120085807 Physiology BCQs

October 13, 2017 | Author: Reema Khan | Category: Citric Acid Cycle, Neuron, Action Potential, Neurotransmitter, Visual System
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1. Pathophysiology differs from physiology in that pathophysiology a. Is the study of invertebrate physiology. b. Is the study of biological function. c. Involves the effects of disease and injury. d. Compares cellular function to the function of organ systems. 2. Phase I clinical trials a. Determine the rate of drug metabolism. b. Test the effects of the drug in the target population. c. Test other potential uses of the drug. d. Test the drug in different genders and ethnic groups. 3. The portion of a feedback loop most located in the brain or spinal cord is the a. Effector. b. Sensor. c. Integrating center. d. Afferent pathway. 4. Homeostasis is maintained by the actions of a. Positive feedback. b. Negative feedback. c. Feedback loops. d. All of the above. 5. Tendons are comprised of a. Connective tissue. b. Epithelial tissue. c. Muscle tissue. d. Nervous tissue. 6. Which of the following tissues would be found lining the majority of the digestive tract? a. Simple squamous epithelium. b. Simple columnar epithelium. c. Stratified squamous epithelium. d. Transitional epithelium. 7. A hypothesis a. Is testable. b. Once answered becomes a scientific theory. c. Is based on fact. d. None of the above. 8. Exocine glands include all of the following except a. Lacrimal glands. b. The pituitary gland. c. Sweat glands. d. The prostate gland. 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of cardiac but not skeletal muscle? a. The presence of striations. b. The ability to voluntarily induce contractions. c. The presence of intercalated discs. d. The presence of peristaltic contractions. 10. Damage to which type of cell would have the greatest effect on bone formation in a child? a. Chondrocytes. b. Nerve cells. c. Muscle cells. d. Osteoblasts. 11. How many electrons would be found in an atom with an atomic mass of 36? a. 36.











b. 24. c. 18. d. 9. Isotopes vary in the number of a. Protons. b. Neutrons. c. Electrons. d. Protons and electrons. Hydrogen bonds a. Are strong covalent bonds. b. Are responsible for many of the biological properties of water. c. Are a type of ionic bond. d. All of the above. A solution with a ph of 9 a. Would be classified as an acid. b. Would have 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a ph of 7. c. Would have half as many hydrogen ions as a solution with a ph of 7. d. Would be classified as a base. The disaccharide most commonly found in milk is a. Fructose. b. Galactose. c. Glucose. d. Lactose. Steroid hormone synthesis would be decreased if which of the following were lacking? a. Cholesterol. b. Phospholipids. c. Prostaglandins. d. Triglycerides. Micelles could be formed by a. Cholesterol. b. Phospholipids. c. Prostaglandins. d. Triglycerides. The level of protein structure directly determined by an individual's genes is the a. Primary structure. b. Secondary structure. c. Tertiary structure. d. Quaternary structure. Water is produced when a. Lactose is degraded. b. Proteins are degraded. c. Starch is synthesized. d. All of the above. Proteins function as a. Receptors. b. Energy storage molecules. c. Precursors to steroid hormones. d. None of the above. Cells lacking nucleoli would likely have a. Few ribosomes. b. Few mitochondria. c. No DNA. d. No centrioles.

22. Which component of the cell membrane is primarily responsible for restricting the movement of molecules through the membrane? a. Carbohydrates. b. Phospholipids. c. Proteins. d. All are equally effective in this role. 23. Solutes are nonspecifically taken into the cell by a. Exocytosis. b. Receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Phagocytosis. d. Pinocytosis. 24. Cells lacking lysosomes would be a. Unable to synthesize proteins. b. Unable to divide. c. Unable to commit apoptosis. d. Unable to move. 25. Which of the following organelles contain DNA? a. Centrioles. b. Golgi apparatus. c. Endoplasmic reticulum. d. Mitochondria. 26. Which of the following is not true of DNA? a. It exists as a double-stranded helix. b. It contains uracil and cytosine. c. It contains guanine and adenine. d. None of the above. 27. Precursor messenger RNA is a. Longer than messenger RNA. b. Is shorter than messenger RNA. c. Is produced in the cytosol. d. Is produced by the process of translation. 28. Protein synthesis requires a. Messenger RNA. b. Ribosomal RNA. c. Transfer RNA. d. All of the above. 29. Telomeres a. Are found in the middle of chromosomes. b. Contain tumor suppressor genes. c. Decrease in length when cells replicate. d. Are long repeated sequences of DNA. 30. During the cell cycle a. DNA is replicated during mitosis. b. Centrioles replicate during G1. c. Sister chromatids separate during metaphase. d. Nucleoli disappear during anaphase. 31. Meiosis a. Occurs only in the gametes. b. Allows for genetic recombination. c. Produces haploid cells. d. All of the above. 32. During mitosis a. Chromosomes align at the cell equator during prophase.











b. Nuclear membranes reform during anaphase. c. Spindle fibers are produced during prophase. d. Centromeres split during telophase. Which of the following is not true of enzymes? a. Enzymes decrease the rate of chemical reactions. b. Most enzymes are proteins. c. Enzymes demonstrate specificity. d. Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction. During an enzyme-mediated reaction a. The substrate changes shape to fit the active site of the enzyme. b. The active site of the enzyme binds the products after the reaction is completed. c. The active site recognizes many substrate molecules. d. The active site may change shape to in order to allow substrate binding. Enzyme activity is usually decreased by a. Increased temperature. b. Increased substrate concentration. c. Decreased product concentration. d. All of the above. Cofactors a. Are usually organic molecules which increase enzyme activity. b. Are usually metal ions which increase enzyme activity. c. Are usually organic molecules which decrease enzyme activity. d. Are usually metal ions which decrease enzyme activity. Metabolic pathways a. Are often regulated by the concentrations of the intermediate products. b. Do not require the presence of enzymes. c. Are often regulated by the concentration of the end product. d. Do not have branches or interactions. Inborn errors of amino acid metabolism may cause a. Gaucher's disease. b. Homocystinuria. c. Hypercholestremia. d. Lactose intolerance. Entropy a. Photosynthesis increases the entropy in the products formed. b. Decreases when energy is transformed. c. Is a measure of disorganization of a system. d. All of the above. Endergonic reactions a. Release heat as the reaction proceeds. b. Release energy as the reaction proceeds. c. Are never part of cellular metabolism. d. Require an input of energy to proceed. Reducing agents a. Donate electrons during a chemical reaction. b. Accept electrons during a chemical reaction. c. Are reduced during a chemical reaction. d. Include NAD and FAD. The universal energy carrier in biological systems is a. NADH. b. FADH2. c. GTP. d. ATP.

43. Glycolysis a. Requires the presence of oxygen. b. Is the first step of cellular respiration. c. Produces carbon dioxide and water. d. Utilizes FAD as an electron acceptor. 44. Lactic acid a. Is produced as a result of aerobic metabolism of glucose. b. Is one of the normal end products of glycolysis. c. Is a common end product of red blood cells. d. None of the above. 45. Which of the following is not true of the Krebs cycle? a. Three molecules of NADH are produced per molecule of glucose. b. Two molecules of FADH2 are produced per molecule of glucose. c. Addition of acetyl coa to oxaloacetic acid starts the cycle. d. GTP is produced and converted to ATP. 46. Glycogen stored in which of the following tissues can be used to produce free glucose? a. The liver. b. The heart. c. The skeletal muscle. d. All of the above. 47. The product of beta oxidation is metabolized by the actions of a. Glycolysis. b. The Krebs cycle. c. Gluconeogenesis. 48. Amino acid metabolism involves all of the following except a. Oxidative deamination. b. Transamination. c. The Krebs cycle. d. Beta oxidation. 49. A lack of blood glucose would have the greatest effects on a. The brain. b. The heart. c. The liver. d. Skeletal muscles. 50. The primary energy source of resting skeletal muscles is/are a. Lactic acid. b. Ketone bodies. c. Glucose. d. Fatty acids. 51. Metabolism of triglycerides utilizes a. Glycolysis. b. Beta-oxidation. c. The Krebs cycle. d. All of the above. 52. The common intermediate of carbohydrate, protein and lipid metabolism is a. Ammonia. b. Pyruvic acid. c. Acetyl coa. d. Phosphoglyceraldehyde. 53. The rate of diffusion of a molecule into a cell membrane is increased by a. Decreasing the temperature. b. Increasing the concentration of the molecule inside the cell. c. Increasing the surface area of the cell.

d. Decreasing the permeability of the membrane to the molecule. 54. Diffusion a. Requires the hydrolysis of ATP. b. Moves molecules against a concentration gradient. c. Always requires the use of carrier proteins. d. Is a passive process. 55. Osmosis a. Is the diffusion of water. b. Requires a membrane permeable to solutes. c. Requires a transport protein. d. None of the above. 56. A three molar solution contains a. 6.02 X 1023 molecules b. 12.04 X 1023 molecules c. 18.06 X 1023 molecules d. None of the above. 57. A 2 M solution of a compound that dissociates into two particles would be equal to a. 1 Osm. b. 2 Osm. c. 3 Osm. d. 4 Osm. 58. Volume of a red blood cell placed in a 0.9 Osm saline solution will a. Increase. b. Decrease. c. Not change. d. It is impossible to determine with the information presented. 59. The type of solution which would stimulate an increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone would cause red blood cells to a. Crenate. b. Lyse. c. Remain unchanged. d. It is impossible to determine with the information presented. 60. Glucose movement into skeletal muscle occurs through a. Active transport. b. Facilitated diffusion. c. Osmosis. d. Simple diffusion. 61. Secondary active transport a. Directly utilizes ATP. b. Does not demonstrate saturation kinetics. c. Usually involves coupled transport. d. None of the above. 62. The sodium-potassium pump a. Is an example of secondary active transport. b. Transports sodium ions into the cell. c. Transports potassium ions into the cell. d. Transports an equal number of sodium and potassium ions across the cell membrane. 63. The membrane potential of a cell is a. Due to unequal permeability of the cell membrane to different ions. b. Usually positive with respect to the extracellular fluid. c. Constant and not subject to change. d. All of the above.

64. If the intracellular concentration of Ca2+ is 150 meq/L and the extracellular concentration of Ca2+ is 50 meq/l, the equilibrium potential for Ca2+ would be a. 14.6 mv. b. 29.2 mv. c. -29.2 mv. d. -14.6 mv. 65. Poisoning the sodium-potassium pump would most likely result in a. A more positive resting membrane potential. b. A more negative resting membrane potential. c. No change in the resting membrane potential. d. An increase in intracellular calcium ions. 66. Impulses are conducted to the soma by the a. Axon. b. Axon hillock. c. Dendrites. d. All of the above. 67. Which of the following neurons are found entirely within the central nervous system? a. Association neuron. b. Efferent neuron. c. Motor neuron. d. Sensory neuron. 68. Myelination of axons within the central nervous system would not occur if which of the following cells were not functional? a. Astrocytes. b. Microglia. c. Oligodendrocytes. d. Schwann cells. 69. The blood-brain barrier would be compromised by damaging a. Astrocytes. b. Ependymal cells. c. Microglia. d. Oligodendrocytes. 70. Embryonic development of sensory neurons and maintenance of sympathetic ganglia requires a. Glial-derived neurotrophic factor. b. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor. c. Neurotrophin-4. d. Nerve growth factor. 71. Opening only sodium ion channels in a neuron at rest would normally cause a. Hyperpolarization. b. Depolarization. c. Repolarization. d. No change in membrane potential. 72. Which of the following is not true of an action potential? a. Action potentials follow the all-or-none law. b. Positive feedback is important during depolarization. c. Negative feedback is important during repolarization. d. All cells in the body can produce action potentials. 73. Which axon would transmit an action potential most rapidly? a. A 1.3 mm diameter neuron lacking myelin. b. A 1.3 mm diameter neuron lacking myelin. c. A 1.3 mm diameter neuron with myelin. d. All have equal transmission rates. 74. At a chemical synapse











a. Acetylcholine is always an excitatory neurotransmitter in the autonomic nervous system. b. Phosphorylation of synapsins stimulates neurotransmitter release. c. Repolarization of the axon terminal allows Ca2+ to flow into the axon terminal. d. Neurotransmitters are transported across the synapse by receptor proteins. Muscarinic receptors a. Require the action of G-proteins. b. Are found on skeletal muscle. c. Are functionally linked to Na+ ion channels. d. All of the above. Postsynaptic potentials a. Always induce action potentials. b. Lack refractory periods. c. Are always excitatory. d. Are always inhibitory. Tetrodotoxin would directly a. Block depolarization of excitable cells. b. Block repolarization of excitable cells. c. Prevent neurotransmitter release. d. Inhibit acetylcholinesterase. Blocking the reuptake of dopamine would induce effects similar to a. Parkinson's disease. b. Multiple sclerosis. c. Cocaine use. d. Alzheimer's disease. Regarding synaptic cell activation a. Summation of postsynaptic potentials may be related to the timing of neurotransmitter release. b. Summation of postsynaptic potentials may be related to the site of neurotransmitter release. c. Summation may involve both inhibitory and excitatory postsynaptic potentials. d. All of the above. Endogenous opioids a. Induce effects which are complimented by naloxone. b. Are produced by all cells of the body. c. Can block the transmission of pain. d. All of the above. Damage to which embryonic cell layer would most directly result in defects in the central nervous system? a. Ectoderm. b. Endoderm. c. Mesoderm. d. All of the above. Development of the hypothalamus would be impaired by damage to the a. Mesencephalon. b. Metencephalon. c. Myelencephalon. d. Telencephalon. Abrupt changes in personality due to a head injury would most likely be related to a. Damage in the occipital lobe. b. Damage in the temporal lobe. c. Damage in the frontal lobe. d. Damage in the parietal lobe. A conscious, awake adult is subjected to an electroencephalograph. An excessively high number of delta waves are observed. This may indicate a. Severe emotional distress. b. Brain damage.












c. Relaxation. d. Concentration. A lack of fear may be associated with injury to a. The caudate nucleus. b. Broca's area. c. The amygdala. d. The septal nuclei. The ability to convert short-term memories to long-term memories depends on the actions of a. The hypothalamus. b. The medial temporal lobe. c. The corpus callosum. d. Prefrontal cortex. Melatonin is secreted by a gland found in the a. Epithalamus. b. Hypothalamus. c. Neurohypophysis. d. Thalamus. Ataxia results due to damage of the a. Corpora quadrigemina. b. Pons. c. Hypothalamus. d. Cerebellum. Fine sensations of touch are transmitted by the a. Anterior spinothalamic tract. b. Posterior spinocerebellar tract. c. Fasciculus gracillis. d. Lateral spinothalamic tract. Thermal sensations from the left foot may not be detected if a. The right thalamus was ablated. b. The left cervical spinal cord was damaged. c. The left medulla oblongata was damaged. d. All of the above. Movements of the eyes would be affected by damage to the a. Abducens nerve. b. Oculomotor nerve. c. Trochlear nerve. d. All of the above. Motor impulses are transmitted by a. Dorsal roots of spinal nerves. b. Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves. c. Ventral roots of spinal nerves. d. None of the above. Reflex arcs a. Require the actions of the brain. b. Require the actions of the peripheral nervous system. c. Always include an interneuron. d. All of the above. Autonomic motor nerves innervate all of the following except a. The heart. b. The small intestine. c. The biceps muscle. d. The salivary glands. When comparing the autonomic and somatic motor systems

a. Ganglia are found in both systems. b. Motor end plates are only found in the autonomic motor system. c. Denervation of motor nerves induces hypersensitivity of target cells. d. None of the above. 96. Regarding the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system a. Preganglionic fibers arise from thoracic and lumbar nerves. b. Postganglionic fibers release acetylcholine. c. Preganglionic fibers release norepinephrine. d. Postganglionic fibers are relatively long. 97. The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system a. Mediates the bodies response to stress. b. Has relatively long postganglionic fibers. c. Has numerous collateral ganglia. d. Contains spinal and cervical nerves. 98. Blocking muscarinic receptors would a. Increase heart rate. b. Stimulate constriction of the bronchioles. c. Stimulate pupillary constriction. d. Stimulate gastrointestinal function. 99. Head injury resulting in increased depolarization of the vagus nerve would initially cause a. Increased salivation. b. Pupillary dilation. c. Increased gastrointestinal motility. d. Contraction of the bladder. 100. Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla would initially cause a. Decreased strength of heart contractions. b. Decreased salivation. c. Contraction of the ciliary muscle. d. Hepatic glycogen synthesis. 101. Drugs which activate beta-1 receptors would a. Stimulate relaxation of the bronchiolar smooth muscle. b. Stimulate uterine contraction. c. Stimulate sweating. d. Increase heart rate. 102. Concerning the actions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions a. The actions on the salivary gland are complimentary. b. The actions on the heart are antagonistic. c. The actions on the urinary system are cooperative. d. All of the above. 103. Electrical stimulation of the afferent fibers of the vagus nerve from the type J receptors would a. Inhibit inhalation. b. Stimulate antidiuretic hormone secretion. c. Decrease cardiac rate. d. Stimulate a feeling a satiety. 104. Sensory receptors a. Are classified functionally based on their adequate stimulus. b. Adapt to maintained constant stimulation. c. When stimulated always induce perception of the adequate stimulus. d. All of the above. 105. Generator potentials a. Are all-or-none. b. Have refractory periods. c. Induce action potentials in associated afferent neurons.

d. All of the above. Damage to the tip of the tongue would prevent a. Food substances which stimulate gustducin mediated receptors from being activated. b. Food substances containing Na+ from activating receptors. c. Food substances containing H+ from activating receptors. d. None of the above. 107. Otoliths are found within the a. Semicircular canals. b. Saccule. c. Cupula. d. None of the above. 108. Stereocilia embedded within the cupula a. Are bent due the actions of the otoliths. b. Stimulate depolarization when they bend away from the kinocilium. c. Are responsible for detecting rotational movement. d. Bend in the same direction as the rotation of the body. 109. Damage to the stapedius muscle would result in a. The inability to dampen the effects of excessively loud sounds. b. Damage to the hair cells in the cupula. c. Increased numbers of middle ear infections. d. Rupture of the tympanic membrane. 110. During the process of hearing a. High frequency sound waves induce vibrations of the basilar membrane near the helicotrema. b. The medial geniculate nucleus serves to relay auditory information to the temporal lobe. c. The superior colliculi are involved in transmission of auditory impulses. d. None of the above. 111. The greatest amount of refraction occurs when light passes from a. The lens into the vitreous humor. b. The aqueous humor into the lens. c. The cornea into the aqueous humor. d. The air into the cornea. 112. Production of aqueous humor would be decreased if a. The cornea was damaged. b. The lens was damaged. c. The ciliary body was damaged. d. The iris was damaged. 113. You are focusing on a bright light three feet in front of you. Which of the following describe some of the physiological responses which would occur? a. The pupils would dilate and the ciliary muscles would contract. b. The pupils would dilate and the ciliary muscles would relax. c. The pupils would constrict and the ciliary muscles would contract. d. The pupils would constrict and the ciliary muscles would relax. 114. Which of the following is normally due to a loss of accommodation? a. Glaucoma. b. Hyperopia. c. Myopia. d. Presbyopia. 115. During the visual process a. Absorption of light causes a change in the conformation of 11-cis-retinene. b. Activation of a photoreceptor causes Na+ channels to open. c. Photoreceptors transmit information directly to ganglion cells. d. The greatest visual acuity occurs when light is focused on lateral portions of the retina. 116. Color blindness 106.

a. b. c. d. 117. a. b. c. d. 118. a. b. c. d. 119. a. b. c. d. 120. a. b. c. d. 121. a. b. c. d. 122. a. b. c. d. 123. a. b. c. d. 124. a. b. c. d. 125. a. b. c. d. 126. a. b. c.

Is due to the excessive production of one or more type of cones. Is due to the lack of production of one or more opsins. Is a dominant trait carried on the Y-chromosome. Is more prevalent in women than men. Which of the following is true regarding the neural pathways of transmitting visual information? The majority of fibers from the optic tract project to the superior colliculus. The geniculostriate system is primarily involved in coordinating eye and body movements. The tectal system is primarily involved in visual perception. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays information to the striate cortex. Damage to the medial rectus muscle would prevent Rotation of the eye toward the midline. Rotation of the eye away from the midline. Rotation of the eye upward and toward the midline. Rotation of the eye downward and away from the midline. Hormones Are secreted into the blood. Are all derived from cholesterol. All bind to receptors activating G-proteins. Are produced by exocrine glands. Which of the following is not derived from cholesterol? Epinephrine. Estradiol. Melatonin. Thyroxine. Hormones stimulating the anterior pituitary gland are secreted by the Adrenal cortex. Heart. Hypothalamus. Pineal gland. Hormones that have synergistic effects Have the same effect on target organs. Are both required for activation of target organs. Have opposing effects. Are always additive. Which of the following is not true regarding steroid hormone action? These hormones alter the transcription of specific genes. The receptor is located within the cell. The receptor forms a trimer which binds to the DNA. Hormone-response elements are recognized by DNA-binding domains of the occupied receptor. Hormones using cyclic AMP as a second messenger Activate phospholipase. Stimulate increased intracellular Ca2+ concentrations. Usually undergo autophosphorylation. Activate protein kinase. Inhibiting the activities of phosphodiesterase would Increase the effect of hormones using Ca2+ as a second messenger. Increase the effect of hormones using cyclic AMP as a second messenger. Decrease the effect of hormones activating phospholipase C. Decrease the ability of G-proteins to activate adenylate cyclase. Which hormone secreted by the pituitary gland is involved in uterine contraction during labor? ADH. ACTH. GH.

d. Oxytocin. 127. The release of which of the following hormones is controlled primarily by the release of an inhibiting hormone? a. Estradiol. b. LH. c. Prolactin. d. Thyroxine. 128. Which of the following is true regarding the hypothalamus-pituitary-gonad axis? a. Gnrh stimulates LH release from the anterior pituitary gland. b. Gnrh stimulates the release of testosterone from the testes. c. FSH stimulates the release of gnrh from the hypothalamus. d. None of the above are true. 129. Damage to the zona glomerulosa would a. Decrease the production of corticosterone. b. Decrease the production of cortisol. c. Decrease the production of DHEA. d. Decrease the production of aldosterone. 130. Which of the following would be true of an individual suffering from endemic goiter? a. Excessively low amounts of TSH would be found in the blood. b. Excessively high amounts of TRH would be released from the hypothalamus. c. Autoantibodies similar to TSH would be found in circulation. d. Their metabolic rate would be elevated. 131. Ablation (destruction) of the beta cells of the pancreas would result in a. Elevated plasma calcium concentrations. b. Elevated metabolic rate. c. Elevated plasma glucose concentrations. d. Elevated plasma osmolarity. 132. Which of the following is associated with generating and maintaining circadian rhythms? a. The suprachiasmatic nucleus. b. The supraoptic nucleus. c. The paraventricular nucleus. d. None of the above. 133. Which of the following would oppose the actions of prostaglandin E2? a. Leukotrienes. b. Prostaglandin I2. c. Prostaglandin F2. d. Thromboxane A2. 134. Which type of muscle opposes the action of a levator muscle? a. Abductor muscle. b. Depressor muscle. c. Flexor muscle. d. Rotator muscle. 135. Which of the following is true regarding the structure of a skeletal muscle? a. The ligaments connect the muscle to the skeleton. b. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the plasma membrane and forms transverse tubules. c. The I band contains only thin filaments. d. The endomysium binds the various fasciculi. 136. During skeletal muscle contraction a. The width of the H-zone decreases. b. The actin heads bind to the myosin chain. c. ATP hydrolysis requires Ca2+ as a cofactor. d. Tropomyosin changes conformation when Ca2+ binds. 137. Which of the following is not a component of a thin filament?

a. b. c. d. 138. a. b. c. d. 139. a. b. c. d. 140. a. b. c. d. 141. a. b. c. d. 142. a. b. c. d. 143. a. b. c. d. 144. a. b. c. d. 145. a. b. c. d. 146. a. b. c. d. 147. a. b.

Actin. Myosin. Troponin. Tropomyosin. During the process of excitation-contraction coupling Acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors. The transverse tubules release Ca2+ in response to depolarization of the cell through an unknown mechanism. Crossbridges form when ATP binds to myosin. Release of Ca2+ causes the binding sites on the thin filaments to be uncovered. The amount of tension generated by a skeletal muscle Is greatest when the muscle is between 100 and 120% of its optimal resting length. Is increased by recruiting more motor units. Is increased by summation. All of the above. Damage to the gamma motoneurons would Interfere with the muscle stretch reflex. Prevent voluntary muscle contraction. Induce flaccid paralysis. Interfere with the disynaptic reflex. Intention tremor may occur due to damage to the Caudate nucleus. Red nucleus. Cerebellum. Motor cortex. During prolonged (90 or more minutes) exercise the preferred energy source for skeletal muscle is Plasma glucose. Muscle glycogen. Plasma fatty acids. Muscle triglycerides. High-energy phosphate reserves are maintained in muscles by High concentrations of ATP. High concentrations of glycogen. High concentrations of triglycerides. High concentrations of phosphocreatine. Type IIB skeletal muscle fibers Are often referred to as white muscle fibers. Are relatively resistant to fatigue. Have a high oxidative capacity. Have a high myoglobin content. In response to endurance training skeletal muscles will Increase the number of type IIB fibers. Decrease the concentration of myoglobin. Decrease the use of fat as an energy source. Decrease the rate of glycogen depletion during exercise. Cardiac muscle is similar to smooth muscle in that both Contain striations. Are not under conscious control. Utilize myosin light-chain kinase. Contain dense bodies. Smooth muscle contractions Are initiated by binding of Ca2+ to troponin. Are relatively fast compared to skeletal muscle.












c. May be graded. d. Utilizes GTP rather than ATP. Functions of plasma proteins include all of the following except a. Blood clotting. b. Immune responses. c. Regulating heart rate. d. Regulating blood volume. Which of the following formed elements is involved in blood clotting? a. Erythrocytes. b. Monocytes. c. Neutrophils. d. Thrombocytes. Blood cell synthesis a. Occurs only in the bone marrow. b. Is an identical process for all blood cells. c. Is stimulated by varied chemicals. d. Is inhibited by vitamin B12. Individuals with blood type A would have which types of antibodies in their plasma? a. Anti-A. b. Anti-B. c. Both anti-A and anti-B. d. Neither anti-A nor anti-B. Which of the following is true regarding blood clotting? a. A lack of Ca2+ decreases the rate at which the blood clot forms. b. Inherited clotting disorders can not be treated. c. Prostacyclin is required for platelets to adhere to the ruptured endothelium. d. Fibrin is produced by the enzymatic cleavage of thrombin. The ph of the blood would decrease as a result of a. Hyperventilation. b. Hypoventilation. c. Excessive bicarbonate production. d. Excessive vomiting. Which of the following is correct concerning the structure and function of the heart? a. The right atrium receives blood from the pulmonary circulation. b. The chordae tendineae attach the semilunar valves to the walls of the ventricles. c. The left ventricle ejects blood into the pulmonary circulation. d. The bicuspid and mitral valves prevent blood from flowing into the atria from the ventricles. Which of the following is correct regarding the events of the cardiac cycle? a. Closure of the atrioventricular valves produces the first heart sound. b. Ventricular pressure is increasing during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. c. Ventricular volume is the greatest at the end of systole. d. The semilunar valves close at the end of diastole. In the electrocardiogram a. The P wave represents ventricular repolarization. b. The QRS complex represents depolarization of the ventricles. c. The T wave represents atrial depolarization. d. The atria repolarize during the time between the QRS complex and T wave. Regarding the circulatory system, a. The arteries always contain blood that is high in oxygen. b. Valves are found in the arteries and veins. c. Capillaries are composed of a single cell layer. d. The skeletal muscle pump aids in driving blood flow through the arteries. Atherosclerosis

a. b. c. d.

Tends to be greater in people with high concentrations of hdls in their blood. Initially begins as a fibrous plaque in the arteries. Is worsened by increased vitamin C and E intake. May be treated through diet and exercise. 159. A patient enters the hospital complaining of chest pains. The results of an ECG indicate a depression in the S-T segment of the ECG. The most likely reason for this observation would be a. A first-degree AV node block. b. Atrial flutter. c. Myocardial ischemia. d. Tachycardia. 160. The lymphatic system a. Returns interstitial fluid to the circulatory system. b. Absorbs lipids from the small intestine. c. Produces megakaryocytes. d. Regulates the ph of the interstitial fluid. 161. Cardiac output is increased by a. Decreased parasympathetic outflow to the heart. b. Decreased sympathetic outflow to the heart. c. Decreased end-diastolic volume. d. None of the above. 162. The Frank-Starling Law of the Heart describes a. The effect of sympathetic stimulation on contractility. b. The effect of parasympathetic stimulation on heart rate. c. The intrinsic relationship between end-diastolic volume and stoke volume. d. The effect of increased work load on cardiac output. 163. Filtration from the blood into the interstitial fluid would be increased by a. Decreased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure. b. Increased interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure. c. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure. d. Decreased blood plasma colloid osmotic pressure. 164. A young man is involved in an automobile accident and suffers injuries resulting in blood loss. Which of the following would occur in an attempt to maintain homeostatsis? a. Decreased ADH secretion. b. Increased renin secretion. c. Decreased aldosterone secretion. d. Increased ANF secretion. 165. Blood flow would be increased in response to a. Decreased mean arterial pressure. b. Polycythemia. c. Increased plasma nitric oxide concentrations. d. Increased ADH secretion. 166. Local vasodilation can be induced by a. Decreased tissue metabolism. b. Decreased tissue carbon dioxide production. c. Decreased tissue ph. d. All of the above. 167. During moderate exercise a. Blood flow to the skin decreases. b. Blood flow increases to skeletal muscle due to intrinsic metabolic control mechanisms. c. End-diastolic volume increases. d. Blood flow to the brain increases. 168. In response to decreased arterial blood pressure a. Sympathetic discharge to the heart increases

b. The number of action potentials in sensory nerve fibers from the baroreceptors increases. c. Parasympathetic discharge to the heart increases. d. Vasodilation of the arterioles occurs. 169. When utilizing the sounds of Korotkoff to measure blood pressure a. Diastolic pressure is determined by the onset of snapping sounds. b. Systolic pressure is determined by the cessation of all sound. c. Sound intensity is the lowest during phase 3. d. The sounds produced are due to turbulent blood flow. 170. Hypertension would be present in an adult with a. A systolic blood pressure of 138 mm Hg. b. A diastolic blood pressure of 95 mm Hg. c. A mean arterial pressure of 94 mm Hg. d. All of the above. 171. Which of the following is not true regarding hypertension? a. It may be caused by aortic arteriosclerosis. b. ACE inhibitors alleviate hypertension by decreasing blood volume. c. Primary hypertension accounts for less that 10% of all reported cases of hypertension. d. Thiazide diuretics act to decrease total peripheral resistance. 172. A young woman is brought to the emergency room in the early stages of shock. After stabilizing the patient, the attending physician evaluates the results of clincal tests run and notices that concentration of endotoxin in the woman's blood is very high. Which type of shock is the woman experiencing? a. Anapylactic shock. b. Cardiogenic shock. c. Hypovolemic shock. d. Septic shock. 173. Congestive heart failure a. May result from excessively low blood Ca2+. b. May result from excessively low blood K+. c. May cause the ventricles to atrophy. d. May induce hypertension. 174. Nonspecific immunity is provided by all of the following except a. Kupffer cells. b. Alveolar macrophages. c. B lymphocytes. d. Neutrophils 175. Which of the following is not a characteristic of T lymphocytes? a. Surface antigens are present on the cell. b. They are in high concentration in blood and lymph. c. They provide cell-mediated immunity. d. They have a relatively long life span. 176. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions to allergens could be prevented by blocking the actions of a. IgA. b. IgD. c. IgE. d. IgG. 177. Complement protein 1 is activated when which two antibodies bind to antigens on cell membranes? a. Iga and ige. b. Igd and igm. c. Igg and igd. d. Igg and igm. 178. During a local inflammatory response a. Mast cells engulf particulate matter for degradation. b. Histamine is released and stimulates increased capillary permeability.












c. Monocyte concentration in the local area increases rapidly. d. All of the above occur. Active immunity a. Is provided by injection of anti-toxins. b. Develops within minutes after exposure to the antigen. c. Is relatively long lasting. d. May be produced through a vaccination. Perforins a. Are released by suppressor T cells to inhibit B cell activity. b. Are released by mast cells to induce chemotaxis. c. Are released by cytotoxic T cells when bound to victim cells to destroy the victim cell. d. Are released by helper T cells to increase the immune response. Growth of B cells and resting T cells is stimulated by a. Interleuken-4. b. Interferons. c. Tumor necrosis factor. d. Colony-stimulating factors. Which of the following groupings correctly associates the coreceptor, cell and MHC class? a. CD4 coreceptor, helper T cell, class-1 MHC. b. CD4 coreceptor, helper T cell, class-2 MHC. c. CD8 coreceptor, helper T cell, class-1 MHC. d. CD8 coreceptor, helper T cell, class-2 MHC. Tumors a. Can be treated using glucocorticoids. b. May grow more rapidly in an individual subjected to stress. c. Always undergo metastasis. d. Can be diagnosed using alpha-fetoprotein if originating in the colon. Autoimmune diseases a. Include Grave's disease, rheumatic fever, myasthenia gravis, and aspermatogenesis. b. Occur when the body stops producing antibodies. c. Result in hypersensitivity to specific antigens. d. Can be treated with antihistamines. Delayed hypersensitivity a. Requires the actions of B lymphocytes. b. Is mediated by increased production of ige. c. Can be treated with antihistamines. d. Is mediated by the production of lymphokines. External respiration involves or requires all of the following except a. Contraction of the diaphragm. b. Production of carbon dioxide by tissues. c. The exchange of gasses between the blood and alveoli. d. The exchange of gasses between the blood and the cells of the body. Which of the following would be found in the respiratory zone of the respiratory system? a. An alveolus. b. A bronchus. c. A bronchiole. d. The trachea. Surfactant a. Is a protein produced by type II alveolar cells. b. Is excessive in many premature infants resulting in difficulties breathing. c. Decreases the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli. d. Is lacking in individuals suffering from acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following muscles must contract during quiet, relaxed respiration?

a. b. c. d. 190. a. b. c. d. 191. a. b. c. d. 192. a. b. c. d. 193. a. b. c. d. 194. a. b. c. d. 195. a. b. c. d. 196. a. b. c. d. 197. a. b. c. d. 198. a. b. c. d. 199. a. b. c.

External abdominal oblique muscles. Internal abdominal oblique muscles. Rectus abdominis muscles. None of the above. Spirometry can be used to accurately measure all of the following except Expiratory reserve volume. Inspiratory reserve volume. Residual volume. Tidal volume. Black lung disease is An extreme from of asthma which causes necrosis of the lung. An extreme form of emphysema causing scarring of the lung. A type of bronchitis. A type of pulmonary fibrosis. When comparing alveolar and atmospheric air Alveolar air is under greater pressure. The partial pressure of oxygen is greater in alveolar air. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greater in atmospheric air. The partial pressure of nitrogen is greater in alveolar air. Which of the following is true regarding the neural centers regulating respiration? The apneustic center stimulates inspiration. The pneumotaxic center stimulates inspiration. The I neurons antagonize the effects of the inspiratory center. The rhythmicity center is located in the pons. Hypercapnia would Produce respiratory alkalosis. Stimulate decreased ventilation. Stimulate firing of both the central and peripheral chemoreceptors. Be compensated for by metabolic acidosis. The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left by Increased temperature. Increased ph. Increased 2,3-DPG. All of the above. Methemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen than deoxyghemoglobin because It consists of a single alpha and beta chain. Carbon monoxide is bound to the iron atom. Carbon dioxide is bound to the iron atom. The iron has been oxidized to the ferric state. High concentrations of hemoglobin F would be found in Individuals diagnosed with beta thalassemia. Individuals diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Individuals treated with erythropoietin. Individuals recently receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following is not true regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood? The majority of carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions. The majority of bicarbonate ions are found within the erythrocyte. Very little carbon dioxide is transported free in the blood. Carbonic anhydrase is capable of producing both carbon dioxide and carbonic acid. Respiratory acidosis Occurs when the ph of the blood is greater than 7.45. May result from hyperventilation. May result from hypoventilation.












d. Can not be corrected by altering renal bicarbonate retention. In order to maintain respiratory function at higher altitudes a. Erythropoietin secretion is increased. b. Respiratory rate decreases. c. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is increased. d. None of the above. Renal pyramids are separated by the a. Renal cortex. b. Renal medulla. c. Renal columns. d. Renal pelvis. Blood is supplied to the vasa recta by the a. Afferent arterioles. b. Arcuate arteries. c. Efferent arterioles. d. Interlobular arteries. Glomerular filtration a. Is increased by increased afferent arteriole diameter. b. Is always increased when cardiac output is increased. c. Is increased by sympathetic nerve activity. d. Produces an ultrafiltrate which is identical in composition to plasma. During the processing of the glomerular ultrafiltrate a. Compounds present in excess of the transport maximum for the transport protein will appear in the urine. b. The majority of glucose is reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubule. c. ADH alters the permeability of all portions of the tubule to water. d. The fluid volume is reduced to 1/2 of its original volume by the proximal convoluted tubule. Which of the following is not true regarding the renal tubule? a. The loop of Henle functions as a countercurrent multiplier. b. The vasa recta functions as a countercurrent multiplier. c. Tight junctions exist between adjacent tubular epithelial cells. d. The reabsorption of Cl- tends to be passive. Antidiuretic hormone a. Is secreted by cells in the hypothalamus. b. Is secreted in greater concentrations in response to increased blood volume. c. Stimulates an increased urine volume. d. Is not secreted in great enough amounts in individuals with diabetes insipidus. Glomerular filtration rate can be determined by calculating renal clearance of a. Ammonia. b. Inulin. c. Para-aminohippuric acid. d. Urea. Aldosterone a. Stimulates sodium loss and potassium retention. b. Is secreted in response to decreased renin. c. Is secreted in response to increased blood volume. d. Is secreted in response to increased plasma potassium. Which of the following is true regarding renal bicarbonate reabsorption? a. Alkalosis induces increased bicarbonate excretion. b. Bicarbonate is reabsorbed directly by the tubule. c. The majority of reabsorption occurs in the distal convoluted tubule. d. All of the above are true. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors act primarily on the

a. b. c. d. 211. a. b. c. d. 212. a. b. c. d. 213. a. b. c. d. 214. a. b. c. d. 215. a. b. c. d. 216. a. b. c. d. 217. a. b. c. d. 218. a. b. c. d. 219. a. b. c. d. 220. a. b. c.

Collecting duct. Distal convoluted tubule. Loop of Henle. Proximal convoluted tubule. Accessory digestive organs include The pharynx. The gallbladder. The esophagus. The large intestine. Nervous control of the GI tract would be impaired by damage to the Mucosa. Muscularis. Submucosa. Serosa. Digestive enzymes are not secreted into The esophagus. The mouth. The small intestine The stomach. Pepsin would be missing from the stomach contents of a person lacking Chief cells. Enterochromaffin-like cells. Goblet cells. Parietal cells. Damage to the fundus would have the greatest effect on Mucus secretion. Pepsinogen secretion. Gastrin secretion. Histamine secretion. The chyme entering the small intestine Is very basic. Is buffered by pancreatic bicarbonate secretion. Has not undergone any digestive processes. Passes through the cardiac sphincter. Damage to which of the following would affect fat but not protein or carbohydrate absorption? The microvilli. Brunner's glands. The lacteals. The goblet cells. Diarrhea may occur as a result of Decreased Na+ reabsorption by the large intestine. Decreased osmolarity of chyme entering the large intestine. Damage to the intestinal mucosa due to bacterial enterotoxins. Active transport of sodium chloride due to gluten consumption. Bile Is synthesized by the gall bladder. Is stored in hepatic sinusoids. Is solely comprised of bile salts. Is required for maximal fat digestion and absorption. The liver is responsible for secretion of all of the following except Ampicillin. Conjugated steroids. Penicillin.












d. Streptomyocin. The pancreas a. Is resistant to proteolytic digestion because of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor. b. Secretes bicarbonate to buffer the chyme. c. Secretes enzymes required for digestion of all macromolecules. d. All of the above. Inhibiting the secretion of cholecystokinin would a. Stimulate gastric motility. b. Stimulate gallbladder contraction. c. Stimulate pancreatic enzyme secretion. d. Stimulate hcl secretion by parietal cells. Gastric acid secretion during the intestinal phase a. Is stimulated by vagal stimulation. b. Is inhibited by fat in the chyme. c. Is stimulated by gastrin secretion. d. Is stimulated by amino acids in the stomach. Cholesterol removal and degradation is the primary function of the a. Chylomicrons. b. High-density lipoproteins. c. Low-density lipoproteins. d. Very-low-density lipoproteins. Which of the following enzymes is not bound to epithelial membranes of the small intestine? a. Sucrase. b. Aminopeptidase. c. Carboxypeptidase. d. Maltase. Basal metabolic rate a. Is determined by an individual's age. b. Is elevated due to hypothyroidism. c. Is measured immediately after a meal. d. Increases as people age. Essential amino acids include a. Alanine. b. Tyrosine. c. Proline. d. Methionine. An individual consuming a diet deficient in Vitamin A may suffer from a. Scurvy. b. Dermatitis. c. Night blindness. d. Pernicious anemia. Which of the following is not a circulating energy substrate? a. Amino acids. b. Fatty acids. c. Glycerol. d. Polysaccharides. Adipose tissue a. May secrete leptin to induce a feeling of satiety. b. May secrete tumor necrosis factor-alpha to stimulate increased insulin sensitivity. c. Is derived muscle tissue. d. Increases in adults primarily through hypertrophy. of the following hormones stimulates glycogen synthesis? a. Glucagon.











b. Insulin. c. Epinephrine. d. Thyroxine. Ketogenesis is stimulated by all of the following except a. Glucagon. b. Epinephrine. c. Thryoxine. d. Cortisol. Which of the following is true concerning the pancreatic hormone secretion? a. Insulin is secreted from alpha cells in response to elevated blood glucose. b. Glucagon is secreted from alpha cells in response to decreased blood glucose. c. Delta cells secrete insulin in response to elevated blood amino acid concentrations. d. Elevated blood glucose stimulates glucagon secretion from the alpha cells. Uncontrolled type I diabetes mellitus a. Stimulates increased tissue ketone utilization. b. If untreated leads to convulsions and death. c. Stimulates hepatic glycogen synthesis. d. Results in hypotension. Reactive hypoglycemia a. Occurs in response to excessive insulin secretion by beta cells. b. Is more common in adults predisposed to type I diabetes mellitus. c. Occurs most often following a small meal with few carbohydrates. d. All of the above. Prolonged hyperthyroidism results in a. Slowed reflexes. b. Impaired growth. c. Heat intolerance. d. Myxedema. Which of the following is not true concerning growth hormone? a. It stimulates the secretion of somatomedins from the liver. b. Excessive secretion in an adult stimulates increased growth in height. c. Increases the utilization of glucose by most tissues. d. Inhibits proteins synthesis in most tissues. The activity of osteoclasts a. Stimulates deposition of bone. b. Is stimulated by parathyroid hormone. c. Is inhibited by calcitonin. d. Is inhibited by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3. Adequate absorption of dietary Ca2+ requires a. Excessively low blood Ca2+. b. Calcitonin. c. Parathyroid hormone. d. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3. The activity of which hormone opposes that of parathyroid hormone? a. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3. b. Estrogen. c. Testosterone. d. Calcitonin. During embryonic development a. Testes do not develop in the absence of testosterone. b. Testosterone stimulates development of the paramesonephric duct. c. The mesonephric duct degenerates in the absence of testosterone. d. The presence of m,llerian inhibitory factor is required for development of the uterus.

242. a. b. c. d. 243. a. b. c. d. 244. a. b. c. d. 245. a. b. c. d. 246. a. b. c. d. 247. a. b. c. d. 248. a. b. c. d. 249. a. b. c. d. 250. a. b. c. d. 251. a. b. c. d. 252. a. b.

Inhibin Is only secreted by the Sertoli cells. Specifically inhibits the secretion of FSH. Specifically inhibits the secretion of gnrh. Specifically inhibits the secretion of LH. During prepubertal development Androgens are required for the development of axillary hair in both males and females. Androgens have no role in pubertal development in females. Estrogens stimulate the development of body hair. Growth hormone is necessary for growth of the larynx in males. In the male Aromatization of testosterone is required to prior to conversion to dihydrotestosterone. Testosterone is produced by the Sertoli cells. FSH is required for testosterone production. Androgens induce erythropoiesis. The Sertoli cells Are joined functionally by tight junctions. Synthesize and secrete testosterone. Are stimulated to secrete hormones by LH. All of the above. During spermatogenesis The secondary spermatocytes divide to form spermatids. The primary spermatocytes are haploid. LH is required indirectly. The secondary spermatocytes are diploid. Following a vasectomy Spermatogenesis ceases. The secondary sex characteristics regress. Semen volume is decreased. Sperm cells are not transported into the urethra. During the menstrual cycle The endometrial proliferative phase is characterized by high progesterone. Ovulation occurs on approximately day 14 of an "average" cycle. Follicles are developing during the endometrial secretory phase. Menstruation is stimulated by elevated progesterone concentrations. The ovulatory surge of LH is stimulated by Removal of progesterone negative feedback. Increased secretion of FSH. Estradiol positive feedback. Decreased secretion of gnrh. Which of the following is true concerning fertilization? Capacitation occurs after the sperm cells penetrate the zona pellucida. The acrosome contains enzymes necessary for penetration of the zona pellucida. The second meiotic division occurs after the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte. Fertilization occurs in the uterus. Following fertilization The blastocyst begins to undergo nidation on day six. The inner cell mass secretes the hcg necessary to maintain pregnancy. The morula arises from the blastocyst. The placenta forms from the uterine endometrium. The placenta Has a relatively low metabolic rate. Facilitates the mixing of fetal and maternal blood.




c. Produces the majority of the constituents of the amniotic fluid. d. Secretes a hormone that stimulates glucose sparing by maternal tissues. Steroid hormone synthesis by the placenta a. Is a complete process. b. Requires fetal participation. c. Produces the same hormones secreted by the adult. d. Does not require cholesterol form the maternal blood. Which of the following are not required for the initiation of uterine contractions? a. Estradiol b. Prostaglandin E2. c. Prostaglandin F2. d. Oxytocin. Sucking stimulates a. Increased oxytocin secretion from the anterior pituitary. b. Decreased prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary. c. Milk production and ejection. d. Increased fertility.

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