arrangement is as follows. Priya

Alto

Car

Scooter Bike

Nitika Ritika

Ritz

Bajaj

Zen

Car

Scooter Scooter

Nitika Ankita Nitika

Kawasaki Yamaha Ankita

Scooter Nitika

  Priya and Bajaj are the Cars. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 37 In a parking lot, there are seven vehicles parked in a row. Each of the vehicles is a car or a scooter or a bike. Each of the vehicles is owned by exactly one person among Ankita, Nitika and Ritika. Each person owns at least one vehicle. There is at least one vehicle of each type. No two of them own the same number of vehicles. For any two types of vehicles, the total number is different. All the vehicles of a particular type (if more than 1) is not owned by the same person and no one owned more than two vehicles of any one type. The names of the seven vehicles are - Kawasaki, Yamaha, Zen, Bajaj, Alto, Ritz and Priya. All the vehicles of a particular type are not parked together. No two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other. Each of Ankita's vehicles is to the immediate left of a scooter. Yamaha is owned by Nitika and is parked at one end of the row. Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj and these two are owned by the same person. Neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is at any end of the row. Ritz, a bike, is adjacent to a scooter and a car and each of these three is owned by a different person. Zen is to the right of Alto which is owned by Ritika. Priya is to the left of Ritz. Ritika owns a scooter.

Which of the following gives the correct combination of the vehicle, type of vehicle and the owner? A) Priya - Scooter - Nitika

B) Bajaj - Scooter – Nitika

C) Zen - Scooter - Nitika

D) Ritz - Bike – Ankita

Explanation:-   There are seven vehicles of three types and three owners. No two types of vehicles are same in number and no two among the owners have the same number of vehicles. Hence the number of vehicles of each type is 4, 2 and 1 and the number of vehicles with each of them is 4, 2 and 1 in any order. As, no two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other, the vehicles of the person who own four vehicles will be at the first, third, fifth and seventh positions. As, the vehicle owned by Nitika is at one end, Nitika owned four vehicles. Now, as Ritz, the bike is adjacent to a scooter and a car and as these three are owned by different persons, the vehicle at the middle, i.e., Ritz must be one of the vehicles owned by Nitika, as his vehicles occupy alternate positions. So, Ritz must be the third or the fifth vehicle from the left end. As Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj, and neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is parked at any of the ends of the row, these two vehicles are not owned by Nitika. ∴ These two vehicles are parked at 2nd and 4th or 4th and 6th positions respectively. Again, it is given that Alto is owned by Ritika. Hence, the vehicles owned by Nitika are - Priya, Ritz, Zen and Yamaha. As Kawasaki and Bajaj are owned by the same person, that person must be Ankita, we know Ritika is the owner of Alto. As each of Ankita's vehicles i.e., Bajaj and Kawasaki is to the immediate left of a scooter, Ritz must be parked at the third position and Kawasaki and Bajaj are parked at 6th and 4th positions respectively from the left. As Priya is to the left of Ritz, Priya must be parked at the first position from the left.

∴Yamaha and Zen are parked at the 7th and 5th positions respectively from the left.∴ The vehicles parked at the 5th and 7th positions from the left must be scooters. So, Zen and Yamaha are scooters. Also, Alto, owned by Ritika must be parked at the second from the left. ⇒ Bajaj must be a car, since Ritz is adjacent a scooter and a car. ∴ There are more than two scooters, which implies there are four scooters. As, no person owns a particular type of vehicle more than two, the other scooter must be owned by Ankita. Priya cannot be a bike, in that case, both the bikes owned by Nitika, which is not possible. Hence, Priya is a car. The final arrangement is as follows. Priya

Alto

Car

Scooter Bike

Nitika Ritika

Ritz

Bajaj

Zen

Kawasaki Yamaha

Car

Scooter Scooter

Nitika Ankita Nitika

Ankita

Scooter Nitika

  Zen – Scooter – Nitika is the correct combination. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 38 In a parking lot, there are seven vehicles parked in a row. Each of the vehicles is a car or a scooter or a bike. Each of the vehicles is owned by exactly one person among Ankita, Nitika and Ritika. Each person owns at least one vehicle. There is at least one vehicle of each type. No two of them own the same number of vehicles. For any two types of vehicles, the total number is different. All the vehicles of a particular type (if more than 1) is not owned by the same person and no one owned more than two vehicles of any one type. The names of the seven vehicles are - Kawasaki, Yamaha, Zen, Bajaj, Alto, Ritz and Priya. All the vehicles of a particular type are not parked together. No two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other. Each of Ankita's vehicles is to the immediate left of a scooter. Yamaha is owned by Nitika and is parked at one end of the row. Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj and these two are owned by the same person. Neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is at any end of the row. Ritz, a bike, is adjacent to a scooter and a car and each of these three is owned by a different person. Zen is to the right of Alto which is owned by Ritika. Priya is to the left of Ritz. Ritika owns a scooter. Which of the following gives the complete list of the vehicles owned by Nitika? A) Yamaha, Kawasaki, Priya and Bajaj

B) Yamaha, Ritz, Kawasaki and Zen

C) Yamaha and Ritz

D) None of these

Explanation:-   There are seven vehicles of three types and three owners. No two types of vehicles are same in number and no two among the owners have the same number of vehicles. Hence the number of vehicles of each type is 4, 2 and 1 and the number of vehicles

with each of them is 4, 2 and 1 in any order. As, no two vehicles owned by the same person are adjacent to each other, the vehicles of the person who own four vehicles will be at the first, third, fifth and seventh positions. As, the vehicle owned by Nitika is at one end, Nitika owned four vehicles. Now, as Ritz, the bike is adjacent to a scooter and a car and as these three are owned by different persons, the vehicle at the middle, i.e., Ritz must be one of the vehicles owned by Nitika, as his vehicles occupy alternate positions. So, Ritz must be the third or the fifth vehicle from the left end. As Kawasaki is two places away to the right of Bajaj, and neither Kawasaki nor Bajaj is parked at any of the ends of the row, these two vehicles are not owned by Nitika. ∴ These two vehicles are parked at 2nd and 4th or 4th and 6th positions respectively. Again, it is given that Alto is owned by Ritika. Hence, the vehicles owned by Nitika are - Priya, Ritz, Zen and Yamaha. As Kawasaki and Bajaj are owned by the same person, that person must be Ankita, we know Ritika is the owner of Alto. As each of Ankita's vehicles i.e., Bajaj and Kawasaki is to the immediate left of a scooter, Ritz must be parked at the third position and Kawasaki and Bajaj are parked at 6th and 4th positions respectively from the left. As Priya is to the left of Ritz, Priya must be parked at the first position from the left.

∴Yamaha and Zen are parked at the 7th and 5th positions respectively from the left.∴ The vehicles parked at the 5th and 7th positions from the left must be scooters. So, Zen and Yamaha are scooters. Also, Alto, owned by Ritika must be parked at the second from the left. ⇒ Bajaj must be a car, since Ritz is adjacent a scooter and a car. ∴ There are more than two scooters, which implies there are four scooters. As, no person owns a particular type of vehicle more than two, the other scooter must be owned by Ankita. Priya cannot be a bike, in that case, both the bikes owned by Nitika, which is not possible. Hence, Priya is a car. The final arrangement is as follows. Priya

Alto

Car

Scooter Bike

Nitika Ritika

Ritz

Bajaj

Zen

Kawasaki Yamaha

Car

Scooter Scooter

Nitika Ankita Nitika

Ankita

Scooter Nitika

  The complete list is – Priya, Ritz, Zen and Yamaha. DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 39 Refer to the following information about flights operated by different airline companies and answer the questions given below.   The table below provides information about flights operated by three different airlines over different sectors and the cost per passenger for different sectors. Every flight departing from the originating city leaves its destination for the return journey 4 hours after it departed from the originating city. The fare for the return journey is the same as that for the onward journey. Each of the airlines has the same amount of free luggage allowance and charges the same rate per kilo for any excess luggage. Luggage is charged only from the originating city to the destination, irrespective of the number of linked flights. On a flight from Mumbai to Bangalore, Aman and Girish carried a total of 100 kg and were charged Rs.150 and Rs.350 respectively. Had Aman alone carried the entire 100 kg, he would have been charged Rs. 750.   Airlines

Originating Destination City City

Cost

UWA

Pune

Mumbai

Rs. 2000

UWA

Pune

Bangalore

Rs. 3000

UWA

Mumbai

Delhi

Rs. 2500

CA

Mumbai

Delhi

Rs. 2800

CA

Mumbai

Bangalore

Rs. 4500

CA

Delhi

Kolkata

Rs. 3500

GIA

Kolkata

Mumbai

Rs. 5000

GIA

Kolkata

Bangalore

Rs.10000

GIA

Delhi

Bangalore

Rs. 8000

  Which of the following does not represent the total cost for a group of 10 people, each carrying 35 kg, travelling from Pune to Kolkata, if they do not travel through more than 2 other cities? A) Rs. 166,000

B) Rs. 140,000

C) Rs. 71,000

D) Rs. 84,000

Explanation:-   Each of the 10 passengers is carrying 10 kg of excess luggage. The charge for this excess luggage will be 10 × 10 × 10 = Rs. 1000. This charge is constant irrespective of the route chosen by the group. Since the passengers travel from Pune to Kolkata, going through at most 2 other cities, the possible routes they can take are P - M - D - K, P - M - K, P - B - K or P - M - B - K. For each of these routes, the cost is made up of air fare plus luggage cost. The total cost for route P - M - D - K is 10 × (2000 + 2500 + 3500) + 1000 = Rs. 81,000 or 10 × (2000 + 2800 + 3500) + 1000 = Rs. 84,000. The total cost for route P - M - K is 10 × (2000 + 5000) + 1000 = Rs. 71,000. The total cost for route P - B - K is 10 × (3000 + 10000) + 1000 = Rs. 131,000. The total cost for route P - M - B - K is 10 × (2000 + 4500 + 10000) + 1000 = Rs. 166,000. So 140,000 is not possible. DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 40 Refer to the following information about flights operated by different airline companies and answer the questions given below.   The table below provides information about flights operated by three different airlines over different sectors and the cost per passenger for different sectors. Every flight departing from the originating city leaves its destination for the return journey 4 hours after it departed from the originating city. The fare for the return journey is the same as that for the onward journey. Each of the airlines has the same amount of free luggage allowance and charges the same rate per kilo for any excess luggage. Luggage is charged only from the originating city to the destination, irrespective of the number of linked flights. On a flight from Mumbai to Bangalore, Aman and Girish carried a total of 100 kg and were charged Rs. 150 and Rs. 350 respectively. Had Aman alone carried the entire 100 kg, he would have been charged Rs.750.   Airlines

Originating Destination City City

Cost

UWA

Pune

Mumbai

Rs. 2000

UWA

Pune

Bangalore

Rs. 3000

UWA

Mumbai

Delhi

Rs. 2500

CA

Mumbai

Delhi

Rs. 2800

CA

Mumbai

Bangalore

Rs. 4500

CA

Delhi

Kolkata

Rs. 3500

GIA

Kolkata

Mumbai

Rs. 5000

GIA

Kolkata

Bangalore

Rs.10000

GIA

Delhi

Bangalore

Rs. 8000

  A group of 20 passengers, each carrying luggage of 25 kg, is planning a trip from Mumbai to Bangalore. What is the maximum amount of savings for the group if they take a direct flight from Mumbai to Bangalore instead of flying from Mumbai to Bangalore via one other city? A) Rs. 235,000

B) Rs. 230,000

C) Rs. 126,000

D) Rs. 210,000

Explanation:-   None of the passengers will be charged for 25 kg luggage.

The cost of a direct flight from Mumbai to Bangalore is 20 ×4500 = Rs. 90,000. The cost for flying the route M - P - B is 20 × (2000 + 3000) = Rs. 100,000. The cost for flying the route M - D - B is 20 × (2500 + 8000) = Rs. 210,000 or 20 × (2800 + 8000) = Rs. 216,000. The cost for flying the route M - K – B is 20 × (5000 + 10000) = Rs. 300,000. Thus the maximum savings is 300,000 – 90,000 = Rs. 210,000. Hence the answer is option D

DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 41 Refer to the following information about flights operated by different airline companies and answer the questions given below.   The table below provides information about flights operated by three different airlines over different sectors and the cost per passenger for different sectors. Every flight departing from the originating city leaves its destination for the return journey 4 hours after it departed from the originating city. The fare for the return journey is the same as that for the onward journey. Each of the airlines has the same amount of free luggage allowance and charges the same rate per kilo for any excess luggage. Luggage is charged only from the originating city to the destination, irrespective of the number of linked flights. On a flight from Mumbai to Bangalore, Aman and Girish carried a total of 100 kg and were charged Rs. 150 and Rs. 350 respectively. Had Aman alone carried the entire 100 kg, he would have been charged Rs.750.   Airlines

Originating Destination City City

Cost

UWA

Pune

Mumbai

Rs. 2000

UWA

Pune

Bangalore

Rs. 3000

UWA

Mumbai

Delhi

Rs. 2500

CA

Mumbai

Delhi

Rs. 2800

CA

Mumbai

Bangalore

Rs. 4500

CA

Delhi

Kolkata

Rs. 3500

GIA

Kolkata

Mumbai

Rs. 5000

GIA

Kolkata

Bangalore

Rs.10000

GIA

Delhi

Bangalore

Rs. 8000

Avinash, a tour operator, charges passengers 5% of their total cost (air fare as well as luggage) as insurance fees. What is the difference between the maximum and minimum insurance fees paid by a group of 25 passengers travelling from Kolkata to Bangalore, each carrying 50 kg luggage and travelling through at most one other city? A) Rs 1875

B) Rs 2500

C) Rs 1625

D) Rs 2250

Explanation:-   Each passenger has 25 kg of excess luggage and has to pay Rs. 250. The insurance fees for a passenger travelling the route K - B is 5% of (250 + 10000) = 5% of 10,250 = Rs. 512.50. The insurance fees for a passenger travelling the route K - D - B is 5% of (250 + 3500 + 8000) = 5% of 11,750 = Rs. 587.50. The insurance fees for a passenger travelling the route K - M - B is 5% of (250 + 5000 + 4500) = 5% of 9,750 = Rs. 487.50. So the difference between the maximum and minimum insurance fees per passenger is 587.50 – 487.50 = Rs. 100. Thus the difference for 25 passengers will be 25 x 100 = Rs. 2,500. Hence the answer is option B DIRECTIONS for the question: The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer. Question No. : 42 M is a 5-digit positive integer formed by using all the different even digits. If N is a positive integer, is M = 2N?

  I. N is a 5-digit positive integer formed by using all the different odd digits. II. The unit’s digit of N is 5.   A) If the question can be answered by using information contained in any one statement alone, but not by the information contained in the other statement alone B) If the question can be answered by using the information contained in either statement alone C) If the question can be answered by using the information contained in both statements together; and D) If the question cannot be answered even by using the information contained in both statements together Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option B DIRECTIONS for the question: The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer. Question No. : 43 A man completed a certain journey on foot. How many miles did the man walk?   I. If the man had walked a mile per hour faster, he would have completed the journey in an hour less. II. If the man had walked a mile per hour slower, he would have completed the journey in an hour and a half more.   A) If the question can be answered by using information contained in any one statement alone, contained in the other but not by the information statement alone. B) If the question can be answered by using the information contained in either statement alone. C) If the question can be answered by using the information contained in both statements together. D) If the question cannot be answered even by using the information contained in both statements together. Explanation:-   Suppose the man walked a distance of D at a speed of S in time T, i.e., S = D/T.From statement I, (T – 1) = D/(S + 1). Since we have only two equations and three variables, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. From statement II, (T + 1.5) = D/(S - 1). Since we have only two equations and three variables, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If we combine both statements, we have three equations in three variables and we can solve these to get the required answer. Thus both statements together are required to answer the question.   Hence the answer is option C   DIRECTIONS for the question: The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer. Question No. : 44 Is the average of three consecutive integers a whole number?  

I. At least one of the three integers is non-negative. II. The average of the integers taken two at a time is always negative.   A)If the question can be answered by using information contained in any one statement alone, but not by the information   contained in the other statement alone. B) If the question can be answered by using the information contained in either statement alone C) If the question can be answered by using the information contained in both statements together. D) If the question cannot be answered even by using the information contained in both statements together. Explanation:-   From statement I, the integers can be -2, -1, 0 or -1, 0, 1 or 0, 1, 2 or any three consecutive natural numbers.  In case when the numbers are -2, -1 and 0 the average is -1 not a whole number; otherwise, the average will be a whole number. So statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. From statement II, since the average of the integers taken two at a time is always negative, none of the three integers can be positive. So the average of the three integers can never be a whole number. Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Hence the answer is option A  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 45 Four friends, Arun, Bipin, Chirag and Dinesh each have Rs. 48,600 with them. Arun keeps half of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Then, Bipin keeps a third of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Chirag then keeps a fourth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Finally, Dinesh keeps a fifth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends.   For how many of the friends is the absolute difference between the amount of money he had in the beginning and the amount of money after the distribution more than 10%? (in numerical value) A) 4

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-   Dist. By A B C D

A

B

C

D

48600

48600

48600

48600

–24300

+8100

+8100

+8100

24300

56700

56700

56700

+12600 –37800 +12600 +12600 36900

18900

69300

69300

+17325 +17325 –51975 +17325 54225

36225

17325

86625

+23100 +23100 +23100 –69300 77325

59325

40425

17325

  Since the absolute difference is more that 10% of the beginning amount, the four friend should end up with either more than Rs. 53,460 or less than Rs. 43,740. From the above analysis, we see that this is true for all 4 friends. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 46 Four friends, Arun, Bipin, Chirag and Dinesh each have Rs. 48,600 with them. Arun keeps half of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Then, Bipin keeps a third of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Chirag then keeps a fourth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Finally, Dinesh keeps a fifth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends.   After Chirag has distributed his money, what is the ratio of the amounts with Arun, Bipin, Chirag and Dinesh respectively? A) 2169 : 1449 : 693 : 346

B) 216 : 1449 : 693 : 365

C) 2410 : 161 : 770 : 3085

D) 241 : 161 : 77 : 385

Explanation:-   Dist. By A B C D

A

B

C

D

48600

48600

48600

48600

–24300

+8100

+8100

+8100

24300

56700

56700

56700

+12600 –37800 +12600 +12600 36900

18900

69300

69300

+17325 +17325 –51975 +17325 54225

36225

17325

86625

+23100 +23100 +23100 –69300 77325

59325

40425

17325

    After C has finished distributing the money, the amounts with A, B, C and D are Rs. 54,225, Rs. 36,225, Rs. 17,325 and Rs. 86,625 respectively. The required ratio is 2169 : 1449 : 693 : 3465 = 241 : 161 : 77 : 385. Hence the answer is option D DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 47 Four friends, Arun, Bipin, Chirag and Dinesh each have Rs. 48,600 with them. Arun keeps half of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Then, Bipin keeps a third of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Chirag then keeps a fourth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Finally, Dinesh keeps a fifth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends.   After all four friends have distributed their money, what is the difference between the sums of money with Arun and Bipin? A) Rs. 36,900

B) Rs. 69,300

C) Rs. 32,400

D) Rs. 18,000

Explanation:-   Dist. By A B C

A

B

C

D

48600

48600

48600

48600

–24300

+8100

+8100

+8100

24300

56700

56700

56700

+12600 –37800 +12600 +12600 36900

18900

69300

69300

+17325 +17325 –51975 +17325 54225

36225

17325

86625

D

+23100 +23100 +23100 –69300 77325

59325

40425

17325

    The required difference is 77325 – 59325 = 18,000. Hence the answer is option D  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 48 Four friends, Arun, Bipin, Chirag and Dinesh each have Rs. 48,600 with them. Arun keeps half of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Then, Bipin keeps a third of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Chirag then keeps a fourth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends. Finally, Dinesh keeps a fifth of the money he has for himself and distributes the remaining equally among the other three friends.   At the end of any round, what is the maximum number of friends who each have more than twice the amount of money with at least one other friend? (in numerical value) A) 3

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-   Dist. By A B C D

A

B

C

D

48600

48600

48600

48600

–24300

+8100

+8100

+8100

24300

56700

56700

56700

+12600 –37800 +12600 +12600 36900

18900

69300

69300

+17325 +17325 –51975 +17325 54225

36225

17325

86625

+23100 +23100 +23100 –69300 77325

59325

40425

17325

  After A has distributed his money, he is left with Rs. 24,300 while B, C and D are left with Rs. 56,700 each, which is more than twice of Rs. 24,300.Thus the maximum number of friends will be 3. DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 49

In which of the given years was the market supply of Stainless Steel and Cast Iron, in million tonnes, the highest?   A) 2000

B) 2001

C) 2001 & 2002

D) 2000 & 2001

Explanation:-  

hence the answer is option A DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 50

  From 2001 to 2002, the supply of Stainless Steel increased by approximately A) 2 %

B) 3 %

C) 4 %

D) None of these

Explanation:-  

Now as there is a decrease the answer will be none of these. DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 51

  In 2000, 29% of the supply of Stainless Steel and 31% of the supply of Cast Iron was from Imports. Approximately what percent of the total supply of Stainless Steel and Cast Iron was constituted of imports? A) 25%

B) 28%

C) 30%

D) 31.5%

Explanation:-  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 52

In which quarter, as compared to the previous one, did the total supply of Stainless Steel and Cast Iron, in million tonnes, fall the most? A) Q1, 2001

B) Q3, 2000

C) Q3, 2001

D) Q3, 2002

Explanation:-  

Hence the answer is option C DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 53 Six teams – Brazil, Argentina, Germany, France, Italy and Portugal – participated in the ‘Super Six’, Football Tournament held in Brazil. The tournament comprised five rounds, such that every team played exactly one match in every round and by the end of the five rounds, every team played exactly one match with every other team. For every win, a team got 5 points. If the team won by a margin of 2 or more goals, it got another bonus point. For a draw, the team got 2 points and for a loss, it did not get any points. However, if a team lost by a margin of 2 or more goals, a point was deducted.   The following table gives the tally of the goals scored, goals conceded and the points earned by the teams after the first two rounds of the tournament.  

  Team

Goals Scored Goals Conceded Total Points earned

Brazil

3

4

5

Argentina

6

2

11

Germany

3

5

0

France

2

3

2

Italy

2

1

7

Portugal

4

5

4

  It is also known that the hosts, Brazil, lost their first round match. However, they scored at least one goal in every match that they played. Which of the following statements is/are true of the two matches played by Brazil?   I. It won a match and lost a match without gaining or conceding bonus points in either match. II. It won a match by gaining a bonus point and lost a match by conceding a bonus point. III. It lost its first round match to Argentina by 1 goal to 4 goals.   A) Only I and II

B) Only I

C) Only II and III

D) Only III

Explanation:-   From the tally of the total points given in the table. The possible outcomes of the matches of each of the teams are tabulated, below   Team

Total points Possible outcomes (WB) + (LB)

Brazil

5

Argentina

11

(WB) + (W)

Germany

0

(L) + (L)

France

2

(D) + (L)

Italy

7

(W) + (D)

14

(W) + (LB)

 

(D) + (D)

Portugal

(W) + (L)

    (W)      →        Won (5 points) (WB)    →        Won gaining bonus points (6 points) (L)       →        Lost (0 points) (LB)     →        Lost earning negative points (-1 point) (D)       →        Draw (2 points)   Now, the result of Brazil’s matches could have been one win (W) + one loss (L) OR one win with a bonus point (WB) + one loss by giving the opponent bonus points (LB) if it is (W) + (L), then the goals scored by Brazil must be same as that it conceded (because then the win and loss should have been by exactly one goal each). But in the table the goals scored by Brazil are less than the goals it conceded. Hence the result of Brazil matches is (WB) + (LB). And the margin with which it lost one game must be one more than the margin with which it won the other game. Now, referring to the table above the only possibility is that Brazil should have played its first round match against Argentina. The margin with which Brazil won one game can be 2 or 3 and the margin with which Brazil lost the other game can be 3 or 4 respectively. Difference in the number of goals scored by Brazil compared to that scored by the opponent (margins) can be  

-3

2

or

-4

+3

  As there are no bonus points in one of the matches, Argentina won that match with a margin of only one goal and it should have won the other match with a margin of 3 goals. Margins of Argentina must be   +3 +1   Hence Brazil lost its first round match to Argentina by 1 – 4. Hence, we can see that only statements II and III are true. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 54 Six teams – Brazil, Argentina, Germany, France, Italy and Portugal – participated in the ‘Super Six’, Football Tournament held in Brazil. The tournament comprised five rounds, such that every team played exactly one match in every round and by the end of the five rounds, every team played exactly one match with every other team. For every win, a team got 5 points. If the team won by a margin of 2 or more goals, it got another bonus point. For a draw, the team got 2 points and for a loss, it did not get any points. However, if a team lost by a margin of 2 or more goals, a point was deducted.   The following table gives the tally of the goals scored, goals conceded and the points earned by the teams after the first two rounds of the tournament.     Team

Goals Scored Goals Conceded Total Points earned

Brazil

3

4

5

Argentina

6

2

11

Germany

3

5

0

France

2

3

2

Italy

2

1

7

Portugal

4

5

4

  It is also known that the hosts, Brazil, lost their first round match. However, they scored at least one goal in every match that they played. Which of the following statements is/are true?   I. Portugal lost its second round match to Brazil by conceding a bonus point. II. Portugal, in its first round match, played against neither France nor Italy but scored 4 goals. III. Argentina played against France in its second round match.   A) Only II

B) Only II and III

C) Only I and II

D) All the three statements

Explanation:-   Germany lost both the matches but it did not give any bonus points to the opponents. Hence, the margins with which it lost games are -1 -1 France scored two points in both the matches together. Hence, the only possibility is 1 loss + 1 draw The margins of the drawn match will be zero. ∴the margin of the match that it lost is -1. 0 -1   Italy scored 7 points, the only possibility is (1 draw + 1 win). The margin for a draw will be zero and the margin for a win is one. +1 0

Portugal scored 4 points, the possibilities are 2 draws (or) 1 win +1 loss by giving bonus points to the opponent. If it is two draws, the number of goals scored by Portugal must be equal to the number of goals it conceded. But in the given data the number of goals scored is one less than that conceded. Hence, the only possibility is 1W + 1 LB The possible margins are +1

-2

     

   

  Now if we tabulate the possible margins of each team, Brazil

+2 and -3

Argentina +3 and +1 Germany

-1 and -1

France

-1 and 0

Italy

+1 and 0

Portugal

+1 and -2

  As already concluded from the above table, Argentina won over Brazil 1 – 4. ∴ Brazil won the other match against Portugal with a margin of +2 goals i.e. it won with the score 2 – 0. Portugal scored 4 – 3 in the other match played by it. But it cannot be against France or Italy. ∴ As none of the teams has conceded goals in two matches together also. Hence, Portugal won 4 – 3 against Germany. Germany lost the other game 0 – 1. That cannot be against Argentina as Argentina won the other game with 2 -1. ∴ Germany must play against Italy. Italy has a draw in the other match with a score 1 – 1. The following table will be obtained if all the results are tabulated.   I round Teams

Score

Argentina – Brazil

4–1

Portugal – Germany 4 – 3 France – Italy

1-1

  II round Teams

Score

Brazil – Portugal

2–0

Argentina – France 2 – 1 Italy – Germany

1-0

Hence we can see that all the three statements are true.  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 55 Six teams – Brazil, Argentina, Germany, France, Italy and Portugal – participated in the ‘Super Six’, Football Tournament held in Brazil. The tournament comprised five rounds, such that every team played exactly one match in every round and by the end of the

five rounds, every team played exactly one match with every other team. For every win, a team got 5 points. If the team won by a margin of 2 or more goals, it got another bonus point. For a draw, the team got 2 points and for a loss, it did not get any points. However, if a team lost by a margin of 2 or more goals, a point was deducted.   The following table gives the tally of the goals scored, goals conceded and the points earned by the teams after the first two rounds of the tournament.     Team

Goals Scored Goals Conceded Total Points earned

Brazil

3

4

5

Argentina

6

2

11

Germany

3

5

0

France

2

3

2

Italy

2

1

7

Portugal

4

5

4

  It is also known that the hosts, Brazil, lost their first round match. However, they scored at least one goal in every match that they played. What is the number of goals scored by France in its first round match? (in numerical value) A) 1

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-   France scored only one goal in the first round match. DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 56 Six teams – Brazil, Argentina, Germany, France, Italy and Portugal – participated in the ‘Super Six’, Football Tournament held in Brazil. The tournament comprised five rounds, such that every team played exactly one match in every round and by the end of the five rounds, every team played exactly one match with every other team. For every win, a team got 5 points. If the team won by a margin of 2 or more goals, it got another bonus point. For a draw, the team got 2 points and for a loss, it did not get any points. However, if a team lost by a margin of 2 or more goals, a point was deducted.   The following table gives the tally of the goals scored, goals conceded and the points earned by the teams after the first two rounds of the tournament.     Team

Goals Scored Goals Conceded Total Points earned

Brazil

3

4

5

Argentina

6

2

11

Germany

3

5

0

France

2

3

2

Italy

2

1

7

Portugal

4

5

4

  It is also known that the hosts, Brazil, lost their first round match. However, they scored at least one goal in every match that they played. By the end of the first round, which of the following teams is in the last position in terms of the points scored? A) Germany

B) France

C) Portugal

D) Brazil

Explanation:-   After the first round, Brazil stood the last. DIRECTIONS for the question: The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer. Question No. : 57 All the students studying in DP2 at an IB school must study Math and Physics. A survey of all the students in DP2 at the school revealed that 2/3 of the students did not like Math, and 60% of those not liking Maths, did not like Physics either. How many of the students liked Physics but not Math?   I.  There are 120 students studying in DP2 at the IB school. II. 40 of the DP2 students at the IB school liked Math.   A) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone, but not with the help of statement II alone B) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone, but not with the help of statement I alone C) if the question can be answered with the help of either statement alone D) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements together Explanation:-   2/3 of the 120 students, i.e., 80 students did not like Math. So, 40 students liked Math. 60% of the 80 students who did not like math, i.e., 48 students did not like Physics either. In other words, 48 students did not like both Math and Physics. The number of students who liked only Physics (liked Physics but not Math) can be calculated as 120 – 40 – 48 = 32. So statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.   Statement II states that 40 of the students liked Math. Since this is information that is also contained in statement I, we can conclude that statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.   Thus either statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 58 16 contestants enrolled for a U-16 tennis tournament. The contestants are divided into two pools of 8 players each. In the first round, each player plays a match with every other player in her pool. The top four players from each pool advance to the next round, where the winner of a match advances to the next round while the loser is out of the tournament, and so on till one of the players wins the tournament. At each stage of the tournament, a match is made up of three sets, and the player who wins two sets out of three is declared the winner of the match. If a player wins two consecutive sets, she is declared the winner and the match is over. For each match, the winner is awarded 10 points and the loser gets 3 points. No set or match ends in a tie.   What is the total number of matches played? A) 15

B) 63

C) 35

D) 127

Explanation:-  

In the 1st round, each pool has 8 players.So, the number of matches played in each pool will be (7 × 8)/2 = 28.

Thus 56 matches will be played in the 1st round. The 2nd round will have 4 matches, the 3rd round will have 2 matches and the last round will have 1 match. Thus the total number of matches in the tournament is 56 + 7 = 63. Hence the answer is option B  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 59 16 contestants enrolled for a U-16 tennis tournament. The contestants are divided into two pools of 8 players each. In the first round, each player plays a match with every other player in her pool. The top four players from each pool advance to the next round, where the winner of a match advances to the next round while the loser is out of the tournament, and so on till one of the players wins the tournament. At each stage of the tournament, a match is made up of three sets, and the player who wins two sets out of three is declared the winner of the match. If a player wins two consecutive sets, she is declared the winner and the match is over. For each match, the winner is awarded 10 points and the loser gets 3 points. No set or match ends in a tie.   Shweta, who won the tournament, defeated each of her opponents from the second round onwards by winning two consecutive sets in each match. Which of the following cannot be the total number of sets played by Shweta in the tournament? A) 27

B) 22

C) 29

D) 25

Explanation:-  

In the 2nd, 3rd and 4th round, Shweta plays 1 match each. So the number of sets she plays from the 2nd round onwards is 2 × 3 = 6. In the 1st round, she plays 7 matches. She will have to play a minimum of 2 sets per match and a maximum of 3 sets per match. So she must play a minimum of 14 sets and a maximum of 21 sets in the 1st round. Thus the total number of sets ranges from 20 to 27. Hence the answer will be 29. Hence the answer is option C DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 60 16 contestants enrolled for a U-16 tennis tournament. The contestants are divided into two pools of 8 players each. In the first round, each player plays a match with every other player in her pool. The top four players from each pool advance to the next round, where the winner of a match advances to the next round while the loser is out of the tournament, and so on till one of the players wins the tournament. At each stage of the tournament, a match is made up of three sets, and the player who wins two sets out of three is declared the winner of the match. If a player wins two consecutive sets, she is declared the winner and the match is over. For each match, the winner is awarded 10 points and the loser gets 3 points. No set or match ends in a tie.   Sheetal was the Runner Up in the tournament. In two of her last three matches, she played three sets each. What is the difference between the maximum and minimum number of sets played by Sheetal? A) 10

B) 8

C) 12

D) 6

Explanation:-   Sheetal will play 7 matches in the 1st round and 1 match in each of the remaining 3 rounds. Of these 10 matches, we know that she plays 3 sets in 2 matches. In the remaining 8 matches, she can play a minimum of 16 sets and a maximum of 24 sets. So the minimum and maximum number of sets she plays is 22 and 30 respectively. Thus the required difference is 30 –22 = 8. Hence the answer is option B

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 61 All north- south streets are numbered consecutively, starting at the westernmost street as 1st street. All even numbered streets are one way, going towards north. All odd numbered streets are one way, going towards south. All east-west streets are named by consecutive letters of alphabets, starting at the northernmost street as M street. M street is a one-way street going east. N street is a two-way street. O street is a one-way street going west.

There are traffic signals at the intersection of 10th and O, of 11th and O and of 12th and N. Drivers always obey traffic laws. A driver who is travelling west on an east-west street could not be at the intersection of A) 10th and N

B) 11th and M

C) 11th and O

D) 10th and O

Explanation:-  

Since M is an east-bound street, the driver cannot be at the intersection of 11th and M. Hence the answer is option B DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows. Question No. : 62 All north- south streets are numbered consecutively, starting at the westernmost street as 1st street. All even numbered streets are one way, going towards north. All odd numbered streets are one way, going towards south. All east-west streets are named by consecutive letters of alphabets, starting at the northernmost street as M street. M street is a one-way street going east. N street is a two-way street. O street is a one-way street going west. There are traffic signals at the intersection of 10th and O, of 11th and O and of 12th and N. Drivers always obey traffic laws.

A driver travelling west on an east-west street may take a right turn on any of the following intersections except   A) 10th and N

B) 10th and O

C) 11th and O

D) 12th and N

Explanation:-  

Since the driver is travelling west, he could be on N or O. Since 11th street is south-bound, the driver cannot take a right turn at the intersection of 11th and O. Hence the answer is option C

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 63 All north- south streets are numbered consecutively, starting at the westernmost street as 1st street. All even numbered streets are one way, going towards north. All odd numbered streets are one way, going towards south. All east-west streets are named by consecutive letters of alphabets, starting at the northernmost street as M street. M street is a one-way street going east. N street is a two-way street. O street is a one-way street going west. There are traffic signals at the intersection of 10th and O, of 11th and O and of 12th and N. Drivers always obey traffic laws.

If a driver is at the intersection of 12th and O and wants to go to the intersection of 10th and M and pass through only one intersection with a traffic signal, then which of the following routes can she take?   A) West on O, north on 11th and west on M B) North on 12th, west on N and north on 10th C) North on 12th, west on N, north on 11th and west on M D) West on O and north on 10th Explanation:-  

Since 11th street is south-bound, the driver can never turn north on 11th street. So options 1 and 3 are not possible. In option 4, the driver will have to go through two traffic signals. So option 2 is the correct answer.  

DIRECTION for the question: Refer to the data below and answer the question that follow. Apart from the usual racing scene at the Kharga Race course where huge bets are placed and high stakes are involved, the Race Course Committee organizes a Mela every year during winter. This is a unique concept basically aimed at publicity of the Race Course, and popularizing racing among people. On Sunday every week a certain fixed number of races take place. A maximum of 1428 spectators can be accommodated on a day. The ticket is worth Rs. 500/- of which 20% is retained by the management and 20% is retained for paying horse racers. Each spectator is allowed to speculate the winner of anyone of the scheduled races. When all the races are over, the rest of the money collected is divided equally among those who have speculated the winners correctly. In Jan 2009, a spectator took home Rs. 8,270 in the first week. The next week, another took home Rs. 12,405, the same number of spectators being present as the first week.

Question No. : 64 DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.   The table below gives the Number of students who failed in the test of NSC during following 5 days in the 6 tests. One student can only give next test if he cleared the previous test.    

Test 1 Test 2 Test 3 Test 4 Test 5 Test 6

Monday

22

23

12

8

18

5

Tuesday

16

10

17

14

8

7

Wednesday

11

19

18

9

13

5

Thursday

7

13

6

13

12

3

Friday

24

12

13

11

19

7

  An all rounder is the one who cleared all the tests. What is the least number of students who have cleared test 1? A) 296

B) 295

C) 375

D) 348

Explanation:-   The Least number of students who cleared test 1 are those who have cleared test 1 but might failed in the subsequent tests : Number of student who cleared Test on Monday = 23 +12+ 8+ 18 + 5 = 66 Number of student who cleared Test on Tuesday = 10+17+14+8+7 = 56 Number of student who cleared Test on Wednesday = 19+18+9+13+5 = 64 Number of student who cleared Test on Thursday = 13+6+13+12+3 = 47 Number of student who cleared Test on Friday = 12+13+11+19+7 = 62 Total student cleared should be at least = 295  

DIRECTION for the question: Refer to the data below and answer the question that follow. Apart from the usual racing scene at the Kharga Race course where huge bets are placed and high stakes are involved, the Race Course Committee organizes a Mela every year during winter. This is a unique concept basically aimed at publicity of the Race Course, and popularizing racing among people. On Sunday every week a certain fixed number of races take place. A maximum of 1428 spectators can be accommodated on a day. The ticket is worth Rs. 500/- of which 20% is retained by the management and 20% is retained for paying horse racers. Each spectator is allowed to speculate the winner of anyone of the scheduled races. When all the races are over, the rest of the money collected is divided equally among those who have speculated the winners correctly. In Jan 2009, a spectator took home Rs. 8,270 in the first week. The next week, another took home Rs. 12,405, the same number of spectators being present as the first week.

Question No. : 65 DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.   The table below gives the Number of students who failed in the test of NSC during following 5 days in the 6 tests. One student can only give next test if he cleared the previous test.    

Test 1 Test 2 Test 3 Test 4 Test 5 Test 6

Monday

22

23

12

8

18

5

Tuesday

16

10

17

14

8

7

Wednesday

11

19

18

9

13

5

Thursday

7

13

6

13

12

3

Friday

24

12

13

11

19

7

  An all rounder is the one who cleared all the tests. On Thursday if the number of students who cleared the test 4 was twice the number of student who is all rounder. How many students have cleared the test 2? A) 47

B) 48

C) 49

D) 50

Explanation:-   Let the student who appeared who test 1 on Thursday be “ m “ Number of students who cleared test 4 = (m – 7 - 13 - 6 - 13 ) = m – 39 Also given = > 2 (m - 54) = m – 39  Therefore m = 69             Number of students who cleared round 2 on Thursday = m-7-13 = 69 -20 = 49  

DIRECTION for the question: Refer to the data below and answer the question that follow. Apart from the usual racing scene at the Kharga Race course where huge bets are placed and high stakes are involved, the Race Course Committee organizes a Mela every year during winter. This is a unique concept basically aimed at publicity of the Race Course, and popularizing racing among people. On Sunday every week a certain fixed number of races take place. A maximum of 1428 spectators can be accommodated on a day. The ticket is worth Rs. 500/- of which 20% is retained by the management and 20% is retained for paying horse racers. Each spectator is allowed to speculate the winner of anyone of the scheduled races. When all the races are over, the rest of the money collected is divided equally among those who have speculated the winners correctly. In Jan 2009, a spectator took home Rs. 8,270 in the first week. The next week, another took home Rs. 12,405, the same number of spectators being present as the first week.

Question No. : 66 DIRECTIONS for the question: Study the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.   The table below gives the Number of students who failed in the test of NSC during following 5 days in the 6 tests. One student can only give next test if he cleared the previous test.    

Test 1 Test 2 Test 3 Test 4 Test 5 Test 6

Monday

22

23

12

8

18

5

Tuesday

16

10

17

14

8

7

Wednesday

11

19

18

9

13

5

Thursday

7

13

6

13

12

3

Friday

24

12

13

11

19

7

  An all rounder is the one who cleared all the tests. If the number of students who are all rounders for day Monday and Wednesday are same, find the difference between the number of students who cleared Test 1 on Monday and Wednesday? A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Explanation:-   Let the number of student who cleared the test NSC on Monday and Wednesday be ‘a’ & ‘b’ respectively. Number of student selected on Monday and Wednesday will be (a – 88) and (b – 75) And as (a – 88) = (b – 75) ⇒ a – b = 13 Difference between the student who cleared the test 1 on Monday and Wednesday = (a – 22) – (b – 11) ⇒ a – b - 11  As we know a- b = 13; hence difference = 13-11 = 2 .   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 67 Two numbers when divided by a certain divisor leave remainders of 16 and 24 respectively. When twice the sum of the two numbers is divided by the same divisor, the remainder obtained is 10. Which of the following could be the value of the divisor?   I. 30                             II. 35                            III. 50                          IV. 70   A) II and IV

B) I, II and III

C) II, III and IV

D) I, II and IV

Explanation:-   Let the numbers be N = DQ1 + 16 and M = DQ2 + 24.

It is given that 2(M + N) = 2(DQ1 + 16 + DQ2 + 24) = 2D(Q1 + Q2) + 80 leaves a remainder of 10 when divided by D.

So, 80 = DQ + 10 =>DQ = 70. Since D must be greater than 24, D = 35 or 70. Hence the answer is option A DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 68 Equilateral triangles are drawn on the outside of each of the four sides of a square of side 10 cm. The vertices of the equilateral triangles are then joined to form a quadrilateral. What is the ratio of the area of the quadrilateral to that of the square? A) 5 : 2

B) 4 : 1

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option D

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 69 What is the difference between the square of the tens digit and the square of the units digit of 72011? (in numerical value) A) 7

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-  

  DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 70 x is a 2-digit positive integer such that x and any other 2-digit number have at most two common factors. If x! ends in n zeroes, how many different values can n take? A) 21

B) 17

C) 10

D) None of these

Explanation:-   Since x has at most two common factors with any other 2-digit number, and any two digit prime number.satisfies this. So, x must be  11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89 and 97. The number of zeroes in x! will remain constant for every set of 5 numbers 0 – 4, 5 – 9, 10 – 14, 15 – 19 and so on. So from 11 to 99 all the said ranges(total 18 ranges) will have at least one  prime number except range from 90-94 that will also have x as 91  as it satisfies the condition of the condition of x 91=13x7 so 91 will have at most 2 common factors with any two digit number.) .so we see that there are 18 different values for n. Hence the answer is option D   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 71 The difference between a five digit positive integer and the integer formed by reversing the digits is always divisible by A) 9

B) 2

C) 4

D) 6

Explanation:-   Any 5 digit number can be represented by 10000 a +1000 b +100 c +10 d + e ; reverese for this number is 10000 e + 1000 d + 100 c + 10 b + a Substracting both the number we will get 9999 a + 990 b - 990 d - 9999 e ; taking 99 common   99 ( 101a + 10 b - 10 d - 101e )  Hence the number is divisible by 9, 11, 99.   Consider 54321 – 12345 = 41976, 97531 – 13579 = 83952 and 97654 – 45679 = 51975. Each of these differences is divisible by 9. Hence the answer is option A

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 72 What is the value of ‘m2’ if the line y = mx + 1 intersects the figure x2 + 4y2 = 1 exactly once? A) 2/3

B) 3/4

C) 5/6

D) 1/2

Explanation:-  

Put y = mx + 1 in the equation of eclipse x2 + 4 (mx + 1)2 = 1 ⇒ (1 + 4m2)x2 + 8mx + 3 = 0 This equation has only one root, Discriminant = 0 ⇒ (8m)2  - 4(1 + 4m2)3 = 0 ⇒ m2 = ¾   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 73 Two square cards with perimeters 16 cm and 24 cm respectively are arranged so that the vertex of one square lies exactly at the

centre of the other square. What is the difference between the maximum and minimum area of this over lapping region? A) 0

B) 16

C) 5

D) 4

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option C DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 74 A positive number n is defined as n = 1 + x2, where x is the product of 4 consecutive integers. Which of the following is not true of n?   I. n is prime                 II. n is even                  III. n is odd                  IV. n is a perfect square   A) I and III

B)  I, II and IV

C) I and IV

D) II, III and IV

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option B DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 75 Let x contains 10 elements. Find the number of all ordered triplets (A, B, C) of subset of X such that A is a subset of B & B is a proper subsets of C A) 1024C3

B) 410

C) 310

D) 410 - 310

Explanation:-   Let us denote by 0 or 1 the absence or presence of an element of X in the sets A,B,C for any particular element of X, there are only 4 choices namely 000, 001, 011, 111. (for example 011 represents elements belongs to B & C but not to A). Thus there are 410 choices for all the elements, but B = C gives (i.e., 000, 011, 111) 3 choices. Hence there are 3 triplets where ACB = C. So, required Answer is = 410 - 310

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 76 Find the number of 4×4 arrays whose elements belong to { 0, 1, 2, 3}. This is also mentioned that sum of the numbers in each row & each column is divisible by 4. (4×4 array means arrangement of 16 elements arranged in 4 rows & 4 columns.) A) 49

B) 416

C) 39

D) 10

Explanation:-   We will fill up the 3 × 3  array at the left top as shown in the figure (represented by*)   *

*

*

·

*

*

*

·

*

*

*

·

·

·

·

·

  For every *, there are 4 choices (i.e., 0, 1, 2, 3). So, this 3 × 3 array can be filled in 49 choices. For remaining places (represented by dot) ·, there is always a unique choice. e.g., if any row of 3×3 array is say [0, 1, 2] or its any permutation, 4th entry of this row can be only 1 possibilities i.e., it can be 1 only. Similarly, for (0,1,3), 4th entry will be 0,  so on. So, Answer is = 49

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 77 In the figure below, not drawn to scale, PQ and QR are parallel to the co-ordinate axes. Point A, with co-ordinate (-3, 12) lies on line L. Which of the following can be the lengths of the sides of PQR?  

A) 

B) 14, 48, 50

C) 12, 22.5, 25.5

D) 

Explanation:-   If we drop perpendicular AB to the X-axis, we will get a right-angled ABO, with arms AB = 12, BO = 3 and hypotenuse AO = √153. PQR ≈ ABO. So, the ratio of sides of these triangles will be constant. Only option 1 satisfies this condition as (6, 24, √612) = 2 × (3, 12, √153). Hence the answer is option A

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 78 A bag contains 8 white and 12 blue chips while another bag contains 6 white, 6 black and 8 blue chips. A chip is removed from a bag and placed in the other bag. A chip is now removed from the other bag. What is the probability that the chip is black? A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option D DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 79 There is a 7 × 7 chessboard. Two squares are chosen at random. What is the probability that the 2 squares have a common edge? A) 

B) 

C) 

D) None of these

Explanation:-  

In a 7 × 7 chessboard, total no. of squares are 49. Two squares can be chosen in 49C2 ways. Now no. of favorable cases:–

            Case 1:– When one square is in corner:– Since every corner square has 2 squares with common edge. So, 2 squares can be chosen in 4C1 × 2C1 = 8 ways

            Case 2:– When one square is lying on edge but not on corner:– A 7 × 7 chessboard has 20 these type of squares so every such square has 3 squares with common edge. So, favorable case = 20C1 × 3C1 = 60 ways

            Case 3:– When square does not lie on boundary:– Non boundary squares are 5 × 5 = 25 & every square has 4 squares with common edge. So favorable cases 25C1 × 4C1 = 100

But in all above cases, every combination is counted twice.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 80 Each of the 40 rooms in a hostel block is in the shape of a rectangular box with a square base of 64 square feet and height 10 feet. Two painters, Ajay and Vijay, who always work at their respective constant rates, are given the contract for painting the walls and ceilings of these 40 rooms. Working alone, Vijay takes 1 hour more to paint a wall than if the two painters had worked together. Working alone, Ajay takes 15 hours longer than if Vijay had worked alone. If they work 8 hour days, in how many days will the 40 rooms be painted? (in numerical value) A) 96

B) 

C) 

Explanation:-  

D) 

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 81

A) 194

B) 190

C) 200

D) 222

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option C DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 82 In a 8 × 8 chessboard, there are 64 squares of smallest size 2 squares are chosen at random. In how many ways this can be done if they share exactly one vertex. A) 196

B) 392

C) 98

D) 48

Explanation:-   Case 1:– Corner squares:– Every corner square has 1 vertex common with exactly one square. So, 2 squares can be chosen in 4C1 × 1C1 = 4 ways

  Case 2:– Non corner but edge square:– These squares have one vertex common with exactly 2 squares So, total cases = 24C1 × 2C1 = 48 ways   Case 3:– Interior square:–

These squares have one vertex common with exactly 4 squares. So, total cases = 36C1 × 4C1 = 144 ways

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 83 A merchant sold an article at a profit of 40%. Had he bought the article for 20% less and sold it at a discount of 20%, he would have gained Rs. 224. What was the merchant’s profit from the sale of the article?

A) Rs. 700

B) Rs. 280

C) Rs. 560

D) Rs. 980

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option B   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 84 If |x| and |y| are prime numbers such that x2 – y2 = 2010, how many different values can (x, y) take? (in numerical value) A) 0

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-  

  DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 85 A Die is rolled 5 times. What is the probability that the sum of the 5 numbers shown is equal to 25? A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-   Let abcde is the outcome when dies is rolled 5 times. Now 1 ≤ a, b, c, d, e ≤ 6. If we try to make cases, it will be a lengthy sum. Let us assume we get (6, 6, 6, 6, 6) all five times. Here sum is 30 but we want 24. It means there is a drop of 5 in total. So, let us consider the outcome is (6 – x, 6 – y, 6 – z, 6 – p, 6 – r) Where x + y + z + p + r = 5 and 0 ≤ x, y, z, p, r ≤ 5 & the non-negative integral soln. for this equation are 5+5-1C5-1 = 126.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 86 What is the remainder when 1003 + 1013 + 1023 + 1033 + … + 9993 is divided by 7? A) 0

B) 5

Explanation:-  

C) 3

D) 6

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 87 Find sum of all possible products of first 20 natural numbers taken two at a time. A) 2870

B) 41230

C) 17220

D) 20615

Explanation:-  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 88 Abhinav is practicing for the Asian Games by shooting at a circular target of diameter 32”. If the target is divided into nine concentric circular regions of equal area, what is the radius of the innermost region? A) 51/3”

B) 1”

C) 22”

D) 

Explanation:-   Suppose the radii of the innermost to the outermost circles are r1, r2, r3, …, r9. It is given that r9 = 16”. Since the circular regions

have equal areas, r12 = (r22 – r12) = (r32 – r22) = … = (r92 – r82). Since r12 = (r22 – r12), we get 2r12 = r22 ⇒ r2 = r1√2. Since r12 =

(r32 – r22) and r22 = 2r12, we get r32 = 3r12  ⇒ r3 = r1√3. Since r12 = (r42 – r32) and r32 = 3r12, we get r42 = 4r12  ⇒ r4 = r1√4 = 2r1. From this, we can conclude that the radii of the innermost to the outermost circles are r1, r1√2, r1√3, r1√4, …, r1√9. Since r9 = r1√9 = 3r1 = 16, we get r1 = 16/3 = 51/3”. Hence the answer is option A

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 89 N! is ending with x zeroes. (N + 3)! is ending with (x + 2) zeroes. How many such N's will exist? A) 5

B) 12

C) 10

D) 8

Explanation:-   Since we need 2 zeroes extra ⇒ (n + 2)! Should contain a multiple of 25. So,       N!        (N + 3)!             22!       25!             23!       26!             24!       27!             47!       50! ……….. & so on. So, There will exist 3 values of N corresponding to every multiple of 25. So, N = 22, 23, 24, 47, 48, 49, 72, 73, 74, 97, 98, 99 N = 123, 124, 125 are rejected because in that case (N + 3)! Will have 3 zeroes extra ⇒Answer is 12.   DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 90 Miss Sheetal received Rs. 1 crore as retirement benefits when she retired as the CEO of a marketing firm. She has a choice between depositing the money in her savings account that gives her simple interest at 10% per annum or depositing the money in a fixed deposit that gives her compound interest at the same rate. She calculates that the difference between the simple and compound interest for three years is Rs. 310,000 and decides to invest her money in the fixed deposit for 4 years. What will be the difference between the interest for the third year and the fourth year? A) Rs. 641,000

B) Rs. 1,000,000

C) Rs. 1,331,000

D) Rs. 121,000

Explanation:-  

Hence the answer is option D

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 91 Find HCF of (2002 + 2, 20022 + 2, 20023 + 2)....... so on A) 334

B) 1002

Explanation:-   Let 2002 + 2 = a

C) 6

D) Can not be determined

So, 20022+ 2 = 2002 (2002) + 2 = 2000 (2002 + 2) + 6 = 2000 a + 6 Let GCD (a, 2000 a + 6) = g Now g divides a ⇒ g divides 2000 a                              ( if p divides q ⇒ p divides mq)

Also, g divides 2000 a + 6                   (by def. of GCD) ⇒ g divides [(2000 a+ 6) – 2000 a] = 6 ⇒ g should be a factor of 6. We will prove g = 6 Every term is of type 2002k + 2

Definitely 2 divide 2002k + 2               ( even + even = even) & 2002k ≡ 1 (mod 3) So, 2002k + 2 = 3 (mod 3) ≡ 0 (mod 3)

⇒ 2002k + 2 is divisible by 3 for every k. So, g = 6 DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 92 Two trains T1 and T2 are entering on either sides of platform P from opposite ends. Trains T1 and T2 take 20 seconds each to cross the platform and 10 seconds to cross each other. Which of the following could represent the lengths of T1, T2 and P respectively? A) 250, 300, 350

B) 300, 350, 400

C) 225, 375, 300

D) 275, 350, 625

Explanation:-  

  Hence the answer is option C DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 93 100 natural numbers are written on a board. Three friends, Akash, Brijesh and Chandan decide to have some fun with these numbers. Akash walks up to the board and erases all multiples of 2. Brijesh then walks up to the board and erases the existing multiples of 3 and rewrites the missing multiples of 3. Chandan then walks to the board and erases the existing multiples of 4 and rewrites the missing multiples of 4. How many natural numbers remain on the board? (in numerical value) A) 58

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-   Akash erases all 50 even numbers. So, there are 100 – 50 = 50 natural numbers on the board. Brijesh should ideally erase 33 multiples of 3, but the 16 multiples of 6 are already erased by Akash. So, Brijesh erases 33 – 16 = 17 multiples of 3. At the same time, he rewrites the 16 missing multiples of 6. So he net erased 1 no. So now the numbers are 49. Again Chandan will erase 8 multiples of 4 and rewrite 17 multiples of 4. So the numbers increased by 9. Hence the numbers on the board are 49 + 9 = 58. DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 94 Two circles of equal areas are drawn so that their diameters lie on the same line. Two equal chords, 18 units apart, are drawn in each of the circles so that the chords are perpendicular to the diameters. If the maximum distance between any two of the four chords drawn is 68 units, what is the perimeter of each of the two circles?

A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

Explanation:-  

Hence the answer is option D DIRECTIONS for the question : Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 95

A) 2.87

B) 2.46

C) 3.21

D) 2.12

Explanation:-  

Hence the answer is option A

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 96

A) x < –5 , x > 3/2

B) x < 3/2, x > –3

C) –5 < x < 3

D) –3 < x < 5/2

Explanation:-  

The given expression can be rewritten as 3x + 15 – 2x2 – 10x < 0 ⇒15 – 2x2 – 7x < 0 ⇒ 2x2 + 7x – 15 > 0.The roots of this quadratic are 3/2 and –5. So, the range of values satisfying the inequality is x > 3/2 and x < –5. DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 97

A watch gains 3 minutes every hour. If it is set right at 11 a.m. on February 21st, 2012, when will the hour hand of this defective watch and a correct watch be at the same position? A) 9 p.m. on February 21st, 2012 D) 11 a.m. on March 12th, 2012

B) 11 p.m. on February 28th, 2012

C) 11 a.m. on March 2nd, 2012

Explanation:-   If the defective and the correct watch show the same time, the defective watch will have gained 12 hours, i.e., 720 minutes. Since it gains 3 minutes every hour, it will need 720/3 = 240 hours to gain 12 hours. In other words, both watches will show the same time after 10 days. Counting from 11 a.m. on February 21st, 2012, both watches will show the same time at 11 a.m. on March 2nd, 2012.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 98 In how many ways can 18,000 be written as the product of two different positive integers? A) 60

B) 25

C) 30

D) 45

Explanation:-  

18000 = 24 × 32 × 53. So the total number of factors of 18000 is (4 + 1)(2 + 1)(3 + 1) = 60. Half of these can be combined with the other half to obtain 2 factors whose product is 18000. Thus, 18000 can be written in 30 ways as the product of 2 different positive integers. DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 99

A) (a – b)2 = 2ab

B) (a – b)2 = 4ab

C) (a + b)2 = 4ab

D) (a + b)2 = 2ab

Explanation:-  

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option. Question No. : 100 In a garden, there are 5 rose plants for every 7 marigold plants. There are 3 marigold plants for every 11 pegunias and 2 pegunias for every 9 cactus plants. What is the minimum number of plants in the garden? A) 113

B) 793

C) 988

D) 919

Explanation:-   If the number of marigolds is 21, then there are 15 roses and 77 pegunias. If there are 154 pegunias, then there are 693 cactus plants. Consequently, the number of roses and marigolds will be 30 and 42 respectively. Thus the minimum number of plants is 30 + 42 + 154 + 693 = 919.