2013 Boards

COPYRIGHT NOTICE All rights and interests (including copyright) in the (attached/below) released questions are owned by the National Dental Examining Board of Canada ("NDEB"). Exact reproduction of these questions will be permitted only on the specific terms set by NDEB. Any editing or manipulation of these questions is strictly prohibited. NDEB strictly prohibits the addition of answers, suggested answers, commentary, or any other additional material to these released questions. NDEB also strictly prohibits the sale of these released questions, and the distribution or sale of any material purporting to provide the answers to the released questions. Please contact NDEB for permission prior to any reproduction of the released questions.

Following trauma, bluish-grey discolouration of the crown is due to A. B. C. D.

external resorption. pulpal hemorrhage. discoloured composite restoration. chromogenic bacteria.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause pain? A. B. C. D.

Carious pulp exposure. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp). Acute pulpitis. Apical periodontitis.

Disclaimer: Beginning in 2009, the NDEB of Canada is making available this Released Test Item Bank. The Released Test Item Bank includes both retired and active test items that have been utilized since 1994 on previous examinations. The Released Test Item Bank includes test items in both English and French. Please note that the proportion of test item categories within the Written Examination Blueprint is not necessarily representative of the Released Test Item Bank. Furthermore, the content of the released test items is not necessarily representative of any given form of past written examinations. Please also be aware that some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science, grammar and content errors. All released test items are the property of the NDEB and are copyrighted.

A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

acute apical abscess. acute serous pulpitis. lateral periodontal abscess. acute suppurative pulpitis. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.

Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics?

When root canals are treated topically with antibiotics rather than with disinfectants

A.

1. 2.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Overfilling refers to the incomplete filling of the canal system with a surplus of material extruding beyond the apical foramen. Underfilling refers to the complete filling of the canal space, but leaving voids in the pulp chamber for possible recontamination or infection. Overextension refers to the extrusion of filling material through an accessory canal. Underextension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material regardless of its completeness of obturation. All of the above.

After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement you can expect to have 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

removed all tissue from the entire root canal system. machined the canals to a microscopically smooth channel. caused some temporary inflammation. sterilized the root canal. left some areas of the root canal system incompletely cleaned. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

a greater success rate results. the same rules of mechanical preparation and filling must be observed. treatment may be completed in fewer appointments. there is greater assurance that all microorganisms are destroyed. there is a danger of sensitizing patients to antibiotics. (1) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (2) and (5) All of the above.

The antibiotic of choice for infections of pulpal origin is A. B. C. D.

penicillin V. lincomycin. erythromycin. tetracycline.

Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with A. B. C. D. E.

inadequate periodontal support. pulp stones. constricted root canals. accessory canals. curved roots.

Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest temperature?

Periapical surgery is CONTRAINDICATED for a tooth that has a

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

Steam autoclave. Dry heat oven. Ethylene oxide method. Glass bead sterilizer. Alcohol autoclave.

E.

large periapical rarefaction. fistula related to a periapical lesion. vertical root fracture. fracture of the root apex and a necrotic pulp. a post and core retained crown.

A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to A. B. C. D. E.

put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your office in a week's time. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately. place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately. place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately.

The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth would MOST likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the A. B. C. D.

mesial of a mandibular first premolar. distal of a mandibular first premolar. distal of a mandibular first molar. mesial of a mandibular first molar.

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 2. 3. 4.

protects the enamel. increases retention. improves marginal adaptation. increases the thickness of gold.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In permanent teeth, two pulp canals are most commonly found in the A. B. C. D.

distobuccal root of maxillary molars. distal root of mandibular first molars. palatal root of maxillary first premolars. mesial root of mandibular first molars.

Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it A. B. C. D.

locates the marginal ridges of each tooth. keeps the teeth from having any movement during function. insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency. stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae.

In determining the ideal proximal outline form for a Class II amalgam cavity preparation in a molar the 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

axial wall should be 1.5mm deep. gingival cavosurface margin must clear contact with the adjacent tooth. proximal walls diverge occlusally. facial and lingual proximal cavosurface margins must just clear contact with the adjacent tooth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A rubber dam should be used in A. B. C. D. E.

pulp capping procedures. amalgam placement. composite placement. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. all of the above.

The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will

A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is

1. 2. 3. 4.

decrease pulp damage. reduce frictional heat. keep the operating site clean. reduce clogging of cutting instruments.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream?

necrotic. in an early hyperemic state. normal. irreversibly damaged.

Which of the following may affect the results of electric pulp testing?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Which of the following is/are true regarding a tooth filled with a formaldehyde-containing paste?

Emotional factors. Pain threshold. Analgesics. Recent trauma. All of the above.

A. Which of the following statements is/are true?

B.

1.

C.

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Radiographs cannot differentiate between infected and non-infected periapical lesions. A definitive diagnosis of an apical lesion cannot be made on radiography alone. Periapical radiolucencies are not always indicative of loss of pulp vitality. A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

D.

E.

Anachoresis. Cavernous sinus thrombosis. Bacteremia. All of the above.

Formaldehyde-containing pastes remain non-approved. The drug manufacturer may be liable, along with the dentist. Formaldehyde-containing pastes have a high antigenic potential. There are cases on record of parasthesia following overextrusion of such a paste in the vicinity of the mandibular nerve. All of the above.

The desired termination point of apical root canal preparation when performing endodontic treatment on a vital tooth is A. B. C. D.

0.5 to 1mm short of the radiographic apex. 3mm short of the radiographic apex. slightly through the apical foramen. to the point where the patient feels sensation.

Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?

In root resection (apicoectomy) it is considered good technique to

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Pulpectomy. Pulpotomy. Pulp capping. Apicoectomy.

remove as little of the root as possible. curet the soft tissue lesion in its entirety. be certain the apex is sealed. All of the above.

The proposed mechanism by which a calcium hydroxide preparation initiates secondary dentin formation in direct pulp cappings is by

A retrograde filling is indicated

A. B.

B.

C. D.

releasing calcium ions. stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to lay down dentin. stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei of the first order. stimulating undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts.

A.

C. D.

when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics. when a root perforation needs to be sealed. when conventional endodontics is impractical. All of the above.

Which of the following has the POOREST prognosis? Having just completed endodontic treatment on a maxillary central incisor, you are preparing the canal for a post when you inadvertently perforate the labial surface of the root. You would A. B. C. D.

extract the tooth. cement the post using zinc-oxyphosphate cement. cement the post, then raise a flap and seal the defect surgically with amalgam. re-prepare the canal so the post is now totally within the canal and cement the post.

A. B. C. D.

For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because 1. 2. 3.

Apicoectomy is CONTRAINDICATED when 4. A. B. C. D. E.

periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support. there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth. more than one tooth is involved. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick. the patient is diabetic.

Horizontal fracture in the apical one-third of the root. Horizontal fracture in the mid-root. Horizontal fracture 1-2mm subgingivally. Vertical root fracture.

A. B. C. D. E.

a bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching. a bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin. after etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage. the procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Retention of a gold inlay is improved by 1. 2. 3. 4.

addition of an occlusal dovetail. increasing the parallelism of walls. lengthening the axial walls. placing a gingival bevel.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of A. B. C. D.

cusp height. anterior teeth only. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps.

Which of the following statements are true concerning the adult mandible? When using ultra high speed cutting instruments for cavity preparation, the heat generated is directly related to the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

duration of cutting. size, speed and sharpness of the bur. use of air and water spray. existing pulp pathology. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1.

2.

3.

4.

A. B. C. D.

The mandibular foramen lies in the centre of the mandibular ramus both in the vertical and horizontal planes. The angle formed by the junction of the ramus and the body of the mandible is an acute one. The genial tubercles are attachments for the anterior bellies of the digastric muscles. The temporalis muscle attaches to the lateral surface of the coronoid process. (1) and (2) (1) and (4) (1) and (3) (1) (3) (4)

Which of the following instruments can be used for placing gingival bevels on inlay preparations? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Margin trimmers. Enamel hatchets. Carbide finishing burs. Small diamond disks. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A lingual approach for a conservative Class III preparation for a composite resin requires A. B. C. D.

a retentive internal form. parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls. maintenance of the incisal contact area. All of the above.

Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the application of

Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

phenol. 70% ethyl alcohol. chlorhexidine. absolute alcohol. None of the above.

The cell of the dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells is the A. B. C. D.

fibroblast. undifferentiated mesenchymal cell. odontoblast. histiocyte.

Streptococcus viridans. Staphylococcus aureus. Lactobacilli. Enterococci. Staphylococcus albus.

The mechanical objectives of preparing the root canal system for obturation with guttapercha should include A. B. C. D.

development of a continuously tapering cone in the root canal. removal of irregularities. maintenance of an intact foramen. All of the above.

Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. B. C. D. E.

a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic pulpitis). late stage of acute pulpitis (acute suppurative pulpitis). chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative pulpitis). chronic apical abscess. pulp hyperemia.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar abscess? 1.

3. 4.

A negative reaction to the electric vitality tester. A positive reaction of short duration to cold. A positive reaction to percussion. Presence of a draining fistula.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to make the sealers A. B. C. D.

set more firmly. be radiopaque. set more rapidly. be tolerated by periapical tissues.

Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. B. C. D. E.

Valvular heart disease. Cardiac prosthesis. Persistent odontogenic fistula. Immuno-suppressive therapy. Organ transplant.

Root canal therapy may be safely and successfully undertaken for 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

hemophiliacs. patients with a history of rheumatic fever. patients with rheumatoid arthritis. cerebral palsy patients. adolescent diabetics. (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (1) (2) (3) (5) All of the above. None of the above.

Which of the following is the most probable postoperative complication of intracoronal bleaching a tooth that has not been adequately obturated?

In the mandibular first premolar, the occlusal dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam preparation is usually not extended into the mesial fossa because of the A. B. C. D.

When removal of carious dentin results in an exposure of non-vital pulp, the treatment of choice is to A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Fracture. Discolouration. Retrograde pulpitis. Acute apical periodontitis. External cervical root resorption.

Which of the following are true statements about incision and drainage of an acute apical abscess? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

A rubber dam drain may be placed and sutured to assist drainage. The procedure is only indicated with a localized, fluctuant swelling. Profound anesthesia of the surgical site is not always possible. Relief of the pressure and pain is immediate after treatment. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

small lingual lobe. large buccal cusp. large buccal pulp horn. prominent transverse ridge.

institute endodontic treatment. cap the exposed pulp horn with calcium hydroxide. occlude the cavity with a light packing of cotton moistened with eugenol. place a temporary restoration and observe.

In the restoration of a tooth, cavity varnish reduces A. B. C. D.

ion migration from amalgam to tooth. transfer of thermal changes. amalgam corrosion. galvanic stimulation of the pulp.

The initial treatment of choice for a 16 year old patient, who presents with multiple extensive carious lesions, is to place the patient on a preventive regime and to A. B. C. D.

place amalgam restorations over the next few months. excavate caries and place temporary restorations within the next few weeks. delay any treatment until the hygiene improves. restore all teeth with composite resin over the next few months.

During cavity preparation under rubber dam, a small mechanical exposure occurs. The correct procedure is to A. B. C. D.

swab the exposure with eugenol. place calcium hydroxide over the exposure. perform a pulpotomy. perform a pulpectomy.

In an 80-year old patient you would expect A. B. C. D.

a reduced size of the pulp chamber. increased incidence of pulp stones. increased tendency to pulpal fibrosis. All of the above.

In teeth with complete pulp necrosis, the periapical area is involved if A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. B. C. D.

pulp stones. secondary dentin. secondary cementum. primary dentin.

1. 2. 3. 4.

there is pain to thermal stimuli. there is pain on percussion. the tooth throbs when the patient is lying down. the radiograph shows an apical radiolucency.

The joining together of two teeth in the root portion through cemental union is known as

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

The prognosis for an avulsed tooth is principally affected by

gemination. fusion. twinning. concrescense.

A. Fractured incisal angles in the permanent teeth of adolescent patients are best restored using A. B. C. D.

stainless steel crowns. gold castings. full coverage restorations. acid etch composite resin techniques.

When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo degeneration, they are replaced by

B. C. D.

ameloblasts. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells. multinucleated giant cells. osteoblasts.

length of time the tooth was out of the mouth. condition of the socket when the tooth was replanted. removal of necrotic cementum. pulp extirpation.

Radiographs of the mandibular incisor teeth of a 45 year old healthy black female patient reveal periapical radiolucencies. The teeth are vital and asymptomatic. You would A.

A. B. C. D.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B. C. D.

perform a biopsy of the radiolucent lesion. perform endodontic therapy on the four incisors. place a drain in the affected area. observe periodically.

Which of the following could be immediate postoperative complications of periapical surgery?

What are the purposes of using occlusal splints? 1.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

Haemorrhage. Edema. Paresthesia. Pain. Mucocele. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) All of the above.

The muscle primarily responsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position is the A. B. C. D. E.

masseter. lateral (external) pterygoid. medial (internal) pterygoid. buccinator. temporalis.

Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad?

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D.

To change the pattern and degree of tactile afferent neural impulses. To immobilize teeth. To produce a permanent change in the occlusion. To prevent teeth from disturbing occlusal sensory input. (1) and (2) (3) only (1) (2) (4) All of the above.

Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of acute suppurative pulpitis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Spontaneous throbbing pain. Prolonged pain initiated by heat. Increased pain while lying down. Increased pain by cold.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Lateral (external) pterygoid. Buccinator. Palatoglossus. Superior constrictor.

Histologically, a pulp polyp consists of

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Profile features of extreme overjet, recessive chin and deep labial mento-labial sulcus in the chin are referred to as A. B. C. D.

prognathic relationship. mesognathic relationship. retrognathic relationship. crossbite relationship.

A. B. C. D. E.

a mass of collagenous fibres. Russell bodies. proliferating capillaries. fibroblasts. polymorphonuclear leucocytes. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) and (5) All of the above.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a draining fistula? A. B. C. D.

Chronic periapical periodontitis. Reversible pulpitis. Hypercementosis. Traumatic bone cyst.

The difference(s) between deciduous and permanent teeth isçare best described by the following statement(s): A. B. C. D. E.

The deciduous root trunk is shorter. The deciduous enamel is thinner and appears whiter. The deciduous molar roots flare more. (A) and (C) All of the above.

The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is A. B. C. D.

preservation of tooth structure. removal of all caries. straight line access to the canal. removal of all pulp horns.

A child has a carious exposure of the pulp in the first molar. The cavity is filled with pink tissue which bleeds when punctured by the explorer. The tissue is slightly sensitive to touch. This is indicative of A. B. C. D.

acute ulcerative pulpitis. chronic serous pulpitis. chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. periapical osteofibrosis.

Special attention is given to matrix adaptation for the insertion of amalgam in a MO cavity in a maxillary first premolar because of the A. B. C. D. E.

concavity in the cervical third of the mesial surface of the crown. restoration being in the esthetic zone. unusual position of the contact area. buccolingual width of the tooth's mesial marginal ridge. size of the interproximal gingival embrasure.

Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include 1. 2. 3. 4.

palliative treatment. steroid therapy. control of secondary infection. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Tooth mobility may be due to 1. 2. 3. 4.

excessive occlusal force. decreased osseous support. periodontal abscess. gingival inflammation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Fractures of the maxilla can best be diagnosed by

Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who

1. 2. 3. 4.

lateral jaw radiographs. clinical examination. evidence of periorbital edema. anteroposterior radiograph of the skull.

1. 2. 3. 4.

had a myocardial infarct two months ago. is hypothyroid. has a Factor VIII deficiency. is 4 months pregnant.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Bell's palsy. metastatic malignancy to the body of the mandible. trigeminal neuralgia. fracture in the mandibular first molar region. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following should be considered when assessing the difficulty of removal of an impacted mandibular third molar? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

angulation. root width. depth in the alveolus. periodontal ligament space. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral incisor? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Nasociliary. Nasopalatine. Sphenopalatine. Anterior superior alveolar.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

buccal mucosa. tongue. floor of the mouth. gingiva.

Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic inflammatory cells are histologic features that may be found in A. B. C. D.

squamous cell carcinoma. carcinoma in situ. papillofibroma. endothelioma.

Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow 1. 2. 3. 4.

radiotherapy. dentoalveolar abscess. fracture. Vincent’s angina.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Histological sections of a lesion removed from the apex of a carious tooth show immature fibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells. The most likely diagnosis is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

acute periapical abscess. odontogenic fibroma. radicular cyst. periapical granuloma. central fibroma.

Radiographs of Garre's osteomyelitis show Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. Periapical cemental dysplasia. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. Cementoblastoma.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

Increasing the kilovoltage setting in the dental x-ray machine results in A. B. C. D.

A small, well-circumscribed, periapical radiolucency on a mandibular incisor which is clinically asymptomatic and responds normally to vitality tests is most likely A. B. C. D.

a periapical granuloma. sclerosing osteitis. a radicular cyst. periapical cemental dysplasia.

radiopaque islands of bone that represent formation of sequestra. a worm-eaten pattern of bone destruction. thickening of the cortex. A. and B. All of the above.

more gamma radiation. greater collimation. more penetration. greater secondary radiation at the level of the skin.

Which of the following radiographic views is best to diagnose caries and early alveolar bone loss? A. B. C. D. E.

Periapical. Occlusal. Bitewing. Lateral jaw. Panoramic.

An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in diameter on the lateral border of the tongue was diagnosed as a fibroma. This patient should have A. B. C. D. E.

hemisection of the tongue. radiotherapy to site of biopsy. no additional therapy. re-excision with wider margins. radium implantation around biopsy site.

During the extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar, the bony floor of the sinus is removed with the tooth. Your immediate treatment would be to A. B. C. D.

place a large strip of iodoform gauze, filling the tooth socket. irrigate the sinus repeatedly and place a dressing in the tooth socket. approximate the soft tissue as accurately as possible without irrigating. prescribe an antibiotic and recall after 24hrs.

The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is A. B. C. D.

higher kVp. proper filtration. high speed film. collimation of the X-ray beam.

Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia) A. B. C. D. E.

is most often confined to the apical half of the root. most frequently affects molars. affects non vital teeth in the majority of cases. (A) and (C) (B) and (C)

The electric pulp tester might be of some value in determining whether 1. 2. 3. 4.

the pulp is hyperemic or hyperplastic. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp. there is a partial or total pulpitis. the pulp is vital or nonvital.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The radiographic image of the incisive foramen is located between the roots of the maxillary A. B. C. D.

incisors above their apices. central and lateral incisors below their apices. central incisors below their apices. central and lateral incisors above their apices.

Oral lesions may be an early manifestation of Oral lesions failing to heal may be related to 1. 2. 3. 4.

leukemia. pernicious anemia. infectious mononucleosis. obstructive jaundice.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

tuberculosis. syphilis. neoplasia. diabetes. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A decrease of which of the following is indicative of hypoparathyroidism?

The term applied to a low white blood cell count is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Serum phosphorus. Serum calcium. Thyroid activity. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

leukocytosis. leukopenia. thrombocythemia. thrombocytopenia.

An odour of acetone on the breath may indicate

A patient who uses nitroglycerine has

1. 2. 3. 4.

bronchiectasis. rhinitis. salicylate poisoning. diabetes mellitus.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of A. B. C. D. E.

supernumerary incisors. pigmented teeth. peg lateral incisors. Fordyce's granules. blue sclerae.

rheumatic heart disease. asthma. coronary artery disease. high blood pressure. cardiac arrhythmia.

When a patient experiences continuous pain in the maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no evidence of dental infection, the most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

trigeminal neuralgia. acute maxillary sinusitis. impacted maxillary canine. impacted maxillary third molar. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.

Upper face infections can communicate with the cavernous sinus through An anemia in which the red blood cells are smaller and less intense in color than normal is called a

A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

microcytic hypochromic anemia. microcytic hyperchromic anemia. macrocytic hypochromic anemia. macrocytic hyperchromic anemia. None of the above.

C. D.

the angular vein to the superior ophthalmic vein. the pterygoid plexus to the inferior ophthalmic vein. A. and B. None of the above.

Contact stomatitis may be caused by Coronary artery occlusion can lead to A. B. C. D.

thrombosis. embolism. infarction. fatty degeneration.

A. B. C. D. E.

dentifrice. lipstick. acrylic. antibiotics. All of the above.

Acellular cementum on a root is A. B. C. D.

the result of chronic inflammation. a defective cementoid substance. caused by premature degeneration of Hertwig's root sheath. a normal anatomical structure.

Fordyce's granules are A. B. C. D.

ectopic sebaceous glands. ectopic sweat glands. small calcified nodules. aberrant mucous glands.

The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may radiographically show 1. 2. 3. 4.

widening of the periodontal space. loss of lamina dura. a circumscribed radiolucency. calcification of the periodontal membrane.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In infectious mononucleosis you are most likely to find Which one of the following teeth is most frequently impacted? A. B. C. D.

Maxillary cuspid. Mandibular second molar. Mandibular cuspid. Maxillary first premolar.

A large encapsulated tumor is removed from the hard palate. It is filled with fluid. The best method of determining the nature of this lesion is to

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

a positive Paul Bunnel test. lymphadenopathy. palatine petechiae. leukopenia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Acute maxillary sinusitis is associated with A. B. C. D. E.

examine the fluid under a microscope. culture the fluid and examine for bacterial growth. submit the tissue for histological examination submit the tissue for exfoliative cytological study. aspirate the fluid for electrophoresis study.

The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an A. B. C. D. E.

adenoma. choriocarcinoma. chondroma. lipoma. papilloma.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

pain in the posterior maxillary teeth. nasal discharge. tenderness of posterior maxillary teeth to percussion. increase of pain when bending over. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The radiographic change most suggestive of multiple myeloma is

The quantity of radiation output in a dental Xray apparatus is a function of

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2. 3. 4.

no bone alteration. punched out radiolucent lesions. multiple radiopaque lesions. diffuse ground glass appearance. generalized hypercementosis.

time. kVp. ma. filtration.

The discontinuity of the lamina dura on a radiograph may be a consequence of

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Which of the following radiographic findings are attributable to trauma from occlusion?

A. B. C. D. E.

pulpitis. metastatic carcinoma. parathyroid hyperplasia. eburnated bone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

intensity of central beam. secondary radiation. radiographic contrast. image definition. radiation received by patient. (1) (2) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) and (5) All of the above.

A lead diaphragm in X-ray units serves to A. B. C. D. E.

produce a more homogeneous X-ray beam. prevent secondary radiation. collimate the useful beam of rays. All of the above. None of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

(3) and (4) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) (1) (2) (3) All of the above.

Widening of the periodontal ligament space. Vertical destruction of the interdental septum. Widening of the lamina dura. Narrowing in width of the periodontal ligament space. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Surgery of irradiated bone is complicated by the fact that the A. B. C. D. E.

original neoplasm may invade the area of surgery. bone becomes brittle. blood vessels become sclerosed compromising normal healing. All of the above. None of the above.

An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. B. C. D. E.

deformity of the jaws. reduced vascularity of the jaws. increased vascularity of the jaws. increased brittleness of the jaws. none of the above.

The fixing solution serves the purpose of 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D. E.

carrying on development. hardening the emulsion. removing unexposed silver salts. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) All of the above. None of the above.

Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by A. B. C. D. E.

line voltage fluctuation. diameter of the primary beam of radiation. type of timer. tissue density. filter thickness.

A radiolucent area in a radiograph occurs as a result of 1. 2. 3. 4.

Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually due to (an) A. B. C. D.

moniliasis. ill fitting denture. allergy to denture cleanser. avitaminosis.

A. B. C. D. E.

decreased density of tissue. increased density of tissue. more radiation affecting the silver halide crystals. increased exposure time. (4) only (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (1) only None of the above.

In dental radiography, an increase in the kilovoltage is accompanied by An osteoma is A. B. C. D.

radiopaque. radiolucent. either radiopaque or radiolucent. radiolucent surrounded by a radiopaque line.

A. B. C. D.

an increase in the quantity of radiation. greater penetrability. the ability to decrease exposure time. All of the above.

The radiographs of dentinal dysplasia Type I show A. B. C. D. E.

obliteration of pulp chambers and root canals. small underdeveloped roots. involvement of primary as well as permanent teeth. (A) and (B) All of the above.

A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no pre-existing periapical pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The radiograph will show A. B. C. D. E.

an apical radiolucency. acute osteitis. root resorption. condensing osteitis. none of the above.

Radiographically, a benign bone neoplasm can be differentiated from a malignant one because in the benign lesion 1. 2. 3. 4.

the margins are irregular and fade into the surrounding bone. the cortex remains intact. the margins are defined and demarcated. there can be perforation of the periosteum.

A circumscribed radiolucent area at the apex of a vital mandibular incisor is indicative of a A. B. C. D. E.

periradicular abscess. periapical cemental dysplasia. periradicular granuloma. periradicular cyst. follicular cyst.

In the mandibular third molar region, a circumscribed radiolucent area 3cm in diameter contains the crown of the developing third molar. The radiolucent area suggests a A. B. C. D.

primordial cyst. dentigerous cyst. Stafne's idiopathic bone cavity. eruption cyst.

A periapical radiolucency can represent a A. B. C. D.

(1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) (3) (4)

Radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. 2. 3. 4.

branchial cyst. nasopalatine cyst. nasolabial cyst. radicular cyst.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

periapical granuloma. radicular cyst. metastatic carcinoma. mental foramen.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Ankylosis is commonly A. B. C. D. E.

associated with a non-vital pulp. the result of a root fracture. associated with a root penetrating cavity. resulting in a submerged tooth, out of occlusion. found in permanent teeth.

In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by A. B. C. D. E.

pain. type of exudate. tenderness to percussion. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. radiographic examination.

Sickle cell anemia is A. B. C. D. E.

a genetic disease. caused by exposure to radiation. a viral infection. a drug reaction. an auto-immune disease.

An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in A periapical radiolucency associated with a vital maxillary central incisor can represent a

A. B.

1. 2. 3. 4.

C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

nasopalatine cyst. dentigerous cyst. foramen of the incisive canal. periapical granuloma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In the presence of an acute bacterial infection, laboratory tests will show an increase in A. B. C. D. E.

polymorphonuclear leukocytes. plasma cells. lymphocytes. monocytes. eosinophils.

A patient presents with apparent paralysis of one side of the face which appeared the day before. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D.

Glossodynia. Bell's palsy. Myasthenia gravis. Trigeminal neuralgia.

the anterior region of the maxilla. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus. the posterior region of the maxilla. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline.

Squamous cell carcinomas of the lip occur most frequently on the A. B. C. D. E.

commissures. lower lip near the midline. inner surface of upper lip. inner surface of lower lip. upper lip near the midline.

The clinical appearance and texture of an early carcinoma of the floor of the mouth could be A. B. C. D. E.

red and soft. white and rough. ulcerated and indurated. All of the above. None of the above.

Signs and symptoms of diabetic patients include

Which one of the following is the most common tumour of the salivary glands?

1. 2. 3. 4.

polyuria. polydipsia. glycosuria. dysphagia.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following landmarks are recognizable in periapical radiographs of the mandible?

Multiple giant cell lesions of the bone are associated with A. B. C. D.

hyperthyroidism. hypothyroidism. hyperparathyroidism. hypoparathyroidism.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Adenocystic carcinoma. Adenoma. Pleomorphic adenoma. Muco-epidermoid carcinoma.

External oblique ridge. Coronoid process. Mylohyoid ridge. Mental foramen. Incisive canal. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (4) (5) (2) (4) (5) (3) (4) (5)

A common clinical sign of occlusal traumatism is Mucoceles are most commonly found in the A. B. C. D. E.

tooth mobility. pocket formation. gingival recession. temporomandibular joint pain dysfunction syndrome. pulp calcifications.

A. B. C. D. E.

upper lip. lower lip. tongue. buccal mucosa. soft palate.

Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?

The most likely diagnosis of a proliferative lesion found at a denture periphery is a/an

1. 2. 3. 4.

Enlargement. Bleeding. Ulceration. Atrophy.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

epulis granulomatosum. epulis fissuratum. giant cell granuloma. squamous cell carcinoma.

"Dens in dente" (dens invaginatus) is associated with

A draining fistula of short duration related to a tooth undergoing endodontic therapy requires

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

supernumerary teeth. dentinogenesis imperfecta. osteogenesis imperfecta. anterior teeth. amelogenesis imperfecta.

Geographic tongue is characterized by A. B. C. D.

congenital deformity of tissue. atrophic filiform papillae. association with scrotal tongue. predominance in elderly patients.

In fibrous dysplasia A. B. C. D.

foci of cartilage are a common histological finding. an inflammatory infiltrate is characteristically present. there are characteristic changes in the blood chemistry. a ground-glass appearance is present on radiographs.

The most frequent location of a dentigerous cyst is the A. B. C. D. E.

third molar area. symphysis of the mandible. midline of the hard palate. apical area of a devitalized tooth. premolar area.

Multiple supernumerary teeth are most commonly found in A. B. C. D. E.

cherubism. cretinism. hypothyroidism. cleidocranial dysplasia. Down's syndrome.

irrigation of canals. antibiotics. surgical excision. no special treatment.

Among the following, which may be associated with root resorption? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Excessive orthodontic forces. Periapical granuloma. Cementoma. Hypercementosis. Traumatic injury. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (5) (1) (2) (3) (5) All of the above.

The radicular or root-end cyst occurs as a result of A. B. C. D.

trauma. pulpal necrosis. hyperparathyroidism. poorly calcified bone.

Which of the following is/are associated with xerostomia? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Atropine administration. Acute anxiety state. Mikulicz's disease. Sjögren's syndrome.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The prolonged use of antibacterial lozenges or mouthwashes contributes to the development of A. B. C. D. E.

oral candidiasis. geographic tongue. cancrum oris. Koplik's spots. aphthous ulcers.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

Pain. Muscle tenderness. Limitation of jaw motion. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the joints. Radiographic changes of the joint.

A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. This history is suggestive of A. B. C. D. E.

The most logical explanation for causing swelling beneath the eye caused by an abscessed maxillary canine is that the A. B. C. D.

Ludwig's angina may cause A. B. C. D.

respiratory obstruction. cavernous sinus thrombosis. suppurative encephalitis. subdural empyema.

In radiography, a parallel technique or right angle technique as opposed to a bisecting angle technique will result in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

less gonadal radiation. greater entrance dosage. less dimensional distortion. a more heterogenous beam of X-rays. (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (3) All of the above.

gout. osteoarthritis. Still's disease. rheumatic fever. rheumatoid arthritis.

lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. bone is less porous superior to the root apex. infection has passed into the angular vein which has no valves. the root apex lies superior to the attachment of the caninus and levator labii superioris muscles.

The finding of “acid-fast” microorganisms in sputum suggests the presence of A. B. C. D.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Diplococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus pyogenes. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called A. B. C. D.

a fibroma. a keloid. a fibro-epithelial polyp. epithelial hyperplasia.

A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The lesion may be 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

a periapical granuloma. a periapical cyst. a chronic periapical abscess. the mental foramen. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The earliest radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is A. B. C. D. E.

hypercementosis. root resorption. alteration of the lamina dura. widening of the periodontal ligament space. ankylosis.

Which lesion(s) may appear radiographically as multilocular radiolucencies? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Ameloblastoma. Odontogenic myxoma. Primordial cyst. Keratocyst.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An acute periapical abscess must be associated with 1. 2. 3. 4.

pain. sensitivity to percussion. non-vital tooth. periapical radiolucency.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In radiography, minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by A. B. C. D.

minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). maximum OFD (object -film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance).

Which of the following conditions are associated with AIDS? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

Acute marginal periodontitis. Hairy leukoplakia. Candidiasis. Geographic tongue. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) and (4) All of the above.

Which of the following lesions has a tendency to bleed easily?

Pyogenic granuloma is most frequently found on the

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

Pyogenic granuloma. Osteoma. Fibroma. Papilloma. Lipoma.

White lesions of the oral mucosa may be produced by 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

thickening of the epithelium. increase of the keratinized layers. coagulation by heat or chemicals. mycotic infection. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Aphthous stomatitis 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

is considered to be an autoimmune condition. is more frequent in men than in women. may be related to the menstrual cycle. is rarely seen clinically with vesicle formation. is of three to four days duration. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5)

The most common site of intra-oral squamous cell carcinoma is the A. B. C. D.

palate. floor of the mouth. gingiva. buccal mucosa.

tongue. gingiva. buccal mucosa. tonsillar pillars. lips.

A biopsy specimen should 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

not be distorted by instruments. be fixed within 30 minutes after removal. be representative of the lesion. be obtained using electrosurgery. (1) only (1) and (4) (1) (2) (3) All of the above.

Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of A. B. C. D. E.

a ranula. a blockage of Wharton's duct. Ludwig's angina. a blockage of Stensen's duct. an epidemic parotitis.

An 80 year old man develops multiple painful skin vesicles along the distribution of the right infraorbital nerve. This is suggestive of A. B. C. D.

psoriasis. herpes zoster. pemphigus vulgaris. candidiasis (candidosis).

Which of the following anatomic spaces is most likely to be involved as a result of an apical infection of a mandibular third molar? A. B. C. D.

Sublingual. Submandibular. Submental. Submasseteric.

Which of the following is NOT a true cyst? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

(1) and (3) (1) and (4) (1) and (5) (2) and (5) (3) and (5) Dentigerous cyst. Odontogenic keratocyst. Traumatic bone cyst. Radicular cyst. Lateral periodontal cyst.

Multinucleated giant cells are associated with 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

plasmocytoma. odontogenic myxoma. hyperparathyroidism. tuberculosis. osteoclastoma. (1) (3) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (3) (4) (5) (2) (4) (5)

Which of the following is NEVER associated with an impacted tooth? A. B. C. D. E.

Adeno-ameloblastoma. Odontogenic myxoma. Pindborg's tumor. Primordial cyst. Ameloblastoma.

Chronically inflamed submandibular lymph nodes are

Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

soft. not palpable. firm. fixed.

Salivary glands. Teeth. Sweat glands. Hair. Fingernails.

Signs and symptoms of occlusal traumatism are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

pain. tooth mobility. radiographic evidence of increased periodontal space. loss of pulp vitality. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT associated with infectious mononucleosis? A. B. C. D. E.

Pharyngitis. Lymphadenopathy. Petechiae of the palate. Gingival enlargement. Fatigue.

The term "carcinoma in situ" implies that the lesion shows A. B. C. D.

metaplasia. early invasion of malignant cells through the basement membrane. dysplasia of cells confined within the epithelium. distant metastasis of a malignant tumour.

The redness of an inflammatory lesion of oral mucosa is due to A. B. C. D. E.

increased number of capillaries. increased size of capillaries. decreased thickness of epithelium. decreased connective tissue elements. All of the above.

An occluded submandibular duct can be diagnosed by A. B. C. D. E.

history. palpation. sialography. occlusal radiographs. All of the above.

A 2cm, discrete, white lesion of the buccal mucosa has not resolved after elimination of all local irritants. The most appropriate management would be to A. B. C. D. E.

cauterize it. apply toluidine blue staining. perform an incisional biopsy. re-examine at 6 month intervals. refer patient to family physician.

Exfoliative cytology is of value in the diagnosis of A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. aphthous ulceration. herpes simplex. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. erythema multiforme.

The most common clinical finding in the diagnosis of an acute periapical abscess is A. B. C. D. E.

mobility of the tooth. pain on percussion. discoloration of the crown. presence of a cellulitis. lymph node enlargement.

A patient presents with a 3.0 cm ulcerated lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. You would

Palpation gives information as to

A. B. C.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

D. E.

excise the entire lesion. do nothing until the ulcer heals. observe for 14 days to see if the ulcer heals. make a smear for cytologic examination. perform an incisional biopsy.

A. B. C. D. E.

induration. tenderness. size. fixation. mobility. (1) (3) (4) (2) and (5) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (4) (5) All of the above.

Which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration? A. B. C. D.

History of the oral lesion. Cytological smear. Systemic evaluation. Laboratory tests.

A healthy 38 year old has a 4mm in diameter, well defined radiolucency at the apex of tooth 4.1. The tooth has a normal response to vitality tests. The most appropriate management is A. B. C. D. E.

incision and drainage. extraction. observation. apicoectomy. open the tooth for drainage.

Typical history of a mucocele is A. B. C. D. E.

a slowly growing tumor mass. a pain immediately before eating. a trauma, swelling, rupture, disappearance, recurrence. an ulcerated area on buccal mucosa. frequent bleeding.

Which of the following can be characterized by a narrowing of pulp chambers and root canals? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Aging. Chronic trauma. Dentinal dysplasia. Taurodontism.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Percussion of a tooth is used to evaluate 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

ankylosis. mobility. pain. vitality. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. 2. 3. 4.

epistaxis. shortness of breath. exophthalmos. pitting edema of the ankles.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies of the jaws is A. B. C. D.

deformity. reduced vascularity. increased vascularity. increased brittleness.

Median palatine cysts are classified as A. B. C. D.

developmental. residual. idiopathic. odontogenic.

Resin bonding of composites to acid-etched enamel results in

Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of acute pulpitis?

A.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Spontaneous throbbing pain. Prolonged pain initiated by heat. Pain on percussion. Increased pain by cold.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B. C. D.

decreased polymerization shrinkage of the resin. decreased crack formation in the enamel. reduced microleakage. improved wear resistance of the composite.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. C. D. E.

amide. ester. aldehyde. ethamine. aminide.

A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that it(s) 1. 2. 3.

Management of a patient with an acute periapical abscess should include 1. 2. 3. 4.

elimination of the cause. drainage. supportive therapy. external hot compresses.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In Canada, it is ethical for a dentist to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of the A. B. C. D.

patient’s religious beliefs. patient’s physical handicap. patient’s infectious disease status. complexity of the required treatment.

4.

A. B. C. D. E.

gingival surface is concave and adapts closely to the ridge. has open gingival embrasures. conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. gingival surface is convex in all directions. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Zinc phosphate cement. Polycarboxylate cement. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement. Glass ionomer cement.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E.

A toxic reaction to lidocaine. A toxic reaction to epinephrine. An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic. Incipient syncope. An impending adrenal insufficiency.

Early signs and symptoms of localized alveolar osteitis (dry socket) include 1. 2. 3. 4.

bleeding. bad odour. pus formation. pain.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Immediately after the extraction of a tooth, which of the following would be CONTRAINDICATED? A. B. C. D. E.

Analgesics. Application of cold. Soft diet. Frequent rinsing of the socket. Rest.

The principles of closed fracture management are 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

incision at fracture site. reduction of fracture. debridement of fracture site. immobilization of fracture. restoration of occlusion. (1) (2) (5) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5) (2) (3) (5)

A patient dislocates his mandible for the first time. After reduction, you should A. B. C. D.

inject the joint with hydrocortisone. inject the joint with a sclerosing solution. have the patient exercise the mandible to avoid trismus. immobilize for ten days.

Which of the following will impede healing following the surgical closure of an oro-antral fistula? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Poor flap design. Excessive tissue tension. Blowing the nose. Sinus infection.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar may spread by direct extension to the

Displacement of fractures is influenced by

1. 2. 3. 4.

parapharyngeal space. submandibular space. pterygomandibular space. submental space.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? A. B. C. D.

Recurrent pericoronitis. Crowding of incisors. Pain. Resorption of the distal aspect of the second molar.

The most likely complication associated with the extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is A. B. C. D.

a dry socket. nerve damage. fracture of the malar ridge. fracture of the tuberosity.

The surgical risk for a patient with organic heart disease depends upon A. B. C. D. E.

cardiac reserve. blood pressure. respiration. pulse rate. cardiac output.

age. hemorrhage. direction of the blow. muscle attachments. direction of fracture line. (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Which of the following may be associated with a fracture of the mandible? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Diplopia. Malocclusion. Swelling of the orbit. Pain. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a A. B. C. D. E.

fracture of the zygomatic arch. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. cranio-facial dysjunction.

A patient presenting with diplopia, exophthalmos, nasal bleeding and swelling, may suffer from a fracture of the A. B. C. D.

neck of the condyle. body of the mandible. zygomatic bone. maxillary tuberosity.

Bacterial infection may be confirmed by 1. 2. 3. 4.

white blood cell count. hemoglobin level. erythrocyte sedimentation rate. platelet count.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Preoperative evaluation of a healthy patient requiring elective oral surgery in hospital should include 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

a complete history. a physical examination. an oral examination. appropriate radiographic examination. appropriate laboratory tests. (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

A physical sign of impending syncope is A. B. C. D.

pallor. elevation of blood pressure. fast pulse. All of the above.

In an acute upper airway obstruction, the entry to the airway on an emergency basis should be made at the A. B. C. D. E.

cricoid cartilage. thyroid notch. thyroid membrane. cricothyroid membrane. first tracheal ring.

For an acute bacterial infection, the most valuable laboratory test(s) is/are the 1. 2. 3. 4.

hemoglobin level. white blood cell count. red blood cell count. culture and sensitivity test.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In a patient with liver disease, a possible complication is Fractures of the maxilla can best be diagnosed by 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

occlusal radiographs. clinical examination. lateral jaw radiographs. evidence of periorbital edema. anteroposterior radiograph of the skull.

A. B. C. D.

syncope or shock. postoperative infection. prolonged bleeding. allergic reaction to the anesthetic solution.

Ludwig's angina may cause death by A. B. C. D. E.

(1) and (4) (2) and (5) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

heart failure. asphyxia. convulsions. paralysis of muscles of respiration. pyemia.

A periapical granuloma is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

radiolucent. painless. neoplastic. inflammatory. (1) and (3) (1) (2) (4) (3) and (4) All of the above.

Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

is 4 months pregnant. has a Factor~VIII deficiency. has a cavernous hemangioma adjacent to the tooth. is hypothyroid. had a myocardial infarct two months ago. (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (1) (3) (5)

It is difficult to obtain satisfactory anesthesia in the presence of infection near the injection site because A. B. C. D.

the swelling causes increased pressure on the nerves. increased blood supply carries the anesthetic solution away too fast. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent. alkalinity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent.

Which of the following is best removed by curettage? A. B. C. D. E.

Ameloblastoma. Pleomorphic adenoma. Central giant cell granuloma. Squamous cell carcinoma. Cylindroma.

An accidental injection of diazepam into an artery instead of a vein may cause A. B. C. D. E.

pain on vessel puncture. bright red blood on aspiration. severe pain in the limb extremities. gangrene of the limb. All of the above.

Loss of sensation over the distribution of the inferior dental nerve is a possible complication from 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

removal of an impacted mandibular third molar tooth. removal of a torus mandibularis. an acute osteomyelitis of the mandible. an uncomplicated removal of a mandibular second molar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is directly involved in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin? A. B. C. D. E.

Sodium. Calcium. Fluoride. Potassium. Bicarbonate.

The major stimulator of respiration is A. B. C. D.

low blood pressure. high percentage of blood oxygen. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.

The majority of nitrous oxide is eliminated from a patient's circulatory system through the In a safe general anesthetic mixture, the MINIMALLY acceptable percentage of oxygen is A. B. C. D. E.

5 percent. 10 percent. 20 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

A. B. C. D. E.

lungs. kidneys. liver enzymes. plasma enzymes. intestinal gas.

Patient nausea during nitrous oxide administration is an indication that the patient A patient is premedicated prior to general anaesthesia in order to 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

lessen metabolic activity. depress reflex irritability. control excess salivation. avoid haemorrhage. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen during administration of A. B. C. D.

thiopental. halothane. ethyl ether. nitrous oxide.

A. B. C. D.

is nervous. has not eaten for some time. is allergic to nitrous oxide. has received the nitrous oxide too quickly.

Which of the following nerves are anesthetized by an infraorbital nerve block? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Zygomatico-temporal. Palpebral. Zygomatico-facial. Lateral nasal. Labial. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5)

Needle deflection increases as A. B. C. D.

depth of injection increases. needle length increases. needle gauge increases. All of the above.

Increased bleeding is associated with a prolonged administration of 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Warfarin (Coumadin). codeine. acetylsalicylic acid. acetaminophen. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most common complication of a venipuncture is A. B. C. D.

syncope. hematoma. thrombophlebitis. embolus.

Adrenal corticosteroids 1. 2. 3. 4.

cause diabetes. cause retention of sodium and fluid. heighten the immune response. decrease the immune response.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

digitalis. lidocaine. procainamide. aminophylline.

Tetracyclines Antihistamines act by A. B. C. D.

increasing the action of histaminase. altering the formation of histamine. blocking the actions of histamine by competitive inhibition. interfering with the degradation of histamine.

Which of the following is used in the management of a patient with grand mal seizures? A. B. C. D.

Amobarbital. Secobarbital. Pentobarbital. Phenobarbital.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

have no side effects. may increase susceptibility to superinfections. are safe to use during pregnancy. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following drugs has/have antisialagogue properties? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Codeine. Atropine. Acetylsalicylic acid. Methantheline.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Trismus is most frequently caused by A. B. C. D.

Which of the following statements are correct? 1. 2. 3.

A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

epistaxis. shortness of breath. rhinophyma. pitting edema of the ankles. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which valve is most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease? A. B. C. D.

Aortic. Pulmonary. Tricuspid. Mitral.

tetanus. muscular dystrophy. infection. mandibular fracture.

4.

A. B. C. D.

Narcotic and non-narcotic analgesics are equipotent. Non-narcotic analgesics do not alter consciousness. Non-narcotic analgesics are safer and less toxic. Non-narcotic analgesics produce less side effects. (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (3) and (4) All of the above.

Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses 1. 2. 3. 4.

retards platelet function. has strong anti-inflammatory properties. produces CNS stimulation. has antipyretic properties.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is

Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

greater resistance to penicillinase. broader antibacterial spectrum. greater absorption when given orally. slower renal excretion. None of the above.

liver. kidneys. small intestine. pancreas. spleen.

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) may be characterized by

A major clinical problem of penicillin therapy is its

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

candidiasis. rapid weight loss and night sweats. extreme malaise, fever or chills. a smooth and red tongue. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. B. C. D.

amide. ester. aldehyde. acid.

high toxicity. allergenicity. rapid development of tolerance. narrow spectrum of activity. induction of nephritis.

Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of induction during inhalation anesthesia? A. B. C. D. E.

Pulmonary ventilation. Blood supply to the lungs. Hemoglobin content of the blood. Concentration of the anesthetic in the inspired mixture. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.

Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur During drug-receptor interaction, local anesthetics interfere with the transport of which of the following ions?

1. 2.

A. B. C. D. E.

Sodium. Calcium. Chloride. Potassium. Magnesium.

All of the following are possible effects of acetylsalicylic acid except A. B. C. D.

reduction of fever. shortening of bleeding time. suppression of inflammatory response. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract.

3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

when the drug is administered parenterally. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. within minutes after drug administration. when the drug is administered orally. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following statements isçare true regarding acetylcholine?

Tetracycline will cause crown discolouration when prescribed at the age of

1.

1. 2. 3. 4.

6 months in utero. 2 years. 7 years. 14 years.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

It is the neurotransmitter at both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia. It is rapidly hydrolysed in the body by cholinesterase. It can produce both muscarinic and nicotinic actions. It is the drug of choice as an antidote in atropine poisoning. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Corticosteroids may be used for the management of A. B. C. D. E.

allergy. arthritis. asthma. Addison's disease. All of the above.

Which of the following complications might occur after administration of a local anesthetic agent? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Convulsions. Nausea. Respiratory depression. Cardiovascular collapse. (1) and (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) All of the above.

When used ALONE, which of the following agents will not produce satisfactory anesthesia? Unconsciousness in syncope results from A. B. C. D.

Chloroform. Cyclopropane. Nitrous oxide. Fluothane.

Which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious dental patient with a peptic ulcer? A. B. C. D. E.

Reserpine. Scopolamine. Silica gel. Diazepam. Calcium carbonate.

A. B. C. D.

electrolyte imbalance. neurogenic shock. cerebral hyperemia. cerebral hypoxia.

The most effective drug for relief of angina pectoris is A. B. C. D. E.

morphine. digitalis. quinidine. nitroglycerine. pentobarbital sodium.

The appearance of a rash, itching, bronchoconstriction and fever after the administration of a drug are the result of A. B. C. D.

allergy. tolerance. idiosyncrasy. teratogenicity.

Diazepam (valium) 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

is a benzodiazepine. is contraindicated in a patient with glaucoma. is anxiolytic. produces muscle relaxation when given orally. (1) (3) (4) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Prolonged use of nitrous oxide has been shown to produce 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2.

4.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

that the patient be supine. that the patient have no food or drink for four hours previously. that the patient possess an electrocardiogram. that emergency drugs are available. that oxygen is available. (1) (2) (5) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (5) All of the above.

(1) (2) (3) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (5) None of the above.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding diazepam?

3.

For either nitrous oxide analgesia or intravenous sedation using diazepam (Valium) in a healthy adult patient, you would require

abortions in females. cancer in occupationally exposed females. liver disease in occupationally exposed males. birth defects in exposed females. suppression of white blood cells.

A. B. C. D. E.

Its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites. It does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration. Intravenous administration is more reliable than oral. Its sedative effect can be reversed by naloxone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local anesthesia A. B. C. D.

affects blood pressure more than general anesthesia. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. is responsible for bacteremia. None of the above.

The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. B. C. D.

sodium. fluoride. potassium. magnesium.

In a standard dental cartridge (carpule) containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of vasoconstrictor is A. B. C. D. E.

18.0 mg. 0.018 mg. 1.8 mg. 0.18 mg. 180.0 mg.

Which of the following can be mistaken on a radiograph for a chronic alveolar abscess? A. B. C. D.

Mental foramen. Cementoma in its early stages. Posterior palatine foramen. All of the above.

The mode of action of the sulfonamides upon susceptible bacteria is by A. B.

Displacement of mandibular fractures is dependent upon

C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

direction of fracture line. proprioceptor nerve action. muscle pull. tooth in line of fracture. direction of blow. (1) and (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) All of the above.

Which of the following is the most important factor in the preoperative evaluation of a patient? A. B. C. D.

Medical history. Laboratory data. Electrocardiogram. Pulse and blood pressure.

inhibiting the biosynthesis of paminobenzoic acid. competing for nutrients in the tissue environment of the microorganisms. interfering with the synthesis of cell wall protein. interfering with the synthesis of folic acid.

Which of the following drugs is most addictive? A. B. C. D. E.

Meperidine. Hydromorphone HCl. Morphine sulfate. Oxycodone. Codeine.

Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical procedure used to A. B. C. D.

facilitate reliable impression making. provide adequate posterior inter-arch space. allow placement of teeth over the residual ridge. increase the supporting surface area

An immediate toxic reaction to a local anesthetic administration is A. B. C. D.

deterioration of the anesthetic agent. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor. hypersensitivity to the anesthetic agent. excessive blood level of the anesthetic agent.

The use of aspirating syringes for the administration of local anesthetics is recommended because 1. 2. 3.

4.

A. B. C. D.

the effectiveness of local anesthesia is increased. aspiration of blood is proof that the needle is in an intravascular location. their use removes the hazard of rapid injection and provides a distinct saving of time. their use reduces the frequency of accidental intravenous injection. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine) 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

is a local anesthetic agent. has topical anesthetic properties. is an antiarrhythmic agent. has anticonvulsant properties. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral incisor? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Nasociliary. Nasopalatine. Sphenopalatine. Anterior superior alveolar. (1) and (2) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) and (4) (3) and (4)

In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which muscle is penetrated by the needle?

Which of the following is the strongest stimulus to respiration?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

Buccinator. Mylohyoid. Superior constrictor. Masseter. Medial (internal) pterygoid.

Decrease in arterial pH. Increase in arterial oxygen. Decrease in arterial oxygen. Increase in arterial carbon dioxide. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide.

A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli, and his respirations are depressed to 10 per minute. Appropriate treatment is to A. B. C. D.

administer ephedrine. observe the patient. force the patient to drink coffee. support respiration with oxygen.

An infected root is accidentally displaced into the maxillary sinus. Examination of the socket reveals perforation of the sinus lining with an oro-antral communication. Therapy should consist of

Early anoxia is characterized by

1. 2.

A. B. C. D.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

antrostomy for retrieval of root. closure of oro-antral communication and antibiotic coverage. antibiotic coverage and observation. acrylic template to cover socket opening and saline rinses. (1) only (3) only (4) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3)

1. 2. 3.

cyanosis. bradycardia. tachycardia (1) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) All of the above.

In the treatment of an acute anaphylactic reaction, the first drug that should be administered is A. B. C. D.

hydroxyzine. epinephrine. hydrocortisone. diphenhydramine.

With respect to local anaesthetics, which of the following statements isçare correct? A. B. C. D. E.

Certain nerve fibers are more susceptible. In mixed nerves, sensory fibers are more susceptible. Anaesthetics are marketed as watersoluble acid salts. They are capable of blocking every type of nerve tissue. All of the above.

The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is A. B. C. D.

oxidation. reduction. hydroxylation and oxidation. sequestration in the body fats.

When performing a frenoplasty, a minimal amount of anesthetic solution is used to prevent A. B. C. D.

distortion of the tissues. sloughing. rebound bleeding. irritation.

In achieving hemostasis, external cold application produces A. B. C. D.

positive chemotaxis. a transient vasoconstriction. increased vascular permeability. accelerated healing.

Bilateral dislocated fractures of the mandibular condyles result in 1. 2. 3. 4.

anterior open bite. anesthesia of the mental nerves. inability to protrude the mandible. inability to bring the molars into contact.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are contraindication(s) for a single tooth extraction in your office? 1.

4.

The patient is severely hyperthyroid and not under treatment. The patient is a well-controlled diabetic. The tooth is hypermobile in an area of cavernous hemangioma. The tooth has internal root resorption.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. 3.

Which of the following lower(s) the body temperature increased by bacterial pyrogens? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Acetaminophen. Bradykinin. Acetylsalicylic acid. Codeine. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A significant mechanism by which acetylsalicylic acid produces its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect is An acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A. B. C. D.

submandibular space. pterygomandibular space. buccal vestibule. buccal space.

During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should A. B. C. D.

remove both and suture. leave both and stabilize, if possible. remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture.

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, the alternative antibiotic would be A. B. C. D. E.

ampicillin. aureomycin. erythromycin. declomycin. streptomycin.

A. B. C. D. E.

antagonism of histamine. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. local anesthetic effect on pain fibres. release of adrenal steroids from the adrenal cortex. synaptic inhibition in the dorsal column.

When sutures are used to reposition tissue over extraction sites, they should be 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

placed over firm bone where possible. interrupted, 15mm apart. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps without blanching. tight enough to produce immediate hemostasis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following will allay or minimize the emotional factors which may predispose to syncope? A. B. C. D. E.

Secobarbital. Diazepam. Phenobarbital. All of the above. None of the above.

Nitrous oxide 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

provides good muscle relaxation. is non-explosive and non-flammable. is a potent anesthetic. provides rapid induction and recovery. (1) (2) (3) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A sedative drug should A. B. C. D.

cause excitement. eliminate all sensation. produce unconsciousness. produce a mild state of central nervous system depression.

Oral flurazepam is superior to oral diazepam as A. B. C. D. E.

a sedative. a tranquilizer. a hypnotic. a muscle relaxant. an amnesic.

Use of nitrous oxide analgesia produces tinnitus as a result of A. B. C. D. E.

The position of a needle in the lumen of a vein is confirmed by A. B.

Tranquilizers and hypnotics A. B. C. D.

are depressants of the respiratory centre. are depressants of the cortex. may cause physical dependency. All of the above.

Which of the following drugs potentiates the action of sedative drugs? A. B. C. D. E.

Digitalis. Phenothiazine. Propranolol. Methyldopa. Spironolactone.

central nervous system reaction. peripheral action on the eardrum. increased pressure in the middle ear. cochlea effect. dysphoria.

C. D.

the color of the blood upon aspiration. rapidity of filling of the syringe upon aspiration. pain associated with vessel puncture. None of the above.

What is the maximum number of cartridges (1.8ml) of a 2 local anesthetic solution that can be administered without exceeding a total dose of 300mg? A. B. C. D. E.

2 4 6 8 10

Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril) is used to treat 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

hypertension. angina pectoris. atrial fibrillation. ventricular fibrillation. congestive heart failure. (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) (1) and (5)

Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a local anaesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. C. D. E.

amide. ester. aldehyde. ethamine. aminide.

After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection, a patient would develop seventh nerve paralysis if the injection was made into the A. B. C. D. E.

internal maxillary artery. retroparotid space. internal pterygoid muscle. retromandibular vein. pterygoid plexus of veins.

A 6-year old child presents with a non-vital mandibular deciduous second molar which has a draining fistula in the bifurcation area. Your treatment of choice is A. B. C. D.

extraction. observation. pulpotomy. direct pulp capping.

An 8-year old boy has lost tooth 11. The lateral incisors have partially erupted. You would expect that tooth 12 will erupt Cardiovascular collapse caused by a high circulating dose of a local anesthetic is due to A. B. C. D.

vagal stimulation. histamine release. myocardial depression. medullary stimulation.

Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for the removal of a maxillary first molar? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Greater palatine. Naso palatine. Middle superior alveolar. Anterior superior alveolar. Posterior superior alveolar. (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (5) (2) (4) (5)

A. B. C. D.

without encroaching upon the space. encroaching upon the central incisor space. and the left central incisor will encroach upon the space. B. and C.

During normal growth, the gnathion, as viewed on successive cephalograms, will move A. B. C. D.

downward and backward. downward and forward. backward and upward. forward only.

The cells responsible for root resorption are A. B. C. D.

fibroblasts. cementoblasts. osteoblasts. osteoclasts.

In primary molars, radiographic bony changes from an infection are initially seen

The eruption of a permanent central incisor may be delayed by

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

at the apices. in the furcation area. at the alveolar crest. at the base of the developing tooth.

a supernumerary tooth. dense fibrous tissue. a retained deciduous incisor. All of the above.

Localized gingival recession of a mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year old can be caused by

The highest incidence of congenitally missing lateral incisors is most likely seen in a patient with

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D. E.

vitamin C deficiency. ankyloglossia. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis. traumatic occlusion. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).

After pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8-year old child, the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are: 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

completion of root formation. retained natural colour of the tooth. secondary dentin bridge formation. formation of pulp stones. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

unilateral cleft lip and palate. congenital heart disease. Down's syndrome. hyperthyroidism.

To minimize fractures of amalgam restorations in deciduous teeth, cavity preparations should have 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D.

concave pulpal floors. rounded axiopulpal line angles. rounded proximal retention grooves. lateral walls parallel to the external surface of the tooth. (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

Secondary dentin will develop An ankylosed deciduous molar can cause A. B. C. D.

delayed eruption of the succeeding premolar. alteration of arch length. difficulty with extraction. All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

if the teeth become abraded. if cavities develop. following fractures. due to chemical irritation. All of the above.

Under what circumstances would you consider leaving root tips in the socket of a primary tooth? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

No infection in the area. Root tip size less than 2mm. Would not interfere with ensuing restorative procedures. Would not interfere with development or eruption of succedaneous teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In cephalometry, the most stable point in a growing skull is the A. B. C. D.

Which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors? 1. 2.

A radiographic examination of a 10 year old child reveals retention of deciduous teeth and presence of many unerupted supernumerary teeth. This is characteristic of A. B. C. D.

cleidocranial dysplasia. ectodermal dysplasia. dentinogenesis imperfecta. congenital hypothyroidism.

sella turcica. nasion. Broadbent's point. Bolton point.

3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

An 8-year old with no abnormal oral habits. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral habits. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet. An 8-year old with a previous thumb habit. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The radiographic appearance of internal resorption is Ankylosed deciduous teeth may be recognized by their A. B. C. D. E.

percussion sensitivity. discolouration. crown shape. buccolingual displacement. infra-occlusal position.

Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal A. B. C. D. E.

radiolucency of the bifurcation. normal radiographic appearance. periapical bone rarefaction. altered periodontal ligament space. internal resorption.

A. B. C. D. E.

radiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity. radiolucency around the apex of the root. radiolucency on the surfaces of the root. localized radiopacities in the pulp cavity. radiopacity around the apex of the root.

The most appropriate treatment for a child with a primary tooth that caused a severe, throbbing toothache the previous night is A. B. C. D. E.

analgesics. antibiotic therapy. removal of caries and placement of a sedative restoration. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. extraction of the tooth.

In the examination of the child patient, normal gingiva is diagnosed on the basis of

An endomorph is characterized as a person who

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

contour. stippling. sulcus depth. color of Nasmyth's membrane. tight fitting gingival collar. (1) (2) (3) (5) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) and (3) (2) (3) (4) (3) and (5)

If there is insufficient arch space for a permanent tooth to erupt, the tooth may A.

The intrusion of a permanent central incisor can cause 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

laceration of the periodontal membrane. loss of pulp vitality. ankylosis. root resorption. discoloration of the tooth. (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (5) (2) (4) (5) All of the above. None of the above.

is short and fat. is tall and thin. is muscular. matures early. matures late.

B. C. D.

cause resorption of the root of another tooth. erupt out of position. not erupt. All of the above.

In a normal eruption pattern, the last primary tooth to be lost is the A. B. C. D. E.

maxillary canine. mandibular canine. maxillary first molar. mandibular second molar. maxillary second molar.

Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age?

Following very early loss of a primary tooth, the eruption time of the permanent successor could be

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

8 years. 10 years. 12 years. Later than 12 years.

unaltered. accelerated. delayed. None of the above.

The developing permanent tooth

Cleidocranial dysostosis is distinguished by

A.

A. B. C. D. E.

B. C. D.

lies apically and lingually to primary teeth in the anterior region. may show deviated eruption times if the primary tooth is lost prematurely. has a more protrusive path of eruption in the anterior region. All of the above.

usually shortened skull. delayed suture closure. persistence of deciduous teeth. clavicles absent or maldeveloped. All of the above.

In a normally developing occlusion, spaces between deciduous or permanent incisors are called A. B. C. D.

physiological spaces. primate spaces. leeway spaces. freeway spaces.

A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9 year old should A. B. C. D. E.

self-correct. be treated with a removable appliance. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment. be treated in the complete permanent dentition. be observed and treated when the cuspids have erupted.

The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include the 1. 2. 3. 4.

frontomaxillary suture. zygomaticomaxillary suture. pterygopalatine suture. median palatine suture.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

If a patient loses a maxillary first permanent molar before the age of 10 the A. B. C. D.

premolar drifts distally. maxillary second molar erupts and moves forward. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. overbite increases.

The Frankfort plane Mandibular growth A. B. C. D.

is sustained over a longer period of time in girls. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys. occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls.

1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D.

extends from the Porion to the Orbitale. is parallel with the maxillary plane. describes the cranial base dimensions. (1) only (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (l) and (2)

The facial profile associated with a Class III malocclusion is Hypothyroidism affects the dental developmental pattern by A. B. C. D.

interfering with jaw growth. delaying the eruption timetable. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. accelerating the eruption timetable.

A. B. C. D.

concave. convex. either concave or convex. straight.

An 11-year old child has an open bite caused by active thumbsucking. You would

As the mandible grows downward and forward, bone deposition takes place

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D. E.

D.

insert a habit-breaking appliance. refer to a psychologist for evaluation. encourage the child to accept help in discontinuing the habit and observe periodically. refer to an orthodontist.

on all surfaces of the mandible. on the posterior border of the ramus. on the anterior border of the ramus. on the alveolar margins. B. and D.

Cartilage grows by A space maintainer in the posterior segment will: A. B. C. D.

prevent extrusion of opposing teeth. prevent the eruption of the permanent teeth. retard eruption of the permanent teeth. maintain arch length.

A. B. C. D.

interstitial growth. appositional growth. both appositional and interstitial growth. None of the above.

Bone elements (Wolff's law of bone) will A. Occipital and/or cervical extra-oral anchorage is used to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

restrict anterior tooth movement. enhance maxillary forward growth. enhance mandibular forward growth. encourage anterior tooth movement. restrict maxillary forward growth. (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (3) and (5) (1) and (5) (2) and (3)

B. C. D.

The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors 1.

3. 4.

sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed. may remain for years with no significant resorption. may remain for years partially resorbed. are always resorbed.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

The roots of the first permanent molar should be completely formed by the age of A. B. C. D. E.

six years. seven years. nine years. eleven years. thirteen years.

rearrange themselves in the direction of functional pressures. increase their mass to reflect functional stress. decrease their mass to reflect functional stress. All of the above.

The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is A. B. C. D. E.

genetic. epigenetic. environmental. functional. A. and D.

Gigantism is caused by A. B. C. D. E.

a hyperactive thyroid. atrophy of the posterior pituitary. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary. hyperplasia of the parathyroids. None of the above.

Maxillary midline diastema can be caused by A patient who is jaundiced because of liver disease has an increased risk of 1. 2. 3. 4.

postextraction bleeding. cardiac arrest. postoperative infection. anaphylactic shock.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

a mesiodens. congenitally missing lateral incisors. a tongue thrust habit. a thumb-sucking habit.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling In patients with an Angle Class I malocclusion, arch length in the mandible changes between 5 and 18 years of age. It usually

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

increases 0-1mm. increases 3-4mm. decreases 0-1mm. decreases 3-4mm.

through the primary dentition. until the end of mixed dentition. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth. throughout life.

In a patient who has prematurely lost deciduous molars, you would establish the Angle classification by Which of the following factors is(are) related to a malocclusion caused by thumbsucking? A. B. C. D.

Duration. Frequency. Intensity. All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

profile. molar relation. canine relation. incisor relation. midline relation.

In an otherwise acceptable occlusion, an impacted maxillary canine A. B. C. D. E.

could be extracted. could be retained and the first premolar removed to allow the canine to erupt. could be surgically exposed to speed its eruption. constitutes a problem requiring consultation with an orthodontist. All of the above.

Primary herpetic lesions of the oral cavity are MOST LIKELY to occur during A. B. C. D.

1 to 5 years. 6 to 12 years. 13 to 16 years. Any age.

During orthodontic treatment, poor oral hygiene may result in 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

marginal gingivitis. gingival fibrosis. ulcerative gingivitis. acute periodontitis. juvenile periodontitis.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (1) (3) (5) All of the above.

The term "dental age" refers to the A. B. C. D.

state of dental maturation. eruption time of a given tooth. number of years elapsed since a given tooth erupted. None of the above.

A 3 year old requires the extraction of a deciduous maxillary second molar. The local anesthetic technique of choice is A. B. C. D.

a posterior superior alveolar block. buccal and palatal infiltration. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal infiltration of the mesio-buccal root. an infra-orbital block.

The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called A. B. C. D.

remodeling. cortical drift. area relocation. translatory growth.

The cause of a cleft lip is failure of the union of the A. B. C. D. E.

maxillary processes. maxillary and lateral nasal processes. palatine processes. All of the above. None of the above.

A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely due to a/an The most frequent cause of malocclusion is A. B. C. D. E.

dietary deficiency. endocrine deficiency. tetracycline therapy. trauma to the maxillary primary central incisor. high fluoride intake.

A. B. C. D.

thumbsucking. mouth breathing. heredity. ectopic eruption.

A diastema between two maxillary central permanent incisors could be

The maxillary incisors in Angle's Class II, Division 2 malocclusion are in

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

C. D.

normal. associated with the absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors. associated with a large labial frenum. All of the above.

linguoversion. labioversion. infraversion. supreversion.

Orthodontic tooth movement in an adolescent is easier than an adult because of

The eruption of which of the following permanent teeth signals the beginning of the mixed dentition stage?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

differences in tissue/bone reaction. differences in growth. differences in cooperation. all of the above.

Maxillary central incisor. Maxillary canine. Mandibular first molar. Mandibular central incisor.

Labioversion of maxillary incisor teeth is associated with

The interocclusal relationship of the primary second molars

A. B. C.

1.

D.

thumbsucking. spaced maxillary incisor teeth. lack of normal tonicity of the labial musculature. All of the above.

Premature loss of mandibular deciduous cuspids in Class I and Class II cases results in increased 1. 2. 3. 4.

overjet. arch width. overbite. leeway space.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. 3. 4.

does not affect the resultant permanent molar relationship. is normal if there is a flush terminal plane. determines the amount of leeway space. may aid in the prediction of permanent tooth malocclusion.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

Discomfort during orthodontic therapy could be a result of A. B. C. D.

a low pain threshold. poorly adjusted appliances. heavy forces. All of the above.

The radiologic change most suggestive of multiple myeloma is A. B. C. D.

multiple radiolucent lesions. multiple radiopaque lesions. diffuse “ground glass” appearance. generalized hypercementosis.

The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove 1. 2. 3. 4.

plaque. calculus. crevicular epithelium. contaminated cementum.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are essential when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration? 1. 2. 3. 4.

a larger diameter condenser. an anatomical wedge. decreased condensing pressure. a dead soft matrix band.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Highly filled, hybrid, posterior composite resins are CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. 2. 3. 4.

cusp replacement. bruxism. lack of enamel at the gingival cavo-surface margin. inability to maintain a dry operating field.

A facebow is used to record the 1. 2. 3. 4.

vertical dimension of occlusion. inter-occlusal relationship. horizontal condylar inclination. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 7 year old presents having just lost a maxillary permanent central incisor due to trauma. The tooth cannot be found. The treatment of choice is to 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

order a chest x-ray. place an implant. maintain space with a removable appliance. observe and measure the space for 6 months. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following fibre groups are attached to bone? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Apical. Oblique. Alveolar crest. Circular.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

Maintenance care for a patient treated for periodontal disease includes periodic assessment of 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

tooth mobility. gingival sulcus depth. signs of gingival inflammation. oral hygiene status. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In health, attached gingiva A. B. C. D. E.

is bound firmly by the periosteum to the alveolar bone. is attached by collagen fibres to the cementum. displays varying degrees of stippling. has a keratinized surface. All of the above.

Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. B. C.

D.

Stippling in healthy gingiva varies with location. Healthy gingiva does not bleed. The interdental papillae in the posterior regions are broader than in the anterior region. Healthy gingiva is bright red in color.

The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone A.

B. C. D. E.

is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone. does not contain elastic fibres. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium.

When performing a functional analysis of occlusion, the mandible may be observed to exhibit a shift from centric relation to centric occlusion in all but one of the following directions: A. B. C. D.

forward. backward. upward. lateral.

The Green Vermillion Index measures A. B. C. D.

periodontal disease. oral hygiene. bone level. periodontal pockets.

After tooth eruption, which of the following materials gradually decreases in concentration from the enamel surface ? A. B. C. D. E.

Carbonate. Protein. Fluoride. Calcium. Chloride.

Epidemiology of disease is best described as the A. B. C. D.

data obtained from sickness surveys. usual low level of disease normally found within a population. control of disease. study of disease patterns in a population.

Which of the following foods is the most cariogenic?

Which of the following oral diseases are largely preventable through lifestyle adjustments?

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Dental caries. Periodontal disease. Oral malignancies. Cleft lip and palate.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Cheese. Dark chocolate. Jam. Toffee.

The fluoride ion 1. 2. 3. 4.

is excreted rapidly by the kidney. passes the placental barrier. is deposited in teeth. is deposited in bone.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by A. B. C. D.

gram-positive organisms. gram-negative organisms. diplococcal organisms. spirochetes.

In chewing, maximum contact between teeth occurs in the position of

The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

vascularity of the gingiva. epithelial keratinization. thickness of the epithelium. melanin pigmentation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

habitual occlusion. lateral excursion on the non-working side. protrusive excursion. All of the above

In health, the crest of the alveolar bone, as seen in a radiograph, is situated 1~to~2mm apical to the cemento-enamel junction. .sp 1 Radiographically, the normal alveolar crest should parallel an imaginary line drawn between the cemento-enamel junction of adjacent teeth. A. B. C. D.

The first statement is true, the second is false. The first statement is false, the second is true. Both statements are true. Both statements are false.

Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque? A. B. C. D. E.

Histopathologic alterations associated with the pathogenesis of periodontal disease include A.

Which of the following cells suggests that an immunologic response to plaque in the sulcus occurs in chronic inflammatory periodontal disease? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Mast cells. Macrophages. Plasma cells. Neutrophils. Lymphocytes. (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (5) (3) and (4) (3) and (5)

Plasma cells and monocytes. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Macrophages. Lymphocytes. Mast cells.

B. C. D.

inflammatory exudate that can involve neutrophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells. proliferative and degenerative changes of the epithelium. collagen destruction subjacent to the junctional epithelium. All of the above.

Mobility of teeth WITHOUT loss of bone support suggests A. B. C. D.

a primary traumatic occlusion. a secondary traumatic occlusion. an atrophic condition of the periodontium. A. and C.

Acquired pellicle

Trauma from occlusion

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

is composed of salivary glycoproteins. takes 24 hours to establish. is difficult to remove. causes inflammation.

initiates marginal gingivitis. affects the blood supply to gingivae. initiates periodontitis. All of the above.

In the analysis of occlusion, which of the following is potentially damaging?

Which of the following contains microorganisms?

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D. E.

D. E.

Marginal ridge discrepancies. Extruded teeth. Wide occlusal tables resulting from excessive wear. Deep overbite with minimal overjet. All of the above.

Elimination or reduction of periodontal pockets will occur by planing and curettage alone if the patient's periodontal condition includes A. B. C. D.

hyperemic and edematous gingival tissue. gingival hyperplasia due to Dilantin therapy. chronic periodontal pockets. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

The essential cause of chronic gingivitis is A. B. C. D. E.

a faulty restoration. ascorbic acid deficiency. dental calculus. occlusal trauma. dental plaque.

The most common form of periodontal disease is A. B. C. D. E.

gingivitis. periodontitis. gingival hyperplasia. juvenile periodontitis. periodontal disease atrophy.

Which of the following factors may affect probing depth measurements of a periodontal pocket? A. B. C. D.

Probing force. Probe type. Angulation of probing. All of the above.

Acquired pellicle. Calculus. Dental plaque. B. and C. All of the above.

A furcation involvement in which bone loss allows the probe to extend completely through the furcation is classified as A. B. C. D. E.

incipient. Class I. Class II. Class III. chronic.

After periodontal surgery, sensitivity to thermal change is reduced by 1. 2. 3. 4.

replaning the roots. keeping the roots free of bacterial plaque. adjusting the occlusion. desensitizing the roots with an appropriate medicament.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

A gingivectomy may be performed when there is/are A. B. C. D. E.

horizontal bone loss. no intrabony defects. an adequate zone of attached gingiva. a gingival pocket. All of the above.

If a periodontal probe is inserted 4 or 5mm to the base of a pocket on the mesial-buccal of a tooth and then pushed facially causing blanching, this indicates that A. B. C. D.

gingival hyperplasia exists. there is an inadequate zone of attached gingiva. the lateral wall of the pocket does not consist of bone. None of the above.

In periodontal flap surgery, the design of the incision is influenced by the A. B. C. D. E.

frenum attachment. depth of the vestibule. amount of attached gingiva. presence of infrabony defects. All of the above.

INITIAL treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis includes 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

debridement. oral hygiene instruction. occlusal adjustment. gingivoplasty. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4)

Root planing is used in the treatment of pockets which are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

(1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) All of the above.

Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is A. B. C. D. E.

fibroedematous. edematous. fibrotic. formed within an infrabony pocket. associated with exudate formation.

Antibiotic coverage should be provided when performing subgingival curettage for patients with A. B. C. D.

myocardial infarction. dental implants. valvular heart disease. coronary artery disease.

As gingival inflammation progresses to marginal periodontitis, the associated changes are:

Occlusal (night) guards are used to

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C.

treat bruxism. reduce pocket formation. prevent pulpitis. permit eruption or elongation of teeth.

edematous. fibrotic. below the mucogingival junction. infrabony.

D. E.

Apical migration and disintegration of the epithelial attachment. Resorption of the alveolar crest. Destruction of the alveolar crest and periodontal ligament fibres. All of the above. None of the above.

During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in

In the development of gingivitis, the fibre groups first lost are

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

peg-shaped teeth. partial anodontia (hypodontia). Hutchinson's incisors. enamel hypoplasia. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

oblique. horizontal. transeptal. free gingival.

The color of gingiva is influenced by Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in A. B. C. D. E.

abnormal formation of osteoid. osteitis fibrosa cystica. Paget's disease. myositis ossificans. osteogenesis imperfecta.

Dental plaque is composed of A. B. C. D. E.

desquamated epithelial cells. components from oral secretions. bacteria and their products. cuticle or pellicle. All of the above.

Following periodontal surgery, the most common cause of recurrence of pockets is A. B. C. D.

systemic disease. traumatic occlusion. failure to splint. poor oral hygiene.

The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. B. C. D.

horizontally. laterally. obliquely. vertically.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

the degree of keratinization. connective tissue vascularity. amount of melanin pigmentation. subgingival deposits. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Supragingival calculus is most often found on the A. B. C. D.

lingual of mandibular anterior teeth. buccal of mandibular anterior teeth. palatal of maxillary molars. lingual of mandibular molars.

Radiographs of a periodontally related osseous defect show the A. B. C. D.

number of bony walls. measurement of the defect. location of the epithelial attachment. None of the above.

Which of the following root surfaces are most likely to have concavities that will make root planing difficult? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Mesial surfaces of maxillary first premolars. Mesial surfaces of mandibular incisors. Mesial surfaces of maxillary incisors. Distal surfaces of mandibular second premolars. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) (3) and (4)

Plaque accumulation on tooth surfaces is affected by A. B. C. D.

the anatomy, position and surface characteristics of the teeth. the architecture of the gingival tissues and their relationship to the teeth. friction at the tooth surface from the diet, lips and tongue. All of the above.

Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by A. B. C. D.

increasing plaque retention. increasing food retention. causing traumatic occlusion. causing pressure atrophy.

Caries in older persons is most frequently found on which of the following locations? A. B. C. D.

Pits and fissures. Proximal enamel. Root surfaces. Incisal dentin.

The etiology of erosion of the teeth is A. B. C. D.

unknown. hyperacidity of the saliva. deficiency of vitamins A and D. excessive ingestion of citrus fruits.

Temporo Mandibular Joint disease in children results from Calculus contributes to gingival inflammation by A. B. C. D.

having a porous surface. having cytotoxic bacterial products. promoting bacterial colonization. all of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

rheumatoid arthritis. middle ear infection. trauma. heredity. All of the above.

Migration of teeth may be associated with Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B. C. D.

B12. C. E. K.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

lip habits. tongue habits. bruxism periodontitis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above

The signs of chronic periodontitis include 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

inflammation. degeneration. bone resorption. no bone resorption. periodontal pockets. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (5) (2) (4) (5)

Which of the following drugs taken by a patient will influence your periodontal treatment planning? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Insulin. Cortisone. Nitroglycerin. Dicumarol. (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (1) and (4) All of the above. None of the above.

A characteristic of a true periodontal pocket is Gingival hyperplasia may be A. B. C. D.

gingival edema. gingival hyperplasia. alveolar bone loss. None of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

familial. idiopathic. drug induced. All of the above. None of the above.

The predominant cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are A. B. C. D. E.

neutrophils. eosinophils. basophils. lymphocytes. monocytes.

Which of the following has the POOREST prognosis? A. B. C.

Which of the following is ançare oral clinical sign(s) of leukemia? A. B. C. D.

Swollen soft gingiva. Ulceration. Tissue pallor. All of the above.

D.

Gingival tissue with edematous red interdental papillae. Gingival tissue with 1mm pocket labial to a mandibular incisor. Firm gingival tissue with generalized 5 and 6mm pockets. Class II furcation involvement in maxillary molars.

The best prognosis for new attachment (reattachment) of periodontal ligament is in a A. B. C. D.

narrow infrabony pocket. narrow suprabony pocket. wide infrabony pocket. wide suprabony pocket.

Salicylates for post-operative pain can affect coagulation of blood by A.

B.

C. D. E.

exhibiting a coumadin - like effect resulting in an increase of vitamin K dependent factors. exhibiting a coumadin - like effect resulting in a decrease of vitamin K dependent factors. interfering with normal platelet functions resulting in a prolonged bleeding time. (A) and (B) (A) and (C)

Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival recession? A. B. C. D. E.

Gingivectomy is indicated for

The most objective measurement of successful scaling and root planing is

1. 2. 3. 4.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

reduction of pocket depth. root smoothness. absence of plaque. absence of bleeding upon probing. increased sulcular fluid flow. (1) and (5) (2) and (4) (1) (4) (5) (1) and (4)

Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

steroid therapy. palliative treatment. control of secondary infection. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide. (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above.

Connective tissue graft. Gingivoplasty. Lateral sliding flap. Gingival graft. No treatment.

pseudopockets. suprabony pockets. fibrotie gingival enlargements. infrabony pockets. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by A. B. C. D.

osteoplasty. gingivoplasty. deep scaling. bone grafting.

The purpose of a periodontal dressing is to A. B. C. D.

enhance wound healing. protect the wound from injury. increase patient comfort. All of the above.

Vitamin D is a factor in

A patient with bruxism is likely to demonstrate

A. B. C. D.

A.

caries susceptibility. calculus formation. calcium absorption. repair of hypoplastic defects of the enamel.

Regular use of oral irrigators (e.g. "Water Pik") will A. B. C. D. E.

prevent plaque formation. remove plaque. remove calculus. remove debris. prevent bacteremia.

The principal component of the fibres of the periodontal ligament is A. B. C. D.

elastin. reticulin. fibronectin. collagen.

Vitamin C is essential for A. B. C. D. E.

formation of collagen. osteoid. dentin. cementum. All of the above.

B. C. D. E.

DMF-S is an index for expressing A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

at the dentino-enamel junction. on the surface of the clinical crown. at the layer of dentin nearest the pulp chamber. evenly throughout the enamel.

dental needs. tooth mortality. extent of dental neglect. dental caries.

A surgical flap approach to periodontal pocket elimination permits A. B. C. D.

healing by primary intention. retention of gingiva. access to perform osseous recontouring. All of the above.

The gingivectomy approach to pocket elimination results in A. B. C. D.

In a young patient living in an area with communal water fluoridation, the fluoride concentration of an erupted tooth is greatest

radiographic evidence of the widening of the periodontal ligament. increased mobility of teeth. premature wear of occlusal surfaces. TMJ discomfort. All of the above.

healing by primary intention. adequate access to correct irregular osseous contours. retention of all or most of the attached gingiva. None of the above.

A clenching habit may be a factor in A. B. C. D.

suprabony periodontal pocket formation. marginal gingivitis. increased tooth mobility. generalized recession.

Regarding dental caries, which of the following is correct? A. B. C. D.

All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.

Ultrasonic scalers are most effective in A. B. C. D.

removal of supragingival calculus. removal of subgingival calculus. removal of toxins from cementum. planing root surfaces.

The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to Abrasion is most commonly seen on the

A.

A. B. C. D.

B.

lingual surface of posterior teeth. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. incisal edges. facial surfaces of teeth.

C. D.

prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. increase the shearing action in mastication. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion.

Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has A. B. C. D.

a high lactobacillus count. saliva with low buffering capacity. plaque on his teeth. lactic acid in his mouth.

An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of A. B. C. D.

fibroblasts. neutrophils. lymphocytes. plasma cells.

Which of the following conditions may result from cross-brushing the teeth? A. B. C. D.

Erosion. Abrasion Attrition. Hypoplasia.

Following curettage and root planing, reduction in pocket depth is due to A. B. C. D. E.

shrinkage of the gingival tissue. reattachment. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth. healing of connective tissue. All of the above.

The predominant organisms associated with active periodontitis are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

cocci. rods. spirochetes. motile rods. (1) and (2) (3) and (4) (1) only (1) and (3) All of the above.

In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of

The epithelial attachment does not migrate apically in

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

suprabony pockets. one-wall infrabony pockets. two-wall infrabony pockets. three-wall infrabony pockets.

juvenile periodontitis. hyperplastic gingivitis. chronic periodontitis. rapidly progressive periodontitis.

Tooth grinding (bruxism) is due to

Infrabony lesions may occur at the

A.

A. B. C. D. E.

B. C. D.

premature contacts in the retruded centric position. balancing prematurities in non-working positions. stress. All of the above.

(An) important clinical sign(s) of gingivitis is/are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

bone loss. cyanosis of tissue. the presence of minimal attached gingiva. bleeding on gentle probing. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In chronic gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium A. B. C. D. E.

is a barrier to bacterial invasion. is permeable to bacterial enzymes and toxins. may be ulcerated. undergoes both degenerative and proliferative changes. All of the above.

palatal surface of maxillary anterior teeth. buccal and lingual surfaces of molars. interproximal areas. bifurcations and trifurcations. All of the above.

A patient suffering from periodontal disease may complain of A. B. C. D. E.

loose teeth. bleeding gingiva. pain. gingival recession. All of the above.

The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal pocket may result in A. B. C. D.

cyst formation. abscess formation. epithelial hyperplasia. increased calculus formation.

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be differentiated clinically by (the) A. B. C. D.

location of the lesions. temperature of the patient. pain. lymphadenopathy.

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis most frequently occurs A. B. C. D. E.

before age 10. between l0 and 20 years of age. between 20 and 30 years of age. after age 30. At any age.

The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

hoe. file. curette. sickle scaler. ultrasonic scaler.

Following subgingival curettage, the amount of gingival shrinkage depends upon A. B. C. D. E.

the thickness of the free gingiva. the degree of edematous hyperplasia present. whether the pocket orifice is broad or narrow. the degree of suppuration present. All of the above.

Destructive occlusal forces can be reduced by 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

selective grinding. orthodontics. restorative treatment. tooth extraction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In chronic periodontitis, the causative organisms are found in A. B. C. D. E.

the connective tissues of the gingiva. the periodontal ligament. the alveolar bone. the periodontal pocket. A. and D.

The coronal collagen fibres of the periodontium are A. B. C. D.

circular. transeptal. supraperiosteal. All of the above.

The tissues of the epithelial attachment A. B. C. D. E.

are dynamic rather than static. can be reconstituted by repair. exhibit a high rate of biologic turnover. All of the above. None of the above.

Successful repair of bony defects is dependent upon A. B. C. D.

A removable full-arch occlusal splint is used to A. B. C. D.

reduce pocket formation. allow for individual tooth movement. reduce unfavorable forces on teeth. permit eruption or elongation of teeth.

its depth. the number of walls. the distance between the buccal and lingual walls. the distance from the crest of the defect to the cemento-enamel junction.

The benefits of flap curettage include A. B. C. D. E.

direct access for thorough debridement. pocket reduction. increased opportunity for reattachment. A. and B. All of the above.

Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best accomplished with a/an A. B. C. D. E.

apically repositioned flap. laterally positioned sliding flap. double-papilla pedicle graft. coronally positioned flap. free gingival graft.

A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. B. C. D.

a bonded amalgam. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. intentional devitalization followed by a post and core restoration.

For a removable partial denture, tripoding a cast is used to A. B. C. D.

determine the path of insertion. locate unfavorable tissue undercuts. locate the height of contour. return the cast to the surveyor.

In the design of a removable partial denture, the objectives of surveying the diagnostic cast are to A. B. C. D. E.

determine the path of insertion. locate tooth surfaces that can act as guiding planes. locate retention areas. locate the height of contour. All of the above.

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. B. C. D.

a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. a shorter retentive arm. more taper. a shallower undercut.

Diagnostic casts for a fixed bridge allow the dentist to A. B. C. D.

visualize the direction of the forces. assess occlusion more accurately. plan the pontic design. All of the above.

High humidity in a room where zinc oxide and eugenol impression paste is being mixed will A. B. C. D.

increase the setting time. not affect the setting. prevent any setting. decrease the setting time.

The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased 1. 2. 3. 4.

strength. hardness. melting point. resistance to corrosion.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The main purpose of flux in soldering is to A. B. C. D.

dissolve surface oxides and prevent further oxidation. prevent recrystallization and grain growth. prevent oxidation and lower the melting range of the solder. dissolve surface oxides and lower the melting range.

Heated impression modeling compound is "tempered" in warm water before placement in the mouth in order to A. B. C. D.

Prior to pouring a stone model, the immersion of a hydrocolloid impression in 2~percent potassium sulphate for 2~to~5~minutes will A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

verify the maxillomandibular records. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. evaluate esthetics. All of the above.

C. D.

A. B. C. D.

expansion. contraction. loss in compressive strength. gain in moisture content.

Slow removal from undercuts. Storage in 100 percent humidity for 30 minutes. Storage in air. Storage in 2 percent solution of potassium sulfate for 60 minutes.

The exudate produced on the surface of an alginate impression through syneresis acts as A.

During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit

retard the set. accelerate the set. inhibit the formation of bubbles. prevent distortion of the hydrocolloid material.

Which of the following prevents distortion of a reversible hydrocolloid impression material? A. B.

While the teeth are set in wax, dentures are tried in to

avoid burning the soft tissues. reduce contraction error. initiate a chemical reaction. minimize distortion.

B.

C. D.

a lubricant between the impression material and the gypsum cast. a medium that aids in producing distinct details on the surface of the resultant gypsum cast. a medium that aids in producing a hard surface on the gypsum cast. None of the above.

After cementation of a fixed bridge, the patient should be advised to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

avoid hot liquids. stimulate the gingival tissue with massage. use dental floss under the pontic. return for periodic examination. avoid sticky foods. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (4) (5)

A fixed bridge pontic should 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

restore tooth function. reduce thermal conductivity. be biologically acceptable. reduce galvanic reactions between abutments and other restorations. restore aesthetics. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4)

In a "cuspid guided occlusion" The major disadvantage of zinc phosphate used to cement crowns is the A. B. C. D.

development of heat during setting. pulp irritation. lack of edge strength. low crushing strength.

A. B. C. D.

A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

it seals the muco-gingival field. it has opened gingival embrasures. it conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. its gingival surface is convex in all directions. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

the teeth on the non-working side make contact on lateral excursions. the teeth on the working side make contact on lateral excursions. the posterior teeth make no contact on lateral excursions on the working side. None of the above.

An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has the potential of A. B. C. D.

interfering with the setting of the impression material. causing tissue necrosis. producing a systemic reaction. discolouring gingival tissue.

A cast post and core is used to 1. 2. 3. 4.

provide intraradicular venting. strengthen a weakened tooth. redirect the forces of occlusion. provide retention for a cast crown.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed A. B. C. D. E.

0.5mm subgingivally. on the enamel. at least 1mm supragingivally. at the cemento-enamel junction. at the gingival margin.

In treatment planning for a fixed bridge, the necessary clinical data should include 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

an assessment of any discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric relation. the type of impression materials to be used. an evaluation of the forces of mastication. the aesthetic considerations. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) (4) only

Adjustment of the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture should be completed A. B. C. D.

after the teeth have been set on the trial denture. immediately after making the final casts. upon delivery of the denture. after the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.

During the fabrication of new complete dentures, which of the following can be modified to achieve the desired occlusion? 1. 2. 3. 4.

The compensating curve. The orientation of the occlusal plane. The cusp inclination. The condylar inclination.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

At his first post insertion appointment, a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D.

overextended borders of the partial. inadequate polishing of the framework. improper path of insertion. the occlusion.

The muscle of the floor of the mouth in the molar region which requires special attention in the final mandibular denture impression is the A. B. C. D.

genioglossus. geniohyoid. mylohyoid. hyoglossus.

Wrought gold alloy clasps are superior to cast gold clasps of the same cross-sectional area because they 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

exhibit greater flexibility. are coarser grained. are more accurately adapted to the tooth. have a higher proportional limit. (2) and (3) (1) and (2) (3) and (4) (1) and (4)

Abutment teeth for a removable partial denture may be best preserved by

Compared with zinc-phosphate cement, polycarboxylate cement has

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

splinting with adjacent teeth. Full coverage wth veneer crowns. prosthesis design. all of the above.

longer working time. lower film thickness. increased compressive strength. superior biologic compatibility.

In removable partial denture design, the surface of the abutment tooth most often altered to provide clasp reciprocity is

Which of the following should be checked first when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot be seated on its abutment?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

mesial. distal. occlusal. buccal. lingual.

In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made A. B. C. D.

parallel to the long axis of the tooth. parallel to the path of insertion. at a right angle to the occlusal plane. at a right angle to the major connector.

Rests on terminal abutment teeth for a cast metal removable partial denture provide A. B. C. D.

primary retention. indirect retention. occlusal force transmission. lateral force transmission.

For a removable partial denture, a metal base is preferred to an acrylic base because metal is A. B. C. D. E.

more hygienic. stronger. less irritating. a better thermal conductor. All of the above.

The occlusal contacts. The taper of the preparation. The proximal contacts. The impression used to pour the cast.

In the preparation of gypsum products, an increase in the water/powder ratio will A. B. C. D.

increase the surface hardness. increase the compressive strength. accelerate the setting reaction. None of the above.

Which of the following are effects of cold working a metal? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

Increase in ductility. Decrease in ductility. Increase in hardness. Increase in resistance to corrosion. (1) and (2) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (3) and (4)

Reversible hydrocolloids transform from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the

Unsupported, hyperplastic tissue in an edentulous maxilla is most often found

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

concentration of the fillers and plasticizers. percent composition by weight of water. concentration of potassium sulfate. temperature.

A facebow is used to record the 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

vertical dimension of occlusion. inter-condylar distance. horizontal condylar inclination. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

Following the insertion of complete dentures, a generalized soreness over the entire mandibular alveolar ridge can be caused by A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

candida albicans infection. xerostomia. inadequate denture hygiene. ill-fitting dentures. All of the above.

Inadequate interocclusal distance. impingement on the buccal frenum. high muscle attachments. excess border thickness.

When a removable partial denture is fabricated to occlude with natural teeth, the occlusal form of the artificial teeth is influenced by the A.

Denture stomatitis can be associated with

near the tuberosities. in the vault. in the anterior segment of the arch. None of the above.

B. C. D.

endodontic condition of the abutment teeth. occlusal form of the remaining teeth. need to produce a fully balanced occlusion. None of the above.

When a partial denture is to be constructed where occlusal adjustment of the natural teeth is required, this should be performed Xerostomia can be associated with A. B. C. D. E.

hormonal imbalance. hypertension and anxiety. adverse effects of medication. emotional problems. All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

prior to taking the final impressions. after the restoration is completed. prior to registering centric relation but after final impression taking. after the framework has been constructed.

A removable partial denture rest should A. B. C. D.

be extended for retention. increase retention of the partial denture. direct forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment. be located on a centric contact.

For removable partial dentures, tilting of the cast during surveying procedures alters the 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

path of insertion. direction of dislodging forces. position of the survey line in relation to the horizontal plane. location of the undercut and non-undercut areas of each tooth. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) All of the above.

Movement of a mandibular distal extension (Class 1) partial denture away from the denture bearing tissues when the patient opens is primarily caused by A. B. C. D.

For removable partial dentures, the use of cast restorations on abutment teeth is based on A. B.

Bar clasp and circumferential clasp arms are similar in that both 1. 2.

3.

4.

A. B. C. D. E.

terminate in a retentive undercut lying gingival to the height of contour. originate from the framework and approach the tooth undercut area from a gingival direction. provide retention by the resistance of metal to deformation rather than frictional resistance of parallel walls. originate above the height of contour, traverse a portion of the suprabulge and approach the tooth undercut from an occlusal direction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because A. B. C. D.

less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest. the enamel is thicker on the lingual surface. visibility and access are better. the cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess.

xerostomia. group function occlusion. non-passive retentive arms. overextended borders.

C. D.

the number of teeth to be replaced. the patient's age, oral hygiene, caries risk and tooth contour. the length of the edentulous span. whether the abutment tooth is to occlude with porcelain or acrylic teeth.

The crownçroot ratio is 1.

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

the comparison of the length of root retained in bone to the amount of tooth external to it. an important factor in abutment tooth selection. determined from radiographs. determined during surveying of the diagnostic cast. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) All of the above. None of the above.

In an edentulous maxilla, the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is A. B. C. D.

upward and palatally. upward and facially. uniform in all directions. upward only.

A metal in the wrought condition differs from the same metal in the cast condition in that

The accuracy of the mercaptan polysulfide and silicone rubber impression materials

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

C. D.

the grains are deformed and elongated. the yield strength and hardness are increased. if heated sufficiently, recrystallization can occur. All of the above.

E.

is less than that of alginates. is better than that of hydrocolloids. is contra-indicated. compares favorably with reversible hydrocolloids. is inversely proportional to temperature and humidity.

Dental porcelain has Polysulfide impression materials 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

low compressive strength. high hardness. high tensile strength. low impact strength. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

have a higher "tear strength" than condensation polymerized silicones. have better dimensional stability than addition cured silicones. set more slowly if moisture is incorporated. cannot undergo distortion when removed from undercuts. are not cross-linked.

After processing, complete dentures on the original stone casts are rearticulated in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by

Which of the following structures affects the thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete denture?

1. 2. 3.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

flasking and processing procedures. strained jaw relation records. errors in registering of centric jaw relation. (1) only (1) (2) (3) (2) and (3) (1) and (3)

Malar process. Coronoid process. Mylohyoid ridge. Zygomatic process. Genial tubercle.

The form of the distobuccal border of a mandibular denture is modified by Dental polysulfide rubber impression materials are polymerized with the following initiator: A. B. C. D. E.

lead peroxide. sodium peroxide. carbon disulfide. hydrogen peroxide. phosphorus pentoxide.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

buccinator muscle. masseter. temporal tendon. pterygomandibular raphe. external oblique ridge. (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) (1) and (5) (4) and (5)

Which of the following should be evaluated for surgical removal before new complete dentures are constructed? A. B. C. D. E.

Mandibular tori. Epulis fissuratum. Papillary hyperplasia. Sharp, prominent mylohyoid ridges. All of the above.

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. The treatment of choice is to A. B. C.

D.

reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences.

Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed partial dentures because of A. B. C. D.

high viscosity. low pH. high solubility in saliva. adverse pulp response.

Effective tissue displacement with elastic impression materials can be accomplished by 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

a firm tray material. injection of the material into the gingival sulcus. placement of chemical-impregnated cords into the gingival sulcus. electrosurgical means. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (3) and (4)

A pontic exerting too much pressure against the ridge will cause 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

fracture of the solder joints. hypertrophy of the soft tissue. crazing of the gingival portion of the porcelain. resorption of the alveolar bone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Minor tooth movement to correct an inclined fixed partial denture abutment will 1. 2.

4.

enhance resistance form of the abutment. reduce the possibility of pulpal involvement. direct occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth. improve embrasure form.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All the above.

3.

In a hygroscopic investment technique, excess water in the investment mix will result in a casting which A. B. C. D. E.

is over expanded. is under expanded. has deficient margins. shows microporosity. None of the above.

Which of the following are characteristics of restorative glass ionomer cements? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Release of fluoride. Bonding to enamel. Setting not affected by moisture. Irritating to pulpal tissues. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (2) and (3) All of the above.

The main reason for adding copper to a dental amalgam alloy is to A. B. C. D. E.

increase expansion. reduce tarnish resistance. make amalgamation easier. increase lustre. reduce the tin-mercury phase.

Dental amalgams that are made from alloys containing 6 percent copper, compared to those made from alloys containing 13 percent copper 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

have higher concentration of the tinmercury phase. are more resistant to tarnish and corrosion. demonstrate less creep or flow. generally have lower compressive strength. demonstrate less marginal breakdown in clinical service. (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (1) and (2) (4) and (5) (1) and (4)

Where cavity preparations are extensive, polycarboxylate cement can be used as a base material because A. B. C. D.

its pH stimulates secondary dentin formation. it interacts with setting amalgam to form a weak chemical union. it is biocompatible with the pulp. it is compressible when set.

Dental amalgam A. B. C. D.

is almost insoluble in the oral fluids. has a satisfactory compressive strength. adapts well to the walls of the prepared cavity. All of the above.

Which of the following would occur if a zinc containing amalgam is contaminated with saliva during condensing? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

No change in compressive strength but lower tensile strength. Increased expansion. Reduced flow or creep. Increased surface pitting. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The polishing of an amalgam restoration A. B. C. D.

should not be performed before 24 hours after insertion. completely prevents tarnish from occurring. removes the mercury rich surface layer of the amalgam. is more permanent if the surface is heated during the procedure.

Glass ionomer cement restorations are indicated for A. B. C. D.

root caries. incisal edge fractures. Class II lesions in adults. locations where esthetics are important.

The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain is Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy? A. B. C. D.

Corrosion resistance. Increased strength. Lowered specific gravity. Increased hardness.

A. B. C. D.

better colour. less shrinkage. more translucency. increased strength.

Which of the following materials is most radiolucent? Inlay wax patterns should be invested as soon as possible in order to decrease distortion caused by A. B. C. D.

reduced flow. drying-out of the wax. release of internal stress. continued expansion of the wax.

A maxillary complete denture exhibits more retention and stability than a mandibular one because it 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

covers a greater area. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. is completely surrounded by soft tissue. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

Calcium hydroxide. Zinc phosphate cement. Amalgam. Gold foil.

After initial setting, a chemically cured glass ionomer cement restoration should have a coating agent applied to A. B. C. D. E.

hasten the final set. protect the cement from moisture. retard the final set. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. create a smooth finish.

Generally, glass ionomer cements contain A. B. C. D.

zinc oxide and distilled water. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. fluoro aluminosilica powder and orthophosphoric acid. fluoro aluminosilica powder and polyacrylic acid.

In taking a polysulfide impression for a cast restoration in the maxilla, the tray must 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

be rigid. have occlusal stops. cover the hard palate. be coated with an adhesive cement. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (4) All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT a direct physiological response to additional forces placed on abutment teeth? A. B. C. D. E.

Resorption of bone. Increase in trabeculation. Increase in width of cementum. Increased density in cribiform plate. Decrease in width of periodontal ligament.

The retention of an indirect, extra-coronal restoration can be improved by The retentive arm of a combination clasp (wrought wire retentive arm and cast lingual arm) is better than a cast arm because it A. B. C. D.

has a lower yield strength. produces less stress on the abutment tooth during removal and insertion. can be used to engage deeper undercuts because of a high modulus of elasticity. is economical to fabricate.

All things being equal, which of the following pontic designs is the most likely to cause soft tissue irritation? A. B. C. D.

Polished gold. Polished acrylic. Polished porcelain. Glazed porcelain.

The curing of polysulphide and silicone rubbers will not be complete throughout the mass if A. B. C. D.

an equal amount of catalyst is not present. heat is not supplied to the reaction. the mixture is not heterogenous. the mixture is not homogenous.

1. 2. 3. 4.

decreasing the taper of the preparation wall. lengthening the clinical crown. adding grooves. an antirotation key.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is to 1. 2. 3. 4.

act as an indirect retainer. stabilize the abutment teeth. act as a direct retainer for the distal base. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The location of a crown margin is determined by 1. 2. 3. 4.

esthetic requirements. clinical crown length. presence of caries. presence of an existing restoration.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

After initial setting, glass ionomer cements should have a coating agent applied in order to A. B. C. D. E.

hasten the final set. protect the cement from moisture. retard the final set. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. create a smooth finish.

Collagen A. B. C. D.

is most common in hard tissues. forms insoluble high tensile strength fibres. has a triple helical structure. All of the above.

The success of remineralization of "white spot" lesions is dependent upon the 1. 2. 3. 4.

pH of the saliva. frequency of the cariogenic challenge. availability of mineral ions in saliva. viscosity of the saliva.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Chronic alcoholism will Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement? A. B. C. D.

Masseter. Geniohyoid. External (lateral) pterygoid. Buccinator.

A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus for the endogenous release of A. B. C. D. E.

thyroid hormone. adrenocortical hormone. insulin. parathyroid hormone. adrenalin.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

cause impairment of liver function. increase tendency to hemorrhage. delay healing. decrease the effectiveness of local anesthetics. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The main functions of fat soluble vitamins are: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D.

Vitamin E is an important antioxidant. Vitamin A is important in the formation of visual purple. Vitamin D promotes intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption. Vitamin K catalyzes the synthesis of prothrombin. Vitamin A maintains the integrity of mucous membranes. (1) (2) (3) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

Which of the following condition(s) increase(s) susceptibility to dental caries? 1.

3. 4.

Vitamin K deficiency during tooth development. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth development. Hereditary fructose intolerance. Hyposalivation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

Which of the following anaesthetic agents is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

Procaine. Lidocaine (xylocaine). Mepivicaine (carbocaine). Prilocaine (citanest). (1) (2) (3) (1) and (2) (1) only All of the above.

Long-acting barbiturates are mainly excreted by the A. B. C. D. E.

salivary glands. kidneys. small intestine. All of the above. None of the above.

The selection of a vasoconstrictor for a local anesthetic depends upon A. B. C. D.

the duration of the operation. the need for hemostasis. the medical status of the patient. all of the above.

Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for rampant caries in children? A. B. C. D.

Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. Severe enamel hypoplasia. Deficiency of vitamin D.

A. B. C. D.

preventing formation of thromboplastin. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver. incorporating ionic calcium.

Streptomycin A. B. C. D.

enhances the activity of some neuromuscular blocking agents. can induce 8th cranial nerve damage. is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. All of the above.

When used for conscious sedation, nitrous oxide may 1.

3. 4.

produce signs of inherent myocardial depression. produce an indirect sympathomimetic action. cause the patient to sweat. produce numbness of the extremities.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

Biologic damage produced by ionizing radiation results from A. B. C. D.

interference with mitotic activity of cells. direct interactions. free radicals. All of the above.

In X-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

contrast. speed of electrons. amount of radiation produced. penetrating power of radiation. temperature of the cathode filament. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (1) and (4)

Which of the following should be done prior to pin hole placement in an extensive amalgam preparation? Epinephrine is one drug used in the management of an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it

1. 2.

A. B.

3. 4.

C. D. E.

relaxes bronchial muscles. stimulates heart muscle and increases heart rate. increases systolic blood pressure. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. All of the above.

Which of the following, if left untreated, is most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. B. C. D. E.

Internal resorption. Reversible pulpitis. Acute suppurative pulpitis. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.

A. B. C. D. E.

Examine the radiograph. Determine the subgingival anatomic contours. Remove caries and unsupported enamel. Place a pilot hole at the dentino-enamel junction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Cytologic examination may aid in the diagnosis of

In pin-retained restorations, the pin holes should be parallel to the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Herpes simplex. Recurrent aphthae. Pemphigus vulgaris. Erosive lichen planus. Carcinoma in situ. (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5) (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4)

A patient has a smooth, red, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue. Microscopic examination reveals a stratified squamous epithelium covering loose, fibrous connective tissue with many thin-walled, vascular spaces. The diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

fibroma. papilloma. hemangioma. pleomorphic adenoma. granular cell tumor (myoblastoma).

Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of 1. 2. 3. 4.

cracks in the teeth. pulp exposures. thermal sensitivity. periodontal ligament invasion.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

long axis of the tooth. nearest external surface. pulp chamber. axial wall.

What is the most important factor to consider when deciding whether or not to use pulp protection? A. B. C. D.

depth of the pulpal floor. thickness of the remaining dentin. amount of carious material removed. location of the carious lesion.

Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be caused by A. B. C. D. E.

insufficient fluoride. excess iodine. insufficient iodine. excess calcium. excess sodium.

The principal reason for a cavosurface bevel on an inlay preparation is to A. B. C. D.

remove undermined enamel. improve marginal adaptation. decrease marginal percolation. increase resistance and retention forms.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers? A. B. C. D.

Amelogenesis imperfecta. Regional odontodysplasia. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.

A positive pulp response to the application of cold indicates

The most likely origin of a metastic carcinoma of the mandible is a primary lesion of the

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2. 3. 4.

necrosis. periodontal involvement. an acute alveolar abscess. a periodontal abscess. vitality.

Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence? A. B. C. D.

Odontogenic keratocyst. Nasoalveolar cyst. Median palatal cyst. Incisive canal cyst.

Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested by A. B. C. D.

punched-out radiolucencies in the jaws. numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth. osteoporosis and anemia. multiple fractures and blue sclera.

A. B. C. D. E.

lung. breast. prostate. nasopharynx. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are characterized by an obliteration of pulp chambers and root canals? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Ageing. Chronic trauma. Dentinal dysplasia. Taurodontism.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following tumors may arise in the parotid salivary gland? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Mixed tumor. Adenocarcinoma. Warthin's tumor. Mucoepidermoid tumor. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

Which of the following is the most frequent cause of ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint? A. B. C. D.

Intra-articular injection of steroids. Chronic subluxation. Trauma. Anterior disc dislocation.

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

Epulis fissuratum. Lingual varicosities. Squamous cell carcinoma. Median rhomboid glossitis. Prominent fungiform papillae.

In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral radiography, the radiopacity that can obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the A. B. C. D.

maxillary sinus. palatine bone and the zygoma. orbital process of the zygomatic bone. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Radiographically, the lamina dura is a A. B. C. D.

thick layer of bone forming the inner surface of the alveolus. thin radiolucent line around the roots of the teeth. thick layer of cortical bone. thin radiopaque line around the roots of the teeth.

The anatomical landmarks used to help establish the location of the posterior palatal seal of a maxillary complete denture include the A. B. C. D.

A 60 year old patient requests the replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded 1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth. The three unit fixed bridge replacing the mandibular first molar should be fabricated A. B. C. D.

to the existing occlusion. after extracting tooth 1.6 and replacing it with a fixed partial denture. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more normal plane of occlusion. after devitalizing and preparing tooth 1.6 for a cast crown.

A tilted molar can be used as a fixed partial denture abutment if 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

it undergoes orthodontic uprighting first. a coping and telescopic crown are used on the abutment. a non-rigid connector is placed in the fixed partial denture. its long axis is within 25° of the long axis of the other abutments. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea palatinae. pterygomaxillary notches and the posterior nasal spine. posterior border of the tuberosities and the posterior border of the palatine bone. anterior border of the tuberosities, the palatine raphe and the posterior border of the palatine bone.

Gingivitis is characterized by A. B. C. D. E.

bleeding on gentle probing of the gingival sulcus. swollen marginal gingiva. alveolar bone loss. apical migration of the junctional epithelium. A. and B.

The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures A. B. C. D.

quantity of plaque at the gingival margin. colony forming units of Gram-negative bacteria. weight of plaque obtained from facial surfaces. weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crowns.

Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Loss of stippling. Gingival hyperplasia. Bleeding on probing. Increased probing depth.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are best removed from the mouth by

High copper amalgam alloys are superior to conventional alloys in that they have

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

a quick snap. a slow teasing motion. twisting and rocking. having the patient create a positive pressure.

To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed A. B. C. D.

over the crest of the mandibular ridge. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge. over the buccal shelf area. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge.

A. B. C. D. E.

B.

A. B. C. D.

underextension. improper occlusion. overextension. All of the above.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the attachment of the A.

Dislodgement of a maxillary denture may be caused by

lower creep. less corrosion. less marginal breakdown. higher 1 hour compressive strength.

C. D.

buccinator, styloglossus and geniohyoid muscles. mylohyoid, buccinator and styloglossus muscles. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and buccinator muscles. mylohyoid, buccinator and genioglossus muscles.

Subgingival calculus differs from supragingival calculus in that it Upon setting, a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit A. B. C. D.

loss in compressive strength. expansion. gain in moisture content. contraction.

A. B. C. D.

does not have a definite predelection for a specific site or sites. may form only after the adjacent gingiva has become inflamed. may take longer to form. All of the above.

Habitual thumbsucking continued after the age of six causes A. B. C. D.

anterior open bite. skeletal malocclusion. mouth breathing. sinusitis.

Problems arising from impacted teeth include

In patients with cleft palates there may be

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

infection. pain. predisposition to fracture. All of the above.

In the maxilla, which of the following teeth may drain through the palatal plate of bone and present as a palatal abscess? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Second incisors. First premolars. First molars. First incisors. Third molars. (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (5)

The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous maxillary incisor is most likely due to A. B. C. D. E.

amelogenesis imperfecta. hypophosphatasia. trauma. ectodermal dysplasia. cleidocranial dysostosis.

an increase in supernumerary teeth. an increase in congenitally missing teeth. a higher incidence of crown defects. All of the above.

Which of the following will produce hemostasis when applied topically? A. B. C. D. E.

Oxidized cellulose. Absorbable gelatin sponge. Microfibrillar collagen. Topical bovine thrombin. All of the above.

Which of the following drugs is(are) used to suppress pain? 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D. E.

Benzodiazepines. Barbiturates. Narcotic analgesics. (1) only. (2) only. (3) only. (1) and (3) (2) and (3)

Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin, which of the following should be evaluated? Permanent first molars begin calcification at A. B. C. D. E.

1 to 4 months in utero. birth. 3 to 6 months. 7 to 11 months. 12 to 15 months.

A. B. C. D.

Bleeding time. Clotting time. Prothrombin time. Coagulation time.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Juvenile periodontitis

A.

A.

B. C. D.

Epithelial cells are united to the basal lamina by hemidesmosomes. The basal lamina is divided into lamina lucida and lamina densa. The basal lamina is a product of epithelial cells. All of the above.

B. C. D.

is associated with gram-negative anaerobic flora. is associated with gram-positive anaerobic flora. is associated with root caries. has a definite predilection toward males.

Gingival inflammation may result from Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

nonkeratinized. squamous. stratified. nonpermeable. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

trauma. chemical irritation. plaque. All of the above.

Endotoxin is A. B. C. D.

a cell wall component of gram-negative bacteria. a potent inflammatory agent. present in diseased root cementum. All of the above.

The arrangement and character of the principal fibres of the periodontal ligament are modified by A. B. C. D.

tooth morphology. occlusal function. cementum. alveolar bone.

A 70-year old female has consumed optimal levels of fluorides all her life. You would expect to find a decreased incidence of 1. 2. 3. 4.

Paget's disease of bone. osteoporosis. hyperparathyroidism. dental caries.

Hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4.

mental confusion. tachycardia. sweating. nausea.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The lowest level of fluoride in drinking water which will cause enamel mottling is

Amphetamines 1.

A. B. C. D.

0.5ppm. 1.0ppm. 3.0ppm. 5.0ppm.

Bioavailability of orally administered drugs may be influenced by A. B. C. D. E.

formulation of the drug. gastrointestinal perfusion. pH of the gastrointestinal tract. presence of other substances in the gastrointestinal tract. All of the above.

2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

1.

In drug synergism

4.

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D. E.

Tetracyclines have all of the following properties EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

absorption is impaired when taken with milk. they predispose patients to candidial infection. they form stable complex with the developing tooth matrix. they may be substituted for amoxicillin in patients that require coverage to prevent subacute bacterial endocarditis.

(1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Properties of glutaraldehyde include

2. 3.

a drug acts beneficially in conjunction with another drug. a drug accumulates in the body at a faster rate than it is destroyed or removed. a drug is concentrated in the kidneys. a drug produces active metabolites. the concentration of the drug increases with time.

increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. are analeptics. have no effect on psychomotor activity. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.

rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue. minimal effect on pulp tissues. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) All of the above.

Which of the following has/have analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects? A. B. C. D. E.

Acetominophen. Acetylsalicylic acid. Bradykinin. A. and B. None of the above.

Propoxyphene (Darvon) has become an important drug of abuse because A. B. C. D.

it is a potent analgesic with a euphoriant activity equal to morphine. in combination with alcohol its effects are greatly intensified. it cannot be detected in the bloodstream. All of the above.

Which statement(s) is/are true about diazepam? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

It improves performance rating of fine motor skills. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl alcohol. It is available without prescription in Canada. It produces a typical dependence syndrome. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is most often associated with a non-vital tooth? A. B. C. D.

Periapical cyst. Internal resorption. Periapical cementoma. Hyperplastic pulpitis.

The depth of penetration of any object by xrays is determined by 1. 2. 3. 4.

milliamperage. density of the object. exposure time. kilovoltage.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The amount of tissue damage following irradiation depends on A. B. C. D. E.

radiation type. radiation dose. radiation dose rate. volume of tissue irradiated. All of the above.

Which of the following will increase image sharpness on radiographs? A. B. C. D.

Small focal spot. Long source-film distance. Short object-film distance. All of the above.

Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to A. B. C. D.

increase contrast. reduce film density. reduce exposure time. reduce patient radiation dose.

The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

using a high speed film. using an aluminum filter. using low kVp. increasing target-film distance. decreasing target-film distance. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5)

If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured, it should be placed in A. B. C. D.

water. 100% relative humidity. A 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. None of the above.

Which of the following modifications to the standard procedure for mixing gypsum products will increase the compressive strength of the set material? A. B. C. D.

Adding a small amount of salt to the water before mixing. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a small amount. Using warmer water. Decreasing the mixing time.

Prognosis for a patient with oral squamous cell carcinoma depends upon which of the following factors? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Size of the tumor. Location of the tumor. Lymph node involvement. Symptoms. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed subperiostially, 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

is highly biocompatible. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery. has a tendency to migrate following insertion. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

World epidemiological data indicates that periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth loss in the following age group: A. B. C. D. E.

10 - 20 years. 20 - 30 years. 30 - 50 years. 65 - 75 years. over 75 years.

Desquamative gingivitis is seen in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

pemphigus vulgaris. mucous membrane pemphigoid. erosive lichen planus. erythema multiforme. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is A. B. C. D.

marginal gingivitis. painful, burning gingivae. hyperplastic gingivitis. drifting of the teeth.

Diagnosis of periodontitis is clinically demonstrated by A. B. C. D.

bleeding from the base of the periodontal pocket. loss of 2mm or more of the periodontal attachment. exudate from the periodontal pocket. All of the above.

To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should

A bevel is CONTRAINDICATED on the cavosurface margins of a Class I amalgam cavity preparation because

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

approach 45 degrees. approach 90 degrees. be bevelled. be chamfered.

C. D.

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to 1. 2. 3. 4.

eliminate the need for internal retention. improve convenience form. aid in finishing. increase the surface area for etching.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Whenever possible, the margins of a restoration should be placed 1. 2. 3. 4.

subgingivally. supragingivally. on cementum. on enamel.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

this type of margin would tend to leak. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition the bevel would be worn away. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative material is prone to fracture. the restoration is more difficult to polish.

Planing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth A. B. C. D. E.

should result in a long bevel. is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam. is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong. should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture. should result in a sharp gingivoproximal line angle.

A patient complains of tooth pain which is sharp and stabbing when chewing sweet or cold foods. Pain is relieved by warmth and direct pressure. Your diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

a carious lesion with pulpal inflammation. a carious lesion with pulp degeneration. traumatic occlusion. a cracked tooth.

Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patient’s occlusal vertical dimension? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Appearance. Phonetics. Observation of the rest position. Pre-extraction profile records.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

The retention form of a full crown preparation can be improved by 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

reducing its taper. increasing its length. utilizing grooves or boxes. polishing the preparation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In order to fulfill all of its roles, a provisional crown must restore the 1. 2. 3. 4.

proximal contacts. axial contours of the tooth. occlusal function. esthetics.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following will cause separation of porcelain from metal in the porcelain fused to metal bridge? A. B. C. D.

Failure to use equal amounts of metal and porcelain. Occlusal contacts on pocelain Contamination of metal before the application of porcelain. More than 60 percent vertical overlap of anterior teeth.

For prevention of cross infection, which of the following impression materials CAN be treated with a disinfecting spray solution? In partial denture design, the major connector should A. B. C. D.

rigidly connect the bilateral components. act as a stress-breaker. not interfere with lateral forces. dissipate vertical forces.

A. B. C. D. E.

Irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate). Polyether. Polysulfide. Polysiloxane. All of the above.

A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. The most common causes are A. B. C. D.

reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap.

In patients wearing complete dentures, the most frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during speaking is

Advantages of resin bonded bridges are

A. B. C. D. E.

2. 3. 4.

nervous tension. incorrect centric relation position. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. lack of vertical overlap. unbalanced occlusion.

1.

A. B. C. D.

improved aesthetics compared to traditional bridges. tooth structure conservation. short chair-side time. economy. (3) and (4) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

If a complete mandibular denture causes a burning sensation in the premolar region, this is due to the denture exerting pressure in/on the A. B. C. D. E.

fibres of the buccinator muscle. lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. underlying bone. mental branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. buccal frenum area.

The function of the compensating curve is A.

B. C. D.

to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is protruded. to aid in establishing an incisal guide plane. the same as the function of the curve of Spee. None of the above.

The best means of extending the working time of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is to A. B. C. D. E.

extend spatulation time. add additional water. use cold water. add a small amount of borax. add potassium sulfate.

The use of complete dentures by older people most frequently causes 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

denture induced hyperplasia. alveolar ridge resorption. angular cheilitis. stomatitis. leukoplakia. (1) (4) (5) (2) (3) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment for malignancy include A. B. C. D. E.

atrophic thinning of the oral mucosa. ulceration. necrosis. spontaneous bleeding. All of the above.

Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is indicated for patients with

A patient who is four months pregnant requires an extraction. A radiograph may

1. 2. 3. 4.

A.

A. B. C. D. E.

a functional heart murmur. mitral valve prolapse. an osseointegrated dental implant. an organic heart murmur. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The surgical procedure indicated for odontogenic cysts is A. B. C.

enucleation. cauterization. incision and drainage.

B. C. D.

be taken only if difficulty is encountered during surgery. be taken. not be taken. be taken by panoramic radiography only.

Periapical infection from a mandibular second molar may spread by direct extension to the 1. 2. 3. 4.

buccal space. buccal vestibule. sublingual space. submandibular space.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Insulin reaction is characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4.

nausea. tachycardia. sweating. mental confusion

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate oral drugs for control of anxiety in a dental patient are A. B. C. D.

benzodiazepines. phenothiazines. barbiturates. tricyclic antidepressants.

Metronidazole can be used to treat

Which of the following is a complication of prolonged systemic corticosteroid treatment? A. B. C. D. E.

Oral candidiasis. Xerostomia. Aphthous stomatitis. Anorexia. Gingival hyperplasia.

A. B. C. D.

denture stomatitis. recurrent aphthous ulceration. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). primary herpetic ulceration.

Tetracycline therapy instituted either in the second trimester or post partum in the infant is responsible for A. B. C. D.

discoloration of deciduous teeth. discoloration of permanent teeth. minor changes in the hydroxyapatite of the enamel. A. and B.

A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. You would suspect A. B. C. D.

asthma. emphysema. rhinophyma. cardiac insufficiency.

Vasoconstrictors in a local anesthetic solution In an infection caused by non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus, the drug of choice is A. B. C. D.

penicillin V. cephalexin. tetracycline. vancomycin.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D.

retard absorption. increase duration of action. permit smaller volumes to be used. have low toxicity when given intravenously. (1) and (4) (2) and (4) (1) (2) (3) All of the above.

Intravenous administration of epinephrine results in 1. 2. 3. 4.

increased systolic pressure. increased heart rate. palpitations. respiratory depression.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following should NOT be prescribed to a pregnant patient? A. B. C. D.

Erythromycin. Cloxacillin. Tetracycline. Cephalosporins.

Xerostomia can be

Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for patients with which of the following? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation. Cardiac pacemaker. Prosthetic heart valves. All heart murmurs.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

found in the elderly. drug induced. associated with diabetes. predisposing to dental diseases. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In horizontal alveolar bone loss, the pathway of inflammation is

Periodontitis is clinically differentiated from gingivitis by the amount of

A. B. C.

A. B.

D.

through the periodontal ligament. through the epithelial attachment. through the cortical bone of the alveolar process. perivascularly, into the marrow spaces of the crestal bone.

The interdental gingival col is the area between the A. B. C.

facial and lingual interdental gingiva. facial and lingual attached gingiva. distal and mesial interdental gingiva.

C. D. E.

plaque accumulation. apical migration of the epithelial attachment. gingival inflammation. discomfort of the patient. subgingival calculus.

A suprabony pocket is associated with A. B. C. D. E.

enlargement of the marginal gingiva. horizontal loss of alveolar bone. subgingival calculus. spontaneous bleeding. A., B. and C.

Marginal gingiva A. B. C. D.

is demarcated from the attached gingiva by the free gingival groove. is demarcated from the attached gingiva by the mucogingival line. should be firmly attached to the tooth and alveolar bone. None of the above.

Calculus contributes to periodontal disease through A. B. C. D.

bacterial plaque retention. mechanical irritation. chemical irritation. All of the above.

Water irrigation devices have been shown to The effects of plaque on vascularity of the gingival connective tissue result in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

dilation of small blood vessels. increased vascular permeability. proliferation of small blood vessels. increase in crevicular fluid. (1) (3) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (4) All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

eliminate plaque. dislodge food particles from between teeth. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. prevent calculus formation.

Compared to primary mandibular incisors, permanent mandibular incisors erupt A. B. C. D.

lingually. facially. distally. mesially.

In Angle's classification, a Class II, Division 1 malocclusion may describe a combination of skeletal problems, such as

The undesirable side-effect most commonly associated with use of a finger spring to tip the crown of an anterior permanent tooth is

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D. E.

maxillary protrusion, normal mandibular position. normal maxillary position, mandibular retrusion. maxillary protrusion, mandibular retrusion. bi-maxillary protrusion, with the maxilla more protrusive than the mandible. All of the above.

Clinical examination of a 15 year old girl shows permanent central incisors, permanent canines and primary canines all in contact and anterior to the premolars. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D.

ankylosed permanent canines. ankylosed primary canines. impacted permanent lateral incisors. congenitally missing permanent lateral incisors.

Cephalometrics is used in orthodontics to A. B. C. D. E.

treat malocclusions. study growth changes. aid in diagnosis and case analysis. B. and C. All of the above.

Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships? A. B. C. D.

Tooth-to-tooth. Bone-to-bone. Tooth-to-bone. All of the above.

pain. gingival irritation. tendency for the tooth to intrude. severe mobility of the tooth.

Heavy orthodontic forces will cause A. B. C. D.

hyalinization of periodontal ligament. devitalization of the teeth. undermining resorption of alveolar bone. All of the above.

In serial extraction, the most common order of tooth removal is 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D.

primary canines. first premolars. primary first molars. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (2) (2) (1) (3) (3) (1) (2)

Forces for orthodontic tooth movement ideally should be 1. 2. 3. 4.

intermittent. continuous. heavy. light.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most likely A. B. C. D.

a periapical granuloma. a periapical cyst. a chronic periapical abscess. the mental foramen.

Which of the following is the LEAST likely primary site for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly? A. B. C. D.

Dorsum of the tongue. Floor of the mouth. Lateral border of the tongue. Tonsillar fossa.

In the management of a patient with an acute odontogenic infection, the treatment should include: 1. 2. 3. 4.

elimination of the cause. drainage. supportive therapy. tetanus immunization.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in 1. 2. 3. 4.

slower healing. foreign body inflammatory reaction. wound dehiscence. necrosis of bone.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following are vital signs? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Blood pressure. Body temperature. Pulse rate and respiration. Pupil size.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

redness. pain. swelling. loss of function. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which impacted mandibular third molar is easiest to remove? A. B. C. D.

Mesio-angular. Horizontal. Disto-angular. Inverted.

When using forceps for extraction of a maxillary first molar, which of the following statements is/are true? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Palatal bone is thinner than buccal bone. Buccal bone is easier to expand. Forcep movement should be principally in the palatal direction. Forcep movement should be principally in the buccal direction. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following basic forcep movements is NOT used for extracting teeth? A. B. C. D.

Apical. Rotational. Mesial. Lingual (palatal).

The basic design principles for a mucoperiosteal flap are it 1. 2. 3. 4.

is broad based. allows adequate access. is able to be repositioned over bone. has an adequate blood supply.

A. B. C. D.

(1) (2) (3) (2) and (4) (3) and (4) All of the above.

Marsupialization (PARTSCH PROCEDURE) is the preferred surgical technique in the management of 1. 2. 3. 4.

a cyst. a keratocyst. ranula. osteomyelitis.

A. B. C. D.

(1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) (2) (3)

With respect to forceps extraction of teeth, which of the following applies (apply)? Benign neoplasms 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Beaks should be placed on the root of the tooth. Beaks should be applied parallel to the long axis of the tooth. Beaks should be moved apically during extraction. Poor placement can lead to tooth fracture, slippage and injury to adjacent teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

grow slowly. are generally painless. can be managed conservatively. can metastasize.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A removable orthodontic appliance, producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause

Which of the following clinical approaches would reduce the tendency to the postextraction complication of dry socket?

A.

A. B.

B. C. D.

lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown. lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex. intrusion of the central incisor.

C. D.

Pre-extraction control of pericoronitis. Post-extraction socket dressing with topical tetracycline. Use of a pre-operative mouthrinse of 0.2 percent chlorhexidine gluconate. All of the above.

The epithelial attachment Maxillary incisor protrusion can be treated by A. 1. 2.

3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

premolar extraction with orthodontic retraction of the incisors. premolar extraction with surgical repositioning of the anterior dentoalveolar segment. extraction of the incisors, alveoloplasty and prosthodontic replacement. reduction and genioplasty. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B.

C. D.

Wolff's Law states that bone elements A. B. C.

The mandible grows primarily at the D. A. B. C. D. E.

symphysis and condyles. posterior border of the ramus and the alveolar crest. condyles and lateral border of the body. condyles and posterior border of the ramus. symphysis and posterior border of the ramus.

Which of the following are mechanisms of growth of the naso-maxillary complex? A. B. C. D.

Sutural. Cartilaginous. Appositional. All of the above.

in health, is located at the cementoenamel junction. with periodontitis, moves apically along the root surface as periodontal disease progresses. is composed of stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium. All of the above.

rearrange themselves in the direction of functional pressures. increase their mass to reflect functional stress. decrease their mass to reflect functional stress. All of the above.

The inflammatory response in periodontal pathology is caused by bacterial products from plaque which 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

act as chemotactic products. activate the kallikrein system. initiate an immune response. act as enzymes. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Attached gingival tissue is primarily composed of

In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a function of

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

collagenous fibres. keratinized squamous epithelium. elastic fibres. A. and B. A., B. and C.

Which of the following drugs has/have sedative properties?

A hardened gold alloy will exhibit A.

A. B. C. D.

Benzodiazepines. Barbiturates. Meperidine. All of the above.

B.

C. Therapeutic doses of morphine administered intramuscularly may produce 1. 2. 3. 4.

constipation. euphoria. mental clouding. dysphoria.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Excessively dark radiographs will result from 1. 2. 3. 4.

underdevelopment. overexposure. backward placement of the film. excessive milliamperage.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

length of the wire segment. diameter of the wire segment. alloy composition. All of the above. None of the above.

less plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. greater plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. no difference in the plastic deformation per unit of stress of the alloy in hard or soft condition.

Success of an endosseous dental implant is dependent upon 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

biocompatibility of the material. design. a period of non-function. immediate loading. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) and (4) (2) and (4)

Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s) occur(s) with aging? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Absorption is altered by a decrease in the gastric pH. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced liver mass. Distribution is altered by a decrease in total body fat. Excretion is reduced because of lessened renal blood flow. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following should NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)?

A very apprehensive patient experiencing pain may be prescribed a barbiturate, chloral hydrate or an antihistamine to control the anxiety. In which of the following would you expect an exaggerated response to the use of these drugs? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

A diabetic. The elderly. A rheumatic. A patient with chronic renal disease. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Hypercementosis at the root apex is often associated with

1. 2. 3. 4.

Acetylsalicylic acid. Oxycodone. Ketorolac. Codeine.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The periodontal condition showing localized advanced vertical bone loss involving the first molars and the incisors is diagnosed as

Flurbiprofen is an 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

antibiotic. analgesic. anti-inflammatory. anti-depressant. (1) only (2) only (2) and (3) (4) only

A. B. C. D.

hypothyroidism. Paget's disease. orthodontic tooth movement. normal occlusal function. hyperparathyroidism.

desquamative gingivitis. juvenile periodontitis. advanced destructive chronic periodontitis. acute periodontitis.

When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the A. B. C. D.

base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction.

Which of the following is/are common to both gingival and periodontal pockets? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Apical migration of junctional epithelium. Fibrotic enlargement of marginal tissue. Bleeding upon probing. Increased depth upon probing.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Infrabony defects occur most frequently in A. B. C. D.

cancellous bone. cortical bone. bundle bone. interseptal bone.

Patients with occlusal parafunctional habits may present A. B. C. D. E.

soreness in jaw muscles. occlusal wear facets. tooth mobility. A. and C. All of the above.

Detection of periodontal pockets is done by A. B. C. D.

visual examination. radiographic examination. testing for mobility of teeth. probing.

In periodontal flap surgery, the initial incision is made to A. B. C.

Periodontitis D. 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

develops from gingivitis. is associated with continuous destruction of the alveolar bone. goes through stages of tissue destruction and quiessence. results in occlusal traumatism. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

remove the sulcular lining of the pocket. aid in healing. sever the attachment of the oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. excise the keratinized gingiva.

In a cavity preparation which closely approximates the pulp, you would protect the pulp with A. B. C. D.

a zinc phosphate cement base. a calcium hydroxide cement base. a calcium hydroxide wash and cavity varnish. a calcium hydroxide cement liner and a glass ionomer cement base.

Which of the following properties of freshly cut dentin does cavity varnish eliminate or reduce?

Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Resiliency. Hardness. Regenerative powers. Permeability.

A hinge axis facebow records A. B. C. D. E.

Bennett angle. centric relation. lateral condylar inclination. horizontal condylar inclination. opening and closing axis of the mandible.

A. B. C. D. E.

B. C.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

reduced thermal dimensional changes. increased strength. reduced polymerization shrinkage. better polishability. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

There is a differential between girls and boys with respect to the age at which the growth velocity reaches its peak. That difference is A. B. C. D.

boys six months ahead of girls. girls six months ahead of boys. girls one year ahead of boys. girls two years ahead of boys.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are correct? A.

Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have

cause hyalinization. cause root resorption. crush the periodontal ligament. impair tooth movement.

D.

There is no histological difference between basal and alveolar bone. There is no difference in the response of basal and alveolar bone to pressure. Osteoid is a highly mineralized bundle bone. All of the above.

The optimal time for orthodontic treatment involving growth manipulation is during A. B. C. D.

late primary dentition. early mixed dentition. late mixed dentition. early permanent dentition.

The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. B. C. D.

torque. tipping. rotation. translation.

Following loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8, which of the following changes are likely to occur? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Distal drift of second premolar. No movement of second premolar. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. No movement of second permanent molar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following conditions can make an older patient short of breath on mild exertion? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Anemia. Cardiac failure. Obesity. Osteoarthritis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following drug groups can cause xerostomia? The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a A. B. C. D.

Nance expansion arch. lingual arch. band and loop space maintainer. distal shoe space maintainer.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Diuretics. Antibiotics. Antidepressants. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Mouth breathing is most commonly associated with Angle's malocclusion Class A. B. C. D. E.

I. II, Division 1. II, Division 2. III. None of the above.

Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction due to A. B. C. D.

density of the cortical bone. persistence of tongue and finger habits. free gingival and transseptal fibres. oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament.

When assessing the difficulty of removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, you should consider 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

depth in the alveolus. periodontal ligament space. root width. angulation. size of the pulp chamber. (1) (3) (5) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above.

The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should

Hydroxyapatite

1. 2. 3.

1.

4.

provide for visual access. provide for instrument access. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. be semilunar in shape.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. B. C. D.

Mesio-angular. Horizontal. Vertical. Disto-angular.

2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

can be used to eliminate osseous undercuts. is derived from coral. is biocompatible. is resistant to fracture. is osteogenic. (1) (3) (5) (1) (2) (3) (2) (4) (5) All of the above.

An alveoplasty is performed to 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D.

facilitate removal of teeth. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges following tooth removal. prepare the residual ridge for dentures. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) All of the above.

Final treatment planning for the combined surgical-orthodontic correction of a dentofacial deformity should include Sutures can be A. B. C. D.

predetermined occlusion on dental models. mock surgery on appropriately mounted models. cephalometric analysis with prediction tracing. All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

used to hold soft tissues into position. used to stretch soft tissues into position. used to control bleeding. resorbable or non-resorbable. (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (4) All of the above.

A dental laboratory has returned a removable partial denture framework. The framework fit the master cast well but when tried in the mouth, a stable fit could not be achieved. The possible cause(s) of the problem is/are 1. 2. 3. 4.

distortion in the final impression. insufficient retention. improper pour of the master cast. casting error.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are essential when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration 1. 2. 3. 4.

a larger diameter condenser. an anatomical wedge. decreased condensing pressure. a dead soft matrix band.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following constituents of a local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to be allergenic? A. B. C. D.

Lidocaine. Epinephrine. Metabisulfite. Hydrochloric acid.

Which one of the following describes the position of the needle tip during administration of local anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block? A. B. C. D.

Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. Lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament.

Aspiration is carried out prior to a local anaesthetic injection in order to reduce the A. B. C. D.

toxicity of local anaesthetic. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. possibility of intravascular administration. possibility of paraesthesia.

Which one of the following factors is least important in determining the appropriate dose of drug for a patient? Composite resin is contraindicated as a posterior restorative material in cases of: 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Allergy to benzoyl peroxide. Bruxism. Lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. Inability to maintain a dry operating field. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

Lean body weight. Medical history. Age. Gender.

The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must create a/an A. B. C. D.

rough surface for improved bonding. space for an appropriate thickness of the veneering material. margin well below the gingival crest. definite finish line.

A 78-year old patient presents with several carious lesions on the root surfaces of the maxillary posterior teeth. The restorative material of choice is

Tooth reduction for anterior tooth preparation for porcelain fused to metal and all ceramic crowns is dictated by the following imperative(s)

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2.

microfilled composite resin. hybrid composite resin. silver amalgam. glass ionomer cement. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol cement.

3. 4.

length for adequate retention-resistance. porcelain/ceramic thickness for fracture resistance. clearance for occlusal function. parallelism of axial walls for facilitating the path of insertion.

The dimensional stability of polyether impression material is considered to be good EXCEPT if the material is

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of

E.

dehydrated. allowed to absorb water after setting. used in uneven thickness. distorted by rapid removal of the impression from the mouth. contaminated with latex.

For amalgam restorations, a 90 cavosurface angle accommodates the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

condensing of amalgam. compressive strength of amalgam. tensile strength of amalgam. compressive strength of enamel. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

4.

cusp replacement. bruxism. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. inability to maintain a dry operating field.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following affect(s) polymerization of visible light cured composite resins? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Intensity of the light source. Thickness of composite resin. Proximity of light source. Shade of composite resin.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Resin bonding of composites to acid-etched enamel results in A. B. C. D. E.

decreased polymerization shrinkage of the resin. decreased crack formation in the enamel. reduced microleakage. elimination of post-operative sensitivity. improved wear resistance of the composite.

In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A larger sized condenser. A thinner matrix band. An anatomical wedge. Use of mechanical condensation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Zinc phosphate cement. Polycarboxylate cement. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. Glass ionomer cement.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Twenty-four hours after placement of a Class II amalgam restoration, a patient returns complaining of discomfort when "biting". There are no other symptoms. It is most likely that the A. B. C. D.

pulp was exposed. restoration is leaking. restoration is in supra-occlusion. amount of base material is inadequate.

Which of the following SHOULD NOT be corrected with a porcelain veneer? A. B. C. D.

Peg lateral incisor. Diastema between 1.1 and 2.1. Cross bite on tooth 1.3. Enamel hypoplasia.

The most likely cause of postoperative sensitivity with Class II composite resin restorations is A. B. C. D.

acid etching of dentin. microleakage at the interface. toxicity of the restorative material. overheating during the finishing process.

Which of the following would be a CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)? A. B. C. D.

Class II malocclusion. An opposing free end saddle removable partial. Previous orthodontic treatment. Heavily restored abutment.

The "smear layer" is an important consideration in A. B. C. D.

plaque accumulation. caries removal. pulp regeneration. dentin bonding.

A silane coupling agent is used to A. B. C. D. E.

control polymerization shrinkage in composite resins. enhance the bond between a porcelain veneer and the resin cement. enhance use of a heat cured composite resin inlay. reduce the surface tension when investing a wax pattern. facilitate the soldering of gold castings.

Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a luting agent for cast restorations, has which of the following properties? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Insolubility. Anticariogenicity. Chemical adhesion. Mechanical retention.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

To achieve optimum strength and esthetics, a porcelain fused to metal restoration with a porcelain butt joint margin requires a 1. 2.

A 22 year old presents with a fracture of the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a small amount of dentin. The fracture occurred one hour previously. There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. The most appropriate emergency treatment is to A.

B. C. D.

open the pulp chamber, clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement. place a provisional (temporary) crown.

3. 4.

0.8 - 1.2mm shoulder. sharp, well defined axiogingival line angle. 90- 100 cavosurface margin. finish line that is 2mm subgingival.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 1. 2. 3. 4.

religious beliefs. physical handicap. infectious disease. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

According to the principles of ethics that are generally accepted in Canada, a dentist may refuse to treat a patient with HIV infection for a specific procedure for the following reason(s).

A 9-year old has tooth 1.1 completely erupted and tooth 2.1 is unerupted. The radiographs reveal a palatally located mesiodens. The preferred treatment would be

1.

A. B.

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Inadequate experience in the specific procedure. Inadequate knowledge of the specific procedure. Lack of instruments or equipment for this procedure. Infection control procedures that are not designed for infectious patients. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 8-year old child has an 8mm central diastema. The etiology could include 1. 2. 3. 4.

frenum. cyst. mesiodens. normal development.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year old child is A. B. C. D. E.

regular assessment of arch development. to perform space analysis. insertion of a space maintainer. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. extraction of the opposing molar.

C. D.

observation and continued monitoring. allow the mesiodens to erupt into the arch and then extract it. extract the mesiodens and allow passive eruption of the 2.1. extract the mesiodens and orthodontically extrude the 2.1.

Which of the following periodontal procedures is indicated on a maxillary canine that will receive a full crown with subgingival margins when the abutment has 1mm of attached gingiva, no sign of inflammation or loss of attachment? A. B. C. D. E.

Curettage and root planing. Coronally positioned flap. Localized gingivectomy. Autogenous connective tissue graft. There is no indication that this tooth requires periodontal treatment.

Which of the following systemic diseases does/do NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Cyclic neutropenia. Diabetes mellitus. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in A. B. C. D. E.

maximum intercuspation. initial contact. normal rest position. maximum opening. protrusive position.

A patient wants all his remaining teeth extracted and dentures fabricated. He has carious lesions involving the dentin on all remaining teeth. The periodontium is sound. The most appropriate management is to 1. 2. 3. 4.

The features of aggressive (rapidly progressive) periodontitis are 1. 2. 3. 4.

rapid attachment loss. suspected periodontal microbial pathogens. onset before the age of 35. ulcerations of the gingiva.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

respect the patient's decision. advise the patient to consult a specialist. discuss all of the appropriate treatment options. refuse to refer or to treat this patient since it is unethical. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is the most effective pharmacologic treatment for angular cheilosis? A. B. C. D. E.

Penicillin. Erythomycin. Tetracycline. Clindamycin. Nystatin.

Physiologic (racial) pigmentation differs from melanoma because melanoma A. B. C. D.

is macular. contains melanin. affects the gingiva. undergoes clinical changes.

Aphthous ulcers are characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4.

pain. pseudomembranes. inflammation. vesicle formation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which is the most appropriate prophylactic antibiotic for a patient with mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation undergoing a surgical dental procedure? A. B. C. D. E.

Intravenous ampicillin. Clindamycin per os. Intravenous vancomycin. Erythromycin per os. Amoxicillin per os.

Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

Suppurative arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis. Degenerative arthrosis. Psoriatic arthritis. Lupus arthritis.

Which of the following is characteristic of periapical cemental dysplasia? A. B. C. D.

Pain. Expansion. Biopsy is NOT usually necessary. Requires endodontics or extraction.

The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

rough surface. space for the veneer material. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. definite finish line. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The use of an etchant and bonding system before insertion of a composite resin restoration results in 1. 2. 3. 4.

improved retention of the restoration. decreased marginal leakage. reduced polymerization shrinkage effect. greater strength of the restoration.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Sensitivity related to a noncarious cervical lesion is best explained by the A. B. C. D. E.

thermal conductivity of dentin. hydrodynamic theory. dentinogenesis process. neurogate mechanism. inorganic component of dentin.

When two teeth have Class III lesions adjacent to each other, the operator should prepare the A. B. C. D.

larger lesion first and restore the smaller one first. smaller lesion first and restore the smaller one first. smaller lesion first and restore the larger one first. large lesion first and restore the larger one first.

The most frequent cause for composite resin restoration failure is A. B. C. D.

brittleness of the composite. excessive polymerization shrinkage. presence of voids within the material. inadequate moisture control during placement.

It is ethical to replace amalgam restorations 1. 2. 3. 4.

on request from an informed patient. to relieve symptoms of multiple sclerosis. in highly esthetic areas of the mouth. to eliminate toxins from the patient.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The predominant micro-organisms associated with periodontitis are A. B. C. D.

gram-positive aerobes. gram-negative aerobes. gram-positive anaerobes. gram-negative anaerobes.

The following conditions can be the result of ill-fitting complete dentures. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Soft tissue hyperplasia. Alveolar ridge resorption. Angular cheilitis. Carcinoma.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A healthy 78 year old patient presents with three new carious lesions on root surfaces. This is most likely the result of

Which two muscles are involved in sucking? A. B. C. D.

Following root planing, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following? A. B. C. D.

B. C. D. E.

age related changes in cementum composition. the architecture at the CEJ. age related decrease in salivary flow. changes in dietary pattern. chronic periodontal disease.

Golgi receptor. Free nerve endings. Odontoblastic processes. Cementoblasts.

A 45 year old, overweight man reports that his wife complains that he snores. The initial management of the patient’s snoring problem is to A. B. C.

A.

Caninus and depressor angularis. Risorius and buccinator. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major.

D.

fabricate an appliance to reduce snoring. fabricate restorations to increase the patient’s vertical dimension of occlusion. refer for an orthognathic surgery consultation. refer for a sleep assessment.

The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is

A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. Which nerve is involved?

1. 2. 3. 4.

periodontal debridement. antibiotic therapy. oral hygiene instruction. topical steroid therapy.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Facial nerve VII. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX. Trigeminal nerve V. Hypoglossal nerve XII.

In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating

The difference between gingivitis and periodontitis is

1. 2. 3.

A.

4.

horizontal bone loss. a 3-walled infrabony defect. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement.

B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

radiographic changes are present only in gingivitis. radiographic changes are present only in periodontitis. changes in gingival colour are present only in gingivitis. changes in gingival colour are present only in periodontitis.

Which of the following cells are involved in an immune response to plaque in the periodontal pocket?

The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is

1. 2. 3. 4.

Macrophages. Plasma cells. Lymphocytes. Neutrophils.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

root caries. root sensitivity. pulpal involvement. recurrent pocketing.

The most common clinical characteristic/s of a buccolingual functional crossbite is/are 1. 2. 3. 4.

mandibular shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. asymmetrical arches. midline deviation. several missing teeth.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Gingival connective tissue fibres are primarily composed of A. B. C. D.

collagen. reticulin. elastin. oxytalin.

The predominant organism(s) associated with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are 1. 2. 3. 4.

Prevotella intermedia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Porphyromonas gingivalis. Heliobacter pilori.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which chemical mediator of inflammation is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)? A. B. C. D.

Chewing “automatism” is dependent on which mechanism? A.

For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment must include A. B. C. D.

scaling and root planing. occlusal adjustment. prescription of an antibiotic. prescription of an analgesic.

On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is A. B. C. D.

at the cementoenamel junction. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. not clearly distinguishable.

Bradykinin. Histamine. Substance P. Prostaglandin.

B. C. D.

Reflexes between jaw closing and opening muscles. Swallowing and respiration neuronal activity. Periodontal receptor stimulation. Reticular formation neuronal activity.

Gingival hyperplasia may occur in patients taking 1. 2. 3. 4.

cyclosporine. nifedipine. phenytoin. carbamazepine.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Continued smoking will impair wound healing following a surgical procedure because of

Gingival recession at the buccal surface of a tooth is most likely caused by

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

stain development. increased rate of plaque formation. increased rate of calculus formation. contraction of peripheral blood vessels. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke.

improper tooth brushing technique. chronic bruxism. improper flossing technique. cigarette smoking.

A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. The most likely cause is

Which of the following statements applies to the submandibular lymph nodes? 1. 2.

A. B. C. D.

fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints. nocturnal bruxism. early osteoarthritis. mandibular subluxation.

The most appropriate treatment of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis in a patient with lymphadenopathy is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

periodontal debridement. occlusal adjustment. oral hygiene instruction. antibiotic therapy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

depression of the respiratory centre. severe gastric bleeding. hepatic toxicity. anaphylactic shock.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

In children and adolescents, the long term effects of rapid palatal expansion (0.5mm/day) compared to slow palatal expansion (0.5mm/week) are A. B. C. D. E.

There is a risk for significant complications from an acute overdose of acetaminophen due to A. B. C. D.

They discharge into the internal jugular nodes. When draining an area of acute infection, they are enlarged, nontender, soft, well defined and movable. They are found medially to the mandible. They drain the anterior palatine pillar, soft palate, posterior third of the tongue.

more skeletal expansion and less dental expansion. greater stability. no different. less stable. less skeletal expansion and more dental expansion.

In its classic form, serial extraction is best applied to patients with Class I occlusions with crowding of A. B. C. D.

less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite.

The best time to begin interceptive orthodontic treatment for a patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion is A. B. C. D. E.

as soon as the malocclusion is diagnosed. immediately following complete eruption of the deciduous dentition. immediately following complete eruption of the first permanent molars. several months prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt. after skeletal maturity.

The initiation of cemental caries differs from enamel caries because A. B. C. D.

dental plaque is not involved. the age of onset is younger. it is usually associated with abrasion. it progresses more quickly.

A direct or indirect pulp cap has the greatest chance of clinical success when there is a A. B. C. D.

history of spontaneous pain. prolonged response to cold stimulus. apical lesion. vital pulp.

A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable partial denture will provide 1. 2. 3. 4.

resistance to horizontal force. indirect retention. stabilization. direct retention.

A bite wing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating two thirds into the mesial enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4 is to

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. B. C. D.

a thick narrow major connector. an anterior and a posterior bar. a thin broad palatal strap. narrow horseshoe shaped.

If a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy requires the immediate replacement of a large MOD amalgam restoration with extensive recurrent caries and thermal sensitivity, the indicated treatment is to A. B. C. D.

delay treatment until after the baby is born. restore with reinforced zoe. restore with amalgam. restore with a posterior composite resin.

place an amalgam restoration. place a porcelain inlay. place a direct composite restoration. apply topical fluoride and monitor.

The layer of intermingled collagen and resin located beneath a restoration is called the A. B. C. D.

smear layer. hybrid layer. Weil layer. decalcification layer.

A healthy, 23 year old male patient experiences a warm sensation, diaphoresis, nausea, light headedness and then loses consciousness approximately 30 seconds following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine for an inferior alveolar nerve block. What is the most likely diagnosis for his situation? A. B. C. D.

Allergic reaction to local anesthetic. Overdose of local anesthetic. Syncope. Intravascular injection of local anesthetic.

Which of the following structures lies inferior to the mylohyoid muscle at the level of the mandibular second molar?

When performing an intraoral incision and drainage of a dentoalveolar abscess, which of the following is/are true?

A. B. C. D.

1.

Lingual artery. Lingual vein. Lingual nerve. Submandibular duct.

2. 3. 4.

In an acute periapical abscess, which of the following teeth is most likely to spread infection to the submandibular space? A. B. C. D. E.

Mandibular second bicuspid. Maxillary third molar. Mandibular first molar. Mandibular third molar. Mandibular lateral incisor.

Which of the following isare (an) indication(s) for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Recurrent pericoronitis. Prevention of crowding of mandibular incisors. Pain. They are impacted.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

The scalpel incision should be made superficially through mucosa. The incision should be only large enough to allow placement of a drain. The underlying tissue dissection is performed bluntly. The purpose of a drain is to keep the incision open. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The presurgical assessment of a permanent maxillary first molar reveals roots which are trifurcated and widely divergent. The maxillary antrum encroaches into the area of trifurcation. Which of the following should be done during extraction of this tooth? 1. 2.

4.

Reflect a flap. Reduce the palatal bone to the level of the trifurcation. Reduce the buccal bone to the level of the trifurcation. Amputate the crown and section the roots.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

Immediately following a left posterior superior alveolar nerve block injection, the patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly swollen on the left side. The immediate treatment should be to

If a patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11, the

1. 2.

3.

3. 4.

apply a cold compress. administer 0.3mg epinepherine (sublingually). apply pressure. refer for immediate medical treatment.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2.

4.

premolar drifts distally. maxillary second molar erupts and moves mesially. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. overbite increases.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which drug(s) control(s) pain and reduce(s) inflammation? The beaks of extract forceps 1.

4.

can lead to tooth fracture, slippage and injury to adjacent teeth if placed incorrectly. should be placed at the cervical line of the tooth. be pushed apically during extraction movements. should fit the crown of the tooth.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. 3.

Management of a “dry socket” should include 1. 2. 3. 4.

saline irrigation of socket. vigorous curettage of the socket. placement of a dressing in the socket. a prescription for antibiotics.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Acetylsalicylic acid. Acetaminophen. Ibuprofen. Meperidine HCl.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following procedures should be used to reduce the risk of exposure to mercury vapour? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Staff education. Rubber dam. High velocity suction. Surgical mask.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An open proximal contact on an amalgam restoration could have been caused by

Which one of the following is NOT a contraindication to ibuprofen?

1. 2. 3. 4.

inadequate wedging. overtightening the matrix band. inadequate condensing forces. simultaneous placement of adjacent proximal restorations.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Concurrent use of alcohol. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic acid. An allergy to acetaminophen. A gastric ulcer.

Which one of the following effects is expected with a therapeutic dose of acetaminophen? A. B. C. D.

Gastrointestinal irritation. Increased bleeding. Anti-inflammatory action. Antipyretic action.

The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is established at the A. B. C. D.

occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles. mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles. None of the above.

A vertical cross-section of a smooth surface carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle with the A. B. C. D.

base at the dentino-enamel junction. base facing toward the pulp. apex pointing to the enamel surface apex pointing to the dentino-enamel junction.

The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. B. C. D.

porphyromonas gingivalis. fusobacterium vincenti. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. prevotella intermedia.

Which of the following impression materials has the best dimensional stability? A. B. C. D.

Polysulfide rubber. Condensation silicone. Polyvinylsiloxane. Irreversible hydrocolloid.

The major advantage of glass ionomer cement as a restorative material is that it is A. B. C. D.

highly translucent. a fluoride releasing material. highly esthetic. unaffected by moisture during the setting reaction.

The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove

Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic formulations in order to

A.

1. 2. 3. 4.

increase duration of anesthesia. increase depth of anesthesia. reduce likelihood of systemic toxicity. reduce likelihood of allergic reaction.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B. C. D. E.

plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. plaque and calculus exclusively. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. all cementum associated with periodontitis.

After placement of the rubber dam you notice that the interdental papilla is protruding from beneath the rubber dam. The reason for this is that A. B. C. D. E.

a rubber dam frame was used. the holes were placed too far apart. a light weight dam was used. the holes were placed too close together. the teeth were not individually ligated.

Which of the following mucosae is normally keratinized? A. B. C. D.

Soft palate. Hard palate. Lateral tongue. Ventral tongue.

Periapical cemental dysplasia is A. B. C. D.

painful. expansile. associated with vital teeth. premalignant.

A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. The treatment of choice is A. B. C. D. E.

application of cyanoacrylate pit and fissure sealants. application of BIS-GMA pit and fissure sealants. conservative Class I amalgams. prophylactic odontotomy. no treatment.

A laboratory-fabricated composite resin inlay compared to a direct composite resin restoration has increased A. B. C. D.

colour stability. surface smoothness. control of polymerization shrinkage. bondability to tooth structure.

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include

A primary molar, in the absence of its permanent successor,

1. 2. 3. 4.

A.

A. B. C. D. E.

glossitis. angular cheilitis. pain. bluish purple discolouration of the oral mucosa. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency usually arises in patients 1. 2. 3. 4.

who are elderly. with acute infection. consuming a high protein or fat diet. taking systemic antibiotics.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Oral signs and/or symptoms of advanced vitamin C deficiency include 1. 2. 3. 4.

pain. angular cheilitis. spontaneous hemorrhage of the gingiva. xerostomia.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B. C. D. E.

should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. may remain for years with no significant resorption. will undergo normal root resorption. should be extracted. is more susceptible to dental caries.

Following root canal therapy, the most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen is A. B. C. D.

cementum deposition. connective tissue capsule formation. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament. dentin deposition.

A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. 2. 3. 4.

epistaxis. shortness of breath. rhinophyma. pitting edema of the ankles.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT associated with Cushing’s disease? A. B. C. D. E.

Buffalo hump. Osteoporosis. Hirsutism. Hypertension. Diabetes insipidus.

While the teeth are set in wax, dentures are tried in to A. B. C. D.

verify the maxillomandibular records. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. evaluate esthetics. All of the above.

The micro-organisms of dental caries are 1. 2. 3. 4.

Streptococcus mutans. Staphylococcus aureus. Lactobacillus acidophilus. β-hemolytic streptococci.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following would you NOT prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Acetylsalicylic acid. Metronidazole. Erythromycin. Codeine.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A fistula found in association with a non-vital tooth should be 1. 2. 3.

Which of the following may affect the results of electric pulp testing?

4.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Patient anxiety. Pain threshold. Analgesics. Recent trauma.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

cauterized to remove the epithelium. traced to source with a gutta-percha point on a radiograph. treated with combined surgical and nonsurgical root canal therapy. treated with nonsurgical root canal therapy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate treatment of a true combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is A. B. C. D.

periodontal surgical therapy only. nonsurgical root canal therapy only. periodontal surgical therapy before nonsurgical endodontic treatment. nonsurgical root canal therapy before periodontal therapy.

Which of the following procedures requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve? A. B. C. D. E.

Inferior alveolar nerve block. Postoperative suture removal. Endodontic instrumentation beyond apex. Restoration of occlusal caries. Making an alginate impression.

Following administration of a posterior superior alveolar nerve block, a hematoma occurs. Which of the following statements is correct? A. B. C.

D.

The formation of this hematoma indicates poor injection technique. This nerve block is not commonly associated with hematoma formation. Management of this hematoma includes immediate application of heat for at least the first 6 hours. The patient may experience trismus the next day.

Local anesthetic injected into dental abscesses is rarely effective because A. B. C. D.

bacteria can metabolize the local anesthetic. edema dilutes the local anesthetic. the tissue is too acidic. there is excessive vasoconstriction.

A crown margin can be extended subgingivally when required 1. 2. 3. 4.

for esthetics. to increase retention. to reach sound tooth structure. for caries prevention.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following root surfaces have concavities that make root planing difficult? A. B. C. D.

If a flush terminal plane converts to a mesial step terminal plane (Class I occlusion) without orthodontic intervention, it is primarily a result of A. B. C.

D. Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated with A. B. C. D.

fragile bones. multiple supernumerary teeth. odontogenic keratocysts. high incidence of palatal clefts.

Mesial of maxillary first premolars. Lingual of mandibular first premolars. Mesial of maxillary incisors. Distal of the palatal roots of maxillary molars.

the absence of mandibular primate space. maxillary forward growth exceeding mandibular forward growth. mesial movement of the mandibular first permanent molars following exfoliation of the mandibular second primary molars. distal movement of the maxillary first permanent molars following eruption of the maxillary second bicuspids.

The current recommended regimen of antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to penicillin is A.

B. C.

D. E.

amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before procedure; then 1.5g six hours after initial dose. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before procedure only. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour before procedure; then 150mg six hours after initial dose. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour before procedure only. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two hours before procedure only.

A patient presents with a 3 week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Three days ago the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull, spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

chronic apical abscess. a cracked tooth. pulpal necrosis. reversible pulpitis. a vertical root fracture.

Which one of the following luting agents has been shown to reduce the incidence of fracture in an all-ceramic restoration? A. B. C. D.

Saliva is most potent in minimizing the effect of an acid challenge by its A. B. C. D.

A. B.

C.

1. 2.

E.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

lubrication function. antimicrobial effect. buffering action. fluoride concentration.

A 24 year old patient has slightly retrusive lips and inadequate attached lower labial gingival. This patient requires labial movement of lower incisors to eliminate crowding and decrease overbite and overjet. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Assuming daily maximums are not exceeded, which of the following is/are appropriate for pain management following an emergency pulpectomy for an adult with a history of severe asthma and nasal polyps? Naproxen 250mg, every 6 - 8 hours p.r.n. Acetylsalicylic acid 650mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n. Ketorolac 10mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n.

Resin modified glass ionomer cement. Zinc phosphate cement. Composite resin cement. Glass ionomer cement.

D.

Change the treatment to an extraction type so lower incisors can be retracted. Inform the patient of the possibility of bone dehiscence and gingival recession during orthodontic treatment and the need for mucogingival surgery post-treatment. Arrange for corrective mucogingival surgery prior to the start of orthodontic treatment. Encourage the patient to practice meticulous oral hygiene to prevent the gingival recession. Move the teeth more slowly and with less force to minimize the amount of gingival recession.

A mandibular right second molar has tipped mesially into the adjacent edentulous space. Which of the following tooth movements will most likely occur when uprighted by fixed orthodontic therapy (fixed appliance on teeth 4.7, 4.5, 4.4 and 4.3)? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Extrusion of the second molar. Lingual tipping of the second molar. Intrusion of the anchor unit. Buccal tipping of the anchor unit.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 42 year old lethargic patient complains of constipation, weakness and fatigue. The clinical examination reveals dry skin, facial swelling and diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E.

Infectious mononucleosis. Multiple myeloma. Hypothyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism. Addison’s Disease.

A 32 year old male complains of weight loss and diarrhea. The clinical examination shows lymphadenopathy, multiple flat erythematous lesions on the palate and a linear gingival erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis? Crohn’s disease. Diabetes mellitus. AIDS. Leukemia.

A 52 year old patient presents with a limitation of mouth opening. The patient has loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of gingival recession. A panoramic radiograph shows diffuse widening of the periodontal ligament. The most likely diagnosis is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Which of the following dental procedures could be performed with minimal risk for a 35year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder?

scleroderma. hyperparathyroidism. cicatricial pemphigoid. erythema multiforme. advanced adult periodontitis.

A patient complains of irritability, fatigue and weakness. She is losing weight and has diarrhea. The clinical examination shows diffuse brown macular pigmentation of the oral mucosa. The pigmentation appeared recently. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

iron deficiency anemia. Addison’s disease. acute myeloid leukemia. Crohn’s disease.

A. B. C. D.

Mandibular block anesthesia. Supragingival calculus removal. Incisional biopsy. Subgingival restoration.

Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. B. C. D.

Hyperthyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism. Hypothyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism.

Your patient is currently on warfarin. Before a planned extraction of tooth 3.4, the patient’s coagulation mechanism should be evaluated using which test?

The pain associated with pulpitis often disappears when a patient visits a dental office. This occurs due to which of the following events?

A. B. C. D.

A.

Bleeding time. Partial thromboplastin time. Prothrombin time. Von Willebrand’s Factor.

B.

C. A 75-year old male patient whose wife died 10 months ago presents for his recall appointment. Looking wasted and fatigued, he confirms he has lost about 6 kilograms in the last eight months but is otherwise in good health. The most appropriate management for this patient is to A. B.

C. D.

recommend that he drink three cans of a nutritional supplement each day. refer him to a qualified dietician/nutritionist and follow up after his appointment. refer him back to his physician requesting a more thorough assessment. provide him with a copy of Canada’s Food Guide to Healthy Eating.

D.

Nystatin is the drug of choice for A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Tuna fish sandwich on whole wheat bread, green salad, 2% milk. Chicken sandwich on white bread, diet cola, avocado. Pretzels, potatoe chips, juice. Hard-boiled egg, celery and carrot sticks, diet cola.

aphthous stomatitis. candidiasis. periodontal abscess. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).

The most appropriate treatment of chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis of the mandible includes 1.

Which of the following snacks has the lowest cariogenic potential?

Stress-induced sympathetic activity inhibits pulpal sensory fibres that cause pain. Stress-induced sympathetic activity causes vasodilatation of pulpal blood vessels. Local mediators of pulpal pain are not released when a stress-induced rise in blood pressure occurs. Pulpal pain receptors undergo fatigue.

2. 3. 4.

intravenous antibiotics followed by long term oral antibiotics. hyperbaric oxygen. decortication. radiotherapy.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In periodontal disease, connective tissue destruction results from direct action of A. B. C. D.

matrix metalloproteinases. bacterial toxins. cytokines. organic acids.

Dental implants are CONTRAINDICATED in patients who 1. 2. 3. 4.

are over age 80. have unrepaired cleft palates. are taking anticoagulants. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient has a displaced right subcondylar fracture of the mandible. On opening, the mandible deflects to the right. Which muscle is prevented from functioning appropriately? A. B. C. D.

Medial pterygoid. Temporalis. Masseter. Lateral pterygoid.

The most prevalent inflammatory cells found in gingival tissue 24 hours following flap surgery are A. B. C. D.

monocytes. macrophages. lymphocytes. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars and good alignment of the lower incisors. The management of this patient should be to A. B. C. D.

refer for orthodontic consultation. use a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars. place patient on appropriate recall schedule.

Which antibiotic is CONTRAINDICATED for a patient with a history of a Type 1 anaphylactic reaction to penicillin? A. B. C. D.

Azithromycin (Zithromax®). Cephalexin (Keflex®). Clindamycin (Dalacin®). Erythromycin (Eryc®).

A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of filiform papillae, located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. B. C. D. E.

benign migratory glossitis. median rhomboid glossitis. a granular cell tumor. iron deficiency anemia. a fibroma.

Which of the following “in office” preventive procedures is most practical and effective for an uncooperative 4-year old patient from a noncompliant family? A. B. C. D. E.

Oral hygiene instruction. Dietary counseling. Fluoride varnish every six months. Fluoride supplements. Pit and fissure sealants on all primary molars.

A 25 year old female in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. B. C. D.

Prescription of a radiograph. Prescription of penicillin V. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management.

A patient receiving daily corticosteroid therapy for the past six months requires surgical extraction of tooth 3.8. Prior to the surgery, this patient’s drug therapy should be modified by A. B. C. D.

stopping corticosteroid therapy for one week. stopping corticosteriod therapy for the day of operation. increasing corticosteroid intake for one week. increasing corticosteroid intake for the day of operation.

The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV is 1. 2. 3. 4.

more resistant than HIV. transmissible through saliva. in higher numbers in blood than HIV. autoclave resistant.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

With two rescuers performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient, how many external chest compressions are given per minute? A. B. C. D.

40 60 80 100

Respiration is depressed by A. B. C. D.

lowered arterial CO2. acidemia. stretching of lung tissue. increased peripheral chemoreceptor activity.

In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis with associated lymphadenopathy, which of the following medications is the most effective? A. B. C. D.

An anti-inflammatory. A topical antibiotic. A systemic antibiotic. An analgesic.

Which of the following radiographic investigations results in the lowest effective dose? A. B. C. D.

An 18 film intraoral series. A lateral cephalometric projection. A panoramic radiograph. A computer tomograph (CT) of the mandible.

Which of the following sweeteners used in sugarless gum is most effective in preventing caries? A. B. C. D.

Xylitol. Sorbitol. Mannitol. Glycerol.

Which of the following are possible causes of Bell’s Palsy? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Incorrect injection technique. Viral infection. Inflammation of the facial nerve. Surgical trauma.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

During a normal chewing cycle, which of the following has/have maximum EMG activity when the teeth are in maximum intercuspation? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Medial pterygoid muscles. Masseter muscles. Lateral pterygoid muscles. Digastric muscles.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate time to remove a supernumerary tooth that is disturbing the eruption of a permanent tooth is A. B. C. D.

as soon as possible. after two thirds of the permanent root has formed. after the apex of the permanent root has closed. after the crown appears calcified radiographically.

A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

achondroplasia. malignant hyperthermia. ectodermal dysplasia. cystic fibrosis.

Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. B. C. D.

Cold developer. Over exposure. Improper safety light. Excessive developing time.

Which of the following is necessary for collagen formation? A. B. C. D. E.

Vitamin A. Vitamin C. Vitamin D. Vitamin E. Vitamin K.

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. 2.

4.

malalignment of teeth. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. patient movement during the exposure.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

In a child with a high caries incidence, the most appropriate cement for a band and loop space maintainer is A. B. C. D.

zinc oxyphosphate. glass ionomer. zinc oxide and eugenol. polycarboxylate cement.

The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. completely eliminates skin bacteria. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Appropriate management for the relief of symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised patient may include 1. 2. 3. 4.

Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Gingival enlargement may result from the administration of 1. 2. 3. 4.

nifedipine. cyclosporine. phenytoin sodium. prednisolone.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The risk of latex allergy increases with a/an 1. 2. 3.

The survey of the diagnostic cast that is done as part of a removable partial denture design procedure is needed to

4.

increased exposure to latex. history of spina bifida. history of allergy to bananas, chestnuts or avocado. history of eczema.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

1.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

determine the path of insertion of the removable partial denture. evaluate the retention potential of the abutment teeth. evaluate the modifications needed to create parallel guiding planes. locate the height of contour abutment teeth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Pontic design for a porcelain fused to metal bridge should

Which of the following could cause clicking sounds during speech in denture wearers?

1. 2.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A nonbalanced occlusion. An excessive occlusal vertical dimension. A reduced horizontal overlap. A lack of denture retention.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

4.

provide for a rigid restoration. allow for complete coverage of the metal by the porcelain. place the porcelain metal joint away from the soft tissues. control thermal conductivity.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

When designing a removable partial denture, changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the 1. 2. 3. 4.

path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. the position of the survey line on the cast. the undercut and non-undercut areas. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following can increase the chances of successful osseointegration of a dental implant? 1. 2. 3. 4.

An atraumatic surgical approach. The availability of dense cancellous bone. A good initial stability of the implant. Immediate loading of the implant.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

If a polyvinyl siloxane material is used to make the final impression for a maxillary cast restoration, the impression tray must

The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by

1. 2. 3. 4.

be rigid. have occlusal stops. be coated with an appropriate adhesive. cover the hard palate.

A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

C. D. E.

splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions. placing distal rests on distal abutments. using cast clasps on distal abutments. regular relining of the distal extensions.

Which of the following is an acceptable means to obtain the gingival retraction that is needed when using an elastomeric impression material for making a final impression in fixed prosthodontics? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Electrosurgery. A moist retraction cord. A copper band that is removed when the impression is made. Using a heavy body material in the impression tray. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The shape of the distobuccal border of a mandibular denture is determined by 1. 2. 3. 4.

the buccinator muscle. the tendon of the temporal muscle. the masseter muscle. the external oblique ridge.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following could cause phonetic problems for patients with removable dentures? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Posterior teeth placed in a buccal position. Excessive bulk in the palatal area. Anterior teeth that are too long. Advanced ridge resorption.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are desirable in an overdenture abutment? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Absence of extensive restorations. Pre-existing endodontic treatment. A 1:1 crown to root ratio. A large band of attached gingiva.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Aging pulps show a relative increase in 1. 2. 3. 4.

fibrous elements. cell numbers. calcification. vascularity.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Radiographs of a periodontally-related osseous defect can be used to confirm the A. B. C. D.

number of bony walls. measurement of the defect. location of the epithelial attachment. presence of a furcation involvement.

Healthy attached gingiva A. B. C. D.

has no basal cell layer. is closely bound to underlying periosteum. contains elastic fibers. has no rete pegs.

The redness of inflamed gingiva is due to A. B. C. D.

the degree of keratinization. subgingival deposits. increased collagen fiber density. increased vasodilation.

Shortly after the administration of an inferior alveolar nerve block, a healthy adult patient rapidly develops a facial rash. Which of the following signs and symptoms should be watched for before initiating the planned dental treatment? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Pallor and perspiration. Shortness of breath. Hyperventilation. Edema of the lips.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An unerupted supernumerary tooth between the permanent maxillary central incisors is commonly associated with which of the following clinical observations? A. B. C. D.

Dental diastema. Hypertrophied labial frenum. Delayed exfoliation of primary maxillary lateral incisors. Absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors.

Which of the following has analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects? A. B. C. D.

Acetaminophen. Acetylsalicylic acid. Bradykinin. Diazepam.

After many caries free years a 78 year old patient develops multiple root surface caries. This is most likely the result of A. B. C. D.

changes in cementum composition. exposure of the cementoenamel junctions. decreased salivary flow. changes in dietary pattern.

The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the A. B. C. D. E.

maxillary protrusion. overbite. upper incisor inclination. facial height. mandibular angle.

A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be caused by 1. 2. 3. 4.

inadequate ceramic thickness. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. excessive occlusal load. use of an inappropriate luting material.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than preparing the teeth again. Where should the male part of the attachment ideally be located? A. B. C. D.

Distal of the 3.5 retainer. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second bicuspid can be confirmed?

Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1,000mg of acetaminophen?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

2 years. 4 years. 6 years. 8 years.

A Bolton relationship has determined a

 

maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm

What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Deeper overbite. Maxillary crowding. Reduced overjet. Increased overjet. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of a maxillary midline diastema? A. B. C. D.

Mesiodens. Space shortage. Gemination. Dens invaginatus.

The normal growing mandible exhibits which of the following characteristics? A. B. C. D.

Resorbs along the posterior rami. Grows more vertically than horizontally. Has completed 100% of its growth by age 13 in females. Has latent post pubertal growth potential.

An adult with liver cirrhosis. A chronic alcoholic. A diabetic. A 15kg, 4 year old child.

The vibrating line of the palate is 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

always on the hard palate. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. easily located on a cast. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A preparation for a porcelain fused to metal crown with a porcelain butt joint margin should have a 1. 2. 3. 4.

90o cavosurface margin. subgingival finish line. 1.2mm shoulder. 90o axiogingival angle.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following can be considered to compensate for the lack of parallelism between abutments when a severely tilted second molar is to be included in a fixed bridge? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Orthodontic uprighting of the second molar. Using a coping and telescopic crown as the retainer on the second molar. Including a non-ridge connector in the fixed partial denture design. Hemisecting the second molar. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are essential when using a spherical rather than an admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

A larger diameter condenser tip. An anatomical wedge. A thinner matrix band. A serrated condenser tip. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Corticosteroids may be used for the management of 1. 2. 3. 4.

allergy. arthritis. asthma. Addison's disease.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and(4) (4) only All of the above.

Trauma from occlusion may A. B. C. D.

initiate marginal gingivitis. affect the blood supply to gingiva. initiate periodontitis. affect the progression of periodontitis.

If left untreated, a pyogenic granuloma will most likely A. B. C. D. E.

shrink over time. remain unchanged. continue to enlarge. burst and then heal. burst, heal, but then recur.

All of the following are well documented initiating factors of hairy tongue EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E.

candidiasis. mouth rinses. antibiotics. systemic corticosteroids (Prednisone). radiotherapy to the head and neck.

A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has A. B. C. D. E.

Mumps. sialolithiasis. acute bacterial sialadenitis. Sjögren’s syndrome. sarcoidosis.

Which of the following diseases may cause an enlargement of the jaws, development of diastemas and/or a poorly fitting denture? A. B. C. D. E.

Phantom bone disease. Rickets. Paget’s disease. Osteoporosis. Hypophosphatasia.

Multiple well-defined multilocular radiolucencies of the maxilla and mandible in a 5 year old is most likely A. B. C. D. E.

ameloblastic fibromas. ameloblastomas. cherubism. hyperthyroidism. hypophosphatasia.

The direct immunoflourescence pattern seen in pemphigus vulgaris has been described as A. B. C. D. E.

target-like. chicken wire. soap-bubble. corrugated. cotton wool.

Overhangs on restorations predispose Multiple osteomas and supernumerary teeth may be associated with A. B. C. D. E.

Gorlin’s syndrome. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome. Gardner’s syndrome. Cleidocranial dysplasia. Ectodermal dysplasia.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

enhanced plaque retention. restricted plaque removal. enhanced food retraction. increased caries susceptibility. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The test(s) diagnostic for primary hyperparathyroidism in a patient with multiple brown tumours is/are A. B. C. D. E.

parathyroid biopsy. multiple jaw biopsies. radiographic skeletal survey. serum calcium and PTH level. creatine clearance and BUN.

In general, a pigmented macule measuring 4mm in diameter should be treated by A. B. C. D. E.

incisional biopsy. excisional biopsy. exfoliative cytology. carbon dioxide laser. electrocautery.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for periodontitis? A. B. C. D.

Smoking. Poorly controlled diabetes. Coronary heart disease. Poor oral hygiene.

Periodontitis 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

develops from gingivitis. goes through stages of activity and remission. is associated with bone loss. is caused by occlusal trauma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Clinical diagnosis of periodontitis requires the presence of

Properties of glutaraldehyde include 1.

1. 2. 3. 4.

bleeding upon probing. loss of periodontal attachment. a periodontal pocket. tooth mobility.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a porcelain fused to metal crown should provide 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

adequate length for retention-resistance. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic. a single path of insertion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Amphetamines 1.

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue. minimal effect on pulp tissues. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which conditions are associated with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Acute marginal periodontitis. Hairy leukoplakia. Candidiasis. Geographic tongue.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

After pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8 year old child, the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are

2. 3. 4.

increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. are analeptics. have no effect on psychomotor activity. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.

1. 2. 3. 4.

completion of root formation. internal resorption. dentin bridge formation. formation of pulp stones.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce

Which of the following may affect probing depth measurements of a periodontal pocket?

1. 2. 3. 4.

image definition. secondary radiation. radiographic contrast. radiation received by patient.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Probing force. Diameter of the probe tip. Angulation of the probe. Subgingival calculus.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In x-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

contrast. speed of electrons. penetrating power of radiation. amount of radiation produced. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. 2. 3. 4.

using a high speed film. using an aluminum filter. increasing target-film distance. using low kVp.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A Class II dental malocclusion in the mixed dentition will likely A. B. C. D. E.

develop into a Class I malocclusion with normal exfoliation of the primary molars. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. develop into a Class I malocclusion with late mandibular growth. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow.

The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

genetic. epigenetic. functional. environmental. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Amalgam is condensed to 1. 2. 3. 4.

further break down the alloy particles. force the alloy particles together. complete the trituration process. express excess mercury content.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to A. B. C. D.

eliminate the need for internal retention. improve convenience form. aid in finishing. increase the surface area for etching.

The primary purpose(s) of relining a distal extension base of a removable cast framework partial denture is/are to improve 1. 2. 3. 4.

fit of the framework. occlusion. function. tissue adaptation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient complains of the discolouration of an upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A.

In chronic gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium

B.

1. 2.

C.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

is a barrier to bacterial invasion. is permeable to bacterial enzymes and toxins. may be ulcerated. undergoes both degenerative and proliferative changes. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

D. E.

perform root canal treatment and non vital bleaching. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism?

Displacement of fractures is influenced by 1. 2. 3. 4.

direction of the blow. muscle attachments. direction of fracture line. hemorrhage.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Codeine. Penicillin V. Acetaminophen Tetracycline.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In an insulin dependent diabetic, hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4.

mental confusion. tachycardia. sweating. nausea.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following anesthetic agents is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Prilocaine (Citanest). Lidocaine (Xylocaine). Mepivicaine (Carbocaine). Procaine (Novocain).

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In Angle's classification, a Class II, division 1 malocclusion may describe a combination of skeletal problems, such as 1.

The principles of closed fracture management are

2.

1. 2. 3. 4.

reduction of fracture. immobilization of fracture. restoration of occlusion. incision and debridement at fracture site.

3.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

4.

maxillary protrusion, normal mandibular position. normal maxillary position, mandibular retrusion. maxillary protrusion, mandibular retrusion. bimaxillary protrusion, with the maxilla more protrusive than the mandible. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The treatment of an ameloblastoma is A. B. C. D.

chemotherapy. enucleation. resection. radiotherapy.

After initiating preventive management for a 16 year old patient with multiple extensive carious lesions, which of the following restorative treatments is most appropriate? A. B. C. D.

Place amalgam restorations over the next few months. Excavate caries and place temporary restorations within the next few weeks. Delay any treatment until the hygiene improves. Restore all teeth with composite resin over the next few months.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine) 1. 2. 3. 4.

is a local anesthetic agent. has topical anesthetic properties. is an antiarrhythmic agent. has anticonvulsant properties.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

Acute periapical abscess of a mandibular central incisor. Middle face cellulitis. Chronic periapical abscess of a mandibular third molar. Infected dentigerous cyst.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following are characteristics of restorative glass ionomer cements? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Release of fluoride. Bonding to enamel. Setting is affected by moisture. Irritating to pulpal tissues.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A retrograde filling is indicated A. B. C.

Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?

excessive orthodontic forces. periapical granuloma. traumatic injury. cementoma.

D.

when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics. when a root perforation needs to be sealed. when conventional endodontics is impossible due to calcified canals.. All of the above.

For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local anesthesia A. B. C. D.

affects blood pressure more than general anesthesia. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. is responsible for bacteremia. None of the above.

The setting of a zinc-phosphate cement can best be retarded by

The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by

A. B.

1. 2. 3. 4.

adding an occlusal dovetail. increasing the parallelism of walls. lengthening the axial walls. placing a gingival bevel.

Xerostomia can be

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

found in the elderly. drug induced. associated with diabetes. predisposing to dental diseases.

The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

C. D.

decreasing the particle size. increasing the concentration of water in the liquid. increasing the rate of addition of the powder to the liquid. cooling the glass mixing slab.

The primary stress bearing area of the maxillary complete denture is the A. B. C. D.

hard palate. alveolar ridge. soft palate. zygoma.

Side effects of therapeutic doses of codeine may produce 1. 2. 3. 4.

constipation. drowsiness. nausea. respiratory depression.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3 (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

rough surface. space for the veneer material. definite finish line. margin at least 1mm supragingivally.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In an 80 year old patient you would expect 1. 2. 3. 4.

a reduced size of the pulp chamber. increased incidence of pulp stones. increased tendency to pulpal fibrosis. an increased pulpal vascularity.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

When exposing radiographic film, the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by A. B. C. D.

collimation. decreased object-film distance. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. decreased target-object distance.

Which of the following could cause phonetic problems for patients with removable dentures? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Posterior teeth placed in a buccal position. Excessive bulk in the palatal area. Anterior teeth that are too long. Bilaterally undercut ridges.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A bitewing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating one third into the mesial enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4 is to A. B. C. D.

place an amalgam restoration. place a porcelain inlay. place a direct composite restoration. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene.

A patient with Alzheimer’s dementia presents with his personal care worker. His daughter, who is his legal guardian, is unavailable. What is required to obtain informed consent for an elective invasive procedure? A. B. C. D.

The patient’s presence implies consent. Obtain written consent from the patient. Obtain written consent from the personal care worker. Obtain consent from the patient’s daughter.

Enamel pearls form when In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential?

A.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A larger sized condenser. A thinner matrix band. A properly placed wedge. Use of mechanical condensation.

C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B.

ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away from the dentin. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast vesicles.

For which of the following is nystatin oral suspension an appropriate treatment? A. B. C. D.

Herpetic gingivostomatitis. Nicotinic stomatitis. Denture stomatitis. Aphthous stomatitis.

As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 1. 2. 3. 4.

religious beliefs. infectious disease. physical handicap. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2.0mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. B. C. D.

bonded amalgam core build-up. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. intentional devitalization followed by a post and core restoration.

Hydrocolloid impressions are removed from the mouth with a snap because they exhibit A. B. C. D. E.

syneresis. imbibition. viscoelasticity. low elastic recovery. low tear strength.

The desirable relationship between the coefficients of thermal expansion of an alloy (ε metal ) and a ceramic (εceramic) used for a metalloceramic restoration is A. B. C. D. E.

ε metal ε metal ε metal ε metal ε metal

significantly higher than εceramic. significantly lower than εceramic. equal to εceramic. slightly higher than εceramic. slightly lower than εceramic.

Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

phosphate cement. phenolic cement. resin modified glass ionomer cement. polyalkenoic acid cement. adhesive resin cement.

Light-cured dental composites set when exposed to light. Light is the A. B. C. D. E.

initiator. reactor. catalyst. activator. terminator.

In alginate impression materials, sodium phosphate (Na3PO4) is the A. B. C. D. E.

reactor. catalyst. retarder. disinfectant. cross linking agent.

Xerostomia can result from 1. 2. 3. 4.

Sjögren’s syndrome. radiation therapy for oral cancer. antidepressant drug therapy. anticholinergics (Atropine).

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The roots of the first permanent molar should be completely formed by the age of A. B. C. D. E.

six years. seven years. nine years. eleven years. thirteen years.

A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a 4 unit fixed partial denture and it has 2mm of remaining coronal tooth structure. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth? A. B. C. D. E.

Lateral periodontal cyst. Dentigerous cyst. Periapical cemental dysplasia. Periapical abscess. Radicular cyst.

A patient's 4 mandibular incisors were traumatized 3 years ago in an accident. Radiographs now show apical radiolucencies associated with all 4 teeth. The recommended treatment is to A.

A white, diffuse, wrinkled appearance of the buccal mucosa which diminishes in prominence or disappears upon stretching is indicative of A. B. C. D. E.

leukoedema. lichen planus. candidiasis. linea alba. white sponge nevus.

a bonded amalgam. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. intentional devitalization followed by a post and core restoration.

B. C. D.

test the pulp vitality and perform root canal therapy on teeth with no response. perform root canal therapy and curette the area. extract and place a bonded bridge. postpone treatment and recheck status periodically.

A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body of the zygoma is A properly designed pontic should A. B. C. D.

stabilize opposing teeth. protect abutment teeth through its flexibility. completely occupy the space of the extracted tooth. provide for visual inspection of the margins of the retainers.

A. B. C. D.

cerebrospinal rhinorrhea. impaired hearing. subconjunctival haemorrhage. otorrhea.

A 55 year old female patient complains of dry, burning mouth. The clinical and radiological examination shows xerostomia, periodontitis, multiple caries, periapical abscesses and candidiasis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D.

AIDS. Diabetes mellitus. Multiple myeloma. Leukemia.

The dimensional stability of polyether impression material is considered to be good EXCEPT if the material is A. B. C. D.

dehydrated. allowed to absorb water after setting. distorted by rapid removal of the impression from the mouth. contaminated with latex.

The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. B. C. D.

amide. ester. aldehyde. acid.

To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should For prevention of cross infection, which of the following impression materials can be treated with a disinfecting spray solution/agent? A. B. C. D. E.

Irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate). Polyether. Polysulfide. Polysiloxane. All of the above.

The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a 1. 2. 3. 4.

coarse diamond finish. space for the veneer material. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. definite gingival finish line.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following principle fibre groups of the periodontal ligament is the most numerous and provides the main support for the tooth? A. B. C. D.

Horizontal. Transseptal. Oblique. Gingival.

A. B. C. D.

approach 45 degrees. approach 90 degrees. be beveled. be chamfered.

The drug of choice for prophylactic antibiotic therapy for dental patients with a past history of rheumatic fever and a history of penicillin sensitivity is A. B. C. D.

methicillin. clindamycin. streptomycin. tetracycline.

The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is to 1. 2. 3. 4.

act as an indirect retainer. stabilize the abutment teeth. act as a direct retainer for the distal base. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The retention of an indirect, extra-coronal restoration can be improved by 1. 2. 3. 4.

decreasing the taper of the preparation wall. lengthening the clinical crown. adding grooves. an antirotation key.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In comparison to visible light, x-rays A. B. C. D.

have a longer wave length. have higher energy. travel faster. can be focused.

All of the following appear as midline structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

nasopalatine/incisive canal. anterior nasal spine. nasal septum. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Your patient is currently on warfarin. Before a planned extraction of tooth 3.4, the patient’s coagulation mechanism should be evaluated using which test? A. B. C. D.

Bleeding time. Partial thromboplastin time. Prothrombin time or INR. Von Willebrand’s Factor.

Movement of a mandibular distal extension (Class 1) partial denture away from the denture bearing tissues when the patient opens is primarily caused by A. B. C. D.

xerostomia. group function occlusion. non-passive retentive arms. overextended borders.

Radiographic examination reveals early evidence of internal resorption. The treatment of choice would be A. B. C. D. E.

apical surgical intervention. immediate pulp extirpation. immediate pulpotomy. observation and re-evaluation in 3 - 6 months. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.

Dental implants are CONTRAINDICATED in patients who 1. 2. 3. 4.

are over age 80. have unrepaired cleft palates. are taking anticoagulants. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 4mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old child. The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. The appropriate initial treatment would be to perform a/an A. B. C. D.

pulp capping. pulpotomy. pulpectomy. extraction.

Which of the following medications increases a patient’s risk for intraoral candidiasis?

The electric pulp tester might be of some value in determining whether

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2. 3. 4.

the pulp is hyperemic or hyperplastic. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp. there is a partial or total pulpitis. the pulp is vital or nonvital.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Warfarine (Coumadin®). Cyclosporine. Pentobarbital. Ibuprofen. Pilocarpine.

Localized gingival recession of a mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year old can be caused by A. B. C. D. E.

vitamin C deficiency. ankyloglossia. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis. traumatic occlusion. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

In composite resin restorations, glass ionomer cements can be used as a base because they are A. B. C. D.

sedative to a hyperemic pulp. neutral in colour. biocompatible. compatible with the expansion of composite resins.

The most common cause of long-term post operative sensitivity following the placement of posterior composite resin restorations is A. B. C. D.

hyperocclusion. microleakage. acidic primers. residual caries.

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to 1. 2. 3. 4.

eliminate the need for internal retention. improve convenience form. aid in finishing. increase the surface area for etching.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A rubber dam should be used in A. B. C. D. E.

pulp capping procedures. amalgam placement. composite placement. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. all of the above.

The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. B. C. D.

amide. ester. aldehyde. acid.

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 2. 3. 4.

protects the enamel. increases retention. improves marginal adaptation. increases the thickness of gold.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A crown margin can be extended subgingivally when required 1. 2. 3. 4.

for esthetics. to increase retention. to reach sound tooth structure. for caries prevention.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An altered cast impression technique for freeend extension mandibular partial denture cases is done primarily to 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

capture soft tissue in a supporting form. capture the retromylohyoid area. prevent displacement of the retromolar pad. allow jaw relation records to be made simultaneously with impression making. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

When compared to dental amalgams made from lathe cut particles, dental amalgams made from spherical particles A. B. C. D.

require more mercury. set more quickly. are more difficult to adapt to the cavity preparation. require higher condensation forces.

The periodontal probe should be inserted into the sulcus A. B. C. D.

parallel to the long axis of the tooth. parallel to the root surface. with a firm pushing motion. with a firm lateral motion.

Subgingival calculus A. B. C. D.

accumulates predominantly on mandibular incisors and maxillary molars. derives its dark colour from food and drinks. is the cause of periodontitis. is mineralized subgingival plaque.

The most likely indication of a poor periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. B. C. D.

wide root separation. narrow root separation. a bifurcation ridge. a cemento-enamel projection.

The purpose of a post and core restoration is to A. B. C. D.

seal the root canal treatment. reinforce the remaining tooth structure. retain the crown. prevent root discolouration.

In a post-endodontic restoration, the function of the post is to insure

Which of the following is the best predictor for successful periodontal flap surgery?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

distribution of forces along the long axis. resistance of the tooth to fracture. sealing of the root canal. retention of the definitive restoration.

A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam restoration has just had endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4.6 but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated final restoration. Interim restorative management of 4.6 with the best prognosis is to A. B. C. D.

restore with a MOD amalgam. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore with a MOD amalgam. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and restore with a MOD amalgam. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin.

Overhanging margins of restorations at the gingival margin contribute to gingivitis in all cases EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Woven. Bundle. Lamellar. Cortical.

A.

C. D.

A. B. C.

precedes alveolar bone loss. follows alveolar bone loss. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss.

can be stored for up to 24 hours if placed in an airtight container after sterilization. can be stored for up to 7 days if placed in sterile bags after sterilization. can be stored for up to 1 year if wrapped after sterilization. must not be stored after sterilization.

The single most important measure to reduce the risk of transmitting organisms to patients is A.

During periodontal disease activity, the loss of clinical attachment

retain dental plaque. retain food debris. cause irritation. create excessive pressure.

Unbagged sterilized instruments

B. Which of the following types of bone contain the insertions of the periodontal ligament fibres?

Position of the flap after suturing. Extent of flap reflection. Level of plaque control. Type of initial incision.

B. C. D.

use of personal protective barriers: masks, eyewear, outerwear and gloves. sterilization of instruments and disinfection of the operatory. handwashing. introduction of single use instruments and disposables.

On a semi-adjustable articulator, the incisal guide table represents

The characteristics of "group~function" occlusion are:

A.

A.

B. C. D.

a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson.

A carious lesion on tooth 1.6 appears close to the pulp on the bitewing radiograph. A diagnosis of irreversible pulpitis can be made based on A. B. C.

proximity of the radiolucency to the pulp. a lower electric pulp test reading compared to the control. the symptoms reported by the patient.

B. C. D.

The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion.

The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is A. B. C. D.

survey line. terminal line. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. line of greatest torque.

The main reason for adding copper to a dental amalgam alloy is to A patient reports pain on mastication since the placement of a metal ceramic (porcelain fused to metal) crown 2 weeks earlier. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D.

hyperemia. supraocclusion. dentin hypersensitivity. acute pulpitis.

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process will likely A. B. C. D.

limit the distal extent of the mandibular denture. affect the position and arrangement of posterior teeth. aid in determining the location of the posterior palatal seal. limit the thickness of the maxillary buccal denture flange.

A. B. C. D.

increase expansion. reduce tarnish resistance. make amalgamation easier. reduce the tin-mercury phase.

When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth, the centre of rotation is located A. B. C. D.

at the apex. at the cervical line. within the apical half of the root. within the cervical one third of the root.

During routine examination, it is noted that a premolar is erupting ectopically 3.5mm to lingual while the primary predecessor is still firmly in place. The most appropriate management is to A. B. C. D.

allow the primary tooth to exfoliate naturally. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate its exfoliation. remove the primary tooth and allow the permanent successor to erupt. extract the ectopically erupting premolar.

Each of the following can cause maxillary midline diastema EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E.

a mesiodens. congenitally missing lateral incisors. a tongue thrust habit. a thumb-sucking habit. absence of primate spaces.

Which line angle is NOT present in a Class V amalgam cavity preparation? A. B. C. D. E.

The principal use of the rubber dam during placement of a composite resin restoration is to provide A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

decreased by one half, duration unchanged. decreased by one third, duration unchanged. unchanged, duration unchanged. increased by one third, duration unchanged. unchanged, duration extended by one half.

A pontic should A. B. C. D.

exert no pressure on the ridge. be contoured by scraping the master cast. have a large surface area in contact with the ridge. contact nonkeratinized tissue.

interproximal gingival retraction. contrast between the tooth and the operating field. access to the operating field. protection from fluid contamination.

The dentino-enamel junction is the most sensitive portion of a tooth because A.

When prescribing antibiotics for an orofacial infection in a healthy elderly patient, the usual adult dose and duration of the prescription should be written using the following guidelines. The dose is

Mesioaxial. Axiopulpal. Gingivoaxial. Distoaxial. Occlusoaxial.

free nerve endings terminate on odontoblasts at this region. odontoblastic processes branch considerably at this region. ameloblasts make synaptic connections with odontoblasts at this junction. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.

A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site of injury could be a potential analgesic because ATP A. B. C. D.

inhibits nociceptors. activates nociceptors. causes vasoconstriction. prevents vasoconstriction.

The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

genetic. epigenetic. functional. environmental. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Saliva is most effective in minimizing an acid challenge by its A. B. C. D.

lubrication function. antimicrobial effect. buffering action. fluoride concentration.

In determining the ideal proximal outline form for a Class II amalgam cavity preparation in a molar the 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

axial wall should be 1.5mm deep. gingival cavosurface margin must clear contact with the adjacent tooth. proximal walls diverge occlusally. facial and lingual proximal cavosurface margins must just clear contact with the adjacent tooth. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1.6 is

The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include the

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2. 3. 4.

frontomaxillary suture. zygomaticomaxillary suture. pterygopalatine suture. median palatine suture.

Major connectors of a cast maxillary partial denture are beaded at the periphery in order to

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

mesiopulpal. buccopulpal. linguopulpal. axiopulpal. None of the above.

improve tissue contact. aid in retention of the denture. produce a stronger framework. form a finish line between metal and acrylic. retain the acrylic to the metal of the framework.

A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. You would suspect A. B. C. D.

asthma. emphysema. rhinophyma. cardiac insufficiency.

A primary molar, in the absence of its permanent successor, A. B. C. D. E.

should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. may remain for years with no significant resorption. will undergo normal root resorption. should be extracted. is more susceptible to dental caries.

A patient wearing complete dentures complains of tingling and numbness in the lower lip bilaterally. This is often an indication of A. B. C. D. E.

allergy to denture base material. impingement of denture on the mandibular nerve. defective occlusal contacts. impingement of denture on the mental nerve. neoplastic invasion of the inferior mandibular nerve.

Wettability is NOT a desirable property for which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

Dental impression materials. Acrylic resin for denture bases. Uncured composite resins. Hand instruments for placing resins. Trituration of amalgam.

Which pontic type is best for a knife edge residual ridge where esthetics is not a major concern? A. B. C. D.

Sanitary. Conical. Ridge lap. Modified ridge lap.

The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is A. B. C. D.

the same as the proportional limit. decreased by work hardening. the same as the stress at fracture. higher than the proportional limit.

A vital canine is to be used as the anterior abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it has 2.0mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The most acceptable foundation restoration would be A. B. C. D.

bonded amalgam core build-up. a pin retained amalgam core build-up. a pin retained composite resin core buildup. devitalization followed by a post and core restoration.

A dental radiograph will accurately indicate A. B. C. D. E.

periodontal pocket depth. the height of the bone on the facial surfaces of the teeth. the extent of furcation involvements. infrabony pocket topography. None of the above.

If the lining cement is left on the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam restoration, A. B. C. D.

A. cement dissolution will lead to leakage. B. the preparation will lack retention form. C. the preparation will lack resistance form to bulk fracture. D. the preparation will lack appropriate outline form.

Which of the following teeth is the LEAST desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a fixed partial denture? A tooth A. B. C. D.

with pulpal involvement. with minimal coronal structure. rotated and tipped out of line. with a short, tapered root and a long clinical crown.

The most likely cause of fracture of the veneering porcelain, that leaves the underlying metal exposed on a porcelain fused to metal bridge is A. B. C. D. E.

flexure of the bridge under the occlusal load. veneering porcelain that is more than 2mm thick. contamination of the metal prior to porcelain application. porosities inside the veneering porcelain. overglazing of the porcelain.

Which one of the following is the most common tumor of the salivary glands? A. B. C. D.

Adenocystic carcinoma. Canalicular adenoma. Pleomorphic adenoma. Muco-epidermoid carcinoma.

The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

more resistant than HIV. more transmissible through saliva. in higher numbers in blood than HIV. autoclave resistant. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The major advantage of glass ionomer cement as a restorative material is that it is A. B. C. D.

highly translucent. a fluoride releasing material. highly esthetic. unaffected by moisture during the setting reaction.

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication? A. B. C. D.

Accessory. Labial. Parotid. Sublingual and submandibular.

Gigantism is caused by A. B. C. D. E.

a hyperactive thyroid. atrophy of the posterior pituitary. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary. hyperplasia of the parathyroids. none of the above.

Which chemical mediator of inflammation is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)? A. B. C. D.

Bradykinin. Histamine. Substance P. Prostaglandin.

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. 2. 3. 4.

glossitis. angular cheilitis. pain. erythematous oral mucosa.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A rubber dam should be used in A. B. C. D. E.

A patient presents with a dislocated mandible after an accident. After reduction, the management of this patient should be to A. B. C. D.

inject the joint with hydrocortisone. refer for joint surgery. advise vigorous exercise of the mandible. recommend mandibular movement be minimized.

pulp capping procedures. amalgam placement. composite placement. removing carious dentin from deep lesions. all of the above.

Which of the following would NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Acetylsalicylic acid. Metronidazole. Erythromycin. Codeine.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following statements is/are true when using forceps for extraction of a maxillary first molar?

In a 4 year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected, non-restorable first primary molar is to

1. 2. 3.

Palatal bone is thinner than buccal bone. Buccal bone is easier to expand. Forcep movement should be principally in the palatal direction. Forcep movement should be principally in the buccal direction.

A. B. C. D.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is

4.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

extract it and place a space maintainer. observe it until it exfoliates. extract it. observe it until it becomes symptomatic.

observation over 6 months for further resorption. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis.

Which of the following would be considered normal blood pressure for a healthy 75 year old?

The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is

A. B. C. D.

A.

175/95. 138/86. 130/100. 185/94.

B. C. D.

The presence of anterior diastemas and distally inclined maxillary incisors in a 9 year old child will most likely A. B. C. D. E.

be associated with a Class II division II malocclusion. involve the presence of mesiodens. self correct. require orthodontic treatment. be associated with hypodontia.

E.

observation over 6 months for further resorption. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis.

Which medication is used to control pulpal hemorrhage when performing an emergency pulpotomy?

One week after receiving a complete denture a patient returns with an isolated sore spot. The most likely cause is

A. B. C. D. E. F.

A. B. C. D.

Which permanent maxillary molar root has a higher incidence of two canals?

incorrect vertical dimension. localized pressure. an inaccurate centric relation record. decreased tissue tolerance.

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a porcelain fused to metal crown should provide 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

adequate length for retention-resistance. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic. a single path of insertion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

Iodoform. Ferric sulfate (15%). C.M.C.P. Cresatin. Epinephrine (1:1000). Formocresol.

Distobuccal root of the first molar. Distobuccal root of the second molar. Mesiobuccal root of the first molar. Mesiobuccal root of the second molar.

Hyperplastic pulpitis is A. B. C. D.

an acute condition. a proliferative reaction of the pulp. frequently found in elderly patients. accompanied by severe pain.

Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing? A. B. C. D.

Ice water. Air jet. CO2 (dry ice). Ethyl chloride.

The occlusal parameter that is most useful to differentiate between an overbite of dental or skeletal origin is the A. B. C. D. E.

mandibular curve of Spee. mandibular curve of Wilson. molar sagittal relationship. mandibular anterior lack of space. maxillary curve of Wilson.

The best way to disinfect gutta-percha cones prior to obturation is to A. B. C. D.

immerse in a 5.25% sodium hypochlorite solution. immerse in ethyl alcohol. autoclave for a full cycle. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze.

Which of the following is NOT related to an interincisal diastema? A. B. C. D. E.

The presence of a mesiodens. A tongue thrust when swallowing. A hypertrophic labial frenum. A thumb sucking habit. A Class II canine relationship.

Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of a barbed broach? A. B. C. D.

Removal of vital or non-vital pulp tissue. Removal of food debris from the canal. Removal of paper points and cotton pellets. Removal of gutta-percha during nonsurgical retreatment.

Root canal filling pastes containing paraformaldehyde A. B. C. D. E.

can be used routinely because of their antibacterial action. reduce the incidence of post-operative pain. are considered to be below the standard of care in Canada. do not cause systemic toxicity. are well tolerated by periradicular tissues.

The side effect LEAST likely to occur during rapid maxillary expansion is A. B. C. D. E.

increasing the vertical dimension. decreasing the vertical dimension. mesial movement of the maxilla. increasing maxillary inter-molar width. increasing mandibular inter-molar width.

The most important factor to consider before extracting a mandibular incisor is A. B. C. D. E.

severity of the crowding. mandibular curve of Spee. a Boltan discrepancy. the vertical incisor relationship. the horizontal incisor relationship.

The diagnostic information for a 10 year old patient with a mildly prognathic mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm overbite should include A. B.

C.

D.

photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. family history, photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. family history, photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs. photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs.

A patient, when in full intercuspation, shows a right side posterior crossbite and a lower midline that is deviated to the right. At initial contact there are bilateral posterior crossbites and coincident midlines. The most likely cause of this finding is A. B. C. D.

severe temporomandibular dysfunction. two ideal occlusions. true unilateral crossbite. occlusal interference and functional shift.

A 12 year old patient has the following cephalometric values: SNA = 87° (N = 82°) SNB = 80° (N = 80°) Mandibular Plane Angle = 32° (N = 32°) FMA = 26° (N = 26°) The patient is a skeletal class II with a A. B. C. D.

normal maxilla and a retrognathic mandible. prognathic maxilla and a normal mandible. prognathic maxilla and a retrognathic mandible. retrognathic maxilla and a normal mandible.

The application of cold to a tooth will temporarily relieve pain in A. B. C. D.

acute suppurative pulpitis. chronic pulpitis. acute apical abscess. pulpal necrosis.

Following radiation therapy to the mandible, extraction of mandibular teeth is most likely to result in A. B. C. D. E.

fracture. actinomycosis. osteomyelitis. soft tissue necrosis. development of malignancy.

A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. B. C. D.

mounting of the casts in the articulator. registration of jaw relation records. processing of acrylic. registration of condylar guidance.

Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic injection reduces the A. B. C. D.

toxicity of local anesthetic. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. possibility of intravascular administration. possibility of paresthesia.

Which one of the following factors is LEAST important in determining the appropriate dose of drug for a patient? A. B. C. D.

Weight. Medical history. Age. Gender.

A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier presents for an extraction. The extraction should be delayed and A. B. C. D.

rescheduled at the end of the day for infection control. an antibiotic prescribed prophylactically. the patient referred to a hospital dental department. an evaluation of liver function performed.

A daily chlorhexidine rinse following periodontal surgery is primarily used to A. B. C. D.

enhance regeneration. encourage wound healing. facilitate plaque control. create new attachment.

All of the following are possible effects of acetylsalicylic acid EXCEPT The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is best probed from the A. B. C.

buccal. buccal or lingual. lingual.

Most bone loss associated with dental implants occurs at A. B. C. D.

0 – 1 year. 2 – 4 years. 5 – 7 years. 10 – 12 years.

The subgingival microbial flora isolated from sites of peri-implantitis is most similar to the flora of A. B. C.

periradicular abscess. gingivitis. periodontitis.

A. B. C. D.

reduction of fever. shortening of bleeding time. suppression of inflammatory response. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract.

The most common type of collagen found in the gingival connective tissue, periodontal ligament, and cementum is composed primarily of A. B. C. D.

type I. type II. type III. type IV.

Using a high speed dental handpiece WITHOUT water coolant will A. B. C. D. E.

produce a smoother surface. decrease pulpal damage if used with light pressure. reduce clogging of dental bur. reduce debris accumulation. increase frictional heat.

During orthodontic treatment, a healthy adolescent will most frequently present with It is ethical to replace amalgam restorations A. B. C. D.

gingivitis. horizontal bone loss. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. angular bone loss.

A. B. C. D.

on request from an informed patient. to relieve symptoms of multiple sclerosis. to reduce the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease. to eliminate toxins from the patient.

Management of a “dry socket” should include A. B. C. D.

hydrogen peroxide irrigation of socket. vigorous curettage of the socket. placement of a dressing in the socket. a prescription for antibiotics.

A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A.

Which anatomical structures form the inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical radiographs? A. B. C. D.

Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor of the nasal fossa. Anterior nasal spine and nasopalatine/incisive canal. Floor of the nasal fossa and maxillary sinus border. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and maxillary sinus border.

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of saliva production? A. B. C. D.

Accessory. Labial. Parotid. Sublingual and submandibular.

B.

C. D. E.

The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. B. C. D. E.

Spontaneous hemorrhage from the gingiva may be indicative of A. B. C. D.

parotitis. Hodgkin’s disease. diabetes. leukemia.

perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

observation over 6 months to monitor the progression of resorption. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis.

Which of the following isare (an) indication(s) for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Recurrent pericoronitis. Prevention of crowding of mandibular incisors. Pain. They are impacted.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most important factor in determining the dosage of systemic fluoride supplementation is A. B. C. D. E.

daily water consumption. climate. water fluoride concentration. total daily fluoride intake. patient age.

A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient has just completed a 7 day course of ampicillin for a respiratory infection. He presents with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of oral candidiasis. Which of the following drugs is/are appropriate to manage this condition? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Fluconazole. Nystatin. Ketoconazole. Clindamycin.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following would be considered normal blood pressure for a healthy 75 year old? A. B. C. D.

175/95 mmHg. 138/86 mmHg. 130/100 mmHg. 185/94 mmHg.

A 34 year old male patient complains of night sweats, weight loss, malaise, anorexia and lowgrade fever. Clinical examination shows a nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

viral hepatitis. infectious mononucleosis. tuberculosis. actinomycosis.

Aging pulps show a relative increase in 1. 2. 3. 4.

fibrous elements. cell numbers. calcification. vascularity.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1,000mg of acetaminophen? A. B. C. D.

An adult with liver cirrhosis. A chronic alcoholic. A diabetic. A 15kg, 4 year old child.

Pins for cusp replacement should ideally be placed A. within enamel. B. at the dentino-enamel junction. C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction.

The most important factor contributing to the long term success of the restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is the A. B. C. D.

type of post utilized. remaining coronal tooth structure. presence of extracoronal coverage. type of core material used.

When light-cured composite resins are placed A. surface polymerization is inhibited by carbon dioxide (CO2). B. the degree of conversion is 85-95%. C. increments of resin should not exceed 2mm. D. polymerization shrinkage increases with filler content.

The protective role of junctional epithelium is aided by its increased number of A. B. C. D.

cell layers. intercellular spaces. cell-cell adhesions. collagen fibres.

One of the mechanisms of bacterial adherence to the dental pellicle is through A small hinge articulator was used for the fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4.6. Which of the following movements will result in the greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient? A. B. C. D.

Laterotrusive. Mediotrusive. Protrusive. Retrusive.

Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? A. B. C. D.

Zinc phosphate. Polycarboxylate. Calcium hydroxide. Reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol.

A. positively charged bacteria with the pellicle. B. interaction of cations such as calcium. C. hydrophilic interactions. D. interaction of salivary anions.

Post-immunization serological test results for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B is informed that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. The health care worker should A. B.

C. Which of the following are vital signs? A. B. C. D.

Pulse rate and respiration. Complete blood count. Pupil size and reactivity. Height and weight.

Which of the following radiographs is most appropriate for the diagnosis of a fracture of the maxilla? A. B. C. D.

Panoramic radiograph. Anteroposterior radiograph of the skull. Periapical radiographs of maxillary teeth. Occlusal radiograph.

D.

receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. undergo the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. refrain from performing any exposureprone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection.

A 50 year old woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, bilateral enlargement of one or more salivary glands and lacrimal glands, as well as dryness of the eyes, nose, mouth and throat. The diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

erythema multiforme. Reiter's syndrome. Gardner's syndrome. Sjögren's syndrome. Plummer-Vinson syndrome.

Oral foci of infection are of greatest concern in patients with which of the following conditions? A. B. C. D.

Type 2 diabetes. Iron deficiency anemia. Hypertension. Rheumatic heart disease.

A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient has just completed a 7 day course of ampicillin for a respiratory infection. He presents with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of oral candidiasis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient? A. B. C. D. E.

Double the patient’s insulin dose. Reduce the patient’s insulin dose. Prescribe a topical steroid. Prescribe clindamycin. Prescribe nystatin.

Following the administration of a right inferior alveolar nerve block, right facial paralysis is noted. This condition was caused by inadvertent injection into the A. B. C. D. E.

pterygopalatine fossa. facial canal. parotid gland. submandibular region. sublingual gland.

A patient presents with 5mm of gingival recession on the labial of tooth 1.3. The most predictable surgical procedure to achieve root coverage on this tooth is a A. B. C. D.

free gingival graft. subepithelial connective tissue graft. lateral sliding pedicle graft. double papilla pedicle graft.

Nystatin is the drug of choice for

Which of the following is a depressor of the mandible?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

aphthous stomatitis. candidiasis. periradicular abscess. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).

Temporalis. Lateral (external) pterygoid. Masseter. Medial (internal) pterygoid.

Which of the following could cause clicking sounds during speech in denture wearers?

The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by

A. B. C. D.

A.

Excessive vertical dimension. Nonbalanced occlusion. Excessive buccal flange thickness. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite).

B. C. D.

radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. disclosing solution. probing with a fine instrument. visual inspection.

Aging pulps show a relative increase in A. B. C. D.

sensitivity. cell numbers. calcification. vascularity.

In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is located A. B. C.

within basal bone. coronal to alveolar bone crest. apical to alveolar bone crest.

The most likely diagnosis for a child with a painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is A. B. C. D.

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. aggressive periodontitis. idiopathic fibromatosis. aphthous stomatitis.

Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. C. D. E.

amide. ester. aldehyde. ethamine. aminide.

Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Loss of stippling. Gingival hyperplasia. Decreased pocket depth. Bleeding on probing.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Regarding dental caries, which of the following is correct? A. B. C. D.

All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. C. D. E.

amide. ester. aldehyde. ethamine. aminide.

A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. B. C. D.

pulp stones. tertiary dentin. secondary cementum. primary dentin.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine? A. B. C. D.

Methylparaben. Water. Sodium metabisulphite. Sodium chloride.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions? A. B. C. D.

Isoproterenol. Meperidine hydrochloride. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. Propoxyphene.

When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. B. C. D. E.

use a thyroid collar and lead apron. apply a radiation protection badge. use high speed film. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. take a panoramic film only.

If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured, it should be placed in

A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was most probably caused by a/an

A. B. C.

A. B. C.

water. 100% relative humidity. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution.

D. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. B. C. D.

deformity of the jaws. reduced vascularity of the jaws. increased vascularity of the jaws. increased brittleness of the jaws.

Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth? A. B. C. D.

Chronic periradicular periodontitis. Internal resorption. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Hyperplastic pulpitis.

E.

vitamin D deficiency. generalized calcium deficiency. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. infection of tooth 5.5 during the development of tooth 1.5. hereditary factor.

Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. B. C. D.

Periapical radiolucency. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. Pain upon biting pressure. Absent vitalometric response.

Myxedema is associated with

A 4 year old child has a normal complement of deciduous teeth, but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is typical of

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

insufficient parathyroid hormone. excessive parathyroid hormone. insufficient thyroid hormone. excessive thyroid hormone.

cleidocranial dysplasia. amelogenesis imperfecta. neonatal hypoplasia. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

acute inflammation of the pulp. pulpal abscess. chronic inflammation of the pulp. early apical abscess formation.

A. B. C. D. E.

excessive orthodontic forces. chronic periradicular periodontitis. traumatic injury. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp? A. B. C. D.

Dentigerous cyst. Lateral periodontal cyst. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. Pulp polyp.

Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. Cementoblastoma.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An ankylosed tooth is usually A. B. C. D.

nonvital. associated with a root fracture. infraerupted. found in the permanent dentition.

For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test? A. B. C. D.

Apical cyst. Acute apical abscess. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Chronic apical periodontitis.

The microscopic appearance of the central giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. B. C. D.

hyperparathyroidism. Paget's disease. cleidocranial dysplasia. hyperpituitarism.

An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. B. C. D.

Periradicular. Dentigerous. Residual. Lateral periodontal.

Radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. 2. 3. 4.

branchial cyst. nasopalatine cyst. nasolabial cyst. periradicular cyst.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. B. C. D. E.

Cemento-enamel junction. Marginal ridge. Carabelli cusp. Calculus. Cemental tear.

A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most likely A. B. C. D.

a periradicular periodontitis. a dentigerous cyst. a rarefying osteitis. the mental foramen.

A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The radiograph will show A. B. C. D. E.

an apical radiolucency. acute osteitis. root resorption. condensing osteitis. normal lamina dura.

One week after an amalgam restoration is placed in the mandibular first premolar, the patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking something cold. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs are normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

hypercementosis. reversible pulpitis. pulpal microabscess. acute periradicular periodontitis.

A 12 year old child presents with characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A. B. C. D.

6 years. 4 years. 1 year. before birth.

A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth A. B. C. D.

is nonvital. has a periodontal pocket. has a hyperemic pulp. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.

A 6 year old patient has a larger than average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. In order to manage the diastema, you should extract the mesiodens A. B.

The most appropriate radiographic examination for a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable caries or anomalies, and with open proximal contacts is A. B. C. D.

maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusals. a pair of posterior bite-wings. maxillary and mandibular posterior periapicals. no radiographic examination.

C. D.

after its complete eruption. once the patient has reached the age of 12. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. as soon as possible.

In children, the most common cause of a fistula is a/an A. B. C. D.

acute periradicular abscess. suppurative periradicular periodontitis. acute periodontal abscess. dentigerous cyst.

A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment should be to A. B. C. D.

cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. perform a pulpectomy. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer.

In a 4 year old child, the primary central incisor has discoloured following a traumatic injury. The treatment of choice is A. B. C. D.

pulpotomy. pulpectomy. observation. extraction.

Which of the following will impede healing following the surgical closure of an oroantral fistula? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Poor flap design. Excessive tissue tension. Blowing the nose. Sinus infection.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. The management of this patient should be to A. B.

The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old child is

C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

regular assessment of arch development. to perform space analysis. insertion of a space maintainer. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. extraction of the opposing molar.

A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a A. B. C. D. E.

fracture of the zygomatic arch. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. craniofacial dysjunction.

E.

plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. observe.

To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar, the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is A. B. C. D.

as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. after the permanent second molar has erupted. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed.

Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The immediate treatment should be to A. B. C. D. E.

use pressure followed by cold packs over the swelling. use hot packs over the swelling. refer the patient to a hospital. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg intravenously.

Epinephrine should NOT be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled A. B. C. D.

hyperthyroidism. hyperparathyroidism. myxedema. asthma.

A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels unwell following the administration of a local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This condition does not respond to placing the patient in a supine position. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D. E.

syncope. adrenal insufficiency. hyperglycemia. hypoglycemia. carotid sinus reflex.

Generally, glass ionomer cements contain A. B. C. D.

zinc oxide and distilled water. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and orthophosphoric acid. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and polyacrylic acid.

A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be caused by 1. 2. 3. 4.

inadequate ceramic thickness. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. excessive occlusal load. use of an inappropriate luting material.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. B. C. D. E.

Valvular heart disease. Cardiac prosthesis. Persistent odontogenic fistula. Immunosuppressive therapy. Organ transplant.

Under normal conditions, the most definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is A. B. C. D. E.

applying warm gutta percha to the crown. cutting into the dentin without anesthetic. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. performing a radiographic examination of the tooth. performing an electric pulp test.

A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. B. C. D. E.

periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. ameloblastoma. compound odontoma. complex odontoma. Pindborg tumor.

The usual adult dosage of codeine administered orally is

Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible?

A. B. C. D.

A.

500-1000mg. 250-500mg. 30-60mg. 2-5mg.

B. C. D.

The minimum time to wait before placing composite restorations after the completion of a bleaching (whitening) treatment is A. B. C. D.

1 to 2 hours. 24 to 48 hours. 1 to 2 weeks. 4 to 5 weeks.

A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. The treatment of choice is A. B. C. D. E.

application of pit and fissure sealants. preventive resin restorations. conservative Class I amalgams. prophylactic odontotomy. no treatment.

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 2. 3. 4.

protects the enamel. increases retention. improves marginal adaptation. increases the thickness of gold.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

E.

Class II division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. Class II division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit.

Assuming there is adequate tooth structure remaining, composite resins can be used as a core material for endodontically treated teeth to be crowned provided A. B. C. D.

the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure. there is an adequate ferrule. the resin is autopolymerizing. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum.

Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION for placement of a fissure sealant on a permanent molar? A. B. C. D.

Tooth erupted more than one year. Deep, narrow fissures. Inadequate moisture control. Community water supply fluoridated at 1.0ppm.

A child has received a successful inferior alveolar nerve block using 1.5ml of lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 epinephrine. However, during placement of a rubber dam clamp on the first permanent molar, the child complains that the “tooth ring” is hurting. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A 50 year old obese patient with type 2 diabetes takes oral hypoglycemics. He is frequently skipping meals in order to reduce his weight. During his 8:30 a.m. appointment, his speech becomes slurred and he is less alert than usual. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A. Wait 15 minutes until more profound anesthesia is achieved. B. Anesthetize the lingual nerve with the remaining lidocaine. C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve with the remaining lidocaine. D. Proceed with treatment without rubber dam.

A. B. C. D.

175ml of diet cola. 15g of glucose as tablets or in solution. 175ml unsweetened orange juice. Dismissal of the patient to have his breakfast.

Vitamin D is activated in the

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. 2.

4.

malalignment of teeth. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. patient movement during the exposure.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from the sun. B. liver upon hydroxylation. C. kidney upon hydroxylation. D. intestinal mucosa upon absorption.

Gingival response to plaque microorganisms in elderly patients is A. exaggerated due to an altered host immune response. B. exaggerated due to a change in the type of infecting microorganism. C. decreased due to circulatory changes. D. decreased due to an altered host immune response.

The mesial furcation of maxillary permanent first molars is best probed from the A. B. C.

buccal. buccal or lingual. lingual.

It may be possible to prepare a tooth for a restoration without anesthesia in an elderly patient due to an increase in A. the number of pulp stones found in first molars with advancing age. B. the deposition of secondary and tertiary dentin. C. hypercementosis. D. neurotransmitters in pulpal tissues.

A cast partial denture replacing teeth 3.5 - 3.8 and 4.5 - 4.8 was permanently relined with acrylic resin. At the delivery appointment, when the rests of the framework are fully seated on the abutment teeth the denture base does not contact the supporting tissues. The most likely cause of the problem is A. B. C.

D.

the denture reline resin shrunk during polymerization. excess pressure was placed on the rests during the impression procedure. excess pressure was placed on the denture base area during the impression procedure. the patient’s tissues have remodelled.

The antibiotic of choice for a periradicular dental abscess is A. B. C. D. E.

penicillin V. cephalosporin. erythromycin. metronidazole. ampicillin.

Which of the following materials is most likely to initiate a hypersensitivity reaction? A. B. C. D. E.

Titanium. Gold. Nickel chromium. Chrome cobalt. Silver amalgam.

When restoring an endodontically treated tooth, the post A. reinforces the root. B. needs to end within 1mm of the apex. C. retains the core.

What is the most likely cause of a maxillary denture dislodging when the patient opens wide or makes extreme lateral excursions? A. B. C. D. E.

Insufficient posterior palatal seal. Poor denture base adaptation. Labial frenum impingement. Coronoid process interference. Pronounced midpalatal raphe.

Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing? A. B. C. D.

Ice water. Air jet. CO2 (dry ice). Ethyl chloride.

Polyvinylsilopane impression materials have high A. B. C. D.

polymerization shrinkage. dimensional stability. by-product formation. linear expansion.

Which of the following bone lesions of the mandible is/are malignant? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Osteosarcoma. Osteochondroma. Ewing's tumor. Fibrous dysplasia.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following dental procedures could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder? A. B. C. D.

Mandibular block anesthesia. Supragingival calculus removal. Incisional biopsy. Subgingival restoration.

All of the following appear as midline structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

nasopalatine/incisive canal. anterior nasal spine. nasal septum. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Post-immunization serological test results for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B is informed that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. The health care worker should A. B.

C.

D.

receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. undergo the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. refrain from performing any exposureprone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection.

Incomplete tooth fracture A. can readily be diagnosed using transillumination. B. most commonly involves the supporting cusps. C. is associated with medium to large-sized restorations. D. elicits dull, prolonged pain on chewing.

The etiologic agent for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is A. B. C. D.

bacterial. viral. fungal. protozoan.

Compared to nonsmokers, patients who smoke have A. increased salivary antibodies (immunoglobulin A). B. increased serum IgG antibody response to periodontal pathogens. C. decreased serum T lymphocytes. D. decreased collagenase in periodontal tissue.

The diagnostic information for a 10 year old patient with a mildly prognathic mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm overbite should include A. B.

C.

D.

photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. family history, photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. family history, photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs. photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs.

Patients with known prion diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are characterized by A. the disease being transmissible through air or casual contact with an infected patient. B. needing no additional sterilization precautions in the management of the patient. C. the disease usually being fatal within one year. D. having an incubation time of 3-6 months for the disease.

Twenty-four hours following the simple extraction of tooth 4.7, a patient presents with severe bleeding from the extraction site. The most likely cause of this bleeding is a/an A. B. C. D.

disturbance of the hemostatic plug. infection of the socket. undiagnosed coagulopathy. dry socket.

A periodontal screening and recording (PSR) score of 3 for a sextant indicates that the pockets are NOT deeper than A. B. C. D. E.

3.0mm. 3.5mm. 4.0mm. 5.5mm. 6.0mm.

Subgingival calculus contributes to periodontal disease because it A. B. C. D.

is rough. harbours bacterial plaque. irritates the tissue. decomposes.

During the administration of local anesthesia, positive aspiration of blood will occur most often in a/an A. B. C. D. E.

mental or incisive block. posterior superior alveolar block. inferior alveolar block. anterior superior alveolar block. long buccal nerve block.

A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored maxillary central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful. The most appropriate management would be to A. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. B. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

A patient presents with pain from tooth 4.7 which is an abutment for a 4 unit bridge from 4.4 to 4.7. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal tooth 4.7 has extensive distal caries and apical rarefying osteitis. The most appropriate initial management is to A. prescribe an antibiotic and an analgesic and reappoint the patient. B. perform endodontic therapy through the 4.7 crown. C. section the bridge at 4.4, remove 4.7 crown and assess 4.7. D. remove entire bridge and assess restorability of abutments.

Post-immunization serological test results for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B reveals that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. The health care worker should A. receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. B. repeat the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. C. refrain from performing any exposureprone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. D. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection.

When using forceps to extract a maxillary first molar, the forceps movement should be principally in the buccal direction because the A. B. C. D.

buccal bone is thinner than the palatal bone. buccal roots are shorter than palatal root. risk for sinus perforation is minimized. furcation is more accessible from the buccal.

Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta-percha points? A. B. C. D. E.

Glass bead sterilizer. Autoclave. Chemical solutions. Flame sterilization. Dry heat sterilization.

Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with A. B. C. D. E.

inadequate periodontal support. pulp stones. constricted root canals. accessory canals. curved roots.

The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar should A. B. C. D.

be 2mm into the dentin. slope apically from mesial to distal. be parallel to the buccolingual cusp plane. be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management for a tooth displaying crazing of the enamel? A. B. C. D.

Splinting of teeth. Stainless steel band. Endodontic treatment. Periodic observation.

A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to A. B. C. D. E.

put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your office in a week's time. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately. place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately. place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately.

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. 2. 3. 4.

protects the enamel. increases retention. improves marginal adaptation. increases the thickness of gold.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice in pulp exposures of asymptomatic vital teeth with incompletely formed apices. Pulp capping is the recommended procedure for carious exposures on primary teeth. A. B. C. D.

The first statement is true, the second false. The first statement is false, the second true. Both statements are true. Both statements are false.

During matrix placement for a Class II cavity preparation, a wedge is placed to

A patient has suffered a blow resulting in the loosening of three maxillary incisors. Vitality tests give negative readings. The most appropriate management would be to

1. 2. 3. 4.

separate the teeth. adapt the matrix to the gingival margin. aid in the creation of a contact. absorb moisture.

A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

C.

Microbial virulence factors A. B. C. D.

are produced by non-pathogenic microbes. are always pathogenic. include exotoxins, capsules, endotoxins and enzymes. are caused only by Gram-positive microbes.

D.

perform pulpectomies on the teeth. remove the teeth, fill the root canals and replant. splint the teeth, check vitality in one month and if negative, treat endodontically. splint the teeth and treat endodontically immediately.

An incipient carious lesion is described as being in A. B. C. D.

dentin without pulpal involvement. the cementum only. the enamel and in the dentin up to 1mm. the enamel only.

If a complete occlusal adjustment is necessary, interferences should be corrected A. B. C. D.

after all restorative procedures are completed. at the time of each restorative procedure. before starting any restorative treatment. during treatment.

Pulpal response to cavity preparation depends upon

Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most commonly found in the

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

remaining dentin thickness. coolant used while cutting. sharpness of the bur. duration of the operation. (1) and (3) (2) and (3) (3) and (4) All of the above.

Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A.

In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of

B. C.

A. B. C. D.

cusp height. anterior teeth only. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps.

cervical third of the root. middle third of the root. apical third of the root. bifurcation area. trifurcation area.

D. E.

a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic pulpitis). late stage of acute pulpitis (acute suppurative pulpitis). chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative pulpitis). chronic apical abscess. pulp hyperemia.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar abscess? Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the application of

1.

3. 4.

A negative reaction to the electric vitality tester. A positive reaction of short duration to cold. A positive reaction to percussion. Presence of a draining fistula.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. A. B. C. D. E.

phenol. 70% ethyl alcohol. chlorhexidine. absolute alcohol. None of the above.

In composite resin restorations, polycarboxylate cements are used as a base because they are A. B. C. D.

sedative to a hyperemic pulp. neutral in colour. biocompatible. None of the above.

Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? A. B. C. D. E.

Streptococcus viridans. Staphylococcus aureus. Lactobacilli. Enterococci. Staphylococcus albus.

Following the removal of a vital pulp, the root canal is medicated and sealed. The patient returns with apical periodontitis. The most common cause is A. B. C. D. E.

overinstrumentation. lateral perforation. incorrect medication. pulp tissue left in the root canal. infection.

A zinc oxide and eugenol cement placed beneath a metallic restoration serves as a 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

thermal insulator. electrical insulator. cavosurface margin seal. medicinal benefit to the pulp. (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3)

Odontoblast nuclei displacement into adjacent dentinal tubuli is thought to be 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

a reversible pathologic condition. due to increased intrapulpal tissue pressure. due to contraction of collagen fibres. more frequent following the use of air coolant rather than water coolant. one of the first histological changes following operative trauma. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In the mandibular first premolar, the occlusal dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam preparation is usually not extended into the mesial fossa because of the A. B. C. D.

small lingual lobe. large buccal cusp. large buccal pulp horn. prominent transverse ridge.

Prior to the placement of polycarboxylate cement as a base for a restoration, the cavity preparation should be A. B. C. D.

painted with cavity varnish. cleaned with hydrofluoric acid. thoroughly dried with warm air. cleaned with water and air dried.

When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo degeneration, they are replaced by A. B. C. D.

ameloblasts. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells. multinucleated giant cells. osteoblasts.

Aging of the pulp is evidenced by a relative increase in 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

vascularity. nerve tissue. cell numbers. fibrous elements. calcification. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (3) (4) (5) (4) and (5)

In teeth with complete pulp necrosis, the periapical area is involved if 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

there is pain to thermal stimuli. there is pain on percussion. the tooth throbs when the patient is lying down. the radiograph shows an apical radiolucency. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Neutrophils. Eosinophils. Lymphocytes. Macrophages. Plasma cells. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (2) (1) (4) (5) (1) and (5) (3) (4) (5)

The masseter muscle originates from the A. B. C. D.

angle of the mandible. coronoid process. pterygoid fossa. zygomatic arch.

The physiologic rest position of the mandible is 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

a position determined by the musculature. a fairly constant position throughout life. used in determining occlusal vertical dimension. used when making a centric interocclusal record. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following muscles contribute to the protrusion of the mandible? A. B. C. D.

Medial pterygoids. Geniohyoids. Lateral pterygoids. Temporalis.

Which of the following muscles comprise the retromolar pad? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Lateral (external) pterygoid. Buccinator. Palatoglossus. Superior constrictor. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The success of indirect pulp capping is dependent upon A. B. C. D.

removal of all caries at the enamel-dentin junction. use of calcium hydroxide. a well sealed restoration. All of the above.

A tooth with a mild pulpitis should be sedated with

A loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by

A. B. C. D.

1. 2.

polycarboxylate cement. composite resin. silicophosphate cement. zinc-oxide-eugenol cement.

Polycarboxylate cement may be used as a base material beneath a metallic restoration because A. B. C. D.

its thermal conductivity is similar to dentin and enamel. its thermal diffusivity is similar to dentin and enamel. its compressive strength when set will resist forces of condensation. All of the above.

The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is A. B. C. D.

preservation of tooth structure. removal of all caries. straight line access to the canal. removal of all pulp horns.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Bell's palsy. metastatic malignancy to the body of the mandible. trigeminal neuralgia. fracture in the mandibular first molar region. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following nerves should be anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral incisor? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Nasociliary. Nasopalatine. Sphenopalatine. Anterior superior alveolar.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Function(s) of the dental pulp include(s) 1. 2. 3. 4.

defensive. sensory. circulatory. dentin repair.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who 1. 2. 3. 4.

had a myocardial infarct two months ago. is hypothyroid. has a Factor VIII deficiency. is 4 months pregnant.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Enlargement of the gingiva, described as idiopathic fibromatosis, is best described as A. B. C. D.

degeneration. inflammation. hyperplasia. neoplasia.

Lancinating paroxysmal pain in the posterior part of the tongue, tonsil, nasopharynx and pharynx is most likely diagnostic of A. B. C. D. E.

Ménière's disease. trigeminal neuralgia. sphenopalatine neuralgia. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. psychotic glosso pyrosis.

Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic inflammatory cells are histologic features that may be found in

The greatest single factor in reducing radiation exposure in dentistry is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

squamous cell carcinoma. carcinoma in situ. papillofibroma. endothelioma.

Radiolucent lesions of the jaws can be seen in 1. 2. 3. 4.

hyperparathyroidism. multiple myeloma. fibrous dysplasia. hyperthyroidism.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in diameter on the lateral border of the tongue was diagnosed as a fibroma. This patient should have A. B. C. D. E.

hemisection of the tongue. radiotherapy to site of biopsy. no additional therapy. re-excision with wider margins. radium implantation around biopsy site.

higher kVp. proper filtration. high speed film. collimation of the X-ray beam.

Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the best prognosis? A. B. C. D. E.

Lower lip. Retromolar area. Gingiva. Buccal mucosa. Hard palate.

In hyperparathyroidism, typical features of bone involvement are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

subperiosteal erosion of the phalanges. osteopetrosis. pathological fractures. renal stones. (1) (3) (4) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above.

A decrease of which of the following is indicative of hypoparathyroidism?

The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Serum phosphorus. Serum calcium. Thyroid activity. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

adenoma. choriocarcinoma. chondroma. lipoma. papilloma.

Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of Percussion of a tooth is used to evaluate A. B. C. D. E.

supernumerary incisors. pigmented teeth. peg lateral incisors. Fordyce's granules. blue sclerae.

A patient who uses nitroglycerine has A. B. C. D. E.

rheumatic heart disease. asthma. coronary artery disease. high blood pressure. cardiac arrhythmia.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

trigeminal neuralgia. acute maxillary sinusitis. impacted maxillary canine. impacted maxillary third molar. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.

For an adult patient, the recommended time interval between bitewing radiographic examination for the detection of dental caries is A. B. C. D. E.

6 months. 12 months. 24 months. dependent upon caries risk. None of the above.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The oral examination of the edentulous patient should include digital palpation because 1.

When a patient experiences continuous pain in the maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no evidence of dental infection, the most likely diagnosis is

ankylosis. pain. mobility. vitality.

2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

the arch form can be more accurately evaluated. the thickness of the mucosa can better be evaluated. undercut areas may be hard to visualize. spicules under the mucosa may be overlooked. the ridge relationship will be better understood. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) (5)

The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may radiographically show

Intensifying screens are used when exposing extra-oral radiographic films to

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

widening of the periodontal space. loss of lamina dura. a circumscribed radiolucency. calcification of the periodontal membrane. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

E.

improve detail. decrease exposure time. decrease scatter radiation. increase the quantity of X-rays necessary to produce a certain photographic effect on silver. None of the above.

Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by An increased heart rate may be associated with A. B. C. D.

hypothyroidism. prolonged corticosteroid therapy. hyperthyroidism. Down syndrome.

A. B. C. D. E.

line voltage fluctuation. diameter of the primary beam of radiation. type of timer. tissue density. filter thickness.

Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce The fixing solution serves the purpose of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

intensity of central beam. secondary radiation. radiographic contrast. image definition. radiation received by patient. (1) (2) (3) (5) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) and (5) All of the above.

Which of the following combinations of milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation with the maximum penetration? A. B. C. D. E.

10kVp - 65ma 85kVp - 5ma 90kVp - 10ma 65kVp - 15ma 75kVp - 40ma

1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D. E.

carrying on development. hardening the emulsion. removing unexposed silver salts. (1) and (2) (1) and (3) (2) and (3) All of the above. None of the above.

A radiolucent area in a radiograph occurs as a result of 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

decreased density of tissue. increased density of tissue. more radiation affecting the silver halide crystals. increased exposure time. (4) only (2) and (3) (1) and (3) (1) only None of the above.

In the early stage, a periradicular abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by A. B. C. D. E.

pain. type of exudate. tenderness to percussion. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. radiographic examination.

In the presence of an acute bacterial infection, laboratory tests will show an increase in A. B. C. D. E.

polymorphonuclear leukocytes. plasma cells. lymphocytes. monocytes. eosinophils.

A patient presents with apparent paralysis of one side of the face which appeared the day before. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D.

Glossodynia. Bell's palsy. Myasthenia gravis. Trigeminal neuralgia.

Which of the following bone lesions of the mandible is/are malignant? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Osteosarcoma. Osteochondroma. Ewing's tumor. Fibrous dysplasia.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Enlargement. Bleeding. Ulceration. Atrophy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Mucoceles are most commonly found in the Sickle cell anemia is A. B. C. D. E.

a genetic disease. caused by exposure to radiation. a viral infection. a drug reaction. an auto-immune disease.

A. B. C. D. E.

upper lip. lower lip. tongue. buccal mucosa. soft palate.

The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray beam is to An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in A. A. B. C. D.

the anterior region of the maxilla. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus. the posterior region of the maxilla. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline.

B. C. D. E.

permit the use of lower kilovoltage during exposure. filter out useless short rays. permit use of the long cone technique. reduce the diameter of the primary beam. reduce exposure time.

Multiple supernumerary teeth are most commonly found in A. B. C. D. E.

cherubism. cretinism. hypothyroidism. cleidocranial dysplasia. Down's syndrome.

Among the following, which may be associated with root resorption? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Excessive orthodontic forces. Periapical granuloma. Cementoma. Hypercementosis. Traumatic injury. (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (4) (5) (1) (2) (5) (1) (2) (3) (5) All of the above.

In radiography, a parallel technique or right angle technique as opposed to a bisecting angle technique will result in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

less gonadal radiation. greater entrance dosage. less dimensional distortion. a more heterogenous beam of X-rays. (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (3) All of the above.

A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. This history is suggestive of A. B. C. D. E.

gout. osteoarthritis. Still's disease. rheumatic fever. rheumatoid arthritis.

A radicular cyst A. B. C. D. E.

enlarges rapidly. infiltrates bone. contains fluid. cannot cause cortical bone expansion. is associated with a vital tooth.

The most logical explanation for causing swelling beneath the eye caused by an abscessed maxillary canine is that the A. B. C.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

Pain. Muscle tenderness. Limitation of jaw motion. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the joints. Radiographic changes of the joint.

D.

lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. bone is less porous superior to the root apex. infection has passed into the angular vein which has no valves. the root apex lies superior to the attachment of the caninus and levator labii superioris muscles.

The finding of “acid-fast” microorganisms in sputum suggests the presence of A. B. C. D.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Diplococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus pyogenes. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the wound margin is called

The cells responsible for antibody production are called

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

a fibroma. a keloid. a fibro-epithelial polyp. epithelial hyperplasia.

A clinical finding common to alcoholism, poorly-controlled diabetes mellitus, uremia and liver disease is A. B. C. D. E.

smooth tongue. increased blood pressure. coated tongue. labial fissures. halitosis.

In radiography, minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by A. B. C. D.

minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). maximum OFD (object -film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance).

polymorphonuclear leukocytes. mast cells. plasma cells. macrophages. megakaryocytes.

Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of A. B. C. D. E.

a ranula. a blockage of Wharton's duct. Ludwig's angina. a blockage of Stensen's duct. an epidemic parotitis.

A patient with a white blood cell count of 34,000/mm3 has a differential of lymphocytes 62%, lymphoblasts 4% and polymorphonuclear leukocytes 34%. The most likely form of leukemia is A. B. C. D. E.

aleukemic. granulocytic. monocytic. lymphocytic. plasma cell.

Granulation tissue is composed of A. B. C. D.

plasma cells and giant cells. fibroblasts, capillaries and chronic inflammatory cells. fibroblasts and eosinophils. epithelioid cells and tissue phagocytes.

A syphilitic gumma is most commonly found on the A. B. C. D. E.

lip. tongue. palate. buccal mucosa. gingiva.

Laboratory examination of the blood of a patient with an acute bacterial infection would show A. B. C. D. E.

lymphocytosis. leukocytosis. monocytosis. leukopenia. eosinophilia.

Radiographically, the anterior palatine foramen may be mistaken for 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

an incisive canal cyst. a median alveolar cyst. a radicular cyst. a naso-alveolar cyst. a globular maxillary cyst. (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (2) and (5) (2) and (3) (1) and (5)

The term used to describe epithelial changes including nuclear hyperchromatism, loss of increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal mitoses is A. B. C. D. E.

acanthosis. hyperkeratosis. dysplasia. parakeratosis. hyperparakeratosis.

Which of the following would you use to determine the status of the pulp of a tooth with a porcelain jacket crown? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Radiographic appearance. The electric pulp tester. Percussion and palpation. History and subjective symptoms. Thermal stimulus. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (5) (1) (3) (4) All of the above.

Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. B. C. D. E.

Salivary glands. Teeth. Sweat glands. Hair. Fingernails.

Which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration? A. B. C. D.

History of the oral lesion. Cytological smear. Systemic evaluation. Laboratory tests.

A periradicular granuloma can be differentiated from a periradicular cyst by the A. B. C. D.

radiographic appearance. patient’s symptoms. response to percussion testing. results of the biopsy.

A 12 year old boy has a history of severe sore throat followed by migratory arthralgia and swollen joints of the extremities. This history is suggestive of A. B. C. D. E.

acute herpetic gingivostomatitis. osteoarthritis. chronic polyarthritis. rheumatic fever. rheumatoid arthritis.

A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that it(s)

A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar may spread by direct extension to the

1.

1. 2. 3. 4.

parapharyngeal space. submandibular space. pterygomandibular space. submental space.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

gingival surface is concave and adapts closely to the ridge. has open gingival embrasures. conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. gingival surface is convex in all directions. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most likely complication associated with the extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E.

A toxic reaction to lidocaine. A toxic reaction to epinephrine. An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic. Incipient syncope. An impending adrenal insufficiency.

A. B. C. D.

a dry socket. nerve damage. fracture of the malar ridge. fracture of the tuberosity.

A patient presenting with diplopia, exophthalmos, nasal bleeding and swelling, may suffer from a fracture of the A. B. C. D.

neck of the condyle. body of the mandible. zygomatic bone. maxillary tuberosity.

A patient returns with persistent bleeding 5 hours after a tooth has been removed. Your first step is to Bacterial infection may be confirmed by A. B. C. D. E.

inject the area with local anaesthetic. give 10 mg of Vitamin K intramuscularly. have patient bite on gauze saturated with epinephrine. examine to locate source of bleeding. refer the patient for bleeding and coagulation tests.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

white blood cell count. hemoglobin level. erythrocyte sedimentation rate. platelet count. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 20-year old male presents with a three-day history of an acute generalized gingivitis. He has malaise, fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. A blood examination reveals

It is difficult to obtain satisfactory anesthesia in the presence of infection near the injection site because A.

Hb: 8.9g/100ml Platelets: 82,000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3 White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3

B. C.

the swelling causes increased pressure on the nerves. increased blood supply carries the anesthetic solution away too fast. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent. alkalinity of the infected tissue inhibits action of the anesthetic agent.

Normal Values:

D.

Hb: 14-18g/100ml Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3 White blood cell count: 5,000-10,000/mm3

The major stimulator of respiration is

The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

thrombocytopenic purpura. acute myelogenous leukemia. infectious mononucleosis. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

A. B. C. D.

low blood pressure. high percentage of blood oxygen. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.

The most common complication of a venipuncture is Ludwig's angina may cause death by A. B. C. D. E.

heart failure. asphyxia. convulsions. paralysis of muscles of respiration. pyemia.

A. B. C. D.

syncope. hematoma. thrombophlebitis. embolus.

Antihistamines act by If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

trismus. facial swelling. swelling in the submandibular area. rise in body temperature above 39C (102ºF).

increasing the action of histaminase. altering the formation of histamine. blocking the actions of histamine by competitive inhibition. interfering with the degradation of histamine.

Tetracyclines

Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses

1. 2.

1. 2. 3. 4.

3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

have no side effects. may increase susceptibility to superinfections. are safe to use during pregnancy. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

retards platelet function. has strong anti-inflammatory properties. produces CNS stimulation. has antipyretic properties. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized mainly in the Which valve is most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease? A. B. C. D.

Aortic. Pulmonary. Tricuspid. Mitral.

A. B. C. D. E.

liver. kidneys. small intestine. pancreas. spleen.

Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is A. B. C. D. E.

greater resistance to penicillinase. broader antibacterial spectrum. greater absorption when given orally. slower renal excretion. None of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

Penicillin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Chloramphenicol. Clindamycin.

Which drug is most adversely affected by ingestion of antacids? Trismus is most frequently caused by A. B. C. D.

tetanus. muscular dystrophy. infection. mandibular fracture.

A. B. C. D. E.

Cephalexin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Sulfisoxazole. Penicillin V.

All of the following are possible effects of acetylsalicylic acid except

The psychomotor recovery time from nitrous oxide sedation is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

reduction of fever. shortening of bleeding time. suppression of inflammatory response. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract.

Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of induction during inhalation anesthesia? A. B. C. D. E.

Pulmonary ventilation. Blood supply to the lungs. Hemoglobin content of the blood. Concentration of the anesthetic in the inspired mixture. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.

Systemic or topical cortisone therapy is used in the treatment of A. B. C. D. E.

necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. erythema multiforme. submaxillary cellulitis. ptyalism (excessive saliva). herpes simplex.

Which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious dental patient with a peptic ulcer? A. B. C. D. E.

Reserpine. Scopolamine. Silica gel. Diazepam. Calcium carbonate.

Unconsciousness in syncope results from A. B. C. D.

electrolyte imbalance. neurogenic shock. cerebral hyperemia. cerebral hypoxia.

immediate. 1 to 2 minutes. 10 minutes. 30 minutes.

The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. B. C. D.

sodium. fluoride. potassium. magnesium.

In a standard dental cartridge (carpule) containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of vasoconstrictor is A. B. C. D. E.

18.0 mg. 0.018 mg. 1.8 mg. 0.18 mg. 180.0 mg.

Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical procedure used to A. B. C. D.

facilitate reliable impression making. provide adequate posterior inter-arch space. allow placement of teeth over the residual ridge. increase the supporting surface area

In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which muscle is penetrated by the needle? A. B. C. D. E.

Buccinator. Mylohyoid. Superior constrictor. Masseter. Medial (internal) pterygoid.

A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli, and his respirations are depressed to 10 per minute. Appropriate treatment is to A. B. C. D.

administer ephedrine. observe the patient. force the patient to drink coffee. support respiration with oxygen.

The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is A. B. C. D.

oxidation. reduction. hydroxylation and oxidation. sequestration in the body fats.

Early anoxia is characterized by 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D.

cyanosis. bradycardia. tachycardia (1) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) All of the above.

An acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A. B. C. D.

submandibular space. pterygomandibular space. buccal vestibule. buccal space.

When sutures are used to reposition tissue over extraction sites, they should be 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

placed over firm bone where possible. interrupted, 15mm apart. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps without blanching. tight enough to produce immediate hemostasis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

What is the maximum number of cartridges (1.8ml) of a 2 local anesthetic solution that can be administered without exceeding a total dose of 300mg? A. B. C. D. E.

2 4 6 8 10

After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection, a patient would develop seventh nerve paralysis if the injection was made into the A. B. C. D. E.

internal maxillary artery. retroparotid space. internal pterygoid muscle. retromandibular vein. pterygoid plexus of veins.

In primary molars, radiographic bony changes from an infection are initially seen A. B. C. D.

at the apices. in the furcation area. at the alveolar crest. at the base of the developing tooth.

An ankylosed deciduous molar can cause A. B. C. D.

delayed eruption of the succeeding premolar. alteration of arch length. difficulty with extraction. All of the above.

Concerning hand-wrist radiographs, which of the following statements is correct? A.

B.

C. The eruption of a permanent central incisor may be delayed by A. B. C. D.

D.

a supernumerary tooth. dense fibrous tissue. a retained deciduous incisor. All of the above.

Bone age is estimated by the presence or absence of osseous centres in particular bones and compared with standards. Hand-wrist radiographs are a precise measure of progress in skeletal development in normal children. The hand-wrist radiograph is of little value in orthodontic diagnosis. The information obtained from radiographs alone is enough to make an accurate determination of skeletal age.

In cephalometry, the most stable point in a growing skull is the The highest incidence of congenitally missing lateral incisors is most likely seen in a patient with A. B. C. D.

unilateral cleft lip and palate. congenital heart disease. Down's syndrome. hyperthyroidism.

A radiographic examination of a 10 year old child reveals retention of deciduous teeth and presence of many unerupted supernumerary teeth. This is characteristic of A. B. C. D.

cleidocranial dysplasia. ectodermal dysplasia. dentinogenesis imperfecta. congenital hypothyroidism.

A. B. C. D.

sella turcica. nasion. Broadbent's point. Bolton point.

Which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

An 8-year old with no abnormal oral habits. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral habits. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet. An 8-year old with a previous thumb habit. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The radiographic appearance of internal resorption is

Primate spacing in the primary dentition is observed between

A.

1. 2. 3. 4.

B. C. D. E.

radiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity. radiolucency around the apex of the root. radiolucency on the surfaces of the root. localized radiopacities in the pulp cavity. radiopacity around the apex of the root.

Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. B. C. D.

8 years. 10 years. 12 years. Later than 12 years.

A. B. C. D. E.

B. The developing permanent tooth

B. C. D.

lies apically and lingually to primary teeth in the anterior region. may show deviated eruption times if the primary tooth is lost prematurely. has a more protrusive path of eruption in the anterior region. All of the above.

An endomorph is characterized as a person who A. B. C. D. E.

is short and fat. is tall and thin. is muscular. matures early. matures late.

The most appropriate management for a patient in an early mixed dentition stage with mild anterior crowding is to A. B. C. D.

strip all proximal contacts. extract the deciduous canines. perform a space analysis. regain space in the arch.

(1) and (3) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only

The anterior component of force may be observed clinically as A.

A.

maxillary canines and first molars. maxillary canines and lateral incisors. mandibular canines and first molars. mandibular canines and lateral incisors.

C. D.

distal movement of a permanent mandibular cuspid. mesial movement of a permanent maxillary first molar. A. and B. None of the above.

If a child's teeth do not form, the primary effect will be on the growth of the A. B. C. D.

alveolar bone. mandible. maxilla. palate.

The organisms associated with a carious pulpitis are A. B. C. D.

streptococci. staphylococci. spirochetes. viruses.

Mandibular growth A. B. C. D.

is sustained over a longer period of time in girls. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys. occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls.

The treatment of a Class II, Division 1 malocclusion has the best prognosis when A. B. C. D. E.

there is labial tipping of the maxillary incisors. there is a satisfactory relationship of maxillary and mandibular apical bases. there is no archlength(tooth size) discrepancy. There is a short lower anterior face height. All of the above.

Hypothyroidism affects the dental developmental pattern by A. B. C. D.

interfering with jaw growth. delaying the eruption timetable. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. accelerating the eruption timetable.

Loops and helices in wires are used in orthodontic appliances to provide A. B. C. D.

a decreased force. a greater range of activation. more precise control of tooth movement. All of the above.

An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with Mandibular condylar region grows by A. B. C. D.

Class I cuspid relationship. Class II cuspid relationship. Class III cuspid relationship. Class I molar relationship.

A. B. C. D. E.

sutural and interstitial proliferation. interstitial and appositional proliferation. appositional and sutural proliferation. interstitial proliferation only. appositional proliferation only.

A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9 year old should A. B. C. D. E.

self-correct. be treated with a removable appliance. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment. be treated in the complete permanent dentition. be observed and treated when the cuspids have erupted.

The significant factor in the correction of an anterior cross-bite is the A. B. C. D.

age of patient. depth of cross-bite. shape of the tooth involved. space available mesiodistally.

The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed. may remain for years with no significant resorption. may remain for years partially resorbed. are always resorbed. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A Class II dental occlusion in the mixed dentition will likely A. B. C. D. E.

develop into a Class I occlusion after normal exfoliation of the primary molars. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. develop into a Class I occlusion with late mandibular growth. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow.

Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling A. B. C. D.

through the primary dentition. until the end of mixed dentition. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth. throughout life.

Pressure and tension have little effect on growth of A. B. C. D.

the fronto-maxillary suture. the alveolus. the mandible. cartilage.

A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely due to a/an A. B. C. D. E.

dietary deficiency. endocrine deficiency. tetracycline therapy. trauma to the maxillary primary central incisor. high fluoride intake.

The term "dental age" refers to the A. B. C. D.

state of dental maturation. eruption time of a given tooth. number of years elapsed since a given tooth erupted. None of the above.

The best time to correct a permanent maxillary central incisor cross-bite is A. B. C. D.

after the canines erupt. after the central incisors erupt. after the lateral incisors erupt. during the eruptive stage of central incisors.

When taking radiographs on a 10 year old child, which of the following should be used to decrease radiation exposure? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A lead apron. A decrease of the kilovoltage to 50kVp. Use of high speed film. Application of a radiation protection badge.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An exchange of calcium ions between saliva and enamel is

Class II malocclusions can be prevented by A.

1. 2.

4.

affected by fluoride. a component of remineralization and demineralization. important in maintenance of tooth structure. pH dependent.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

A 3 year old requires the extraction of a deciduous maxillary second molar. The local anesthetic technique of choice is A. B. C. D.

a posterior superior alveolar block. buccal and palatal infiltration. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal infiltration of the mesio-buccal root. an infra-orbital block.

A 9-year old boy is brought to the office for treatment immediately following a facial injury with a fracture of enamel only of a maxillary central incisor. The tooth tests completely negative to an electric pulp tester. This finding indicates that the tooth A. B. C. D.

is non-vital and should be extracted. is non-vital and endodontic therapy may save the tooth. probably has a root fracture and is not amenable to root canal therapy. may be only temporarily non-responsive and should be checked at a later date.

B. C. D.

maintaining the integrity of the primary dentition. preventing thumbsucking and lip biting habits. correcting mouth breathing as early as possible. None of the above.

The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its growth period is called A. B. C. D.

remodeling. cortical drift. area relocation. translatory growth.

Tooth development begins when the basal layer of cells proliferates to form a ridge called the A. B. C. D.

dental lamina. dental papilla. odontoblastic matrix. invaginating cap.

The sequence of eruption of the mandibular permanent teeth is normally 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. A. B. C. D.

central incisor. lateral incisor. canine. first premolar. second premolar. first molar. second molar. (6)(1)(2)(4)(5)(3)(7) (6)(1)(2)(3)(5)(4)(7) (1)(6)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7) (6)(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7)

The most frequent cause of malocclusion is

A facebow is used to record the

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

vertical dimension of occlusion. inter-occlusal relationship. horizontal condylar inclination. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

thumbsucking. mouth breathing. heredity. ectopic eruption.

In the mandibular dental arch of a 12-year old boy, the permanent first molars are in contact with the first premolars and the crowns of the second premolars have erupted lingually. The likely cause is A. B. C. D. E.

ankylosis of the mandibular second premolars. lack of space. teeth too large for the dental arch. premature loss of deciduous second molars. faulty lingual eruption of the second premolars.

Thumbsucking in most cases does not cause permanent harm to the dentition if the habit is A. B. C. D. E.

discontinued before four years of age. discontinued before eight years of age. practised only at night. is light in intensity. None of the above.

Which oral mucosa changes are possible side effects of chemotherapy? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Atrophic thinning. Ulceration. Necrosis. Spontaneous bleeding.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone A.

The most common cause of a Class I malocclusion is A. B. C. D. E.

discoordinate growth of the dental arch. insufficient tooth size. inequity between tooth size and supporting bone. maxillary incisor crowding. congenitally missing teeth.

B. C. D. E.

is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone. does not contain elastic fibres. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium.

The enamel structures most resistant to the action of acids are A. B. C. D.

cuticles. lamellae. rods. interprismatic substances.

Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque? A. B. C. D. E.

Plasma cells and monocytes. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Macrophages. Lymphocytes. Mast cells.

Which of the following foods is the most cariogenic? Gingival crevicular fluid A. B. C. D.

Cheese. Dark chocolate. Jam. Toffee.

A. B. C. D. E.

never varies in volume. is a transudate. is derived from mast cells. is an exudate. B. and D.

Epidemiology of disease is best described as the A. B. C. D.

data obtained from sickness surveys. usual low level of disease normally found within a population. control of disease. study of disease patterns in a population.

After a tooth surface has been completely cleaned, the new mucoprotein coating which forms on the surface is called A. B. C. D. E.

pellicle. plaque. materia alba. primary cuticle. Nasmyth's membrane.

With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by A. B. C. D.

gram-positive organisms. gram-negative organisms. diplococcal organisms. spirochetes.

The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

vascularity of the gingiva. epithelial keratinization. thickness of the epithelium. melanin pigmentation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An acute lateral periodontal abscess can be differentiated from an acute abscess of pulpal origin by the A. B. C. D. E.

type of exudate. intensity of pain. nature of swelling. degree of tooth mobility. response to a vitality test.

Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is

Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

fibroedematous. edematous. fibrotic. formed within an infrabony pocket. associated with exudate formation.

During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in A. B. C. D. E.

peg-shaped teeth. partial anodontia (hypodontia). Hutchinson's incisors. enamel hypoplasia. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

increasing plaque retention. increasing food retention. causing traumatic occlusion. causing pressure atrophy.

Caries in older persons is most frequently found on which of the following locations? A. B. C. D.

Pits and fissures. Proximal enamel. Root surfaces. Incisal dentin.

The predominant cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in A. B. C. D. E.

abnormal formation of osteoid. osteitis fibrosa cystica. Paget's disease. myositis ossificans. osteogenesis imperfecta.

Fluorides are effective in the prevention of dental caries by A. B. C. D.

increasing the resistance of dentin to bacterial penetration. causing tooth enamel to be more resistant to demineralization. providing a more favorable pulpal blood supply. All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

neutrophils. eosinophils. basophils. lymphocytes. monocytes.

Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival recession? A. B. C. D. E.

Connective tissue graft. Gingivoplasty. Lateral sliding flap. Gingival graft. No treatment.

In patients with advanced periodontitis, mobile teeth should be splinted in order to The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. B. C. D.

horizontally. laterally. obliquely. vertically.

A. B. C. D.

reduce gingival inflammation. accelerate epithelialization after periodontal surgery. enhance formation of a new connective tissue attachment after surgery. None of the above.

Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by A. B. C. D.

osteoplasty. gingivoplasty. deep scaling. bone grafting.

DMF-S is an index for expressing A. B. C. D.

dental needs. tooth mortality. extent of dental neglect. dental caries.

A clenching habit may be a factor in Which of the following foods is LEAST cariogenic? A. B. C. D. E.

Canned fruit. Potatoes. Fruit jello. Cheese. White bread.

In a young patient living in an area with communal water fluoridation, the fluoride concentration of an erupted tooth is greatest A. B. C. D.

at the dentino-enamel junction. on the surface of the clinical crown. at the layer of dentin nearest the pulp chamber. evenly throughout the enamel.

A. B. C. D.

suprabony periodontal pocket formation. marginal gingivitis. increased tooth mobility. generalized recession.

Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. B. C. D.

lingual surface of posterior teeth. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. incisal edges. facial surfaces of teeth.

Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has A. B. C. D.

a high lactobacillus count. saliva with low buffering capacity. plaque on his teeth. lactic acid in his mouth.

Fluorides taken systemically are 1. 2. 3. 4.

excreted in the urine. deposited in teeth only. deposited in bone only. deposited in the nails and teeth.

The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to A.

A. B. C. D. E.

(2) and (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (1) and (4) All of the above.

B. C. D.

prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. increase the shearing action in mastication. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion.

An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of A. B. C. D.

fibroblasts. neutrophils. lymphocytes. plasma cells.

In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of A. B. C. D.

suprabony pockets. one-wall infrabony pockets. two-wall infrabony pockets. three-wall infrabony pockets.

The most important diagnostic element in assessing the periodontal status of a patient is the A. B. C. D.

results of vitality testing. radiographic appearance. depth of periodontal pockets. mobility of the teeth.

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be differentiated clinically by (the) A. B. C. D.

location of the lesions. temperature of the patient. pain. lymphadenopathy.

The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

hoe. file. curette. sickle scaler. ultrasonic scaler.

Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best accomplished with a/an A. B. C. D. E.

apically repositioned flap. laterally positioned sliding flap. double-papilla pedicle graft. coronally positioned flap. free gingival graft.

Crown-root ratio and residual bone support can best be seen radiographically in A. B. C. D.

a panoramic film. a bite-wing film. a periapical film - bisecting angle technique. a periapical film - paralleling technique.

In comparing polysulfide, polyether and addition cured silicone impression materials, which of the following statements is true? A. B.

The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal pocket may result in C. A. B. C. D.

cyst formation. abscess formation. epithelial hyperplasia. increased calculus formation.

D.

All three of the materials contract slightly during curing. All the materials expand slightly upon cooling from mouth temperature (37 degrees C) to room temperature (20 degrees C). After one week, addition cured silicones will undergo more distortion than polysulfides. Lead oxide is used as an activator in silicones.

In minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain, the principal factor is the

The main purpose of flux in soldering is to A.

A. B. C. D.

fusion temperature. ratio of flux to feldspar. uniformity of particle size. thoroughness of condensation.

B. C. D.

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. B. C. D.

a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. a shorter retentive arm. more taper. a shallower undercut.

Which of the following physical properties would be_least_important for an impression material for partially edentulous patients? A. B. C. D. E.

Biocompatibility. Dimensional stability. Ease of manipulation. Adhesion to calcium. Elasticity.

The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

strength. hardness. melting point. resistance to corrosion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

dissolve surface oxides and prevent further oxidation. prevent recrystallization and grain growth. prevent oxidation and lower the melting range of the solder. dissolve surface oxides and lower the melting range.

During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. B. C. D.

expansion. contraction. loss in compressive strength. gain in moisture content.

Zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are A. B. C. D.

less soluble than zinc phosphate cements. more soluble than zinc phosphate cements. as soluble as zinc phosphate cements. less soluble than glass ionomer cements.

A removable partial denture is preferable to a fixed bridge when the A. B. C. D. E.

edentulous areas are large. abutment teeth have large undercuts. abutment teeth are rotated. residual ridges are severely resorbed. abutment teeth are tipped.

In treatment planning for a removable partial denture, a knife-edge bony ridge will A. B. C. D.

make impression-taking difficult. necessitate relief to the partial denture. cause difficulty in tooth selection. None of the above.

To ensure the greatest accuracy, rubber base impressions should be poured

Improper temporary coverage of bridge abutments can cause

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

within 10 minutes. within 1 hour. within 8 hours. after 24 hours.

An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has the potential of A. B. C. D.

interfering with the setting of the impression material. causing tissue necrosis. producing a systemic reaction. discolouring gingival tissue.

A cast post and core is used to 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

provide intraradicular venting. strengthen a weakened tooth. redirect the forces of occlusion. provide retention for a cast crown. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed A. B. C. D. E.

0.5mm subgingivally. on the enamel. at least 1mm supragingivally. at the cemento-enamel junction. at the gingival margin.

increased tooth sensitivity. gingival recession. tooth migration. occlusal prematurities. All of the above.

During the fabrication of new complete dentures, which of the following can be modified to achieve the desired occlusion? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

The compensating curve. The orientation of the occlusal plane. The cusp inclination. The condylar inclination. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

At his first post insertion appointment, a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D.

overextended borders of the partial. inadequate polishing of the framework. improper path of insertion. the occlusion.

In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made A. B. C. D.

parallel to the long axis of the tooth. parallel to the path of insertion. at a right angle to the occlusal plane. at a right angle to the major connector.

The purpose of a temporary restoration in an anterior tooth is to A. B. C. D. E.

maintain aesthetics. protect dentin and pulp. prevent gingival inflammation and recession. prevent tooth movement. All of the above.

The polymerization of methyl methacrylate is A. B. C. D.

endothermic. hydrophilic. hydrolytic. exothermic.

A facebow is used to record the 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

vertical dimension of occlusion. inter-condylar distance. horizontal condylar inclination. relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

Following the insertion of complete dentures, a generalized soreness over the entire mandibular alveolar ridge can be caused by

Which of the following should be checked first when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot be seated on its abutment?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Patients with new dentures should be instructed to

The occlusal contacts. The taper of the preparation. The proximal contacts. The impression used to pour the cast.

Alginate hydrocolloids A. B. C. D.

shrink when stored in air. show syneresis. expand when stored in water. All of the above.

Silicone impression materials that set by condensation polymerization A. B. C. D.

liberate ethyl alcohol as a byproduct of the polymerization reaction. polymerize more slowly. undergo high shrinkage during the first 24 hours. contain an accelerator consisting of a stannous sulfate.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

Inadequate interocclusal distance. impingement on the buccal frenum. high muscle attachments. excess border thickness.

clean dentures over a bowl of water. hold dentures properly when cleaning. correct minor soreness by filing dentures. persist with soreness for one week, then return for an appointment. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) and (2) (2) and (4) All of the above.

Speech defects associated with a maxillary partial denture can be caused by 1. 2. 3. A. B. C. D.

replacing the teeth too soon after extraction. providing excessive bulk of denture base. positioning anterior teeth incorrectly. (1) and (3) (1) and (2) (2) and (3) (2) only

The major connector of a removable partial denture should be designed to A. B. C. D.

connect rigidly the component parts of the partial denture. act as a stress-breaker. dissipate vertical forces. None of the above.

In planning a bilateral distal extension (freeend) mandibular removable partial denture, the most important considerations are 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D.

aesthetics. stress distribution. rigid clasping. maximum tissue coverage. (2) and (4) (1) and (2) (1) (2) (3) All of the above.

Which of the following structures affects the thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete denture? A. B. C. D. E.

Malar process. Coronoid process. Mylohyoid ridge. Zygomatic process. Genial tubercle.

A metal in the wrought condition differs from the same metal in the cast condition in that A. B. C. D.

the grains are deformed and elongated. the yield strength and hardness are increased. if heated sufficiently, recrystallization can occur. All of the above.

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. The treatment of choice is to A. B. C.

Dental porcelain has 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

low compressive strength. high hardness. high tensile strength. low impact strength. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

D.

reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences.

Which of the following problems of a permanent fixed bridge, detected at the delivery appointment, can be caused by an inadequate temporary restoration?

The interocclusal distance (freeway space) A. B.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Hypersensitivity of the abutments that decreases after permanent luting. Exposed gingival margins in an esthetic area. Contacts with adjacent teeth that prevent complete seating of the bridge. Need for significant occlusal adjustment. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

C. D.

is the difference between occlusal vertical dimension and hinge-axis registration. is the difference between occlusal vertical dimension and rest vertical dimension. is usually l0 mm in the premolar region. is the distance between centric occlusion and centric relation.

Prior to cementing an onlay in a vital tooth using polycarboxylate cement, the tooth may be coated with cavity varnish A. B. C. D.

to protect the pulp. to improve seal. to prevent post-operative sensitivity. None of the above.

The use of a retraction cord impregnated with 8 percent racemic epinephrine may be hazardous for some patients because of its

In cementing a full crown, it is desirable to

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

local caustic action on the gingival tissue. potential for systemic reaction. local astringent action. None of the above.

Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy? A. B. C. D.

Corrosion resistance. Increased strength. Lowered specific gravity. Increased hardness.

A maxillary complete denture exhibits more retention and stability than a mandibular one because it 1. 2. 3. 4.

Gold casting alloys are classified as Type I-IV according to which of the following physical properties? A. B. C. D. E.

Percentage of gold present in the alloy. Surface hardness. Melting point. Elastic strength. Ductility.

retard the set of the cement. apply continuous occlusal loading. have excess cement covering the margins. All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

covers a greater area. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. is completely surrounded by soft tissue. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The purpose of relining a distal saddle of a removable partial denture is to improve

Immediately prior to cementation of a fixed bridge, it is important to check

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

tissue adaptation. occlusion. function. fit of the framework. (1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4)

The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain is A. B. C. D.

better colour. less shrinkage. more translucency. increased strength.

After initial setting, a chemically cured glass ionomer cement restoration should have a coating agent applied to A. B. C. D. E.

hasten the final set. protect the cement from moisture. retard the final set. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. create a smooth finish.

To decrease abutment tooth sensitivity, a fixed bridge may be temporarily seated using A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Displacement cords. Electro-surgery. Alum saturated cord. Aluminum chloride impregnated cord. All of the above.

A circumferential clasp arm on a tooth is one which

Heat treatment alters a gold alloy's C. hardness. proportional limit. percentage elongation. All of the above.

poly-carboxylate cement. acrylic resin cement. zinc-oxide-eugenol cement. glass ionomer cement.

Which of the following is/are acceptable technique(s) for displacing the gingival tissue prior to taking an impression?

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

occlusal relationships. firmness and location of contact points. pressure of pontics against soft tissues. All of the above.

D.

originates above the height of contour. approaches the undercut from an occlusal direction. traverses a portion of the suprabulge of the tooth. All of the above.

Impressions made with thiokol (polysulfide) rubber may be A. B. C. D.

silver plated. copper plated. poured directly in die stone. All of the above.

The location of a crown margin is determined by

The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is

1. 2. 3. 4.

esthetic requirements. clinical crown length. presence of caries. presence of an existing restoration.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following bacterial products have been implicated in the initiation of inflammatory periodontal disease?

Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement? A. B. C. D.

Masseter. Geniohyoid. External (lateral) pterygoid. Buccinator.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

Actinomyces viscosus. Streptococcus mutans. Streptococcus salivarius. Lactobacillus acidophilus.

Protease. Hyaluronidase. Neuraminidase. Endotoxin. Desxyribonuclease. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5) (3) (4) (5)

A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus for the endogenous release of A. B. C. D. E.

thyroid hormone. adrenocortical hormone. insulin. parathyroid hormone. adrenalin.

Dental plaque developing on tooth surfaces will result in A. B. C. D.

demineralization of enamel. periodontal disease. amelogenesis imperfecta. A. and B.

In long-standing gingivitis, the subgingival microflora shifts toward A. B. C. D.

aerobic bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria. Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria. None of the above.

Which of the following condition(s) increase(s) susceptibility to dental caries? 1.

3. 4.

Vitamin K deficiency during tooth development. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth development. Hereditary fructose intolerance. Hyposalivation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for rampant caries in children?

In pin-retained restorations, the pin holes should be parallel to the

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

C. D.

Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. Severe enamel hypoplasia. Deficiency of vitamin D.

Which of the following, if left untreated, is most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. B. C. D. E.

Internal resorption. Reversible pulpitis. Acute suppurative pulpitis. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.

In X-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

contrast. speed of electrons. amount of radiation produced. penetrating power of radiation. temperature of the cathode filament. (1) and (2) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (1) and (4)

Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of

The use of cavity varnish under an amalgam restoration will 1. 2. 3. 4.

have a bactericidal effect. decrease marginal leakage. stimulate secondary dentine formation. decrease tooth discolouration.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be caused by A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

cracks in the teeth. pulp exposures. thermal sensitivity. periodontal ligament invasion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

insufficient fluoride. excess iodine. insufficient iodine. excess calcium. excess sodium.

Cements used as cavity liners A.

1. 2. 3. 4.

long axis of the tooth. nearest external surface. pulp chamber. axial wall.

B. C. D.

provide a barrier to the passage of irritants from restorative materials. reduce sensitivity of freshly cut dentin. provide thermal insulation to the pulp. All of the above.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers?

In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral radiography, the radiopacity that can obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Amelogenesis imperfecta. Regional odontodysplasia. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.

Which of the following has the highest rate of recurrence? A. B. C. D.

Odontogenic keratocyst. Nasoalveolar cyst. Median palatal cyst. Incisive canal cyst.

maxillary sinus. palatine bone and the zygoma. orbital process of the zygomatic bone. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Radiographically, the lamina dura is a A. B. C. D.

thick layer of bone forming the inner surface of the alveolus. thin radiolucent line around the roots of the teeth. thick layer of cortical bone. thin radiopaque line around the roots of the teeth.

Erratic and inconsistent electric pulp test results can be explained by A. B. C. D. E.

the presence of multiple canals in various stages of pulp pathosis. failure to isolate and dry the tooth. pulpal calcification. poor contact between the electrode and the tooth. All of the above.

The anatomical landmarks used to help establish the location of the posterior palatal seal of a maxillary complete denture include the A. B. C.

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

Epulis fissuratum. Lingual varicosities. Squamous cell carcinoma. Median rhomboid glossitis. Prominent fungiform papillae.

D.

pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea palatinae. pterygomaxillary notches and the posterior nasal spine. posterior border of the tuberosities and the posterior border of the palatine bone. anterior border of the tuberosities, the palatine raphe and the posterior border of the palatine bone.

If an impression were taken with a mercaptan rubber base material of teeth exhibiting severe external undercuts a stone model should be poured A. B. C. D.

immediately. after 30 minutes. after 24 hours. None of the above.

Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are best removed from the mouth by A. B. C. D.

a quick snap. a slow teasing motion. twisting and rocking. having the patient create a positive pressure.

Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the attachment of the A. B. C. D.

To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed A. B. C. D.

over the crest of the mandibular ridge. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge. over the buccal shelf area. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge.

For a patient with complete dentures, insufficient space between the maxillary tuberosity and the retromolar pad will require A. B.

Upon setting, a mixture of plaster of Paris and water will exhibit A. B. C. D.

loss in compressive strength. expansion. gain in moisture content. contraction.

C. D.

B. C.

A. B. C. D.

using split palatal bars. reducing the size of the connector. ensuring maximum distribution of occlusal forces. providing relief between the connector and the gingiva.

avoiding covering the pad with the mandibular base. not covering the tuberosity with the maxillary base. surgically reducing the retromolar pad. surgically reducing the maxillary tuberosity.

Following orthodontic alignment, relapse of the mandibular incisors cannot A.

Prevention of gingival irritation by a major connector of a removable partial denture is accomplished by

buccinator, styloglossus and geniohyoid muscles. mylohyoid, buccinator and styloglossus muscles. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and buccinator muscles. mylohyoid, buccinator and genioglossus muscles.

D.

be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion. occur if the second or third molars are removed. occur if retainers are worn until the mandibular growth is complete. occur if a supracrestal fiberotomy is performed.

In patients with cleft palates there may be A. B. C. D.

an increase in supernumerary teeth. an increase in congenitally missing teeth. a higher incidence of crown defects. All of the above.

When uprighting a molar to be used as a bridge abutment, consideration must be given to the

Juvenile periodontitis A.

A. B. C. D. E.

local periodontium. vertical changes due to tipping of the molar. residual space for a pontic. use of fixed appliances for optimum control. All of the above.

B. C. D.

is associated with gram-negative anaerobic flora. is associated with gram-positive anaerobic flora. is associated with root caries. has a definite predilection toward males.

The severity of the course of periodontal disease depends upon the Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin, which of the following should be evaluated? A. B. C. D.

Bleeding time. Clotting time. Prothrombin time. Coagulation time.

A. B. C. D. E.

resistance of the host. virulence of the organism. number of organisms present. A. and B. A., B. and C.

Which of the following has/have analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects? Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

nonkeratinized. squamous. stratified. nonpermeable. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Tachycardia is a term which describes a pulse rate of A. B. C. D.

less than 50. less than 60. less than 70. more than 70.

A. B. C. D. E.

Acetominophen. Acetylsalicylic acid. Bradykinin. A. and B. None of the above.

The depth of penetration of any object by xrays is determined by 1. 2. 3. 4.

milliamperage. density of the object. exposure time. kilovoltage.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Increased radiographic density is caused by A. B. C. D. E.

decreased mA. decreased kV. decreased target-object distance. increased object-film distance. None of the above.

Which of the following modifications to the standard procedure for mixing gypsum products will increase the compressive strength of the set material? A. B.

Which of the following will increase image sharpness on radiographs? A. B. C. D.

Small focal spot. Long source-film distance. Short object-film distance. All of the above.

C. D.

Which of the following properties apply to glass ionomer cements? 1. 2.

Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to A. B. C. D.

increase contrast. reduce film density. reduce exposure time. reduce patient radiation dose.

The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D. E.

using a high speed film. using an aluminum filter. using low kVp. increasing target-film distance. decreasing target-film distance. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (5)

Adding a small amount of salt to the water before mixing. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a small amount. Using warmer water. Decreasing the mixing time.

3. A. B. C. D.

Chemical bonding to etched dentin. Non-irritating to pulpal tissue at moderate depth. Anticariogenic because of fluoride release. (1) only (1) and (2) (1) and (3) All of the above.

When gold or a gold alloy changes from a liquid to a solid state it A. B. C. D. E.

expands. contracts. corrodes. becomes brittle. work hardens.

Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed subperiostially, 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

is highly biocompatible. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery. has a tendency to migrate following insertion. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Planing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth A. B. C. D. E.

should result in a long bevel. is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam. is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong. should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture. should result in a sharp gingivoproximal line angle.

The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is World epidemiological data indicates that periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth loss in the following age group: A. B. C. D. E.

10 - 20 years. 20 - 30 years. 30 - 50 years. 65 - 75 years. over 75 years.

A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is A. B. C. D.

marginal gingivitis. painful, burning gingivae. hyperplastic gingivitis. drifting of the teeth.

To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. B. C. D.

approach 45 degrees. approach 90 degrees. be bevelled. be chamfered.

A. B. C. D.

dentin. cementum. cementoenamel junction. dentinoenamel junction.

Which of the following clinical findings will give the most favourable prognosis for successful direct pulp capping? 1. 2. 3. 4.

No hemorrhage at the exposure site. The exposure is small. The tooth is hypersensitive to heat. The exposure site is uncontaminated.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patient’s occlusal vertical dimension? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Appearance. Phonetics. Observation of the rest position. Pre-extraction profile records. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

Indirect retention is NOT required for a removable partial denture which has A. B. C. D.

a unilateral distal extension base. bilateral distal extension bases. complete tooth support. an anterior extension base.

In taking an interocclusal wax record in a protrusive position, the dentist should examine the wax record to insure that A. B. C. D.

the incisal edges of the anterior teeth have made contact. the patient has not closed in a lateral position. all cusps have penetrated the wax record and are in contact with the opposing teeth. there is no perforation of the wax record.

Reduction of free-way space in complete denture construction will 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

impair aesthetics. cause the dentures to click. traumatize the underlying supporting tissues. induce generalized soreness over the ridges. (1) and (2) (1) and (4) (2) and (3) (2) and (4) All of the above.

The retention form of a full crown preparation can be improved by 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

reducing its taper. increasing its length. utilizing grooves or boxes. polishing the preparation. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In partial denture design, the major connector should A. B. C. D.

rigidly connect the bilateral components. act as a stress-breaker. not interfere with lateral forces. dissipate vertical forces.

In complete denture construction, a custom tray should be selected so that the impression will ascertain that

Longer trituration of alloy and mercury will result in an amalgam restoration which will have

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

E.

the flanges are not overextended. the distal extension is adequate. there is relief for muscle attachments. the tray has adequate space for the impression material. All of the above.

greater expansion during setting. reduced strength. increased flow. None of the above.

Which permanent teeth will normally be present in an 8-year old child? A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. The most common causes are

A.

A.

B.

B. C. D.

reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap.

C. D.

Maxillary and mandibular central and lateral incisors. Mandibular central and lateral incisors and first molars. All central and lateral incisors and first molars. All central and lateral incisors, first molars and first premolars.

Which of the following anesthetic agents are hydrolized by plasma cholinesterase? In patients wearing complete dentures, the most frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during speaking is A. B. C. D. E.

nervous tension. incorrect centric relation position. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. lack of vertical overlap. unbalanced occlusion.

The best means of extending the working time of an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is to A. B. C. D. E.

extend spatulation time. add additional water. use cold water. add a small amount of borax. add potassium sulfate.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Prilocaine (citanest). Lidocaine (xylocaine). Mepivicaine (carbocaine). Procaine.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A patient develops an acute anaphylactic reaction in your office. One drug that you would use is epinephrine because it A. B. C. D. E.

relaxes bronchial muscles. stimulates heart muscle and increases heart rate. increases systolic blood pressure. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. All of the above.

In an infection caused by non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus, the drug of choice is

When cementing an inlay, the best procedure to ensure accurate seating is a

A. B. C. D.

A.

penicillin V. cephalexin. tetracycline. vancomycin.

B. C. D.

continuous firm pressure on the inlay until the cement is set. thick mix of cement. rapid and heavy application of pressure until the inlay is seated. very thin mix of cement.

Intravenous administration of epinephrine results in 1. 2. 3. 4.

increased systolic pressure. increased heart rate. palpitations. respiratory depression.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 9-year old boy sustains a fracture of the crown of his central incisor with minimal pulp exposure. He is brought to your office within one hour of the injury. A periapical radiograph reveals that the root of the tooth is complete but the apex is open. You would A. B. C. D.

Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for patients with which of the following? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation. Cardiac pacemaker. Prosthetic heart valves. All heart murmurs. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and restore. perform a pulpotomy and seal temporarily. perform a pulpectomy and seal temporarily. perform a pulpectomy and fill immediately with gutta-percha and restore.

The most common cause of malocclusion with a Class I molar relationship is A. B. C. D.

a thumbsucking habit. crossbite in the posterior segments. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy. improper eruption of permanent first molars.

Water irrigation devices have been shown to

Cephalometrics is used in orthodontics to

A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

C. D.

eliminate plaque. dislodge food particles from between teeth. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. prevent calculus formation.

treat malocclusions. study growth changes. aid in diagnosis and case analysis. B. and C. All of the above.

Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships? A. B. C. D.

Tooth-to-tooth. Bone-to-bone. Tooth-to-bone. All of the above.

In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used. In patients with severe Class~II malocclusion, this angle is A. B. C. D.

greater than the normal. less than the normal. normal. unrelated.

Which of the following conditions should NOT commonly be treated during the mixed dentition stage? A. B. C. D.

Anterior cross-bite. Posterior cross-bite. Maxillary incisor rotation. Class II molar relationship.

Angle used the term "subdivision" to refer to a malocclusion in which the abnormal molar relationship was A. B. C. D. E.

bilateral. unilateral. only mildly abnormal. severely abnormal. coupled with labioversion of the maxillary incisors.

A skeletal cross-bite, as contrasted with functional cross-bite, usually demonstrates Excessive forces used to move teeth will cause A. B. C. D.

marked wear facets. interference free closure to centric occlusion. deviated closure to centric occlusion. None of the above.

Which of the following congenital problems most often results in a malocclusion? A. B. C. D.

cleft palate. ectodermal dysplasia. Pierre Robin syndrome. cleidocranial dysostosis.

Which of the following malocclusions is most commonly associated with mouth breathing? A. B. C. D.

Class I. Class II, Division 1. Class II, Division 2. Class III.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A. B. C. D.

a tooth to move faster. a tooth to move slower. root elongation. bone to be added uniformly on all surfaces. damage to the periodontal tissues. (1) (3) (4) (2) and (4) (2) (4) (5) (2) and (5)

In correcting an anterior cross-bite, the appliance to be used is determined by the A. B. C. D.

amount of overbite. age of the patient. cooperation of the patient. All of the above.

Serial extraction may result in A. B. C. D. E.

development of a closed bite. mandibular incisors tipping lingually. persistent spacing at extraction sites. canines tipping distally and second premolars tipping mesially. All of the above.

Following orthodontic rotation of teeth, which of the periodontal ligament fibres are most commonly associated with relapse? A. B. C. D.

Oblique. Diagonal. Horizontal. Supracrestal.

Which of the following is the LEAST likely primary site for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly? A. B. C. D.

Dorsum of the tongue. Floor of the mouth. Lateral border of the tongue. Tonsillar fossa.

In the management of a patient with an acute odontogenic infection, the treatment should include: 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

elimination of the cause. drainage. supportive therapy. tetanus immunization. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

slower healing. foreign body inflammatory reaction. wound dehiscence. necrosis of bone. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which impacted mandibular third molar is easiest to remove? A. B. C. D.

Mesio-angular. Horizontal. Disto-angular. Inverted.

Benign neoplasms 1. 2. 3. 4.

grow slowly. are generally painless. can be managed conservatively. can metastasize.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A removable orthodontic appliance, producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause A. B. C. D.

lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown. lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex. intrusion of the central incisor.

In acutely inflamed gingival tissue, there is an increase in the

The accuracy of alginate impression materials will be improved if

A. B. C. D. E.

A.

number of mast cells. number of plasma cells. level of histamine. A. and B. A. and C.

B. C. D.

the space between the tray and the teeth is 1-2mm. the space between the tray and the teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate. the impression is removed slowly from the undercuts around the teeth. the impression is soaked in water for 1 hour.

Excessively dark radiographs will result from 1. 2. 3. 4.

underdevelopment. overexposure. backward placement of the film. excessive milliamperage.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s) occur(s) with aging? 1. 2. 3. 4.

In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a function of A. B. C. D. E.

length of the wire segment. diameter of the wire segment. alloy composition. All of the above. None of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

Absorption is altered by a decrease in the gastric pH. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced liver mass. Distribution is altered by a decrease in total body fat. Excretion is reduced because of lessened renal blood flow. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following should NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)? The choice and number of abutments for a fixed partial denture is influenced by the 1.

4.

length of the span of the fixed partial denture. crown-root ratio of the abutments. amount of periodontal support of the abutments. position of the abutments in the arch.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2. 3.

1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Acetylsalicylic acid. Oxycodone. Ketorolac. Codeine. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. B. C. D. E.

use a thyroid collar and lead apron. apply a radiation protection badge. use high speed film. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. take a panoramic film only.

When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the A. B. C. D.

base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction.

Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C.

E. A hinge axis facebow records Bennett angle. centric relation. lateral condylar inclination. horizontal condylar inclination. opening and closing axis of the mandible.

For teeth prepared as abutments for fixed bridges, unsatisfactory temporary crown restorations may result in A. B. C. D. E.

tooth sensitivity. gingival recession. tooth migration. occlusal prematurities. All of the above.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by

D.

A. B. C. D. E.

reduced thermal dimensional changes. increased strength. reduced polymerization shrinkage. better polishability.

anterior crowding. labially displaced maxillary canines. delayed eruption of the permanent first molar. a Class II molar relationship on the affected side. a Class III molar relationship on the affected side.

An anterior cross-bite of a permanent maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is often associated with A. B. C. D. E.

a functional shift. unexplainable genetic factors. lingually situated supernumerary teeth. prolonged retention of a primary incisor. premature eruption of a maxillary incisor.

Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may

The terminal plane relationship of primary second molars determines the

1. 2. 3. 4.

A.

cause hyalinization. cause root resorption. crush the periodontal ligament. impair tooth movement.

B. C.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. B. C. D.

torque. tipping. rotation. translation.

Following loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8, which of the following changes are likely to occur? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Distal drift of second premolar. No movement of second premolar. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. No movement of second permanent molar.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

D.

arch length between permanent second molars. future anteroposterior positions of permanent first molars. vertical dimensions of the mandible upon eruption of permanent first molars. amount of leeway space that is available for permanent premolars and canines.

The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a A. B. C. D.

Nance expansion arch. lingual arch. band and loop space maintainer. distal shoe space maintainer.

A unilateral cross-bite involving the permanent maxillary first molar may be A. B. C. D. E.

associated with a mandibular shift. a bilateral constriction of the maxilla. corrected with palatal expansion. All of the above. None of the above.

Mouth breathing is most commonly associated with Angle's malocclusion Class A. B. C. D. E.

I. II, Division 1. II, Division 2. III. None of the above.

A 10 year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor cross-bite when in centric occlusion. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation, the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge-to-edge. You should advise the parent that

The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should 1. 2. 3. 4.

A.

B.

C. D.

the child has a growth problem and occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is complete. if the malrelationship is corrected now, future growth will likely undo the correction. the incisor malrelationship should be corrected now. future growth is likely to correct this problem.

If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is 82 degrees and a patient's reading for SNA is 90 degrees, this would likely indicate A. B. C. D.

protrusive maxillary incisors. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base. maxillary prognathism. patient’s ethnic background.

Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction due to A. B. C. D.

density of the cortical bone. persistence of tongue and finger habits. free gingival and transseptal fibres. oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament.

A. B. C. D. E.

provide for visual access. provide for instrument access. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. be semilunar in shape. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. B. C. D.

Mesio-angular. Horizontal. Vertical. Disto-angular.

Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate the infection is caused by beta hemolytic streptococcus. Which of the following is the drug of choice? A. B. C. D.

Penicillin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Cloxacillin.

A dental laboratory has returned a removable partial denture framework. The framework fit the master cast well but when tried in the mouth, a stable fit could not be achieved. The possible cause(s) of the problem is/are

During dental treatment, a 62 year old insulindependent diabetic, suddenly complains of severe, crushing, retrosternal pain. The appropriate initial management would be to stop treatment and

1. 2. 3. 4.

distortion in the final impression. insufficient retention. improper pour of the master cast. casting error.

1. 2. 3. 4.

administer sublingual nitroglycerin. administer 100 oxygen. monitor the patient. administer 50 dextrose intravenously.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following constituents of a local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to be allergenic? A. B. C. D.

Lidocaine. Epinephrine. Metabisulfite. Hydrochloric acid.

Which one of the following describes the position of the needle tip during administration of local anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block? A. B. C. D.

Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. Lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament.

Acid etching of dentin with 10-15% phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

removes the smear layer. increases dentinal permeability. opens the dentinal tubules. decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular dentin. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following affect(s) polymerization of visible light cured composite resins? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Intensity of the light source. Thickness of composite resin. Proximity of light source. Shade of composite resin.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A larger sized condenser. A thinner matrix band. An anatomical wedge. Use of mechanical condensation.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 22 year old presents with a fracture of the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a small amount of dentin. The fracture occurred one hour previously. There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. The most appropriate emergency treatment is to A.

B. C. D.

open the pulp chamber, clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement. place a provisional (temporary) crown.

Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Zinc phosphate cement. Polycarboxylate cement. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. Glass ionomer cement.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a luting agent for cast restorations, has which of the following properties? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Insolubility. Anticariogenicity. Chemical adhesion. Mechanical retention.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Methyl methacrylate resins will perform better than composite resins for long span, temporary bridges because of superior A. B. C. D.

hardness. fracture toughness. wear resistance. dimensional stability.

The "smear layer" is an important consideration in A. B. C. D.

plaque accumulation. caries removal. pulp regeneration. dentin bonding.

As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 1. 2. 3. 4.

religious beliefs. physical handicap. infectious disease. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

For which of the following teeth is the risk of root fracture increased if a rotational force is used during extraction? A. B. C. D. E.

Upper canine. Lower canine. Upper first bicuspid. Lower first bicuspid. Upper lateral incisor.

Physiologic (racial) pigmentation differs from melanoma because melanoma A. B. C. D.

is macular. contains melanin. affects the gingiva. undergoes clinical changes.

Which of the following systemic diseases does/do NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis?

In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) with associated lymphadenopathy, which of the following medications is the treatment of choice?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Cyclic neutropenia. Diabetes mellitus. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in A. B. C. D. E.

maximum intercuspation. initial contact. normal rest position. maximum opening. protrusive position.

A 12-year old male with a history of thumbsucking has an Angle Class II molar relationship with a SNA = 83 and a SNB = 79. The etiology of this patient's malocclusion is A. B. C. D. E.

dental. skeletal. neuromuscular. dental and neuromuscular. skeletal and neuromuscular.

An anti-inflammatory. A topical antibiotic. A systemic antibiotic. An analgesic.

Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

Suppurative arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis. Degenerative arthrosis. Psoriatic arthritis. Lupus arthritis.

A patient complains of sensitivity the day following placement of a conservative posterior composite resin restoration. The most probable cause is A. B. C. D. E.

acid etching. microleakage. unpolymerized resin. prolonged application of the curing light. inadequate base thickness.

A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening. Which nerve is involved? A. B. C. D.

Facial nerve VII. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX. Trigeminal nerve V. Hypoglossal nerve XII.

Which two muscles are involved in sucking? A. B. C. D.

Caninus and depressor angularis. Risorius and buccinator. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major.

Following root planing, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following? A. B. C. D.

Golgi receptor. Free nerve endings. Odontoblastic processes. Cementoblasts.

A 45 year old, overweight man reports that his wife complains that he snores. The initial management of the patient’s snoring problem is to A. B. C. D.

fabricate an appliance to reduce snoring. fabricate restorations to increase the patient’s vertical dimension of occlusion. refer for an orthognathic surgery consultation. refer for a sleep assessment.

The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is 1. 2. 3. 4.

periodontal debridement. antibiotic therapy. oral hygiene instruction. topical steroid therapy.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

horizontal bone loss. a 3-walled infrabony defect. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is A. B. C. D.

root caries. root sensitivity. pulpal involvement. recurrent pocketing.

For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment must include

The physiopathology of sleep apnea is most likely related to A.

A. B. C. D.

scaling and root planing. occlusal adjustment. prescription of an antibiotic. prescription of an analgesic.

On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is A. B. C. D.

at the cementoenamel junction. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. not clearly distinguishable.

B. C. D.

excessive oropharyngeal muscular tonus during sleep. central nervous system respiratory neuron depression. obstruction in lower airways. a severe Class III malocclusion.

A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D.

fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints. nocturnal bruxism. early osteoarthritis. mandibular subluxation.

Which of the following structures may be associated with the role of the central nervous system in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism? A. B. C. D.

Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal). A delta and C nerves. Sphenopalatine ganglion. Petrous nerves.

In a xerostomic patient which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication? A. B. C. D.

Accessory. Labial. Parotid. Sublingual and submandibular.

Which of the following would maximize vitamin E intake following osseous surgery? A. B. C. D.

Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible? A. B. C.

A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1.6 is

D.

A. B. C. D. E.

E.

mesiopulpal. buccopulpal. linguopulpal. axiopulpal. None of the above.

Lettuce. Wheat germ. Eggs. Fish.

Class II Division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. Class II Division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit.

In its classic form, serial extraction is best applied to patients with Class I occlusions with crowding of A. B. C. D.

less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite. less than 10mm in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite.

The most common cause of persistent post operative sensitivity following the placement of posterior composite resin restorations is A. B. C. D.

hyperocclusion. microleakage. acidic primers. residual caries.

The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. B. C. D.

a thick narrow major connector. an anterior and a posterior bar. a thin broad palatal strap. narrow horseshoe shaped.

Immediately following a left posterior superior alveolar nerve block injection, the patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly swollen on the left side. The immediate treatment should be to 1. 2. 3. 4.

apply a cold compress. administer 0.3mg epinepherine (sublingually). apply pressure. refer for immediate medical treatment.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

If a person falls from a bicycle, striking the chin, the most likely region(s) of the mandible to fracture is/are: 1. 2. 3. 4.

Symphysis. Condylar necks. Mid-body. Angles of the mandible.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

If a patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11, the 1. 2.

4.

premolar drifts distally. maxillary second molar erupts and moves mesially. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. overbite increases.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

A 45 year old with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus comes for a morning dental appointment. During the examination, the patient complains of being lightheaded and weak. Sweating is observed. The patient is most likely experiencing A. B. C. D. E.

hyperglycemia. hypoglycemia. syncope. hyperventilation. cerebrovascular accident.

The antibiotic of choice for a periapical dental abscess is A. B. C. D. E.

pen V. cephalosporin. erythromycin. metronidazole. ampicillin.

A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency usually arises in patients 1. 2. 3. 4.

who are elderly. with acute infection. consuming a high protein or fat diet. taking systemic antibiotics.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Following root canal therapy, the most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen is A. B. C. D.

cementum deposition. connective tissue capsule formation. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament. dentin deposition.

Which of the following impression materials has the best dimensional stability? A. B. C. D.

Polysulfide rubber. Condensation silicone. Polyvinylsiloxane. Irreversible hydrocolloid.

While the teeth are set in wax, dentures are tried in to A. B. C. D.

verify the maxillomandibular records. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. evaluate esthetics. All of the above.

Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in children under the age of 12 years is most likely to be successful for

Epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution will

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

decrease absorption of the anesthetic. assist hemostasis at the site of injection. prolong the action of the anesthetic agent. assist in post-operative healing.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

teeth that are symptomatic. necrotic pulps. teeth with open apices. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size.

Hypothyroidism in adults is associated with A. B. C. D. E.

exophthalmos. weight loss. generalized edema. tachycardia. mental defects.

A lower molar requiring a crown has an amalgam restoration extending 1.0 mm subgingivally. The crown margin should be placed A. B. C. D.

on the existing amalgam. at the amalgam/tooth junction. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin.

A patient presents with a 3 week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Three days ago the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull, spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

For a 20 year old, 80kg, patient with a confirmed allergy to codeine, which of the following is/are appropriate for pain control following the removal of an impacted third molar?

The current recommended regimen of antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to penicillin is

1.

A.

3.

B. C.

D. E.

amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before procedure; then 1.5g six hours after initial dose. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before procedure only. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour before procedure; then 150mg six hours after initial dose. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour before procedure only. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two hours before procedure only.

The incidence of tooth loss due to periodontal disease is highest for A. B. C. D. E.

maxillary molars. maxillary premolars. mandibular incisors. mandibular premolars. mandibular molars.

chronic apical abscess. a cracked tooth. pulpal necrosis. reversible pulpitis. a vertical root fracture.

4.

Hydromorphone, 2mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n. Ibuprofen, 800mg 1 hour pre-operatively followed by 400mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n. Acetaminophen, 650mg with oxycodone, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n. Ketorolac, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours p.r.n.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

2.

Root caries risk in adults is 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

associated with previous enamel caries experience. reduced in communities with fluoridated water. greater in adults who have high streptococcus mutans counts. similar in institutionalized and noninstitutionalized patients. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Normal aging changes in the hard tooth tissues include

1. 2. 3. 4.

continuous deposition of cementum. continuous deposition of dentin. decreased blood supply to the pulp. increased porosity of enamel.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 34 year old male patient complains of night sweats, weight loss, malaise, anorexia and lowgrade fever. Clinical examination shows a nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

viral hepatitis. infectious mononucleosis. tuberculosis. actinomycosis.

A 37 year old female patient presents for routine dental treatment. She has tremors, palpitations and excessive perspiration. Her skin is smooth and warm. She complains of weight loss and diarrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E.

Hyperparathyroidism. Viral hepatitis. Hyperthyroidism. Crohn’s disease. Iron deficiency anemia.

Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Shingles. Oral hairy leukoplakia. Chickenpox. Infectious mononucleosis.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following could be a complication when performing a dental extraction on an insulin-dependent diabetic patient? A. B. C. D. E.

Diabetic acidosis. Increased bleeding. Hypoglycemic shock. Incomplete anesthesia. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

A mandibular fracture during normal mastication is most likely to occur in a patient with A. B. C. D.

osteoporosis. a large intraosseous lesion. an impacted tooth at the inferior border. advanced alveolar atrophy.

An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars and good alignment of the lower incisors. The management of this patient should be to A. B. C. D.

refer for orthodontic consultation. use a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars. place patient on appropriate recall schedule.

A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of filiform papillae, located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. B. C. D. E.

benign migratory glossitis. median rhomboid glossitis. a granular cell tumor. iron deficiency anemia. a fibroma.

When probing a healthy gingival sulcus with a 20g force, the tip of the periodontal probe is most likely located A. B. C. D.

coronal to the junctional epithelium. at the level of the junctional epithelium. at the level of the supra crestal fibers. apical to the junctional epithelium.

A 20 year old female patient is suspected of having bulimia. Which of the following signs will help confirm the diagnosis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Enamel erosion of maxillary anterior teeth. Enlargement of the thyroid gland. Calluses on the dorsum of the fingers. Bulky clothing to disguise weight loss.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Upon stimulation of salivary flow, which gland is the main source of salivary volume? A. B. C. D.

Submandibular. Submaxillary. Sublingual. Parotid.

Extensive caries on the primary maxillary incisors of a 2 year old is generally indicative of A. B. C. D.

fluorosis of the primary dentition. fever related hypoplasia. amelogenesis imperfecta. demand breast or bottle feeding.

Which of the following factors influence(s) the development of root caries? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A diet high in refined carbohydrates. Periodontal disease. The anatomy of the cemento-enamel junction. Xerostomia.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The average annual dose of ionizing radiation that a patient receives from dental radiographs is

A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is

A.

greater than the average amount received from natural sources. about the same as the average amount received from medical sources. about the same as the average amount received from cosmic radiation. low when compared to the average total amount of radiation received..

A. B. C. D.

In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis with associated lymphadenopathy, which of the following medications is the most effective?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)?

B. C. D.

An anti-inflammatory. A topical antibiotic. A systemic antibiotic. An analgesic.

Which of the following sweeteners used in sugarless gum is most effective in preventing caries? A. B. C. D.

Xylitol. Sorbitol. Mannitol. Glycerol.

Which procedure(s) require(s) antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient susceptible to bacterial endocarditis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Impressions for partial dentures. Suture removal. Mandibular block anesthetic injection. Periodontal surgery.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

achondroplasia. malignant hyperthermia. ectodermal dysplasia. cystic fibrosis.

In a 4-year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected, non-restorable first primary molar is to

A. B. C. D.

extract it and place a space maintainer. observe it until it exfoliates. extract it. observe it until it becomes symptomatic.

Cold developer. Over exposure. Improper safety light. Excessive developing time.

Which of the following is necessary for collagen formation? A. B. C. D. E.

Vitamin A. Vitamin C. Vitamin D. Vitamin E. Vitamin K.

A large, deeply furrowed tongue is commonly found in patients with A. B. C. D.

Pierre Robin Syndrome. geographic tongue. ectodermal dysplasia. Down’s Syndrome.

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. 2.

4.

malalignment of teeth. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. patient movement during the exposure.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. completely eliminates skin bacteria. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A recommended method for disinfecting alginate impressions is to immerse the impression for 10 minutes in A. B. C. D.

a complex phenolic. 2% glutaraldehyde. 10% ethyl alcohol. a 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite.

The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by A. B. C. D. E.

splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions. placing distal rests on distal abutments. using cast clasps on distal abutments. regular relining of the distal extensions.

The custom tray used in making a final complete denture impression must A. B. C. D.

extend to the bottom of the vestibule. create adequate space for the impression material. have a horizontal handle. be stored in water until ready for use.

Healthy attached gingiva A. B. C. D.

has no basal cell layer. is closely bound to underlying periosteum. contains elastic fibers. has no rete pegs.

Difficulty in seating a stainless steel crown following the preparation of a primary molar is most likely a result of A. B. C. D.

inadequate lingual reduction. “ledging” at the gingival area of the preparation. supraeruption of the opposing molar. impingement of gingival tissue under the crown margin.

The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the A. B. C. D. E.

maxillary protrusion. overbite. upper incisor inclination. facial height. mandibular angle.

Cephalosporin antibiotics 1. 2. 3. 4.

may be cross-allergenic with penicillin. have a narrower spectrum than penicillin. have a mechanism of action similar to that of penicillin. may cause cholestatic hepatitis.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than preparing the teeth again. Where should the male part of the attachment ideally be located? A. B. C. D.

Distal of the 3.5 retainer. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second bicuspid can be confirmed? A. B. C. D.

2 years. 4 years. 6 years. 8 years.

A Bolton relationship has determined a

 

maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm

What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion? 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

Deeper overbite. Maxillary crowding. Reduced overjet. Increased overjet. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In the insulin-dependant diabetic patient, hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4.

mental confusion. tachycardia. sweating. nausea.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In an infrabony periodontal pocket, the tip of the periodontal probe is located A. B. C. D.

at the cemento-enamel junction. at the level of the alveolar crest. between the gingival margin and the functional epithelium. apical to the level of the alveolar crest.

A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has

Differential diagnosis for short term pain and swelling of the gingiva associated with an endodontically treated tooth should include

A. B. C. D. E.

1. 2. 3. 4.

periodontal abscess. periapical abscess. vertical root fracture. internal root resorption.

Hutchinson’s incisors and mulberry molars are associated with

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

Epinephrine is used in the management of an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it

Mumps. sialolithiasis. acute bacterial sialadenitis. Sjögren’s syndrome. sarcoidosis.

congenital porphyria. fluorosis. rickets. congenital syphilis. cleidocranial dysplasia.

Multiple “punched-out” radiolucencies of the skull and jaws are most commonly seen with A. B. C. D. E.

metastatic carcinoma. plasmacytoma. multiple myeloma. chondrosarcoma. osteosarcoma.

1. 2. 3. 4.

decreases heart rate. relaxes bronchial muscles. decreases systolic blood pressure. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. All of the above.

Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be reduced by A. B. C. D.

occlusal adjustment. scaling and root planing (debridement). open flap curettage. guided tissue regeneration.

After pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8 year old child, the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are 1. 2. 3. 4.

completion of root formation. internal resorption. dentin bridge formation. formation of pulp stones.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce

Temporomandibular joint disc morphology is best seen by using

1. 2. 3. 4.

image definition. secondary radiation. radiographic contrast. radiation received by patient.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

In x-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

contrast. speed of electrons. penetrating power of radiation. amount of radiation produced. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (1) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The amount of radiation to a patient can be reduced by 1. 2. 3. 4.

using a high speed film. using an aluminum filter. increasing target-film distance. using low kVp.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

arthrography. computed tomography. magnetic resonance imaging. corrected tomography.

In composite resin restorations, glass ionomer cements can be used as a base because they are A. B. C. D.

sedative to a hyperemic pulp. neutral in colour. biocompatible. compatible with the expansion of composite resins.

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to A. B. C. D.

eliminate the need for internal retention. improve convenience form. aid in finishing. increase the surface area for etching.

After setting, alginate impressions A. B. C. D.

absorb water. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.

Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an A. B. C. D. E.

acute inflammation of the pulp. pulpal abscess. chronic inflammation of the pulp. early apical abscess formation. None of the above.

Root planing is used in the treatment of pockets which are

Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp?

1. 2. 3. 4.

edematous. fibrotic. below the mucogingival junction. infrabony

1. 2. 3. 4.

Plasma cells. Macrophages. Lymphocytes. Neutrophils.

A. B. C. D.

(1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (2) and (3) All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 9 year old boy sustains a fracture of the crown of his central incisor with minimal pulp exposure. The accident occurred one hour prior. A periapical radiograph reveals that the root of the tooth is intact but the apex is open. The most appropriate treatment is to

After initiating preventive management for a 16 year old patient with multiple extensive carious lesions, which of the following restorative treatments is most appropriate? A.

A. B. C. D.

pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and restore. perform a pulpotomy and seal temporarily. perform a pulpectomy and seal temporarily. perform a pulpectomy and fill immediately with gutta-percha and restore.

B. C. D.

Place amalgam restorations over the next few months. Excavate caries and place temporary restorations within the next few weeks. Delay any treatment until the hygiene improves. Restore all teeth with composite resin over the next few months.

Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Codeine. Penicillin V. Acetaminophen Tetracycline.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

when the drug is administered parenterally. within minutes after drug administration. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The extraction of a maxillary deciduous central incisor at the age of 6 years will cause

Polymerization shrinkage associated with the setting of composite resins is a result of

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

loss of intercanine space. increased intercanine space. no change in intercanine space. decreased overjet.

C. D.

primary bonds replacing secondary bonds. reaction by-products evaporating from the set material. unreacted monomer evaporating from the set material. temperature changes occurring during the polymerization reaction.

When exposing radiographic film, the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by A. B. C. D.

collimation. decreased object-film distance. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. decreased target-object distance.

To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, polyalkenoic cements contain A. B. C. D. E.

salicylic acid. phosphoric acid. maleic acid. tartaric acid. itaconic acid.

Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. B.

C. D.

failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

Hypercementosis may be associated with A. B. C. D.

Paget’s disease. ameloblastoma. hypophosphatasia. multiple myeloma.

The muscle primarily responsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position is the Enamel pearls form when A. B. C. D.

ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away from the dentin. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast vesicles.

A. B. C. D. E.

masseter. lateral (external) pterygoid. medial (internal) pterygoid. buccinator. temporalis.

A 75 year old male patient whose wife died 10 months ago presents for his recall appointment. Looking wasted and fatigued, he confirms he has lost about 6kg in the last 8 months but is otherwise in good health. The most appropriate management for this patient is to A. B.

C. D.

recommend that he drink 3 cans of a nutritional supplement each day. refer him to a qualified dietician/nutritionist and follow up after his appointment. refer him back to his physician requesting a more thorough assessment. provide him with a copy of Canada’s Food Guide to Healthy Eating.

Overlapped interproximal contacts in a bitewing radiograph are due to improper collimator A. B. C. D.

vertical angle. horizontal angle. length. shape.

When the developer solution in the film processor is not changed and becomes oxidized, processed radiographs will appear A. B. C. D.

blue. brown. gray. black.

Which statement(s) is/are true about diazepam? 1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

It improves performance rating of fine motor skills. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl alcohol. It is available without prescription in Canada. It produces a typical dependence syndrome. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The most appropriate treatment for a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex is A. B. C. D. E.

pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. apexification with calcium hydroxide. apexification with zinc oxide. root canal therapy using gutta-percha. root canal therapy followed by a retrograde filling.

Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the jaws? A. B. C. D.

Gardner’s. Gorlin-Goltz. Peutz-Jeghers. Sjögren’s.

Increasing the kVp results in A. B. C. D.

increased long scale image contrast. increased short scale image contrast. decreased long scale image contrast. decreased short scale image contrast.

The most appropriate radiograph for examining an interproximal vertical bony defect of the alveolar process is the A. B. C. D.

bitewing. periapical. occlusal. panoramic.

Which of the following radiographic techniques is NOT useful for assessing temporomandibular joint space? A. B. C. D.

Panoramic. Arthrography. Corrected transcranial. Corrected tomography.

All of the following appear as midline structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

nasopalatine/incisive canal. anterior nasal spine. nasal septum. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

A small, well-circumscribed, periapical radiolucency on a mandibular incisor which is clinically asymptomatic and responds normally to vitality tests is most likely A. B. C. D.

Which of the following snacks has the lowest cariogenic potential? A. B. C. D.

The genial tubercles are best visualized on which type of radiograph? A. B. C. D.

Occlusal. Periapical. Bitewing. Panoramic.

Which anatomical structures form the inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical radiographs? A. B. C. D.

Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor of the nasal fossa. Anterior nasal spine and nasopalatine/incisive canal. Floor of the nasal fossa and maxillary sinus border. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and maxillary sinus border.

The pterygomaxillary fissure is formed by the maxilla and which other bone? A. B. C. D.

Temporal. Sphenoid. Frontal. Occipital.

a periapical granuloma. sclerosing osteitis. a radicular cyst. periapical cemental dysplasia.

Tuna fish sandwich on whole wheat bread, green salad, 2% milk. Chicken sandwich on white bread, diet cola, avocado. Pretzels, potato chips, juice. Hard-boiled egg, celery and carrot sticks, diet cola.

Appropriate management for the relief of symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised patient may include 1. 2. 3. 4.

Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase®. Acyclovir capsules 200mg. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A lower molar requiring a crown has an extensive MOD amalgam restoration. The crown margin should be placed A. B. C. D.

on the existing amalgam. at the amalgam/tooth junction. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin.

When smokers are compared to nonsmokers, the development of inflammation in response to plaque accumulation is

The most practical method to significantly reduce the setting time of stone and plaster is to use

A. B. C.

A. B.

increased. reduced. the same.

C. D.

warm mixing water. a calcium sulfate dihydrate nucleating agent. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent. a longer mixing time.

A crown margin can be extended subgingivally when required 1. 2. 3. 4.

for esthetics. to increase retention. to reach sound tooth structure. for caries prevention.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Aggressive periodontitis has all of the following features EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

rapid attachment loss. suspected periodontal microbial pathogens. radiographic evidence of bone loss. ulcerations of the gingiva.

Which periodontal pathogen can use the hormone estrogen as a growth factor? A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. B. C. D.

mounting of the casts in the articulater. registration of jaw relation records. processing of acrylic. registration of condylar guidance.

The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal relative to the porcelain for constructing a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown should be A. B. C. D.

slightly less. the same. slightly more. significantly less.

A. B. C. D.

Porphyromonas gingivalis. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. Prevotella intermedia. Bacteroides forsythus.

Which of the following root surfaces are most likely to have flutings/concavities that will make thorough root debridement difficult? A. B. C. D.

Mesial of teeth 1.1/2.1. Mesial of teeth 1.2/2.2. Mesial of teeth 1.3/2.3. Mesial of teeth 1.4/2.4.

A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam restoration has just had endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4.6 but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated final restoration. Interim restorative management of 4.6 with the best prognosis is to

On a semi-adjustable articulator, the incisal guide table represents

A. B.

C.

C. D.

restore with a MOD amalgam. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore with a MOD amalgam. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and restore with a MOD amalgam. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin.

A. B.

D.

a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson.

A 10-15 second application of 37% phosphoric acid on prepared dentin will result in all of the following EXCEPT Which of the following is NOT a sign of occlusal trauma? A. B. C. D.

Fremitus. Gingival recession. Widened periodontal ligament. Tooth migration.

A. B. C. D.

elimination of the smear layer. increased diameter of the dentinal tubules. demineralization of the superficial dentin. elimination of the collagen fibres.

The full palatal strap major connector is indicated where What is the essential etiologic factor for generalized aggressive periodontitis? A. B. C. D.

Altered lymphocyte activity. Generalized subgingival calculus. Impaired polymorphonuclear phagocytosis. Bacterial plaque.

The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome refers to the destructive changes associated with the long term wear of a mandibular distal extension removable partial denture opposing a complete upper denture. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT normally characteristic of this syndrome? A. Reduction in morphologic face height. B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge resorption. C. Down growth of the maxillary tuberosities. D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption under the posterior partial denture base areas.

A. B. C. D.

there is a high, narrow palatal vault. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus is present. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped arch. palatal tissue is soft and compressible.

The characteristics of "Group function occlusion" are: A. B. C. D.

The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. Only canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion.

The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is

When compared to zinc phosphate cement, glass ionomer cement has a(an)

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

survey line. terminal line. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. line of greatest torque.

When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth, the centre of rotation is located A. B. C. D.

at the apex. at the cervical line. within the apical half of the root. within the cervical one third of the root.

The leeway space in an 8 year old child A. B. C. D. E.

will provide space for eruption of the permanent incisors. is greater in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch. occurs with premature loss of primary molars. is approximately 3.5mm in the mandibular arch. allows accommodation of premolars that are larger than the primary molars.

During routine examination, it is noted that a premolar is erupting ectopically 3.5mm to lingual while the primary predecessor is still firmly in place. The most appropriate management is to A. B. C. D.

allow the primary tooth to exfoliate naturally. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate its exfoliation. remove the primary tooth and allow the permanent successor to erupt. extract the ectopically erupting premolar.

lower solubility in oral fluids. ability to release fluoride. higher compressive strength. lower film thickness.

Which of the following may result in acetone breath? A. B. C. D.

Prolonged fasting. High carbohydrate diet. High protein diet. Poor oral hygiene.

Reduced thyroid hormone level in a child is associated with A. B. C. D.

lack of tooth eruption. early tooth eruption. delayed tooth eruption. supernumerary teeth.

During the act of swallowing, the auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube is A. B. C. D. E.

opened by the tensor tympani muscle. closed by the tensor tympani muscle. opened by the tensor veli palatine muscle. closed by the levator veli palatine muscle. closed by the superior constrictor muscle.

Immediately following an inferior alveolar nerve block, the patient exhibits facial paralysis. The needle has penetrated through which ligament? A. B. C. D.

Sphenomandibular. Stylomandibular. Stylohyoid. Pterygomandibular.

The dentino-enamel junction is the most sensitive portion of a tooth because A. B. C. D.

free nerve endings terminate on odontoblasts at this region. odontoblastic processes branch considerably at this region. ameloblasts make synaptic connections with odontoblasts at this junction. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.

A midfacial probing depth measurement where the base of the pocket extends beyond the mucogingival junction indicates that A. B. C. D.

gingival hyperplasia is present. there is no attached gingiva. occlusal trauma is present. gingival recession is present.

The clinical width of attached gingiva is determined by measuring the distance from the In a normally developing occlusion, spaces between deciduous or permanent incisors are called

A.

A. B. C. D.

C.

physiological spaces. primate spaces. leeway spaces. freeway spaces.

The central action of caffeine is principally on the A. B. C. D. E.

cerebral cortex. corpus callosum. hypothalamus. spinal cord. medulla.

A vertical cross-section of a smooth surface carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle with the A. B. C. D.

base at the dentino-enamel junction. base facing toward the pulp. apex pointing to the enamel surface apex pointing to the dentino-enamel junction.

B.

D.

free gingival margin to the mucogingival line plus the periodontal pocket depth. free gingival margin to the depth of the periodontal pocket. free gingival margin to the mucogingival line minus the periodontal pocket depth. free gingival margin to the mucogingival line.

Adjustment of the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture should be completed A. B. C. D.

after the teeth have been set on the trial denture. immediately after making the final casts. upon delivery of the denture. after the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.

Which of the following bacterial groups is anaerobic? A. B. C. D.

Clostridia. Diplococci. Mycobacteria. Staphylococci.

A patient has a history of shortness of breath and ankle edema. You would suspect

Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys by heat treatment increases

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

asthma. emphysema. rhinophyma. cardiac insufficiency.

ductility. yield strength. coring. elastic modulus. malleability.

Which thermal property is most important in selecting a restorative material to protect the pulp from excessive temperature changes?

The predominant organism(s) associated with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Prevotella intermedia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Porphyromonas gingivalis. Helicobacter pilori.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

conductivity. diffusivity. expansion coefficient. modulus.

Local anesthetics are less effective in inflamed tissue because they are A. B. C. D.

diluted by the edematous fluid. rapidly redistributed by the increased blood flow. ionized by the acidic pH. rapidly degraded by released enzymes.

A patient with multiple small bruises (purpura) most likely has a low count of A. B. C. D. E.

lymphocytes. T-cells. platelets. erythrocytes. eosinophils.

The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is A. B. C. D.

the same as the proportional limit. decreased by work hardening. the same as the stress at fracture. higher than the proportional limit.

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. B. C. D.

a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. a shorter retentive arm. more taper. a shallower undercut.

The rate of orthodontic tooth movement is greater in adolescents compared with adults due to A. B. C. D.

higher metabolic rate in adults. differences in tissue bone reaction. closure of root apices. completion of growth.

Exfoliative cytology is of value in the diagnosis of A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. aphthous ulceration. herpes simplex. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. erythema multiforme.

The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. 2. 3. 4.

Heavy cigarette smoking significantly increases the incidence of A. B. C. D. E.

aphthous stomatitis. geographic tongue. lichen planus. atrophic glossitis. mucosal pigmentation.

A. B. C. D. E.

reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. completely eliminates skin bacteria. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding diazepam?

The presence of anterior diastemas and distally inclined maxillary incisors in a 9 year old child will most likely

1.

Its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites. It does not produce anti-anxiety effects after intramuscular administration. Intravenous administration is more reliable than oral. Its sedative effect can be reversed by naloxone.

A.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The presence of anterior diastemas and distally inclined maxillary incisors in a 9 year old child will most likely

2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D. E.

B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

be associated with a Class II division II malocclusion. involve the presence of mesiodens. self correct. require orthodontic treatment. be associated with hypodontia.

be associated with a Class II division II malocclusion. involve the presence of mesiodens. self correct. require orthodontic treatment. be associated with hypodontia.

When odontoblasts are destroyed, new odontoblasts are derived from A. B. C. D.

existing odontoblasts. macrophages. neural crest cells. undifferentiated cells.

The most appropriate emergency management of a mature permanent tooth with acute irreversible pulpitis is

A clinical diagnostic indication of palatal impaction of maxillary permanent canines does NOT include

A. B. C. D. E.

A.

pulpotomy. pulpectomy. incision and drainage. trephination. apical surgery.

The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by A. B. C. D.

hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. chlorhexidine and chloroform. calcium hydroxide and phenol.

The occlusal parameter that is most useful to differentiate between an overbite of dental or skeletal origin is the A. B. C. D. E.

mandibular curve of Spee. mandibular curve of Wilson. molar sagittal relationship. mandibular anterior lack of space. maxillary curve of Wilson.

B. C. D.

A patient, when in full intercuspation, shows a right side posterior crossbite and a lower midline that is deviated to the right. At initial contact there are bilateral posterior crossbites and coincident midlines. The most likely cause of this finding is A. B. C. D.

B. C.

A. B. C. D. E.

Crowding of 7mm or more per quadrant. Class I molar relationship. Skeletal deepbite. Class I skeletal relationship. Coordinated dental arches.

severe temporomandibular dysfunction. two ideal occlusions. true unilateral crossbite. occlusal interference and functional shift.

A healthy 66 year old patient who had a myocardial infarct eight years previously requires an extraction. Treatment should include A.

Which parameter is a CONTRAINDICATION for serial extraction?

proclined and laterally flared permanent lateral incisors. delayed exfoliation of primary canines. midline central diastema. lack of canine buccal bulges in a 10 year old patient.

D.

admitting the patient to hospital for extraction with local anesthesia. admitting the patient to hospital for extraction with general anesthesia. extracting the tooth in the office using preoperative sedation and local anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor. extracting the tooth in the office using local anesthesia with a vasoconstrictor.

Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most commonly found in the A. B. C.

cervical third of the root. middle third of the root. apical third of the root.

There is an acute periradiuclar abscess on tooth 1.3. The tooth must be extracted. In addition to a palatal injection, the most appropriate local anesthetic technique would be A. B. C. D.

vestibular infiltration. infraorbital. middle superior alveolar. intraligamentary.

The microorganisms that initially colonize the tooth surface are associated with the genus A. B. C. D.

Porphyromonas. Actinobacillus. Streptococcus. Prevotella.

Subgingival plaque in deep periodontal pockets consists primarily of Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic injection reduces the A. B. C. D.

toxicity of local anesthetic. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. possibility of intravascular administration. possibility of paresthesia.

Which of the following requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve? A. B. C. D.

Inferior alveolar nerve block. Endodontic instrumentation beyond apex. Restoration of occlusal caries. Making an alginate impression.

A. B. C. D.

gram-positive microorganisms. aerobic microorganisms. gram-negative microorganisms. viruses.

Which of the following drugs may cause generalized enlargement of interdental papillae? A. B. C. D.

Digitalis. Nifedipine. Captopril. Propanolol.

Using a high speed dental handpiece WITHOUT water coolant will When placed into sound dentin, a selfthreading pin will A. B. C. D.

increase tensile strength of an amalgam restoration. strengthen the amalgam. cause pulpal inflammation. increase the retention of an amalgam restoration.

The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is best probed from the

A. B. C. D. E.

Loss of sensation over the distribution of the inferior dental nerve is a possible complication of A.

A. B. C.

buccal. buccal or lingual. lingual.

produce a smoother surface. decrease pulpal damage if used with light pressure. reduce clogging of dental bur. reduce debris accumulation. increase frictional heat.

B. C. D.

removal of an impacted mandibular third molar tooth. removal of a torus mandibularis. a forceps removal of a mandibular second molar. distal wedge periodontal surgery.

Adrenal corticosteroids A. B. C. D.

increase heart rate. cause vasodilation. increase protein synthesis. reduce inflammation.

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of saliva production? A. B. C. D.

Accessory. Labial. Parotid. Sublingual and submandibular.

Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. B. C. D. E.

Which of the following is/are true statements about incision and drainage of an acute apical abscess? 1. 2. 3.

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. 2. 3. 4.

glossitis. angular cheilitis. pain. erythematous oral mucosa.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 25 year old female in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. B. C. D.

Prescription of a radiograph. Prescription of penicillin V. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management.

a pulp polyp. late stage of acute pulpitis. chronic pulpitis. chronic apical abscess. pulp hyperemia.

4.

A. B. C. D. E.

A rubber dam drain may be placed and sutured to assist drainage. The procedure is only indicated with a localized, fluctuant swelling. Profound anesthesia of the surgical site is not always possible. Relief of the pressure and pain is immediate after treatment. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Periapical infection from a mandibular second molar may spread by direct extension to the 1. 2. 3. 4.

buccal space. buccal vestibule. sublingual space. submandibular space.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Composite resin is a satisfactory core material for endodontically treated teeth provided A. B. C. D.

the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure. there is an adequate ferrule. the resin is autopolymerizing. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum.

Proximal retention grooves are most necessary to provide resistance for proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restorations when the A. occlusal extension is wide faciolingually relative to the proximal extension. B. restoration is a pin-retained cusp replacement. C. occlusal extension is narrow faciolingually relative to the proximal extension. D. bonded amalgam technique is not being used.

Early detection of a non-cavitated smooth surface caries lesion allows for a A. conservative preparation for a bonded composite resin restoration. B. conservative preparation for an amalgam restoration. C. preventive regimen to be implemented to arrest the demineralization and remineralize. D. conservative preparation for a resinmodified glass ionomer restoration.

The placement of a reverse curve in a Class II amalgam preparation aids in A. B. C. D.

retention form. resistance form. convenience form. outline form.

An amalgam coronal-radicular core build-up for endodontically treated molar teeth requires Which of the following is consistent with the features of an arrested carious lesion in an occlusal fissure? A. A small cavitated lesion with exposed dentin. B. A white spot lesion with a frosty surface. C. A lesion extending into dentin on a bitewing radiograph. D. A brown spot lesion with a hard surface.

Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system), is most likely due to a preparation with A. B. C. D.

inadequate isthmus depth. inadequate isthmus width. a stepped buccal or lingual wall. subgingival proximal extension.

A. an adequate pulp chamber and ferrule. B. a pulp chamber, ferrule and amalgam bonding. C. the presence of a post. D. the use of retentive threaded pins.

Conventional glass ionomer cements A. elicit less pulp response than zinc-oxide and eugenol cements. B. do not require a protective liner, such as calcium hydroxide in a deep preparation. C. have a lower modulus of elasticity than zinc phosphate cements. D. bond mechanically to calcium in enamel and dentin. E. are superior to zinc phosphate cement for luting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns.

Most of the problems associated with direct posterior composite resin restorations are related to

Proper collimation of the useful x-ray beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

image definition. scattered radiation. radiographic contrast. patient dose.

Which of the following conditions CONTRAINDICATES routine dental treatment in the dental office?

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D.

Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch could result in defects in the

high thermal conductivity. galvanic conduction. polymerization shrinkage. poor shade selection.

Hypothyroidism. Recent (15 days) myocardial infarct. Second trimester pregnancy. Insulin-dependent diabetes.

Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following anesthetic agents is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase?

Zinc phosphate. Polycarboxylate. Calcium hydroxide. Reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) 1. 2. 3. 4.

is a local anesthetic. has topical anesthetic properties. is an antiarrhythmic agent. has anticonvulsant properties.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

zygomatic bones and external ears. mandible and external nose. maxilla and muscles of facial expression. palate and hyoid bone.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Prilocaine. Lidocaine. Mepivacaine. Procaine.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Most of the somatosensory information from the oral cavity reaches the brain through which nerve? A. B. C. D.

Trochlear. Hypoglossal. Trigeminal. Glossopharyngeal.

Veillonella species in supragingival plaque A. act symbiotically with S. mutans to decrease pH and promote caries activity. B. convert lactate to acetic and propionic acid. C. enhance the progression of caries by metabolizing sucrose. D. act as pioneer microorganisms in the development of plaque.

A daily dose of 80mg of acetylsalicylic acid is used for its A. B. C. D.

analgesic properties. antipyretic effect. antiplatelet action. anti-inflammatory function.

A periodontal probe should be inserted into the sulcus The most effective way of minimizing a patient’s radiation dose is A. B. C. D.

a lead apron and thyroid collar. prescription radiography. fast emulsion film. intensifying screens.

A. parallel to the vertical axis of the tooth. B. and angled away from interproximal contacts. C. with a firm pushing motion. D. with a firm lateral motion.

The antibiotic of choice for a periradicular dental abscess is When diazepam is used for anxiety control, patients should be advised to avoid A. B. C. D.

fluids pre-operatively. caffeine post-operatively. driving a vehicle. analgesics containing acetylsalicylic acid.

In addition to oxygen, the drug of choice for the management of angina is A. B. C. D. E.

epinephrine. acetylsalicylic acid. diphenhydramine. nitroglycerin. atropine.

A. B. C. D. E.

A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. B.

The local anesthetic technique requiring the needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the C. A. B. C. D.

posterior superior alveolar nerve block. Gow-Gates block. Vazirani-Akinosi block. inferior alveolar nerve block.

penicillin V. cephalosporin. erythromycin. metronidazole. ampicillin.

D. E.

perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

The characteristics of "group function" occlusion are:

The most likely diagnosis for a child with a painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion.

Aging pulps show a relative increase in A. B. C. D.

sensitivity. cell numbers. calcification. vascularity.

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. aggressive periodontitis. idiopathic fibromatosis. aphthous stomatitis.

Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Loss of stippling. Gingival hyperplasia. Decreased pocket depth. Bleeding on probing.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth? A. B. C. D. E.

Lateral periodontal cyst. Dentigerous cyst. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Periradicular abscess. Periradicular cyst.

Regarding dental caries, which of the following is correct? A. B. C.

The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. B. C. D.

radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. disclosing solution. probing with a fine instrument. visual inspection.

In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is located A. B. C.

within basal bone. coronal to alveolar bone crest. apical to alveolar bone crest.

D.

All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.

Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. C. D. E.

amide. ester. aldehyde. ethamine. aminide.

Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. B. C. D. E.

amide. ester. aldehyde. ethamine. aminide.

An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is A. B. C. D.

deformity of the jaws. reduced vascularity of the jaws. increased vascularity of the jaws. increased brittleness of the jaws.

Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth? A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. B. C. D.

pulp stones. tertiary dentin. secondary cementum. primary dentin.

A. B. C. D.

Chronic periradicular periodontitis. Internal resorption. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Hyperplastic pulpitis.

Myxedema is associated with Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions? A. B. C. D.

Isoproterenol. Meperidine hydrochloride. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. Propoxyphene.

A. B. C. D.

insufficient parathyroid hormone. excessive parathyroid hormone. insufficient thyroid hormone. excessive thyroid hormone.

Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. B. C. D. E.

use a thyroid collar and lead apron. apply a radiation protection badge. use high speed film. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. take a panoramic film only.

If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured, it should be placed in

A. B. C. D.

A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was most probably caused by a/an A. B. C. D.

A. B. C.

water. 100% relative humidity. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution.

acute inflammation of the pulp. pulpal abscess. chronic inflammation of the pulp. early apical abscess formation.

E.

vitamin D deficiency. generalized calcium deficiency. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. infection of tooth 5.5 during the development of tooth 1.5. hereditary factor.

Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth?

Which of the following is/are associated with an unerupted tooth?

A. B. C. D.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. Cementoblastoma.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Periapical radiolucency. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. Pain upon biting pressure. Absent vitalometric response.

A 4 year old child has a normal complement of deciduous teeth, but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is typical of A. B. C. D.

cleidocranial dysplasia. amelogenesis imperfecta. neonatal hypoplasia. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with 1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. C. D. E.

excessive orthodontic forces. chronic periradicular periodontitis. traumatic injury. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp? A. B. C. D.

Dentigerous cyst. Lateral periodontal cyst. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. Pulp polyp.

An ankylosed tooth is usually A. B. C. D.

nonvital. associated with a root fracture. infraerupted. found in the permanent dentition.

For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test? A. B. C. D.

Apical cyst. Acute apical abscess. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Chronic apical periodontitis.

The microscopic appearance of the central giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. B. C. D.

hyperparathyroidism. Paget's disease. cleidocranial dysplasia. hyperpituitarism.

An ameloblastoma can develop from the epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. B. C. D.

Periradicular. Dentigerous. Residual. Lateral periodontal.

A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The radiograph will show A. B. C. D. E.

an apical radiolucency. acute osteitis. root resorption. condensing osteitis. normal lamina dura.

Radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. 2. 3. 4.

branchial cyst. nasopalatine cyst. nasolabial cyst. periradicular cyst.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which drug is most adversely affected by ingestion of antacids? A. B. C. D.

Cephalexin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Penicillin V.

A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. B. C. D. E.

Cemento-enamel junction. Marginal ridge. Carabelli cusp. Calculus. Cemental tear.

A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most likely

A. B. C. D.

The most appropriate radiographic examination for a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable caries or anomalies, and with open proximal contacts is A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

a periradicular periodontitis. a dentigerous cyst. a rarefying osteitis. the mental foramen.

is nonvital. has a periodontal pocket. has a hyperemic pulp. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.

maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusals. a pair of posterior bite-wings. maxillary and mandibular posterior periapicals. no radiographic examination.

One week after an amalgam restoration is placed in the mandibular first premolar, the patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking something cold. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs are normal. The most likely diagnosis is

A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment should be to

A. B. C. D.

C. D.

hypercementosis. reversible pulpitis. pulpal microabscess. acute periradicular periodontitis.

A 12 year old child presents with characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A. B. C. D.

6 years. 4 years. 1 year. before birth.

A. B.

cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. perform a pulpectomy. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer.

The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old child is A. B. C. D. E.

regular assessment of arch development. to perform space analysis. insertion of a space maintainer. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. extraction of the opposing molar.

A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a A 6 year old patient has a larger than average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. In order to manage the diastema, you should extract the mesiodens A. B. C. D.

after its complete eruption. once the patient has reached the age of 12. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. as soon as possible.

A. B. C. D. E.

fracture of the zygomatic arch. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. craniofacial dysjunction.

Which of the following will impede healing following the surgical closure of an oroantral fistula? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Poor flap design. Excessive tissue tension. Blowing the nose. Sinus infection.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. The management of this patient should be to

Immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The immediate treatment should be to A.

A. B. C. D.

E.

plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. observe.

B. C. D. E.

use pressure followed by cold packs over the swelling. use hot packs over the swelling. refer the patient to a hospital. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg intravenously.

Epinephrine should NOT be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled A 7 year old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is A. B. C. D. E.

bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch. unilateral expansion of maxillary arch. placement of a maxillary repositioning splint. observation until the permanent teeth erupt. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch.

To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar, the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is A. B. C. D.

as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. after the permanent second molar has erupted. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed.

A. B. C. D.

hyperthyroidism. hyperparathyroidism. myxedema. asthma.

A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels unwell following the administration of a local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This condition does not respond to placing the patient in a supine position. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D. E.

syncope. adrenal insufficiency. hyperglycemia. hypoglycemia. carotid sinus reflex.

Generally, glass ionomer cements contain A. B. C. D.

zinc oxide and distilled water. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and orthophosphoric acid. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and polyacrylic acid.

A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be caused by

The usual adult dosage of codeine administered orally is

1. 2. 3. 4.

inadequate ceramic thickness. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. excessive occlusal load. use of an inappropriate luting material.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. B. C. D. E.

Valvular heart disease. Cardiac prosthesis. Persistent odontogenic fistula. Immunosuppressive therapy. Organ transplant.

Under normal conditions, the most definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is A. B. C. D. E.

applying warm gutta percha to the crown. cutting into the dentin without anesthetic. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. performing a radiographic examination of the tooth. performing an electric pulp test.

An anterior endodontically treated tooth has been restored with a carbon fibre, a direct restorative core and a porcelain fused to metal crown. What is the most important factor influencing the prognosis of this tooth? A. Type of core material. B. Type of luting cement. C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure. D. Alloy composition of the post.

The primary etiological factor for the development of root caries is A. B. C. D.

gingival recession. acquired xerostomia. poor oral hygiene. cigarette smoking.

The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A.

A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an

B.

A. B. C. D. E.

D.

periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. ameloblastoma. compound odontoma. complex odontoma. Pindborg tumor.

500-1000mg. 250-500mg. 30-60mg. 2-5mg.

C.

E.

observation over 6 months for further resorption. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis.

The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal relative to the porcelain for constructing a ceramometal (porcelain fused to metal) crown should be A. B. C. D.

slightly less. the same. slightly more. significantly less.

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing radiograph result from 1. 2.

4.

malalignment of teeth. incorrect vertical angulation of the x-ray beam. incorrect horizontal angulation of the xray beam. patient movement during the exposure.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

3.

The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by 1. 2. 3. 4.

adding an occlusal dovetail. increasing the parallelism of walls. lengthening the axial walls. placing a gingival bevel.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is best probed from the A. B. C.

buccal. buccal or lingual. lingual.

Which of the following substances causes inflammation and pain when released by pulpal fibres? A. B. C. D.

Prostaglandin E2. Calcitonin gene related peptide. Neuraminase. Acetylcholine.

Regarding the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for calcium, A. adult men and women require the same amount. B. more calcium is required during pregnancy and lactation. C. women over 70 years require more than men over 70 years. D. under the age of 18, boys require more calcium than girls.

With the exception of third molars, the crowns of all permanent teeth are completely calcified at the age of A. B. C. D.

6 to 7 years. 4 to 6 years. 8 to 9 years. 11 to 12 years.

What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second premolar can be confirmed? A. B. C. D.

2 years. 4 years. 6 years. 8 years.

Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing? A. B. C. D.

Ice water. Air jet. CO2 (dry ice). Ethyl chloride.

A Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency usually arises in patients

On a semi-adjustable articulator, the incisal guide table represents

1. 2. 3. 4.

who are elderly. with acute infection. consuming a high protein or fat diet. taking systemic antibiotics.

A.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

B. C.

A "butterfly-rash" of the face can sometimes be found in

D.

The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A.

A. B. C. D.

erythema multiforme. lupus erythematosus. pemphigus vulgaris. acne rosacea.

B. C. D.

The most likely indication of a poor periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. B. C. D.

wide root separation. narrow root separation. a bifurcation ridge. an enamel pearl.

Which of the following structures may be associated with the role of the central nervous system in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism? A. B. C. D.

Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal). A delta and C nerves. Sphenopalatine ganglion. Petrous nerves.

a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson.

E.

observation over 6 months for further resorption. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis.

Which of the following dental procedures could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder? A. B. C. D.

Mandibular block anesthesia. Supragingival calculus removal. Incisional biopsy. Subgingival restoration.

Which of the following cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Plasma cells. Macrophages. Lymphocytes. Neutrophils.

A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

acute periradicular abscess. acute serous pulpitis. lateral periodontal abscess. acute suppurative pulpitis. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.

An open proximal contact on an amalgam restoration can be prevented by

What is the most significant radiographic finding in hyperparathyroidism?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

appropriate wedge selection. tightening the matrix band. light condensing forces. simultaneous placement of adjacent proximal restorations.

Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. B. C. D. E.

a pulp polyp. late stage of acute pulpitis. chronic pulpitis. chronic apical abscess. pulp hyperemia.

Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. B. C. D.

Hyperthyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism. Hypothyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism.

Demineralization of teeth. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts. Hypercementosis. Rampant caries. Generalized loss of lamina dura.

The risk of latex allergy increases with a/an 1. 2. 3. 4.

increased exposure to latex. history of spina bifida. history of allergy to bananas, chestnuts or avocado. history of eczema.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The appropriate management for an avascular white lesion, 5 x 3mm in size, that has been present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months and has recently become ulcerated is A. B. C. D. E.

observation. excisional biopsy. incisional biopsy. aspiration biopsy. cytologic examination.

A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

acute periradicular abscess. acute serous pulpitis. lateral periodontal abscess. acute suppurative pulpitis. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.

For an avulsed, fully developed permanent tooth that has been reimplanted, a favourable prognosis is most affected by the A. length of time the tooth has been out of the mouth. B. use of an appropriate antibiotic. C. effectiveness of the irrigation of the socket. D. rigidness of the splint. E. thoroughness of the curettage of the root surface.

Which class of drugs should first be considered for oral sedation in the adult patient? What is the most significant radiographic finding in hyperparathyroidism? A. B. C. D. E.

Demineralization of teeth. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts. Hypercementosis. Rampant caries. Generalized loss of lamina dura.

Amphetamines A. B. C. D.

increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. have analgesic properties have no effect on psychomotor activity. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.

A. B. C. D. E.

Antihistamines. Barbiturates. Benzodiazepines. Opioids. Phenothiazines.

A 50 year old patient presents for extraction of an asymptomatic tooth. The preoperative blood pressure is 198/111 mmHg. The most appropriate treatment is to A. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic without epinephrine. B. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic with epinephrine. C. refer to a physician for preoperative evaluation. D. extract the tooth and refer to a physician.

Which of the following indicates a failure of a dental implant? A. Gingival inflammation. B. Horizontal bone loss of one third of the implant length. C. Mobility. D. Increased probing depths.

A zirconia-based ceramic fixed partial denture can be used for a patient with A. B. C. D. E.

periodontally involved abutment teeth. long clinical crowns. deep vertical anterior overlap. cantilever pontic. evidence of bruxism.

Which sound is associated with the most common speech defect in complete denture patients? A. B. C. D. E.

M. S. F. J. V.

Overeruption of the posterior teeth can result A. B. C. D.

in arch crowding. in an increased overbite. in an increased overjet. from bonding posterior orthodontic brackets too occlusally. E. from wearing a posterior bite block.

Increasing the amount of network modifiers (e.g. CaO, Na2O) in porcelain will

Which of the following analgesics is CONTRAINDICATED for the long-term management of myofascial pain syndrome?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

increase its fusion temperature. decrease its thermal expansion. increase its chemical reactivity. decrease its potential for devitrification upon heating.

Voids in a gypsum cast are most likely the result of A. low surface tension of a silicone impression material. B. high surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid. C. using a hydrophilized addition silicone. D. spraying a surfactant on the impression.

A 3 year old has been diagnosed with an inverted mesiodens. What is the most appropriate time to extract the mesiodens? A. Immediately. B. Just prior to the eruption of the first permanent molars. C. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary central incisors. D. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary canines.

Acetylsalicylic acid with codeine. Ibuprofen. Oxycodone. Acetaminophen with codeine.

In a 17 years old, which traumatic dental injury is most likely to result in pulp necrosis on tooth 1.1? A. B. C. D.

Extrusion. Intrusion. Luxation. Subluxation.

Correction of a bilateral posterior constriction of the maxillary arch has the best long term prognosis for stability if A. B. C. D.

the maxillary posterior teeth are centered on the alveolar process. slow, fixed expansion quad-helix is used. there is no functional shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. there is a history of prolonged thumbsucking.

A 35 year old patient has a severe bleeding disorder. Which of the following dental procedures could be performed with a minimal risk of prolonged bleeding? A. B. C. D.

Mandibular nerve block anesthesia. Supragingival calculus removal. Placement of orthodontic bands. Placement of a subgingival restoration.

Which disease is associated with a higher proportion of Fusobacterium, Porphyromonas, Prevotella, and spirochetes? A. B. C. D. E.

Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis. Chronic periodontitis. Aggressive periodontitis. Root caries. Early childhood caries.

In endodontic therapy, the most effective irrigating solution for dissolving organic debris is A. B. C. D. E.

ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). sodium hypochlorite. calcium hydroxide. hydrogen peroxide. sodium chloride.

The antibiotic of choice for infections of pulpal origin is A. B. C. D.

penicillin V. metronidazole. erythromycin. tetracycline.

An anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is most likely to occur Which of the following medications increases a patient’s risk for intraoral candidiasis? A. B. C. D. E.

Warfarin. Cyclosporine. Pentobarbital. Ibuprofen. Pilocarpine.

In a developing crown, ameloblasts and odontoblasts A. are polarized in opposite directions. B. initially produce an organic nonmineralized matrix. C. begin to produce matrix simultaneously. D. have rapid cell division.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A. B. C. D. E.

when the drug is administered parenterally. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. within minutes after drug administration. when the drug is administered orally. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

Side effects of therapeutic doses of codeine can include

Which of the following is the most predictable indicator of periodontal stability?

1. 2. 3. 4.

constipation. drowsiness. nausea. respiratory depression.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3 (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

A 9 year old boy presents for treatment immediately following a facial injury resulting in a fracture of a maxillary central incisor that involves the enamel only. The tooth tests negative to an electric pulp tester. This finding indicates that the tooth A. B. C. D.

is nonvital and should be extracted. is nonvital and endodontic therapy is indicated. has a root fracture and should be extracted. should be observed and tested again at a later date.

A mother is concerned with the slight spacing between the anterior teeth of her 3 year old child. Which of the following statements is correct? A.

B.

C.

D.

Developing malocclusion is predictable since only the primate space should be present. The parent should be advised that orthodontic treatment will be necessary in the mixed dentition stage. An appliance should be constructed before the eruption of the permanent teeth to close the spaces. The situation is normal.

Patient compliance. Gingival inflammation. Plaque index. Absence of bleeding on probing.

When placing an implant in the posterior mandible, the minimum thickness of bone between the implant and the inferior alveolar nerve should be A. B. C. D.

2mm. 4mm. 6mm. 8mm.

Which of the following is the most potent corticosteroid? A. B. C. D. E.

Cortisone. Dexamethasone. Hydrocortisone. Prednisone. Triamcinolone.

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary glands are most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication? A. B. C. D.

Accessory. Labial. Parotid. Sublingual and submandibular.

In the mandible, the main growth site is in the A. B. C. D.

gonial angle. condylar cartilage. posterior border of the ramus. inferior and lateral aspects of the body of the mandible.

Which of the following drugs does NOT cause gingival enlargement?

The most likely cause of malocclusion with an Angle Class I molar relationship is a/an

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Nifedipine. Cyclosporine. Phenytoin. Prednisolone.

Which of the following are signs of aggressive periodontitis? 1. 2.

thumbsucking habit. crossbite in the posterior segments. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy. improper eruption of permanent first molars.

In most cases, thumbsucking does NOT cause permanent harm to the dentition if the habit

3. 4.

Rapid attachment loss. Suspected periodontal microbial pathogens. Onset before the age of 35. Ulcerations of the gingiva.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

(1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.

The immediate management of a hematoma following a posterior superior alveolar nerve block is to

A patient on broad spectrum antibiotics for four weeks presents with widespread, sore, red and white oral mucosal lesions. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

candidiasis. leukoplakia. erythema multiforme. erosive lichen planus. pemphigoid.

The most appropriate management technique to avoid aspiration of blood or debris during general anesthesia, is A. B. C. D.

insufflation. open drop. endotracheal intubation. intravenous barbiturate with nitrous oxide and oxygen.

A. B. C. D.

is discontinued before 4 years of age. is discontinued before 8 years of age. occurs only at night. is light in intensity.

incise into the buccal sulcus. apply firm direct pressure. aspirate with a wide bore needle. place hot towels over the cheek.

Spirochete activity is seen by A. B. C. D.

staining with Gram's method. staining with methylene blue. observation with dark-field microscopy. observation with conventional microscopy.

A patient has suffered a blow 4 hours previously resulting in the loosening of three maxillary incisors. There is no response to vitality testing. The most appropriate initial management would be to A. B. C.

D.

perform pulpectomies on the teeth. remove the teeth, fill the root canals and replant. splint the teeth, check vitality in one month and if negative, treat endodontically. splint the teeth and treat endodontically immediately.

A modified hinge non-adjustable articulator is limited in its accuracy to reproduce dynamic jaw movements because it can only reproduce A. large centric relation- maximum intercuspation slides. B. one hinge axis movement. C. one specific intercuspal position. D. eccentric movements by multiple lateroprotrusive registrations.

When using a semi-adjustable articulator, the most significant effect on the occlusal anatomy of a restoration arises from alteration of the A. B. C. D. E.

immediate side shift. intercondylar width. level of the Frankfort plane. position of the incisal pin. posterior wall of the fossae.

The incidence of a second mesiobuccal canal in the maxillary first molar is A. B. C. D.

40% 60%. 80%. 100%.

In the context of informed consent, choice means the ability A. to accept recommended beneficial treatment voluntarily. B. to refuse recommended beneficial treatment voluntarily. C. to refuse recommmended beneficial treatment with an understanding of forseeable consequences.

During an incisal clench, the activity of the elevator muscles is A. increased. B. decreased. C. unaffected.

A dentist must be prudent in deciding how far to follow a patient’s informed choice for suboptimal treatment because A. the law protects a patient’s right to make poor decisions. B. a patient’s informed choice must always be honoured. C. the principle of do-no-harm overrides the patient’s personal choice.

An ideal occlusion has A. an absence of contact on cingulums during protrusion. B. canine guidance or group function on the working side. C. contact between posterior teeth during protrusion. D. posterior tooth contact on the non-working side.

Which of the following maxillary incisor angulations complicates a functional appliance construction bite? A. B. C. D.

Retroclined central incisors. Proclined lateral incisors. Retroclined lateral incisors. Proclined central incisors.

When performing a periodontal screening and recording (PSR) for a patient, the code asterisk (*) is used for a sextant when A. B. C. D.

a tooth in the sextant needs to be extracted. all the teeth in the sextant are missing. a mucogingival problem is present. a tooth in the sextant has supraerupted.

According to functional matrix theory of growth, primary sites

A patient with a malocclusion with an anterior openbite has A. decreased eruption of the posterior teeth. B. increased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. C. decreased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. increased eruption of the posterior teeth.

A patient with a malocclusion with a deep overbite has

A. cause expansion and growth. B. respond by compensation to translational forces. C. are the primary genetic basis for all growth and development. D. in addition to the bony skull are the major influences of growth.

A. decreased eruption of the posterior teeth. B. increased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. C. decreased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. increased eruption of the poterior teeth.

Orthodontic treatment using growth modification should be

Two important wound healing principles for guided tissue regeneration are

A. started as early as possible. B. individualized to maximize effect. C. delayed until the eruption of the permanent dentition. D. used in adult patients.

A. space creation and wound stabilization. B. space creation and intramarrow penetration. C. root surface biomodification and wound stabilization. D. root surface biomodification and intramarrow penetration.

When orthodontically retracting a maxillary right canine, blood flow to the periodontal ligament is altered within A. B. C. D.

seconds. minutes. hours. days.

The correlation between malocclusion and temporomandibular dysfunction is A. B. C. D.

weak. moderate. strong. definitive.

Generalized aggressive periodontitis is characterized by attachment loss affecting the first molars and incisors and at least A. B. C. D.

1 other permanent tooth. 3 other permanent teeth. 5 other permanent teeth. 7 other permanent teeth.

Which of the following is NOT a malignant lesion of the gingiva? A. B. C. D.

Neurofibroma. Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia. Sarcoma. Squamous cell carcinoma.

The failure of a commercially pure titanium dental implant to osseointegrate can potentially be attributed to each of the following EXCEPT A. type III/IV bone at the implant site. B. titanium oxide formation on the implant surface. C. habitual smoking. D. uncontrolled diabetes.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of pulpal necrosis in immature teeth? A. B. C. D. E.

Loss of thermal sensitivity. Coronal discolouration. Periradicular radiolucency. Negative response to electric pulp test. Abnormal mobility.

Increasing the crystalline content of a dental ceramic will generally decrease its A. B. C. D.

fracture toughness. opacity. translucency. proportional limit.

For a ceramometal crown, the thermal expansion coefficient of the ceramic (porcelain) should be A. slightly lower than that of the underlying metal structure. B. equal to that of the underlying metal structure . C. slightly higher than that of the underlying metal stucture. D. significantly higher than that of the underlying metal structure.

A cement base under an amalgam restoration should have A. B. C. D.

high modulus and high thermal diffusivity. high modulus and low thermal diffusivity. low modulus and high thermal diffusivity. low modulus and low thermal diffusivity.

All of the following display visceolastic properties EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

irreversible hydrocolloids. dental porcelain. silver amalgam. dentin.

All of the following are strategies for increasing the fracture toughness of dental ceramics EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

slow cooling after sintering. tetragonal zirconia addition. self-glazing. crystalline phase dispersion.

Decreasing the amount of network modifiers in a dental porcelain will A. B. C. D.

decrease its fusion temperature. increase its thermal expansion . decrease its chemical reactivity. increase its potential for devitrification upon heating.

A fixed partial denture with a single pontic is deflected a certain amount, a span of tow similar pontics will deflect A. B. C. D.

the same amount. twice as much. four times as much. eight times as much.

To achieve adequate retention when placing a post in a posterior tooth with a normal canal configuration, the post requires a

When closing a diastema with direct composite, care must be taken to ensure that the

A. B. C. D.

A. width to height relationships are appropriate. B. entire embrasure is filled. C. restoration does not extend subgingivally. D. enamel is reduced 0.3 to 0.5mm prior to etching.

length of 7 to 8 mm. length equal to the restored crown height. parallel sided design. resin luting cement.

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to root caries lesions? A. A specific microoganism causes root caries. B. Early lesions involve adjacent enamel. C. Colour of the lesion is a relaible indicator of caries activity. D. The majority of lesions begin interpoximally.

C-factor (configuration factor) is defined as the ratio of A. width to height in the upper anterior teeth. B. mercury to alloy in a dental amalgam. C. bonded to unbonded surfaces in a preparation. D. filler to monomer in a composite resin.

The need to frequently replace intact orthodontic elastics is a direct consequence of

A common filler added to resin to produce dental composites is

A. B. C. D.

A. calcium salt. B. quartz. C. zinc oxide.

creep. low modulus. stress relaxation. high ductility.

When closing a diastema with direct composite, care must be taken to ensure that A. only supragingival enamel is etched. B. primer is used to increase bond strength. C. glass-ionomer cement is used subgingivally. D. interproximal gingiva is adequately retracted.

Flux is added to the casting metal during melting to A. B. C. D.

minimize oxidation. enhance melting. increase stiffness. decrease fluidity.

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with failed endodontic treatment? A. B. C. D. E.

Enterococcus faecalis. Actinomyces israelii. Streptococcus mutans. Candida albicans. Prevotella intermedia.

Which of the following orthodontic alloy wires allows the most tooth movement with the fewest adjustments?

An anterior crossbite of a permanent maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is often associated with

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

nickel-titanium. stainless-steel. ß-titanium. cobalt chromium.

The tooth with the largest root surface area is the A. B. C. D.

maxillary canine. maxillary first molar. mandibular canine. mandibular first molar.

a functional shift. unexplainable genetic factors. lingually situated supernumerary teeth. prolonged retention of a primary incisor. premature eruption of a maxillary incisor.

What is the most appropriate management of a tooth which is sensitive to percussion but repsonds normally to pulp vitality testing? A. B. C. D.

Pulpectomy. Occlusal assessment. Coronal pulpotomy. Restoration replacement.

Which of the following statements about sodium is correct? A. Salt-sensitive people should avoid foods like oranges & bananas. B. A high salt intake aggravates but does not cause hypertension. C. Renal sodium excretion varies indirectly with total sodium intake. D. The sodium recommendation is increased during pregnancy.

The Bass tooth brushing technique is appropriate for oral hygiene instruction because A. plaque beneath the gingival margin is removed. B. debris is forced from the embrasures. C. the horizontal, vertical and circular motions. D. it increases circulation to the gingiva.

After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the bony defect prior to suturing the flap? A. B. C. D. E.

Corticosteroids. Antibiotic powder. Oxidized cellulose. Bone wax. Nothing.

Which of the following methods of cavity preparation is most likely to cause damage to the pulp? A. B. C. D.

Ultra high speed and water spray. Ultra high speed and no water spray. Conventional speed and no water spray. Conventional speed and water spray.

A carious maxillary central incisor with acute suppurative pulpitis requires

Cell rests of Malassez are thought to originate from

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

immediate endodontics and apicectomy. incision and drainage. opening of the canal and drainage for one week. pulpotomy.

The material of choice for obturating the root canal system of a primary tooth is A. B. C. D. E.

silver cone. gutta percha. zinc-oxide eugenol. paper point medicated with formocresol. zinc oxyphosphate.

stellate reticulum. dental papilla. Hertwig's root sheath. stratum intermedium.

Following the removal of a vital pulp, a root canal is medicated and sealed. The patient returns with an acute periradicular periodontitis. The most probable cause is A. B. C. D. E.

overinstrumentation. lateral perforation. incorrect medication. pulp tissue left in the root canal. infection.

Hyperemia of the pulp is A.

B. C.

D.

an acute inflammation of the dental pulp characterized by intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become continuous. an excessive accumulation of blood in the pulp resulting in vascular congestion. a chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged for long periods creating temporary episodes of pain. a transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the pulpal tissue.

The mesial and distal walls of a Class I amalgam preparation diverge toward the occlusal surface in order to A. B. C. D.

resist the forces of mastication. provide resistance and retention form. prevent undermining of the marginal ridges. extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed.

After a thermal stimulus has been removed from a tooth persistent pain suggests A. B. C. D. E.

a normal pulp. pulp necrosis. reversible pulpitis. irreversible pulpitis. exposed cervical dentin.

Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the root canal by using A. B. C. D.

alcohol. ethyl chloride. eugenol. xylene.

The vibrating line of the palate is A. B. C. D.

a line or area which marks the movement of the soft palate. always on the hard palate. a well defined line across the palate. not a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication.

One week following the placement of a small, Class II composite resin, the patient returns with pulpitis. The most likely cause is A. B. C. D.

microleakage. hyperocclusion of the restoration. polymerisation expansion of the restoration. incomplete curing.

The primordial cyst probably results from A.

B. C. D. E.

The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is cut perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth EXCEPT in the A. B. C. D.

maxillary first premolar. maxillary second premolar. mandibular second premolar. mandibular first premolar.

Which of the following is immediately distal to the intermaxillary suture? A. B. C. D.

Mandibular central incisor. Mandibular canine. Maxillary central incisor. Maxillary canine.

cystic degeneration of the stellate reticulum early in the formation of the tooth. epithelial remnants in the periodontal ligament. an extension of pulpal inflammation after death of the pulp. failure of formation of the enamel matrix. the dental lamina.

Secondary dentin formation may be stimulated by A. B. C. D.

pulp necrosis. fluorosis. attrition. vitamin D therapy.

A 15-year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was most probably caused by a/an A. B. C. D.

vitamin D deficiency. generalized calcium deficiency. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. infection of tooth 5.5 during the development of tooth 1.5. hereditary factor.

The premolar with the occlusal groove pattern simulating the letter “Y” is the

E.

A. B. C. D.

The characteristic colour seen in the crowns of teeth with internal resorption is due to

maxillary first premolar. mandibular first premolar. maxillary second premolar. mandibular second premolar.

A. The epithelial lining of a radicular cyst is derived from A. B. C. D.

the epithelial cell rests of Malassez. oral epithelium proliferating apically from a periodontal pocket. endothelial proliferation of capillaries in the area. metaplasia of histiocytes and/or cementoblasts.

B. C. D.

E.

deposition of pigment in the cells of the odontoblast layer. the presence of hyperplastic vascular pulp tissue. a change in the consistency of the dentin. an optical phenomenon related to the difference in the refractive indices of the normal and affected areas. the degeneration and necrosis of the pulp tissue.

Recurrent herpes labialis is A. B. C. D. E.

caused by a different organism than is primary herpetic stomatitis. a form of disease which heals by scarring. seen more frequently in adult patients. not a contagious lesion. a venereal disease.

If hypothyroidism occurs in the adult, it can be associated with A. B. C. D. E.

exophthalmos. weight loss. generalized edema. tachycardia. mental defects.

A decrease in the neutrophil count is present in A. B. C. D. E.

granulocytopenia (agranulocytosis). iron deficiency anemia. myeloid leukemia. leukocytosis. thrombocytopenic purpura.

In the use of the dental X-ray machine, patient protection from radiation is MOST important for A. B. C. D. E.

patients receiving antibiotics. patients receiving corticosteroids. individuals over fifty-years of age. pregnant women. young adults.

An abnormal decrease in the flow of saliva is associated with A. B. C. D.

ptyalism. sialometaplasia. xerostomia. pyroglossia.

Unilateral premature eruption of teeth is characteristic of A. B. C. D. E.

acromegaly. hemihypertrophy. hemiatrophy. cleidocranial dysostosis. adrenogenital syndrome.

Which one of the following oral conditions is NOT caused by a virus? A. B. C. D.

Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. Herpetic gingivostomatitis. Leukoplakia. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the A. B. C. D.

anterior maxilla. posterior mandible. posterior maxilla. anterior mandible.

When a diagnosis of a primordial cyst is made, there is likely to be A stone in the salivary glands or ducts is called a

A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

C.

sialolith. renolith. calcolith. phlebolith. None of the above.

D. E.

the normal number of teeth in that jaw. one less than the normal number of teeth in that jaw. one more than the normal number of teeth in that jaw. a squamous cell carcinoma in that jaw. a primordial cyst situated symmetrically on the opposite side.

The normal white cell differential count for neutrophils is

A hemorrhagic bone cyst (traumatic cyst) is a radiolucency most frequently seen

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C.

10-19. 20-29. 30-39. 40-65. 66-90.

A biopsy of a clinically suspicious malignant lesion fails to support the clinical diagnosis. The most appropriate management is to A. B. C. D. E.

assure the patient that there is no malignancy. take a second biopsy. observe the patient yearly. recall the patient in one month. make a cytological smear.

Radiographically, a primordial cyst will show A. B. C. D. E.

mixed radiolucency and radiopacity. a radiolucency around the crown of an impacted tooth. a radiolucency containing multiple rudimentary teeth. a radiolucency. None of the above.

D. E.

in the mandibular ramus. posteriorly to the maxillary molars. from the symphysis to the ramus of the mandible. in the maxillary premolar area. None of the above.

Regardless of the target-film distance employed for intraoral surveys, the diameter of the primary beam at the patient's skin surface should not be greater than A. B. C. D.

the longest side of the film. the size of the lead diaphragm. 7cm. the size of the filter.

Which of the following combinations of milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation with the maximum penetration? A. B. C. D. E.

10kVp - 65ma 85kVp - 5ma 90kVp - 10ma 65kVp - 15ma 75kVp - 40ma

Hemangiomas of the jaws

A zinc phosphate cement base

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

never occur in bone. are malignant. can appear cystic radiographically. are metastatic lesions.

has the same radiopacity as amalgam. is less radiopaque than amalgam. has the same radiopacity as gold. cannot be seen on a radiograph.

Bitewing radiographs are most valuable for detecting A. B. C. D.

hyperemia of the pulp. occlusal carious lesions. proximal surface caries. cervical caries.

Difficulty in mouth opening, dysphagia, tongue stiffness and generalized induration of the skin are characteristic of A. B. C. D. E.

lupus erythematosus. scleroderma. erythema multiforme. lichen planus. malignant disease.

A radiopaque area within the alveolar process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. B. C. D. E.

periapical cemental dysplasia. ameloblastoma. compound odontoma. complex odontoma. Pindborg tumor.

The tissue which cannot be seen on dental radiographs is A. B. C. D. E.

dentin. enamel. cementum. pulp. periodontal ligament.

If the image of a supernumerary tooth appears in a second radiograph to have shifted distally from the position shown on the original radiograph, this indicates that the supernumerary tooth lies A. B. C. D. E.

buccal to the premolars. lingual to the premolars. on the same plane as the premolars. mesial to the premolars. distal to the premolars.

Digitalis is prescribed for the treatment of The lamina dura is A. B. C. D. E.

nephritis. angina pectoris. coronary occlusion. congestive heart failure. None of the above.

A. B. C. D. E.

cortical bone. spongy bone. immature bone. a cribiform plate perforated by nutrient canals. None of the above.

Which of the following is most radiopaque? A. B. C. D.

Calcifying odontogenic cyst. Fibrous dysplasia of bone. Ameloblastoma. Complex composite odontoma.

It is possible to misdiagnose the midline palatal suture as a A. B. C. D.

fracture. palatal cyst. granuloma. abscess.

Basal cell carcinoma A. B. C. D. E.

metastasizes to the submental lymph nodes. metastasizes to the submaxillary lymph nodes. metastasizes to the cervical lymph nodes. metastasizes to the pre-auricular lymph nodes. does not normally metastasize.

Median anterior maxillary cysts occur in the A. B. C. D. E.

nasal bone. incisive canal and in the palatine process. zygomatic process. hamular process. None of the above.

Vitality tests are used to differentiate between A. B. C. D.

cementoma and a periapical granuloma. cementoma and an incisive canal cyst. periapical granuloma and an apical cyst. periapical granuloma and the mental foramen.

Which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival? A. B. C. D.

Osteosarcoma. Melanoma. Ameloblastoma. Adenocarcinoma.

Which is a characteristic of a patient with myxedema?

Pleomorphic salivary adenomas are most likely to exhibit

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C.

Exophthalmos. Weight loss. Heat intolerance. Lethargic appearance. Tachycardia.

D.

rapid growth with early death of patient. early metastasis to distant organs. slow growth but tendency to local recurrence. early ulceration and hemorrhage.

Gingival enlargement observed in acute leukemia is due to

Oral foci of infection are of greatest clinical significance in the presence of

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

reactive fibrosis. edema. tissue infiltration by cells. capillary fragility. hematoma.

Which one of the following is seen in primary herpetic stomatitis, herpes simplex, herpes zoster and varicella? A. B. C. D.

Macules. Papules. Vesicles. Pustules.

polycythemia vera. iritis and uveitis. eczema and urticaria. rheumatoid arthritis. subacute bacterial endocarditis.

In an adult, continued growth of the mandibular condyles, an increase in size of the bones and soft tissues of the hands, feet, supraorbital ridges and air sinuses suggest A. B. C. D.

Hashimoto's thyroiditis. hyperthyroidism. pituitary adenoma. aldosteronism.

Multiple neurofibromatosis and "café au lait" spots on the skin are typical of

Leukemic gingivitis may be misdiagnosed as

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Gardner's syndrome. Plummer-Vinson syndrome. Von Recklinghausen's disease. Down's syndrome.

ascorbic acid deficiency gingivitis. infectious mononucleosis. thrombocytopenic purpura. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.

The treatment of choice for a patient with generalized acute herpetic stomatitis is

In an adult, progressive increase in mandibular length and interdental spacing is a feature of

A.

A. B. C. D. E.

B. C. D.

debridement of mouth, sustaining oral hygiene and treating the elevated temperature. same as for acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. prescribing 300,000 units of penicillin orally. prescribing corticosteroids locally and systemically.

The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray beam is to A. B. C. D. E.

permit the use of lower kilovoltage during exposure. filter out useless short rays. permit use of the long cone technique. reduce the diameter of the primary beam. reduce exposure time.

hyperparathyroidism. hyperpituitarism. periodontosis. Addison's disease. Cushing's disease.

Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent area of the posterior mandible shows microscopically follicular areas lined with cylindrical cells resembling the enamel organ. The most likely diagnosis is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

neurofibroma. ameloblastoma. central fibroma. periodontal cyst. dentigerous cyst.

A benign neoplasm of bone is called Cervical radiolucency at the cemento-enamel junction is most likely due to A. B. C. D.

caries at the site. bone loss at the alveolar crest. less density of tissue at the cementoenamel junction. gingival recession.

A. B. C. D. E.

ossifying fibroma. osteoma. torus. sarcoma. osteosarcoma.

Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of Which of the following is most radiopaque? A. B. C. D. E.

Lamina dura. Enamel. Cortical bone. Gold inlay. Composite restoration.

A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. sinusitis. erythema multiforme. anemia. vitamin deficiencies.

A person who has sickle cell anemia may show certain radiographic changes in the bones of the skull. These changes may be A. B. C. D.

‟punched out” radiolucent lesions. a moth-eaten appearance of the bone. gross irregularities with exostosis formation. a "hair on end" effect.

Which of the following is NOT associated with osteogenesis imperfecta? A. B. C. D. E.

Brown teeth. Brittle bones. Thin enamel. Blue sclerae. Enamel loss.

The most common malignant tumor of the tongue is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

papilloma. adenocarcinoma. fibroma. squamous cell carcinoma. granular cell myoblastoma.

A characteristic of malignant tumors is the ability to A. B. C. D.

invade and metastasize. grow to large size and remain within their capsule. remain localized. grow slowly.

Histoplasmosis is a In which of the following conditions is there a risk of malignant change after repeated surgical interventions? A. B. C. D.

Fibrous dysplasia. Mucocele. Lymphangioma. Torus palatinus.

A. B. C. D.

non-specific bacterial infection. protean disease. viral disease. fungal disease.

Oral lichen planus has lesions which

A 'pregnancy tumor' is A. B. C. D.

unassociated with local irritants. a benign neoplasm. clinically identical to a pyogenic granuloma. None of the above.

A. B. C. D.

bleed readily. occur in the debilitated. exhibit a positive Nikolsky's sign. histopathologically show lymphocytic infiltration.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an acute periradicular abscess? Healing of a herpes simplex lesion is A. B. C. D. E.

prolonged over several months. spontaneous within 7-14 days without scar formation. spontaneous within 7-14 days with scar formation. spontaneous within 2-4 days. None of the above.

A. B. C. D.

Pain on percussion. Tooth feels elongated. Pain to a cold stimulus. Pain on palpation.

If untreated, which of the following lesions has the WORST prognosis?

The definitive diagnosis of central malignancy of the jawbone is made on

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

Basal cell carcinoma of the nose. Ameloblastoma. Melanoma of the soft palate. Verrucous carcinoma.

C. D. E.

clinical examination. radiographic translucency and loss of trabeculation. exfoliative cytology. biopsy. All of the above.

Oral leukoplakia has the most favourable prognosis when it is A. B. C. D. E.

present in a non-smoker. accompanied by pain. infected with Candida albicans. speckled in appearance. on the hard palate.

Which of the following epithelial changes is most likely to be precancerous? A. B. C. D.

Acanthosis. Hyperkeratosis. Parakeratosis. Dysplasia.

Median anterior maxillary cysts are found in A tourniquet test gives information as to A. B. C. D. E.

the zygomatic process of the maxilla. the incisive canal. the uvula. the hamular process. None of the above.

Soft, white, elevated plaques of the oral mucosa are characteristic of A. B. C. D. E.

angioma. candidosis (candidiasis). actinomycosis. herpes simplex. submucous fibrosis.

Which of the following histopathological features would be the most reliable indicator of the malignancy of a neoplasm? A. B. C. D. E.

Hyperchromatism. Pleomorphism. Encapsulation. Invasion. Degeneration.

A. B. C. D. E.

clot retraction time. capillary fragility. bleeding time. coagulation time. platelet activity.

The characteristic oral lesion(s) of pemphigus is/are A. B. C. D. E.

vesicles and bullae. Fordyce's granules. white plaques. hairy tongue. candidiasis (candidosis).

A distinctive clinical entity originating as a proliferative response of the soft tissue of the oral mucosa to a non-specific irritant is called A. B. C. D. E.

cellulitis. abscess. pyogenic granuloma. "canker sore". None of the above.

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis affects MAINLY the

Thiopentone sodium (Pentothal) provides all of the following advantages EXCEPT

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

attached gingivae. gingival papillae. alveolar mucosa. buccal mucosa. epithelial attachment.

The best method of treatment of a nondisplaced fracture of the body of the mandible in an edentulous patient is A. B. C. D.

K-wire insertion without immobilization. open reduction and lower border wiring without immobilization. open reduction and lower border wiring plus immobilization. use of splint or lower denture with circumferential wiring.

An antipyretic drug A. B. C. D. E.

reduces fever. provides analgesia. causes loss of consciousness. creates heat sensitivity. counters the tendency for epileptic seizures.

Which of the following steroids can produce Cushing's syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

Estradiol. Testosterone. Prednisolone. Progesterone. Diethylstilbestrol.

smooth pleasant induction. good sleep production. rapid recovery. acceptability for both young and old. adequate length of operating time.

The first sensation lost after administration of a local anesthetic is A. B. C. D.

pain. touch. pressure. proprioception.

Which of the following local anesthetics is subject to inactivation by plasma esterases? A. B. C. D. E.

Procaine. Lidocaine. Prilocaine. Mepivacaine. Bupivacaine.

Protracted use of tetracycline may produce symptoms of vitamin K deficiency because tetracycline A. B. C. D.

is detoxified by the liver. combines chemically with vitamin K. inhibits growth of intestinal bacteria. interferes with the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

The most important therapeutic measure to be taken in a case of barbiturate poisoning is to A. B. C. D.

alkalinize the urine. aspirate stomach contents. administer a CNS stimulant. assure adequate respiration.

Which of the following does NOT relieve pain? A. B. C. D. E.

Codeine. Methadone. Meperidine. Hydromorphone. Chloral hydrate.

In facial injury management, the most important first aid measure is to A. B. C. D.

control the bleeding. prevent shock. establish and maintain an airway. control infection.

A major secondary therapeutic use of the phenothiazines is as an

Which of the following drugs is used in treating opioid-dependent individuals?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

antiemetic. antidepressant. anticonvulsant. antihypertensive.

The principal difference between potassium, procaine and benzathine salts of penicillin G is their A. B. C. D. E.

potency. toxicity. duration of action. antibacterial spectrum. diffusion into the cerebrospinal fluid.

Which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes? A. B. C. D.

Non-ionized and high lipid solubility. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility. Ionized and low lipid solubility. Ionized and water solubility.

A natural alkaloid obtained from opium is A. B. C. D. E.

Hydromorphone. Meperidine. Methadone. Codeine. None of the above.

Codeine. Methadone. Alphaprodine. Pentazocine. Meperidine.

A dento-alveolar abscess most frequently originates from (a) A. B. C. D.

post-extraction infection. trauma. periodontal cyst. pulpal necrosis.

Which one of the following tests is used to confirm the presence of an acute infection? A. B. C. D.

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Urinalysis. Differential white cell count. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate for a patient with a compound fracture of the mandible? A. B. C. D.

Chloromycetin. Tetracycline. Penicillin. Erythromycin.

After giving buccal infiltration anesthesia for the removal of a maxillary premolar, the patient complains of a sharp pain in the cheek which blanches. This is a result of A. B. C. D.

injecting too much solution. injecting the solution too rapidly. stimulating sympathetic nerves around an artery. intravenous injection.

Patients with a history of rheumatic fever and known heart valve damage should be given prophylactic antibiotic coverage before dental extractions because of the risk of A. B. C. D.

myocardial infarction. subacute bacterial endocarditis. cardiac arrest. All of the above.

In local anesthesia, depression of respiration is a manifestation of A. B. C. D.

puncture of a blood vessel. use of non-isotonic solution. toxic effects of the solution. trauma to a nerve trunk by the needle.

For a patient with a history of glaucoma and porphyria, the most appropriate pharmacosedative is A. B. C. D. E.

intravenous secobarbital. intravenous diazepam. oral diazepam. nitrous oxide. intravenous thiopental.

A 5 year old child presents with yellow pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which under ultraviolet light gives a bright yellow fluorescence. This is diagnostic of A. B. C. D.

tetracycline pigmentation. pigmentation associated with chromogenic bacteria. amelogenesis imperfecta. enamel hypoplasia.

The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in deciduous teeth should A. B. C. D.

be parallel to each other. diverge toward the occlusal surface. converge toward the occlusal surface. not follow the direction of the enamel rods.

Which is NOT a sign of thyrotoxicosis? A. B. C. D.

Tremor. Exophthalmos. Slow pulse rate. Temperature elevation.

The maxillary central incisors of a 2 year old child have been traumatically intruded 4mm. Immediate treatment is to A. B. C.

Hydrolysis of anesthetic salts is facilitated by D. A. B. C. D.

a tissue pH above 7.0. a tissue pH below 5.0. a tissue pH between 5.0 and 7.0. lipophilic properties of the nerve fibres.

carefully remove both incisors. reposition the intruded teeth. make the patient comfortable without disturbing the teeth. reposition and splint the intruded teeth.

Concerning hand-wrist radiographs, which of the following statements is correct?

The greatest period of cranial growth occurs between

A.

A. B. C. D.

B.

C. D.

Bone age is estimated by the presence or absence of osseous centres in particular bones and compared with standards. Hand-wrist radiographs are a precise measure of progress in skeletal development in normal children. The hand-wrist radiograph is of little value in orthodontic diagnosis. The information obtained from radiographs alone is enough to make an accurate determination of skeletal age.

The sum of the widths (in mesiodistal diameter) of the first and second deciduous molars is generally A. B. C. D.

greater than the permanent successors. smaller than the permanent successors. same as the permanent successors. not related to the permanent successors.

An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. apexification with calcium hydroxide. apexification with zinc oxide. root canal therapy using gutta-percha. root canal therapy followed by a retrograde amalgam filling.

Class I cuspid relationship. Class II cuspid relationship. Class III cuspid relationship. Class I molar relationship.

An 8 year old patient has lost both maxillary central incisors in an accident. The most appropriate treatment is A. B. C. D.

The most appropriate treatment for a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex is

birth and 5 years. 6 and 8 years. 10 and 12 years. 14 and 16 years.

E.

observation. orthodontics to close the space. placement of a space maintainer with bands cemented on the lateral incisors. construction of a removable partial denture. construction of a fixed bridge.

The significant factor in the correction of an anterior cross-bite is the A. B. C. D.

age of patient. depth of cross-bite. shape of the tooth involved. space available mesiodistally.

In determining a patient's skeletal growth pattern, the most important factor is A. B. C. D.

diet. habits. heredity. occlusion.

The occlusal surface of a non-carious submerged mandibular deciduous second molar is level with the gingival margin. The second premolar is present radiographically. Your treatment of the deciduous tooth is to A. B. C. D.

loosen the tooth to encourage eruption. cover the tooth with an oversized crown. extract the tooth and maintain the space. wait for it to be exfoliated.

Which of the following represents the normal relationship of the primary canines? A.

B.

C. D.

The distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine. The mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine. Normal articulation of primary canines is end-to-end. None of the above.

The treatment for an 11-year old who has intermittent swelling and pain associated with a central incisor which was traumatized 6 months ago should be A. B. C. D.

pulpotomy. pulpectomy. extraction. observation.

In a 5-year old, a small mechanical exposure in a vital primary molar would be treated by Following premature deciduous tooth loss, space problems occur MOST frequently in the area of the

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular central incisor. mandibular second premolar. maxillary first premolar.

extraction of the tooth. a pulp capping with calcium hydroxide. a routine amalgam restoration without any specific treatment for the exposed pulp. the use of a cavity liner.

In an 8 year old patient the most appropriate treatment of a vital permanent molar with a large carious exposure is To determine the location of an impacted maxillary cuspid, the radiographic view(s) required is/are A. B. C. D.

occlusal. periapical. periapical and occlusal. panoramic.

A. B. C. D.

pulpotomy. pulpectomy. direct pulp capping. indirect pulp capping.

In an 8-year old child, the four maxillary incisors are tipped lingually and are in crossbite. The optimum time for treatment is The postnatal increase in width of the maxilla results from A. B. C. D.

sutural growth. mandibular growth. appositional growth. both appositional and sutural growth.

A. B. C. D.

as soon as possible. after the maxillary canines are in position. after the maxillary premolars erupt. following completion of jaw growth.

A 7-year old child who complains of pain when eating, has a large carious lesion on a permanent molar. A radiograph reveals no periapical change. Your treatment is A. B. C. D.

indirect pulp capping. direct pulp capping. vital pulpotomy. prophylactic odontotomy.

Which of the muscles of mastication is associated with the condylar head and the articular disc? A. B. C. D.

Masseter. Temporalis. Internal pterygoid. External pterygoid.

Hypochromic anemia is associated with The causative organism in most acute alveolar infections is A. B. C. D. E.

staphylococcus. lactobacillus. streptococcus. candida albicans. actinomyces.

A. B. C. D.

iron deficiency. aminopyrine therapy. vitamin B12 deficiency. folic acid deficiency.

Children receiving systemic fluoride will exhibit the highest fluoride concentration in the An osteoclast is a cell A. B. C. D.

that forms bone. of the endosteum. that resorbs bone. which forms collagen.

A. B. C. D.

enamel surface. enamel matrix. dentino-enamel junction. cementum.

The Fluorosis Index is used to measure the Embryologically, fusion of the palatal shelves should be completed by the

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

fifth week. tenth week. sixteenth week. twentieth week.

C. D. E.

degree of protection offered against dental caries by fluoride supplements. concentration of fluoride in public water supplies. degree or severity of mottled enamel. opposition to fluoridation by citizens' groups. total amount of fluoride ingested.

Which oral condition predisposes to caries? A. B. C. D.

Xerostomia. Leukoplakia. Pharyngitis. Stomatitis medicamentosa.

A characteristic of the periodontium which allows safe temporary separation of the teeth is the A. B. C. D.

nature of acellular cementum. elasticity of bone. modified continuous eruption of the teeth. passive eruption.

Deposition of plaque on teeth occurs in A. B. C. D.

less than 24 hours. 24 to 48 hours. 2 to 4 days. 5 to 7 days.

Which microorganisms predominate in early plaque? A. B. C. D. E.

Gram-positive aerobic rods. Gram-negative aerobic rods. Gram-positive aerobic cocci. Gram-negative aerobic cocci. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci.

The primary reason for placing a surgical dressing after a gingivectomy is to A. B. C. D.

prevent hemorrhage. protect the wound. stabilize the teeth. protect the sutures.

Examination reveals an area of gingival recession that exposes a wide area of denuded root. The procedure of choice to obtain coverage of this root surface is A. B. C. D.

free gingival autograft. apically positioned flap. laterally positioned pedicle graft. coronally positioned flap.

A patient complains of dull, constant pain in his jaws upon awakening. You would suspect A. B. C. D.

acute pulpitis. sinusitis. bruxism. chronic gingivitis.

Which of the following is essential for successful periodontal treatment? A. B. C. D.

Destruction of bone in periodontal disease occurs A. B. C. D.

continuously. in cycles lasting for about 3~months. in random cycles. None of the above.

Scaling. Final evaluation and maintenance on a one-year recall. Periodontal surgery. Elimination of local etiologic factors through plaque control.

The efficacy of pit and fissure sealants is affected by

Following periodontal surgery, the most important factor to promote healing is

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

A radiographic term used to describe the dense bone image of the socket and septal crest is

a salt water rinse. thorough plaque control. gingival massage. leaving the site undisturbed for a period of 3 months.

A. B. C. D. E.

occlusal relationship. opacity of the sealant. stage of tooth eruption. type of polymerization reaction. systemic fluoride treatment.

periodontal ligament space. cancellous bone. cribriform plate. lamina dura. cortical bone.

The tooth surfaces LEAST susceptible to caries are

Chronic gingival inflammation is best eliminated by

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

mesial of the maxillary arch. lingual of the mandibular arch. distal of the maxillary arch. occlusal of the mandibular arch. lingual of the maxillary arch.

gingival surgery. regular use of a water-irrigating device. root planing and curettage. occlusal correction. splinting.

In normal gingiva, the predominant microflora of gingival plaque are

The primary objective of initial periodontal therapy is to

A. B. C.

A. B.

D.

gram-positive cocci. gram-negative cocci. gram-negative facultative and anaerobic rods. spirochetes.

C. D.

In clinically normal gingiva, the distance between the bottom of the sulcus and the alveolar crest is A. B. C. D.

0.5-1mm. 1.5-2mm. 3-5mm. None of the above.

reduce occlusal trauma. make adequate dietary and nutritional adjustments. remove the colonized masses of microorganisms and calculus. eliminate crowded and tilted teeth.

Residual soft tissue interdental craters not associated with underlying bony changes are eliminated by A. B. C. D. E.

root planing. subgingival curettage. flap operation. gingivoplasty. None of the above.

The physiologic wear of hard dental tissue resulting from mastication is known as A. B. C. D.

decalcification. attrition. abrasion. erosion.

In patients with periodontal disease, which of the following is most directly responsible for tooth loss? A. B. C. D. E.

Resorption of root surfaces. Gingival inflammation. Destruction of supporting alveolar bone. Inflammation and thickening of the periodontal ligament. Necrosis of exposed cementum.

In taking an impression with polysulfide or silicone materials, if the heavy bodied tray material begins to set before seating, the resultant die will A. B. C. D. E.

not be affected dimensionally. be overall smaller. be overall larger. develop a rough surface texture. develop bubbles at the interface of the syringe and tray material.

Hydrocolloid impression materials must be poured immediately because they A. B. C. D.

adhere to plaster and stone if not poured immediately. are subject to syneresis and inbibition. lose strength and disintegrate if left unpoured. begin to swell immediately after removal from the mouth.

Clasps should be designed so that upon insertion or removal of a partial denture the reciprocal arms contact the abutment teeth when the retentive arms pass over the height of contour in order to A. B. C.

prevent distortion of the clasps. assure complete seating of the framework. provide needed support to abutment teeth during a period of added stress.

In soldering nickel-cobalt-chromium alloys and stainless steel, the function of the fluoride flux is

The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments for a removable partial denture is the

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

C. D.

to lower the melting range of the solder. to reduce the copper-oxide content of the alloy. to stop the flow of the molten solder onto undesired areas. to reduce the formation of chromium oxide during soldering.

survey line. terminal line. axis of rotation. line of greatest torque.

A patient wearing complete dentures has angular cheilosis. The most likely cause is A "broken stress" or "non-rigid" type fixed prosthesis is indicated when A. B. C. D.

the retainers can be so designed as to have equal retentive qualities. 2 or 3 teeth are to be replaced. constructing a mandibular fixed prosthesis. the abutments cannot be prepared in parallel without excessive removal of tooth structure.

A. B. C. D.

Centric relation is a A. B. C.

The vertical relation of rest is D. A. B. C. D.

the same as the vertical relation of occlusion. greater than the vertical relation of occlusion. less than the vertical relation of occlusion. the same as the interocclusal distance.

increased vertical dimension. insufficient horizontal overlap (overjet). decreased vertical dimension. excessive vertical overlap (overbite).

relation of the maxilla to the rest of the skull. vertical relationship of the mandible to the maxilla. horizontal relationship of the mandible to the maxilla. rest position of the mandible.

Fixed partial denture pontics should A. B. C. D.

completely replace the missing hard and soft tissue. have a concave surface touching the mucosa. have minimal soft tissue coverage. hide the porcelain-metal junction on their gingival aspect.

In fixed partial denture (FPD) fabrication, significant premature occlusal contacts on teeth other than the abutment teeth should A. B. C. D.

be eliminated before the FPD is made. be eliminated while the FPD is being made. be eliminated after the FPD has been made. not be eliminated.

In a porcelain fused to gold restoration, which property must be modified between porcelain and gold to reduce the bond shear stress? A. B. C. D. E.

Compressive strength. Tensile strength. Modulus of elasticity. Thermal coefficient of expansion. Yield strength.

An excessively thick palatal bar of a maxillary partial denture will A. B. C. D.

cause injury to the abutment teeth. distort under occlusal stress. irritate the palatal tissues. cause difficulty in swallowing.

A distal extension removable partial denture is one that receives its support To evaluate an existing occlusion, diagnostic casts should be mounted on an articulator in A. B. C. D.

centric relation. balancing occlusion. either centric relation or balancing occlusion. horizontal protrusive relation.

A. B. C. D.

from the tissues only. mostly from the tissues. mostly from the abutment teeth. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues.

For a patient with new complete dentures, errors in centric occlusion are best adjusted by The stiffness of a material can best be described by the

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

modulus of elasticity. percentage elongation. modulus of resilience. elastic limit.

C. D.

directing the patient to close the jaws, bringing the teeth into occlusion. having the patient close in centric occlusion and making a transfer record to the articulator. having the patient leave the dentures out of the mouth for 24 hours. remounting the dentures in the articulator using remount casts and new interocclusal records.

The gingival aspect of a pontic which touches the alveolar ridge should be

The use of a reservoir on the sprue of a wax pattern decreases

A. B.

A. B. C.

C. D.

convex only in the mesiodistal direction. concave faciolingually and convex mesiodistally. small and convex in all directions. fabricated to produce slight tissue compression.

When the mandible makes hinge closure in its most retruded, unstrained position and all teeth meet in maximum intercuspation simultaneously, the condition is described as A. B. C. D.

centric occlusion. group function. balanced occlusion. centric occlusion coinciding with centric relation.

D.

volumetric changes in the casting. casting porosity from inclusion of gases. casting porosity from inclusion of foreign bodies. casting porosity during solidification.

Marginal leakage of a composite resin restoration will A. B. C. D.

not be detectable. be minimized by use of a bonding agent. decrease with longevity. None of the above.

Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called

The principal advantage of polyether impression materials over polysulfide polymer impression materials is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

The modulus of elasticity of a material is determined by

longer shelf life. superior accuracy. superior surface on the cast. less dimensional change with time.

A. A decrease in the particle size of the amalgam alloy will affect the amalgam by A. B. C. D.

increasing flow. decreasing expansion. retarding setting rate. increasing early strength.

Gold alloy can be given a white colour by introducing sufficient A. B. C. D.

zinc. copper. cadmium. palladium.

B. C. D.

adhesion. cohesion. syneresis. absorption.

dividing stress by strain below elastic limit. dividing strain by stress. multiplying proportional limit by strain. squaring proportional limit and dividing by strain.

Polysulfide rubber base impressions should be A. B. C. D. E.

poured immediately. allowed to stand a half hour before pouring. immersed in a fixing solution before pouring. immersed in water 10 minutes before pouring. coated with a thin film of separating medium.

Varying the mercury content of an amalgam results in which of the following? A. B. C. D.

The higher the mercury content the greater the strength. The higher the mercury content the less the flow. The lower the mercury content the greater the flow. The lower the mercury content the greater the strength.

Distortion of a wax pattern is mainly due to

Dental amalgam restorations

A.

A.

B. C. D. E.

insufficient plasticity during manipulation. insufficient bulk of material. relaxation of stresses introduced during manipulation. insufficient paraffin ingredient. refrigeration.

B. C.

D.

show decreased flow when the tin mercury phase is increased. contain nickel to increase the yield strength. show decreased corrosion and marginal breakdown when the copper tin phase is increased. contain zinc to reduce galvanic corrosion.

Which of the following is the hardest? A. B. C. D. E.

Amalgam. Enamel. Composite resin. Silicate cement. Type IV gold alloy.

In fixed bridge construction, where the vertical dimension has to be increased, the most important consideration is whether A. B. C.

The greatest dimensional change in denture bases will occur A. B. C. D.

after the dentures have been in the mouth 24~hours. when the dentures have been stored in tap water at room temperature. when a complete denture opposes natural teeth. at the time the dentures are removed from the flask.

D.

there is sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for crown retention. the inter-occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will be improved. an unfavorable crown-root ratio may develop.

The gingival tissues remain healthier when margins of crowns are placed A. B. C. D.

about lmm below the gingival crest. about 5mm below the gingival crest. above the gingival crest. at the gingival crest.

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint is moved by the A. B. C. D. E.

lateral (external) pterygoid muscle. medial (internal) pterygoid muscle. temporal muscle. fibres of the masseter muscle. upper fibres of the buccinator muscle.

Sclerotic dentin is A. B. C. D.

soft. hypersensitive. resistant to caries. injurious to the pulp.

In placing an amalgam, interproximal wedging will be most effective in controlling the Which of the following is classified as a muscle of mastication? A. B. C. D.

Temporalis. Buccinator. Digastric. Mylohyoid.

A. B. C. D.

buccal contour. gingival contour. lingual contour. marginal ridge contour.

A primordial cyst Which of the following bacterial types is implicated in the initiation of gingivitis? A. B. C. D.

Streptococcus salivarius. Streptococcus mutans. Leptothrix buccalis. Actinomyces viscosus.

A. B. C. D.

develops in place of a tooth. attaches to the apex of a tooth. attaches to the crown of a tooth. remains after the tooth is extracted.

Eosinophilic granuloma A. Which is the LEAST effective method of instrument sterilization? A. B. C. D.

Chemical solutions. Dry heat. Chemical autoclave. Steam autoclave.

B. C. D.

is found only at the apices of non-vital teeth. occurs in infants. is a non-lipid reticulo-endotheliosis. is caused by a virus.

Dysplastic lesions of squamous epithelium occur most often on the An incipient carious lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located A. B. C. D.

facial to the contact area. lingual to the contact area. gingival to the contact area. occlusal to the contact area.

A. B. C. D. E.

palate. gingiva. buccal mucosa. dorsum of the tongue. floor of the mouth.

Diabetes mellitus is the result of A. B. C. D.

hypersecretion of the posterior pituitary. atrophy of the islands of Langerhans. destruction of the adrenal cortex. destruction of the posterior pituitary or associated hypothalamic centres.

Two separate root canals are LEAST likely to be found in the A. B. C. D.

Widening of the periodontal space is NOT seen radiographically in A. B. C. D.

trauma from occlusion. orthodontic tooth movement. scleroderma. Paget's disease.

mandibular central incisor. maxillary first premolar. mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar. palatal root of the maxillary first molar.

Using current radiographic techniques, a satisfactory intraoral radiograph can be produced with skin exposures as low as A. B. C. D.

1 - 10mR. 100 - 600mR. 1 - 5R. 150 - 1,000R.

In complete dentures, the external oblique line is used as a guide for the A. B. C. D.

position of the posterior teeth. height of the occlusal plane. termination of the buccal flange. termination of the lingual flange.

After completion of initial therapy which included root planing and curetage, a patient has suprabony pockets of 5mm. Despite good plaque control, these pockets exhibit bleeding on probing. The treatment of choice is A. B. C. D. E.

additional root planing. occlusal adjustment. gingivectomy. periodontal flap surgery. None of the above.

The elastic limit of a material is the greatest load to which a material can be subjected to in order that it will A. B. C. D.

On an edentulous patient, a panoramic radiograph is used to A. B. C. D.

A mixed dentition analysis is used to determine if sufficient room exists for the eruption of the permanent A. B. C. D.

canines. canines and premolars. molars. molars and premolars.

fracture. remain distorted. return to its original dimension. return to a point beyond its original dimension.

determine the level of muscle attachments. identify systemic problems affecting the soft tissues of the mouth. reveal retained roots or residual areas of infection. assess the vertical dimension.

Which of the following is correct? A. B. C. D.

Supragingival calculus does not rely on salivary minerals for its calcification. Subgingival calculus is not a by-product of streptoccoci mutans. Subgingival calculus is a result rather than an initiating factor in periodontal disease. All of the above.

Using less water for mixing plaster of Paris will result in set plaster that A. B. C. D.

contracts. is stronger. is more porous. is less brittle.

The rate of "set" of polysulfide impression materials is accelerated by Stability in partial dentures is best ensured by A. B. C. D.

use of cast clasps. establishing harmonious occlusion. incorporating all undercut areas available. use of indirect retention.

A. B. C. D.

increasing the mixing temperature. decreasing the mixing temperature. adding oleic acid to the mix. None of the above.

The working time of zinc-phosphate cement In complete denture construction, custom trays are recommended for silicone and rubber base impression materials to

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

obtain a uniform thickness of material. facilitate removal of the impression. allow for a more uniform setting of the material. eliminate the need for a tray adhesive.

C. D.

is shortened if moisture condenses on the mixing slab during the mixing process. is lengthened if the powder is mixed with the liquid as quickly as possible. is shortened if the mixing slab is cooled. None of the above.

Incomplete polymerization of composite resin will occur when the resin comes in contact with The extension of the lingual anterior border of a mandibular denture is limited by the A. B. C. D.

mylohyoid muscle. geniohyoid muscle. genioglossus muscle. fibres of the digastric muscle.

In a patient with complete dentures, cheek biting may result from A. B. C. D.

too great an occlusal vertical dimension. the use of steep-cusped posterior teeth. insufficient coverage of the retromolar pad areas. insufficient horizontal overlap of the posterior teeth.

A. B. C. D. E.

zinc-phosphate cement. calcium-hydroxide lining. zinc-oxide-eugenol base. glass ionomer lining. polycarboxylate cement.

Gonion, menton and pogonion are all cephalometric landmarks located on the A. B. C. D. E.

maxilla. mandible. bony chin. cranial base. None of the above.

The Frankfort-horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks? A. B. C. D.

Porion and sella. Porion and nasion. Porion and orbitale. Nasion and sella.

Total removal of subgingival calculus in pockets more than 5mm deep is best achieved by A. B. C. D.

ultrasonic scaling. root planing with hand instruments. surgery and scaling. subgingival irrigation.

In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used. In patients with severe Class~II malocclusion, this angle is A. B. C. D.

greater than the normal. less than the normal. normal. unrelated.

Which of the following malocclusions is most commonly associated with mouth breathing? A. B. C. D.

Class I. Class II, Division 1. Class II, Division 2. Class III.

Angle used the term "subdivision" to refer to a malocclusion in which the abnormal molar relationship was A. B. C. D. E.

bilateral. unilateral. only mildly abnormal. severely abnormal. coupled with labioversion of the maxillary incisors.

A 10 year old patient has lost a maxillary permanent central incisor. The most appropriate management is A. B. C. D. E.

delay treatment until all permanent teeth are erupted. place a removable space maintainer. place a bonded resin bridge (Maryland bridge). place a conventional fixed partial denture. place a single tooth implant.

A skeletal cross-bite, as contrasted with functional cross-bite, usually demonstrates A. B. C. D.

marked wear facets. interference free closure to centric occlusion. deviated closure to centric occlusion. None of the above.

A substantial increase in maxillary arch width is best obtained by placing A. B. C. D.

Which of the following congenital problems most often results in a malocclusion? A. B. C. D.

cleft palate. ectodermal dysplasia. Pierre Robin syndrome. cleidocranial dysostosis.

lingual archwires. a rapid palatal expansion appliance. posterior intermaxillary cross-elastic bands. a face-bow headgear with an expanded inner bow.

The most common site in the oral cavity for a squamous cell carcinoma is

Which one of the following cements is anticariogenic because of fluoride ion release?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

floor of the mouth. buccal mucosa. palate. gingiva.

The maxilla is formed from A. B. C. D.

bundle bone. endochondral bone. membranous bone. lamellar bone.

Which of the following should be prescribed for a patient who cannot sleep because of frequent coughing spells? A. B. C. D.

Triazolam. Propoxyphene. Meperidine. Codeine.

Resin. Polycarboxylate. Zinc phosphate. Glass ionomer.

The first sign of a toxic reaction to an injected local anesthetic solution would be A. B. C. D.

convulsions. erythematous rash. asthmatic attack. excitement.

If the lining cement is left on the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam restoration, A. B. C. D.

cement dissolution will lead to leakage. the preparation will lack retention form. the preparation will lack resistance form to bulk fracture. the preparation will lack appropriate outline form.

In dental radiography, the most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure is to use A. B. C. D.

a lead apron. high speed film. added filtration. collimation.

The function of an indirect retainer is to prevent A. B. C. D.

Proper collimation of the useful beam for film size and target-film distance reduces A. B. C. D.

image definition. secondary radiation. radiographic contrast. intensity of the central beam.

tissue resorption. occlusal interferences. movement of the denture base toward the tissues. movement of a distal extension base away from the tissues.

Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as a result of A. B. C. D.

inflammation. benign neoplasia. normal cell turnover. a developmental abnormality.

An 8 year old patient has a 3mm diastema between the erupting permanent maxillary central incisors. This is most likely due to a/an A. B. C. D.

failure of fusion of the premaxillae. abnormal labial frenum. supernumerary tooth in the midline. normal eruption pattern.

A l0-year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor cross-bite when in centric occlusion. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation, the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge-to-edge. You should advise the parent that A.

B. Space closure following early primary tooth loss occurs most frequently in which of the following areas? A. B. C. D.

Maxillary lateral incisor. Mandibular central incisor. Mandibular second premolar. Maxillary first premolar.

Premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by A. B. C. D. E.

anterior crowding. labially displaced maxillary canines. delayed eruption of the permanent first molar. a Class II molar relationship on the affected side. a Class III molar relationship on the affected side.

Which of the following conditions is usually present in an Angle Class II, Division 2 malocclusion? A. B. C. D.

Open bite. Retroclined maxillary lateral incisors. Retroclined maxillary central incisors. Distoclusion of permanent maxillary first molars.

C. D.

the child has a growth problem and occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is complete. if the malrelationship is corrected now, future growth will likely undo the correction. the incisor malrelationship should be corrected now. future growth is likely to correct this problem.

If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is 82 degrees and a patient's SNA is 90 degrees, this would likely indicate A. B. C. D.

protrusive maxillary incisors. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base. maxillary prognathism. mandibular prognathism.

The best way to increase the working time of a polyvinylsiloxane is to A. B. C. D.

change the catalyst/base ratio. refrigerate the material. add oleic acid. reduce mixing time.

A centric relation record must be used to articulate casts in which of the following cases? A. B. C. D.

More than one third of the patients occlusal contacts are to be restored. The vertical dimension of occlusion will be modified on the articulator. The patient shows signs of a temporomandibular disorder. The patient's centric occlusion and centric relation do not match.

Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a nervous 22-year old male with well controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads of sweat have accumulated on his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this patient is to A. B. C. D. E.

administer glucagon 1.0mg. administer epinephrine 0.5mg. administer Benadryl (diphenhydramine) 50mg. elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen. call 911 and begin CPR.

Burning mouth syndrome is associated with: A. B. C. D.

Clinically normal-appearing mucosa. Clinically erythematous, atrophicappearing mucosa. Candidal pseudohyphae on cytologic smears. Keratinocytes with enlarged nuclei on cytologic smears.

In primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism, which of the following will NOT be found? A. B. C. D.

Hyperplasia of the gingiva. Alteration of the trabecular bone pattern. Generalized loss of lamina dura. Giant cell tumours of bone.

Which of the following procedures is NOT indicated for the management of infrabony defects? Repeated facial trauma can cause a/an: A. B. C. D.

Gingivectomy. Regenerative surgery. Flap surgery. Gingival graft.

A 12-year old male with a history of thumbsucking has an Angle Class II molar relationship with a SNA = 83 and a SNB = 79. The etiology of this patient's malocclusion is A. B. C. D. E.

dental. skeletal. neuromuscular. dental and neuromuscular. skeletal and neuromuscular.

Smoker's melanosis A. B. C. D.

is painful. tends to give rise to melanoma. most commonly affects the anterior gingiva. resolves within a few weeks after quitting smoking.

A. B. C. D. E.

Masseter hypertrophy. Osteosarcoma. Suppurative myositis. Ossifying myositis. Ossifying periostitis.

Which characteristic is NOT related to aphthous ulcers? A. B. C. D.

Pain. Pseudomembrane. Serous vesicles. Inflammation.

Which of the following is the most frequent major congenital malformation of the head and neck? A. B. C. D. E.

Cystic hygroma colli. Cleft palate. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis. Double lip. Commissural pits.

Smooth surface caries begins at localized areas on the

A periodontal dressing is placed following a gingivectomy to:

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B.

outer surface of enamel and dentin. inner surface of the enamel. outer surface of the dentin. outer surface of the enamel. inner surface of the dentin.

C. D.

Focal periapical osteopetrosis (dense bone island) differs from focal sclerosing osteomyelitis in that it is A. B. C. D.

expansile. periapical. radiopaque. caused by pulpitis.

Promote wound healing. prevent microbial colonization of the wound. protect the wound from mechanical injury. achieve hemostasis.

The curve of Spee is greater in individuals with A. B. C.

Class I malocclusion. Class II malocclusion. Class III malocclusion.

Dentigerous cysts are usually found

The parasympathetic post ganglionic fibers leaving the otic ganglion will travel along which cranial nerve?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

periapically. pericoronally. interradicularly. mid-root.

A Class II Division I malocclusion can be differentiated from a Class II Division II malocclusion based upon the

On bite-wing radiographs, the normal alveolar crest on a young adult is A.

A. B. C. D. E.

molar relationship. severity of the Class II malocclusion. amount of overbite. inclination of maxillary incisors. amount of crowding present.

The floor of the mouth is formed by the A. B. C. D.

digastric muscle. genioglossus muscle. mylohyoid muscle. styloglossus muscle.

Glossopharyngeal. Branch of the mandibular. Temporal. Facial.

B. C. D.

1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. at the cementoenamel junction. not clearly distinguishable.

Which of the following would maximize vitamin E intake following osseous surgery? A. B. C. D.

Lettuce. Wheat germ. Eggs. Fish.

Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal Class III malocclusion with spacing due to a combination of vertical and anteroposterior maxillary deficiency should be started A. B. C. D.

just prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt. immediately following the pre-pubertal growth spurt. shortly after eruption of the upper first permanent molars. shortly after eruption of the upper second permanent molars.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epiniphrine? A. B. C. D.

Methylparaben. Water. Sodium metabisulphite. Sodium chloride.

Which component of a partial denture framework provides the best indirect retention? A. B. C. D.

Which muscle is LEAST likely to dislodge a mandibular denture? A. B. C. D.

Masseter. Buccinator. Mentalis. Mylohyoid.

Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A.

The surgical removal of tooth 3.6 requires anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve as well as which of the following nerves?

B.

A. B. C. D.

D.

Lingual, cervical plexus. Cervical, long buccal. Lingual, long buccal. Mental, long buccal.

Rest. Circumferential clasp. Lingual strap. Proximal plate.

C.

Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.

Which of the following is most likely to be a squamous cell carcinoma? Which of the following hemostatic agents is most likely to create a systemic reaction? A. B. C. D.

Aluminum sulphate (Pascord®). Aluminum chloride (Hemodent®). Epinephrine (Racord®). Ferric sulphate (Astringedent®).

A. B. C. D.

Sore shallow ulcer, present for a few days. Burning red plaque, present for several weeks. Asymptomatic gray macule, present for several months. Occasionally tender normal coloured nodule, present for several years.

Fibrous dysplasia of the jaws A. B. C. D. E.

is of known etiology. is premalignant. has monostotic and polyostotic forms. begins in the fifth decade. is bilaterally symmetrical.

A tooth with a non-vital pulp may occasionally present radiographically with shortening or blunting of the apical tip of a root. The loss of apical cementum and dentin would be classified as what type of resorption? A. B. C. D. E.

Surface. Inflammatory. Replacement. Ankylosis. Internal pulpal.

A 23 year old patient presents with severe pain originating from the lower incisor region. The interdental papillae are cratered and covered with a greyish-white membrane. Abundant calculus is present. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

atrophic candidiasis. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. herpetic gingivostomatitis. desquamative gingivitis.

Most cases of erosive oral lichen planus are effectively treated with A. B. C. D. E.

cytotoxics. antifungals. antibacterials. antimalarials. corticosteroids.

A lower molar requiring a crown has an amalgam restoration extending 1.0 mm subgingivally. The crown margin should be placed

Decreased alveolar bone density is associated with decreased levels of

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

on the existing amalgam. at the amalgam/tooth junction. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin.

Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to cause gingival hyperplasia? A. B. C. D.

Cyclosporine ( immunosuppressive agent). Doxepin (antipsychotic). Phenytoin ( anticonvulsant, antiarrhythmic). Nifedipine (antihypertensive).

thyroxin. hydrocortisone. parathyroid hormone. estrogen.

A 75-year old female patient is being treated for oral lichen planus with a topical corticosteroid. She also has low serum PT4 and vitamin D. The most likely cause of a reduced alveolar bone mass in this patient is A. B. C. D.

postmenopausal osteoporosis. senile osteoporosis. drug-induced osteoporosis. osteomalacia.

Which of the following muscles causes displacement of the condyle in a subcondylar fracture of the mandible? A. B. C. D. E.

Medial (internal) pterygoid. Lateral (external) pterygoid. Masseter. Temporalis. Superior constrictor.

A 12 year old female patient has a developmental age of 8 years. Radiographic examination reveals mandibular dysplasia, delayed growth of the cranial vault and reduced facial height. Dental development is equivalent to 10 years. Panoramic radiographs reveal an abnormal tooth eruption pattern, crowding of the primary and permanent teeth, delayed eruption of the permanent canines and absence of the premolars.

A full coverage all-ceramic anterior crown requires A. B. C. D.

a sloping shoulder (long bevel) margin. a minimum margin depth of 0.5mm lingually. rounded internal line angles. a minimum incisal reduction of 1.0mm.

A bitewing radiograph of an early mixed dentition should include the following proximal surfaces. A. B. C. D.

Distal of the primary canine to distal of the permanent first molar. Distal of the primary canine to mesial of the permanent first molar. Mesial of the primary first molar to mesial of the permanent first molar. Mesial of the primary first molar to distal of the permanent first molar.

The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

hypogonadism. hypoparathyroidism. hypothyroidism. hyposecretion of growth hormone.

A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier presents for an extraction. The extraction should be delayed and A.

There is an acute alveolar abscess on tooth 1.3. The tooth must be extracted. In addition to a palatine injection, the most appropriate local anesthetic technique would be

B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

buccal infiltration. infraorbital. middle superior alveolar. intraligamentary.

One function of the striated ducts in the parotid and submandibular glands is to A. B. C. D. E.

add Na+ ions to saliva. help form a hypertonic saliva ( relative to serum ). add bicarbonate ions to saliva. remove K+ ions from saliva. add salivary amylase to saliva.

re-booked at the end of the day to allow for appropriate sterilization of the instruments and office. an antibiotic prescribed prophylactically. the patient referred to a hospital dental department. an evaluation for cirrhosis be performed.

In a 4-year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected, non-restorable first primary molar is to A. B. C. D.

extract it and place a space maintainer. observe it until it exfoliates. extract it. observe it until it becomes symptomatic.

The autonomic nervous system is primarily controlled by the A. B. C. D. E.

thalamus. hypothalamus. subthalamus. metathalamus. epithalamus.

When using a zinc phosphate cement to lute a full crown, it is recommended to A. B. C. D.

mix the cement on a waxed paper pad. leave the tooth moist but not wet. apply continuous occlusal loading while the cement sets. remove any excess before the cement is set.

When compared to a conventional complete denture, an overdenture A. B. C. D.

is more fracture resistant. preserves more alveolar bone. causes less soft tissue inflammation. is less expensive.

A 7-year old patient is missing tooth 5.5 and tooth 7.5. Space maintainers were not placed. A current mixed dentition analysis yields the following data:

Doubling the diameter of a round stainless steel orthodontic wire decreases its springiness how many times? A. B. C. D.

Pathologic migration of teeth is due to A. B. C. D.

L -3mm -4.5mm

The actual space loss is A. B. C. D.

8mm in the maxilla. 2mm in the maxilla. 7.5mm in the mandible. 4.5mm in the mandible.

lip incompetence. tongue thrust. bruxism. periodontitis.

Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent area of the posterior mandible histologically shows follicular areas lined with columnar cells resembling the enamel organ. The diagnosis is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

neurofibroma. ameloblastoma. central fibroma. lateral periodontal cyst. dentigerous cyst.

The physical properties of alginate impression materials will be adversely affected by A.

R -5mm -3mm

4 8 12 16

B. C. D.

"tumbling" the alginate container prior to filling the dispensing scoop. adding powder to the water in the mixing bowl. using room temperature water. mixing beyond the recommended time.

Which of the following lesions is most commonly found in the anterior region of the mandible?

The diagnosis of a 1.5cm white patch after incisional biopsy is severe epithelial dysplasia. The most appropriate management is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Ameloblastoma. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour. Central cementifying fibroma. Periapical cemental dysplasia.

complete excision. repeat biopsy. radiation therapy. observation.

The primary use of nitrous oxide and oxygen in dentistry today is as a(n)

When compared with admixed amalgams, spherical amalgams

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C.

substitute agent for local anesthesia. general anesthetic agent. agent for conscious sedation. agent for the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

D. E.

A 4 year old with a thumbsucking habit presents with a 1.5cm anterior open bite, a unilateral posterior crossbite and a 5mm midline deviation. If the habit ceases within six months, the anterior open bite will, over time, most likely A. B. C. D.

remain the same. increase. decrease. decrease and the midline will correct.

Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. B.

C. D.

failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

require less condensation pressure. require shorter trituration time. are stronger (24 hour compressive strength). have better resistance to marginal fracture. tarnish more.

The type of amalgam requiring the least volume of mercury for its setting reaction is A. B. C. D. E.

low copper. high copper. admixed. lathe cut. spherical.

The preconditioning of an all-ceramic restoration prior to bonding is achieved by A. B. C. D. E.

sandblasting. acid etching with phosphoric acid. roughening the surface with a diamond bur. acid etching with hydrofluoric acid. degreasing with acetone.

A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

acute periradicular abscess. acute serous pulpitis. lateral periodontal abscess. acute suppurative pulpitis. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.

The shape of the distobuccal border of a mandibular denture is determined primarily by the A. B. C.

buccinator muscle. tendon of the temporalis muscle. masseter muscle.

The most appropriate treatment for a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex is A. B. C. D. E.

pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. apexification with calcium hydroxide. apexification with zinc oxide. root canal therapy using gutta-percha. root canal therapy followed by a retrograde filling.

Which radiograph best depicts the buccal cortex of the mandible? A. B. C. D.

Bite-wing. Periapical. Panoramic. Occlusal.

Which disorder presents with all permanent teeth exhibiting bulbous crowns, cervical constriction and obliterated pulp canals and chambers? A. B. C. D.

Amelogenesis imperfecta. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. Dentin dysplasia type I. Dentin dysplasia type II.

Increasing the kVp results in A. B. C. D.

increased long scale image contrast. increased short scale image contrast. decreased long scale image contrast. decreased short scale image contrast.

In periodontal flap surgery, the initial incision is made to A. B. C. D.

expose the sulcular lining of the pocket. aid in healing. sever the attachment of the oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. excise the keratinized gingiva.

For a mandibular denture impression, the muscle determining the form of the lingual flange in the molar region is A. B. C. D. E.

mylohyoid. geniohyoid. medial pterygoid. lateral pterygoid. genioglossus.

A patient wearing complete dentures complains of tingling and numbness in the lower lip bilaterally. This is often an indication of A. B. C. D. E.

allergy to denture base material. impingement of denture on mandibular nerve. defective occlusal contacts. impingement of denture upon mental nerve. neoplastic invasion of the inferior mandibular nerve.

The bond between porcelain and metal in a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown is A. B. C. D.

chemical. mechanical. equally chemical and mechanical. neither chemical nor mechanical.

Which has the WORST prognosis? A. B. C. D. E.

The earliest clinical sign of gingivitis is A. B. C. D.

A. B. C.

greater. smaller. the same.

Informed Consent includes all of the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

disclosure of all probable complications. allowing for questions posed by the patient. alternative treatment options, including no treatment. signature of a witnessed form just prior to treatment.

increased tooth mobility. bleeding on probing. change in color of the attached gingiva. change in consistency of the attached gingiva.

In chronic periodontitis, the sulcular epithelium has the following characteristics EXCEPT A. B.

When smokers are compared to nonsmokers, probing depths after surgical periodontal treatment are

Occlusal traumatism. Gingivitis. Aggressive periodontitis. Periodontal atrophy. Chronic periodontitis.

C. D.

is a barrier to bacterial invasion. is permeable to bacterial enzymes and toxins. may be ulcerated. undergoes both degenerative and proliferative changes.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of aggressive periodontitis? A. B. C. D.

Localized and generalized forms. Familial aggregation. Necrotic tissue. Presence of Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.

Guided tissue regeneration surgery selectively promotes the growth of all of the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

epithelial cells endothelial cells. osteoblasts. cementoblasts.

A 5 year old child is diagnosed with leukocyte adherence deficiency and is also affected with generalized severe bone loss adjacent to his primary teeth. What is the diagnosis? A. B. C. D.

Generalized aggressive periodontitis. Generalized chronic periodontitis. Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease.

High telomerase activity is associated with A. B. C. D.

The significance of dental calculus in the etiology of periodontal diseases is that it A.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of occlusal trauma?

B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

Fremitus. Gingival recession. Widened periodontal ligament. Tooth migration.

diabetes mellitus. malignant tumors. hyperthyroidism. cystic fibrosis.

acts as an irritant to the periodontal tissues. distends the periodontal pocket wall. acts as a niche which harbours bacterial plaque. inhibits the ingress of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN’s).

Enamel spindles are Tetracycline

A.

A. B. C. D.

B.

is bactericidal. disrupts the bacterial cell wall. interferes with bacterial protein synthesis. can be given in conjunction with penicillin.

During the fabrication of a removable complete denture, block out and relief is placed on the A. B. C. D.

diagnostic cast. master cast. refractory cast. remount cast.

The advantage of a posterior composite resin restoration when compared to amalgam is an immediate reduction in A. B. C. D.

marginal leakage. post-operative sensitivity. technique sensitivity. caries risk for patients with poor oral hygiene.

C. D.

aberrant dentinal tubules that cross the dentinoenamel junction. structural faults that span the entire thickness of the enamel. responsible for the incremental lines in enamel. seen as perikymata on the surface of newly erupted teeth.

A gluteal intramuscular injection may be safely administered in which quadrant? A. B. C. D.

Lower medial. Upper medial. Lower lateral. Upper lateral.

Leucite is added to porcelain fused to metal crowns to A. B. C. D.

decrease the thermal expansion coefficient of porcelain. decrease the fusing temperature. increase the translucency. increase strength to the porcelain.

Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys by heat treatment increases A. B. C. D. E.

ductility. yield strength. coring. elastic modulus. malleability.

An enameloma is A. B. C. D.

an odontoma. an ameloblastoma. a pearl of enamel. an enamel hypocalcification.

Which of the following drugs should NOT be administered to a patient in order to alleviate symptoms of an acute asthmatic attack? A. B. C. D.

Isoproterenol. Metaproterenol. Epinephrine. Hydrocortisone.

What is the most likely diagnosis of an ulcerated gingival lesion whose biopsy report confirms epithelial basal layer separation from the lamina propria? A. B. C. D.

An aphthous ulcer. Erosive lichen planus. Pemphigus. Pemphigoid.

Geographic tongue is characterized by A. B. C. D.

congenital deformity of tissue. atrophic filiform papillae. association with hairy tongue. predominance in elderly patients.

Anesthetic solution deposited at the infraorbital foramen will NOT anesthetize the A. B. C. D. E.

skin and conjunctivum of the lower eyelid. skin and mucous membrane of the upper lip. median strip of skin of the nose. maxillary anterior teeth. mucosa of the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus.

The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar should slope apically from A. B. C. D.

mesial to distal. buccal to lingual. distal to mesial. lingual to buccal.

A patient successfully treated 8 years ago for moderate chronic periodontitis now presents with generalized erythematous and edematous gingiva with bleeding on probing. There is no clinical or radiographic evidence of further attachment loss. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

gingivitis. chronic periodontitis. aggressive periodontitis. recurrent periodontitis.

With respect to local anesthetic, which of the following will elicit the most rapid response in a patient? A. B. C. D. E.

Too large a dose. Rapid absorption. Slow elimination. Intravascular injection. Slow biotransformation.

Which of the following is NOT suggestive of a diagnosis of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?

A smooth surface coronal white spot carious lesion that is visible when the tooth is both wet and dry indicates that the

A. B.

A. lesion is less than halfway through the enamel. B. enamel is stained and not demineralized. C. lesion is more than halfway through the enamel. D. caries involves the inner half of the dentin.

C. D. E.

Bleeding from the gingiva. “Punched-out” papillae with necrotic slough. Bad breath. Metallic taste. Periodontal pocketing.

Clinically, the progression of periodontitis can be determined best by the increasing

Detection of early occlusal caries in pits and fissures is best performed by use of

A. B. C. D.

A. visual inspection of clean, dry teeth. B. high quality bite-wing radiographs. C. caries-disclosing dyes on the occlusal surface. D. a fine, sharp explorer to probe pits and fissures.

number of bleeding sites on probing. severity of gingival inflammation. depth of periodontal probing. clinical attachment loss.

Which of the following is a reason to perform initial periodontal debridement before periodontal surgery? A. B. C. D.

Increase the attachment levels. Reduce infrabony pockets. Reduce bleeding during the surgery. Increase the width of keratinized tissue.

An amalgam coronal-radicular core build-up for endodontically treated molar teeth requires A. an adequate pulp chamber and ferrule. B. a pulp chamber, ferrule and amalgam bonding. C. the presence of a post. D. the use of retentive threaded pins.

A post cemented with zinc phosphate cement is used in an endodontically treated tooth to A. B. C. D.

obturate the canal. strengthen the root. reinforce the remaining crown. retain the restoration.

The central action of caffeine is principally on the A. B. C. D. E.

cerebral cortex. corpus callosum. hypothalamus. spinal cord. medulla.

The most likely diagnosis for a 5 year old patient with multiple well-defined multilocular radiolucencies of the maxilla and mandible is A. B. C. D. E.

ameloblastic fibromas. ameloblastomas. cherubism. hyperthyroidism. hypophosphatasia.

Lack of ramus height is caused by faulty development of A. B. C. D.

membranous bone. endochondral bone. Meckel’s cartilage. temporomandibular joint.

Which microorganism does NOT contribute significantly to the progression of dentinal caries? A. B. C. D.

Actinomyces naeslundii. Lactobacillus casei. Actinomyces viscosus. Streptococcus salivarius.

Excessively dark radiographs will result from A. B. C. D.

underdevelopment. overexposure. backward placement of the film. too little milliamperage.

Which disorder is associated with hypercementosis of teeth? What is the threshold count of S. mutans in mixed saliva at which a patient is deemed “high risk” for caries? A. B. C. D.

100/ml. 10,000/ml. 1,000,000/ml. 100,000,000/ml.

A. B. C. D.

Paget’s disease. Fibrous dysplasia. Cherubism. Hyperparathyroidism.

Trauma from occlusion may

Local anesthetics A. do not readily pass the blood-brain barrier. B. interfere with the propagation of action potentials in nerve fibres. C. selectively interfere with the propagation of action potentials in nociceptive fibres. D. do not have an effect on any other tissue than the nervous tissue.

The highest risk of radiation-induced congenital organ deformity occurs during the A. B. C. D.

first trimester. second trimester. third trimester. neonatal period.

The full palatal major connector is indicated where A. B. C. D.

there is a high, narrow palatal vault. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus is present. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped arch. palatal tissue is soft and compressible.

A. B. C. D.

initiate marginal gingivitis. affect the blood supply to gingiva. initiate periodontitis. affect the progression of periodontitis.

The residual mercury content of the amalgam restoration is significantly affected by A. B. C. D.

cavity outline. amount of amalgam used. condensation technique. carving technique.

The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a/an A. B. C. D.

incisal reduction of 0.5mm. space for the veneer material. margin at least 1mm supragingivally. butt joint gingival margin.

Which of the following statements about the nutritional management of diabetes is correct?

Which of the following provide the longest duration of anesthesia?

A. A diet planned according to Canada’s Food Guide to Healthy Eating must be modified for a person with diabetes. B. The Glycemic Index of foods should be used when planning the diet. C. The fat content of the diet should be 3035% of energy intake. D. Sucrose up to 10% of total daily energy intake (e.g. 50% of 2000 kcal/day) is acceptable.

A. B. C. D.

Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine. Prilocaine 4% with 1:200,000 epinephrine. Bupivacaine 0.5% with 1:200,000 epinephrine. Articaine 4% with 1:100,000 epinephrine.

A patient receiving daily corticosteroid therapy for the past six months requires surgical extraction of tooth 3.8. Prior to the surgery, this patient’s drug therapy should be modified by

A patient complains of the discolouration of an unrestored maxillary central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful. The most appropriate management would be to

A.

A.

B. C. D.

stopping corticosteroid therapy for one week. stopping corticosteroid therapy for the day of operation. increasing corticosteroid intake for one week. increasing corticosteroid intake for the day of operation.

B.

C. D. E.

perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

What are the characteristics of "group function" occlusion? A. B. C. D.

The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion. Only the canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion.

Compared to a set of opposing complete dentures, a maxillary denture opposing a full complement of natural teeth is more often associated with A. B. C. D. E.

less denture tooth wear. greater incidence of denture fracture. improved retention of the denture. improved stability of the denture. improved appearance of the denture.

After the application of heat, pain in a tooth lasts for approximately 10 minutes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Proper lip support for a maxillary complete denture is provided primarily by which of the following?

A. B. C. D.

A.

Acute periradicular abscess. Acute irreversible pulpitis. Total pulpal necrosis. Early periradicular periodontitis.

B. C. D.

Labial surface of the teeth and simulated gingiva. Thickness of the border in the vestibule. Festooned carvings on the labial surface of the simulated gingiva. Convex surface of the labial flange.

The greatest cariogenic potential is exhibited by A. B. C. D.

cheese. apples. chewing gum. raisins.

Which of the following is a sign of local anesthetic overdose?

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to root canal instrumentation? A. B.

C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Rash. Wheezing. Fainting. Convulsions. Swelling.

A patient presents with pain from tooth 4.7 which is an abutment for a 4 unit bridge from 4.4 to 4.7. Clinical and radiographic examination reveal tooth 4.7 has extensive distal caries and apical rarefying osteitis. The most appropriate initial management is to A. B. C. D.

prescribe an antibiotic and an analgesic and reappoint the patient. perform endodontic therapy through the 4.7 crown. section the bridge at 4.4, remove 4.7 crown and assess 4.7. remove entire bridge and assess restorability of abutments.

E.

Reamers only are used in curved canals. Reamers or files are placed in the canal to its determined length, rotated one complete turn, removed, cleaned and the process repeated. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion. Files are more effective than reamers for removing necrotic debris from root canals. Use of a reamer must be followed by use of a corresponding file.

Isthmus fractures of a Class II amalgam restoration most frequently occur because of A. B. C. D.

inadequate condensation. inadequate width and bulk. the low compressive strength of amalgam. burnishing during condensation.

Which of the following statements concerning root canals and their foramina is NOT true? A. B. C. D. E.

Root canals bifurcate and have dual foramina. The major foramen is precisely at the apex of the tooth. The root canals may join and have a single foramen. The dentino-cemental junction is precisely at the apex of the tooth. A cross section of the canal in the apical region is relatively round.

Which of the following diagnostic aids is most useful in differentiating between an acute periradicular abscess and an acute periodontal abscess? A. B. C. D.

When an acute periapical abscess is present, accompanied by pain and a fluctuant swelling, the most important emergency procedure is to

The initial histological appearance of a successful apicectomy would show on a radiograph as

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

a radiolucent area. woven bone. cortical bone around surgical site. sclerotic dentin.

Palpation. Radiography. Percussion. Pulp vitality.

prescribe appropriate antibiotics. establish drainage. perform immediate pulpectomy and apical curettage. thoroughly ream the root canal.

The success of replantation of an avulsed tooth is dependent upon A cavity lining under a composite resin restoration is used to

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

bind or adhere the composite resin to the cavity wall. protect the restorative material from moisture in the dentinal tubules. prevent pigments in the composite resin from staining the tooth. minimize irritation of pulp tissue.

C. D.

length of time between avulsion and replantation. completion of endodontic therapy before replantation. immersing the tooth in fluoride solution before replantation. using calcium hydroxide as a treatment root canal filling.

The primary muscle of the cheek is the The cell of the dental pulp most capable of transforming into other cells is the A. B. C. D.

fibroblast. undifferentiated mesenchymal cell. odontoblast. histiocyte.

A. B. C. D.

orbicularis oris. masseter. zygomaticus major. buccinator.

Profile features of extreme overjet, recessive chin and deep labial mento-labial sulcus in the chin are referred to as A. B. C. D.

prognathic relationship. mesognathic relationship. retrognathic relationship. crossbite relationship.

A child has a carious exposure of the pulp in a primary first molar. The cavity is filled with pink tissue which bleeds when punctured by the explorer. The tissue is slightly sensitive to touch. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

acute irreversible pulpitis. chronic irreversible pulpitis. chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. pulpal fibrosis.

Loss of taste to the anterior two thirds of the tongue and a lack of secretion of submandibular glands indicates nerve damage to the A. B. C. D.

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is a disease characterized by A. B. C. D.

The epithelium covering the lesions of chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is believed to be derived from the A. B. C. D. E.

reduced enamel epithelium. epithelium of the gingiva. odontoblastic layer. epithelial rests of Malassez. remnants of the dental lamina.

The most common malignancy found in the oral cavity is A. B. C. D. E.

basal cell carcinoma. transitional cell carcinoma. melanoma. squamous cell carcinoma. pleomorphic adenoma.

mandibular division of cranial V. long buccal nerve. chorda tympani nerve. cranial VII.

mouth ulcers, conjunctivitis, hyperpyrexia and submaxillary lymphadenitis. recurrent ulcers and enlargement of gums and symptoms of malaise and fever. inflamed gums, lymphadenitis, fever and mouth ulcers. fever, mouth ulcers, parotid swellings and hypertrophic gingivitis.

Oral peripheral giant cell lesions of the periodontium are usually considered to be A. B. C. D. E.

non-neoplastic granulomatous lesions. precursors of sarcoma. malignant neoplasms. benign neoplasms. tuberculomas.

A patient has an asymptomatic, white patch on the oral mucosa. Which of the following methods of examination is most likely to lead to a diagnosis? A. B. C. D.

Biopsy. Culture. Exfoliative cytology. Application of methylene blue.

Which of the following conditions is an example of a mucous retention phenomenon?

A lead diaphragm in X-ray units serves to A.

A. B. C. D. E.

Nicotine stomatitis. Koplik’s spots. Ranula. Residual cyst. Nasopalatine cyst.

B. C. D. E.

produce a more homogeneous X-ray beam. prevent secondary radiation. collimate the useful beam of rays. All of the above. None of the above.

The radiographic change most suggestive of multiple myeloma is

Which of the following is caused by a specific microorganism?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

no bone alteration. punched out radiolucent lesions. multiple radiopaque lesions. diffuse ground glass appearance. generalized hypercementosis.

Geographic tongue. Candidiasis. Median rhomboid glossitis. Granuloma pyogenicum.

Coxsackie A virus is the etiologic agent in A filter is inserted in the path of the x-ray beam to A. B. C. D. E.

limit the area of surface exposure. absorb backscatter radiation. absorb long wave length radiation in the primary beam. make it possible to use higher kilovoltage for improving image quality. absorb stray radiation.

Image sharpness of radiographs can be improved by A. B. C. D.

increasing the object-film distance. using a larger focal spot. using a larger diaphragm opening. increasing the target (source)-film distance.

A. B. C. D.

thrush. herpangina. lichen planus. aphthous stomatitis.

Which of the following is NOT associated with Cushing’s disease? A. B. C. D. E.

Buffalo hump. Osteoporosis. Hirsutism. Hypertension. Diabetes insipidus.

The most common benign neoplasm of the salivary glands is a/an A. B. C. D.

adenolymphoma. pleomorphic adenoma. adenocarcinoma. mucocele.

Inclusion bodies in the nucleus or cytoplasm of cells are diagnostic of

The tongue of a patient suffering from extreme vitamin B deficiency will usually appear

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

rickettsia. parasitic infestations. bacterial diseases. viral diseases.

A salivary gland mucocele results from A. B. C. D.

aplasia of the duct. hyperplasia of the duct. damage to the duct. hypersecretion.

The appearance of a circumscribed radiolucent area sharply outlined, bounded by an even radiopaque border, located at the apex of a non-vital tooth, is consistent with A. B. C. D.

periapical cemental dysplasia. a radicular cyst. rarefying osteitis. an eosinophilic granuloma.

red, smooth and glossy. thickly coated and pale. with a median rhomboid glossitis. red, swollen and covered with debris.

The X-rays which are most apt to be absorbed by the skin and cause an injury are A. B. C. D.

central rays. deep penetrating rays. aluminum filtered rays. rays of long wave-length.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of congenital heart disease? A. B. C. D. E.

Cyanosis. Telangiectasia. Clubbing of the fingers and toes. Heart murmur. Right ventricular hypertrophy.

Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by

Which of the following drugs potentiates the action of sedative drugs?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

increase in blood pressure. alteration in circulating blood volume. elevation of temperature. decrease in amount of interstitial fluid.

Digitalis. Phenothiazine. Propranolol. Methyldopa. Spironolactone.

Blue sclera is characteristic of A. B. C. D.

osteopetrosis. osteogenesis imperfecta. osteitis deformans. fibrous dysplasia.

A patient has a proven allergy to para-amino benzoic acid derivatives. Which local anesthetic solution can be used safely? A. B. C. D.

Procaine hydrochloride (Novocaine). Butethamine hydrochloride (Monocaine). Tetracaine hydrochloride (Pontocaine). Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine).

In primary teeth, a pulpotomy using calcium hydroxide

A 1 year old child with generalized acute herpetic stomatitis, should

A. B.

A. B. C.

C. D. E.

will cause an acute inflammatory reaction. is successful treatment in 90 percent of cases. will cause internal resorption. is the treatment of choice for small mechanical exposures. will stimulate apical closure.

After pulpotomy or pulpectomy, a deciduous molar should be restored with A. B. C. D.

an amalgam alloy restoration. a full-coverage metallic crown. zinc-oxide-eugenol cement. composite resin crown.

When preparing a cavity in a primary molar, there is a small mechanical exposure of one of the pulp horns. There is a slight hemorrhage and the dentin surrounding the exposure is sound. The most appropriate treatment is A. B. C. D.

extraction and space maintenance. pulp capping with calcium hydroxide, a base and restoration. pulpectomy and restoration. base and restoration.

D. E.

be prescribed antibiotics. be immunized against chicken pox. be encouraged to maintain adequate fluid intake. have lesions gently debrided. have the mouth swabbed with chlorohexidine.

Inadequate space for the eruption of the maxillary second premolar is most frequently caused by the premature loss of the deciduous A. B. C. D.

first molar. second molar. central incisor. canine.

Space closure is LEAST LIKELY to occur following the loss of the deciduous A. B. C. D.

mandibular canine. maxillary first molar. mandibular second molar. maxillary central incisor.

In the mixed dentition, an end-to-end first permanent molar relationship is indicative of On Monday morning, a seven-year old child presents with a 3 mm, coronal fracture with pulp exposure of the maxillary left central incisor, which occurred during a football game Sunday afternoon. The tooth is sensitive to hot and cold fluids. The treatment of choice is

A. B. C. D.

A.

The facial profile associated with a Class III malocclusion is

B. C. D. E.

direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide and a suitable protective restoration. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy. gutta-percha pulpectomy. gutta-percha pulpectomy followed by an apicoectomy. root-end induction.

A. B. C. D.

normally developing occlusion. Class II malocclusion. Class III malocclusion. ideal molar occlusion.

concave. convex. either concave or convex. straight.

Angle's classification of occlusion is based on A. B. C. D.

a full complement of teeth. antero-posterior skeletal relationship of maxilla to mandible. antero-posterior relationship of maxillary and mandibular first permanent molars. vertical relationships in the lower face.

A skeletal cross-bite always results from a discrepancy in A. B. C. D. E.

eruption patterns. mandibular and maxillary bone structure. tongue position (low posture). functional centric. facial musculature patterns.

The body of the mandible increases in length to accommodate the second molar by A. B.

C.

D.

E.

apposition of bone in the condyle. resorption of bone along the anterior border of the ramus and apposition of bone on the posterior border of the ramus. apposition of bone on the alveolar margin and lower border of the body of the mandible. apposition of bone at the symphysis and posterior border of the ramus of the mandible. anterior growth.

All primary teeth have normally erupted by the age of: A. B. C. D.

Exclusive of third molars, the permanent dentition is usually completely erupted by the age of A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

stimulated by chewing motions. a result of lengthening of the condyle. a part of the overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and mandible. due to the eruption of teeth.

9 to 11 years. 12 to 14 years. 15 to 17 years. 18 to 21 years.

The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually the A. B. C. D.

maxillary canine. mandibular canine. maxillary first molar. mandibular second molar.

A bimaxillary protrusion occurs when A. B. C.

Formation of the alveolar process is

16 to 20 months. 20 to 30 months. 30 to 36 months. 36 to 48 months.

D.

a large overjet of the maxillary central incisors exists. the maxillary dentition is in a forward position to the basal bone. the maxillary and mandibular incisors are in a forward position to the basal bone. None of the above.

A maxillary posterior buccal crossbite in the deciduous dentition will most likely A. B. C. D.

be present when the permanent teeth erupt. correct itself when the permanent teeth erupt. be self-correcting with the discontinuance of an associated habit. be associated with inadequate arch length.

A 12 year old patient with a complete dentition has enamel hypoplasia of tooth 1.4. This condition was most likely caused by A. B. C. D. E.

low calcium intake. high fluoride intake. an abscessed tooth 5.4. systemic tetracycline. a febrile illness.

Which of the following permanent restorations is indicated after a formocresol pulpotomy has been completed on a primary molar? A. B.

C. D.

A stainless steel crown placed at the same appointment. A stainless steel crown placed when a radiograph demonstrates no internal resorption. An amalgam placed at the same appointment. An amalgam placed when a radiograph indicates no bone destruction between the roots.

During orthodontic therapy, the periodontal ligament (membrane) radiographically appears A. B. C. D.

unaffected. decreased in width. increased in width. None of the above.

A periapical radiograph of a 7 year old child reveals an inverted mesiodens. The right central incisor is partially erupted and the left central incisor has not yet erupted. The most appropriate management is to A. B. C. D.

allow the mesiodens to erupt. remove the mesiodens and orthodontically erupt the central incisor. remove the mesiodens and place the patient on observation. wait for the mesiodens and the unerupted central incisor to erupt.

In a Class II, division 1 occlusion, the most common finding is A. B. C. D.

maxillary prognathism. mandibular prognathism. maxillary retrognathism. mandibular retrognathism.

Migration of the permanent maxillary first molar following the premature loss of the primary second molar is usually mesial with A. B. C.

the mesiobuccal cusp rotating lingually. the mesiobuccal cusp rotating buccally. buccal tilt of the crown.

A Class III malocclusion is normally associated with A. B. C. D.

sleeping habits. growth discrepancy. tooth size - jaw size discrepancy. trauma.

A five-year old child, highly susceptible to caries, presents with missing mandibular deciduous first molars. Radiographs reveal the presence of the first premolars. The space maintainer of choice would be A. B. C. D.

two band and loop space maintainers. removable acrylic space maintainer. lingual arch. None.

A 7 year old child has a lingually-locked maxillary permanent central incisor. There is sufficient room for the tooth to move labially into proper alignment. The most appropriate management is to A. B. C. D.

monitor until all permanent anterior teeth have erupted. correct the condition immediately orthodontically. be sure the overjet is sufficient for retention. correct the condition immediately surgically.

Ultrasonic scalers are most effective in A. B. C. D.

removal of supragingival calculus. removal of subgingival calculus. removal of toxins from cementum. planing root surfaces.

Which of the following materials are LEAST suitable for impressions for cast gold restorations? A. B. C. D.

Polysulfides. Polyvinyl siloxanes. Polyethers. Irreversible hydrocolloids.

In the initiation of dental caries, lactobacilli are A. B. C. D.

capable of surviving without nutrients. abundant in calculus. both acidogenic and aciduric. the only acid-forming bacteria in the mouth.

In metal-ceramic crowns, the bond between the materials is A. B. C. D.

In necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis the deepest penetrating microorganisms are A. B. C. D.

cocci. spirochetes. diplococci. filamentous rods.

The histopathologic changes in chronic gingivitis are characterized by A. B. C. D.

loss of rete pegs and destruction of the basement membrane. hyalinization of the principal fibres of the periodontal ligament. an inflammatory infiltrate of plasma cells and lymphocytes. an inflammatory infiltrate in which polymorphonuclear cells predominate.

mainly mechanical. mainly chemical. decreased by oxides on the metal surface. decreased when the metal has a high yield point.

Nickel-chromium alloys designed for porcelain bonded to metal crowns should be used with caution because A. B. C. D.

nickel is an allergen. the modulus of elasticity is low. these alloys cannot be soldered. None of the above.

For application of porcelain to a ceramo-metal alloy, the correct viscosity is achieved by mixing the porcelain powder with A. B. C. D.

a porcelain modifier. pure methyl alcohol. a mild detergent. distilled water.

A model prepared from a vacuum mixed stone has higher strength because A. B. C. D.

less water is required for vacuum mixing. there is less porosity. some of the water is removed by the vacuum. the nuclei for crystallization are more numerous.

The base of a distal extension partial denture should cover the maximum support area because A. B. C. D.

the force per unit area will be kept to a minimum. maximum number of artificial teeth can be placed. phonetics is improved. strength of the base is increased.

Impression trays should be The proportional limit of a material is the stress A. B. C. D.

rigid. flexible enough to permit easy insertion. carefully polished on the interior. held in place by the patient.

A. B. C. D.

at which elastic deformation first begins to occur. at which strain hardening ceases to occur. beyond which plastic deformation begins to occur. at which fracture occurs.

A ceramometal posterior fixed partial denture pontic should A.

B.

C. D.

be constructed to have an occlusal surface one quarter the width of the tooth it replaces. be constructed to have an occlusal surface wider than the width of the tooth it replaces. cover as much mucosa as possible. provide adequate embrasure spaces.

Papillary hyperplasia on the palate of a patient wearing a maxillary complete denture is most likely to be associated with A. B. C. D.

heavy smoking. an allergy to the acrylic resin. an ill-fitting denture and poor oral hygiene. occlusion with posterior natural teeth.

An occlusal rest preparation should be A. B. C.

angular and box shaped with parallel vertical walls. rounded and spoon shaped. flat and with an obtuse angle to the proximal surface of the tooth.

The primary stress bearing area of the maxillary complete denture is the A. B. C. D.

hard palate. alveolar ridge. median palatal raphe. zygoma.

In the processing of methyl methacrylate, denture porosity is most likely to appear in the A. B. C. D.

thickest portion. thinnest portion. buccal surface. palatal area.

In processing (polymerizing) an acrylic denture in a water bath, a correct temperature control is desired because of the possibility of

In a removable partial denture, the major connector should begin 3-6mm from the free gingival margin in order to

A. B.

A. B.

C. D. E.

shrinkage of the denture. volumetric expansion of the denture causing an open bite. warpage. porosity due to boiling of the monomer. crazing of the denture base around the necks of the teeth.

C. D.

improve phonetics. allow sufficient length for the minor connectors. prevent inflammation of the gingival tissues. prevent rotation of the major connector in an antero-posterior direction.

The binder in casting investments not only strengthens the investment, but also

A measure of the stiffness of a dental gold alloy is expressed as its

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

creates a reducing atmosphere in the mold. tends to reduce both hygroscopic and thermal expansions. increases the thermal expansion of the mold. contributes to the overall expansion of the mold.

The flexibility of a retentive clasp arm is affected by the A. B. C. D.

location of the reciprocal arm. length of the retentive arm. position on the abutment tooth. location of the occlusal rest.

Repeated clasp adjustment can result in fracture due to A. B. C. D.

increased work-hardening. increased ductility. increasing of the modulus of elasticity. lowering of the yield strength.

Which of the following is a clinical CONTRAINDICATION for an all-ceramic maxillary anterior crown?

The presence of tin in an amalgam alloy modifies the reaction and physical properties of the amalgam in that it

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D.

D.

speeds the amalgamation rate. enhances strength. enhances tarnish resistance. reduces flow.

proportional limit. modulus of elasticity. ultimate tensile strength. flow.

Excessive overjet and overbite. Normal overjet and excessive overbite. A non-vital tooth with a cast post and core. A low caries index.

Streptococcus mutans colonizes A. B. C. D.

cusp surfaces of teeth. pits and fissures of teeth. on the tongue. at pH of 2.5.

Which of the following is necessary to make a diagnosis of an odontogenic keratocyst? A. B. C. D.

Aspiration. Exfoliative cytology. Radiographic examination. Histologic examination.

A Class II, Division 1 malocclusion is often associated with a thumbsucking habit. Based on the evidence available, thumbsucking should be A. B. C. D.

ignored. of concern beyond 5 years of age. considered a manifestation of the nutritional needs of the child. considered a primary cause of this type of malocclusion.

A positive pulp response to the application of cold indicates A. B. C. D. E.

necrosis. periodontal involvement. an acute alveolar abscess. a periodontal abscess. vitality.

In treatment planning for a complete denture, SEVERE undercuts on the edentulous ridge should be A. B. C. D.

considered as retentive aids. removed surgically. retained but avoided by the denture base extension. removed if no cortical bone is involved.

Which of the following lesions is most commonly found in the anterior region of the mandible? A. B. C. D.

Ameloblastoma. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (Pindborg’s tumour). Central cementifying fibroma. Periapical cemental dysplasia (periapical cementoma(s)).

It is advisable to polish any restorative material as smoothly as possible in order to prevent A. B. C. D.

microleakage. accumulation of plaque. overhanging margins. electro-chemical action.

Habitual thumbsucking continued after the age of six causes A. B. C. D.

anterior open bite. skeletal malocclusion. mouth breathing. sinusitis.

A Kennedy Class II denture with no provision for indirect retention causes A. B.

Which of the following malocclusions should be corrected as soon as it is diagnosed? A. B. C. D.

A severe Class II, Division 1. A severe Class II, Division 2. A cross-bite with a lateral functional shift. A diastema between the maxillary central incisors.

C. D.

resorption of the supporting edentulous area. dislodgement of the saddle area during mastication. temporomandibular joint dysfunction. gingivitis.

In designing a removable partial denture, an effort is made to secure parallel tooth surfaces to act as A. B. C. D.

guiding planes. occlusal rest areas. bracing areas. None of the above.

In complete denture fabrication, the angulation of the horizontal condylar guidance plane of the articulator is determined by the A. B. C. D. E.

cuspal inclination of the teeth selected. orientation of the occlusal plane. incisal guidance. centric relation interocclusal record. protrusive interocclusal record.

Adult orthodontics is limited by the A. B. C. D. E.

age of the patient. density of the bone. health of the supporting structures. missing teeth. time factor in treatment.

For which of the following malocclusions is serial extraction indicated? A. B. C. D.

Class I. Class II. Class III. None of the above.

The high labial removable orthodontic appliance is most useful for For a mandibular denture impression, the muscle determining the form of the lingual flange in the molar region is

A. B. C.

A. B. C. D. E.

mylohyoid. geniohyoid. medial pterygoid. lateral pterygoid. superior pharyngeal constrictor.

D.

rotating premolars. retracting labially tipped and spaced maxillary incisors. retracting protruded and spaced mandibular incisors. retracting protruded and crowded mandibular incisors.

A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is A tongue thrust is most often found in a child with A. B. C. D.

a deep overbite. an anterior open-bite. a Class II, division 2 malocclusion. a bi-maxillary protrusion.

A. B. C. D.

amylase. hyaluronidase. dextranase. streptokinase.

A hardened gold alloy will exhibit The best time to correct a permanent maxillary central incisor cross-bite is

A.

A. B. C. D.

B.

after the permanent canines erupt. after the permanent central incisors erupt. after the permanent lateral incisors erupt. during the eruptive stage of the central incisors.

C.

less plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. greater plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition. no difference in the plastic deformation per unit of stress of the alloy in hard or soft condition.

Interocclusal records for an edentulous patient have been established. Casts have been mounted on an articulator. It is decided to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm. This will necessitate

It is usually best to treat which of the following conditions as early as possible?

A. B. C. D. E.

C. D. E.

a new facebow transfer. a new centric relation record. selection of different teeth. a change in the condylar guide settings. an increase of the rest vertical dimension.

A. B.

Rotated incisors. A diastema between the upper central incisors. Cross-bites with midline discrepancies. Teeth in poor axial inclination. Dentitions with an end-to-end bite.

A maxillary central incisor erupting in a lingually directed path should be Initial scaling and oral hygiene instruction in the treatment of periodontitis results in all of the following EXCEPT

A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

pocket shrinkage. decreased hemorrhage during surgery. evaluation of the patient's motivation. improved healing after surgery. correction of pathological migration of teeth.

C. D. E.

corrected before it reaches the occlusal plane. allowed to erupt until all incisors can be banded. allowed to erupt into cross-bite and then corrected. ignored because pressures of the tongue will correct it as it erupts. ignored because pressures of the lip will cause the problem to recur.

Mandibular overdentures are used to A. B. C. D.

increase the strength of the denture. maintain the alveolar ridge morphology. improve periodontal health of abutment teeth. decrease costs.

In treatment of an Angle Class~II, Division 2, the Frankel functional regulator is designed to perform all the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

increase vertical dimension. reposition the mandible forward. retract the maxillary molars. expand the dental arches.

The most damaging characteristic of an Angle Class II, division 2 malocclusion is the A. B. C. D. E.

deep overbite. crowding of the mandibular incisors. relationship of the molars. impaction of the maxillary canines. malposition of the maxillary lateral incisors.

The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must create a/an A. B. C. D.

rough surface for improved bonding. space for an appropriate thickness of the veneering material. margin well below the gingival crest. definite finish line.

A 30 year old HIV positive patient presents for the removal of an abscessed second molar. The most appropriate management is to

Cervical caries on the maxillary primary incisors in a 12-month old child is most likely caused by

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

refer to another dentist because universal infection control procedures are insufficient. schedule appointments at the end of the day. treat the patient in the same way as all other patients. double glove before starting any surgical procedures.

A mesial step relationship of the primary second molars will result in A. B. C. D. E.

loss of arch length in the mandible. Class II dental occlusion. ectopic eruption of permanent first molars. Class I or Class III molar relationship. increased anterior growth of the mandible.

Which type of periodontitis is generally treated WITHOUT antibiotics? A. B. C. D. E.

Aggressive periodontitis in a 16 year old patient. Aggressive periodontitis in a 25 year old patient. Refractory chronic periodontitis. Chronic periodontitis. Aggressive periodontitis in a child.

Ankylosis of the primary central incisors in the maxilla is mainly related to A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

D.

maxillary lingual cusps. mandibular buccal cusps. central grooves of mandibular posterior teeth. maxillary buccal cusps.

A-alpha. A-beta. A-gamma. A-delta and C.

Crowding of the lower incisors following orthodontic alignment A.

C.

A. B. C.

trauma. thumbsucking. chronic gingivitis. delayed eruption of the permanent teeth.

A patient complains of lip and tongue hypersensitivity (allodynea) following intake of hot, spicy food. The sensory nerve fibers that are associated with this form of pain are

B.

The areas that may be adjusted during a laboratory occlusal correction of complete dentures with teeth set in a normal horizontal overlap relationship without changing the vertical dimension of occlusion are the

lack of systemic fluoride. poorly formed enamel. lack of calcium during pregnancy. excessive bottle use.

D.

E.

cannot be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion. can be prevented by removal of the third molars. can be prevented by wearing retainers until mandibular growth is complete. can be predicted if alignment was obtained by expansion of the transverse intercanine width. can be prevented by a post alignment circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy.

A 9 year old female patient presents with a Class I malocclusion with generally good alignment and interdigitation except tooth 1.2 is in lingual crossbite but has sufficient mesiodistal space for movement into the correct position. Correction of the lingual crossbite of tooth 1.2 with a finger spring on a removable appliance has the best long term prognosis for stability if tooth 1.2 is A. B. C. D.

lingually inclined, and in a position of 50% overbite. ideally inclined, and in a position of 50% overbite. lingually inclined, and in a position of 5% overbite. ideally inclined, and in a position of 5% overbite.

Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth? A. B. C. D. E.

The most appropriate treatment of a true combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is A. B. C. D.

The principal internal retention for a Class V amalgam cavity preparation is established at the A. B. C. D.

occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles. mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles. None of the above.

A. B. C. D.

Temporalis. Lateral pterygoid. Masseter. Medial pterygoid.

A. B.

D.

A. B. C. D. E.

basophils. neutrophils. lymphocytes. monocytes. eosinophils.

Retrognathic mandible, retrognathic maxilla, open bite. Prognathic maxilla, decreased lower face height, increased over bite. Increased lower anterior face height, prognathic mandible, retrognathic maxilla. Open bite, prognathic maxilla, prognathic mandible.

In a child, correction of a bilateral posterior constriction of the maxillary arch has the WORST long term prognosis for stability if A.

A bacterial infection causes the most significant increase in

periodontal surgical therapy only. nonsurgical root canal therapy only. periodontal surgical therapy before nonsurgical endodontic treatment. nonsurgical root canal therapy before periodontal therapy.

Which of the following Class II Division 1 malocclusion(s) is/are most likely to be corrected with a cervical headgear?

C.

Which of the following is the most powerful jaw-closing muscle?

Lateral periodontal cyst. Dentigerous cyst. Periapical cemental dysplasia. Periapical abscess. Radicular cyst.

B. C. D.

the maxillary posterior teeth are centred on the alveolar process. a fixed expansion quadhelix is used for treatment. there is a functional shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. there is a history of prolonged thumb sucking.

A 52 year old patient presents with a limitation of mouth opening. The patient has loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of gingival recession. A panoramic radiograph shows diffuse widening of the periodontal ligament. The most likely diagnosis is

When cementing a gold inlay with a zinc phosphate cement, the best way to ensure accurate seating is to A. B.

A. B. C. D. E.

scleroderma. hyperparathyroidism. cicatricial pemphigoid. erythema multiforme. advanced adult periodontitis.

C.

D. E.

apply a firm pressure on the inlay until the cement is set. mix the cement rapidly to allow ample time for insertion. ask the patient to lightly tap on the restoration until the occlusion is comfortable. force the restoration in place with an orange wood stick and mallet. relieve the internal angles of the inlay before insertion.

Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is indicative of A. B. C. D. E.

an odontogenic infection. sialolithiasis. ranula. sarcoidosis. Sjögren’s syndrome.

The best management for a gingival cyst of the newborn is A. B. C. D. E.

curettage. incisional biopsy. cystologic smear. excisional biopsy. observation.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis? A. B. C. D.

Analgesic and hydration therapy. Antibiotic therapy. Topical antiviral therapy. Topical antifungal therapy.

The most common site and patient age for a solid ameloblastoma are A. B. C. D. E.

posterior mandible; 40 years. posterior maxilla; 40 years. posterior mandible; 20 years. anterior mandible; 60 years. anterior mandible; 40 years.

The most appropriate restoration for a primary molar with extensive carious destruction of the crown is a A. B. C. D.

posterior composite resin. pin retained amalgam. stainless steel crown. glass ionomer.

The most likely diagnosis of a 1cm mobile mass in the parotid is A. B. C. D. E.

mucoepidermoid carcinoma. pleomorphic adenoma. adenoid cystic carcinoma (cylindroma). acinic cell carcinoma. Warthin’s tumour.

Multiple congenitally missing teeth may be characteristic of

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process may

A. B. C. D. E.

A.

cleidocranial dysplasia. Rubenstein-Taybi syndrome. ectodermal dysplasia. Gardner’s syndrome. Gorlin-Goltz’s syndrome.

B. C. D.

limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior teeth. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal. limit the distal extensions of the maxillary denture.

Calculus contributes to periodontal disease through A. B. C. D.

bacterial retention. mechanical irritation. chemical irritation. food retention.

A 7 year old presents with tooth 4.1 in crossbite. This should be treated A. B. C.

The permanent maxillary canine erupts D. A. B. C. D.

before the mandibular permanent canine. before the maxillary first premolar. before the maxillary second permanent molar. after the maxillary second permanent molar.

Chelating agents are useful to treat a tooth with aan A. B. C. D. E.

curved canal. sclerotic canal. periapical abcess. root perforation. open apex.

The inorganic ion which is the chief offender in hypertension is A. B. C. D.

sodium. ammonium. magnesium. potassium.

as soon as possible. when all the permanent teeth have erupted. after the eruption of all permanent incisors. after eruption of the permanent mandibular cuspids.

Clinical examination of a 42 year old heavy smoker reveals a white patch in the retromolar/tonsillar pillar region. The patch cannot be wiped off. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. leukoplakia. white sponge nevus. frictional hyperkeratosis. pseudomembranous candidiasis.

Shortly after the administration of a local anesthetic for the removal of tooth 2.8, the patient complains of a tense sensation in the left cheek and left cheek swelling is observed. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

surgical emphysema. immediate allergic reaction. herniation of buccal fat pad. hematoma.

The most toxic form of mercury is A. B. C. D.

organo mercurial compounds. inorganic mercuric compounds. inorganic mercurous compounds. elemental mercury.

In alginate impression materials, sodium phosphate (Na3PO4) is the A. B. C. D. E.

reactor. catalyst. retarder. disinfectant. cross linking agent.

An advantage of glass ionomer cement is A. B. C. D.

low solubility. wear resistance. adhesion to hard tooth tissues. low incidence of sensitivity.

Zinc oxide eugenol cement is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

phosphate cement. phenolic cement. resin modified glass ionomer cement. polyalkenoic acid cement. adhesive resin cement.

Light-cured dental composites set when exposed to light. Light is the A. B. C. D. E.

initiator. reactor. catalyst. activator. terminator.

Using more water when mixing dental stone will result in a cast that exhibits A. B. C. D.

increased expansion and decreased strength. decreased expansion and increased strength. decreased expansion and decreased strength. increased expansion and increased strength.

Following radiation therapy to the mandible, extraction of mandibular teeth is most likely to result in A. B. C. D. E.

fracture. actinomycosis. osteomyelitis. soft tissue necrosis. development of malignancy.

During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. B. C. D.

expansion. contraction. loss in compressive strength. gain in moisture content.

The inverse square law states that if 100 x-ray photons are measured 1m from a point source of radiation, the number of photons measured at 2m from the same source would be A. B. C. D.

50. 33. 25. 10.

Which condition is associated with elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and elevated urinary hydroxyproline levels? A. B. C. D.

fibrous dysplasia. Paget’s disease. Sjögren’s syndrome. Gardner’s symdrome.

A 65 year old patient has a tendency for urinary tract stones. Radiographic examination shows generalized loss of the lamina dura and a “ground glass” appearance of the bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gingivectomy is recommended

A. B. C. D. E.

C.

Hyperthyroidism. Addison’s disease. Hypothyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism.

A. B.

when the bottom of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction. to eliminate the suprabony pockets when the pocket wall is fibrous and firm. to treat moderately deep pockets with mild intrabony defects.

Which of the following does NOT affect probing depth measurement? The use of an intra-coronal attachment is CONTRAINDICATED for a A. B. C. D.

nonvital tooth. tooth requiring a core procedure build up. tooth supported partial dentures. tooth with short crown length.

A 4mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7 year old child. The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. The appropriate initial treatment would be to perform a/an A. B. C. D.

pulp capping. pulpotomy. pulpectomy. extraction.

A. B. C. D. E.

Probing force. Diameter of the probe tip. Angulation of the probe. Subgingival calculus. Position of the mucogingival junction.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for an endodontically treated mandibular first molar with a previously placed MOD amalgam restoration? A. B. C. D.

Bonded amalgam restoration. Composite resin restoration. Ceramic inlay. Crown.

What is the most appropriate initial management of a localized periodontal abscess? When a partial denture framework fits the master cast but does not fit properly in the mouth, the error is likely to be in the A. B. C. D.

impression making. casting of the framework. design of the framework. preparation of the teeth.

A. B. C. D.

Prescription of an antibiotic. Surgical pocket reduction. Occlusal adjustment. Debridement of the pocket.

When a patient fails to demonstrate effective plaque control during initial periodontal therapy for moderate periodontitis, the best course of action is A. B. C. D.

gingival curettage. an apically positioned flap. continued initial therapy. gingivectomy.

Which of the following types of bone contain the insertions of the periodontal ligament fibres?

The most common risk associated with vital bleaching using 10% carbamide peroxide in a custom tray is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Woven. Bundle. Lamellar. Cortical.

superficial enamel demineralization. soft tissue reaction. tooth sensitivity. cytotoxicity.

During periodontal disease activity, the loss of clinical attachment

Closure of a 2mm maxillary midline diastema by orthodontic treatment is best accomplished

A. B. C.

A.

precedes alveolar bone loss. follows alveolar bone loss. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss.

B. C.

On a periapical radiograph, what reduction in mineral content must be lost to detect a change? A. B. C. D.

5-10%. 15-25%. 30-40%. 60-90%.

Which mucogingival surgical procedure does NOT increase the zone of attached gingiva? A. B. C. D.

Free autogenous gingival graft. Laterally positioned flap. Coronally positioned flap. Subepithelial connective tissue graft for root coverage.

A risk factor for gingival recession is A. B. C. D.

fremitus. vitality. tooth position. traumatic occlusion.

D. E.

prior to complete eruption of the maxillary central incisors. prior to eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors. after complete eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors. during intra-oral emergence of the maxillary canines. after complete eruption of the maxillary canines.

Forces for orthodontic tooth movement should ideally be A. B. C. D.

intermittent and light. continuous and heavy. intermittent and heavy. continuous and light.

Local anesthetics block nerve conduction by interfering with ionic movement of A. B. C. D.

calcium. potassium. sodium. chloride.

The first stage of growth of the primary dentition is evident at the A. B. C. D.

third week of embryonic life. sixth week of embryonic life. time of birth. sixth week after birth.

A high neutrophil count is indicative of a/an A. B. C. D.

allergic reaction. bacterial infection. blood clotting defect. decrease in antibody production.

When gypsum is mixed with water and sets to form a dental cast, the powder particles are replaced by crystals of A. B. C. D.

potassium sulfate. potassium phosphate. calcium sulfate. trisodium phosphate.

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a/an A. B. C. D.

adenovirus. retrovirus. picovirus. coronavirus.

Which muscle is primarily responsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position? A. B. C. D. E.

Masseter. Lateral pterygoid. Medial pterygoid. Buccinator. Temporalis.

A possible consequence for patients taking cyclosporine is A. B. C. D.

erythematous gingivae. fibrous gingival hyperplasia. loss of soft tissue attachment. epithelial sloughing.

Which of the following is NOT a true cyst? A. B. C. D. E.

Dentigerous cyst. Odontogenic keratocyst. Traumatic (simple bone) cyst. Radicular cyst. Nasopalatine cyst.

Strain hardening a metal will reduce its A. B. C. D.

modulus of elasticity. ductility. proportional limit. yield strength.

The most common clinical characteristic/s of a buccolingual functional crossbite is/are A.

The chemical that is used to retard the setting reaction in alginate impression materials is A. B. C. D.

calcium sulfate. sodium sulfate. calcium phosphate. sodium phosphate.

B. C.

mandibular shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation with midline deviation. asymmetrical arches. several missing teeth.

Orthodontic tooth movement is most efficient A. B. C. D.

when the PDL has areas of calcification. when the root is within cortical bone. when the root is within alveolar bone. in brachycephalic patients with strong muscular patterns.

The optimal time for orthodontic treatment involving growth manipulation for skeletal class II malocclusions is during A. B. C. D.

late primary dentition. after the eruption of third molars. after skeletal growth is complete. during the period of greatest growth velocity.

The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the cranium through the

The occlusal parameter most likely associated with maxillary anterior spacing is a/an A. B. C. D.

The most appropriate time for surgical treatment in a female patient with mandibular prognathism is A.

A. B. C. D. E.

foramen rotundum. foramen lacerum. stylomastoid foramen. foramen ovale. foramen spinosum.

Class II Division 2 dental malocclusion. Class III skeletal malocclusion. accentuated maxillary curve of Wilson. reverse maxillary curve of Wilson.

B. C. D. E.

just before the beginning of the prepubertal growth spurt. just after the end of the prepubertal growth spurt. just before eruption of the second permanent molars. just after eruption of the second permanent molars. after the completion of growth.

Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form calculus is A. B. C. D.

promoted by a higher buffering capacity. inhibited by a higher buffering capacity. inhibited by a higher pH. promoted by a higher pH.

The appliance best suited to achieve rapid maxillary expansion (palatine suture stretching) is a A.

A patient has spontaneous pain and intense sensitivity to cold with lingering pain. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

acute irreversible pulpitis. chronic irreversible pulpitis. acute periradicular periodontitis. chronic periradicular periodontitis.

B. C. D.

removable appliance with an expansion screw. Nance appliance. quadhelix appliance. fixed Hyrax appliance.

Which tooth movement is NOT possible with a removable appliance? A. B. C.

Crown tipping. Root uprighting. Crown rotation.

Which occlusal parameter is the most useful to determine if a posterior crossbite is of skeletal or dental origin? The rate limiting step of tooth movement is A. B. C. D. E.

Anterior overbite. Sagittal molar relationship. Lack of space in the maxillary anterior area. Lack of space in the mandibular arch. Buccolingual angulation of affected teeth.

A. B. C. D.

bone deposition. bone resorption. force application. occlusal interference.

The last bone in the craniofacial complex to stop growing is the A. B. C. D.

frontal bone. nasal bone. maxilla. mandible.

The permanent anterior tooth that exhibits the greatest variation in size and shape is the A. B. C. D.

maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular central incisor. mandibular lateral incisor.

The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar should slope apically from A. B. C. D.

mesial to distal. buccal to lingual. distal to mesial. lingual to buccal.

Fremitus is A. B. C. D.

tooth mobility of grade II. mobility during occlusion. vertical tooth mobility. tooth pain upon percussion.

Compared to nonsmokers, cigarette smokers are more likely to have A. B. C. D.

less bone loss. less gingival recession. more bleeding on probing. more attachment loss.

During the administration of local anesthesia, an intravascular injection will occur most often in a/an A. B. C. D. E.

incisive block. posterior superior alveolar block. inferior alveolar block. anterior superior alveolar block. long buccal block.

Mean x-ray beam energy is a function of

The beaks of extraction forceps

A. B. C. D.

A.

exposure time (s). tube current (a). tube voltage (v). collimation.

B. C.

The cell-mediated immune response to bacterial plaque in chronic periodontitis is regulated by A. B. C. D.

neutrophils. T cells. B cells. plasma cells.

D. E.

can cause fracture or injury to adjacent teeth. should be placed at the cervical line of the tooth to be extracted. should be pushed lingually during extraction movements. should fit the crown of the tooth. should be sharpened after every use.

Radiographs of a periodontally related osseous defect can be used to confirm the A. B. C. D.

number of bony walls. measurement of the clinical attachment loss. location of the epithelial attachment. presence of a furcation involvement.

Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually due to

The occlusal cavosurface margin for a Class I amalgam restoration should be

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

a candida infection. an ill fitting denture. failure to remove the denture at night. an allergy to the denture material.

Clinical management of gingival enlargement caused by Phenytoin (Dilantin®) therapy includes A. B. C. D. E.

the use of analgesics to control pain. withdrawal of the medication. extraction of the teeth. gingivectomy and maintenance of good oral hygiene. a mouth guard to control mouth breathing.

Which local anesthetic formulation should be used to achieve prolonged pain relief for a patient requiring the surgical extraction of tooth 3.8? A. B. C. D. E.

Articaine 4%, with epinephrine 1:100,000. Bupivacaine 0.5%, with epinephrine 1:200,000. Lidocaine 2%, with epinephrine 1:100,000. Mepivacaine 3% plain. Prilocaine 4%, with epinephrine 1:200,000.

Calcification of the permanent first molars normally begins at A. B. C. D.

6 months in utero. birth. 6 months. 12 months.

beveled. 90°. chamfered. acute.

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to zinc containing amalgams? A. High copper amalgam restorations containing zinc demonstrate better overall survival rates. B. Amalgams containing zinc should be used when contamination with moisture is unavoidable during condensation. C. Zinc is added during the manufacturing operation to increase the solubility of tin in silver. D. Amalgams containing zinc produce a significantly better seal than zinc-free amalgams.

Changes in direction of groups of enamel prisms A. B. C. D.

have no functional importance. result from incremental growth. make enamel resistant to fracture. extend to the enamel surface.

Which microorganism does NOT contribute significantly to the progression of dentinal caries? A. B. C. D.

Actinomyces naeslundii. Lactobacillus casei. Actinomyces viscosus. Streptococcus salivarius.

A major difference between stable angina pectoris and myocardial infarction is that stable angina pectoris does NOT involve A. B. C. D. E.

crushing substernal pain. ischemic myocardial necrosis. occlusive coronary artery disease. atherosclerosis. females under the age of 80 years.

Which of the following lesions of the oral or maxillofacial region is premalignant? A. B. C. D. E.

Ectodermal dysplasia. Focal fibrous hyperplasia. Smoker’s melanosis. Fibrous dysplasia. Epithelial dysplasia.

A patient diagnosed with multiple mucosal neuromas should be further evaluated for the possibility of A. premalignant adenomatous polyposis coli. B. hamartomatous polyps of the small intestine. C. congenitally missing first premolars. D. multiple palmar or facial basal cell carcinomas. E. neoplasms of endocrine organs.

Which of the following tissues is LEAST sensitive to ionizing radiation? A. B. C. D.

Enamel. Oral mucosa. Salivary gland. Bone.

Which one of the following agents does NOT cause gastric irritation? A. B. C. D. E.

Acetylsalicylic acid. Alcohol. Ibuprofen. Indomethacin. Acetaminophen.

For a patient allergic to penicillin, what is the drug of first choice for antibiotic prophylaxis? A. B. C. D. E.

Ampicillin. Cephalexin. Clindamycin. Erythromycin. Metronidazole.

Hypoglycemia in the conscious patient is best managed with A. B. C. D. E.

oxygen. epinephrine. carbohydrates. glucagon. insulin.

The most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for denture stomatitis is A. B. C. D.

acyclovir. diphenhydramine. nystatin. minocycline.

The best choice of cement for luting a ceramic veneer is A. B. C. D.

zinc phosphate. glass ionomer. light-cured resin. self-cured resin.

Reciprocation as applied to cast removable partial dentures refers to the A. B. C. D.

function of the occlusal rest to counteract occlusal forces. resistance to flexion of the clasp arm. return to a passive state of the flexed clasp. function of the clasp arm to counteract the retentive clasp arm.

In which of the following will the effects of polymerization shrinkage be greatest? A. B. C. D.

Class I occlusal restoration. Preventive resin restoration. Direct veneer restoration. Class IV restoration.

After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the conservative restoration of choice is a/an A. B. C. D.

MOD composite resin. MOD gold onlay. pin retained amalgam. MOD amalgam.

For a patient who exhibits bruxism, a cast gold inlay is superior to an amalgam because the inlay has A. better adaptation to the cavity walls. B. greater thermal conductivity. C. better ability to withstand masticatory forces. D. easier placement into the cavity preparation.

The primary consideration in the management of a patient with multiple deep abfraction lesions is A. B. C. D.

provision of an occlusal splint. tooth brushing modification. diet counselling. occlusal adjustment.

The minimum time to wait before placing composite restorations after the completion of a bleaching (whitening) treatment is A. B. C. D.

1 to 2 hours. 24 to 48 hours. 1 to 2 weeks. 4 to 5 weeks.

What is the best predictor of success for a composite resin restoration? A. Depth of the restoration. B. Size of the restoration. C. Presence of enamel on the entire periphery. D. Presence of flat dentinal walls.

The volumetric polymerization shrinkage of a hybrid composite resin is in the order of A. B. C. D.

0%. 0.1 – 1.0%. 2 – 8%. 10 – 15%.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of vital bleaching with 10% carbamide peroxide? A. B. C. D.

Reversible tooth sensitivity. Soft tissue sloughing. Sore throat. Weakening of the enamel.

What is the name of the area in which the resin of the adhesive system micromechanically interlocks with dentinal collagen?

There is a differential between girls and boys with respect to the age at which the growth velocity reaches its peak. That difference is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Active zone. Smear layer. Hybrid layer. Adhesive zone.

In determining the ideal proximal outline form for a Class II amalgam cavity preparation in a molar the A. B. C. D.

axial wall should be 1.5mm deep. gingival cavosurface margin must be placed supragingivally. proximal walls diverge occlusally. facial and lingual proximal cavosurface margins must just clear contact with the adjacent tooth.

The best method to diagnose a cystic tumour is to A. B. C. D. E.

examine the fluid under a microscope. submit the tissue for histological analysis. perform a cytologic smear. culture the fluid. order blood tests.

A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. B. C. D.

mounting of the casts in the articulator. registration of jaw relation records. processing of acrylic. setting of condylar guidance.

Rests on terminal abutment teeth for a cast removable partial denture provide A. B. C. D.

primary retention. indirect retention. occlusal force transmission. lateral force transmission.

boys six months ahead of girls. girls six months ahead of boys. girls one year ahead of boys. girls two years ahead of boys.

A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavity preparation on tooth 1.5 is A. B. C. D. E.

mesiopulpal. buccopulpal. linguopulpal. axiopulpal. None of the above.

Which of the following procedures will increase the retention of a Class III composite resin restoration in primary incisor and canine teeth? A. Keeping the preparation as small as possible. B. Using labial or lingual dovetails. C. Etching the preparation for an additional 30 seconds.

A chronic alcohol abuser has just been diagnosed with Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome. He complains of pain and burning mouth and presents with angular cheilitis and glossitis. He is suffering from a severe deficiency of A. B. C. D.

vitamin A. ascorbic acid. vitamin K. thiamin.

A mandibular central incisor is to be extracted and added to a partial denture. The impression to add a tooth to the denture should be made

The most common form of latex allergy is a/an

A. before the extraction with the denture in the mouth, removing the denture from the impression then pouring the impression. B. after the extraction without the denture in the mouth. C. after the extraction with the denture in the mouth and pouring the impression leaving the denture in the impression. D. after the extraction with the denture in the mouth, removing the denture from the impression then pouring the impression.

B.

A.

C. D.

Between the ages of 6 and 12, the length of the mandibular arch from the permanent left first molar to the permanent right first molar will normally A.

A patient has a prosthetic heart valve and is allergic to penicillin. The most appropriate antibiotic to be used prophylactically is A. B. C. D. E.

erythromycin. metronidazole. amoxicillin. tetracycline. clindamycin.

immediate localized (Type 1) contact urticaria and erythema. immediate generalized (Type 1) conjunctivitis and rhinitis. immediate generalized (Type 1) bronchospasm and anaphylaxis. delayed (Type IV) contact dermatitis.

B. C. D. E.

increase with the eruption of the permanent canines. increase with eruption of the premolars. remain the same. decrease with the eruption of the permanent incisors. decrease with the eruption of the premolars.

Exfoliative cytology is of value in the diagnosis of Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the jaws? A. B. C. D.

Gardner’s. Gorlin-Goltz. Peutz-Jeghers. Sjögren’s.

Crown-root ratio and residual bone support can best be seen radiographically in a A. B. C. D.

panoramic film. bite-wing film. periapical film - bisecting angle technique. periapical film - paralleling technique.

A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. aphthous ulceration. herpes simplex. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. erythema multiforme.

The fusion which contributes to the formation of the upper lip is the one between A. B. C. D. E.

maxillary and mandibular processes. maxillary and lateral nasal processes. maxillary and medial nasal processes. medial and lateral nasal processes. lateral and medial palatine processes.

A large pericoronal radiolucency associated with an impacted third molar tooth is most likely a/an

Which of the following sedative barbiturates is also useful in reducing the frequency of seizures in persons with grand mal epilepsy?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

ameloblastoma. odontogenic keratocyst. eruption cyst. dentigerous cyst. calcifying odontogenic cyst.

Amelogenesis imperfecta is A. B. C. D.

caused by environmental factors. a multifactorial disorder. a hereditary condition with different inheritance patterns. associated with osteogenesis imperfecta.

Shortly after the administration of a local anesthetic for the removal of tooth 2.8, the patient complains of a tenseness in the left cheek and left cheek swelling is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D.

Surgical emphysema. Immediate allergic reaction. Herniation of buccal fat pad. Hematoma.

Which of the following is the most important determinant for the maximum length of a post in an endodontically treated tooth? A. Distance between the crestal bone and root apex. B. Crown/root ratio. C. Maintenance of an apical gutta percha seal. D. Height of the crown.

Thiopental. Amobarbital. Secobarbital. Pentobarbital. Phenobarbital.

A 6 month old child brought by his parents to a hospital emergency room. There are bruises on the child’s neck. The parents are cooperative and respond to the physician in a coherent manner. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

battered child syndrome. birth mark. osteogenesis imperfecta. Münchhausen syndrome. impetigo.

A healthy 40 year old female patient complains of periodic acute, excruciating pain in the right infraorbital region. The pain is of short duration and can be elicited by lightly touching the skin of the area. Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate in the management of this case? A. B. C. D.

Carbamazepine. Acetazolamide. Succinylcholine. Penicillin.

The level of streptococcus mutans has been shown to be significantly higher in the bacterial plaque adjacent to which type of posterior restoration? A. B. C. D.

Glass-ionomer. Composite resin. Amalgam. Gold castings.

Which of the following conditions should NOT commonly be treated during the mixed dentition stage?

When exposing radiographic film, the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C.

Anterior crossbite. Posterior crossbite. Maxillary incisor rotation. Class II molar relationship.

D. E.

collimation. decreased object-film distance. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. decreased target-object distance. slow speed film.

Areas of isolated gingival recession are most frequently seen on teeth that are A. B. C. D.

nonvital. moderately mobile. ankylosed. labially prominent in the arch.

Which of the following is suggestive of malignancy in a tumor of the parotid gland? A. B. C. D.

Excessive salivation. Seventh nerve paralysis. Duration of several years. Fluctuation.

A clinical finding common to alcoholism, poorly-controlled diabetes mellitus, uremia and liver disease is

Acromegaly is associated with

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D. E.

a smooth tongue. increased blood pressure. a coated tongue. labial fissures. halitosis.

The most appropriate treatment for a unicystic ameloblastoma of the posterior mandible in an 18 year old patient is A. B. C. D. E.

root canal therapy. hemi-mandibulectomy. block resection. curettage. radiotherapy.

hypothyroidism. hyperadrenalism. hypogonadism. pituitary adenoma. hyperparathyroidism.

Generalized widening of the periodontal ligament space is a radiologic characteristic of A. B. C. D. E.

lupus erythematosis. scleroderma. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. osteitis deformans. acromegaly.

Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with A. B. C. D. E.

chickenpox. mumps. measles. scarlet fever. smallpox.

A benign cementoblastoma is a solitary A. B. C. D.

circumscribed radiopacity involving a mandibular molar. circumscribed radiolucency involving the apices of the mandibular incisors. radiolucency involving the apices of the maxillary incisors. unilocular radiolucency in an edentulous area.

A Class II dental occlusion in the mixed dentition will likely A. B. C. D. E.

develop into a Class I occlusion after normal exfoliation of the primary molars. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. develop into a Class I occlusion with late mandibular growth. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow.

Mottled enamel is a A. B. C. D.

form of enamel hypoplasia. manifestation of fluorosis. sign of amelogenesis imperfecta. side effect of tetracycline therapy.

Which disease could cause both renal and cardiac complications?

A fracture is considered to be favourable when

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C.

Nitrous oxide

D.

healing is expected to be uncomplicated. operating time will be short. fragments are not displaced by muscle pull. not exposed to the oral environment.

A. B.

High plasma levels of local anesthetics may cause

C. D.

A. B. C. D.

inhibition of peristalsis. stimulation of the central nervous system. inhibition of the vagus nerve to the heart. depression of the central nervous system.

When using nitrous oxide for conscious sedation, an undesirable side effect may be A. B. C. D.

CNS (central nervous system) excitation. hypotension. kidney dysfunction. syncope.

Measles. Scarlet fever. Rubella. Rosacea.

may supplement appropriate behavioural management of an anxious patient. is a substitute for behavioural management of an anxious patient. is a substitute for local anesthesia for a dental extraction. would have no analgesic effect at a dose of 60%.

A 72 year old male patient complains of bone pain, fever and fatigue. Clinical examination shows petechiae on the skin and oral mucosa. The tongue has a nodular appearance. A craniofacial radiograph shows punched-out radiolucencies. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

Burkitt’s lymphoma. chondrosarcoma. acute lymphocytic leukemia. multiple myeloma.

A 32 year old female patient complains of fever, weight loss and general malaise. She has a rash on the malar area and nose, as well as some irregularly shaped ulcerations on the buccal mucosa. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. lupus erythematosus. erythema multiforme. bullous pemphigoid. pemphigus.

A 22 year old patient has been experiencing general malaise, fever, sore throat and coughing for one week. There are multiple ulcerations of the oral mucosa, crusting of the lips and red circular lesions on the palms of the hands. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

gonorrhea. infectious mononucleosis. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis. AIDS. erythema multiforme.

A 24 year old patient complains of abdominal pain, frequent diarrhea and weight loss. The oral clinical examination shows linear mucosal ulcers with hyperplastic margins in the buccal vestibule. What is the most likely diagnosis?

By definition, a compound fracture of the mandible must have A. B. C. D.

The most common location of a lateral periodontal cyst is in the area of the A. B. C. D.

Crohn’s disease. Leukemia. AIDS. Diabetes mellitus.

Enamel hypoplasia, blunted roots and abnormal dentin are indicative of A. B. C. D.

hyperparathyroidism. hyperthyroidism. hypoparathyroidism. hypothyroidism.

maxillary incisors. maxillary molars. mandibular premolars. mandibular molars.

Temporomandibular joint dysfunction pain is most frequently caused by A. B. C. D.

impacted third molars. malocclusion. muscle hyperactivity. subluxation.

A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because A.

A. B. C. D.

multiple bone fragments. exposure to the external environment. a tooth in the line of fracture. displacement of the fractured segments.

B. C. D.

less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest. the enamel is thicker on the lingual surface. visibility and access are better. the cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.

A ghost-like opaque image in a panoramic radiograph caused by a metal earring worn in the lobe of the left ear will be superimposed over the A. B. C. D.

left mandibular ramus. right mandibular ramus. left posterior maxilla. right posterior maxilla.

Radiographic image distortion can be minimized by A.

B. C. D.

decreasing focal spot (target)-to-object distance and decreasing object-to-film distance. decreasing focal spot-to-object distance and increasing object-to-film distance. increasing focal spot-to-object distance and decreasing object-to-film distance. increasing focal spot-to-object distance and increasing object-to-film distance.

The aluminum filter in an x-ray machine prevents which of the following from reaching the patient? A. B. C. D.

Long wave length x-rays. High frequency x-rays. X-rays at the edge of the x-ray beam. Gamma radiation.

Absence of occlusal contacts on a provisional restoration may result in the definitive restoration exhibiting A. B. C. D.

heavy occlusal contact. no occlusal contact. tight proximal contacts. open proximal contacts.

During radiographic film processing, silver halide is removed from the emulsion during the A. B. C. D.

developing stage. post-developing rinse stage. fixing stage. post-fixing wash stage.

A surgical template (stent/guide) for an immediate maxillary denture is used to A. B.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in new periosteal bone formation? A. B. C. D.

Fibrous dysplasia. Paget’s disease of bone. Chronic osteomyelitis. Hyperparathyroidism.

Placement of yellow external stain on a porcelain crown will increase chroma and A. B. C. D.

increase the value. decrease the value. increase the hue. decrease the hue.

C. D.

control hemorrhage while the new denture is being fabricated. protect the extraction sites while fitting the denture. assist in remounting the denture prior to refining the occlusion. indicate areas that require additional hard or soft tissue removal.

To achieve optimum strength and esthetics, a metal ceramic restoration with a porcelain butt joint margin should really have a A. B. C. D.

0.8 – 1.0mm shoulder reduction. 0.8 – 1.0mm incisal reduction. 90 cavosurface margin. finish line that is 2mm subgingival.

Which of the following is the most effective method of cleaning endodontic instruments prior to sterilization?

In assessing the terminal plane relationship of the primary second molars and its effect on the permanent dentition, a

A. B. C. D.

A. flush terminal plane usually develops into a Class II molar relationship. B. distal step usually develops into a Class I molar relationship. C. flush terminal plane usually develops into a Class I molar relationship. D. distal step usually develops into a Class III molar relationship.

Manual brushing. High pressure water jet. Washing with antimicrobial soap. Washing in an ultrasonic bath for 5 minutes.

The antibiotic of choice to treat an infection of endodontic origin in a patient who is allergic to penicillin and is intolerant of erythromycin is A. B. C. D.

amoxicillin. azithromycin. clindamycin. tetracycline.

A single adjustment of an expansion screw in a removable appliance for dental arch expansion will cause an expansion of A. B. C. D.

0.25mm. 0.5mm. 0.75mm. 1mm.

Orthodontic anchorage is based on A. B. C. D. E.

Newton’s 1st law. Newton’s 2nd law. Newton’s 3rd law. Wolff’s law. the theory of gravity.

Which of the following medications can cause gingival enlargement? A. B. C. D.

Diuretics. Beta blockers. Calcium channel blockers. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.

Which statement is true with respect to Class II composite resin preparations? A. Extension for prevention is a key element. B. Fissures are only included when carious. C. Including occlusal grooves makes the restoration more fracture-resistant compared to a slot preparation. D. The preparation has a “standard” shape for each individual tooth.

A 47 year old female patient complains of a “burning sensation” of the tongue. Examination reveals angular cheilitis and a smooth redness on the entire dorsal surface of the tongue. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D. E.

anemia. epithelial dysplasia. squamous cell carcinoma. primary herpes. median rhomboid glossitis.

The form of hepatitis that poses the greatest risk of transmission from patient to dental health care worker is A. B. C. D.

hepatitis A. hepatitis B. hepatitis C. hepatitis D.

The risk of a health care worker contracting hepatitis B through a needlestick injury from a chronic hepatitis B carrier is increased when the patient’s serology report indicates the presence of

In a Class I occlusion the A.

B. A. B. C. D.

HBsAg. anti-HBcAg. HBeAg. anti-HBsAg.

C. D.

distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine. mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine. the primary canines are end-to-end. the permanent canines are end-to-end.

Which of the following possible side effects is NOT related to the intake of codeine?

The most common site for breast carcinoma to metastasize to the maxillofacial regions is

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. E.

Diarrhea. Respiratory depression. Nausea. Drowsiness.

Patients with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should NOT receive A. B. C. D. E.

acetaminophen. acyclovir. benzocaine. penicillin. prednisone.

anterior maxilla. anterior mandible. posterior maxilla. posterior mandible. gingiva.

The term used to describe epithelial changes including nuclear hyperchromatism, alteration of nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal mitoses is A. B. C. D. E.

acanthosis. hyperkeratosis. dysplasia. parakeratosis. hyperparakeratosis.

Which drug is indicated as part of the management for a codeine overdose? A. B. C. D. E.

Atropine. Diphenhydramine. Epinephrine. Flumazenil. Naloxone.

Histological sections of a lesion removed from the apex of a carious tooth show immature fibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells. The most likely diagnosis is a/an A. B. C. D. E.

acute periradicular abscess. odontogenic fibroma. periradicular cyst. periapical granuloma. central fibroma.

A 20 year old male presents with a three-day history of an acute generalized gingivitis. He has malaise, fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. A blood examination reveals Hb: 8.9g/100ml Platelets: 82,000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3 White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3

Which of the following should be performed to ensure a well-adapted and functional stainless steel crown? A. Prepare the tooth with sharp line angles. B. Break interproximal contacts using a tapered bur. C. Prepare a well-defined chamfer margin. D. Cement the crown with rubber dam in place.

Normal Values: Hb: 14-18g/100ml Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3 White blood cell count: 5,000-10,000/mm3 The most likely diagnosis is A. B. C. D.

thrombocytopenic purpura. acute myelogenous leukemia. infectious mononucleosis. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

Which of the following is a sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin? A. B. C. D. E.

Dizziness. Nausea. Oliguria. Dermatitis. Diarrhea.

Folate deficiency is associated with an increased risk of The most accurate indicator of caries activity in root caries lesions is to A. B. C. D.

assess the colour. evaluate the hardness. use bitewing radiographs. apply caries detector dyes.

An incipient lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located A. B. C. D. E.

at the contact area. facial to the contact area. lingual to the contact area. gingival to the contact area. occlusal to the contact area.

A. B. C. D.

birth defects. microcytic anemia. low serum homocysteine. elevated high density lipoprotein cholesterol.

In addition to iron, calcium and folate, which of the following nutrients is of special concern during pregnancy? A. B. C. D.

Vitamin B12. Pyridoxine. Vitamin D. Ascorbic acid.

An adult female patient presents to the dental office with fractured teeth, a lacerated lip and a black eye. She is with her 6 year old son, who is crying and upset. The dentist’s receptionist discretely reports that the child was asking his mother “Why was Daddy hurting you?” Upon questioning, the patient confides that her husband was the source of her injuries and indicates that she would not be pursuing any action. She is referred to a specialist due to the complexity of her dental injuries, but she requests that the source of her injuries not be disclosed. What is the dentist’s obligation? A. Respect the patient’s request regarding confidentiality. B. Report her injuries to an adult protection agency. C. Forward all information, including the source of the injuries, to the specialist. D. Report the situation to a relevant child protection agency.

Ocular lesions are associated with A. B. C. D. E.

lichen planus. herpangina. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. leukoplakia. cicatricial pemphigoid.

Which of the following would require a custom incisal guide table for a patient with mutually protected occlusion? A. B. C. D.

A fixed partial denture from tooth 3.5-3.7. An all ceramic crown on tooth 4.7. A fixed partial denture from tooth 1.1-1.3. A single ceramometal crown on tooth 1.4.

Which of the following will result from a 2 week regimen of tooth whitening using a 10% carbamide peroxide gel in a custom tray for 8 hours each night? A. Moderate demineralization of enamel. B. Significant incidence of irreversible pulpitis. C. Decreased bonding potential to enamel. D. Decreased enamel surface porosity.

A 7 year old patient presents with a fracture of the crown of a permanent maxillary central incisor that occurred 2 hours ago. The incisal half of the crown is missing, resulting in a 3mm exposure of vital pulp. What is the most appropriate initial management for this tooth? A. B. C. D.

Apexification. Apexogenesis. Pulp capping. Pulpectomy.

A patient complains of fatigue, abdominal pain and lack of appetite. The clinical examination shows that the sclera of the eyes are yellow. There is also a yellowish diffuse discolouration of the oral mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for resective osseous periodontal surgery?

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Viral hepatitis. Iron deficiency anemia. Hypercarotenemia. Thrombocytopenic purpura.

Advanced attachment loss. Class III furcation defect. Inadequate clinical crown length. Vertical root fracture.

Primary occlusal trauma can cause A. B. C. D.

gingival recession. furcation involvement. horizontal bone loss. tooth sensitivity.

After the elimination of occlusal trauma, even in the presence of inflammation, which of the following is most likely to result? A. B. C. D.

Reduction in tooth mobility. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament. Restoration of lost alveolar bone. Gain of clinical attachment.

Which is the LEAST common type of adverse reaction associated with the use of latex gloves? A. B. C. D.

Immediate type I allergic reaction. Delayed hypersensitivity. Type IV immunologic reaction. Irritant contact dermatitis.

The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) in blood indicates the individual A. is infectious for hepatitis B. B. has acquired immunity to hepatitis B. C. is not infectious for hepatitis B and has not acquired immunity to hepatitis B. D. has never been infected with hepatitis B.

Systemic antibiotics may be indicated for patients presenting with generalized A. B. C. D.

chronic periodontitis. aggressive periodontitis. gingivitis. gingival hyperplasia.

The normal position of the alveolar crest in healthy periodontium is A. B. C. D.

1 to 2mm coronal to the CEJ. at the CEJ. 1 to 2mm apical to the CEJ. 3 to 4mm apical to the CEJ.

During guided tissue regeneration therapy, the regenerative cells originate primarily from the A. B. C. D.

lamina propria. periodontal ligament. cellular cementum. collagen membrane.

The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is best removed by using sodium hypochlorite and A. B. C. D.

EDTA. hydrogen peroxide. chlorhexidine. isopropyl alcohol.

Of the following structures, which would be projected closest to the occlusal plane when taking a mandibular posterior periapical radiograph? A. B. C. D.

External oblique ridge. Mandibular canal. Submandibular salivary gland fossa. Mental foramen.

The coronoid process of the mandible can be seen in all of the following types of radiographs EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

periapical. maxillary occlusal. panoramic. lateral cephalometric.

A 10-15 second application of 37% phosphoric acid on prepared dentin will result in all of the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

elimination of the smear layer. opening of the dentinal tubules. demineralization of the superficial dentin. elimination of the collagen fibres.

Overadjustment of a wrought wire denture clasp can lead to fracture because of a/an A. B. C. D.

increase in modulus of elasticity. decrease in ductility due to strain hardening. decrease in the yield strength. increase in fracture toughness.

Which of the following statements regarding Informed Consent is FALSE? It is A. B. C. D.

always necessary. given only by the person receiving the treatment. able to be withdrawn. procedure specific.

The eruption of a maxillary permanent first molar is prevented by interference with the crown of a partially resorbed primary second molar. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the situation? A. B. C. D. E.

Extract the primary molar. Grind the distal surface of the primary molar. Unlock the permanent first molar with elastic and (or) separation wire. Remove the soft tissue overlying the occlusal surface of the permanent molar. Wait until more tuberosity growth occurs.

Increased tooth mobility and the absence of lamina dura are signs of A. B. C. D.

hyperthyroidism. hyperpituitarism. hyperparathyroidism. scleroderma.

Which of the following has the potential for malignant transformation? A. B. C. D.

Osteomalacia. Albright's syndrome. Paget's disease. Osteogenesis imperfecta.

A discrete, smooth-surfaced, non fluid-filled exophytic oral mucosal lesion with no colour change is indicative of a/an A. B. C. D. E.

mucocele. papilloma. hemangioma. fibroma. intramucosal nevus.

A Class II amalgam preparation on a primary tooth does NOT require a gingival bevel because the enamel rods in the area incline A. B. C. D.

gingivally. horizontally. occlusally. vertically.

A conical pontic replacing a mandibular first molar should be designed so that A. it seals the mucogingival fold. B. it has open gingival embrasures. C. the porcelain to metal junction is on its gingival surface. D. the gingival surface is concave buccolingually.

The accuracy of alginate impression materials will be improved if A. the space between the tray and the teeth is 1-2mm. B. the space between the tray and the teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate. C. the impression is removed slowly from the undercuts around the teeth. D. the impression is immersed in disinfectant for 1 hour before pouring.

A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable partial denture will provide A. B. C. D.

support. indirect retention. stabilization. direct retention.

What is the most appropriate endodontic management for a 9 year old patient for tooth 1.1, with an open apex and a necrotic pulp? A. B. C. D. E.

Pulpotomy. Apexification. Pulpectomy. Apexogenesis. Apical surgery.

During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional expansion if it occurs A. B. C. D.

under water. under vacuum. in a cold environment. in a dry environment.

Which is the most appropriate method to minimize loss of dental amalgam and mercury from dental offices into sewage systems? A. Use of ISO approved amalgam separators. B. Storage of amalgam capsules in sealed containers. C. Use of mercury vapour scavengers. D. Disposal of scrap amalgam in a landfill site.

Polyether impression materials should be used with caution for full arch impressions of dentate patients because they A. B. C. D. E.

exhibit viscoelasticity. exhibit a high elastic modulus. are thixotropic. are hydrophilic. are exothermic.

What is the name of the process by which carbamide peroxide bleaches the teeth? A. B. C. D.

Oxidation. Addition. Subtraction. Hydrogenation.

In the pterygomandibular space, the inferior alveolar nerve passes A. anterior to the deep tendon of the temporal muscle. B. lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. C. medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. D. medial to the pterygomandibular raphe.

Which drug should be administered as the initial management for a patient with chest pain consistent with a myocardial infarction?

Which of the following is the most characteristic gingival feature of agranulocytosis?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

Epinephrine. Atropine. Diphenhydramine. Lidocaine. Acetylsalicylic acid.

Which disorder presents with all permanent teeth exhibiting shortened roots, obliterated pulp canals, small crescent-shaped pulp chambers and apical radiolucencies? A. B. C. D.

Amelogenesis imperfecta. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. Dentin dysplasia type I. Dentin dysplasia type II.

Hematoma. Ulceration. Erythema. Fibromatosis.

Which of the following dental materials is the most radiolucent? A. B. C. D.

Porcelain. Gutta-percha. Acrylic. Zinc oxide.

During the intravenous administration of diazepam, which of the following arteries may accidentally be entered in the antecubital fossa? Tooth 2.4 has subgingival recurrent caries on the distal aspect of a Class II amalgam restoration. The bite-wing radiograph reveals caries extending to within 1mm of the alveolar bone crest. To properly restore the tooth, which of the following is the most appropriate procedure?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

The earliest radiographic sign of traumatic occlusion is

Gingivectomy. Modified Widman flap. Open flap debridement. Resective osseous surgery.

What statement related to self-threaded pins is FALSE?

A. B. C. D. E.

A. B. C. D.

The ideal depth for the pin hole is 3mm. The pin does not increase fracture resistance of the restoration. The pin can increase retention of the restoration. The drill has a smaller diameter than the pin.

Ulnar. Radial. Brachial. Deep brachial. Radial recurrent.

hypercementosis. root resorption. alteration of the lamina dura. widening of the periodontal ligament space. ankylosis.

A 65 year old patient presents with an ulcerated lesion of 1cm diameter on the side of the tongue which has been present for two months. What is the most appropriate initial management? A. B. C. D. E.

Perform cytologic examination. Excise a portion of the ulceration and adjacent normal tissue. Excise the entire lesion. Refer for implantation of radium needles. Refer for radiotherapy.

Which of the following is NOT an ester anesthetic?

What is a possible consequence of treating erosive lichen planus with continued application of triamcinolone acetonide (Kenalog® - Orabase)? A. B. C. D.

Periodontal prognosis is worst during periodontal maintenance therapy with the presence of deep pockets and frequent A.

A. B. C. D. E.

Procaine. Tetracaine. Mepivacaine. Butethamine. Pontocaine.

Which of the following conditions may develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus? A. B. C. D. E.

Ataxia. Aphasia. Deafness. Blindness. Motor paralysis.

Herpetic gingivostomatitis. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG). Streptococcal pharyngitis. Candidiasis.

B. C. D.

bleeding on probing at the gingival margin. bleeding on probing at the pocket depth. dental plaque at the pocket depth. calculus at the pocket depth.

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with the fully edentulous state? A. B. C. D.

Residual ridge reduction. Decrease in masticatory function. Altered taste perception. Rheumatoid arthritis.

Which of the following statements is true? Compared to heat cured acrylic resins, cold cure acrylic resins are

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

stronger and more colour stable. weaker and more colour stable. weaker and less colour stable. stronger and less colour stable.

C. D.

Masks should always be worn when seeing a patient. A face shield is an appropriate replacement for a surgical mask. Surgical masks protect against exposure of spatter which is larger than 1µm. Masks should be changed when they become moist.

The primary function of gingival retraction cord is to

Compared to stainless steel, nickel-titanium instruments

A.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

ensure adequate impression material in the sulcus. displace the epithelial attachment. control the salivary flow. eliminate the intrasulcular debris.

are stronger. become weaker following sterilization. are more flexible. have a shorter shelf life.

The primary function of root canal sealer is to Type I hypersensitivity results from crosslinking of which immunoglobulin on mast cells? A. B. C. D. E.

IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.

A. B. C. D.

prevent discolouration of the tooth. stimulate healing in the apical region. medicate the canal to eliminate remaining bacteria. fill space between gutta-percha and pulp canal wall.

Which statement is FALSE regarding sodium hypochlorite when used as an irrigant? Titanium and titanium alloys are used for manufacturing root form dental implants because the oxide layer makes the surface A. B. C. D.

porous. passive. wear resistant. osteoinductive.

A 52 year old patient presents with restricted or limited mouth opening. The patient has loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of gingival recession and tight skin. A panoramic radiograph shows diffuse widening of the periodontal ligament. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E.

Progressive systemic sclerosis. Hyperparathyroidism. Cicatricial pemphigoid. Erythema multiforme. Advanced adult periodontitis.

A. B.

C. D.

It is used in 0.5% to 5.25% concentration. Its combination with hydrogen peroxide does not improve its clinical effectiveness. It is well tolerated if expressed beyond the tooth apex. Warming the solution increases its clinical effectiveness.

Orthodontic headgear can be used for all of the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

anchorage augmentation. molar distalization. maxillary skeletal expansion. growth modification.

Ideal orthodontic tooth movement A. B. C. D.

should use large forces to move teeth as quickly and efficiently as possible. occurs with undermining resorption to remove bone. occurs using frontal resorption with deposition and resorption processes. requires subcrestal surgical incisions.

Leeway space in the mandible A. B.

C. D.

should be maintained in cases of severe space shortage (>11mm). is maintained by extracting the 2nd mandibular primary molars between age 6 to 8 years. is 1.7 – 2.5mm per quadrant. is 1.7 – 2.5mm total.

When a second canal is located in mandibular incisors, it is most frequently found A. B. C. D.

labial to the main canal. lingual to the main canal. mesial to the main canal. distal to the main canal.

An advantage of a metal-ceramic crown over an all ceramic crown is A maxillary anterior bite plane causes A. B. C. D.

translation of the maxillary incisors. extrusion of the mandibular incisors. extrusion of the maxillary posterior teeth. no occlusal changes.

Maxillary skeletal arch expansion A. B. C. D.

readily occurs in the preadolescent patient. requires orthognathic surgery for skeletally immature patients. decreases the arch space available. increases a patient’s overbite.

Interceptive orthodontic treatment CANNOT alter the A. B. C. D.

final basal bone width of the mandible. direction of growth of the mandible. arch space available for the eruption of the permanent dentition. angulation of the teeth.

Which statement is TRUE regarding electric pulp testing? A. B. C. D.

It does not confirm health or integrity of the pulp. Vascularity can be determined. True vitality can be determined. Thicker enamel will lead to a quicker response.

A. B. C. D.

superior esthetics. more conservative vestibular preparation. increased restoration strength. superior translucency.

On the vestibular aspect of tooth 2.3, there is 4mm of recession with a 3mm probing depth, no keratinized gingiva and no radiographic interproximal bone loss. The most predictable esthetic outcome is achieved with a A. B. C. D.

free gingival graft. subepithelial connective tissue graft. coronally repositioned flap. guided tissue regeneration.

Tooth 3.3 has a 9mm probing depth with a 6mm three-wall infrabony mesial defect. It tests vital and is not mobile. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A. B. C. D.

Gingival curettage. Modified Widman flap. Osseous resective surgery. Guided tissue regeneration.

Generalized enlarged fibrotic interdental papillae of 2 months duration are interfering with orthodontic treatment. There is no evidence of attachment loss. Scaling and root planing have not resolved the condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention? A. B. C. D.

In a tooth with complete pulpal necrosis, the periradicular region is affected if A. B. C. D.

Gingival curettage. Gingivoplasty. Osseous resective surgery. Guided tissue regeneration.

there is pain to thermal simuli. the tooth throbs when the patient is lying down. there is pain on percussion. there is no response to an electric pulp test.

Periapical surgery is CONTRAINDICATED for a tooth that has a In a patient with an adequate band of keratinized tissue, gingivectomy is indicated for all EXCEPT A. B. C. D.

gingival pockets. suprabony pockets. gingival overgrowths. infrabony pockets.

A. B. C. D. E.

large periapical rarefaction. fistula related to a periapical lesion. vertical root fracture. fracture of the root apex and a necrotic pulp. post and core and crown.

Which of the following is the most reliable indication of an active root caries lesion? Following periodontal debridement, reduction in pocket depth is primarily due to A. B. C. D.

decreased inflammation. reattachment of gingival fibers. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth. connective tissue regeneration.

The re-evaluation of periodontal debridement effectiveness after 4 to 6 weeks is best assessed by examining clinical attachment levels and A. B. C. D.

radiographic bone density. plaque index. bleeding index. mobility.

A. Brown discolouration. B. Abfraction deeper than 1.5mm. C. Discoloured lesion with the same hardness as healthy root surface. D. Soft or leathery consistency.

What is the most likely cause of food impaction at the site of a recently placed Class II composite resin restoration? A. B. C. D.

Inadequate proximal contact. Gingival overhang. Inadequate marginal ridge morphology. Poor oral hygiene.

Retentive pins should ideally be placed A. within enamel. B. at the dentino-enamel junction. C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction.

The earliest colonizers of dental plaque are A. B. C. D.

Gram-positive rods. Gram-positive cocci. Gram-negative rods. Gram-negative cocci.

Which part of the brain is NOT primarily involved in motor control? A. B. C. D.

Cerebellum. Basal ganglia. Occipital lobe. Frontal lobe.

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding nitroglycerin used for medical emergencies? A. It is indicated for the definitive management of angina pectoris. B. It is indicated for the early management of a myocardial infarction. C. It should be administered sublingually. D. Its administration will increase blood pressure. E. Exposure to air or light shortens the shelflife of the tablets.

Which of the following does NOT block cyclooxygenase-2? What is the most effective local anesthetic technique for a patient with trismus who requires a pulpectomy on a mandibular molar? A. B. C. D. E.

Mental nerve block. Gow-Gates block. Vazirani-Akinosi block. Inferior alveolar nerve block. Buccal nerve block.

What is the correct position of the needle tip for the administration of local anesthetic for an inferior alveolar nerve block? A. B. C. D. E.

Anterior to the buccinator muscle. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. Lateral to the ramus of the mandible. Superior to the mandibular foramen. Inferior to the pterygomandibular raphe.

A. B. C. D. E.

Acetaminophen. Acetylsalicylic acid. Celecoxib. Diflunisal. Ibuprofen.

Which of the following will have the most rapid onset of action? A. B. C. D.

Oral ibuprofen. Intramuscular penicillin. Subcutaneous epinephrine. Inhaled nitrous oxide.

Which of the following could cause clicking sounds during speech in denture wearers? A. B. C. D.

Excessive vertical dimension. Nonbalanced occlusion. Excessive buccal flange thickness. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite).

What is the most likely diagnosis of a white, diffuse, wrinkled appearing lesion of the buccal mucosa which diminishes in prominence or disappears upon stretching? A. B. C. D. E.

Leukoedema. Lichen planus. Candidiasis. Linea alba. White sponge nevus.

The major connector of a removable partial denture should be designed to A. B. C. D.

rigidly connect the denture components. act as a stress-breaker. dissipate vertical forces. distribute forces to the soft tissues.

When using alginate impression material, which one of the following statements is correct? A. B. C. D.

Store the impression in water at 37°C prior to pouring the cast. Remove the impression slowly from the undercuts. Control the setting time by changing the water/powder ratio. Pour the cast immediately following disinfection.

Which of the following is NOT a direct physiological response to additional forces placed on abutment teeth? A. B. C. D.

Resorption of bone. Increase in trabeculation. Increase in width of cementum. Decrease in width of periodontal ligament.

What is the most likely cause of long term clinical failure for a metal-ceramic crown with porcelain occlusal coverage on a molar? A. B. C. D.

Recurrent caries. Cohesive porcelain fracture. Adhesive porcelain fracture. Loss of retention.

Which is the most appropriate treatment for a patient who reports persistent thermal sensitivity 4 weeks after placement of a posterior composite resin restoration with acceptable occlusion? A. Adjust the restoration slightly out of occlusion. B. Replace the restoration with a reinforced zinc oxide eugenol restoration. C. Replace the restoration with a bonded amalgam restoration. D. Replace the restoration with a bonded composite resin restoration.

During matrix band removal, the risk of marginal ridge fracture of an amalgam restoration is reduced by A. completing most of the shaping of the marginal ridge before removal. B. leaving an excess of amalgam in the occlusal area before removal. C. contouring and wedging the band. D. using universal circumferential retainers and bands.

Bevelling the enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin of a Class II cavity preparation for amalgam is A. contraindicated because of the weak edge of amalgam. B. provided by a steep cavosurface bevel of the enamel margin. C. unnecessary since the remaining tooth structure is strong. D. needed to remove unsupported enamel rods.

Which is the best initial treatment for a 16 year old patient presenting with multiple extensive carious lesions on 20 teeth?

A 3 year old presents with subluxated maxillary central incisors. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Place amalgam restorations as quickly as possible. B. Excavate and place provisional restorations. C. Place the patient on a preventive regime and delay any treatment. D. Restore all teeth with gold inlays to utilize the strength of the material.

A. Reposition the teeth and place child on a soft diet. B. Reposition the teeth and splint for 7 – 10 days. C. Place child on a soft diet and monitor the teeth. D. Extract the traumatized teeth.

A dry and crumbly mix of amalgam can be the result of A. B. C. D.

under trituration. over trituration. high copper content. lack of zinc content.

In a Class I occlusion, which cusp of which permanent tooth moves between the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps of the mandibular second molar in a working side movement? A. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar. B. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar. C. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary second molar. D. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary second molar.

A 2½ year old presents with intruded maxillary central incisors. They are not in proximity to the permanent successors. What is the most appropriate management? A. B. C. D.

Reposition the teeth and splint. Reposition the teeth and do not splint. Monitor the teeth for re-eruption. Extract the teeth.

Which of the following space maintainers is most appropriate for a patient with the bilateral loss of mandibular first primary molars prior to the eruption of the permanent molars and permanent incisors? A. B. C. D.

Lingual holding arch. Bilateral distal shoes. Bilateral band and loop. Nance appliance.

A 2½ year old lives in a community with 0.5ppm fluoride in the drinking water. What is the most appropriate preventive management? When epinephrine 1:1000 is administered intramuscularly for the management of anaphylaxis in an adult, the most appropriate volume for an initial dose is A. B. C. D.

0.04ml. 0.3 – 0.5ml. 1.0 – 1.5ml. 1.8ml.

A. B. C. D.

Regular recall appointments. Fluoride varnish at 3 month intervals. Daily fluoride drops. Fissure sealants on the second primary molars.

Following a pulpotomy in a second primary molar with extensive occlusal caries, what is the most appropriate restoration? A. B. C. D.

Glass ionomer. Bonded amalgam. Composite resin. Stainless steel crown.

A 50 year old obese patient was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes last year and has recently been put on an oral hypoglycemic. He is frequently skipping meals in order to reduce his weight. During his 8:30 a.m. appointment, his speech becomes slurred and he is less alert than usual. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient? A. Make him drink 175ml of diet cola. B. Give him 15g of glucose as tablets or in a solution. C. Make him drink 175ml of unsweetened orange juice. D. Dismiss the patient and advise him to eat.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the administration of acetylsalicylic acid? A. B. C. D. E.

Tinnitus. Analgesia. Antipyresis. Constipation. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.

A 45 year old with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus has a morning dental appointment. During the examination, the patient complains of being lightheaded and weak. Sweating is observed. The patient is most likely experiencing A. B. C. D. E.

hyperglycemia. hypoglycemia. syncope. hyperventilation. cerebrovascular accident.

Which patient would NOT be predisposed to liver toxicity following a dose of 1000mg of acetaminophen? Vital pulps of elderly patients A. show a decrease in the number of collagenous fibres. B. have decreased reparative capacity compared to younger adults. C. typically form dentinal bridges with appropriate pulp capping procedures. D. show an increase in myelinated nerves when compared to pulps of younger adults.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious? A.

What is the most appropriate management for leukoplakia?

B. C.

A. B. C. D. E.

D.

Observation. Replacement of amalgam restorations. Changes in diet. Biopsy. Carbon dioxide laser ablation.

An adult with liver cirrhosis. A chronic alcoholic. A diabetic. A 15kg, 4 year old child.

Acute periradicular abscess of a mandibular central incisor. Mid facial cellulitis. Chronic periradicular abscess of a mandibular third molar. Infected dentigerous cyst.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the wedge in the restoration of a Class II cavity with amalgam?

On a bite-wing radiograph, a smooth surface proximal carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle with the

A. It separates the teeth to allow restoration of the contact. B. It assists in the adaptation of the matrix band to the proximal portion of the preparation. C. It absorbs moisture from the cavity preparation, allowing the restoration to be placed in a dry field. D. It provides stability to the matrix band and retainer assembly.

A. B. C. D.

The purpose of hand hygiene in infection control is primarily to reduce the A. resident microflora in the deep tissue layers. B. quantity of transient microorganisms on the surface of the hands. C. dryness of the skin prior to donning gloves. D. risk of patient contamination.

Which of the following does NOT need to be considered when assessing whether exposure of bodily fluids to a dental health care personnel is significant? A. B. C. D.

Patient’s gender. Type of bodily fluid. Infectious disease status of the patient. Amount of bodily fluid involved in the injury.

What is the most probable complication of a local anesthetic injection into the parotid gland? A. B. C. D.

Infection. Trismus. Diplopia. Facial paralysis.

base at the dentino-enamel junction. base facing toward the pulp. apex pointing to the enamel surface. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel junction.

Nicotinic stomatitis A. is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the palate. B. is caused by smokeless tobacco. C. appears clinically as small red dots surrounded by an elevated pale mucosa. D. is characterized by dysplastic changes. E. is irreversible.

Prolonged therapeutic administration of cortisone induces A. B. C. D. E.

hypoglycemia. hypofunction of the adrenal cortex. hypofunction of the adrenal medulla. hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex. hyperfunction of the adrenal medulla.

An inflammatory cellular infiltrate found in the connective tissue of healthy gingiva is A. B. C. D.

a routine microscopic finding. an indication of systemic disease. composed chiefly of macrophages. a tissue response to food decomposition.

A 10 year old child with no previous caries experience has proximal carious lesions in the enamel only of several primary molars. How should the lesions be managed? A. B. C. D. E.

No treatment. Be treated with topical fluoride, proper home care and observation. Be smoothed with abrasive strips. Be treated with fissure sealants. Be restored with amalgam.

In a restoration following endodontic therapy, the primary function of the post is to improve A. B. C. D.

distribution of forces along the long axis. resistance of the tooth to fracture. sealing of the root canal. retention of the definitive restoration.