081 082 - Principles of Flight [2220 Q]

JAA Test Prep 081+082 - Principles Of Flight Edition 2008 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 1 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 2625 (A) 2630 (D) 3848 (C) 3890 (D) 4189 (D) 4199 (C) 4200 (B) 4202 (D) 4204 (A) 4213 (B) 4225 (B) 4237 (D) 4252 (B) 4254 (A) 7644 (C) 7650 (B) 2625. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the: A) angle of incidence. B) glide path angle. C) angle of attack. D) climb path angle. 2630. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct? A) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases. B) At constant Mach number the IAS increases. C) At constant IAS the TAS decreases. D) At constant IAS the Mach number increases. 3848. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Maintaining thickness / chord ratio but changing to a supercritical wing section will: A) lead to more prominent shockwave formation. B) make lateral stability more critical. C) give the aircraft an increased range. D) reduce the aft shift of CP in the transonic range. 3890. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The point about which the wing pitching moment is independent of angle of attack is called: A) the pitching center. B) the center of gravity. C) the center of pressure. D) the aerodynamic center. 4189. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The unit of density is: A) bar B) psi C) kg/cm2 D) kg/m3 4199. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between: A) the undisturbed airflow and the chordline. B) the local airflow and the mean camberline. C) the local airflow and the chordline. D) the undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline. 4200. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The term angle of attack is defined as: A) the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force. B) the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind. C) the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis.

D) the angle between the wing and tailplane incidence. 4202. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Wing loading is: A) the ratio of lift to wing weight. B) the ratio of wing area to wing weight. C) the ratio of lift to aircraft weight. D) the ratio of aircraft weight to wing area. 4204. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a constant IAS, induced drag is affected by: A) aircraft weight. B) changes in thrust. C) angle between chord line and longitudinal axis. D) wing location. 4213. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on EAS as height is increased when you are holding a constant IAS? A) EAS remains the same. B) EAS falls. C) EAS rises. D) The effect depends on the temperature. 4225. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a constant CAS when flying below sea level an aircraft will have: A) a higher TAS than at sea level. B) a lower TAS than at sea level at ISA conditions. C) the same TAS as at sea level. D) the same TAS, but an increased IAS. 4237. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The units of wing loading (i) W/S and (ii) dynamic pressure q are: A) (i) N/m3; (ii) kg/m2 B) (i) kg/m; (ii) N/m2 C) (i) N/m; (ii) kg D) (i) N/m2, (ii) N/m2 4252. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the MAC of a wing? A) Area of wing divided by the span. B) The same as the mean chord of a rectangular wing of the same span. C) The mean chord of the whole aeroplane. D) The 25% chord of a swept wing. 4254. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The units of the density of the air (i) and the force (ii) are: A) (i) kg/m3; (ii) N. B) (i) kg/m; (ii) kg. C) (i) N/m3; (ii) N. D) (i) N/kg; (ii) kg. 7644. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil section at CL = 0 will produce? A) A negative (nose down) pitching moment. B) A positive (nose up) pitching moment. C) Zero pitching moment. D) No aerodynamic force. 7650. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The CP on a swept wing aircraft will move forward due to: A) boundary layer fences and spanwise flow. B) tip stall of the wing. C) flow separation at the root due to spanwise flow. D) change in wing angle of incidence. 081-01-01 Basics, laws and definitions

081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 2 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7658 (A) 7680 (D) 7689 (D) 7691 (D) 7694 (A) 7700 (D) 7705 (A) 7707 (D) 7708 (B) 7715 (D) 7718 (B) 7723 (D) 7724 (A) 7731 (C) 7658. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The airfoil chord is: A) a straight line from the wing leading edge to the trailing edge. B) a line equidistant from the upper and lower wing surfaces. C) a line tangential to the wing surface at the point of maximum curvature. D) a line drawn at 15% chord from the root to the tip. 7680. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What happens to total drag when accelerating from CLmax to maximum speed? A) Increases. B) Increases then decreases. C) Decreases. D) Decreases then increases. 7689. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared to a wing at sea level at 200 kts TAS, a wing at 40.000 ft at 400 kts TAS and the same angle of attack will have: A) 1,4 times the lift. B) twice the lift. C) four times the lift. D) the same lift. 7691. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as: A) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio. B) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon. C) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing. D) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow. 7694. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the correct description of the method for measuring the dihedral angle? A) The angle between the wing plane and the horizontal. B) The angle between a line which passes through the 25% wing chord and the horizontal axis. C) The angle between the 25% chord line and the horizontal axis. D) The angle between 25% chord and the lateral axis. 7700. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow inside is: A) sonic. B) not changing. C) increasing. D) decreasing. 7705. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What phenomena causes induced drag? A) Wing tip vortices. B) Wing tanks.

C) The increased pressure at the leading edge. D) The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above. 7707. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a stream tube, if density is halved, drag will be reduced by a factor of: A) 8 B) 4 C) 6 D) 2 7708. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The following unit of measurement kgm/s2 is expressed in the SI unites as: A) Pascal B) Newton C) Joule D) Watt 7715. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The (subsonic) static pressure: A) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases. B) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure. C) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero. D) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases. 7718. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the speed that would activate the stick shaker: A) 1,5 VS B) 1,05 VS C) 1,2 VS D) above VS 7723. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the IAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would the drag increase? A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16 7724. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about the CL and angle of attack? A) For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, CL =0. B) For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, CL is not equal to 0. C) For an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, CL =0. D) For an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, CL = 0. 7731. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What are the correct SI units for density and force? A) Kg/N, Nm3. B) N/m3, kg. C) Kg/m3, Newtons. D) Kg/m3, kg. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 3 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7738 (C) 7746 (B) 7751 (C) 7752 (C) 7761 (B) 7766 (A) 7775 (C) 7780 (C) 7793 (D) 7799 (C) 7803 (B) 7808 (B) 7812 (B) 7817 (B) 7821 (C) 7833 (B) 7738. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

When the undercarriage is lowered in flight: A) form drag will increase and the aircrafts nose down pitching moment will be unchanged. B) induced drag will increase and the aircrafts nose down pitching moment will increase. C) form drag will increase and the aircrafts nose down pitching moment will increase. D) induced drag will decrease and the aircrafts nose down pitching moment will increase. 7746. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a given CAS an aircraft flying below sea level will have: A) the same TAS as at sea level. B) a lower TAS than at sea level. C) a higher TAS than at sea level. D) the same TAS as at sea level but an increased IAS. 7751. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following expressions could represent the relationship between force, mass and acceleration: A) a = m / F B) m = F x a C) F = m x a D) a = F x m 7752. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil. This definition is applicable for: A) the mean aerodynamic chord line. B) the chord line. C) the camber line. D) the upper camber line. 7761. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What causes deep stall in a swept back wing? A) CP moves aft. B) CP moves forward. C) Root stall. D) Spanwise flow from tip to root on wing upper surface. 7766. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s2? A) Newton B) Psi C) Joule D) Watt 7775. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How is the thickness of an aerofoil section measured? A) As the ratio of wing angle. B) Related to camber. C) As the percentage of chord. D) In metres. 7780. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the airplane is known as the angle of: A) attack. B) relative wind. C) incidence. D) dihedral. 7793. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the CL and CD ratio at normal angles of attack? A) CL higher. B) CD higher.

C) The same. D) CL much higher. 7799. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In subsonic flight, which is correct for VMD? A) Parasite drag greater than induced drag. B) CL and CD are minimum. C) Best glide range achieved. D) Best endurance speed for a piston engine. 7803. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration, compared to flaps up is: A) greater. B) smaller. C) unchanged. D) smaller or greater, depending on CG position. 7808. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aspect ratio of the wing: A) is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord. B) is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord. C) is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span. D) is the ratio between chord and root chord. 7812. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Drag is acting in the direction of ___ . Lift is perpendicular to the ___: A) chord line; chord line B) relative wind (airflow); relative wind (airflow) C) horizon; horizon D) longitudinal axis; longitudinal axis 7817. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Bernoullis theorem states: A) dynamic pressure increase and static pressure increase. B) dynamic pressure increase and static pressure decrease. C) dynamic pressure is maximum at stagnation point. D) zero pressure at zero dynamic pressure. 7821. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an airfoil the center of pressure will be most forward: A) at the optimum angle. B) at the stalling angle. C) just below the stalling angle. D) just above the stalling angle. 7833. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The true airspeed (TAS) is: A) higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. B) lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level. C) equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level. D) lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 4 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7835 (A) 7836 (D) 7839 (B) 7846 (D) 7854 (B) 7873 (A) 7887 (D) 7895 (C) 7898 (A) 7909 (D) 7919 (C) 7925 (D) 7938 (C) 7945 (D) 7835. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What does parasite drag vary with? A) Square of the speed.

B) CLmax. C) Speed. D) Surface area. 7836. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What effect on stall speed do the following have? A) Increased anhedral increases stall speed. B) Fitting a T tail will reduce stall speed. C) Increasing sweepback decreases stall speed. D) Decreasing sweep angle decreases stall speed. 7839. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Bernoullis equation can be written as (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure): A) pt = ps - q B) pt - q = ps C) pt + ps = q D) pt = q - ps 7846. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a symmetrical airfoil the mean camber line is? A) A line joining points of mean camber along the wing. B) A line joining points of maximum camber along the wing. C) A curve co-incident with the top surface of the airfoil. D) A straight line co-incident with the chord line. 7854. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift is a function of: A) velocity, density, wing shape and lift coefficient. B) velocity, wing area, CL and density. C) velocity, wing shape, wing area and CL. D) velocity, density, gross wing area and CD. 7873. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when CL=0 is: A) negative (pitch-down). B) equal to zero. C) infinite. D) positive (pitch-up). 7887. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube changes? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow: A) the density depends on the change of the tube area. B) rho1 < rho2. C) rho1 > rho2. D) rho1 = rho2. 7895. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is: A) climb path angle. B) glide path angle. C) angle of attack. D) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis. 7898. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements are correct? A) Drag acts in the same direction as the relative airflow and lift perpendicular to it. B) Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lift. C) Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and lift acts perpendicular to the chord. D) Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel

in a rearwards direction. 7909. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is V. An increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will: A) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow. B) increase the mass flow. C) not affect the mass flow. D) decrease the mass flow. 7919. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Static pressure acts: A) parallel to airflow. B) parallel to dynamic pressure. C) in all directions. D) downwards. 7925. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As subsonic air flows through a convergent duct, static pressure ___ and velocity ___. A) increases; decreases B) increases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) decreases; increases 7938. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dihedral of the wing is: A) the angle between the 0,25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis. B) the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis. C) the angle between the 0,25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis. D) the angle between the 0,25 chord line of the wing and the horizon. 7945. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli s theorem is correct? A) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point. B) The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases. C) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero. D) The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 5 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7952 (A) 7966 (A) 15607 (B) 15609 (D) 15610 (C) 15613 (D) 15695 (D) 15697 (A) 15705 (A) 15736 (D) 15737 (B) 15738 (B) 15739 (B) 15750 (A) 15757 (C) 7952. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be: A) 4 feet B) 10 feet C) 7,5 feet D) 2,5 feet 7966. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which CL=0 is: A) zero.

B) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack. C) positive (pitch-up). D) negative (pitch-down). 15607. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the: A) botto surface and the chord line. B) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow. C) bottom surface and the Horizontal. D) bottom surface and the relative airflow. 15609. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)? A) M = F x a B) A = F x m C) F = m / a D) F = m x a 15610. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The static pressure is acting: A) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow. B) only in the direction of the total pressure. C) in all directions. D) only in direction of the flow. 15613. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The CL-alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the CL-alpha graph: A) in the origin. B) below the origin. C) nowhere. D) above the origin. 15695. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-02) An A310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its flight Mach range between low-speed buffering and high-speed buffering goes from: A) M = 0,72 to M higher than 0,84. B) M = 0,65 to M higher than 0,84. C) M = 0,74 to M = 0,84. D) M = 0,69 to M higher than 0,84. 15697. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements about the lift to drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct? A) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest. B) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero. C) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases. D) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to, the aircraft weight. 15705. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The correct drag formula is: A) d = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S B) d = CD 2 RHO V2 S C) d = CD 1/2 RHO V S D) d = CD 1/2 1/RHO V2 S 15736. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: A) the vortices, are weak. B) the velocity is constant.

C) the temperature varies constantly. D) no velocity components exist normal to the surface. 15737. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The total pressure is: A) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream. B) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure. C) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure. D) 1 rho V2. 15738. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section: A) vary linearly with the angle of attack. B) depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section. C) are normal to each other at just one angle of attack. D) are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack. 15739. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: A) degrees cross section tail angle. B) % chord. C) camber. D) meters. 15750. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any platform is: A) the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift. B) the chord of a large rectangular wing. C) the average chord of the actual aeroplane. D) the wing area divided by the wing span. 15757. (AIR: atpl, cpl) High aspect ratio, as compared with low aspect ratio, has the effect of: A) increasing lift and drag. B) increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack. C) decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack. D) increasing lift and critical angle of attack. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 6 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15760 (B) 15766 (B) 15775 (A) 16653 (C) 16659 (B) 16661 (B) 16669 (C) 16671 (C) 21017 (C) 21037 (D) 21039 (D) 21077 (D) 21081 (C) 21111 (D) 15760. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the unit of measurement for power? A) N/m B) N m/s C) kg m/s2 D) Pa/m2 15766. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the: A) horizon. B) relative wind/airflow. C) chord line. D) longitudinal axis. 15775. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local profile lift coefficient at the wingroot? A) Rectangular. B) Elliptical. C) Tapered. D) Positive angle of sweep. 16653. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft in level flight, if the wing center of pressure is aft of the center of gravity and there is no thrust/drag couple, the tailplane load must be: A) upward. B) unknown-insufficient information has been provided. C) downward. D) zero. 16659. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Load factor is the actual lift supported by the wings at any given time: A) divided by the surface aera of the wing. B) divided by the total weight af the aircraft. C) subtracted from the aircraft s total weight. D) divided by the aircrafts empty weight. 16661. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In straight and level flight the center of pressure is behind the center of gravity. With the resultant force from the elevators and tailplane action to maintain straight and level flight, the force would be action: A) upward. B) downward. C) horizontally. D) in a direction depending on the thrust/drag couple. 16669. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The service ceiling of an aircraft is: A) the altitude where rate of climb is zero. B) the highest sltitude permitted tor flight because of manoeuvre capability. C) the altitude where a low specific rate of climb is achieved. D) the altitude above which crusing speed cannot be maintained. 16671. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the weight an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift/drag ratio will: A) decrease. B) increase. C) not be affected. D) increase although the aircraft will have to be flown more slowly. 21017. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aerofoil is cambered when: A) the upper surface of the aerofoil is curved. B) the chord line is curved. C) the line, which connects the centers of all inscribed circles, is curved. D) the maximum thickness is large compared with the length of the chord. 21037. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Bernoulli s equation is: (note: rho is density; Pstat is static pressure; Pdyn is dynamic pressure; Ptot is total pressure) A) Ptot + 1rho * TAS2 = constant B) Pstat + 1rho * IAS2 = constant C) Pdyn + 1rho * IAS2 = constant

D) Pstat + 1rho * TAS2 = constant 21039. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Consider the steady flow through a stream tube where the velocity of the stream is V. An increase in temperature of the flow at a constant value of V will: A) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow. B) increase the mass flow. C) not affect the mass flow. D) decrease the mass flow. 21077. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the aspect ratio of a wing increases whilst all other relevant factors remain constant, the critical angle of attack will: A) remain constant only for a wing consisting of symmetrical aerofoils. B) increase. C) remain constant. D) decrease. 21081. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur: Ps = static pressure Pdyn = dynamic pressure Ptot = total pressure A) Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases. B) Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant. C) Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant. D) Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases. 21111. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the: A) bottom surface and the chord line. B) bottom surface and the horizontal. C) bottom surface and the relative airflow. D) chord line and the relative airflow. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 7 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21116 (C) 21129 (C) 21130 (B) 21133 (A) 21165 (B) 21170 (A) 23200 (B) 23201 (C) 23202 (B) 23204 (A) 23205 (C) 23206 (C) 23208 (A) 23209 (C) 21116. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The difference between IAS and TAS will: A) increase with increasing air density. B) increase with decreasing temperature. C) decrease with decreasing altitude. D) decrease with increasing speed. 21129. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The SI unit of measurement for pressure is: A) lb/gal B) kg/m3 C) N/m2 D) bar/dm2 21130. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The SI units of air density (i) and force (ii) are: A) (i) kg/m2; (ii) kg. B) (i) kg/m3; (ii) N. C) (i) N/m2; (ii) N.

D) (i) N/kg; (ii) kg. 21133. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The unit of measurement for density is: A) kg/m3 B) psi C) kg/cm2 D) bar 21165. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which definition of propeller parameters is correct? A) Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis. B) Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance a propeller blade element would travel in a forward direction during one revolution. C) Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane. D) Critical tip velocity is the propeller speed at which flow separation first occurs at some part of the blade. 21170. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a subsonic airflow are correct? 1) The dynamic pressures in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal. 2) The total pressures in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal. A) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. B) 1 and 2 are correct. C) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. D) 1 and 2 are incorrect. 23200. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dynamic pressure is: A) the total pressure at a point where the moving air stream is bought to rest. B) the amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving air stream is brought to rest. C) the pressure due to the weight of the atmosphere in still air. D) the pressure change caused by heating when a moving air stream is brought to rest. 23201. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The input connections to an air speed indicator are from: A) a static source only. B) a pitot source only. C) both pitot and static sources. D) pitot and static sources and outside air temperature sensor. 23202. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The mean camber line of an aerofoil section is: A) a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge. B) a line from the leading to the trailing edge equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces. C) the profile of the upper surface of an aerofoil section. D) an arc of circle from the leading edge to the trailing edge. 23204. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a cambered aerofoil which of the following statements is correct: A) it will give lift at small negative angles of attack. B) at negative angles of attack it will produce negative lift only. C) it will give lift at positive angles of attack only. D) it will give negative lift at small positive angles of attack.

23205. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The dynamic pressure is equal to: A) the density x speed squared. B) half the density x speed. C) half the density x speed squared. D) half the speed x density squared. 23206. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As air flows into the converging section of a venture: A) static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow decreases. B) static pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass flow is constant. C) static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant. D) static pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass flow decreases. 23208. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To obtain TAS, the EAS must be corrected for: A) relative density only. B) relative density and compressibility. C) position error and compressibility. D) position error and relative density. 23209. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The chord line of an aerofoil is: A) a line from wing tip to wing tip. B) a line from the leading edge to trailing edge equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces. C) a straight line joining the center of curvature of the leading and trailing edges. D) a horizontal line tangential to the wing surface. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 8 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23210 (B) 23213 (D) 23227 (C) 23228 (A) 23239 (A) 23241 (A) 23242 (C) 23248 (C) 23249 (C) 23250 (C) 23253 (B) 23256 (C) 23272 (A) 23275 (A) 23276 (C) 23210. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The thickness to chord ratio of an aerofoil is: A) the ratio of wing thickness at the root to the thickness at the tip. B) the ratio of the maximum thickness of an aerofoil section to its chord. C) the ratio of the wing span to the mean chord. D) the ratio of the thickness at the quarter chord point to the chord. 23213. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil at zero degree angle of attack will, in level flight produce: A) most of its lift on the lower surface. B) most of its lift on the upper surface. C) the same amount of lift on the upper and lower surfaces. D) zero lift. 23227. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aspect ratio is: A) the ratio of the mean chord to the maximum wing thickness. B) the ratio of the wingspan to the square of the mean chord. C) the ratio of the wingspan to the mean chord. D) the ratio of the wingspan to the wing area. 23228. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: A) will be unchanged, but ground speed will be faster. B) will be higher, but ground speed will be unchanged. C) should be increased to compensate for the thinner air. D) to maintain the required dynamic pressure the indicated airspeed should be increased. 23239. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Effective angle of attack is the: A) angle between the chord line and the mean direction of a non-uniform disturbed air stream. B) angle between the relative airflow and the chord line. C) angle between the chord line and the fuselage horizontal datum. D) angle between the fuselage horizontal datum and the chord line of the horizontal stabiliser. 23241. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the speed of an aircraft is 100 miles per hour, its speed in knots would be: A) 87 kts B) 115 kts C) 70 kts D) 65 kts 23242. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In ISA the air temperature is considered to be: A) -56,5 °C at 26.090 ft. B) -56,5 °F at 36.500 ft. C) -56,5 °C at 36.090 ft. D) 56,5 °C at 36.090 ft. 23248. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Taper ratio is the ratio of: A) the root thickness to the root chord. B) the span to the root chord. C) the root chord to the tip chord. D) the span to the mean chord. 23249. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing has a span of 64 m and an area of 525 square metres. The mean chord is: A) 7,8 m B) 0,12 m C) 8,2 m D) 3,4 m 23250. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing would be said to be swept back if: A) the wing tips were lower than the wing roots. B) the tip chord was less than the root chord. C) the quarter chord line was inclined backwards from the lateral axis. D) the tip incidence was less than the root incidence. 23253. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a given TAS, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag? A) Lift will increase but drag will decrease. B) Lift and drag will increase. C) Lift and drag will decrease. D) Lift will decrease and drag will increase. 23256. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing with a high thickness to chord ratio would be suitable for: A) an aircraft with a high wing loading.

B) an aircraft intended to operate at high speed. C) an aircraft intended to operate at low speed. D) an aircraft designed to operate at extremely high altitudes. 23272. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A moment is: A) the product of a force and the distance through which it acts. The distance in the moment is merely a leverage and no movement is involved. B) the product of a force and the distance through which it moves. C) the product of the application of a force. D) the vector quantity of a lever. 23275. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a constant TAS the dynamic pressure: A) will be greater at sea level than at high altitude. B) will be less at sea level than at high altitude. C) will be the same at sea level as at high altitude. D) will be greater at altitude than at sea level. 23276. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The position error of an ASI results from: A) mechanical differences in individual instruments. B) the difference in air density from sea level ISA density. C) the effects of the airflow around the static vent and pitot head. D) the fact that air becomes more compressible at high speeds. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 9 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23277 (A) 23281 (A) 23282 (B) 23285 (C) 23287 (A) 23289 (B) 23300 (C) 23310 (B) 23312 (D) 23313 (C) 23314 (D) 23316 (A) 23340 (C) 23350 (B) 23532 (B) 23277. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The CAS is the ASI reading corrected for: A) position and instrument error. B) position, instrument and compressibility error. C) compressibility and density error. D) position, instrument, compressibility and density error. 23281. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing has a span of 30 m and an area of 300 square metres. The aspect ratio is: A) 3:1 B) 10:1 C) 30:1 D) 9:1 23282. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing is said to be tapered if: A) it is inclined upwards from root to tip. B) the chord at the wing tip is less than the chord at the root. C) the incidence at the tip is less than at the root. D) the camber is increased at the wing tip. 23285. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The most correct list of factors that affect the lift produced by an aerofoil are: A) angle of attack, air density, velocity, wing area. B) angle of attack, air temperature, velocity, wing area. C) angle of attack, velocity, wing area, aerofoil section, air density. D) incidence, TAS, wing plan, leading edge radius and

thrust. 23287. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing has a mean chord of 6 metres and a span of 30 metres. The aspect ratio is: A) 5 to 1. B) 30 to 1. C) 180 to 1. D) 6 to 1. 23289. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift of a wing is increased by: A) an increase in the temperature of the atmosphere. B) an increase in the pressure of the atmosphere. C) an increase in the humidity of the atmosphere. D) a decrease in the density of the atmosphere at a constant TAS. 23300. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A swept wing: A) produces more lift at a given angle of attack than an equivalent straight wing. B) reaches the critical angle of attack before an equivalent straight wing. C) produces less lift at a given angle of attack than an equivalent straight. D) produces zero lift at zero angle of attack. 23310. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To convert knots into miles per hour: A) multiply the knots by 0,87. B) divide the knots by 0,87. C) multiply the knots by 0,87 and divide by the relative density. D) divide the knots by 8,7. 23312. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic center is the point on the chord line where: A) drag acts. B) the sum of all aerodynamic forces act. C) the geometric center of the wing is located. D) the pitching moment remains constant throughout changes in angle of attack within the normal range. 23313. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The nose up or nose down orientation of an aircraft relative to the horizon is known as: A) the angle of attack. B) the angle of incidence. C) the attitude of the aircraft. D) the angle between the relative airflow and the chord line of the wing. 23314. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Airflow, the product of the aircraft moving forwards, parallel to and in the opposite direction to the flight path, its pressure, temperature and relative velocity unaffected by the presence of the aircraft: A) is known as static pressure. B) is known as dynamic pressure. C) is known as total pressure. D) is known as relative airflow. 23316. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If TAS is kept constant, to maintain straight and level flight with reduced air density the angle of attack of an aircraft s wings must be:

A) increased. B) decreased. C) unaltered. D) increased to the critical angle of attack. 23340. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The density of air may be measured in: A) kg / square metre. B) millibars. C) kg / cubic metre. D) newton s per cubic metre. 23350. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Density of the atmosphere will: A) increase with rising humidity. B) decrease with rising humidity. C) remain unaffected by changes in humidity. D) decrease with reduced humidity. 23532. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If air is assumed to be incompressible, this means: A) there will be no change in pressure when the speed of the airflow is changed. B) there will be no change of density due to change of pressure. C) the density will only change with speed at supersonic speed. D) pressure changes will only occur at very high speeds. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 10 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23579 (A) 23599 (D) 23662 (B) 23734 (B) 24075 (B) 24077 (D) 24464 (B) 26373 (A) 26374 (B) 26375 (D) 26389 (B) 26390 (D) 26391 (D) 26392 (D) 26393 (A) 23579. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A line from the center of curvature of the leading edge to the trailing edge, equidistant from the top and bottom wing surface is: A) camber line. B) upper camber line. C) mean chord. D) mean aerodynamic chord. 23599. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the SI unit for density? A) m/V2 B) kg/cm2 C) kg/m D) kg/m3 23662. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the SI unit for power? A) N/m B) Nm/s C) Pa/s2 D) Kg/m/s2 23734. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What wing produces most of its lift at the root? A) Swept B) Rectangular C) Elliptical D) Tapered 24075. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic center is: A) the point where the CG meets the lateral axis.

B) the point where all changes in the magnitude of the lift force effectively take place. C) situated at about 50% chord. D) always to the rear of the neutral point. 24077. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In the equation of continuity relating to low velocity air, what is the effect on density with a change in area? A) Area increases / density decreases. B) Area decreases / density decreases. C) Area increases / density increases. D) Area increases or decreases / no significant change in density. 24464. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following wing planforms will be least affected by turbulence? A) Straight, high aspect ratio. B) Swept, low aspect ratio. C) Straight, moderate aspect ratio. D) Swept, high aspect ratio. 26373. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The forces acting on a symmetrical aerofoil element when the upstream airflow is parallel to the chordline is: A) only drag. B) only lift. C) zero. D) lift and drag are at a ratio 2/3. 26374. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Thickness / chord ratio of an aerofoil section is expressed in percentage of: A) thickness. B) chord. C) blade surface. D) wingspan. 26375. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The chord line of an aerofoil section is the line: A) the tangent at the leading edge of the camber line. B) of points equidistants from upper and lower surfaces. C) relative to the upstream airflow. D) drawn between the leading and the trailing edges. 26389. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The Centre of Pressure, is the point on an aerofoil section: A) where the total weight of the a/c is said to act. B) where the total reaction is said to act. C) where the airflow separates from the aerofoil section. D) where maximum velocity of the airflow occurs. 26390. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The force, which acts at right angles to the relative airflow, is: A) thrust. B) total reaction. C) drag. D) lift. 26391. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The point at which the resultant of lift forces acts is: A) the hub. B) the center of gravity. C) the moment arm. D) the center of pressure. 26392. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift is produced by:

A) airflow velocity increasing downward having been deflected by the blade pitch angle and creating an upward pressure on the blade. B) an increase in flow velocity on the lower surface and decrease on the upper surface. C) an increase in flow velocity giving an increase in pressure on the lower surface. D) airflow velocity increasing over top surface giving decreased pressure and velocity decreasing over lower surface giving increased pressure. 26393. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Bernoulli s theorem indicates that: A) the sum of pressure energy and dynamic energy is constant. B) when dynamic energy increases, pressure energy increases. C) pressure energy decreases as velocity decreases. D) dynamic energy decreases as velocity increases. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 11 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26394 (B) 26395 (A) 26397 (D) 26767 (A) 26792 (A) 26793 (A) 26794 (A) 26795 (D) 26796 (C) 26797 (C) 26819 (A) 26820 (B) 26821 (B) 26823 (B) 26824 (B) 26394. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The point where a laminar boundary layer becomes turbulent is called: A) the separation point. B) the transition point. C) the critical point. D) the deflection point. 26395. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The expression In a streamlined flow of fluid, the sum of all energies is a constant derives from: A) Bernoulli s theorem. B) Newton s first law of motion. C) Reynold s number. D) the conservation of mass flow. 26397. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Within the normal operating angles of attack the center of pressure of a biconvex symmetrical aerofoil section: A) moves nearer the trailing edge. B) moves nearer the leading edge. C) needs to be offset from the cg line of the rotor blade for control purposes. D) moves very little. 26767. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lateral axis is also called the: A) pitch axis. B) normal axis. C) roll axis. D) horizontal axis. 26792. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Bernoulli s theorem states that in a perfect and constant airstream: A) the sum of static and dynamic pressure is constant. B) the dynamic pressure is equal to the static pressure. C) the dynamic pressure is always greater than the static pressure. D) the sum of dynamic pressure kind total pressure is constant. 26793. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

If temperature in a gas is kept constant and pressure increases, the density: A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant. D) has no effect. 26794. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The wing area divided by the span of a wing is called: A) mean cord. B) fineness ratio. C) wash out. D) aspect ratio. 26795. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil and equidistant at all points from the upper and lower contours is called the A) chord line. B) mean chord line. C) mean curvature line. D) mean camber line. 26796. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the A) wingspan to the wing root. B) square of the chord to the wingspan. C) square of the wing span to the wing area. D) wing spat to the main comprekion. 26797. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of the wing is part of the: A) induced drag. B) form drag. C) parasite drag. D) interference drag. 26819. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of: A) attack. B) lift. C) incidence. D) longitudinal dihedral. 26820. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As it applies to airfoils. which statement is in agreement with Bernoulli s principle? A) The speed of a fluid increases at points where the static pressure of the fluid increases. B) The static pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. C) The static pressure of a fluid increases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. D) The static pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speedof the fluid decreases. 26821. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If pressure is kept constant and temperature increases, the density: A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant. D) has no effect. 26823. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If density is kept constant, the dynamic pressure increases

proportionally with: A) velocity. B) the square of the velocity. C) the static pressure. D) inversely with the square of the velocity. 26824. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If velocity and angle of attack is kept constant and density decreases, the lift: A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant. D) has no effect. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 12 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26830 (A) 26832 (B) 26978 (B) 26987 (A) 26988 (A) 26995 (C) 26998 (B) 26999 (B) 27008 (A) 27016 (B) 4208 (B) 4270 (B) 4278 (A) 7648 (C) 7679 (C) 7684 (D) 26830. (AIR: atpl, cpl) You are flying near sea level with a true air speed of 200 knots. You then climb to 10.000 feet and keep the same true speed. The drag and IAS: A) are both smaller. B) are both higher. C) both remain the same. D) drag is same and IAS is higher. 26832. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does pressure affect lift: A) lift increases when pressure decreases. B) lift decreases with decreasing pressure. C) lift is not influenced by pressure. D) lift is only influenced by speed. 26978. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared to a cambered airfoil, the zero lift angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is: A) lower. B) higher. C) the same. D) depending on airspeed. 26987. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If you want to maintain a constant TAS during a climb, you should during the climb: A) reduce to a lower IAS. B) maintain a stable IAS. C) increas the IAS. D) increase AOA. 26988. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Under what circumstances is TAS equivalent to GS? A) No wind. B) Temperature below 15 °C and headwind. C) Temperature above 15 °C and headwind. D) Always equal. 26995. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One feature of a wing is the Mean Chord which is the: A) wing area divided by the root chord. B) wing area divided by the tip chord. C) wing area divided by the span. D) line equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces. 26998. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Dynamic pressure is expressed as: A) (p/2)*V B) (p/2)*V*2 C) q*CI*s D) q*s*CD 26999. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The movement of an aircraft is defined along three axes which all pass through: A) the center of pressure. B) the center of gravity. C) the intersection of the centerlines of the fuselage and wings. D) the intersection of the normal vertical datum. 27008. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing has a fineness ratio which is the ratio of: A) thickness to the chord. B) the span to the chord. C) the tip chord to the root chord. D) the quarter chord to the root chord. 27016. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When lookingat the airflow over the wing, from the wingsurface and up, the air is: A) caused to tend to flow from root to tip over a straight wing. B) accelerated to the transition point. C) decelerated to the transition point. D) accelerated to the separation point. 081-01-02 The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil 4208. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When Fowler flaps are deployed? A) Only the area increases. B) They move backwards then downwards. C) They move downwards then backwards. D) They move forwards. 4270. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move ___ and the point of lowest pressure will move ___. A) up; aft B) down; forward C) down; aft D) up; forward 4278. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur? A) Upper side. B) Lower side. C) In front of the stagnation point. D) In the stagnation point. 7648. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the greatest factor causing lift? A) Increased airflow velocity below the wing. B) Increased pressure below wing. C) Suction above the wing. D) Decreased airflow velocity above the wing. 7679. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a cambered airfoil the zero lift angle of attack will be: A) dependent on the wing aspect ratio. B) positive. C) negative.

D) zero. 7684. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the purpose of a slat on the leading edge? A) Decelerate the air over the top surface. B) Thicken the laminar boundary layer over the top surface. C) Increase the camber of the wing. D) Allow greater angle of attack. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 13 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7686 (B) 7737 (D) 7742 (A) 7809 (D) 7862 (D) 7901 (C) 7905 (A) 7911 (C) 7927 (A) 7929 (B) 7961 (B) 15608 (A) 15720 (B) 16677 (D) 7686. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines converge the static pressure will: A) increase initially, then decrease. B) decrease. C) increase. D) not change. 7737. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is true regarding deployment of slats / Krueger flaps? A) Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not. B) Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, slats do not. C) Krueger flaps form a slot, slats do not. D) Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not. 7742. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Subsonic flow over a cambered airfoil at 4° angle of attack will cause: A) an increase in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and a rise in pressure over the lower surface. B) a decrease in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface. C) an increase in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface. D) a decrease in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface. 7809. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Cambered wing sections give ___ maximum CL at a relatively ___ angles of attack. A) high; high B) low; high C) low; low D) high; low 7862. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At zero angle of attack in flight, a symmetrical wing section will produce: A) some lift and drag. B) zero lift with some induced and profile drag. C) zero lift and drag. D) zero lift with some drag. 7901. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Which of the following is the most effective type of flap system? A) Slotted B) Split C) Fowler D) Plain 7905. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift force, acting on an aerofoil: A) is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil. B) increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40°. C) is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil. D) is maximum at an angle of attack of 2°. 7911. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift is generated when: A) an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream. B) the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered. C) a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards. D) a certain mass of air is retarded. 7927. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the center of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane): A) move forward. B) move aft. C) remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic center. D) remain unaffected. 7929. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: A) the CG location. B) the center of pressure. C) the point of maximum thickness of the wing. D) the suction point of the wing. 7961. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) The center of pressure is the point on the wings leading edge where the airflow splits up. B) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wings profile moves downwards. C) The stagnation point is another name for center of pressure. D) The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the center of pressure is not. 15608. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure will ___ and the velocity will ___. A) decrease; increase B) increase; increase C) increase; decrease D) decrease; decrease 15720. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the: A) point of lowest pressure. B) stagnation point. C) center of pressure. D) center of gravity. 16677. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft pitches up, the angle of attack of the tailplane will:

A) B) C) D)

remain the same. depend sotely upon the rigger s angle of incidence. decrease. increase.

081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 14 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 20881 (B) 20882 (B) 21009 (A) 21040 (D) 21076 (C) 21093 (B) 21123 (A) 21128 (C) 21151 (B) 21186 (C) 23203 (D) 23211 (D) 23212 (A) 23214 (D) 20881. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-08) Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag? A) Body D. B) Body C. C) Body A. D) Body B. 20882. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-10) How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V? A) V1 > V2 and V2 < V B) V1 = 0 and V2 > V C) V1 < V2 and V2 < V D) V1 = 0 and V2 = V 21009. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will produce: A) both lift and drag. B) lift but no drag. C) drag but no lift. D) neither lift nor drag. 21040. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Considering a positively cambered aerofoil section, the pitching moment when the lift coefficient CL=0 is: A) positive (nose up). B) equal to zero. C) maximum. D) negative (nose down). 21076. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static pressure in the flow will: A) not change. B) increase. C) decrease. D) increase initially, then decrease. 21093. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift is generated when: A) a certain mass of air is accelerated in its flow direction. B) the flow direction of a certain mass of air is changed. C) a symmetrical aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream at zero angle of attack. D) a certain mass of air is retarded. 21123. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The location of the center of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section at increasing angle of attack will: A) shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack.

B) not shift. C) shift aft until approaching the critical angle of attack.. D) shift in spanwise direction. 21128. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The point, where the single resultant aerodynamic force acts on an aerofoil, is called: A) neutral point. B) center of gravity. C) center of pressure. D) aerodynamic center. 21151. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the stagnation point? A) The intersection of the total aerodynamic force and the chord line. B) The point where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero. C) The intersection of the thrust vector and the chord line. D) The point, relative to which the sumtotal of all moments is independent of angle of attack. 21186. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack of a positively cambered aerofoil has a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero. 2) There is a nose down pitching moment about a positively cambered aerofoil when the lift coefficient equals zero. A) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct. B) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is correct; 2 is correct. D) 1 is incorrect; 2 is incorrect. 23203. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil set at zero angle of attack in an air stream will produce: A) lift and drag. B) no lift and no drag. C) lift but no drag. D) drag but no lift. 23211. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The center of pressure of an aerofoil is: A) the point where the pressure on the upper surface of the wing is lowest. B) the center of gravity of the aerofoil. C) the point where the pressure on the lower surface of the wing is highest. D) the point on the chord line where the resultant lift force acts. 23212. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased slightly, the CP will: A) move forward slightly. B) move forward to the leading edge. C) move rearward. D) remain stationary. 23214. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared to the relative airflow, air on top of a wing: A) static pressure increases, velocity decreases. B) static pressure increases, velocity increases. C) static pressure decreases, velocity decreases. D) static pressure decreases, velocity increases. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS

15 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23215 (C) 23216 (D) 23217 (C) 23231 (C) 23245 (D) 23251 (A) 23278 (B) 23279 (B) 23341 (C) 23342 (C) 23351 (B) 23400 (A) 23467 (B) 23215. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Due to the span wise pressure gradient, on an unswept wing at a low angle of attack, producing lift, the airflow: A) on the upper surface tends to flow towards the tip, on the lower surface towards the root. B) on both upper and lower surfaces tends to flow towards the tip. C) on the upper surface tends to flow towards the root, on the lower surface towards the tip. D) on both upper and lower surfaces tends to flow equally towards the root. 23216. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft in level flight at the optimum angle of attack, the lift will be: A) slightly less than drag. B) approximately equal to the drag. C) about 2 to 3 times greater than the drag. D) about 10 to 20 times greater than the drag. 23217. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a typical wing the optimum angle of attack is approximately: A) -3° B) 0° C) 4° D) 15° 23231. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During flight with zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a wing would be: A) greater than atmospheric pressure. B) equal to atmospheric pressure. C) less than atmospheric pressure. D) always above MCRIT. 23245. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Of the total lift produced by the wing: A) the lower surface produces the greater proportion. B) the upper and lower surfaces always give equal proportions of the lift. C) the upper surface produces the greater proportion at high speed, but the lower surface produces the greater proportion at low speed. D) the upper surface produces the greater proportion at all speeds. 23251. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For aircraft of the same weight, flying at the same IAS the angle of attack will be: A) the same at altitude as at sea level. B) greater at altitude than at sea level because the TAS is greater. C) less at altitude than at sea level because the TAS is greater. D) less at altitude than at sea level because the density is less. 23278. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Between approximately 8° and 15° angle of attack an aerofoil produces lift due to: A) an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a decrease in pressure and a decrease in the

speed of the airflow past the under surface giving a decrease in pressure. B) an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the under surface giving an increase in pressure. C) a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the under surface giving an increase in pressure. D) a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the lower surface giving an increase in pressure and a decrease in pressure over the upper surface causing an increase in velocity. 23279. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As the air flows over the upper surface of a wing: A) its speed increases and total pressure decreases. B) its speed increases and static pressure decreases. C) its speed decreases and static pressure decreases. D) its speed increases and dynamic pressure decreases. 23341. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircrafts: A) lift / drag ratio. B) lifting capacity. C) aerodynamic balance and controllability. D) drag. 23342. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At positive angles of attack, a wing produces most lift at: A) 4° angle of attack. B) wings level. C) just before the stall. D) just after the stall. 23351. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If speed is increased in level flight the CP will: A) move forward. B) move rearward. C) remain stationary. D) coincide with the aerodynamic center. 23400. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the CG is ahead of the wing CP and there is no thrust/drag couple, for level flight: A) the wing lift must be greater than the weight. B) the wing lift must be less than the weight. C) the wing lift must be exactly equal to weight. D) the aircraft could not be balanced. 23467. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft in steady level flight, if the tail plane is producing a download, the CP of the wing must be: A) forward of the CG. B) aft of the CG. C) coincident with the CG. D) coincident with the AC. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 16 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23533 (D) 23585 (D) 23653 (C) 23720 (A) 24539 (C) 26774 (C) 26826 (C) 2627 (A) 7682 (B) 7709 (C) 7714 (A) 7755 (B) 7826 (A) 7834 (C) 23533. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

A symmetrical aerofoil section of a wing is set at zero AOA will produce: A) most of the lift on the upper surface. B) most of the lift on the lower surface. C) depends on the aircraft s speed. D) zero lift. 23585. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following creates lift? A) A slightly cambered aerofoil. B) An aerofoil in a high speed flow. C) Air accelerated upwards. D) Air accelerated downwards. 23653. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Where does airflow separation begin? A) Upper surface / towards the leading edge. B) Lower surface / towards the trailing edge. C) Upper surface / towards the trailing edge. D) Lower surface / towards the leading edge. 23720. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Consider a positively cambered aerofoil section, the pitching moment when CL = 0 will be: A) negative B) infinite C) positive D) equal to zero 24539. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a cambered airfoil, as the angle of attack increases from zero to about ten degrees, the CP: A) moves back and then forward. B) remains in the same place. C) moves forward and then remains in the same place. D) moves back and then remains in the same place. 26774. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lift is generated when: A) an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream. B) the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered. C) a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards. D) a certain mass of air is retarded. 26826. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a wing controls the: A) amount of airflow. B) point at which the center of gravity is located. C) distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing. D) angle of incidence of the wing. 081-01-03 The coefficients 2627. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be: A) x 0,25 B) x 2,0 C) x 0,5 D) x 4,0 7682. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor: A) 4 B) 2 C) 8

D) 1,4 7709. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerofoil polar is: A) the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed. B) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack. C) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient. D) a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord. 7714. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes: (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects) A) the TAS at the higher altitude is higher. B) the TAS at both altitudes is the same. C) the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determined. D) the TAS at the higher altitude is lower. 7755. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The terms q and S in the lift formula are: A) square root of surface and wing loading. B) dynamic pressure and the area of the wing. C) static pressure and wing surface area. D) static pressure and dynamic pressure. 7826. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on: A) the airstream velocity. B) the specific mass of the body. C) the weight of the body. D) the CG location of the body. 7834. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: A) 8 B) 4 C) 16 D) 12 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 17 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7867 (A) 7902 (A) 7920 (A) 7934 (C) 7949 (D) 20885 (B) 21021 (C) 21035 (C) 21086 (C) 21166 (D) 21178 (A) 23255 (B) 23299 (C) 23352 (D) 7867. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering an angle of attack versus coefficient of lift graph for a cambered aerofoil, where does the lift curve intersect the vertical CL axis? A) Above the origin. B) Below the origin. C) At the point of origin. D) To the left of the origin. 7902. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack: A) CL is much greater than CD.

B) CL has approximately the same value as CD. C) CL is lower than CD. D) CL is much lower than CD. 7920. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift formula is: A) L = CL 1/2 RHO V2 S B) L = W C) L = CL 2 RHO V2 S D) L = n W 7934. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant): A) the drag decreases. B) this has no effect. C) the drag increases. D) the drag is only affected by the ground speed. 7949. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: A) 1,5 B) 9 C) 6 D) 3 20885. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift to drag ratio provides directly the: A) distance for climb up to a certain altitude. B) glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind. C) glide distance from a given altitude. D) distance for horizontal flight. 21021. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane flies in straight and level flight with a lift coefficient CL=1. What will be the new value of CL after the speed has doubled, whilst still maintaining the original condition of flight? A) 1,00 B) 0,50 C) 0,25 D) 2,00 21035. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Assuming zero wing twist, the wing planform that gives the highest local lift coefficient at the wing root is: A) tapered. B) elliptical. C) rectangular. D) swept back. 21086. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In straight and level flight at a speed of 1,3 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum (CLmax), would be: A) 169% B) 130% C) 59% D) 77% 21166. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following parameters can be read from the parabolic polar diagram of an aeroplane? A) The aspect ratio of the wing and the induced drag coefficient.

B) The minimum rate of descent and the induced drag. C) The induced drag and the parasite drag. D) The minimum glide angle and the parasite drag coefficient. 21178. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct regarding CL (lift coefficient) and alpha (angle of attack)? A) For a symmetrical aerofoil section, if the alpha is zero, CL is zero. B) For a symmetrical aerofoil section, if the alpha is zero, CL is not zero. C) For an asymmetrical aerofoil section, if the alphais zero, CL is zero. D) For an asymmetrical aerofoil section with positive camber, if alpha is greater than zero, CL is zero. 23255. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a given angle of attack the lift/drag ratio: A) decreases with increase of density. B) is unaffected by density changes. C) increases with increase of density. D) decreases with decrease of density. 23299. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The takeoff distance required for a swept wing aircraft compared to the same aircraft without sweep would be: A) less because the acceleration would be better. B) the same because the takeoff speed will be the same. C) greater, because CL will be less for a given IAS. D) less because the takeoff speed will be lower. 23352. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the weight of the aircraft is increased, the maximum lift / drag ratio will: A) decrease. B) increase. C) remain the same and occur at the same speed. D) remain the same but occur at a higher speed. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 18 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23600 (B) 23635 (C) 23672 (C) 23695 (A) 24559 (A) 26386 (A) 26771 (A) 26976 (A) 26990 (A) 27010 (A) 27033 (A) 4192 (C) 4227 (A) 4233 (B) 23600. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is the coefficient for minimum glide angle? A) (CL/CD) min B) (CL/CD) max C) CL2/CD D) CL3/CD2 23635. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What do S and q represent in the lift equation? A) Static pressure and chord. B) Wing span and dynamic pressure. C) Wing area and dynamic pressure. D) Wing area and static pressure. 23672. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering the coefficient of lift and angle of attack of aerofoil sections: A) a symmetric section at zero angle of attack will produce a small positive coefficient of lift. B) an asymmetric section at zero angle of attack will produce

zero coefficient of lift. C) a symmetric section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient of lift. D) aerofoil section symmetry has no effect on lift coefficient. 23695. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Considering the lift to drag ratio, in straight and level flight which of the following is correct? A) L/D is maximum at the speed for minimum total drag. B) L/D decreases with increasing lift. C) L/D is maximum when lift equals weight. D) L/D is maximum when lift equals zero. 24559. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following formula is correct for JAR-25? A) VA = VS1g x .CNmax B) VS1g = VA x.CNmax C) VA = VS1g x .n2 D) VA = VS1g x n 26386. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift coefficient of an aerofoil section: A) increases with an increase in angle of attack up to the stall. B) is at its maximum value at that angle of attack giving the maximum lift to drag ratio. C) changes with density. D) changes with the velocity of the airflow, squared. 26771. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The LID ratio in flight will be at its highest value at: A) the optimum angle of attack. B) the stalling angle. C) a point just below the stalling angle. D) an angle of attack between 5° and 8°. 26976. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What changes in angle of attack must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being increased? A) Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing lift. B) Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag. C) Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag. D) Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack. 26990. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What changes in aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased? A) Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift. B) Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag. C) Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag. D) Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack. 27010. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to remain in level balanced flight: A) the wing lift must be greater than weight, if the tailplane is giving a download for balance. B) the wing lift has to be less than weight, if the tailplane is giving a download for balance. C) the wing lift must be equal to weight.

D) the wing lift must be less than weight at all times. 27033. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Wing tip vortices have the highest intensity during: A) takeoff B) cruise C) high speed D) turns 081-01-04 The three-dimensional airflow about an aeroplane 4192. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag is created by the: A) separation of the boundary layer over the wing. B) interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage. C) spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices. D) propeller wash blowing across the wing. 4227. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes the airflow that causes wing tip vortices? A) From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom surface over the wing tip. B) From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom surface over the trailing edge. C) From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on the bottom surface over the trailing edge. D) From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on the bottom surface over the wing tip. 4233. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag may be reduced by: A) an increase in the taper ratio of the wing. B) an increase in aspect ratio. C) a decrease of the aspect ratio. D) the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 19 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4249 (B) 4258 (A) 7669 (B) 7701 (C) 7712 (B) 7733 (C) 7829 (B) 7858 (A) 7876 (A) 7904 (B) 7913 (A) 7939 (A) 7946 (B) 7969 (B) 4249. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of: A) CL2 and S (wing surface). B) CL2 and AR (aspect ratio). C) CL and CD. D) CL and b (wing span). 4258. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The induced drag: A) increases as the lift coefficient increases. B) increases as the aspect ratio increases. C) has no relation to the lift coefficient. D) increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases. 7669. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant) A) Rectangular. B) Elliptical. C) Tapered. D) Circular. 7701. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With flaps deployed, at a constant IAS in straight and level

flight, the magnitude of tip vortices: A) increases. B) increases or decreases depending upon the initial angle of attack. C) decreases. D) remains the same. 7712. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The wake vortices behind a large aircraft begin on takeoff ___ and end on landing ___. A) at V2; in the flare B) on rotation; as the nosewheel goes down C) at V1; when lift dump is selected D) at 80 kts; on touchdown 7733. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag? A) Wing root junction. B) Engine cowling. C) Wing tip. D) Landing gear. 7829. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct? A) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators. B) The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction. C) The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction. D) The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack. 7858. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: A) CL2. B) CL. C) square root (CL). D) CLmax. 7876. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: A) a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag. B) there is no relationship. C) induced drag = 1,3 aspect ratio value. D) an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag. 7904. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: A) engine thrust. B) aeroplane weight. C) aeroplane wing location. D) angle between wing chord and fuselage center line. 7913. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a given angle of attack, a swept wing will: A) have a lower lift coefficient than an equivalent straight one. B) have the same lift coefficient as an equivalent straight one. C) have reduced lateral stability than an equivalent straight one.

D) have the same lateral stability as an equivalent straight one. 7939. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A function of vortex generators in the transonic regime is to: A) reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves form. B) prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing stalls. C) reduce wing root compression effects. D) increase directional static stability. 7946. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from: A) the top to beneath the wing via the wings trailing edge. B) beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip. C) beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge. D) the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge. 7969. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How do vortex generators work? A) Re-direct spanwise flow. B) Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer. C) Reduce kinetic energy to delay separation. D) Reduce the adverse pressure gradient. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 20 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15614 (C) 15707 (C) 15708 (C) 15721 (B) 15751 (D) 15763 (B) 15778 (A) 20877 (B) 21019 (A) 21024 (D) 21031 (C) 21092 (C) 21096 (A) 21119 (B) 15614. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Low speed pitch up is caused by the: A) wing tip vortex. B) mach trim system. C) spanwise flow on a swept back wing. D) spanwise flow on a swept forward wing. 15707. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kts to 160 kts at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors: A) (i) 1/2; (ii) 1/16. B) (i) 1; (ii) 1/2. C) (i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4. D) (i) 1/4 (ii) 2. 15708. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplanes wing on induced drag? A) It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag. B) It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash. C) It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced. D) It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area. 15721. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:

A) tendency to increase speed after initial stall. B) nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response. C) nose down tendency. D) increase sensitivity of elevator inputs. 15751. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed changes? A) Induced drag increases with decreasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing weight. B) Induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing weight. C) Induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag decreases with increasing weight. D) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced drag decreases with decreasing weight. 15763. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Winglets: A) create an elliptical lift distribution. B) decrease the induced drag. C) decrease the static lateral stability. D) increase the manoeuvrability. 15778. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The induced angle of attack is the result of: A) downwash due to tip vortices. B) a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow. C) downwash due to flow separation. D) change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack. 20877. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Some aeroplanes have a waist or coke bottle contoured fuselage. This is done to: A) improve the low speed characteristics. B) apply area rule. C) increase the strength of the wing root junction. D) fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage. 21019. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight and level flight whilst maintaining constant indicated airspeed. The: A) lift doubles. B) induced drag doubles. C) lift becomes four times its original value. D) total drag becomes four times its original value. 21024. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The point on the wing, where the instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is known as the: A) neutral point. B) center of thrust. C) center of gravity. D) aerodynamic center of the wing. 21031. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a horizontal co-ordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the: A) lift increases by a factor of 4. B) angle of attack increases by a factor of 1/4. C) induced drag increases by a factor of 4. D) total drag increases by a factor of 4.

21092. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Interference drag is the result of: A) separation of the induced vortex. B) downwash behind the wing. C) aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage). D) the addition of induced and parasite drag. 21096. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Minimum drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight occurs at the: A) maximum CL-CD ratio. B) minimum speed. C) minimum CD value. D) minimum angle of attack. 21119. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of the wing downwash on the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is: A) negligible. B) negative. C) positive. D) smallest at high values of the lift coefficient. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 21 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21131 (A) 21148 (C) 21173 (B) 21179 (D) 23207 (C) 23220 (D) 23221 (A) 23224 (C) 23225 (C) 23232 (B) 23237 (C) 23238 (A) 23246 (A) 23247 (C) 21131. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The span-wise flow on an unswept wing is from the: A) lower to the upper surface via the wing tip. B) upper surface via the trailing edge to the lower wing surface. C) lower surface via the trailing edge to the upper wing surface. D) upper surface via the leading edge to the lower wing surface. 21148. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on induced drag of an increase in aspect ratio? A) Induced drag increases, because the effect of tip vortices increases. B) Induced drag increases, because a larger aspect ratio increases the frontal area. C) Induced drag decreases, because the effect of tip vortices decreases. D) Induced drag decreases, because a larger aspect ratio causes more downwash. 21173. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement concerning the local flow pattern around a wing is correct? A) Slat extension, at a constant angle of attack and nomal extension speeds, will increase the lift coefficient, which will also increase the induced drag coefficient. B) By fitting winglets to the wing tip, the strength of the wing tip vortices is reduced which in turn reduces induced drag. C) Sweepback reduces drag since, compared with a straight wing of equal area, the span increases. D) Vortex generators on the wing partially block the spanwise flow over the wing leading to a reduction in induced drag. 21179. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) Tip vortices and induced drag decrease with increasing

angle of attack. B) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators. C) The flows on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing are both in wing tip direction. D) The flow on the upper surface of the wing has a component in wing root direction. 23207. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The calibration for the ASI is based on density: A) at the normal cruising altitude. B) at the tropopause. C) at sea level, ISA temperature. D) at sea level, ISA +15 °C. 23220. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft flying at a constant IAS: A) the drag will be less at altitude than at sea level because the TAS is lower. B) the drag will be less at altitude than at sea level because density is lower. C) the drag will be greater at altitude than at sea level because TAS is higher. D) the drag will be the same at altitude as at sea level. 23221. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft in level flight, induced drag: A) would be less if the aspect ratio was increased. B) would be greater if the aspect ratio was increased. C) would be less if the weight was increased. D) would be independent of aspect ratio. 23224. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To fly at a given IAS, the thrust required at altitude: A) will be less than at sea level. B) will be the same as at sea level and will be given by the same throttle position. C) will be the same as at sea level, but will require the throttle to be advanced. D) will be greater than at sea level. 23225. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft at an IAS of 150 kts at sea level, then flies at 10.000 ft, the drag will: A) be greater at sea level than at 10.000 ft. B) be greater at 10.000 ft than at sea level. C) be the same. D) depends on the angle of incidence. 23232. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag of an aircraft would be increased with: A) increased speed. B) increased weight. C) increased aspect ratio. D) decreased angle of attack. 23237. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A swept wing compared to the same wing without sweep will give: A) the same lift at a given angle of attack but a lower CL max. B) more lift at a given angle of attack. C) less lift at a given angle of attack. D) the same lift at a given angle of attack and a higher CL max. 23238. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To maintain the same aircraft speed, a swept wing compared to the same wing without sweep will require: A) a higher angle of attack. B) a lower angle of attack.

C) the same angle of attack. D) the same angle of incidence. 23246. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aerofoil which is producing lift will have: A) upwash ahead of the wing and downwash behind it. B) upwash ahead of the wing but no deflection of the airflow behind it. C) no deflection of the airflow ahead of the wing but downwash behind it. D) no deflection of the airflow either ahead or behind the aerofoil. 23247. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Downwash is: A) the decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip of the wing. B) the higher speed airspeed behind the propeller. C) the downward deflection of the airflow behind the wing. D) the downward slope of a wing from root to tip. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 22 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23252 (C) 23258 (B) 23260 (C) 23284 (A) 23292 (B) 23294 (C) 23303 (B) 23304 (C) 23323 (B) 23324 (C) 23325 (D) 23353 (A) 23356 (A) 23381 (C) 23252. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A) Higher than recommended airspeed before rotation. B) Lower than standard air density. C) Increased headwind component. D) Increased TAS. 23258. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Skin friction drag resulting from a laminar boundary layer will be: A) more than from a turbulent boundary layer. B) less than from a turbulent boundary layer. C) the same as from a turbulent boundary layer. D) unmeasurable. 23260. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If speed is reduced from 300 kts to 150 kts the form drag will be: A) double B) half C) a quarter D) a third 23284. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does increased weight affect the takeoff distance of an aeroplane? A) The aeroplane will accelerate more slowly with the same takeoff power output, and a higher airspeed is required to generate the necessary lift for takeoff. B) Every aeroplane has the same acceleration factor with the same power output, but a higher airspeed is needed to overcome the increased ground effect. C) The aeroplane will accelerate more slowly with the same power output, but the same airspeed is required to generate necessary lift for takeoff. D) The aeroplane will accelerate more slowly with a greater power output, and a decreased airspeed is required to generate necessary lift for takeoff.

23292. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a high wing aircraft, when the undercarriage is lowered: A) a nose up pitch moment will occur. B) a nose down pitch moment will occur. C) the CP will move aft. D) the CG will move aft. 23294. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the minimum drag speed (VMD): A) is the same but occurs at a higher angle of attack. B) is the same and occurs at the same angle of attack. C) is increased. D) is decreased. 23303. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a rectangular wing at constant speed and angle of attack, induced drag: A) will be uniform across the wing span. B) will be greatest at the wing tip. C) will be greatest at the wing root. D) will be greatest at the inboard end of the wing root. 23304. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The change in downwash along a wing without taper: A) reduces damping in roll. B) reduces the adverse yaw effect in roll. C) causes the stall to occur at the root first. D) increases the load factor at the wing tip. 23323. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The principal cause of hazardous conditions associated with the wake turbulence of large aeroplanes is the: A) high speeds at which large aircraft operate. B) vortices generated at the wing tips. C) propeller or jet wash. D) laminar flow aerofoil. 23324. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Vortex wake behind large aircraft: A) stays at ground level. B) gradually descends to ground level. C) gradually descends to a lower level. D) gradually ascends to a higher level. 23325. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a takeoff made behind a departing large aircraft, the pilot can minimise the hazard of wake turbulence by: A) extend the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet s rotation point. B) maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climb out. C) remaining below the jet s flight path until able to turn clear of its wake. D) being airborne prior to reaching the jet s rotation point and climbing above its flight path. 23353. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag is greatest: A) at the wing tip. B) at the wing root. C) at high speeds. D) at low angles of attack. 23356. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increased downwash from the wing: A) reduces the effective angle of attack of the tail plane. B) increases the effective angle of attack of the tail plane. C) reduces the effective angle of attack of the tail plane if it

has a positive camber, and increases the effective angle of attack of the tail plane if it has a negative camber. D) does not affect the effective angle of attack of the tail plane. 23381. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An accumulation of frost on an aircraft s wing will result in: A) a decrease in lift and drag. B) an increase in lift and a decrease in drag. C) a decrease in lift and an increase in drag. D) an increase in lift and drag. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 23 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23535 (D) 23536 (B) 23547 (C) 23602 (C) 23639 (C) 23701 (A) 24067 (C) 24483 (A) 24537 (A) 26770 (B) 26787 (A) 26789 (B) 26790 (B) 26791 (A) 26798 (B) 23535. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following would occur if an aircraft in level flight maintaining a constant TAS, flew into an area of lower pressure? A) Total drag decrease. B) Parasite drag decrease. C) Lift increase. D) Induced drag increase. 23536. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The minimum drag speed (TAS): A) remains constant with increasing aircraft weight. B) increases with increasing altitude. C) decreases with increasing altitude. D) reduces with increasing aircraft weight. 23547. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS: A) decreases because drag increases and thrust decreases. B) increases because drag decreases and thrust is constant. C) decreases because thrust decreases and drag is constant. D) increases because drag decreases and thrust increases. 23602. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results in airflow from: A) bottom to top around the trailing edge. B) top to bottom around the trailing edge. C) bottom to top around the wingtip. D) top to bottom around the wingtip. 23639. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the correct definition of aspect ratio? A) Span divided by tip chord. B) Chord divided by span. C) Span divided by mean chord. D) Chord divided by span, measured at the 25% chord position. 23701. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the cause of induced angle of attack? A) Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips. B) Change in flow from effective angle of attack. C) The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips. D) Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow

meets the tail plane. 24067. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Parasite drag is linearly proportional to: A) speed. B) angle of attack. C) speed2. D) weight. 24483. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an untapered wing of constant section: A) induced downwash is maximum at the wing tip. B) induced downwash increases from tip to root. C) the separation point is constant throughout the span. D) induced downwash is constant over all the span. 24537. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft flying at 150 kts EAS at 10.000 ft compared to the same aircraft flying at the same EAS at sea level will have: A) the same angle of attack. B) a smaller angle of attack. C) a larger angle of attack. D) a lower TAS. 26770. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the danger when recovering from an emergency descent? A) Engine stall. B) Structural damage. C) Directional stability. D) The landing gear may collapse. 26787. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A high aspect ratio wing produces: A) a decrease in induced drag. B) less sensitivity to gust effects. C) a decrease in stall speed. D) an increase in induced drag. 26789. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which ratio is defined as the aspect ratio of a wing? A) Ratio between wing span and gross wing area. B) Ratio between span and mean chord. C) Ratio between the span and the square of the gross wing area. D) Ratio between the square of the span and the mean chord. 26790. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag on a wing is: A) a product of lift and is always greatest at the wing root. B) greatest at the wing tip. C) a product of lift and skin friction and is greatest at the wing tip. D) a product of skin friction, profile and interference drag. 26791. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The characteristics of a high aspect ratio wing are: A) short chord, long span. B) long span, long chord. C) long chord, short span. D) short chord, short span. 26798. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When are wing tip vortex created? A) When the aeroplane starts. B) When the wing produces lift. C) Only in aeroplanes with a shortwing span.

D) When the aeroplane lands. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 24 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26800 (A) 26801 (B) 26813 (C) 26968 (C) 26982 (C) 26991 (B) 26994 (D) 27005 (B) 27014 (B) 4104 (B) 4163 (C) 4195 (C) 4196 (C) 4205 (B) 26800. (AIR: atpl, cpl) That portion of the aircraft total drag created by the production of lift is called: A) induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. B) parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. C) induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed. D) profile drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed. 26801. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a constant velocity airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with low aspect ratio wing): A) increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack. B) decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack. C) decreased drag, especially at a low angle of attack. D) decreased performance when climbing. 26813. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and airspeed? A) If you double the airspeed you double the induced drag. B) If you double the airspeed the induced drag is halved. C) If you double the airspeed the induced drag-is reduced to 1/4. D) If you double the airspeed theipareite drag is doubled. 26968. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An increase in angle of attack (below the stalling angle of attack) increases lift because: A) induced drag is reduced. B) the vertical component of weight is reduced. C) the lift coefficient increases. D) the impact pressure of the air on the lower surface of the airfoil creates less posotive pressure. 26982. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Geometric washout means that: A) there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it clean. B) the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root. C) the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root. D) the horizontal tail has less angle of attack than the wing. 26991. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A cambered airfoil with zero angle of attack, will in flight produce: A) no lift but some drag. B) some lift and some drag. C) some lift with no drag. D) no lift and no drag. 26994. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The construction feature of a wing called wash out is: A) an increase in the angle of incidence from root to tip. B) an increase of camber from root to tip. C) a decrease of camber from root to tip. D) a decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip. 27005. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared to a high aspect ratio wing a low aspect ratio wing will produce:

A) less induced drag and have a higher stalling angle. B) more induced drag and have a higher stalling angle. C) more induced drag and have the same stalling angle. D) more induced drag and have a reduced stalling angle. 27014. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At the tip of the wing in level flight, the air flows: A) from the upper surface to the lower surface. B) from the lower surface to the upper surface and then down at the trailing edge. C) from the lower surface to the upper surface and then diverges away from the fuselage. D) to produce induced drag at its lowest value. 081-01-05 The total drag 4104. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-04) Which point on the whole aeroplane polar diagram will give minimum sink rate? A) Point A. B) Point C. C) Point B. D) Point D. 4163. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-04) Which point in the diagram gives the best glide condition? A) Point C. B) Point A. C) Point B. D) Point D. 4195. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-06) Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane? A) Line B. B) Line A. C) Line C. D) Line D. 4196. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following decreases induced drag? A) Wing fences. B) Anhedral. C) Winglets. D) Low aspect ratio plan form. 4205. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices? A) Air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip. B) Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip. C) Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the left wing tip and from the top. surface to the bottom surface at the right wing tip. D) Spanwise flow vector from the tip to the root on the bottom surface of the wing. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 25 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4222 (B) 4223 (B) 4256 (A) 4257 (C) 4260 (A) 4262 (B) 7666 (A) 7671 (C) 7736 (C) 7776 (B) 7832 (D) 7840 (D) 7861 (C) 7922 (C) 12574 (C) 4222. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

(Refer to figure 081-05) The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows: A) the total drag. B) the induced drag. C) the lift force. D) the parasite drag. 4223. (AIR: atpl, cpl) High aspect ratio: A) reduces parasite drag. B) reduces induced drag. C) increases stalling speed. D) reduces manoeuverability. 4256. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At an aeroplanes minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and profile drag Dp (Di/Dp)? A) 1/1. B) It varies between aeroplane types. C) 2/1. D) 1/2. 4257. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Extending airbrakes during an approach will: A) increase induced drag. B) increase minimum drag speed (VDmin). C) reduce the minimum drag speed (VDmin). D) decrease profile drag. 4260. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight? A) Decreasing, then increasing. B) Decreasing. C) Increasing. D) Increasing, then decreasing. 4262. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the: A) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag. B) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag. C) induced drag is equal to zero. D) induced drag is lowest. 7666. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: A) decrease of CLmax and increase of drag. B) decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag. C) increase of CLmax and increase of drag. D) increase of CLmax and decrease of drag. 7671. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Induced drag is caused by: A) increased pressure at the leading edge stagnation point. B) wing mounted fuel tanks. C) wing tip vortices and downwash. D) winglets and washout. 7736. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a constant aircraft weight at constant IAS and in level flight: A) VIMD will increase with increased altitude. B) VIMD will constantly vary regardless of altitude. C) VIMD will remain the same regardless of altitude.

D) VIMD will reduce with increased altitude. 7776. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of: A) wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag. B) induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag. C) profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag. D) induced drag, form drag, interference drag and zero lift drag. 7832. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does aerodynamic drag vary when airspeed is doubled? By a factor of: A) 2 B) 1 C) 16 D) 4 7840. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As the speed of an aircraft at 20.000 ft increases, profile drag: A) decreases at first, then increases. B) decreases. C) increases at first, then decreases at MCRIT. D) increases as the square of the TAS. 7861. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In straight and level flight, which of the following would cause induced drag to vary linearly if weight is constant: A) 1/V B) V C) 1/V2 D) V2 7922. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft flying straight and level; if density halves, aerodynamic drag will: A) increase by a factor of four. B) increase by a factor of two. C) decrease by a factor of two. D) decrease by a factor of four. 12574. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-04) Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate? A) Point A. B) Point B. C) Point C. D) Point D. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 26 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15706 (C) 15712 (A) 15762 (B) 15764 (C) 20887 (C) 20889 (A) 21072 (A) 21091 (D) 23219 (A) 23226 (B) 23257 (A) 23259 (C) 23261 (B) 23290 (A) 23315 (C) 15706. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the: A) angle of attack. B) square of the angle of attack. C) square of the speed. D) speed. 15712. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Which of the following will reduce induced drag? A) Elliptical lift distribution. B) Low aspect ratio. C) Flying at high angles of attack. D) Extending the flaps. 15762. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS are constant): A) the drag is only affected by the ground speed. B) the drag increases. C) this has no effect. D) the drag decreases. 15764. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The interfecence drag is created as a result of: A) separation of the induced vortex. B) the addition of induced and parasite drag. C) interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage). D) downwash behind the wing. 20887. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-04) Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight? A) Point B. B) Point C. C) Point D. D) Point A. 20889. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In what way do (i) induced drag and (ii) parasite drag alter with increasing speed? A) (i) decreases; (i) increases B) (i) increases; (i) increases C) (i) decreases; (i) decreases D) (i) increases; (i) decreases 21072. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does the total drag change, in straight and level flight at constant mass, as speed is increased from the stall speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE or VMO)? A) Initially decreases, then increases. B) Decreases. C) Increases. D) Initially increases, then decreases. 21091. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant): A) drag increases across the whole speed range. B) none. C) drag decreases across the whole speed range. D) at speeds greater than the minimum drag speed, drag increases. 23219. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If landing gear is lowered: A) total drag increases and VMD decreases. B) total drag increases and VMD increases. C) total drag is the same and VMD increases. D) total drag increases and VMD is the same. 23226. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The minimum total drag of an aircraft in flight occurs: A) at the stalling speed. B) at the speed where parasite drag and induced drag are equal.

C) at the speed where induced drag is least. D) at the speed where parasite drag is least. 23257. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The purpose of streamlining is: A) to reduce form drag. B) to reduce induced drag. C) to increase lift. D) to reduce skin friction drag. 23259. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft in level flight, as indicated air speed increases: A) both parasite and induced drag increase. B) parasite drag decreases, induced drag increases. C) parasite drag increases, induced drag decreases. D) both parasite and induced drag decrease. 23261. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the weight of an aircraft is increased, for a constant speed: A) profile drag will increase; induced drag will remain the same. B) induced drag will increase; profile drag will remain the same. C) both profile drag and induced drag will remain the same. D) profile drag will increase, induced drag will decrease. 23290. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At high speed an aircraft will have: A) more profile drag than induced drag. B) more induced drag than profile drag. C) about the same profile drag as induced drag. D) only induced drag. 23315. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The drag of an aircraft will: A) increase with increase in air temperature. B) increase with decrease in air density. C) increase with increase in air pressure. D) decrease with an increase in stagnation pressure. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 27 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23317 (A) 23327 (B) 23329 (C) 23332 (A) 23609 (B) 24547 (D) 26384 (B) 26809 (D) 27004 (D) 27018 (D) 4211 (C) 4212 (B) 7675 (C) 7763 (B) 23317. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Both lift and drag of an aerofoil are: A) proportional to the square of the velocity of the relative airflow. B) proportional to increases and decreases in the velocity of the relative airflow. C) inversely proportional to the air density. D) inversely proportional to the area of the wing. 23327. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is required to cruise, maintaining VMD. As the weight decreases the IAS must be: A) decreased, and the angle of attack decreased. B) decreased, and the angle of attack remain constant. C) increased, and the angle of attack decreased. D) kept the same, and the angle of attack kept the same. 23329. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a ___ weight the maximum level flight speed will be ___ because of a change in ___ drag.

A) lower; less; parasite B) lower; less; induced C) higher; less; induced D) higher; less; parasite 23332. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft flying at a speed above VMD: A) a speed increase causes a drag increase which will cause a deceleration. B) a speed increase causes a drag decrease causing further acceleration. C) a speed increase causes a drag increase causing an acceleration. D) a speed decrease causes a drag increase causing a deceleration. 23609. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The speed for minimum sink rate is: A) faster than VMD. B) slower than VMD. C) VMD. D) not related to VMD. 24547. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft selects its undercarriage and flaps down in flight, its VIMD will ___ and if it maintained the clean configuration VIMD its speed stability would ___. A) increase; reduce B) increase; increase C) reduce; reduce D) reduce; increase 26384. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Parasite power: A) varies as drag2. B) is parasite drag x velocity. C) varies as velocity2. D) is always the largest % of total power required in straight level flight. 26809. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With increasing altitude the following occurs: A) the stalling angle increases for a given indicated airspeed. B) the stalling angle reduces for a given indicated airspeed. C) drag reduces for a given indicated airspeed. D) drag remains the same for a given indicated airspeed. 27004. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The speed in flight at which the power required is at a minimum, is: A) usually a constant at all altitudes. B) minimum drag speed VMD. C) above VMD. D) below VMD. 27018. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Balancing of the weight component along the flight path in a glide is achieved by: A) thrust and drag. B) lift. C) thrust. D) drag. 081-01-06 The ground effect 4211. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on induced drag on entering the ground effect? A) Induce drag increases, but profile drag decreases. B) Induced drag remains the same. C) Induced drag decreases.

D) Induced drag increases. 4212. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft enters ground effect: A) the total reaction vector is unaffected. B) the total reaction vector is inclined forwards, reducing drag. C) the total reaction vector is inclined rearwards, increasing drag. D) the total reaction vector is inclined forwards, increasing drag. 7675. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem? A) Deep stall. B) Hard landings. C) Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed. D) Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs. 7763. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Ground effect occurs: A) acts like a decrease in aspect ratio. B) is only effective up to 1 wing span from the ground. C) during the approach to landing. D) aids landing by increasing the induced drag. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 28 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7764 (C) 7777 (B) 7790 (B) 7827 (B) 7857 (A) 7863 (D) 7924 (D) 21153 (B) 23223 (A) 23318 (B) 23319 (C) 23320 (C) 23321 (B) 23322 (C) 23647 (C) 7764. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What will happen in ground effect? A) An increase in strength of the wing tip vortices. B) The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases. C) The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases. D) A significant increase in thrust required. 7777. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance: A) decreases. B) increases. C) does not change. D) increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended. 7790. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On entering ground effect, maintaining flight at the same speed: A) ground effect has no effect on power. B) less power is required. C) more power is required. D) lift decreases. 7827. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have: A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain the same. D) induced drag will increase, but profile drag will decrease. 7857. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If EAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would

profile drag increase? A) 16 B) 12 C) 8 D) 4 7863. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect: A) drag and lift are reduced. B) the effective angle of attack is decreased. C) the induced angle of attack is increased. D) the lift is increased and the drag is decreased. 7924. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur: A) at a speed approaching the stall. B) when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface. C) when a higher than normal angle of attack is used. D) when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface. 21153. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane enters ground effect: A) the effective angle of attack is decreased. B) the lift is increased and the drag is decreased. C) the induced angle of attack is increased. D) drag and lift are reduced. 23223. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of changes of aspect ratio on total drag will be: A) greatest at low speed. B) greatest at high speed. C) the same at all speeds. D) no effect at any speed. 23318. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect? A) Wingtip vortices increase, creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft. B) Induced drag decreases, and any excess speed in the flare may cause floating. C) A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than when free of ground effect. D) Ground effect is due to a cushion of air generated by a landing aircraft when very close to the ground. 23319. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Floating caused by ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when: A) at a higher than normal angle of attack. B) at twice the length of the wing span above the surface. C) at less than the length of the wing span above the surface. D) at target threshold speed. 23320. (AIR: atpl, cpl) It is possible to fly an aircraft just clear of the ground at a slightly slower airspeed than that required to sustain level flight at higher altitudes. This is the result of: A) a cushioning effect of the air as it is trapped between the ground and the descending aircraft. B) ground interference with the static pressure system which produces false indications on the ASI. C) interference of the ground surface with the airflow patterns about the aircraft in flight. D) the ASI giving a false reading due to lower TAS at low

pressure altitudes. 23321. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane leaving ground effect will: A) experience a decrease in the thrust required. B) experience a decrease in stability and a nose up change in moments. C) require a lower angle of attack to attain the same lift coefficient. D) experience a decrease in induced drag. 23322. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane is usually affected by ground effect at what height above the surface? A) Twice the aeroplane s wing span above the surface. B) 3 to 4 times the aircraft s wing span. C) Less than half the aircraft s wing span above the surface. D) Only after the main wheels touch the ground. 23647. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft enters ground effect: A) the induced angle of attack increases. B) lift decreases and drag increases. C) lift increases and drag decreases. D) the aircraft will be partially supported on a cushion of air. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 29 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24069 (C) 26376 (D) 4188 (A) 7692 (B) 7869 (A) 7906 (A) 7921 (C) 7953 (C) 15740 (D) 20886 (A) 2628 (B) 2631 (C) 3834 (D) 4201 (D) 24069. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane is in ground effect: A) drag and lift are both increased. B) drag is increased, lift is decreased. C) drag is decreased, lift is increased. D) drag and lift. 26376. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The center of pressure of an aerofoil element: A) depends only on the boundary layer. B) is located in a fixed point in an asymmetric aerofoil. C) depends on the weight of the aerofoil element. D) is the point where the resultant aerodynamic force is applied. 081-01-07 The relation between the lift coefficient and the speed for constant l ift 4188. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In level flight an increase in angle of attack will cause: A) the stagnation point to move down and aft. B) the boundary layer to become thinner. C) a decrease in pitch angle. D) the center of pressure to move aft. 7692. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and level flight? A) Increase then decrease. B) Remain constant. C) Decrease. D) Increase. 7869. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If TAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level flight? A) 0,25

B) 0,5 C) 2,0 D) 4,0 7906. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be: A) reduced. B) increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases. C) kept constant. D) increased. 7921. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35.000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number? A) Increase then remain constant. B) Increase. C) Decrease. D) Increase then decrease. 7953. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1,3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be: A) 169% B) 130% C) 59% D) 77% 15740. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the: A) lift coefficient and the drag. B) stall speed. C) lift and the drag. D) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag. 20886. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) for minimum sink rate (VR/Dmin) and best glide angle (VBest glide) at a given altitude? A) VR/Dmin < VBest glide. B) VR/Dmin = VBest glide. C) VR/Dmin > VBest glide. D) VR/Dmin > VBest glide or VR/Dmin < VBest glide depending on the type of aeroplane. 081-01-08 The stall 2628. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stall speed increases, when? (all other factors of importance being constant) A) weight decreases. B) pulling out of a dive. C) spoilers are retracted. D) minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft. 2631. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The speed range between high and low speed buffet: A) decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number. B) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO. C) increases during a descent at a constant IAS. D) increases during climb. 3834. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude? A) It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects. B) It remains constant.

C) It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases. D) It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects. 4201. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When entering a stall, the CP of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii). A) (i) not move; (ii) not move B) (i) move aft; (ii) not move C) (i) move aft; (ii) move aft D) (i) move aft; (ii) move forward 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 30 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4209 (B) 4214 (D) 4224 (C) 4239 (D) 4243 (C) 4248 (A) 4274 (B) 7645 (A) 7656 (B) 7664 (C) 7681 (C) 7698 (A) 7699 (B) 7716 (B) 7727 (C) 4209. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft whose weight is 237.402 N stalls at 132 kts. At a weight of 356.103 N it would stall at: A) 88 kts B) 162 kts C) 108 kts D) 172 kts 4214. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer: A) separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer. B) friction drag will be equal in both types of layers. C) friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer. D) friction drag is lower in the laminar layer. 4224. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kts at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is: A) 70 kts B) 282 kts C) 141 kts D) 200 kts 4239. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch up phenomenon: A) is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings. B) never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up. C) is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices. D) is caused by wingtip stall. 4243. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which stall has the greatest angle of attack? A) Low speed stall. B) High speed stall (shock stall). C) Deep stall. D) Accelerated stall. 4248. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With increasing angle of attack the CP will reach its most forward point: A) just below the stalling angle. B) just above the stalling angle. C) at the stalling angle.

D) at various points dependent on aircraft weight. 4274. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates? A) Low speed stall. B) Accelerated stall. C) Shock stall. D) Deep stall. 7645. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the: A) stagnation point. B) center of lift. C) transition region. D) center of gravity. 7656. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kts in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1,5, the stalling speed is: A) 141 kts B) 122 kts C) 82 kts D) 150 kts 7664. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct? A) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed. B) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. C) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. D) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed. 7681. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include: A) pitch down and minor wing drop. B) pitch down and yaw. C) excessive wing drop and deep stall. D) pitch down and increase in speed. 7698. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stall speed in a turn is proportional to: A) the square root of the load factor. B) weight. C) lift. D) TAS squared. 7699. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the correct designation of stall speed in the landing configuration: A) VSL B) VS0 C) VS1 D) VS1g 7716. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the: A) aft movement of the center of gravity. B) wing tip stalling first. C) forward movement of the center of gravity.

D) wing root stalling first. 7727. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as: A) the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed. B) the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed. C) the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs. D) there is a nose-down attitude. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 31 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7728 (C) 7729 (A) 7732 (C) 7750 (B) 7759 (A) 7762 (D) 7768 (D) 7773 (C) 7774 (D) 7782 (C) 7800 (A) 7810 (B) 7814 (C) 7818 (A) 7823 (C) 7728. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the stall warning? A) VS1g + 15 kts B) 1,2 VS1g C) 1,05 VS1g D) 1,5 VS1g 7729. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-01) At an aircraft weight of 80.000 lb in 1G level flight at FL350 your low speed buffet boundary will be: A) 222 kts B) 200 kts C) 310 kts D) M 0,6 7732. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The input to a stick shaker comes from: A) the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed. B) the angle of incidence. C) angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack. D) the angle of attack only. 7750. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at: A) 1,2 VS B) 1,05 VS C) 1,5 VS D) VS 7759. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ___ and the stagnation point moves ___. A) decreases; rearward B) increases; rearward C) decreases; forward D) increases; forward 7762. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack? A) Low speed stall. B) Shock stall. C) Accelerated stall. D) Deep stall. 7768. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:

A) suction at the upper wing side. B) the normal shock wave at transonic speeds. C) a turbulent stream pattern around the wing. D) a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction. 7773. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface? A) No difference. B) Laminar boundary layer. C) Turbulent boundary layer. D) Transition boundary layer. 7774. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct? A) The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing. B) Buffeting is the result of flow separation on the tail plane. C) The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation. D) Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nosedown tendency. 7782. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At the point of stall: A) lift decreases, drag decreases. B) lift constant, drag increases. C) lift decreases, drag increases. D) lift decreases, drag constant. 7800. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During an erect spin recovery: A) the ailerons are held in the neutral position. B) the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank. C) the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank. D) the control stick is pulled to the most aft position. 7810. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed: A) increases with flap extension. B) increases with the square root of load factor. C) decreases with increasing bank angle. D) increases with the load factor squared. 7814. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about the spin is correct? A) In the spin, airspeed continuously increases. B) An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root. C) During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position. D) Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin. 7818. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will: A) improve the low speed characteristics. B) improve the high speed characteristics. C) increase the critical Mach number. D) improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap. 7823. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which combination of design features is known to be responsible

for deep stall: A) swept back wings and wing mounted engines. B) straight wings and a T-tail. C) swept back wings and a T-tail. D) straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 32 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7824 (C) 7841 (B) 7842 (B) 7848 (B) 7850 (D) 7855 (A) 7870 (A) 7878 (D) 7891 (C) 7897 (C) 7903 (C) 7914 (D) 7916 (A) 7824. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The standard procedure for recovery from a stall in a light single engine aircraft is: A) idle power; stick - roll neutral and forward. B) maximum power; stick - roll neutral and forward, correct for bank with stick. C) maximum power; stick - roll neutral and forward, correct for bank with rudder. D) idle power; stick neutral, wait for normal nose down tendency. 7841. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall? A) A canard wing. B) A T-tail. C) Swept wings. D) A low horizontal tail. 7842. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is stalling characteristics. At the stall: A) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment. B) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment. C) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment. D) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nosedown moment. 7848. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is: A) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick. B) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with rudder. C) idle power and stick roll-neutral nose-down and no other corrections. D) idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nosedown tendency. 7850. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The following factors increase stall speed: A) a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting. B) a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward CG shift. C) increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension. D) an increase in load factor, a forward CG shift, decrease in thrust. 7855. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kts, what will be the stall speed in a 1,5 g turn? A) 122 kts B) 150 kts

C) 81 kts D) 100 kts 7870. (AIR: atpl, cpl) By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45°? A) 19% B) 31% C) 41% D) 52% 7878. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stall speed: A) increases with the length of the wingspan. B) decreases with an increased weight. C) does not depend on weight. D) increases with an increased weight. 7891. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit: A) VS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged. B) VS is higher, the stalling angle is greater. C) VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged. D) VS is lower, the stalling angle is less. 7897. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: A) increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft CG location. B) decrease in a forward CG location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing. C) increase during turn, increased mass and forward CG location. D) increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in a turn. 7903. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data are: A: W=1.500 kg Bank=20° TAS=130 kts B: W=1.500 kg Bank=20° TAS=200 kts Which of the following statements is correct? A) The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B. B) The load factor A is larger than the load factor B. C) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B. D) The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B. 7914. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is: A) blocking of control surfaces. B) increase in weight. C) increase in drag. D) reduction in CLmax. 7916. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the standard stall recovery for a light aircraft? A) Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with rudder. B) Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with aileron. C) Pitch down, stick neutral, wait for neutral tendency. D) Pitch down, stick neutral roll, do not correct for bank. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 33 © 2008

AVIATIONEXAM.com 7926 (D) 7936 (C) 7941 (C) 7948 (D) 7964 (C) 15611 (D) 15718 (B) 15722 (A) 15742 (C) 15745 (D) 15746 (D) 15748 (B) 15752 (C) 15753 (A) 7926. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Entering the stall the center of pressure of a straight (i) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (ii). A) (i) move aft; (ii) not move B) (i) not move; (ii) not move C) (i) not move; (ii) move forward D) (i) move aft; (ii) move forward 7936. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall? A) T-tail. B) Swept forward wing. C) Swept back wing. D) Pod mounted engines beneath the wing. 7941. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60 kts. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be: A) 60 kts B) 85 kts C) 70 kts D) 83 kts 7948. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors? A) Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft CG location. B) Will decrease with a forward CG location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing. C) Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps. D) May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn. 7964. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall: A) negative camber at the root. B) separated airflow at the root. C) spanwise flow. D) rearward movement of the CP. 15611. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct? A) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer. B) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer. C) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer. D) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer. 15718. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift ___ and drag ___ in the stall change. A) increases; decreases B) decreases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) increases; increases

15722. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The function of the stick pusher is: A) to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack. B) to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker. C) to vibrate the controls. D) to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall. 15742. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)? A) Increasing air density. B) Increasing load factor. C) Decreasing weight. D) Increasing altitude. 15745. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increase of wing loading will: A) decrease the minimum gliding angle. B) increase CLmax. C) decrease takeoff speeds. D) increase the stall speeds. 15746. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is: A) 1,20 VS. B) 1,30 VS. C) 1,12 VS. D) greater than VS. 15748. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The critical angle of attack: A) changes with an increase in gross weight. B) remains unchanged regardless of gross weight. C) increases if the CG is moved forward. D) decreases if the CG is moved aft. 15752. (AIR: atpl, cpl) After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer: A) the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases. B) the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases. C) the mean speed and friction drag increases. D) the boundary layer crets thinner and the speed increases. 15753. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor: A) 1,41 B) 1,07 C) 1,30 D) 2,00 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 34 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15758 (D) 16655 (C) 16657 (C) 16658 (A) 16660 (A) 16666 (C) 16670 (D) 16678 (D) 16684 (B) 21022 (A) 21033 (C) 21046 (A) 21049 (D) 21056 (C) 21073 (B) 15758. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5.000 lbs?

A) 91 KCAS B) 78 KCAS C) 57 KCAS D) 67 KCAS 16655. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With the center of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be: A) independent of the center of gravity position. B) lower than with the center of gravity on the aft limit. C) higher than with the center of gravity on the aft limit. D) the same as with the center of gravity on the aft limit. 16657. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What effect does an increased load have on an aircraft? A) The aircraft will have a tendency to spin. B) The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure. C) The aircraft will stall at a higher speed. D) The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw. 16658. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As the center of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes progressively: A) more difficult as the center of gravity moves aft. B) more difficult as the center of gravity moves forward. C) less difficult as the center of gravity moves aft. D) is unaffected by center of gravity position, only by all up weight. 16660. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing stalling angle is: A) unaffected by a turn. B) increased in a hight rate of turn. C) decreased in a high rate of turn. D) decreased in any turn. 16666. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced): A) increases stalling speed. B) iIncreases takeoff run, stalling speed and landing speed. C) decreases stalling speed and landing speed. D) does not affect any of the above. 16670. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The load factor is: A) the ratio of lift to drag. B) the ratio of centripetal force to lift. C) the ratio of thrust to weight. D) the ratio of lift to weight. 16678. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the normal axis is: A) vertical. B) horizontal from side to side. C) horizontal from front to rear. D) nearly vertical. 16684. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to: A) reduce the landing run. B) ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip. C) prevent the wing from stalling at the root. D) re-energise the boundary layer thereby delaying the stall (although at a cost of increased form drag). 21022. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kts at a mass of 1.000

kg. If the mass is increased to 2.000 kg, the new value of the stall speed will be: A) 141 kts B) 200 kts C) 150 kts D) 123 kts 21033. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As altitude is increased, the stall speed (IAS): A) remains constant regardless of altitude. B) initially remains constant and at higher altitudes decreases. C) initially remains constant and at higher altitudes increases. D) remains constant until the tropopause and at higher altitudes increases. 21046. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a steady horizontal turn, the stall speed: A) increases with the square root of the load factor. B) increases linearly with the load factor. C) increases inversely with the load factor. D) increases with the square of the load factor. 21049. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During which type of stall does the angle of attack have the smallest value? A) Deep stall. B) Accelerated stall. C) Low speed stall. D) Shock stall. 21056. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1,4 VS. The maximum bank angle attainable without stalling in a steady co-ordinated turn, whilst maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately: A) 32° B) 44° C) 60° D) 30° 21073. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane? A) Stick pusher. B) Stick shaker and/or aerodynamic buffet. C) Stall warning light only. D) Aural warning only. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 35 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21156 (D) 21169 (A) 23233 (C) 23234 (A) 23235 (B) 23254 (B) 23262 (C) 23263 (A) 23264 (A) 23265 (B) 23266 (A) 23268 (B) 23286 (C) 23296 (B) 21156. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering a swept back wing, with no corrective design features, at the stall: A) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nosedown pitching moment. B) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment. C) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down pitching moment. D) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-up pitching moment. 21169. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Which of the following statements is true? A) Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being exceeded. B) Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed increases both the stall speed and the structural limitation margins. C) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence at constant speed the stall speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased. D) Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed moves the center of pressure aft, which increases the structural limitation margins. 23233. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The critical angle of attack at which a given aircraft stalls is dependent on the: A) gross weight. B) attitude and airspeed. C) design of the wing. D) altitude. 23234. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which action will result in a stall? A) Exceeding the critical angle of attack. B) Flying at a low airspeed. C) Raising the aircraft s nose too high. D) Lowering the flaps during the cruise. 23235. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is said to stall when: A) the lift force from the wings is greater than the weight. B) the airflow over the top surface of the wing separates which results in a large increase in drag and a large loss of lift. C) the angle of attack of the wings is greater than 10 degrees. D) it flies too slowly at low altitude. 23254. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At the stalling angle of attack the lift/drag ratio will be: A) higher than the optimum angle of attack. B) lower than at the optimum angle of attack. C) the same as at the optimum angle of attack. D) the angle of attack does not affect the lift/drag ratio. 23262. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What affects indicated stall speed? A) Angle of attack, weight, and air density. B) Load factor, angle of attack and power. C) Weight, load factor, CG position, power and Mach number. D) Humidity, air density and temperature. 23263. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the weight of an aircraft is increased the stalling speed will: A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain the same. D) be inversely proportional to the square root of the new weight. 23264. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With the CG on the forward limit, compared to the aft limit, the stalling speed would be: A) higher. B) lower. C) the same. D) depends on the length of MAC. 23265. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

With engine power on, an aircraft will stall: A) at a higher speed than with power off. B) at a lower speed than with power off. C) at the same speed as with power off. D) aircraft will not stall. 23266. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as: A) load factor and directly affects stall speed. B) load factor and has no effect on stall speed. C) aspect ratio and directly affects stall speed. D) load factor and is inversely proportional to the square root of the stall speed. 23268. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The TAS of an aircraft at the stalling angle of attack at a given weight: A) is constant at all altitudes. B) increases as altitude increases. C) decreases as altitude increases. D) increases as altitude decreases. 23286. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stalling angle of an aerofoil is approximately: A) 4° B) -2° C) 16° D) 10° 23296. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the stalling speed of an aircraft is 75 kts, the approximate stalling speed in mph is: A) multiply 75 by 0,87. B) divide 75 by 0,87. C) dividing 75 by 0,87 and subtracting the relative density. D) multiplying 75 by 8,7. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 36 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23297 (D) 23298 (B) 23301 (C) 23302 (C) 23334 (B) 23335 (D) 23336 (C) 23337 (C) 23338 (C) 23344 (A) 23354 (D) 23363 (D) 23372 (A) 23379 (D) 23537 (A) 23297. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The wing tip may be prevented from stalling before the root by: A) having the wing swept back. B) giving the tip a sharper leading edge than the root. C) wash-in. D) wash-out. 23298. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the wing at the root will: A) prevent the stall commencing at the root. B) induce a root stall. C) give a shorter landing run. D) maintain a laminar boundary layer at the stall. 23301. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Wash out of a wing is: A) an increase of incidence from root to tip. B) a decrease of chord from root to tip. C) a decrease in incidence from root to tip. D) a decrease of camber from root to tip.

23302. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A rectangular wing, compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall: A) first at the leading edge, with progression outward toward the wing root and tip. B) first at the wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root. C) first at the wing root, with the stall progression toward towards the wing tip. D) first at the semi-span center, giving good aerodynamic stall warning. 23334. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A stick shaker will operate: A) at the stall. B) before the stall. C) after the stall. D) only during the stall. 23335. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A stall warning vane on an aircraft wing is fitted: A) on the lower surface. B) on or at the leading edge. C) just above the leading edge. D) just below the leading edge. 23336. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is true concerning the aerodynamic conditions which occur during a spin entry? A) After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation. B) After a partial stall, the wing that drops remains in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce lift, causing the rotation. C) After a full stall, both wings remain in a stalled condition throughout the rotation. D) After an incipient spin, the wing that drops remains in a stalled condition while the rising wing continues un-stalled, causing the rotation. 23337. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? A) Neither. B) Only the left. C) Both. D) Only the right. 23338. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During autorotation the: A) outer wing is stalled. B) outer wing is more stalled than the inner. C) inner wing is more stalled than the outer. D) outer wing is not stalled. 23344. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A decrease in weight due to fuel consumption in flight will: A) reduce the stalling speed, but the stall angle remains the same. B) reduce the stalling speed and the stalling angle. C) reduce the stalling angle and increase the stalling speed. D) have no effect on the stall speed or angle. 23354. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift / drag ratio of a wing section at its stalling angle of attack is: A) high.

B) of a negative quantity. C) maximum. D) low. 23363. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the clean 1G stall speed for an aircraft is 151 kts, VS during a 45° bank turn will be: A) 151 kts B) 122 kts C) 141 kts D) 180 kts 23372. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin? A) Stalled. B) Partially stalled with one wing low. C) In a steep diving spiral. D) A steep turn. 23379. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a turn the stalling speed will be: A) less than in level flight. B) more than in level flight but at a lower angle of attack. C) the same as in level flight. D) more than in level and at the same angle of attack. 23537. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Comparing the IAS and TAS stall speed at 5.000 ft and sea level, the IAS stalling speed will normally be: A) the same as at sea level but the TAS will be higher. B) higher than at sea level but the TAS will be the same. C) the same as at sea level and the TAS will be the same. D) higher than at sea level and the TAS will be higher. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 37 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23540 (C) 23541 (A) 23580 (B) 23584 (D) 23605 (D) 23643 (A) 23660 (A) 23661 (A) 23685 (C) 23691 (A) 23699 (C) 23708 (C) 23713 (B) 23714 (D) 23716 (D) 23733 (B) 23540. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering the approach to an airframe icing induced stall, which of the following statements is most correct? A) Can easily be detected by the flight crew. B) Will give the same indications as any other stall. C) Can be so insidious that the pilot may be unaware that the aircraft has stalled. D) Will cause a nose down pitching moment due to the rearward movement of the CP at the stall. 23541. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the CG of an aircraft is moved from the aft limit to the forward limit, how will it affect the stalling speed and stick force? A) Increase stalling speed and stick force. B) Decrease the stalling speed and stick force. C) Decrease the stalling speed and increase the stick force. D) Increase the stalling speed and decrease the stick force. 23580. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following wing characteristics would be least affected by turbulence? A) Straight wing. B) Swept back wing. C) winglets.

D) Dihedral wing. 23584. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What happens to stalling speed at a constant IAS in a climb? A) Constant. B) Increase. C) Initially constant then decreases at high altitudes. D) Initially constant then increases at high altitudes. 23605. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a swept wing the nose up phenomena is caused by: A) deploying lift augmentation devices. B) wing fences. C) wing sweep prevents the nose up phenomena. D) tip stall. 23643. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of rain on drag and stall speed would be to: A) increase / increase. B) increase / decrease. C) decrease / increase. D) decrease / decrease. 23660. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is true? A) A turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy. B) A turbulent boundary layer is thinner. C) Less skin friction is generated by a turbulent layer. D) A laminar flow boundary layer is less likely to separate. 23661. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stalling speed increases when: A) recovering from a steep dive. B) the aircraft is subjected to minor altitude changes. C) the aircraft weight decreases. D) flaps are deployed. 23685. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VS is 100 kts at n=1. What will the stall speed be if n=2? A) 200 kts B) 119 kts C) 141 kts D) 100 kts 23691. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following increases the stall angle? A) slats B) flaps C) spoilers D) ailerons 23699. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is used to activate a stall warning device? A) Movement of the CP. B) Movement of the CG. C) Movement of the stagnation point. D) A reduction in dynamic pressure. 23708. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If a jet is at 60° bank angle during a constant altitude turn, the stall speed will be: A) 1,6 greater. B) 1,19 greater. C) 1,41 greater. D) 2,0 greater. 23713. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The IAS of a stall:

A) increases with high altitude / more flaps / slats. B) may increase with increasing altitude, especially high altitude / forward CG / icing. C) forward CG and increasing altitude. D) altitude never affects stall speed IAS. 23714. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack at the stall: A) increases with forward CG. B) decreases with aft CG. C) decrease with decrease in weight. D) is not affected by changes in weight. 23716. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following would indicate the stall? A) Stall strip and stick shaker. B) Stall strip and angle of attack sensor. C) ASI and stick shaker. D) Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator. 23733. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which list of configurations gives an increasing critical angle of attack? A) Clean wing / flaps extended / slats extended. B) Flaps extended / clean wing / slats extended. C) Slats extended / clean wing / flaps extended. D) Clean wing / slat extended / flaps extended. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 38 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24462 (C) 24463 (C) 24465 (C) 24466 (B) 24467 (B) 24484 (A) 26372 (D) 26398 (C) 26399 (D) 26804 (D) 26806 (C) 26811 (B) 26812 (B) 26822 (D) 26969 (A) 24462. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One of the factors leading to pitch-up at the stall on swept wing aircraft is: A) negative camber at the root. B) airflow separation at the root. C) spanwise outward flow of the boundary layer. D) rearward movement of the CP. 24463. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following aircraft designs would be most likely to have poor recovery characteristics from a deep stall? A) High aspect ratio straight wing. B) Straight wing, T tail turboprop. C) Swept wing, T tail. D) Low aspect ratio straight wing. 24465. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What happens to the level flight stalling speed given as IAS or CAS as you increase height? A) Remains constant. B) Increases rapidly. C) Effectively constant, then increases. D) Effectively constant, then decreases. 24466. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At an AUW of 241.030 N an aircraft stalls at 133 kts in level flight. At an AUW of 367.200 N it will stall at ___ in level flight. A) 89 kts B) 163 kts C) 110 kts D) 180 kts

24467. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the correct formula relating VS, VA and n? A) VS1g = VA.n B) VA = VS1g.n C) VA = VS1g x n2 D) VA = VS1g x n 24484. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft with a takeoff weight of 10.000 kg has a basic stalling speed VS of 240 kts. What is the stalling speed as the aircraft turns onto finals with landing flaps extended (CLmax doubles) at 30° AOB at an AUW of 6.400 kg? A) 146 kts B) 192 kts C) 240 kts D) 292 kts 26372. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The center of the pressure of a symmetrical aerofoil section is behind the leading edge approximately at the following % of the section chord: A) 35% B) 10% C) 15% D) 25% 26398. (AIR: atpl, cpl) That point where airflow leaves the surface of an aerofoil is known as: A) the critical point. B) the stagnation point. C) the separation point. D) the transition point. 26399. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following are used as stall warning devices? A) Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip. B) Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator. C) Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator. D) Stick shaker and stall strip. 26804. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The most common stall sensing devices are normally located: A) on the upper surface of the wing. B) on the lower surface of the wing. C) at the transition point. D) at or near the wing leading edge. 26806. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic characteristics of an aircraft in a spin is that the: A) inner and outer wings are completely stalled. B) outer wing is completely stalled. C) outer wing is partially stalled. D) inner wing is partially stalled. 26811. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does stalling speed vary with load factor? A) It decreases inversely with the square root of the load factor. B) It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor. C) It decreases inversely with the load factor. D) It increases proportionally with the load factor. 26812. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The following take place at the transition point on a wing: A) the aimow separates completely from the wing surface.

B) the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer. C) the total dynamic and static pressure.come.s ttoa.standstill. D) the laminar flow meets the separatian point. 26822. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aerofoil at its stalling angle will have a LiWOrag ratio which is: A) high B) zero C) negative D) low 26969. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does the wing s center of pressure move with increasing angle of attack? A) Forward. B) To the rear. C) It does not move at all. D) To the right. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 39 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26971 (B) 26986 (C) 27020 (B) 27030 (B) 27031 (C) 28489 (D) 4016 (B) 4191 (B) 4203 (B) 4229 (B) 4235 (D) 4241 (A) 26971. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls: A) decreases with an increase in engine power. B) remains constant regardless of gross weight. C) increases with an increase in engine power. D) varies with gross weight and density altitude. 26986. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With increasing altitude flying at a constant IAS will result in: A) a reduction in TAS. B) a reduction in the stalling angle. C) no change in the stalling angle. D) an increased stalling angle. 27020. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a level turn with 60° lateral bank, the load factor is 2,0 and the stall speed increases by: A) 50% B) 40% C) 10% D) 20% 27030. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when: A) the aircraft is directional unstable. B) the A/C has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category. C) the A/C has not yaw damper installed. D) the A/C is used in supersonic speeds. 27031. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Superstall is a condition: A) where the wings have stalled at high speed. B) which is easily to recover from. C) which is a stable stall with almost a constant pitch attitude. D) where the A/C is in a spin. 28489. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following

factors: A) will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn. B) may increase when the CG moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing. C) will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the CG moves aft. D) may increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the CG moves forward. 081-01-09 CLmax augmentation 4016. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-11) The lift-augmentation device shown in the figure 4 is a: A) zap flap. B) fowler flap. C) krueger flap. D) split flap. 4191. (AIR: atpl, cpl) After takeoff the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why? A) Because slats extended provides a better view from the cockpit than flaps extended. B) Because slats extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. C) Because VMCA with slats extended is more favourable compared to the flaps extended situation. D) Because flaps extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. 4203. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The trailing edge flaps when extended: A) increase the zero lift angle of attack. B) worsen the best angle of glide. C) significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift. D) significantly lower the drag. 4229. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the purpose of an auto-slat system? A) Provide automatically slat in selection after takeoff. B) Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of atttack is exceeded. C) Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the ground position. D) Assist the ailerons during rolling. 4235. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio? A) Flaps from 15° to 30°. B) The slats. C) Flaps from 0° to 15°. D) Flaps from 30° to 45°. 4241. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following occurs when trailing edge flaps are extended? A) The critical angle of attack decreases and CLMAX increases. B) CLMAX increases and the critical angle of attack increases. C) The critical angle of attack is constant, but CLMAX increases. D) The critical angle of attack remains constant and stall

speed increases. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 40 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4261 (D) 4269 (D) 4277 (A) 7663 (C) 7673 (A) 7687 (C) 7688 (D) 7706 (B) 7739 (A) 7757 (A) 7779 (D) 7781 (B) 7785 (A) 7801 (C) 4261. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle. B) Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CDmax), causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease. C) Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only the TAS has to be taken into account. D) Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces. 4269. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? A) Decrease CLMAX. B) Decrease the critical angle of attack. C) Not affect the critical angle of attack. D) Increase the critical angle of attack. 4277. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce: A) a nose-down pitching moment. B) no pitching moment. C) a nose-up pitching moment. D) a force which reduces drag. 7663. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is: A) unchanged. B) larger. C) smaller. D) smaller or larger depending on flap deflection. 7673. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack? A) Flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended. B) Clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended. C) Slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended. D) Slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing. 7687. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will: A) remain the same. B) decrease. C) increase. D) vary as the square of IAS. 7688. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (LE) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is? A) Wing roots: LE flaps; wing tips: no devices. B) Wing roots: slats; wing tips: LE flaps. C) Wing roots: slats; wing tips: no devices.

D) Wing roots: LE flaps; wing tips: slats. 7706. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to: A) allow space for vibration of the slat. B) cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer. C) reduce the wing loading. D) slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing. 7739. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Deflection of leading edge flaps will: A) increase critical angle of attack. B) decrease CLmax. C) decrease drag. D) not affect critical angle of attack. 7757. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will: A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain constant. D) increase or decrease depending on type of flap. 7779. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Vortex generators: A) take energy from the laminar flow to induce boundary layer separation. B) use free stream flow to induce laminar flow. C) prevent spanwise flow. D) use free stream flow to increase energy in the turbulent boundary layer. 7781. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A deployed slat will: A) decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack. B) increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. C) increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. D) increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack. 7785. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Vortex generators: A) transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer. B) change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer. C) reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing. D) take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation. 7801. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors of importance being constant) A) sink suddenly. B) bank.

C) climb. D) yaw. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 41 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 7802 (D) 7813 (B) 7838 (A) 7874 (C) 7880 (B) 7885 (B) 7890 (A) 7908 (D) 7917 (C) 7944 (B) 7958 (D) 7967 (B) 15612 (B) 15710 (D) 15724 (D) 7802. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the most effective flap system? A) Single slotted flap. B) Split flap. C) Plain flap. D) Fowler flap. 7813. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of: A) flaps. B) slats. C) spoilers. D) fuselage mounted speed-brakes. 7838. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A plain flap will increase CLmax by: A) increasing the camber of the aerofoil. B) increasing angle of attack. C) boundary layer control. D) center of lift movement. 7874. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing CP: A) to move forward. B) to move outboard towards the wing tips. C) to move inboard towards the wing root. D) to move inward and forward. 7880. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully: A) the CP moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is unaffected. B) the CP moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is decreased. C) the CP moves forwards and lift/drag ratio is decreased. D) the CP moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is increased. 7885. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight: A) the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase. B) the center of pressure moves aft. C) the stall speed increases. D) the total boundary layer becomes laminar. 7890. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually: A) remain the same. B) increase. C) decrease. D) first increase and then decrease. 7908. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: A) increasing the critical angle of attack. B) decreasing the skin friction. C) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil. D) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

7917. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A slat will: A) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing. B) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge. C) increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack. D) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing. 7944. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant): A) bank. B) sink suddenly. C) climb. D) yaw. 7958. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because: A) it changes the camber of the wing. B) the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker. C) it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. D) it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack. 7967. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a wing fitted with a fowler type trailing edge flap, the Full extended position will produce: A) an unaffected wing area and increase in camber. B) an increase in wing area and camber. C) an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack. D) an increase in wing area only. 15612. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack? A) Lower side leading edge. B) Upper side trailing edge. C) Upper side leading edge. D) Lower side trailing edge. 15710. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span) A) increase. B) remain the same. C) increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack. D) decrease. 15724. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Trailing edge flap extension will: A) increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax. B) decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax. C) increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax. D) decreasre the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 42

© 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15725 (B) 15726 (B) 15727 (B) 15754 (B) 15768 (C) 15769 (B) 15770 (B) 15771 (B) 16672 (A) 16681 (C) 16682 (B) 16687 (D) 16688 (C) 16717 (A) 20876 (A) 15725. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? A) Deploying a krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not. B) Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not. C) Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not. D) Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not. 15726. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will: A) just turn down. B) move aft, then turn down. C) turn down, then move aft. D) just move aft. 15727. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When spoilers are used as speed brakes: A) at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected. B) at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased. C) CLmax of the polar curve is not affected. D) they do not affect wheel braking action during landing. 15754. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be: A) dependent on CG location. B) nose down. C) nose up. D) zero. 15768. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-11) Which type of flap is shown in the picture 4? A) Plain flap. B) Split flap. C) Fowler flap. D) Double slotted flap. 15769. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-11) Which type of flap is shown in the picture 3? A) Plain flap. B) Split flap. C) Single slotted flap. D) Fowler flap. 15770. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-11) The high lift device shovn in the figure 2 is a: A) Krueger flap. B) slat. C) Fowler flap. D) slotted flap. 15771. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-11) The high lift device shown in the figure below is a: A) slot or slat. B) Krueger flap.

C) Fowler flap. D) slotted flap. 16672. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level flight: A) the nose must be pitched down. B) the nose must be pitched up. C) the altitude must be held constant. D) soilers must be deployed. 16681. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack: A) decreases. B) remains the same. C) increases. D) may increase of decrease depending on the aircraft type. 16682. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift coefficinet C of a wing at a given angle of attack: A) is dependent on the surface area of the wing. B) is increased by the use of high lift devices. C) is constant and not affected by high lift devices. D) is reduced when high lift devices are used. 16687. (AIR: atpl, cpl) CLmax may be increased by the used of: A) flaps. B) slats. C) boundary layer control. D) all answers are correct. 16688. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Slats: A) de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack. B) re-energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack. C) re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack. D) de-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack. 16717. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Slats: A) increase CLmax. B) decrease the minimum angle of attack. C) both answers are correct. D) neither answer is correct. 20876. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Slat extension will: A) increase critical angle of attack. B) reduce tip vortices. C) create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles. D) decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 43 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21014 (B) 21023 (C) 21038 (D) 21052 (C) 21057 (C) 21097 (D) 21100 (A) 21117 (D) 21135 (A) 21138 (B) 21157 (C) 21161 (D) 21162 (A) 21014. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A slat will: A) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow

around the sharp leading edge. B) prolong the stall to a higher angle of attack. C) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing. D) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing. 21023. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has the following flap positions: 0°, 15°, 30°, 45°; slats can also be selected. Generally speaking, which selection provides the highest positive contribution to the CLMAX? A) The flaps from 0° to 15°. B) The flaps from 30° to 45°. C) The slats from the retracted to the takeoff position. D) The flaps from 15° to 30°. 21038. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLmax with trailing edge flaps extended is: A) smaller or larger depending on the degree of flap extension. B) larger. C) unchanged. D) smaller. 21052. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flap extension at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will increase the: A) stall speed. B) lift coefficient and the drag. C) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag. D) lift and the drag. 21057. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given the following aeroplane configurations: 1) Clean wing. 2) Slats only extended. 3) Flaps only extended. Place these configurations in order of increasing critical angle of attack: A) 2, 1, 3 B) 1, 3, 2 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 2, 3, 1 21097. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system: A) assist the ailerons. B) provides for automatic slat retractionafter takeoff. C) ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground / flight system is in the ground position. D) extends the slats automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded. 21100. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Slat extension will: A) increase the critical angle of attack. B) reduce tip vortices. C) create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles. D) decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing. 21117. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The difference between the effects of slat and flap asymmetry is that: ( large in the context of this question means not or hardly controllable by normal use of controls) A) flap asymmetry causes a large difference in CLmax whereas

slat asymmetry causes a large rolling moment at any speed. B) flap asymmetry causes a large rolling moment whereas slat asymmetry causes a large yawing moment. C) flap asymmetry causes a large yawing moment whereas slat asymmetry causes a large rolling moment at any speed. D) flap asymmetry causes a large rolling moment at any speed whereas slat asymmetry causes a large difference in CLmax. 21135. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Trailing edge flaps once extended: A) degrade the best angle of glide. B) increase the zero lift angle of attack. C) significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift. D) significantly lower the drag. 21138. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Upon extension of Fowler flaps whilst maintaining the same angle of attack: A) CL increases, while CD remains unaffected. B) CL and CD increase. C) CD decreases, while the center of lift shifts aft. D) CL decreases, while the center of lift shifts forward. 21157. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of attack, the following changes will occur: A) CL increases and CD remains constant. B) CL increases and the center of pressure moves forward. C) CL and CD increase. D) CD decreases and the center of pressure moves aft. 21161. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When trailing edge flaps are extended in level flight, the change in pitching moment, ignoring any effects on the tailplane, will be: A) dependent on CG location. B) nose up. C) zero. D) nose down. 21162. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When trailing edge flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level flight at constant IAS: A) the center of pressure moves aft. B) the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase. C) the stall speed increases. D) the total boundary layer becomes laminar. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 44 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23269 (B) 23270 (B) 23271 (B) 23305 (A) 23306 (A) 23307 (B) 23308 (A) 23309 (C) 23333 (B) 23345 (B) 23346 (C) 23347 (B) 23349 (B) 23355 (B) 23269. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A slat is fitted to an aerofoil to: A) reduce the stalling angle. B) delay the stall and so increase the lift. C) increase the drag and so enable the aircraft to fly more slowly. D) increase the speed at which the aircraft stalls. 23270. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

If flaps are slightly asymmetric this would cause: A) a roll to a given bank angle which may be correctable with rudder. B) a steady rate of roll which may be correctable with ailerons. C) a steady rate of pitch which may be correctable with elevators. D) a roll to a given bank angle which may be correctable with ailerons. 23271. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Because of the reduction in CL when flaps are raised, to maintain a constant lift force: A) the angle of attack must be decreased. B) the angle of attack must be increased. C) the angle of attack must remain the same. D) the nose of the aircraft should be lowered. 23305. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The purpose of vortex generators is: A) to delay stall by reducing boundary layer separation. B) to increase the lift of the wing. C) to counteract the effect of the wing tip vortices. D) to delay the stall by reducing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer. 23306. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the increased downwash at the tail plane due to lowering trailing edge flaps is considered in isolation: A) a nose up pitching moment will be generated. B) a nose down pitching moment will be generated. C) the direction of the pitch change will depend on the initial direction of the tail load. D) tail plane angle of attack will be increased, causing a nose up pitching moment. 23307. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Split flaps have the characteristic of: A) increasing the lift and decreasing the drag for takeoff. B) increasing the drag without appreciable increase in lift when moved from intermediate to fully down. C) changing the main plane area and thus reducing the wing loading. D) allowing optimum wing flexing. 23308. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the trailing edge flaps are lowered and IAS kept constant, to maintain level flight: A) the nose must be lowered and thrust increased. B) the nose must be raised and thrust increased. C) attitude and thrust must be kept constant. D) attitude must be increased and thrust increased. 23309. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A slat is: A) a leading edge high lift device, hinged at its forward edge, which increases the camber and leading edge radius of the main aerofoil when deployed. B) a trailing edge device which is automatically deployed by movement of the stagnation point at high angles of attack. C) an auxiliary, cambered aerofoil positioned forward of the main aerofoil so as to form a slot. D) a fixed slot in the leading edge of some older types of aircraft. 23333. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Vortex generators are fitted in front of control surfaces to: A) tip stall at low speed for better handling. B) re-energise the boundary layer.

C) prevent control surface flutter. D) increase the effective angle of attack. 23345. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A Krueger flap is: A) part of the upper surface of the leading edge, which moves forward. B) part of the lower surface of the leading edge, hinged at its forward edge. C) a flap which extends rearward from the trailing edge. D) a flap which extends from the upper surface of the wing, to increase drag. 23346. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The type of flap which extends backwards from the trailing edge as it s lowered is: A) a split flap. B) a Krueger flap. C) a Fowler flap. D) a lower flap. 23347. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A low wing monoplane has its tail plane mounted on the top of the fin. When the Fowler flaps deploy the aircraft will: A) tend to pitch nose up. B) tend to pitch nose down. C) tend to remain in a level attitude. D) lose altitude and pitch nose up. 23349. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If flaps are raised in flight while speed and attitude are kept constant: A) the aircraft will gain height. B) the aircraft will sink. C) the aircraft will maintain height. D) the aircraft will stall. 23355. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The type of flap that increases wing area is: A) a split flap. B) a Fowler flap. C) a plain flap. D) a slotted flap. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 45 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23364 (C) 23366 (B) 23420 (C) 23515 (B) 23538 (B) 23539 (D) 23617 (A) 23687 (A) 23698 (C) 23702 (B) 24542 (A) 26387 (D) 26766 (D) 26783 (D) 23364. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An automatic leading edge slat is operated by: A) an automatic speed controlled switch. B) a switch controlled by the pilot. C) aerodynamic forces acting on the leading edge. D) changes in dynamic pressure acting on the stagnation point. 23366. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One of the main functions of flaps during an approach and landing is to: A) decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B) provide the same amount of lift at a slower speed. C) decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made. D) increase lift more than drag.

23420. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If trailing edge flaps are lowered asymmetrically, this will cause: A) a nose up pitching moment. B) a nose down pitching moment. C) a rolling moment. D) a yawing moment. 23515. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering a high speed jet, if flaps are selected down at a speed greater than VFE: A) the flaps will move to the selected position, causing structural damage. B) flap movement will be prevented by the flap load relief system. C) the flap selector lever cannot be moved because it is locked in position by a solenoid at these speeds. D) the flaps will stall and a violent nose up pitch will result. 23538. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What would be the effect of taking off with full flaps deployed? A) Acceleration would not be affected and the TOD would be shorter than normal. B) Acceleration would be reduced and the attitude required to climb would be more nose down than normal. C) Acceleration would be reduced because of the extra drag and climb ability would be improved because of the extra lift. D) Acceleration would be less, TOD would be less and climb gradient would be improved. 23539. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flaps are lowered, the downwash behind the wing: A) decreases and gives a decrease of tailplane effective AOA. B) increases and gives an increase of tailplane effective AOA. C) decreases and gives an increase of tailplane effective AOA. D) increases and gives a decrease of tailplane effective AOA. 23617. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a fowler flap moves rearwards the wing area: A) increases and camber increases. B) decreases and camber decreases. C) is unaffected as is the camber. D) increases and camber decreases. 23687. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect of deployment of a plain flap? A) Increases camber. B) Increases angle of attack. C) Changes position of CP. D) Decreases the aspect ratio. 23698. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to maintain straight and level flight when trailing edge flaps are retracted, the angle of attack must: A) be increased or decreased depending on type of flap. B) be decreased. C) be increased. D) stay the same because the lift requirement will be the same. 23702. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a highly swept back wing with leading edge flaps and leading edge slats, which device would be fitted in the following

locations? A) Slats inboard / flaps outboard. B) Slats outboard / flaps inboard. C) Alternating slats and flaps. D) No preferred positions. 24542. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The increased upwash experienced at the leading edge of a wing when trailing edge flaps are lowered causes: A) an increase in the angle of attack. B) a rearwards movement of the CG. C) a forward movement of the CP. D) a reduction in CLMAX. 26387. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Typically the CL/CD ratio is: A) minimum at an angle of attack of 16°. B) maximum at an angle of attack of 16°. C) minimum at an angle of attack of 4°. D) maximum at an angle of attack of 4°. 26766. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from takeoff position to fully down position, one will experience: A) a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag. B) a large increase in lift and a large increase in drag. C) a small increase in lift and a small increase in drag. D) a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag. 26783. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats andlor leading edge (LE) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is: A) wing roots: LE flaps; wing tips: no devices. B) wing roots: slats; wing tips: LE flaps. C) wing roots: slats; wing tips: no devices. D) wing roots: LE flaps; wing tips: slats. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 46 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26802 (A) 26807 (B) 26808 (C) 26810 (C) 26979 (A) 27011 (A) 7720 (C) 7792 (D) 7871 (B) 20883 (B) 21102 (A) 21159 (C) 21180 (B) 23328 (A) 26802. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found: A) near the wing. B) towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer. C) on the underside of the wing towards the leading edge. D) towards the wing trailing edge. 26807. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When, in flight, you lower the trailing edge flaps fully down: A) the wing CP moves forward and the L/D ratio increases. B) the wing CP moves aft and the L/D ratio decreases. C) the stalling angle increases and the L/D ratio reduces. D) the stalling angle reduces and the LM ratio increases. 26808. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The type of trailing edge flap named Fowler flap: A) is a modified split flap to increase camber. B) is a modified plain flap to increase wing area. C) increases camber and wing area. D) none of the above.

26810. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The purpose of deploying leading edge slats is to: A) decrease induced and profile drag. B) decrease the critical angle. C) increase the stalling angle. D) increase profile drag. 26979. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flaps are used in order to: A) decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and at stalling speed. B) increase max lift coefficient by increasing max angle of attack. C) increase max L/D. D) reducing drag. 27011. (AIR: atpl, cpl) It is possible to reduce the spanwise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by: A) wing fences. B) trailing edge vortex generators. C) increased anhedral. D) leading edge stall inducers. 081-01-10 Means to decrease the CL - CD ratio, increasing drag 7720. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Spoiler deflection causes: A) an increase in lift and drag. B) an increase in lift only. C) an increase in drag and decrease in lift. D) decrease in lift and drag. 7792. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the most important result/problem caused by ice formation? A) Increased drag. B) Increased weight. C) Blockage of the controls. D) Reduction in CLMAX. 7871. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing: A) only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected). B) CD is increased and CL is decreased. C) both CL and CD are increased. D) CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected. 20883. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-04) Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed? A) Point C. B) Point D. C) Point A. D) Point B. 21102. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Spoiler extension causes: A) an increase in drag and decrease in lift. B) an increase in lift and drag. C) an increase in lift only. D) decrease in lift and drag. 21159. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When roll spoilers are extended, the part of the wing on which they are mounted: A) stalls. This causes a difference in lift between both wings,

which generates the desired rolling moment. B) experiences extra drag, which generates a yawing moment. The speed difference between both wings generates the desired rolling moment. C) experiences a reduction in lift, which generates the desired rolling moment. In addition there is a local increase in drag, which suppresses adverse yaw. D) is forced downwards as a reaction to the increased drag. 21180. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) Flap extension reduces the maximum lift/drag ratio thus reducing the minimum rate of descent. B) Spoiler extension increases the stallspeed, the minimum rate of descent and the minimum angle of descent. C) Flap extension reduces the stallspeed, which increases the maximum glide distance. D) Flap extension has no effect on the minimum rate of descent as this is only affected by TAS. 23328. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When airbrakes are deployed: A) the minimum drag speed will reduce. B) the minimum drag speed will remain the same. C) the lift / drag ratio will remain constant. D) the minimum drag speed will increase. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 47 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23461 (C) 23462 (B) 23710 (D) 26396 (D) 26763 (C) 4206 (B) 7674 (D) 7721 (B) 7875 (C) 7955 (D) 21163 (C) 23610 (C) 24072 (D) 23461. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Spoiler surfaces on the top surface of a wing when operated symmetrically: A) are used to trim the aircraft. B) are for use on landing only, to reduce speed. C) may be used as airbrakes in flight. D) cannot be used as airbrakes in flight because of excessive buffeting. 23462. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease: A) landing speed. B) the lift of the wing. C) the drag. D) lift and drag. 23710. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The result of spoiler surfaces deploying are: A) lift and drag increases. B) lift and drag decreases. C) lift increases and drag decreases. D) drag increases and lift decreases. 26396. (AIR: atpl, cpl) CL varies with: A) pressure. B) density. C) velocity. D) angle of attack. 26763. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft:

A) for speed reduction after landing. B) and are an old version of anti block system. C) to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent. D) used at high speeds for turning when a yaw damper is not installed. 081-01-11 The boundary layer 4206. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The transition point located on the wing is the point where: A) airflow starts separating from the wing. B) the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow. C) the static pressure reaches its highest value. D) the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow. 7674. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A laminar boundary layer is ___ and has ___ drag than a turbulent layer: A) thick; more B) thick; less C) thin; more D) thin; less 7721. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent: A) just in front of the transition point. B) between the transition and separation points. C) just aft of the separation point. D) just in front of the center of pressure. 7875. (AIR: atpl, cpl) There are two types of boundary layer, laminar and turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that: A) skin friction drag is less. B) it is thinner. C) it has less tendency to separate from the surface. D) energy is less. 7955. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is: A) decreases energy. B) thinner. C) increased skin friction. D) less tendency to separate. 21163. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which boundary layer, when considering its velocity profile perpendicular to the flow, has the greatest change in velocity close to the surface? A) No difference. B) Laminar boundary layer. C) Turbulent boundary layer. D) The boundary layer in the transition between turbulent and laminar. 23610. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering the properties of a laminar and turbulent boundary layer, which of the following statements is correct? A) Friction drag is the same. B) Friction drag higher in laminar. C) Friction drag higher in turbulent. D) Separation point is most forward with a turbulent layer. 24072. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

When comparing the properties of laminar and turbulent boundary layers, which of the following statements is correct? A) The separation point is further aft in the laminar layer. B) Friction drag is the same in both layers. C) Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer. D) Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer. 081-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 48 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 2629 (A) 4264 (B) 21188 (B) 23229 (B) 23382 (A) 27032 (C) 2629. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In which phase of the takeoff is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? A) The last part of the rotation. B) The takeoff run. C) During climb with all engines operating. D) All phases of the takeoff are equally critical. 4264. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is the most critical phase regarding ice on a wing leading edge? A) During the takeoff run. B) The last part of rotation. C) Climb with all engines operating. D) All phases are equally important. 21188. (AIR: atpl, cpl) While flying under icing conditions, the largest ice build-up will occur, principally, on: A) the upper and lower surfaces on the rear of the wing. B) the frontal areas of the aircraft. C) the upper and lower rudder surfaces. D) the pitot and static probes only. 23229. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the static pressure port iced over while descending from altitude, the ASI would read: A) zero B) high C) low D) correctly 23382. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is the effect of ice, snow or frost formation on an aeroplane? A) Decreased angle of attack for the stall. B) Decreased stall speed. C) Increased tendency to be stable in roll. D) Increased angle of attack for stall. 27032. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If ice is present on the leading edge of the wings, it may increase the landing distance due to higher Vth with: A) 5-10% B) 10-20% C) 30-40% D) 40-50% 081-01-12 Special circumstances 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 49 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com

3767 (D) 3768 (A) 3774 (A) 3777 (C) 3778 (C) 3788 (C) 3790 (D) 3798 (B) 3809 (A) 3810 (D) 3812 (B) 3813 (B) 3814 (D) 3816 (C) 3817 (A) 081-02-01 The Mach number definition 3767. (AIR: atpl) Reducing the thickness/chord ratio on a wing will: A) reduce the transonic variations in drag coefficient. B) reduce the transonic variations in lift coefficient. C) delay the onset of shockwave formation. D) all of the above. 3768. (AIR: atpl) The Mach cone semi-angle: A) decreases with increasing speed. B) increases with increasing speed. C) decreases up to a certain speed, then increases. D) remains constant at all speeds above MCRIT. 3774. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach numbers below the critical Mach number? A) Dutch roll. B) Tuck under. C) Mach buffet. D) Shock stall. 3777. (AIR: atpl) The formula for the Mach number is: (a = speed of sound) is? A) M = TAS a B) M = a / TAS C) M = TAS / a D) M = IAS / a 3778. (AIR: atpl) The speed of sound is affected by the: A) pressure of the air. B) density of the air. C) temperature of the air. D) humidity of the air. 3788. (AIR: atpl) If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach number will: A) not change. B) decrease. C) increase. D) increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane. 3790. (AIR: atpl) An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL350. What is the effect on true airspeed? A) It remains constant. B) It decreases as pressure increases. C) It decreases as altitude decreases. D) It increases as temperature increases. 3798. (AIR: atpl) The two areas of speed instability in transonic aircraft are: A) above VDmin, above M 0,4. B) below VDmin, M 0,89 to 0,98. C) above VDmin, M 0,75 to 0,81. D) below VDmin, above M 1,0. 3809. (AIR: atpl) As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic speed range: A) the coefficient of drag increases then decreases. B) the coefficient of drag increases.

C) the coefficient of drag decreases then increases. D) the coefficient of drag decreases. 3810. (AIR: atpl) The Mach number: A) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises. B) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level. C) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. D) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. 3812. (AIR: atpl) Compared to a normal transonic airfoil section a supercritical section has: A) a more cambered top surface. B) a flatter top surface. C) a flatter bottom surface. D) a very sharp leading edge. 3813. (AIR: atpl) Shock stall is: A) separation of the flow behind the bow wave. B) separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave. C) separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach numbers. D) separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach numbers. 3814. (AIR: atpl) In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by: A) the CAS. B) the TAS. C) the IAS. D) the Mach number. 3816. (AIR: atpl) Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the buffet-onset Mach number? A) Yes, but only during approach. B) Yes, this causes no problems. C) No, this is not acceptable. D) Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes. 3817. (AIR: atpl) A shock stall occurs when laminar flow breaks down: A) behind the shock wave. B) behind the trailing edge. C) behind the leading edge. D) at a high angle of attack and high Mach number. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 50 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3818 (A) 3821 (A) 3824 (C) 3826 (C) 3829 (C) 3835 (D) 3836 (A) 3839 (D) 3846 (A) 3861 (A) 21034 (B) 21043 (C) 21124 (B) 21136 (A) 3818. (AIR: atpl) Climbing at a constant Mach number up to FL350 the TAS will: A) decrease. B) first increase, then decrease. C) increase. D) remain constant.

3821. (AIR: atpl) In the transonic range CLmax will ___ and the 1 g stalling speed will ___. A) decrease; increase B) decrease; decrease C) increase; decrease D) increase; increase 3824. (AIR: atpl) The Mach trim system will: A) pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach number. B) keep the Mach number automatically constant. C) adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach number. D) adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach number. 3826. (AIR: atpl) The flight Mach number is 0,8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: A) 480 kts B) 320 kts C) 500 kts D) 600 kts 3829. (AIR: atpl) On a typical symmetrical airfoil, as the free stream Mach number approaches M 1,0, the center of pressure will: A) move from 25% chord to the leading edge. B) move forward to about 25% chord. C) move aft to about 45% chord. D) move aft to the trailing edge. 3835. (AIR: atpl) On a typical transonic airfoil the transonic rearward shift of the CP occurs at about: A) M 0,75 to M 0,98. B) M 0,81 to M 1,4. C) M 0,75 to M 0,89. D) M 0,89 to M 0,98. 3836. (AIR: atpl) The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that altitude: A) turbulence may induce Mach buffet. B) turbulence may exceed the limit load factor. C) a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor. D) Mach buffet will occur immediately. 3839. (AIR: atpl) To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the: A) IAS. B) EAS. C) TAS. D) Mach number. 3846. (AIR: atpl) A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach number, that provides a buffet margin of 0,3 g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0,4 g incremental the pilot must: A) fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach number. B) extend the flaps to the first selection. C) fly at a higher Mach number. D) fly at a larger angle of attack.

3861. (AIR: atpl) Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct? A) Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature. B) Increases always if the density of the air decreases. C) Is independent of altitude. D) Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36 °Centigrade. 21034. (AIR: atpl) Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach number up the tropopause the TAS will: A) first increase, then decrease. B) decrease. C) increase. D) remain constant. 21043. (AIR: atpl) During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach number will: A) remain constant. B) decrease initially and increase subsequently. C) increase. D) increase initially and remain constant subsequently. 21124. (AIR: atpl) The Mach number is the ratio between the: A) TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level. B) TAS of the aeroplane and speed of sound of the undisturbed flow. C) IAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound of the undisturbed flow. D) IAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level. 21136. (AIR: atpl) Transonic speed is: A) a speed at which locally around the aeroplane both supersonic and subsonic speeds exist. B) a speed at which locally an oblique shock wave has developed in the flow along the aeroplane. C) a speed at which compressibility effects are first noticeable. D) the speed range between MCRIT and MMO. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 51 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23274 (C) 23503 (B) 23553 (D) 23604 (A) 23619 (D) 23680 (B) 23704 (C) 24459 (B) 26818 (A) 28488 (A) 3590 (C) 3593 (B) 3597 (B) 3769 (C) 23274. (AIR: atpl) An aircraft flying at M 0,5 would be flying at: A) half the speed of sound at ground level only. B) half the speed of sound at the tropopause only. C) half the speed of sound under all conditions in the atmosphere. D) half the speed of sound at sea level only. 23503. (AIR: atpl) The mach number corresponding to a given TAS will: A) be greater if temperature increases. B) be less if temperature increases. C) be the same at all temperatures. D) temperature does not affect the mach number because it is a ratio. 23553. (AIR: atpl) VMO can be exceeded in a descent at a constant mach number because: A) VMO is an IAS and descending at a constant mach will require

a decrease in TAS which will reduce dynamic pressure. B) as altitude is reduced the speed of sound will increase which increases IAS. C) as altitude decreases the ASI will start to under-read due to the increasing air density. D) VMO is an IAS and descending at a constant mach will require an increase in TAS which will increase dynamic pressure. 23604. (AIR: atpl) An aircraft is descending at a constant mach number, which of the following operational speed limitations may be exceeded? A) VMO B) VNE C) MMO D) VD 23619. (AIR: atpl) The speed of sound is affected by the: A) density. B) humidity. C) pressure. D) temperature. 23680. (AIR: atpl) What happens to mach number if IAS is increased when flying at FL390? A) Remain constant. B) Increase. C) Decrease. D) Depends on the OAT. 23704. (AIR: atpl) The local speed of sound: A) is independent of altitude. B) will double if temperature varies from 9° to 36°. C) is dependent on the square root of the absolute temperature. D) decreases with increasing density. 24459. (AIR: atpl) In a steady climb: A) at a steady IAS, Mach number remains constant because Mach number is only proportional to TAS and inversely proportional to the local speed of sound. B) at steady lAS, Mach number will increase. C) at a steady IAS, Mach number will remain constant because the local speed of sound is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. D) at a steady IAS, Mach number will decrease because the absolute temperature will decrease. 26818. (AIR: atpl) How does temperature influence the speed of sound? A) Speed of sound increases with temperature increase. B) Speed of sound decreases with temperature increase. C) Speed of sound is not influenced by temperature. D) Speed of sound remains constant. 28488. (AIR: atpl) Define the term Mach number . A) The ratio between TAS and the speed of sound. B) The ratio between IAS and the speed of sound. C) The ratio between GS and the speed of sound. D) The ratio between EAS and thespeed of sound. 081-02-02 Normal shockwaves 3590. (AIR: atpl)

Shockwaves at MFS above MDET will be: A) sufficient to slow the local airflow to subsonic values. B) normal. C) oblique. D) detached. 3593. (AIR: atpl) At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earths surface? A) The speed of sound at ground level. B) The ground speed of the aeroplane. C) The speed of sound at flight level. D) The true air speed of the aeroplane. 3597. (AIR: atpl) When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is: A) decreased or increased, depending on Mach number. B) decreased. C) increased. D) unchanged. 3769. (AIR: atpl) When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is? A) Decreased. B) Not affected. C) Increased. D) Decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 52 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3773 (C) 3779 (D) 3782 (A) 3783 (A) 3787 (D) 3789 (B) 3795 (D) 3796 (C) 3797 (B) 3801 (D) 3802 (D) 3804 (B) 3806 (B) 3807 (D) 3815 (D) 3773. (AIR: atpl) Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a: A) smaller compression. B) higher expansion. C) higher compression. D) smaller expansion. 3779. (AIR: atpl) At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): A) decreases until the tropopause. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) increases. 3782. (AIR: atpl) The buffet margin: A) increases during a descent with a constant IAS. B) is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed. C) decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number. D) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO. 3783. (AIR: atpl) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will: A) decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation. B) increase the critical Mach number. C) decrease the span wise flow at high Mach numbers. D) increase the magnitude of the shock wave.

3787. (AIR: atpl) Tuck under is caused by (i) which movement of the center of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer. A) (i) forward; (ii) increasing. B) (i) forward; (ii) decreasing. C) (i) aft; (ii) increasing. D) (i) aft; (ii) decreasing. 3789. (AIR: atpl) The least energy loss through a normal shockwave occurs when the local Mach number is: A) well above M 1,0. B) just above M 1,0. C) just below M 1,0. D) exactly M 1,0. 3795. (AIR: atpl) When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is? A) Higher than before. B) Lower than before but still greater than 1. C) Equal to 1. D) Less than 1. 3796. (AIR: atpl) In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the: A) first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing. B) attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing. C) separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves. D) appearance of the bow wave. 3797. (AIR: atpl) Shock induced separation results in: A) constant lift. B) decreasing lift. C) increasing lift. D) decreasing drag. 3801. (AIR: atpl) The high speed buffet is induced by: A) a shift of the center of gravity. B) boundary layer control. C) expansion waves on the wing upper side. D) boundary layer separation due to shock waves. 3802. (AIR: atpl) For minimum wave drag, an aircraft should be operated at which of the following speeds? A) Mach 1,0. B) High supersonic. C) Low supersonic. D) Subsonic. 3804. (AIR: atpl) What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart? A) The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes. B) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes. C) The values of MCRIT at different weights and altitudes. D) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different weights and altitudes. 3806. (AIR: atpl)

If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper side of the wing: A) moves into leading edge direction. B) moves into trailing edge direction. C) stays all the time at the same position. D) disappears. 3807. (AIR: atpl) Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave? A) The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil. B) The airflow changes direction. C) The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic. D) The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic. 3815. (AIR: atpl) The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that: A) the friction in the boundary layer is higher. B) the speed reduction is too high. C) the static pressure decrease is comparatively high. D) kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 53 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3819 (A) 3827 (B) 3830 (A) 3843 (C) 3850 (A) 3851 (A) 3854 (C) 3855 (A) 3856 (A) 3859 (D) 3860 (C) 3864 (A) 3865 (D) 3866 (C) 3819. (AIR: atpl) Tuck under will happen: A) only above the critical Mach number. B) only at the critical Mach number. C) only below the critical Mach number. D) above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack. 3827. (AIR: atpl) When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur: A) on the underside of the wing. B) at the wing root segment, upperside. C) somewhere on the fin. D) somewhere on the hoizontal tail. 3830. (AIR: atpl) Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will: A) decrease the shock wave induced separation. B) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps. C) decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing. D) increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag. 3843. (AIR: atpl) Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a: A) higher total temperature. B) higher total pressure. C) higher loss in total pressure. D) lower static temperature. 3850. (AIR: atpl) Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack?

A) Shock stall. B) High-speed stall. C) Low-speed stall. D) Deep stall. 3851. (AIR: atpl) Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the: A) upper side of the wing. B) lower side of the wing. C) leading edge of the wing. D) trailing edge of the wing. 3854. (AIR: atpl) A normal shock wave: A) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly. B) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly. C) can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight. D) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface. 3855. (AIR: atpl) The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the: A) wave drag. B) skin friction drag. C) induced drag. D) form drag. 3856. (AIR: atpl) Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct? A) The temperature increases. B) The pressure decreases. C) The temperature decreases. D) The velocity increases. 3859. (AIR: atpl) (Refer to figure 081-03) In 1 g level flight at FL340 and at an aircraft weight of 110.000 kg and a CG at 35% MAC your low speed and high speed buffet boundaries will be: A) M 0,54; M 0,82. B) M 0,60; M 0,78. C) M 0,49; MMO. D) M 0,54; M 0,84. 3860. (AIR: atpl) (Refer to figure 081-01) At an aircraft weight of 70.000 lbs your aerodynamic ceiling in 1 g level flight will be: A) FL320 B) FL390 C) FL420 D) FL440 3864. (AIR: atpl) When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will: A) increase. B) decrease. C) stay constant. D) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

3865. (AIR: atpl) When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will: A) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. B) decrease. C) stay constant. D) increase. 3866. (AIR: atpl) At what speed does a shock wave move forward over the ground? A) Speed of sound at ground level. B) Flight level airspeed. C) Aircraft ground speed. D) Aircraft TAS. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 54 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15728 (B) 15731 (D) 15732 (C) 21010 (B) 21013 (C) 21041 (C) 21055 (C) 21094 (C) 21101 (B) 21114 (C) 21134 (A) 21160 (B) 21177 (D) 21189 (D) 15728. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach numbers above the critical Mach number? A) Elevator stall. B) Mach buffet. C) Dutch roll. D) Speed instability. 15731. (AIR: atpl) In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because: A) behind the shock wave pressure is lower. B) aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward. C) aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave. D) aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing. 15732. (AIR: atpl) When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach number the center of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires: A) much more thrust from the engine. B) a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect. C) a pitch up input of the stabilizer. D) a stability augmentation system. 21010. (AIR: atpl) A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at constant high altitude. Which type of stall is most likely to occur if this aeroplane decelerates during an inadvertant increase in load factor? A) Low speed stall. B) Accelerated stall. C) Shock stall. D) Deep stall. 21013. (AIR: atpl) A normal shock wave is a discontinuity plane: A) across which the pressure drops suddenly. B) across which the temperature drops suddenly. C) that is always normal to the local flow. D) that is always normal to the surface.

21041. (AIR: atpl) Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which: A) there is supersonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane. B) there is subsonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane. C) local supersonic flow first exists on any part of the aeroplane. D) the aeroplane has zero buffet margin. 21055. (AIR: atpl) From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane it is determined that at FL310 at a given mass buffet free flight is possible between M = 0,74 and M = 0,88. In what way would these numbers change if the aeroplane is suddenly pulled up? A) Both Mach numbers decrease. B) The lower Mach number decreases and the higher Mach number increases. C) The lower Mach number increases and the higher Mach number decreases. D) Both Mach numbers increase. 21094. (AIR: atpl) Mach buffet occurs: A) directly after exceeding MCRIT. B) when the Mach number has increased to MCRIT. C) at the Mach number at which shock wave induced boundary layer separation occurs. D) when the stall angle of attack is exceeded. 21101. (AIR: atpl) Some aeroplanes have a waist or coke bottle contoured fuselage. This is done to: A) increase the strength of the wing root junction. B) apply area rule. C) fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage. D) improve the low speed characteristics. 21114. (AIR: atpl) The critical Mach number of an aerofoil is the free stream Mach number at which: A) a shock wave appears on the upper surface. B) the maximum operating temperature is reached. C) sonic speed (M=1) is first reached on the upper surface. D) a supersonic bell appears on the upper surface. 21134. (AIR: atpl) To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should: A) have a low thickness to chord ratio. B) have a large camber. C) be used with a high angle of attack. D) have a large leading edge radius. 21160. (AIR: atpl) When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shock waves will occur: A) on the lower surface of the wing. B) on the upper surface at the wing root. C) somewhere on the fin. D) somewhere on the horizontal tail. 21177. (AIR: atpl) Which statement is correct regarding a shock wave on a lift generating wing? A) It is located at the greatest wing thickness when the aeroplane reaches the speed of sound. B) It reaches its highest strength when flying at the critical

Mach number. C) It moves forward when the Mach number is increased. D) It moves slightly aft when an aileron is deflected downward. 21189. (AIR: atpl) Whilst flying at a constant IAS and at n = 1, as the aeroplane mass decreases the value of MCRIT: A) decreases. B) remains constant. C) is independent of the angle of attack. D) increases. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 55 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23483 (B) 23505 (B) 23506 (C) 23507 (A) 23517 (D) 23519 (C) 23593 (B) 23595 (D) 23598 (A) 23606 (D) 23612 (D) 23613 (B) 23616 (A) 23618 (D) 23628 (A) 23483. (AIR: atpl) What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow? A) The transonic Mach number. B) The critical Mach number. C) M 1,0. D) MMO. 23505. (AIR: atpl) At MCRIT, a shockwave will appear first: A) at the leading edge. B) near to the point of maximum wing thickness. C) at the trailing edge. D) on the underside of the wing. 23506. (AIR: atpl) The critical Mach number is: A) the mach number when the aircraft reaches the speed of sight. B) the mach number when a shock wave forms at the leading edge. C) the aircraft s mach number when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft. D) the maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly during normal operations. 23507. (AIR: atpl) At speeds just above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient: A) will start to increase. B) will start to decrease. C) will remain constant. D) is inversely proportional to the Mach number. 23517. (AIR: atpl) The effect of a shock wave on control surface hinge moment will be: A) none on powered flying controls, reversal on manual controls. B) none, the shock wave forms forward of the flying control surfaces. C) stalling of the control surfaces. D) rapid fluctuation of hinge moments, causing a high frequency buzz . 23519. (AIR: atpl) With increasing mach number the CP moves: A) remains stationary. B) forwards.

C) rearwards. D) rearwards initially, then moves forward to a position in front of the leading edge. 23593. (AIR: atpl) The local airflow after passing through a normal shockwave is: A) more than Mach 1. B) less than Mach 1. C) exactly Mach 1. D) initially more than Mach 1 then decreasing to Mach 1. 23595. (AIR: atpl) What causes a large increase in drag at high transonic speed? A) An increase in parasite drag due to shockwave formation. B) An increase in induced drag due to shockwave formation. C) The reduction in thrust due to shockwave formation. D) Wave drag. 23598. (AIR: atpl) In the transonic range, lift will decrease when shock stall occurs, because: A) of the separation of the boundary layer at the shock wave. B) of the attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing. C) of the appearance of the bow wave. D) MCRIT is reached. 23606. (AIR: atpl) A normal shockwave causes the airflow to: A) expand as it passes the aerofoil. B) change direction. C) change from subsonic to supersonic. D) change from supersonic to subsonic. 23612. (AIR: atpl) What is the effect of weight on MCRIT at a constant IAS? A) Increase. B) Decrease. C) Increase with decreasing angle of attack. D) Decrease with increasing angle of attack. 23613. (AIR: atpl) A normal shock wave is: A) a discontinuity plane which is always normal to the surface. B) develops anytime an aircraft is in the transonic range. C) a discontinuity plane where pressure changes. D) none of the above. 23616. (AIR: atpl) How does an aircraft with swept wings behave due to shock stall? A) Nose down. B) Nose up. C) Nose remains in neutral position. D) It depends on the OAT. 23618. (AIR: atpl) Increasing speed above MCRIT on a swept wing could cause: A) buffeting and nose pitch up. B) increased lift requiring high speed tuck. C) structural failure of the wing due to shock wave formation. D) buffeting and nose down pitch. 23628. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following is the correct definition of the free

stream MCRIT? A) When the local velocity reaches Mach 1. B) When shock stall first occurs. C) When the shock wave on the top surface and the bottom surface both reach the trailing edge. D) Equal to the local speed of sound. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 56 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23638 (A) 23640 (D) 23642 (C) 23646 (B) 23649 (C) 23655 (A) 23659 (B) 23664 (C) 23679 (D) 23688 (C) 23697 (D) 23712 (C) 23715 (A) 23722 (C) 23723 (B) 23727 (B) 23638. (AIR: atpl) What wing design features will help increase MCRIT? A) Sweep back / thin aerofoil. B) Positive camber / sweepback. C) Dihedral / thin aerofoil. D) Negative camber / sweepback. 23640. (AIR: atpl) In the transonic speed range, what affects the flight handling characteristics? A) IAS. B) CAS. C) TAS. D) Mach number. 23642. (AIR: atpl) What phenomenon can exist at low Mach number? A) Mach tuck. B) Shock waves. C) Dutch roll. D) Tuck under. 23646. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following combinations would result in the lowest value of MCRIT? A) Small camber / thin aerofoil. B) Large camber / thick aerofoil. C) Small camber / thick aerofoil. D) Large camber / thin aerofoil. 23649. (AIR: atpl) How does the density and temperature of the airflow vary as it passes through a shock wave? A) Increases / decreases. B) Decreases / decreases. C) Increases / increases. D) Decreases / increases. 23655. (AIR: atpl) What is determined by the buffet onset chart? A) Values of low speed and Mach buffet at different weights and altitudes. B) Values of MCRIT at different weights and altitudes. C) Values of stall and shock stall. D) Values of stall. 23659. (AIR: atpl) Mach tuck is: A) nose up at transonic speeds. B) nose down at transonic speeds. C) nose up pitching caused by CP movement. D) caused by the tendency of a swept wing to initially stall at the tip.

23664. (AIR: atpl) Tuck under occurs at: A) all Mach numbers. B) above and below MCRIT. C) Mach numbers above MCRIT. D) Mach numbers below MCRIT. 23679. (AIR: atpl) What is a normal shock wave perpendicular to? A) Angle of attack. B) Angle of incidence. C) Aircraft longitudinal axis. D) The relative airflow. 23688. (AIR: atpl) Why does total pressure decrease across a shockwave? A) Boundary layer control. B) Separation of boundary layer. C) Because some of the kinetic energy is used in heating the air. D) Pressure drop after shock wave. 23697. (AIR: atpl) Critical Mach number is the highest speed at which: A) highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO). B) speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraft (Mach number < 1). C) speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane. D) highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane. 23712. (AIR: atpl) What are the reasons for an aircraft to have a waisted or coke bottle shaped fuselage? A) Allow engine intakes more room. B) Increased strength for wing attachment. C) Transonic area rule. D) Increase low speed stability. 23715. (AIR: atpl) The Mach buffet margin: A) increases as altitude decreases at constant IAS. B) decreases as altitude decreases at constant Mach number. C) remains constant at MMO. D) is better using a step climb technique. 23722. (AIR: atpl) In transonic flight the increase in drag is due to the: A) increase in skin friction. B) increase in angle of attack. C) shock wave. D) increase in parasite drag. 23723. (AIR: atpl) An aircraft accelerates in the transonic region, the CP moves aft. This compensated for by: A) a stability augmentation device. B) a nose up pitch from the stabiliser. C) moving the CG forward by transferring fuel. D) increasing the angle of incidence of the horizontal stabiliser. 23727. (AIR: atpl) As Mach number increases at transonic speed, tuck under is caused by the CP moving ___ and downwash at the tail ___. A) aft; increasing

B) aft; decreasing C) forward; increasing D) forward; decreasing 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 57 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24461 (C) 3771 (D) 3780 (C) 3785 (B) 3786 (D) 3791 (B) 3808 (A) 3811 (D) 3820 (D) 3823 (A) 3825 (D) 3828 (A) 24461. (AIR: atpl) (Refer to figure 081-03) What are the low and high buffet onset speeds given the following conditions: FL350 Mass: 110.000 kg Bank angle: 50° A) M 0,69 and > M 0,84. B) M 0,72 and > M 0,84. C) M 0,73 and M 0,83. D) M 0,62 and M 0,83. 3811. (AIR: atpl) The consequences of exceeding MCRIT in a swept-wing aeroplane may be: (assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight) A) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up. B) an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up. C) engine unbalance and buffeting. D) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down. 3820. (AIR: atpl) Compared to straight wings of the same airfoil section swept wings ___ the onset of the transonic drag rise and have a ___ CD in supersonic flight. A) delay; lower B) hasten; lower C) hasten; higher D) delay; higher 3823. (AIR: atpl) What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on MCRIT at n=1, when flying at constant IAS? The value of MCRIT: A) increases. B) remains constant. C) is independent of the angle of attack. D) decreases. 3825. (AIR: atpl) The critical Mach number of an aeroplane can be increased by: A) dihedral of the wings. B) vortex generators. C) control deflection. D) sweep back of the wings. 3828. (AIR: atpl) What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on MCRIT at constant IAS? A) MCRIT increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack. B) MCRIT increases as a result of compressibility effects. C) MCRIT decreases. D) MCRIT decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.

081-02-03 Means to avoid the effects of exceeding MCRIT 3771. (AIR: atpl) When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of: A) lower stalling speed. B) greater strength. C) increased longitudinal stability. D) higher critical Mach number. 3780. (AIR: atpl) The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M 1,3 is called: A) hypersonic range. B) supersonic range. C) transonic range. D) subsonic range. 3785. (AIR: atpl) The critical Mach number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach number, which produces the first evidence of: A) buffet. B) local sonic flow. C) shock wave. D) supersonic flow. 3786. (AIR: atpl) The critical Mach number can be increased by: A) an increase in wing aspect ratio. B) positive dihedral of the wings. C) a T-tail. D) sweepback of the wings. 3791. (AIR: atpl) MCRIT is the free stream Mach number at which: A) the bottom shock wave reaches the wing trailing edge. B) the first local Mach number at any point on the aircraft equals M 1,0. C) he bow shock wave attaches to the wing leading edge. D) the center of pressure is at its most rearward point. 3808. (AIR: atpl) Two methods to increase the critical Mach number are: A) thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing. B) thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing. C) positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing. D) thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 58 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3837 (B) 3838 (C) 3840 (B) 3842 (B) 3844 (D) 3847 (C) 20878 (C) 21030 (B) 23283 (D) 23365 (A) 23413 (A) 23414 (B) 23482 (D) 23508 (A) 3837. (AIR: atpl) Compared to a straight wing of the same airfoil section a wing swept at 30 should theoretically have an MCRIT ___ times MCRIT for the straight wing, but will, in practice gain ___ that increase. A) cosine 30; twice B) 1,154; half C) sine 30; half D) 1,414; twice 3838. (AIR: atpl)

Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing: A) increase critical Mach number. B) increase wave drag. C) decrease wave drag. D) decrease critical Mach number. 3840. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following (i) aerofoils and (ii) angles of attack will produce the lowest MCRIT values? A) (i) thick; (ii) small B) (i) thick; (ii) large C) (i) thin; (ii) large D) (i) thin; (ii) small 3842. (AIR: atpl) The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which: A) the maximum operating temperature is reached. B) sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil. C) a shock-wave appears on the upper surface. D) a supersonic bell appears on the upper surface. 3844. (AIR: atpl) Critical Mach number is the: A) highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO). B) speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraft(Mach number < 1). C) speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane. D) highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane. 3847. (AIR: atpl) MCRIT is the free stream Mach number at which: A) shockstall occurs. B) Mach buffet occurs. C) somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally. D) the critical angle of attack is reached. 20878. (AIR: atpl) To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should: A) be used with a high angle of attack. B) have a large leading edge radius. C) have a low thickness to chord ratio. D) have a large camber. 21030. (AIR: atpl) An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if: A) stick force stability is independent of the airspeed and -altitude. B) at transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional elevator stick force characteristics. C) stick force per g strongly decreases at low Mach numbers. D) at high airspeed and low altitude the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional elevator stick force characteristics. 23283. (AIR: atpl) The purpose of sweep back on the wings of a high speed aircraft is: A) to reduce drag at all speeds. B) to reduce drag at low speeds only. C) to increase the lift at high speeds. D) to delay to a higher speed the drag rise resulting from wave drag (increase MCRIT). 23365. (AIR: atpl)

Vortex generators on an aircraft s wings: A) re-energise the boundary layer by making it more turbulent. B) re-energise the boundary layer by making it more laminar. C) delay the transition from laminar to turbulent flow. D) delay the separation by decreasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer. 23413. (AIR: atpl) At high airspeeds, vortex generators: A) mix the boundary layer to delay separation. B) increase MCRIT. C) decrease MCRIT. D) increase the velocity of the airflow through the shockwave. 23414. (AIR: atpl) What is principal advantage of sweepback: A) accelerates the onset of compressibility effect. B) the MCRIT will increase. C) increases changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. D) lateral stability is reduced. 23482. (AIR: atpl) The purpose of vortex generators on a high speed aircraft is to: A) prevent the formation of shock waves. B) induce a root stall. C) reduce induced drag. D) delay boundary layer separation. 23508. (AIR: atpl) For a wing of low thickness / chord ratio the critical Mach number will be: A) higher than a wing of high thickness / chord ratio. B) lower than a wing of high thickness / chord ratio. C) the same as a wing of high thickness / chord ratio. D) higher only if the wing has a supercritical section. 081-02 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS 59 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23572 (B) 23582 (C) 23597 (A) 23645 (A) 23658 (D) 23703 (B) 23721 (B) 23572. (AIR: atpl) The purpose of vortex generators is: A) prevent span wise flow. B) to reduce the severity of shock induced airflow separation. C) prevent tip stalling on a swept wing. D) to de-energise the boundary layer. 23582. (AIR: atpl) The Mach trim system operates: A) operates at all Mach numbers. B) at low Mach numbers only. C) at high Mach numbers only. D) operates at supersonic speeds only. 23597. (AIR: atpl) What is the function of a Mach trim device? A) To prevent high speed tuck. B) To prevent overspeed. C) To prevent short period oscillation. D) To prevent phugoid oscillation. 23645. (AIR: atpl) If Mach trim is unserviceable you should: A) limit the Mach number at which you fly.

B) fly at a constant speed. C) move pax to the rear of the aeroplane. D) move pax to the forward of the aeroplane. 23658. (AIR: atpl) The Mach trimmer: A) increases the stick force per g in the supersonic range. B) increases the nose down pitching moment due to shock induced separation. C) compensates for the nose up pitching moment due to super stall. D) compensates for the nose down pitching moment at transonic speeds. 23703. (AIR: atpl) Mach trim is used to correct for: A) increased drag. B) movement of the CP. C) pitching up. D) changes in the position of the CG at speeds greater than MCRIT. 23721. (AIR: atpl) To counteract tuck under: A) increase IAS. B) decrease stabiliser incidence. C) increase thrust. D) increase stability. 081-03 SUPERSONIC AERODYNAMICS 60 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 2632 (A) 3584 (C) 3586 (B) 3587 (A) 3588 (C) 3591 (D) 3594 (A) 3595 (A) 3596 (D) 3598 (C) 3601 (B) 3603 (B) 3604 (D) 3605 (A) 081-03-01 Oblique shockwaves 2632. (AIR: atpl) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will: A) decrease. B) increase. C) stay constant. D) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. 3584. (AIR: atpl) If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the center of lift will move: A) forward to the leading edge. B) aft to the trailing edge. C) aft to the mid chord. D) forward to the mid chord. 3586. (AIR: atpl) In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is: A) high (supersonic). B) small but still supersonic. C) lower than 1. D) exactly 1. 3587. (AIR: atpl) On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic center: A) shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.

B) shifts aft by about 10%. C) remains unchanged. D) slightly shifts forward. 3588. (AIR: atpl) When airflow over a wing becomes supersonic, the pressure pattern over the surface will become: A) the same as subsonic. B) irregular. C) rectangular. D) triangular. 3591. (AIR: atpl) If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the center of pressure will move: A) to a position near the trailing edge. B) forward. C) to a position near the leading edge. D) to the mid chord position. 3594. (AIR: atpl) When a supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shockwave static pressure will ___ and temperature will ___. A) rise; rise B) fall; rise C) fall; fall D) rise; fall 3595. (AIR: atpl) The aft movement of the center of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic flight regime will: A) increase the static longitudinal stability. B) decrease the longitudinal stability. C) increase the static lateral stability. D) decrease the static lateral stability. 3596. (AIR: atpl) Which statement about an expansion wave in supersonic flow is correct? 1) The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it. 2) The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it. A) 1 and 2 are incorrect. B) 1 and 2 are correct. C) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. D) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. 3598. (AIR: atpl) The bow wave will appear first at: A) M = 0,6 B) M = MCRIT C) M = 1,0 D) M = 1,3 3601. (AIR: atpl) In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is: A) irregular. B) rectangular. C) triangular. D) the same as in subsonic flight. 3603. (AIR: atpl) The additional increase of drag at Mach numbers above the critical Mach number is due to: A) increased angle of attack. B) wave drag.

C) increased interference drag. D) increased skin friction. 3604. (AIR: atpl) As an aircraft goes from subsonic to supersonic flight the CP: A) remains in the same position. B) moves aft and then forward. C) moves forward. D) moves aft. 3605. (AIR: atpl) Which statement about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow is correct? 1) The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind. 2) The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind. A) 1 and 2 are correct. B) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. D) 1 and 2 are incorrect. 081-03 SUPERSONIC AERODYNAMICS 61 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3610 (C) 3611 (A) 3613 (D) 3614 (B) 3615 (B) 3616 (C) 3617 (D) 15730 (C) 23295 (C) 23509 (C) 23511 (D) 23518 (A) 23554 (D) 23555 (B) 3610. (AIR: atpl) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will: A) stay constant. B) increase. C) decrease. D) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. 3611. (AIR: atpl) How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it? A) Density will increase, temperature will increase. B) Density will increase, temperature will decrease. C) Density will decrease, temperature will increase. D) Density will decrease, temperature will decrease. 3613. (AIR: atpl) When a supersonic airflow passes through an expansion wave speed will ___ and temperature wil ___. A) decrease; fall B) decrease; rise C) increase; rise D) increase; fall 3614. (AIR: atpl) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will: A) decrease. B) increase. C) stay constant. D) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. 3615. (AIR: atpl) The shock wave angle of a supersonic aircraft at increasing

Mach number: A) remain the same. B) decreases. C) increases. D) decreases, then increases above certain Mach number. 3616. (AIR: atpl) When an aircraft is flying at speeds above Mach 1, pressure disturbances from the aircraft will be felt only: A) in front of the normal shock wave. B) in front of the Mach cone. C) within the Mach cone. D) in front of the oblique shock wave. 3617. (AIR: atpl) If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the shock wave angles will: A) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. B) increase. C) stay constant. D) decrease. 15730. (AIR: atpl) In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are: A) in front of the aeroplane. B) very weak and negligible. C) in between a conical area, depending on the Mach number. D) outside the conical area depending on the Mach number. 23295. (AIR: atpl) Wave drag: A) may occur at any speed, but will be very small at low speeds. B) will only occur on aircraft without sweepback. C) will only occur at speeds above the critical Mach number. D) will only occur when the aircraft is flying at supersonic speed. 23509. (AIR: atpl) A bow wave develops: A) just below Mach 1. B) equal to Mach 1. C) above Mach 1. D) only if the leading edge is very sharp. 23511. (AIR: atpl) During acceleration from subsonic to supersonic speed the center of pressure movement will be: A) forward. B) rearward. C) remain stationary. D) irregular, forward and aft, but overall rearward to the 50% chord. 23518. (AIR: atpl) The velocity behind a (i) normal and an (ii) oblique shock wave is: A) (i) decreased to subsonic; (ii) decreased but still supersonic. B) (i) increased to supersonic; (ii) decreased to subsonic. C) (i) decreased but still supersonic; (ii) increased to supersonic. D) (i) increased to supersonic; (ii) increased but still subsonic. 23554. (AIR: atpl) A bow wave is: A) the aft limit of influence of the aeroplane, air behind the bow wave is not affected by the presence of the aircraft.

B) the forward limit of influence of the aeroplane, air behind the bow wave is not affected by the presence of the aircraft. C) the aft limit of influence of the aeroplane, air ahead of the bow wave is affected by the aircraft s approach. D) the forward limit of influence of the aeroplane, air ahead of the bow wave receives no warning of the aircraft s approach. 23555. (AIR: atpl) What movement of the center of lift occurs when accelerating an aircraft with a symmetrical aerofoil to supersonic speed? A) Forward to the leading edge. B) Irregular, but in an overall rearward direction towards the center of the chord. C) Aft to the trailing edge. D) No movement occurs. 081-03 SUPERSONIC AERODYNAMICS 62 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23556 (D) 23559 (A) 23560 (A) 23561 (B) 23562 (D) 23577 (B) 23675 (D) 24071 (A) 27021 (B) 27028 (A) 23556. (AIR: atpl) What happens to the pressure and temperature of supersonic airflow through an oblique shock wave? A) Static pressure increases / temperature decreases. B) Static pressure decreases / temperature decreases. C) Static pressure decreases / temperature increases. D) Static pressure increases / temperature increases. 23559. (AIR: atpl) When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will be the area of influence of any pressure disturbance due tot the presence of the aircraft be located? A) Within the mach cone. B) In front of the mach cone. C) In front of the normal shock wave. D) In front of the oblique shock wave. 23560. (AIR: atpl) When an aircraft with symmetrical aerofoil accelerates to supersonic speed, what happens to the center of lift? A) Moves aft to the center of the chord. B) Moves forward towards the 25% chord. C) Moves forward of the 25% chord to the leading edge. D) Moves aft of the 25% chord to the trailing edge at a speed just in excess of M 1,0. 23561. (AIR: atpl) What happens to the temperature of airflow as it passes through an expansion wave? A) Increases. B) Decreases. C) Remains the same. D) Initially increases slightly, then increases substantially. 23562. (AIR: atpl) What happens to the static pressure and temperature of supersonic flow through an oblique shock wave? A) Temp increases and static pressure decreases. B) Static pressure increases and temp is constant. C) Static pressure remains constant and temp decreases. D) Static pressure increases and temp increases. 23577. (AIR: atpl)

What happens to static pressure as air flows through an expansion wave? A) Increases. B) Decreases. C) Stays the same. D) Initially increases then decreases, but still higher than before. 23675. (AIR: atpl) What is the movement of the AC from subsonic to supersonic? A) 0 to 25%. B) 0 to 50%. C) 50% to 25%. D) 25% to 50%. 24071. (AIR: atpl) When an aeroplane accelerates from subsonic to supersonic speed, the Aerodynamic Centre: A) moves from 25% to 50% chord. B) moves forward. C) is unchanged. D) no longer exists. 27021. (AIR: atpl) The critical speed where the speed is too low and too high at the same time is called: A) MCRIT. B) coffin corner. C) supersonic. D) high speed buffet. 27028. (AIR: atpl) MCRIT is the speed at which A) sonic flow is first achieved above the surface of the airfoil. B) the a/c is passing the sound barrier. C) the center of pressure is moving aft. D) the aircraft is not controllable. 081-04 STABILITY 63 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3876 (A) 3880 (A) 3884 (B) 3887 (C) 3889 (B) 3891 (D) 3914 (C) 3919 (C) 3932 (C) 3935 (C) 3956 (C) 23330 (D) 23331 (C) 23544 (C) 081-04-01 Condition of equilibrium in stable horizontal flight 3876. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At constant EAS, what is the effect on aerodynamic damping as height increases? A) Damping in all axes is reduced. B) Damping in pitch manoeuvres only is reduced. C) Damping in roll is increased. D) Damping in all axes is increased. 3880. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is placed in a level balanced turn and the controls released. It is spirally unstable if: A) the bank steadily increases. B) the bank remains the same. C) the bank reduces. D) the pitch attitude increases. 3884. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A statically unstable aeroplane is: A) always dynamically stable. B) never dynamically stable. C) sometimes dynamically stable. D) sometimes dynamically unstable.

3887. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value? (The engines are mounted below the wing)? A) Forward center of gravity and takeoff thrust. B) Aft center of gravity and idle thrust. C) Forward center of gravity and idle thrust. D) Aft center of gravity and takeoff thrust. 3889. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane, with a CG location behind the center of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: A) zero. B) upwards. C) downwards. D) upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection. 3891. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows: (1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) A) 1: no effect; 2: positive; 3: negative. B) 1: positive; 2: negative; 3: negative. C) 1: negative; 2: positive; 3: positive. D) 1: no effect; 2: negative; 3: positive. 3914. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the total moments about an axis are not zero, what will be the result around that axis? A) Equilibrium. B) Constant angular velocity. C) Angular acceleration. D) Constant angular displacement. 3919. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft has its CG ahead of its CP, in straight and level flight: A) there will normally be an upload on the tailplane. B) the tailplane will have a negative angle of attack. C) there will normally be a download on the tailplane. D) there will normally be no load on the tailplane. 3932. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the aircraft is properly loaded the CG, the neutral point and the manoeuvre point will be in the order given, forward to aft: A) manoeuvre point, neutral point, CG. B) manoeuvre point, CG, neutral point. C) CG, neutral point, manoeuvre point. D) CG, manoeuvre point, neutral point. 3935. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane: A) would fly a path with a constant curvature. B) would be difficult to control. C) would experience an angular acceleration about that axis. D) would not be affected because the situation is normal. 3956. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about: A) the aerodynamic center of the wing. B) the neutral point of the aeroplane. C) the center of gravity. D) the center of pressure of the wing.

23330. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Speed stability of an aircraft: A) is stable below VMD because total drag decreases as speed decreases. B) is unstable above VMD because thrust decreases as speed increases. C) is unstable below VMD because total drag decreases as speed decreases. D) is stable above VMD because total drag increases as speed increases. 23331. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is said to have speed stability: A) if it recovers from displacements about any of the three axes at all speeds. B) if it can be trimmed to fly at any speed between stalling speed and VNE. C) when the speed is disturbed from its trimmed value, it tends to return to the original speed. D) if it can fly a 3° glide slope without the need to adjust the thrust setting. 23544. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft has negative dynamic and positive static stability, this will result in: A) undamped oscillations. B) convergent oscillations. C) divergent oscillations. D) damped oscillations. 081-04 STABILITY 64 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23627 (C) 3878 (B) 3892 (C) 3927 (A) 21070 (A) 2637 (D) 3805 (C) 3849 (D) 3863 (A) 3867 (D) 3871 (B) 23627. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft has positive static stability: A) it is always dynamically stable. B) it is always dynamically unstable. C) it can be dynamically neutral / stable or unstable. D) it is always dynamically neutral. 3927. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero? A) Down. B) Up. C) No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged. D) It depends on the position of the center of gravity. 21070. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How can the designer of an aeroplane with straight wings increase the static lateral stability? A) By increasing the aspect ratio of the vertical stabiliser, whilst maintaining a constant area. B) By fitting a ventral fin (a fin at the under side of the aeroplane). C) By applying wing twist. D) By increasing anhedral. 081-04-02 Methods of achieving balance 3878. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

For a normal stable aeroplane, the center of gravity is located: A) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane. B) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane. C) at the neutral point of the aeroplane. D) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane. 3892. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The distance between the CG Datum and the CG Neutral Point in straight and level flight is called the: A) CG forward limit. B) CG aft limit. C) CG static margin. D) CG manoeuvre margin. 081-04-03 Longitudinal stability 2637. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect of an aft shift of the center of gravity on (i) static longitudinal stability and (ii) the required control deflection for a given pitch change? A) (i) reduces; (ii) increases. B) (i) increases; (ii) increases. C) (i) increases; (ii) reduces. D) (i) reduces; (ii) reduces. 3805. (AIR: atpl) The effect of Mach trim on stick forces for power operated controls: A) is to decrease the stick force gradient to prevent the possibility of high speed stall. B) is to decrease the stick force gradient to ensure the pilot can manoeuvre the aircraft adequately when flying at high transonic Mach number. C) is to maintain the required stick force gradient. D) a Mach trim system is not required if an aircraft has power operated controls. 3849. (AIR: atpl) The Mach trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of: A) compressibility effects on the stabilizer. B) increased drag due to shock wave formation. C) uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting. D) changes in the position of center of pressure. 3863. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following best describes the function of the Mach trim system? A) It adjusts the longitudinal trim of the aircraft. B) It adjusts the stabiliser trim position. C) It adjusts the fore and aft fuel balance. D) It adjusts the elevator trim tab. 3867. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The max aft position of the center of gravity is amongst others limited by the: A) too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane. B) maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane. C) maximum elevator deflection. D) minimum value of the stick force per g. 3871. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effects of CG position on longitudinal static stability and control response will be: A) forward movement of the CG will reduce stability and increase control response. B) forward movement of the CG will reduce control response

and increase stability. C) rearward movement of the CG will increase stability and reduce control response. D) rearward movement of the CG will reduce stability and control response. 081-04 STABILITY 65 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3893 (C) 3894 (A) 3898 (C) 3900 (D) 3902 (D) 3903 (C) 3904 (B) 3905 (A) 3908 (A) 3918 (B) 3921 (C) 3924 (C) 3925 (B) 3893. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement about stick force per g is correct? A) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value. B) The stick force per g increases, when center of gravity is moved aft. C) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure acceptable control characteristics. D) If the slope of the force line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane. 3894. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the: A) CG is on the aft CG limit. B) speed is low. C) CG position is on the forward CG limit. D) flaps are down. 3898. (AIR: atpl) In case the Mach trimmer fails: A) the speed must be kept constant. B) try to relocate the center of gravity aft. C) the Mach number must be limited. D) the aeroplane weight must be limited. 3900. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane with the center of gravity forward of the center of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be: A) downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the center of gravity. B) upwards. C) zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium. D) downwards. 3902. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load factor of 2,5 is: A) 150 N B) 375 N C) 450 N D) 225 N 3903. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft has static longitudinal instability, it: A) will be dynamically stable. B) may or may not be dynamically stable, depending on momentum and damping factors. C) will be dynamically unstable.

D) will be dynamically stable only at low speed. 3904. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The CG position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct? A) Increase of speed generates pull forces. B) Increasing 10 kts trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than increasing 10 kts trimmed at high speed. C) Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability. D) Stick force stability is not affected by trim. 3905. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One of the requirements for dynamic stability is: A) positive static stability. B) a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim. C) a small CG range. D) effective elevator. 3908. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a swept wing is to give: A) positive dihedral effect. B) negative dihedral effect. C) decreased roll-with-yaw effect. D) adverse yaw effect. 3918. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Tuck under is: A) the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime. B) the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime. C) shaking of the control column at high Mach number. D) the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back. 3921. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the aerofoil? A) Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack. B) Positive, because the center of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack. C) No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack. D) Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack. 3924. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The short period mode of longitudinal dynamic stability is: A) a rapid oscillation about the normal axis. B) a rapid oscillation about the longitudinal axis. C) a rapid oscillation about the lateral axis. D) always induced by the pilot. 3925. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability? A) The engine. B) The horizontal tailplane. C) The fuselage. D) The wing. 081-04 STABILITY

66 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3926 (C) 3930 (C) 3934 (D) 3936 (D) 3938 (C) 3941 (A) 3946 (B) 3949 (A) 3955 (B) 3960 (A) 3963 (B) 3964 (C) 15716 (D) 15729 (D) 3926. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation. B) Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically stable about the relevant axis. C) Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis. D) A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually. 3930. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dynamic longitudinal stability requires: A) an effective elevator. B) a small CG range. C) positive static longitudinal stability. D) a variable incidence (trimming) tailplane. 3934. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following components is most important in determining longitudinal static stability? A) Fuselage. B) Wings. C) Engines. D) Horizontal tailplane. 3936. (AIR: atpl) A Mach trimmer: A) has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully hydraulic controlled aeroplane. B) increases the stick force per g at high Mach numbers. C) is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach numbers. D) corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach numbers. 3938. (AIR: atpl) Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct? A) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers. B) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO. C) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number. D) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up. 3941. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The (i) stick force stability and the (ii) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by: A) (i) forward CG position; (ii) forward CG position. B) (i) forward CG position; (ii) aeroplane nose up trim. C) (i) aft CG position; (ii) aft CG position. D) (i) aeroplane nose up trim; (ii) aeroplane nose up trim. 3946. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a highly cambered airfoil on longitudinal stability will be? A) Positive effect because the lift vector is inclined rearwards as angle of attack increases.

B) No effect. C) Negative effect because the lift vector is inclined forwards as angle of attack increases. D) Positive effect as CP moves backwards as angle of attack increases. 3949. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the aircraft CG is on the aft limit, it is: A) in front of the neutral point. B) above the neutral point. C) behind the neutral point. D) on the neutral point. 3955. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A CG location beyond the aft limit leads to: A) a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the takeoff. B) an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g). C) an increasing static longitudinal stability. D) a better recovery performance in the spin. 3960. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the maximum elevator up deflection is normally required when the flaps are: A) fully down and the CG is fully forward. B) up and the CG is fully forward. C) fully down and the CG is fully aft. D) up and the CG is fully aft. 3963. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic center of the wing is the point, where: A) change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant. B) pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack. C) aerodynamic forces are constant. D) the aeroplanes lateral axis intersects with the center of gravity. 3964. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the: A) wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface. B) center of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing. C) center of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane. D) aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range. 15716. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Tuck under may happen at: A) low Mach numbers. B) all Mach numbers. C) only at low altitudes. D) high Mach numbers. 15729. (AIR: atpl) The Mach trim system will prevent: A) dutch roll. B) buffeting. C) shock stall. D) tuck under. 081-04 STABILITY 67 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21001 (A) 21007 (A) 21012 (C) 21016 (B) 21020 (B) 21045 (C) 21099 (B) 21105 (C)

21106 (C) 21125 (D) 21147 (B) 21154 (A) 21158 (C) 21001. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Tuck under is the: A) nose down pitching tendency as speed is increased in the transonic range. B) nose up pitching tendency as speed is increased in the transonic range. C) shaking of the control column at high Mach number. D) nose down pitching tendency when the control column is pulled rearwards. 21007. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-07) The aeroplane motion, schematically illustrated in the annex, is an example of a dynamically: A) unstable periodic motion. B) indifferent periodic motion. C) stable periodic motion. D) indifferent aperiodic motion. 21012. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A negative contribution to the static longitudinal stability of convewntional jet transport aeroplanes is provided by: A) a fixed trim position. B) the tail. C) the fuselage. D) a fixed elevator deflection. 21016. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane, being manually flown in the speed unstable region, experiences a disturbance that causes a speed reduction. If the altitude is maintained and thrust remains constant, the aeroplane speed will: A) increase. B) further decrease. C) initially increase and thereafter decrease. D) initially further decrease and thereafter increase. 21020. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of attack changes: A) the change in total aeroplane lift acts through the center of gravity. B) the change in total aeroplane lift acts aft of the center of gravity. C) the resulting moment is positive. D) the change in wing lift is equal to the change in tail lift. 21045. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a phugoid the speed: A) varies significantly, as during a short period oscillation. B) remains approximately constant, as during a short period oscillation. C) varies significantly, whereas during a short period oscillation it does not. D) remains approximately constant, whereas during a short period oscillation it varies significantly. 21099. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Positive static longitudinal stability means that a: A) nose up moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack. B) nose down moment occurs after encountering an upgust. C) nose down moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack. D) nose up moment occurs after encountering an upgust.

21105. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stick force per g: A) does not change with increasing altitude. B) is selected by the pilot by electronic means before each flight. C) is dependent on cg location. D) has a maximum value related to acceptable controllability, the minimum value is of no concern. 21106. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic contribution to the static longitudinal stability of the nacelles of aft fuselage mounted engines is: A) zero. B) negative. C) positive. D) maximum during cruise. 21125. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The manoeuvre stability of a large jet transport aeroplane is 280 N/g. What stick force is required, if the aeroplane is pulled to the limit manoeuvring load factor from a trimmed horizontal straight and steady flight? (cruise configuration) A) 1050 N B) 770 N C) 630 N D) 420 N 21147. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect of elevator trim tab adjustment on the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane? A) Depends on the value of stick force/g. B) No effect. C) Aeroplane nose up trim increases the static longitudinal stability. D) Aeroplane nose down trim increases the static longitudinal stability. 21154. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane has zero static longitudinal stability, the Cm versus angle of attack line: A) is horizontal. B) is vertical. C) has a negative slope. D) has a positive slope. 21158. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When moving the center of gravity forward the stick force per g will: A) decrease. B) not change. C) increase. D) change but only at very high speeds. 081-04 STABILITY 68 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21181 (A) 21182 (B) 21184 (B) 23230 (A) 23339 (A) 23367 (A) 23386 (D) 23387 (B) 23463 (A) 23464 (A) 23484 (A) 23542 (B) 23543 (B) 23570 (D) 21181. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) During a phugoid altitude varies significantly, but during a short period oscillation it remains approximately constant. B) During both a phugoid and a short period oscillation altitude remains approximately constant.

C) During both a phugoid and a short period oscillation altitude varies significantly. D) During a phugoid altitude remains approximately constant, but during a short period oscillation it varies significantly. 21182. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) The phugoid should always be heavily damped. B) The short period oscillation should always be heavily damped. C) When the phugoid is slightly unstable, an aeroplane becomes uncontrollable. D) A slightly unstable short period oscillation is no problem for an aeroplane. 21184. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? 1) Stick force per g is independent of altitude. 2) Stick force per g increases when the center of gravity moves forward. A) 1 is correct; 2 is correct. B) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct. C) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. D) 1 is incorrect; 2 is incorrect. 23230. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The CG of an aircraft with a nose wheel is: A) forward of the main wheels. B) behind the main wheels. C) coincident with the nose undercarriage. D) in front of the nose wheel. 23339. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Damping is the property that: A) slows down the rate or diminishes the amplitude of vibrations or cycles. B) makes a body decelerate when thrust is reduced. C) requires an increased amount of energy to be used to accelerate a body when it approaches the speed of sound. D) makes an aircraft more stable at high altitude. 23367. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the maximum pull force acceptable is 50 lbs and the design limit g of the aircraft is 6 g, what stick force/g must be achieved to permit the aircraft to be manoeuvred to its design g limit? A) 10 lbs/g. B) 8,33 lbs/g. C) 6 lbs/g. D) 5 lbs/g. 23386. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Moving the CG rearwards will: A) have no effect on stability. B) increase lateral stability. C) increase longitudinal stability. D) reduce longitudinal stability. 23387. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the aircraft has a nose up pitch displacement, the effective angle of attack of the tail plane: A) remains the same. B) changes and causes the tail plane to apply a nose down moment. C) changes and causes the tail plane to apply a nose up moment. D) will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator selection. 23463. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

The magnitude of the stick force required to pitch, for an aircraft with manual controls, is determined by: A) the distance the CG is forward of the neutral point. B) the distance the CG is forward of the static margin. C) the distance the CG is forward of the forward CG limit. D) the neutral stability. 23464. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The stick force gradient is: A) the force required to change the load factor of the aircraft a given amount. B) the force required to hold the aircraft in a particular pitch attitude. C) due to the dynamic pressure. D) only supplied by an artificial feel unit. 23484. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If a stick force of 20 lbs is required to pull 4 g from the position of trim, the stick force gradient is: A) 6,6 lbs/g. B) 5 lbs/g. C) 20 lbs/g. D) 60 lbs/g. 23542. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft s forward CG limit is exceeded, it will affect the flight characteristics of the aircraft by producing: A) very light elevator control forces. B) higher stalling speeds and more longitudinal stability. C) improved performance since it reduces the induced drag. D) an extremely high tail down force. 23543. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the airspeed increases and decreases during longitudinal phugoid oscillations, the aircraft: A) is constantly changing AOA making it difficult to reduce the magnitude of the oscillations. B) can be easily controlled by the pilot. C) will display poor trimming qualities. D) is displaying lateral dynamic instability. 23570. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following components provides longitudinal stability? A) Engines. B) Wing. C) Fuselage. D) Tail plane. 081-04 STABILITY 69 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23574 (D) 23575 (C) 23583 (A) 23589 (C) 23596 (A) 23690 (C) 23693 (C) 23694 (C) 23705 (B) 23709 (A) 24080 (B) 24514 (B) 26769 (B) 26815 (B) 26816 (D) 23574. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the position of the CG in relation to the neutral point when the CG is on the aft limit? A) On the neutral point. B) Just behind the neutral point. C) Above the neutral point. D) In front of the neutral point. 23575. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Forward and aft movement of the CG effect on stability and control will be:

A) rearward movement of the CG will reduce control and stability. B) rearward movement of the CG will reduce control and increase stability. C) forward movement of the CG will increase stability and reduce control. D) forward movement of the CG will reduce stability and increase control. 23583. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In relation to the manoeuvre point, the aft CG limit is: A) always forward of it. B) on the manoeuvre point. C) the least distance away when the CG is on the forward limit. D) aft of the manoeuvre point. 23589. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Rearward movement of the CG will: A) give increased tendency for spiral instability. B) increase VMCG. C) give greater tendency to dutch roll. D) increase elevator stick force gradient. 23596. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft is longitudinally statically unstable, at the same time it will be dynamically: A) unstable. B) neutral. C) stable. D) positively stable. 23690. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Long period (phugoid) oscillations are characterised by: A) oscillations will take 5 seconds to damp out. B) speed is constant. C) long period of damping. D) rapid and repeated changes in effective angle of attack. 23693. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Where must the CG be located? A) Aft of the neutral point and in front of the manoeuvre point. B) Between the aft limit and the neutral point. C) With sufficient margin ahead of the neutral point. D) On the neutral point. 23694. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What happens if CG moves behind the aft limit? A) Stick forces become excessive. B) Lateral stability will be decreased. C) Insufficient manoeuvre stability. D) Longitudinal stability increases. 23705. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Short period oscillation is: A) pilot induced and unstable. B) oscillation in pitch. C) oscillation in roll. D) oscillation in yaw. 23709. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The sum of the moments in flight are not zero, therefore movement would take place about: A) the CG. B) the neutral point. C) the manoeuvre point. D) the CP. 24080. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

What will be the effect of a highly cambered aerofoil on longitudinal stability? A) A negative effect because the lift vector is inclined forwards as the angle of attack increases. B) No effect. C) A positive effect because the lift vector is inclined rearwards as the angle of attack increases. D) A positive effect as the CP moves to the rear as the angle of attack increases. 24514. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The forward and aft CG limits are determined respectively by: A) roll response, control forces. B) minimum control response, decreasing stability. C) dutch roll, increasing stability. D) control forces, increasing stability. 26769. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the radius of a turn, flown at constant IAS is increased, the angle of bank will: A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain the same. D) change proportionally to the change of the radius. 26815. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Moving the CG of an aircraft aft in flight will: A) increase the angle of attack. B) reduce longitudinal stability. C) increase longitudinal stability. D) have no effect on longitudial stability. 26816. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the CG is close to the forward limit: A) very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch. B) longitudinal stability is reduced. C) the stalling speed is reduced. D) very high stick forces are required in pitch because the aircraft is very stable. 081-04 STABILITY 70 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26985 (C) 27007 (D) 27022 (A) 3872 (C) 3877 (C) 3881 (D) 3928 (C) 3944 (B) 3950 (D) 3966 (B) 15715 (C) 21080 (A) 21112 (C) 21113 (C) 26985. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an airplane has poor longitudinal stability in flight, what can be done to increase the stability? A) Reduce in keel surface area. B) Install a yaw damper. C) Increase stabiliser surface area. D) Increase elevator range of movement. 27007. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Deflecting the elevator up, when the trim tab is in neutral, will cause the tab to: A) move down relative to the elevator chord line. B) move up relative to the elevator chord line. C) remain in line with the tailplane. D) remain in line with the elevator. 27022. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dutch roll occurs when:

A) lateral stability is too great compared to directional stability. B) directional stability is too great compared to lateral stability. C) directional and lateral stability is equal. D) directional stability is compensated by ailerons. 081-04-04 Static directional stability 3872. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering the relationship between lateral static stability and directional stability: A) dominant directional static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll. B) dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for spiral instability. C) dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll. D) they are mutually independent and have no effect on each other. 3877. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane that has positive static stability: A) is never dynamically stable. B) is always dynamically stable. C) can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable. D) is always dynamically unstable. 3881. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows: A) negative dihedral effect. B) no effect. C) destabilizing dihedral effect. D) stabilizing effect. 3928. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Directional static stability is determined by: A) aircraft weight. B) tail volume. C) fin volume. D) elevator angle for trim. 3944. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following gives an unstable contribution in sideslip? A) Wing sweep. B) Flap extension. C) Dihedral. D) High wing. 3950. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has static directional stability in a side-slip to the right, initially the: A) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left. B) right wing tends to go down. C) nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction. D) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right. 3966. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The primary function of the fin is to give: A) lateral stability - around the longitudinal axis. B) directional stability - around the normal axis. C) directional stability - around the longitudinal axis. D) directional stability - around the lateral axis. 15715. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it has been displaced the: A) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of decreasing amplitude.

B) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of increasing amplitude. C) initial tendency to move is towards its equilibrium position. D) initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position. 21080. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the static lateral stability of an aeroplane is increased, whilst its static directional stability remains constant: A) its sensitivity to Dutch roll increases. B) its spiral stability decreases. C) turning flight becomes more difficult. D) the nose-down pitching moment in a turn increases. 21112. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The contribution of swept back wings to static directional stability: A) is nil. B) is negative. C) is positive. D) decreases as the sweepback increases. 21113. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The contribution to the static directional stability of a straight wing with high aspect ratio and without dihedral: A) is always positive. B) is always negative. C) is always negligible. D) becomes more positive as the aspect ratio increases. 081-04 STABILITY 71 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21118 (C) 23388 (D) 26967 (C) 26970 (C) 27019 (A) 27029 (C) 3868 (B) 3870 (C) 3875 (B) 3886 (B) 3897 (C) 3901 (B) 3915 (D) 3937 (A) 21118. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a wing with sweepback on static directional stability is as follows: A) destabilizing dihedral effect. B) no effect. C) stabilizing effect. D) negative dihedral effect. 23388. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increasing the size of the fin: A) reduces directional stability. B) reduces lateral stability. C) increases longitudinal stability and directional control. D) increases the size of the keel surface behind the CG, giving increased directional stability. 26967. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Directional stability is the stability around the: A) longitudinal axis. B) lateral axis. C) normal axis. D) pitch axis. 26970. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Compared to straight wings, swept back wings have: A) less directional stability. B) better longitudinal stability. C) better directional stability. D) less longitudinal stability. 27019. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A swept wing will for a given angle of attack and wing

area: A) be more laterally stable and produce less lift. B) produce more lift and be more laterally stable. C) increase lateral stability with reduced tip stall tendency. D) advance MCRIT. 27029. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Ventral fin has its greatest effect at: A) speeds above MCRIT. B) transonic speed. C) low speed, high angle of attack. D) high wing loading. 081-04-05 Static lateral stability 3868. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a swept wing aircraft, with an increase in altitude, which of the following statements about lateral stability is correct? A) Static lateral stability increases, dynamic lateral stability increases. B) Static lateral stability remains the same, dynamic lateral stability decreases. C) Static lateral stability decreases, dynamic lateral stability increases. D) Static lateral stability increases, dynamic lateral stability decreases. 3870. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral stability? A) Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail. B) Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform. C) High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin. D) Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets. 3875. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The short period mode is an: A) oscillation about the vertical axis. B) oscillation about the lateral axis. C) oscillation about the longitudinal axis. D) unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot. 3886. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Considering the lateral stability of a swept wing aircraft, at high flight levels the static lateral stability will be ___ and the dynamic lateral stability will be ___. A) greater; greater B) the same; lower C) lower; greater D) the same; greater 3897. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows: A) its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading. B) negative dihedral effect. C) positive dihedral effect. D) zero dihedral effect. 3901. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dihedral of the wing: A) is the only way to increase the static lateral stability. B) increases the static lateral stability. C) is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings. D) decreases the static lateral stability. 3915. (AIR: atpl, cpl) After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude. The

aeroplane is: A) statically unstable - dynamically neutral. B) statically unstable - dynamically stable. C) statically stable - dynamically unstable. D) statically stable - dynamically neutral. 3937. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What happens to lateral stability when flaps are extended? A) Lateral stability is decreased. B) Lateral stability is increased as lift is increased. C) Lateral stability is unaffected, as the wings are symmetrical. D) Lateral stability is increased as the center of pressure moves inboard. 081-04 STABILITY 72 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3942 (D) 3954 (D) 3958 (C) 3959 (A) 15777 (C) 21098 (B) 21103 (B) 21104 (A) 21120 (D) 21172 (A) 23384 (C) 23385 (C) 23568 (C) 23689 (C) 3942. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct? A) Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns. B) Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line and the lateral axis of the aeroplane. C) Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability. D) The effective dihedral of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static lateral stability. 3954. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane? A) Increased wing span. B) Dihedral. C) High wing. D) Anhedral. 3958. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased? A) The required lateral control force does not change. B) The required lateral control force decreases. C) The required lateral control force increases. D) The stick force per g decreases. 3959. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lateral static stability is determined by: A) aircraft response to sideslip. B) aspect ratio. C) wingspan. D) cg position. 15777. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch roll? A) A forward movement of the center of gravity. B) An increased anhedral. C) An increased static lateral stability. D) An increased static directional stability. 21098. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to: A) roll to the left in the case of a sideslip angle (with the aeroplane nose pointing to the right of the incoming flow).

B) roll to the left in the case of a sideslip (with the aeroplane nose pointing to the left of the incoming flow). C) roll to the right in a right turn. D) roll to the left in a right turn. 21103. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Static lateral stability should not be too large, because: A) too much rudder deflection would be required in a crosswind landing. B) too much aileron deflection would be required in a crosswind landing. C) constant aileron deflection would be required during cruise in case of crosswind. D) the roll trim sensitivity would increase sharply. 21104. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Static lateral stability should not be too small because: A) the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to spiral dive. B) after a disturbance around the longitudinal axis the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to return to the original attitude. C) the stick force per g would become unacceptably small. D) the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to Dutch roll. 21120. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect on static lateral stability of an aeroplane with a high wing as compared with a low wing is: A) zero dihedral effect. B) a negative dihedral effect. C) no effect as it is only used to improve aeroplane loading. D) a positive dihedral effect. 21172. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement concerning sweepback is correct? A) Sweepback provides a positive contribution to static lateral stability. B) Sweepback increases speed stability at Mach numbers above MCRIT. C) Sweepback is mainly intended to increase static directional stability. D) A disadvantage of sweepback is that it decreases MCRIT. 23384. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft with neutral static roll stability, following a wing drop: A) the wing would tend to return to the level position. B) the wing would continue to drop. C) the wing would remain in its displaced position. D) the forces of lift and weight would remain in balance. 23385. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following does not increase lateral stability? A) Large fin area. B) Large keel surface with low CG. C) Anhedral. D) Dihedral. 23568. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering the effect of a swept wing on stability with an increase in altitude, which of the following is correct? A) Increased static lateral stability / decreased dynamic lateral stability. B) Decreased static lateral stability / decreased dynamic lateral stability. C) Same static lateral stability / reduced dynamic lateral stability.

D) Increased 23689. (AIR: Which of the roll? A) Increased B) Increased C) Increased D) Decreased

static lateral stability / same dynamic lateral stability. atpl, cpl) following increases the tendency for Dutch anhedral. keel surface aft of the CG. static lateral stability. dihedral.

081-04 STABILITY 73 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23692 (B) 23707 (D) 26817 (A) 28487 (D) 3882 (A) 3913 (B) 3917 (B) 3933 (C) 3943 (B) 3952 (B) 3965 (D) 15717 (B) 16656 (A) 21152 (A) 23692. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following will increase lateral stability? A) Dihedral / wing mounted engines / high wing. B) High wing / high vertical stabiliser / sweepback. C) Low wing / dihedral / elliptical plan form. D) Anhedral / low wing / sweepback. 23707. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The tendency for Dutch roll increases with: A) increased static directional stability. B) forward CG position. C) increased anhedral. D) increased static lateral stability. 26817. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The dihedral construction of an aircraft wing provides A) lateral stability about the longitudinal axis. B) lateral stability about the normal axis. C) longitudinal stability about the lateral axis. D) directional stability about the lateral axis. 28487. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why do some wings have dihedral? A) To increase longitudinal stability. B) To reduce directional stability. C) To increase directional stability. D) To increase lateral stability. 081-04-06 Dynamic lateral stability 3882. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following will reduce lateral stability? A) Anhedral. B) Tip tanks. C) Dihedral. D) Wing root fairing. 3913. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Longitudinal dynamic oscillation takes two forms. One of these, long period oscillation, involves slow changes in: A) height and load factor. B) height and speed. C) pitch and load factor. D) speed and load factor. 3917. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct? A) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of each other because they take place about different axis. B) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability

in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive (spiral instability). C) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to Dutch roll. D) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines. 3933. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper? A) Spiral dive. B) Tuck under. C) Dutch roll. D) Buffeting. 3943. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when: A) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive. B) the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak. C) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative. D) the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper. 3952. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (i) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability (ii) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will: A) (i) increase; (ii) increase. B) (i) increase; (ii) decrease. C) (i) decrease; (ii) decrease. D) (i) decrease; (ii) increase. 3965. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements about the dynamic stability of a conventional aeroplane about the lateral axis is correct? A) An aft CG position shortens the period time of the phugoid. B) Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid. C) Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec. D) Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak. 15717. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to Dutch roll? A) Rudder limiter. B) Yaw damper. C) Roll spoilers. D) Spoiler mixer. 16656. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When pulling out of a dive the angle of attack: A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) cannot be increased at all due to structural considerations. 21152. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What will increase the tendency to Dutch roll? A) An increased static lateral stability. B) An increased static directional stability. C) A forward movement of the center of gravity. D) An increased anhedral. 081-04 STABILITY

74 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23636 (D) 23682 (C) 24468 (C) 23636. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following conditions would leave an aircraft susceptible to spiral divergence? A) Positive lateral stability, negative directional stability. B) Over active rudder inputs from the yaw damper when recovering from dutch roll. C) Positive longitudinal stability. D) Positive directional stability, weak lateral stability. 23682. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dutch roll is a combination of: A) pitch and roll. B) pitch and yaw. C) yaw and roll. D) none of the above. 24468. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aft settings of the CG will: A) increase the possibility of spiral instability. B) increase VMCG. C) increase the possibility of Dutch roll. D) increase the elevator stick force gradient. 081-05 CONTROL 75 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3971 (C) 3976 (D) 3995 (A) 3996 (B) 4020 (A) 4057 (A) 4069 (C) 4082 (A) 16673 (D) 16674 (C) 16680 (D) 23360 (C) 23418 (A) 23428 (A) 081-05-01 General 3971. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top of the fin, known as a T-tail? A) To improve ground clearance during takeoff and landing on a contaminated runway. B) To decrease the tendency for super stall. C) To improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the vertical tail. D) To improve the wing efficiency. 3976. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: A) on the downgoing wing only. B) upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing. C) on the upgoing wing only. D) downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing. 3995. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The flaperon is a control that operates simultaneously as: A) flaps and ailerons. B) elevators and ailerons. C) flaps and speed brakes. D) flaps and elevators. 3996. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The type of flap which extends rearward from the trailing edge of the wing as it is lowered is called: A) a zap flap. B) a Fowler flap.

C) a split flap. D) a Kreuger flap. 4020. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated? A) Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value. B) Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value. C) Landing gear retracted. D) Landing gear extended. 4057. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Manoeuvrability is best at: A) aft CG position. B) forward CG position. C) high flap settings. D) low speed. 4069. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the advantage of a variable incidence tailplane over a fixed incidence tailplane with elevator and trim tab? A) Linkages and mechanism less complicated. B) Increased flight stability and less weight. C) Less trim drag and maximum elevator authority retained. D) Elevator movement is restricted at high speed. 4082. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct? 1) When the critical engine fails during takeoff the speed VMCL can be limiting. 2) The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection. A) 1 is incorrect; 2 is incorrect. B) 1 is correct; 2 is correct. C) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. D) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct. 16673. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The range of control surface movements is limited by: A) leaving control cables a little stack. B) tensioning control cables correctly. C) defined limits is the operations manual. D) providing control stops. 16674. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Over tensioned cables is a flying control system could result in: A) no appreciable difference. B) insufficient friction in the system. C) excessive friction in the system. D) restricted movement of control surfaces. 16680. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The axes of an aircraft by definition must all pass throuht the: A) flight desk. B) aircraft datum. C) center of pressure. D) center of gravity. 23360. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The normal axis of an aircraft is: A) the axis passing from nose to tail of the aircraft. B) an axis through the CP, perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. C) an axis through the CG, perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. D) the axis which is a straight line passing through the CG

which is parallel to a line passing through the wing tips. 23418. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A cable operated control system has external locks: A) when fitted to the control surface, they will prevent movement of the control column if the controls are not fitted with servo tabs. B) they will not prevent movement of the control column. C) they will not be necessary because controls are irreversible and cannot be moved by the wind. D) will prevent movement of a servo tab. 23428. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic force on a control surface: A) increases as speed increases. B) depends only on the control angle and is independent of speed. C) depends only on the air density. D) decreases as speed increases. 081-05 CONTROL 76 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23516 (A) 24073 (D) 26765 (B) 26805 (B) 26829 (A) 26981 (D) 3969 (A) 3973 (D) 3999 (A) 4009 (A) 4031 (C) 4040 (A) 4060 (A) 4074 (B) 23516. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Control surface flutter: A) a rapid oscillation of the control surface in flight. B) buffeting of the controls, caused by separation of the airflow over the control surface. C) the tendency of the control surface to move onto its stops due to overbalance. D) movement of the control, due to gusts, when the aircraft is on the ground. 24073. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Power assisted flying controls: A) give no feel. B) are irreversible. C) give no manual reversion. D) give some feel. 26765. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When ice is present on the stabilizer, deflection of flaps may cause: A) the stabilizer to stall and a pitch up situation. B) the stabilizer to stall and a vertical dive. C) both wings and stabilizer to stall. D) a roll movement due to directional instaisie. 26805. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A control surface has its limitations in movement by: A) control cable tension. B) primary stops at the surface. C) primary stops at the control column. D) secondary stops at the control column. 26829. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Rudder controls: A) yaw B) pitch C) roll D) turn 26981. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Pitch is movement around the

A) longitudinal axis. B) vertical axis. C) yaw axis. D) lateral axis. 081-05-02 Pitch control 3969. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following devices is used to counter adverse yaw on rolling into or out of a turn? A) Differential ailerons. B) A yaw damper. C) A dorsal fin. D) Vortex generators. 3973. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the elevator jams during flight? A) The pitch control forces double. B) Pitch control has been lost. C) The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab. D) Pitch control reverses direction. 3999. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The center of gravity moving aft will: A) increase the elevator up effectiveness. B) decrease the elevator up effectiveness. C) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness. D) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location. 4009. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the center of gravity could be limited by the: A) elevator capability, elevator control forces. B) engine thrust, engine location. C) trim system, trim tab surface. D) wing surface, stabilizer surface. 4031. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the control column is moved forward and to the right: A) the elevator goes down, the starboard aileron moves down and the port aileron moves up. B) the elevator goes up, the starboard aileron moves up and the port aileron moves down. C) the elevator goes down, the starboard aileron moves up and the port aileron moves down. D) the elevator goes up, the starboard aileron moves down and the port aileron moves up. 4040. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is approaching to land with its CG at the forward limit. It will be ___ to flare and VREF will be ___ than normal. A) difficult; higher B) easy; lower C) easy; higher D) difficult; lower 4060. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be: A) larger. B) smaller. C) unchanged. D) dependent on trim position.

4074. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is fitted with an elevator with a servo tab mechanism in the pitch control system. If the elevator becomes jammed, what is the effect on pitch control? A) The servo tab will become a negative trim tab. B) Some pitch control will be retained, working in the reverse sense. C) The servo tab will become an anti-balance tab. D) Pitch control will be lost. 081-05 CONTROL 77 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4079 (D) 15713 (C) 21011 (A) 21107 (C) 21127 (C) 23361 (A) 23371 (D) 23419 (B) 23465 (B) 23493 (A) 23576 (C) 23591 (A) 23644 (B) 23681 (A) 4079. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on the aeroplanes static longitudinal stability of a shift of the center of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down? A) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is larger. B) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is smaller. C) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is larger. D) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is smaller. 15713. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Rotation about the lateral axis is called: A) yawing B) slipping C) pitching D) rolling 21011. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased from an equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the: A) CG. B) drag line of action. C) neutral point. D) center of pressure. 21107. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The air loads on the horizontal tailplane (tail load) of an aeroplane in straight and level cruise flight: A) will in principle be zero on transport aeroplanes without an electronic flight control system (Fly by Wire) due to the trim system. B) are generally directed upwards and will increase when CG is moved forward. C) are generally directed downwards and will become less negative when the CG moves aft. D) are generally directed downwards and will always become less negative in a linear fashion with increasing airspeed. 21127. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the: A) chord line and the horizontal plane. B) longitudinal axis and the chord line. C) longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.

D) speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis. 23361. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an increase in power tends to make the nose of an aeroplane rise, this is the result of the: A) line of thrust being below the CG. B) center of lift being ahead of the CG. C) center of lift and CG being collocated. D) line of thrust being above the CG. 23371. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an aircraft with an all-moving tail plane, backward movement of the control wheel in flight causes: A) an increase in tail plane incidence and nose up pitch. B) an upward movement of the trimming tab and nose up pitch. C) an increase in tail plane incidence and nose down pitch. D) a decrease in tail plane incidence and nose up pitch. 23419. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft has a down-load on the tail plane, as the elevator is lowered: A) the down-load is increased. B) the down-load is decreased. C) the down-load remains the same unless the tail plane incidence is changed. D) the negative camber is increased. 23465. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft with a manually operated elevator: A) the neutral point will be forward of the CG. B) the neutral point will be aft of the CG. C) the neutral point will be coincident with the CG. D) there will be a neutral point but no static margin. 23493. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The elevators control the aircraft around: A) the lateral axis. B) the longitudinal axis. C) the normal axis. D) the horizontal stabiliser. 23576. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Force on the tail and its effect on VS due to CG movement: A) if rearward gives a reduced down force on the tail / VS will be higher. B) if forward gives a reduced down force on the tail / VS will be higher. C) if rearward gives a reduced down force on the tail / VS will be reduced. D) if rearward gives an increased down force on the tail / VS will be reduced. 23591. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the advantage of a variable incidence tail plane over a fixed incidence tail plane with elevator and trim tab? A) More powerful trim. B) Increased flight stability. C) Less weight. D) Linkages and mechanisms less complicated. 23644. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the horizontal stabiliser gets stuck in the cruise position what action should you take on landing? A) Land at slower speed. B) Land at faster speed with less flap. C) Move pax forward. D) Use the mach trim system.

23681. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When is the greatest up elevator angle required for landing? A) Flaps extended with a forward CG. B) Flaps extended and an aft CG. C) Flaps up with a forward CG. D) Flaps up with an aft CG. 081-05 CONTROL 78 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26388 (A) 26814 (B) 26974 (A) 3977 (C) 4073 (A) 4076 (A) 23370 (C) 23392 (D) 23393 (C) 23416 (B) 23494 (C) 26381 (A) 26975 (B) 27026 (C) 26388. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A pitching motion is: A) about the lateral axis, related to longitudinal stability. B) about the lateral axis, related to lateral stability. C) about the longitudinal axis, related tolateral stability. D) about the longitudinal axis, related tolongitudinal stability. 26814. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A primary stop is mounted on an elevator control system in order to: A) restrict the range of movement of the control column. B) restrict the range of movement of the elevator. C) maintain constant control cable tension. D) prevent overloading of control cables. 26974. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to: A) give the aeroplane sufficient longitudinal stability. B) give the aeroplane sufficient directional stability. C) give the aeroplane enough waight in the tail. D) give the aeroplane sufficient lateral stability. 081-05-03 Yaw control 3977. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is: A) a wing which is less sensitive to flutter. B) easier maintenance of the engines. C) less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes. D) lighter wing construction. 4073. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Left rudder input will cause: A) left yaw about the vertical axis and left roll about the longitudinal axis. B) right yaw about the vertical axis and right roll about the longitudinal axis. C) left yaw about the vertical axis and right roll about the longitudinal axis. D) right yaw about the vertical axis and left roll about the longitudinal axis. 4076. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers: A) more roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane. B) the same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure. C) the same roll tendency for both aeroplanes. D) less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane. 23370. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

If the right rudder is pushed forward: A) the rudder moves to the left and the aircraft yaws to the right. B) the rudder moves to the right and the aircraft yaws to the left. C) the rudder moves to the right and the aircraft yaws to the right. D) the rudder moves to the left and the aircraft yaws to the left. 23392. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical fin will give a side force: A) with rudder neutral and no yaw. B) only when rudder is applied. C) only when the aircraft yaws. D) when rudder is applied and when the aircraft yaws. 23393. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If left rudder is applied: A) the aircraft will roll to the left and yaw to the right. B) the aircraft will yaw to the left and roll to the right. C) the aircraft will yaw to the left and roll to the left. D) the aircraft will yaw to the left, but there will be no rolling moment. 23416. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Directional control is: A) by ailerons around the longitudinal axis. B) by rudder around the normal axis. C) by elevator around the lateral axis. D) by rudder around the longitudinal axis. 23494. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the rudder pedals are moved to cause a yaw to the left: A) the left pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves to the right. B) the right pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves to the left. C) the left pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves to the left. D) the right pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves to the right. 26381. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During flight the yaw pedals are used to control: A) aircraft heading, balance, slip and skid. B) aircraft direction, slip and skid. C) turning, balance, direction and slip. D) direction of movement and heading. 26975. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The pilot use the rudder to provide control around the: A) lateral axis. B) normal axis. C) longitudinal axis. D) turn axis. 27026. (AIR: atpl) A yaw damper is a system which: A) increase lateral stability. B) decrease lateral stability. C) increases directional stability. D) reduce the stall speed. 081-05 CONTROL 79

© 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3987 (D) 4001 (A) 4007 (C) 4013 (A) 4041 (D) 4048 (C) 4051 (B) 4054 (D) 4058 (A) 4065 (B) 4072 (A) 15772 (B) 16685 (B) 16716 (D) 3987. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements concerning control is correct? A) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward. B) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab. C) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing. D) In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection. 4001. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the: A) longitudinal axis. B) vertical axis. C) lateral axis. D) wing axis. 4007. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Differential aileron deflection: A) increases the CLmax. B) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected. C) equals the drag of the right and left aileron. D) is required to achieve the required roll-rate. 4013. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A modern jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons plus roll control spoilers is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number: A) only the inboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may be active. B) the inboard and outboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may be active. C) only the outboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may be active. D) only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons. 4041. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Roll is: A) rotation about the longitudinal axis due to speed brake selection. B) rotation about the normal axis. C) due to aileron deflection and is motion about the lateral axis. D) rotation about the longitudinal axis. 4048. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn? A) Anti-balanced rudder control. B) Horn-balanced controls. C) Differential aileron deflection. D) Servo tabs. 4051. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which motion occurs about the longitudinal axis? A) Sideslip. B) Rolling. C) Pitching. D) Yawing. 4054. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection? A) Turn co-ordination. B) Aileron reversal. C) Sensitivity for spiral dive. D) Adverse yaw. 4058. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, and not deployed as speed brakes, a roll to the right is initiated by: A) right spoiler extended, left spoiler retracted. B) both spoilers extended. C) left spoiler extended, right spoiler retracted. D) right spoiler extended, but left spoiler extended more. 4065. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: A) left aileron: 2° up; right aileron: 5° down. B) left aileron: 5° up; right aileron: 2° down. C) left aileron: 5° down; right aileron: 2° up. D) left aileron: 2° down; right aileron: 5° up. 4072. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One method to compensate adverse yaw is a: A) differential aileron. B) balance tab. C) antibalance tab. D) balance panel. 15772. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as: A) flaps and elevator. B) ailerons and flaps. C) ailerons and elevator. D) flaps and speed brakes. 16685. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If a turbulent gust causes an aeroplane to roll: A) the down going wing experiences a decreases in angle of attack. B) the down going wing experiences an increases in angle of attack. C) the down going wing has no angle of attack. D) the angle of attack depends on whether the aeroplane changes speed. 16716. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Adverse aileron yaw can be countered by: A) aileron reversal. B) nothing (it is all a desirable flight characteristic). C) aileron snatch. D) differental ailerons. 081-05-04 Roll control 081-05 CONTROL 80 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 20879 (A) 21027 (B) 21089 (B) 21164 (D) 23358 (B) 23368 (B) 23373 (B) 23389 (B) 23390 (D) 23394 (C) 23398 (B) 23415 (B) 23417 (B) 23421 (A) 20879. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this case: A) only the inboard ailerons are active.

B) only the outboard aileron are active. C) the inboard and outboard ailerons are active. D) only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons. 21027. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and both inboard and outboard ailerons. Roll control during cruise is provided by: A) outboard ailerons and roll spoilers. B) inboard ailerons and roll spoilers. C) inboard and outboard ailerons. D) outboard ailerons only. 21089. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In what phase of flight are the outboard ailerons (if fitted) not active? A) Takeoff, until lift-off. B) Cruise. C) Approach. D) Landing with a strong and gusty crosswind, to avoid overcontrolling the aeroplane. 21164. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which component of drag increases most when an aileron is deflected upwards? A) Induced drag. B) Interference drag. C) Wave drag. D) Form drag. 23358. (AIR: atpl, cpl) While an aircraft is rolling, the down-going and up-going wing: A) provides a force to increase the rate of roll. B) provides a damping force which reduces the rate of roll. C) has a reduced effective angle of attack. D) will stall due to the increased effective angle of attack. 23368. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why do some aeroplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A) Locking out the outboard ailerons in high speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B) Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C) Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. D) None of the above. 23373. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an aircraft on which the ailerons are assisted by spoilers to give lateral control, if the control wheel is turned to the right: A) the right aileron moves up, right spoiler remains retracted, left spoiler moves up, left aileron down. B) the right aileron moves up, right spoiler up, left spoiler remains retracted, left aileron down. C) the right aileron moves down, right spoiler up, left spoiler remains retracted, left aileron up. D) the right aileron moves up, right spoiler up, left spoiler remains retracted, left spoiler neutral. 23389. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a given IAS and angle of aileron deflection, increasing altitude will: A) reduce the rate of roll. B) increase the rate of roll.

C) increase the rate of turn. D) reduce the rate of turn. 23390. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Lateral control is given by: A) the ailerons around the lateral axis. B) the elevators around the lateral axis. C) the rudder around the normal axis. D) the ailerons around the longitudinal axis. 23394. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aileron on which the leading edge protrudes below the wing when the aileron is raised, but not above it when the aileron is lowered is: A) a differential aileron. B) a drooped aileron. C) a fries aileron. D) a mass balanced aileron. 23398. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Spoilers are operated asymmetrically: A) to provide pitch control. B) to provide roll control. C) to provide yaw control. D) as airbrakes in flight. 23415. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is true with regard to inboard ailerons? A) Used during low speed flight only. B) Used during low and high speed flight. C) Used during high speed flight. D) Activated by the GPWS. 23417. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the control column is moved back and to the left: A) the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down. B) the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up. C) the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down. D) the left aileron moves down and the elevators move down. 23421. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a differential aileron system: A) the aileron moves further up than down. B) the aileron moves further down than up. C) the leading edge of the up going aileron projects below the wing. D) the ailerons are inter connected with the rudder. 081-05 CONTROL 81 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23422 (A) 23423 (C) 23424 (C) 23425 (B) 23427 (A) 23485 (C) 23496 (B) 23546 (B) 23601 (C) 23632 (C) 23637 (A) 23651 (A) 23657 (A) 23696 (A) 23422. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Adverse yaw during a turn entry is caused by: A) decreased induced drag on the lowered wing and increased induced drag on the raised wing. B) increased induced drag on the lowered wing and decreased induced drag on the raised wing. C) increased parasite drag on the raised wing and decreased parasite drag on the lowered wing. D) decreased induced drag on the raised wing and decreased induced drag on the lowered wing.

23423. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When rolling out of a steep banked turn, what causes the lowered aileron to create more drag than when rolling into the turn? A) The wing being raised is travelling faster through the air than the wing being lowered. B) The wing being lowered is travelling faster through the air and producing more lift than the wing being raised. C) The angle of attack of the wing being raised is greater as the rollout is started. D) None of the above. 23424. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of deflection of a differential aileron when the aircraft is being rolled will be: A) greatest on the up going aileron on the up going wing. B) greatest on the down going aileron on the up going wing. C) greatest on the up going aileron on the down going wing. D) greatest on the down going aileron on the down going wing. 23425. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is a true statement with regard to inboard ailerons? A) Inboard ailerons are used during low speed flight only. B) Inboard ailerons are used during low speed and high speed flight. C) Inboard ailerons are used during high speed flight only. D) Inboard ailerons are activated by the GPWS. 23427. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft is rolled to the left, adverse aileron yaw will be reduced: A) by a frise aileron being effective on the left wing. B) by frise ailerons producing increased drag on both surfaces. C) by the leading edge of the down going aileron protruding into the airflow. D) by the down going aileron moving through a greater angle of deflection than the up going aileron. 23485. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an aircraft with a differential aileron control system, when the control wheel is turned to the right: A) the right aileron moves up, and the left aileron moves down through a greater angle. B) the right aileron moves down and the left aileron moves up through a greater angle. C) the left aileron moves down and the right aileron moves up through a greater angle. D) the left aileron moves up and the right aileron moves down through a greater angle. 23496. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a turn, differential ailerons: A) reduce the drag on the inner wing. B) reduce the drag on the outer wing. C) reduce the drag on both wings. D) increase the drag on the upper wing. 23546. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Spoilers are normally extended: A) on the upper and lower wing surfaces in flight. B) on the upper wing surfaces on the down going wing. C) on the lower wing surface on the up going wing. D) on the upper surface of both wings to roll the aircraft. 23601. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Roll rate is rotation about the: A) normal axis. B) longitudinal axis due to speed brake selection. C) longitudinal axis. D) lateral axis. 23632. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a turn with speed brakes extended, roll control spoilers: A) move on the down going wing only. B) move on the up going wing only. C) move up on the down going wing, down on the up going wing. D) move down on the down going wing, up on the up going wing. 23637. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Adverse yaw in a turn is corrected with: A) differential ailerons. B) horn balance. C) mass in the nose of the aeroplane. D) anti-balance tabs. 23651. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the correct example of differential aileron deflection to initiate a left turn? A) Left aileron up 5° / right aileron down 2°. B) Right aileron up 5° / left aileron down 2°. C) Left aileron up 2° / right aileron down 5°. D) Right aileron up 2° / left aileron down 5°. 23657. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following phenomena is prevented by differential ailerons? A) Adverse yaw. B) Turn co-ordination. C) Sensitivity to spiral dive. D) Aileron reversal. 23696. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When are outboard ailerons locked out? A) Flaps retracted. B) Landing gear retracted. C) Landing gear extended. D) Flaps extended. 081-05 CONTROL 82 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24064 (B) 24065 (B) 24078 (C) 27034 (C) 4000 (B) 4011 (C) 4017 (A) 4081 (C) 20890 (B) 21078 (D) 23369 (B) 23495 (C) 23673 (B) 26993 (B) 24064. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Rolling is a ___ movement about the ___ axis. A) lateral; lateral B) lateral; longitudinal C) longitudinal; lateral D) longitudinal; longitudinal 24065. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane fitted with spoilers is rolling to the right, which way do the spoilers move? A) Down on the down going wing. B) Up on the down going wing. C) Up on the up going wing. D) Down on the up going wing. 24078. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

An aeroplane fitted with differential ailerons is in a level turn to the right. Which of the following statements is correct? A) The left aileron moves up more than the right aileron moves down. B) The left aileron moves down more than the right aileron moves up. C) The right aileron moves up more than the left aileron moves down. D) The right aileron moves down more than left aileron moves up. 27034. (AIR: atpl) When inner and outer ailerons are mounted, outer ailerons are used: A) during takeoff only. B) at high speeds. C) at low speeds. D) when flaps are in landing configuration only. 081-05-05 Interaction in different planes (yaw/roll) 4000. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircrafts tendency to dutch roll may be reduced by: A) reducing the size of the fin. B) giving the wings an angle of anhedral. C) sweeping the wings. D) giving the aircraft longitudinal dihedral. 4011. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft is rolled to port, adverse yaw will be reduced by: A) the leading edge of the down going aileron protruding into the airflow. B) frise ailerons producing increased profile leading edge drag on both surfaces. C) a frise aileron being effective on the port wing. D) the down going aileron producing a greater angle of deflection than the up going aileron. 4017. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? A) Rolling and yawing. B) Pitching and yawing. C) Pitching and rolling. D) Pitching and adverse yaw. 4081. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a jet aircraft enters a turn or straightens-up from a turn, what device ensures correct response? A) Dorsal fin. B) Yaw damper. C) Aileron - rudder coupling. D) Vortex generators. 20890. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes: A) a roll to starboard (right). B) a roll to port (left). C) a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing. D) an increase in lift on the port (left) wing. 21078. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes: A) a roll to the right. B) a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing. C) an increase in lift on the left wing. D) a roll to the left.

23369. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What are the secondary effects of rudder and aileron respectively: A) yaw and roll. B) roll and yaw. C) pitch and roll. D) yaw and pitch. 23495. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the rudder is moved to the right, the force acting on the fin: A) gives a yawing moment but no rolling moment. B) gives a rolling moment to the left. C) gives a rolling moment to the right. D) gives a nose-up pitching moment because the force is applied above the CG. 23673. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft yaws to port, the secondary effect will be: A) roll right. B) roll left. C) pitch up. D) pitch down. 26993. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to reduce adverse aileron yaw, aircraft are fitted with: A) differential elevators. B) frize ailerons. C) offset rudder. D) horn balanced ailerons. 081-05 CONTROL 83 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27015 (A) 3972 (B) 4003 (D) 4006 (D) 4012 (D) 4027 (C) 4032 (B) 4034 (D) 4036 (C) 4043 (D) 4050 (B) 4055 (B) 4063 (A) 27015. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of differential ailerons in a turn will be: A) increased profile drag on the inner wing. B) reduced drag on the inner wing. C) produced equal form drag on the inner and outer wings. D) reduced induced drag on the inner and outer wings. changed, because the aircraft on the ground rotates about the main wheels. C) VMCG is lower due to the increased fin arm. D) elevator stick forces will be higher at VR. 4036. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aerodynamic balance can be obtained by: A) a weight mounted forward of the control surface hinge line. B) an external balance, provided by a seal from the wing to the trailing edge of the aileron. C) an internal balance (the leading edge of the aileron is housed within a box inside the wing trailing edge, vented to atmosphere, with a seal from the wing to the leading edge of the aileron). D) the down going aileron moving through a smaller angle than the up going aileron. 4043. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To hold a given sideslip angle and airspeed, increased geometric dihedral would: A) reduce the stick force to zero.

B) have no effect on stick force. C) decrease the stick force. D) increase the stick force. 4050. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on: A) stabilizer position, static pressure. B) elevator deflection, dynamic pressure. C) elevator deflection, static pressure. D) stabilizer position, total pressure. 4055. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this: A) makes trimming superfluous. B) ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column. C) makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless. D) can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab. 4063. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct? A) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind. B) The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab. C) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection. D) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller. 081-05-06 Means to reduce control forces 3972. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The inputs to the Q unit are from: A) static and temperature. B) pitot and static. C) altitude and pitot. D) pitot and altitude. 4003. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: A) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control. B) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance. C) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance. D) servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface. 4006. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose: A) to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane. B) to prevent flutter. C) to obtain mass balancing. D) to decrease stick forces. 4012. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft is fitted with powered flying controls, which of the following would be used in the case of manual reversion? A) Balance tab. B) Anti-balance tab. C) Spring tab. D) Servo tab. 4027. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which kind of tab is commonly used in case of manual reversion

of fully powered flight controls? A) Balance tab. B) Spring tab. C) Servo tab. D) Anti-balance tab. 4032. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The inputs to the Q feel unit are from: A) static pressure and temperature. B) pitot and static pressures. C) altitude and pitot pressure. D) pitot pressure and total head pressure. 4034. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On takeoff with the CG at the forward limit: A) elevator stick force is less because of the increased tailplane arm. B) elevator stick force to rotate the aircraft at VR will be un 081-05 CONTROL 84 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4078 (C) 20880 (C) 20888 (B) 21008 (C) 21050 (C) 21139 (A) 21149 (B) 21187 (A) 23374 (A) 23395 (A) 23397 (C) 23429 (B) 23430 (D) 4078. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface: A) above the hinge. B) below the hinge. C) in front of the hinge. D) behind the hinge. 20880. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about a spring tab? A) At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator. B) Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g. C) At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab. D) At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab. 20888. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: A) fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder. B) seal between wing s trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance. C) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing s trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface. D) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance. 21008. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A downward adjustment of a trim tab in the longitudinal control system, has the following effect: A) the stick force stability remains constant. B) the stick position stability increases. C) the stick position stability remains constant. D) the stick force stability decreases. 21050. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: A) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance. B) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing s trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface. C) seal between wing s trailing edge and leading edge of a

control surface, horn balance. D) fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder. 21139. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Upward deflection of a trim tab in the longitudinal control results in: A) the stick position stability remaining constant. B) increasing the stick position stability. C) increasing the stick force stability. D) the stick force stability remaining constant. 21149. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the fundamental difference between a trim tab and a servo tab? A) A servo tab affects the stick force stability, whereas a trim tab does not. B) The purpose of a trim tab is to reduce continuous stick force to zero, a servo tab only reduces stick force. C) A trim tab is automatically adjusted when its particular control surface moves, whereas a servo tab is moved independently of its particular control surface. D) The functioning of a trim tab is based on aerodynamic balancing, whereas a servo tab is usually adjusted via a screwjack. 21187. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which three aerodynamic means decrease manoeuvring stick forces? A) Servo tab - horn balance - spring tab. B) Servo tab - trim tab - balance tab. C) Spring tab - trim tab - mass balancing weight. D) Spring tab - horn balance - bobweight. 23374. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A servo tab on the rudder moves: A) when the rudder pedals are moved. B) when the rudder is moved. C) when the rudder trim wheel is moved. D) in the same direction as the rudder to make the rudder more effective at low speed. 23395. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an aileron with an inset hinge, the leading edge of the control surface may protrude above or below the wing surface when the control is moved. This is to: A) give assistance to the pilot to move the control. B) increase the effectiveness of the control. C) increase the drag in a turn. D) give a mass balance. 23397. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Balance tabs: A) move in the same direction as the control surface. B) move in the same direction as control surfaces and trim tabs. C) move in the opposite direction to control surfaces and the same direction as trim tabs. D) move in the opposite direction to both control surfaces and trim tabs. 23429. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aerodynamic balance on a flying control is used to: A) prevent flutter of the flying control. B) reduce the load required to move the control. C) reduce the control load to zero. D) balance the aircraft about its axes. 23430. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

If the control surface hinge is placed too far back from the control surface leading edge: A) control effectiveness will be reduced. B) the controls will be too heavy. C) range of control surface movement will be reduced. D) control surface CP may move ahead of the hinge and cause overbalance. 081-05 CONTROL 85 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23431 (D) 23432 (C) 23433 (C) 23434 (C) 23435 (B) 23436 (A) 23437 (A) 23438 (B) 23439 (B) 23440 (B) 23441 (C) 23442 (B) 23443 (C) 23444 (D) 23456 (B) 23431. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An inset hinge is an example of ___ balance and a horn balance is an example of ___ balance. A) mass; mass B) mass; aerodynamic C) aerodynamic; mass D) aerodynamic; aerodynamic 23432. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aileron control surface is provided with an inset hinge: A) to prevent flutter. B) to prevent adverse aileron yaw. C) to provide aerodynamic balance. D) to increase the stick force. 23433. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Inset hinges: A) provide mass forward of the control surface CG to prevent flutter. B) provide mass aft of the hinge line to prevent flutter. C) provide aerodynamic assistance to the pilot. D) prevent over balance of the controls. 23434. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A graduated horn balance: A) gives a high degree of assistance at high speed. B) ensures that only a limited degree of assistance is available at low speed. C) prevents over balance resulting from excess balance at high speed. D) provides the required amount of aerodynamic assistance to the pilot at low speed. 23435. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To reduce the stick force required, the control surface may be: A) mass balanced. B) aerodynamic balanced. C) static balanced. D) anti-balanced. 23436. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface operated: A) automatically to assist the pilot to move the controls. B) automatically to provide feel. C) independently by the pilot to remove excessive loads from the controls. D) directly by the pilot to cause movement of the main control surface. 23437. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

A balance tab reduces aerodynamic stick forces: A) and control effectiveness. B) but increases control effectiveness. C) and has no effect on control effectiveness. D) none of the above. 23438. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the purpose of a balance tab? A) Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B) Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C) Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. D) Decrease control forces by deflecting in the same direction as the main control. 23439. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-balance tab move? A) Opposite direction. B) Same direction. C) Remains fixed for all positions. D) Fixed at low speeds, same direction at high speed. 23440. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An anti-balance tab moves in the: A) opposite direction to the control surface and increases control effectiveness. B) same direction as the control surface and increases control effectiveness. C) opposite direction to the control surface and decreases control effectiveness. D) same direction as the control surface and decreases control effectiveness. 23441. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following devices is used to provide aerodynamic balance? A) Trim tab. B) Frise ailerons. C) Anti balance tab. D) Mass balance fitted forward of the hinge line. 23442. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an elevator is deflected down the balance tab will: A) maintain its chord line parallel to the elevator chord line. B) move up relative to the elevator chord line. C) move down relative to the elevator chord line. D) maintain its chord line parallel to the tail plane chord line. 23443. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With the aircraft stationary, if the control column is pulled back, a spring tab on the elevator will: A) move down relative to the elevator. B) move up relative to the elevator. C) remain in the neutral position relative to the elevator. D) remain in the neutral position until the elevator reaches the limit of its travel, and then move up. 23444. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A tab fitted to zero the loads on the pilot s control during flight is known as: A) a balance tab. B) a spring tab. C) an anti-balance tab. D) a trim tab. 23456. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Some aircraft are fitted with fixed trimming tabs: A) these are set by the manufacturer and must not be altered. B) these may be adjusted only on the ground. C) these may be adjusted by the pilot in flight. D) these may be adjusted manufacturer. 081-05 CONTROL 86 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23458 (B) 23459 (B) 23460 (A) 23486 (B) 23573 (D) 23590 (D) 23700 (B) 23719 (B) 24070 (B) 26983 (C) 27002 (C) 27006 (D) 23458. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft fitted with servo operated controls, if external locks are fitted to the main control surfaces: A) they will prevent movement of the control wheel, the control surfaces and the servo tabs. B) they will prevent movement of the control surfaces but not the control wheel or the servo tabs. C) they will prevent movement of the control wheel and the control surfaces but not the servo tabs. D) they will prevent movement of the control wheel and the servo tabs but not the control surfaces. 23459. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a servo tab operated control system, movement of the tab: A) is always in the same direction as the control surface. B) is always in the opposite direction to the control surface. C) may be either opposite or in the same direction as the control surface. D) is controlled directly by the main control surface. 23460. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft fitted with servo tabs: A) locks fitted on the control surface will not prevent movement of the control wheel. B) locks on the control surface will prevent movement of the control wheel. C) locks on the control surface will prevent movement of the tabs. D) none of the above. 23486. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aerodynamic balance may be achieved by: A) a fixed trimming tab. B) a horn balance. C) a weight attached forward of the control hinge. D) a spring attached to the rudder control circuit. 23573. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If servo tabs are fitted to a main control surface: A) they make the control surface effective allowing for a reduced size to be used. B) they also act as trim tabs. C) they are activated by movement of the control surface. D) the controls are less effective at low speed. 23590. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is fitted with a servo tab, if the elevator becomes jammed, what is the effect of the servo tab? A) Pitch control will be lost. B) It will become an anti-balance tab. C) It will become a negative trim tab. D) It will reverse the direction of pitch input.

23700. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What does a spring tab do? A) Increase stick force. B) Works as a servo tab at high TAS. C) Works as a servo tab at low IAS. D) The force provided by the spring gives a basic trim force. 23719. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stick force artificial feel depends on: A) elevator deflection / static pressure. B) elevator deflection / dynamic pressure. C) stabiliser deflection / total pressure. D) stabiliser deflection / static pressure. 24070. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The force characteristics of a q feel system rely on: A) hydraulic pressure. B) dynamic pressure. C) static pressure. D) kinetic pressure. 26983. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The following is true concerning a balance tab. It is: A) used to increase feel. B) a form of mass balance. C) a form of aerodynamic balance. D) only operating at high speed. 27002. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Some airplanes have spring tabs mounted into the control system. This is to provide: A) feel feedback in a control system. B) constant spring tension to a trim system. C) a reduction in the pilots effort to move the fontrpls againg high airloads. D) reduced control surface loads at all speeds. 27006. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A balance tab is installed to provide: A) movement of the control surface. B) balancing of the loads on the control surface. C) movement of the surface CG to the hinge line. D) reduced control column movement resistance. 081-05 CONTROL 87 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3974 (D) 3986 (A) 4053 (B) 21075 (B) 21095 (D) 21185 (A) 23396 (A) 23608 (D) 26828 (C) 26989 (C) 3978 (D) 3980 (D) 3984 (D) 3974. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The location of mass balance weights is: A) on the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge. B) on the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hinge. C) always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance. D) in front of the hinge line. 3986. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Mass balance to reduce control flutter is not required on: A) aircraft with a fully powered irreversible control system with no manual emergency system. B) aircraft with a fully powered irreversible control system. C) aircraft limited to speeds below 200 kts. D) aircraft with short rigid wings.

4053. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a large modern aircraft employs a variable incidence tailplane, trim changes are made by: A) adjusting the trim tab on the trailing edge of the elevator. B) changing the angle of the entire tailplane. C) varying the spring bias trimming system. D) adjusting the Q feel unit. 21075. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force per g, this problem can be resolved by installing: A) a spring which pulls the stick backwards. B) a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick forwards. C) a spring which pushes the stick forwards. D) a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick backwards. 21095. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Mass-balancing of control surfaces is used to: A) increase the stick force stability. B) limit the stick forces. C) ensure that the control surfaces are in the mid-position during taxiing. D) prevent flutter of control surfaces. 21185. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? 1) On fully hydraulic powered flight controls there is no need for mass balancing. 2) On fully hydraulic powered flight controls there is no need for trim tabs. A) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct. B) 1 is incorrect; 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is correct; 2 is correct. D) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. 23396. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a mass balance weight is to: A) move the control surface CG forward onto the control hinge. B) increase the mass of the control surface without moving its CG. C) move the control surface CG rearwards. D) make the mass balance weight coincident with the control hinge. 23608. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If mass balance is used to reduce flutter, it should be attached to a control surface: A) on the hinge. B) behind the hinge. C) above the hinge. D) in front of the hinge. 26828. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the reason for mass balancing a control surface? A) To make it easy for the pilot to move the control surface. B) To move the center of gravity of the control surface aft of the hinge line, thereby preventing flutter. C) To move the center of gravity forward thereby preventing flutter. D) Both A and B are correct. 26989. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In flight the flutter of a control surface is normally reduced by:

A) use of balance tabs. B) weights acting aft of the hinge line. C) weights acting forward of the hinge line. D) weights acting on the hinge line. 081-05-08 Trimming 081-05-07 Mass balance 3978. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Power assisted flying control systems have trim controls primarily in order to: A) allow the pilot to maintain control in case of hydraulic failure. B) relieve stresses on the trim tab. C) relieve stresses on the hydraulic actuators. D) bring the control forces to zero in steady flight. 3980. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is an advantage of engines mounted on the rear fuselage over those mounted in wing pods? A) Wings can have a lighter form of construction. B) The wing is less likely to suffer from flutter. C) Easier maintenance access. D) Longitudinal trim is less affected by changes in thrust. 3984. (AIR: atpl, cpl) One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that: A) the systems complexity is reduced. B) the structure weighs less. C) it leads to greater stability in flight. D) it is a more powerful means of trimming. 081-05 CONTROL 88 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4022 (C) 4029 (B) 4035 (A) 4037 (D) 4061 (A) 4062 (A) 4066 (D) 4068 (D) 15776 (B) 16708 (B) 21087 (D) 4022. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position? A) If possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin. B) Choose a lower landing speed than normal. C) Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting for landing. D) Use the Mach trimmer until after landing. 4029. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because: A) the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all. B) effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes. C) mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems. D) trim tab deflection increases MCRIT. 4035. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during takeoff at the maximum allowable forward center of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND (Aeroplane Nose Down) position. A) The rotation will require extra stick force. B) If the THS position is just within the limits of the green

band, the takeoff warning system will be activated. C) Early nose wheel raising will take place. D) Nothing special will happen. 4037. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The reason for having a trim system on powered assisted flying controls is: A) enables the pilot to maintain control in case of hydraulic failure. B) relieve stresses on the trim tab. C) relieve stresses on the hydraulic actuators. D) enables the stick force to be reduced to zero. 4061. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement about the trim position is true related to center of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position? A) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane. B) Because characteristic speeds at takeoff do not vary with center of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only. C) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane. D) At the forward limit for center of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum nose down to obtain maximum elevator authority at takeoff rotation. 4062. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim? A) The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position of the center of gravity. B) The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero. C) At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected downward. D) The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining flare capability. 4066. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents: A) nose left. B) neutral. C) nose up. D) nose down. 4068. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase? A) The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change. B) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab. C) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliser. D) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab. 15776. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a speed decrease? A) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trim tab. B) The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected trim tab.

C) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser. D) Nothing changes in the exterior view. 16708. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is equipped with an all flying tailplane which has a combined antibalance and trimming tab. The top of the trim wheel is moved forward. Which of the following statements is most correct? A) The tab moves up, so that less effort is required when the pilot attempts to move the control column to the rear. B) The tab moves up, so that more effect is required when the pilot attempts to move the control column to the rear. C) The tab moves down, so that less effort is requires when the pilot attempts to move the control column to the rear. D) The tab moves down, so that more effort is required when the pilot attempts to move the control column to the rear. 21087. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In straight and level flight, as speed is reduced: A) the elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards. B) both elevator and trim tab are deflected further upwards. C) the elevator and trim tab do not move. D) the elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards. 081-05 CONTROL 89 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21174 (B) 23376 (D) 23445 (C) 23446 (D) 23447 (D) 23448 (B) 23449 (B) 23450 (D) 23452 (B) 23453 (A) 23454 (D) 23455 (B) 23457 (A) 21174. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement in respect of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct? A) Because takeoff speeds do not vary with center of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only. B) An aeroplane with a forward CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower than for one with an aft CG in the same trimmed condition. C) An aeroplane with a forward CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher than for one with an aft CG in the same trimmed condition. D) At the forward CG limit , stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose down to obtain maximum elevator authority at rotation during takeoff. 23376. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In the unlikely event of an aircraft becoming airborne with the elevator control lock engaged, operation of an elevator trim tab control in the normal direction to counteract a nose up tendency would: A) have no effect. B) result in a reduction of the nose up tendency. C) result in an increase in the nose down pitching moment. D) result in an increase of the nose up tendency. 23445. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When checking the range of movement of an elevator trim tab as part of the pre-flight check, movement of the trim wheel or trim switches will move the: A) tab and control column.

B) elevator. C) tab. D) tab, elevator and control column. 23446. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the control column is pushed forward, a trim tab on the elevator: A) will move up relative to the elevator. B) will move down relative to the elevator. C) will only move relative to the elevator at high speed. D) will not move relative to the elevator unless the trim wheel is moved. 23447. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A) Same direction. B) Opposite direction. C) In the same direction at high speeds to increase the stick force, but in the opposite direction at low speed. D) Remains fixed for all positions. 23448. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to zero the load if a rearward force on the control column is required to maintain level flight: A) the elevator trim tab must be moved up. B) the elevator trim tab must be moved down. C) the incidence of a trimming tail plane must be increased. D) the elevator will be required to remain neutral. 23449. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tail plane, the tail plane incidence changes: A) if the control column is moved. B) if the trim wheel is turned. C) automatically if the elevator moves. D) by re-setting it on the ground. 23450. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a variable incidence tail plane with elevators fitted at the trailing edge, longitudinal trimming will be done by adjusting the: A) elevators with the control wheel. B) elevators with the trim wheel. C) tail plane incidence with the control wheel. D) tail plane incidence with the trim wheel. 23452. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the elevator trim tab has been moved fully to the aircraft nose up position, the available aircraft nose up pitch authority will be: A) increased. B) reduced. C) not affected. D) reversed. 23453. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to correct a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab on the left aileron will move: A) up and this causes the left aileron to move down, and the right one to move up. B) up and this causes the left aileron to move down, but the right aileron will remain neutral. C) down and this causes the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to move down.

D) down and this causes the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to move up. 23454. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To counteract a right wing low tendency, a fixed tab on the port aileron would: A) be moved up causing the left aileron to come up. B) be moved up causing the right aileron to come down. C) be moved down causing the left aileron to go down. D) be moved down causing the left aileron to come up. 23455. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Down movement of the elevator trimming tab will: A) make the aircraft nose heavy. B) overcome a tendency to fly nose heavy. C) overcome a tendency to fly tail heavy. D) make the aircraft pitch nose down. 23457. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft keeps yawing to the left, you would trim it by: A) moving the fixed trimming tab on the rudder over to the left. B) moving the adjustable trim tab to the right. C) adjusting the rudder bar to keep the left rudder pedal forward. D) adjusting the aileron trim tab wheel to the right. 081-05 CONTROL 90 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23545 (D) 23621 (A) 23648 (A) 23663 (C) 23666 (B) 23729 (A) 23730 (B) 24066 (B) 23545. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To trim an aircraft which tends to fly tail heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trimming wheel mounted on a shaft running laterally would be rotated: A) forward / trim tab down / elevator up. B) rearward / trim tab up / elevator up. C) rearward / trim tab down / elevator down. D) forward / trim tab up / elevator down. 23621. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane has a CG on the forward limit and full nose down trim. How will this affect stick forces at takeoff? A) Increase stick forces. B) Decrease stick forces. C) Set off an alarm. D) Nose wheel will lift off early. 23648. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What position must the stabiliser be in during takeoff with a nose heavy aircraft, compared to a balanced aircraft? A) More nose up trim / decreased stabiliser incidence. B) More nose down trim / decreased stabiliser incidence. C) Less nose up trim / increased stabiliser incidence. D) Less nose down trim / increased stabiliser incidence. 23663. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On an aircraft with a trimming horizontal stabiliser, what is the elevator position relative to the stabiliser when the aircraft is in the trimmed condition? A) Downwards. B) Upwards. C) Always neutral to the stabiliser. D) Always down relative to the stabiliser. 23666. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why does a transport aircraft with powered controls use a

horizontal stabiliser trim? A) Pilot input is not subject to aerodynamic control forces. B) Trim tabs are not effective enough. C) Overly complex mechanism. D) Trim tabs would increase MCRIT. 23729. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the trim tab on the elevator is deflected down the cockpit indication of trim is: A) nose up. B) nose down. C) nose left. D) nose right. 23730. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To adjust for a deceleration, the trim tab on an elevator? A) Moves up, making the elevator move down. B) Moves down, making the elevator move up. C) Moves down, adjusting the variable incidence tail plane. D) Moves up, making the variable incidence tail plane increase incidence. 24066. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On takeoff, with the CG at the forward limit, the aeroplane is trimmed fully nose down. What is the effect? A) Less stick force is required to rotate. B) More stick force is required to rotate. C) The stick force required to rotate is not affected. D) The aeroplane is longitudinally neutrally statically stable. 081-06 LIMITATIONS 91 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3618 (D) 3628 (D) 3634 (A) 3635 (C) 3638 (B) 3641 (D) 3642 (D) 3644 (A) 3648 (A) 3649 (A) 3654 (B) 3662 (C) 3665 (B) 081-06-01 Operating limitations 3618. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VA is: A) the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb. B) the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed. C) the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence. D) the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed. 3628. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is flown at 20% below its normal weight. Because of this, VA will be: A) 20% lower. B) 10% higher. C) 20% higher. D) 10% lower. 3634. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flying at speeds above VA: A) full elevator deflection may result in damage to the airframe or structural failure. B) an overspeed warning will be activated. C) the aircraft may self-destruct in a turn. D) the aircraft cannot be stalled. 3635. (AIR: atpl) What is the relationship of VMO and MMO, in a climb and descent? A) If climbing at VMO, Mach number is decreasing. B) If climbing at MMO, Indicated Airspeed is increasing.

C) If climbing at VMO, it is possible to exceed MMO. D) If descending at MMO, VMO cannot be exceeded. 3638. (AIR: atpl) (Refer to figure 081-01) In a high speed descent at MMO you will reach VMO at: A) M 0,8 B) FL270 C) 350 kts D) FL250 3641. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: A) VA = VA .(3,75) B) VS = VA .(2,5) C) VS = VA .(3,75) D) VA = VS .(2,5) 3642. (AIR: atpl, cpl) By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplanes weight decreases by 19%? A) 19% lower. B) 4,36% lower. C) No change. D) 10% lower. 3644. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is true? A) Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin to the structural limitations. B) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is possible to reduce the speed and increase the margins to the structural limits. C) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased. D) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the center of pressure will move aft which will increase the margins to the structural limits. 3648. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is: A) the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW. B) the maximum speed in smooth air. C) the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor. D) just another symbol for the rough air speed. 3649. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flutter may be caused by: A) distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency. B) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall. C) roll control reversal. D) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall. 3654. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA? A) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards. B) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.

C) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic pressure. D) It will collapse if a turn is made. 3662. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: A) VA B) VMO C) MMO D) MD 3665. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft has a mass of 60.000 kg and a limiting positive load factor of 2,5. VA is calculated as the EAS at which full positive elevator deflection will give the limiting load factor at the stall, and is 237 kts. If the aircraft mass is reduced to 40.000 kg by fuel burn, what will be the new VA? A) 375 kts B) 194 kts C) 237 kts D) 150 kts 081-06 LIMITATIONS 92 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15733 (B) 15747 (D) 16686 (A) 21000 (A) 21071 (D) 21140 (A) 23391 (B) 23512 (A) 23513 (A) 23514 (C) 23683 (D) 3619 (D) 3653 (D) 3656 (D) 3658 (A) 15733. (AIR: atpl) A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: A) MMO B) VMO C) VNE D) VD 15747. (AIR: atpl) VMO: A) should be chosen in between VC and VD. B) is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity. C) is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35.000 ft. D) should be not greater than VC. 16686. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aileron reversal can be caused by: A) twisting of the wing above reversal speed. B) fries type ailerons at low angles of attack. C) both answers are correct. D) neither answer is correct. 21000. (AIR: atpl) Flutter may be caused by a: A) combination of bending and torsion of the structure. B) combination of fuselage bending and wing torsion. C) combination roll control reversal and low speed stall. D) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall. 21071. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How can wing flutter be prevented? A) By installing the fuel tanks in the fuselage. B) By increasing the aspect ratio of the wing. C) By mounting the engines on the fuselage.

D) By locating mass in front of the torsion axis of the wing. 21140. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VLE is defined as the: A) maximum landing gear extended speed. B) maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended or retracted. C) maximum flap extended speed. D) maximum authorised speed. 23391. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aileron reversal may be caused by: A) the wing twisting and increasing incidence when the aileron is lowered. B) the wing twisting and reducing incidence when the aileron is lowered. C) the aileron being pushed in the reverse direction by aileron drag. D) the wing twisting and reducing incidence when the aileron is raised. 23512. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VNE is defined as: A) never exceed speed. B) maximum nose wheel extend speed. C) maximum landing gear extended speed. D) maximum flap extended speed. 23513. (AIR: atpl, cpl) MMO can be exceeded in a climb at a constant IAS because: A) maintaining a constant IAS requires an increase in TAS. B) as altitude increases the local speed of sound increases. C) at reduced density the Mach meter will under read. D) position error increases. 23514. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Aileron reversal at high CL results from: A) dynamic pressure acting on the aileron twisting the wing in the opposite direction, possibly causing the aircraft to bank in a direction opposite to that intended. B) dynamic pressure reducing the stick force, making the ailerons act in the reverse sense. C) the down going aileron increasing the semi-span angle of attack beyond the critical. D) the increased drag of the down going aileron causing the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction. 23683. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is flutter caused by? A) Low airspeed aerodynamic stall. B) High airspeed aerodynamic stall. C) Control reversal. D) Bending and torsion causing vibration at the resonant frequency. 081-06-02 Manoeuvring envelope 3619. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which load factor determines VA? A) Manoeuvring flap limit load factor. B) Manoeuvring ultimate load factor. C) Gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust. D) Manoeuvring limit load factor. 3653. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which has the effect of increasing load factor? (all other relevant factors being constant). A) Rearward CG location. B) Increased aeroplane mass. C) Increased air density.

D) Vertical gusts. 3656. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is: A) 3,75 B) 1,5 C) 2,5 D) 2,0 3658. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the positive limit load factor for large jet transport aircraft? A) N = 2,5 B) N = 3,75 C) N = 1,5 D) N = 1,0 081-06 LIMITATIONS 93 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3659 (A) 3666 (B) 3667 (D) 21126 (A) 21150 (C) 23588 (B) 23594 (A) 23607 (C) 23641 (A) 23711 (A) 24079 (D) 24081 (A) 3659. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Load factor is: A) Lift/Weight. B) Weight/Lift. C) 1/Bank angle. D) wing loading. 3666. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration is: A) 2,5 B) 4,4 C) 3,8 D) 6,0 3667. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram? A) 6 B) 1,5 C) 3,75 D) 2.5 21126. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The manoeuvring speed VA, expressed as indicated airspeed, of a transport aeroplane: A) depends on aeroplane mass and pressure altitude. B) is a constant value. C) is independent of aeroplane mass, but dependent on pressure altitude. D) depends on aeroplane mass and is independent of pressure altitude. 21150. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the significance of the maximum allowed cruising altitude, based on the 1,3 g margin? At this altitude: A) a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1,3 will cause a Mach number at which accelerated low speed stall occurs. B) a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1,3 will cause MCRIT to be exceeded. C) a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1,3 will cause buffet onset.

D) exceeding a load factor of 1,3 will cause permanent deformation of this aeroplane. 23588. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flying slightly faster than VA: A) the airframe may collapse in a turn. B) possible permanent deformation of the structure may occur with full elevator deflection. C) a high speed warning will be activated. D) the aircraft cannot stall. 23594. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With regard to VA, which of the following statements is correct? A) When flying at speeds up to VA it is possible to carry out full control deflection manoeuvres without exceeding the limit load factor. B) The aircraft will be damaged if it stalls at full control deflection at speeds below VA. C) VA is the speed that should never be exceeded in normal operation. D) The structure will be permanently deformed by manoeuvring the aircraft at speeds greater than VA. 23607. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is correct? A) By extending the flaps during severe turbulence it is possible to reduce speed and increase the margins to structural limitations. B) By extending flaps during extreme turbulence, the CP moves aft which will increase the margin to structural limitations. C) Extending flaps in turbulence reduces the stall speed, but will reduce the margin to structural limitations. D) None of the above is correct. 23641. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a jet aircraft with flaps extended, the load factor limit would be: A) 2,0 B) 1,5 C) 1,0 D) 3,5 23711. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VA for an aeroplane with one fixed VA is defined as: A) the highest speed at which full elevator deflection can be made without exceeding the design limit load factor. B) the speed at which the aeroplane would stall at the maximum limit load factor at maximum all up weight. C) the speed at which a large transport aircraft should be flown in turbulence. D) none of the above. 24079. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane is flying at a speed of 1,3 VA and full nose up elevator deflection is applied. This is likely to: A) make the wing collapse. B) cause excess dynamic pressure because the aeroplane is flying so fast. C) break the aeroplane. D) possibly cause permanent deformation of the aeroplane. 24081. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VA is the: A) maximum speed at which maximum deflection is allowed. B) maximum speed at which rolls are allowed. C) speed at which a heavy aeroplane should fly in turbulence. D) speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.

081-06 LIMITATIONS 94 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3241 (B) 3620 (C) 3631 (A) 3632 (C) 3633 (B) 3637 (B) 3640 (D) 3643 (B) 3645 (C) 3655 (B) 21015 (B) 21122 (B) 21176 (C) 3241. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A high aspect ratio wing: A) increases induced drag. B) decreases induced drag. C) is structurally stiffer than a low aspect ratio. D) has a higher stall angle than a low aspect ratio. 3620. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is a correct statement of gust factors applied in certification under JAR-25? A) 55 ft/sec at VC. B) 66 ft/sec at VD. C) 50 ft/sec at VC. D) 25 ft/sec at VB. 3631. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed: A) VD B) VC C) Vflutter D) VMO 3632. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being constant)? 1) Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor. 2) Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor. A) 1 and 2 are incorrect. B) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. C) 1 and 2 are correct. D) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. 3633. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence: A) straight wings. B) swept wings. C) wing dihedral. D) winglets. 3637. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration)? A) 66 ft/sec and VD. B) 50 ft/sec and VC. C) 65 ft/sec at all speeds. D) 55 ft/sec and VB. 3640. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance remaining constant)? 1) The gust load increases, when the weight decreases. 2) The gust load increases, when the altitude increases. A) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. B) 1 and 2 are correct. C) 1 and 2 are incorrect.

D) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. 3643. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft flying at a given EAS is subject to a positive gust of 50 kts EAS. Which of the following correctly describes the increase in positive g felt by the aircraft? A) More at high aircraft weight. B) More with a high aspect ratio straight wing. C) Less at altitude. D) More with a swept wing. 3645. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration): A) 25, 55, 75. B) 15, 56, 65. C) 25, 50, 66. D) 35, 55, 66. 3655. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The use of flaps during severe turbulence reduces the stall speed and the risk of exceeding structural limitations decreases. B) Extending flaps in turbulence reduces the stall speed but will reduce the margin to structural limitations. C) By extending flaps during extreme turbulence, the CP moves aft which will increase the margin to structural limitations. D) By extending flaps during severe turbulence it is possible to reduce speed and increase the margins to structural limitations. 21015. (AIR: atpl, cpl) All gust lines in the V-n graph originate from a point where the: A) speed = 0, load factor = 0. B) speed = 0, load factor = +1. C) speed = VS, load factor = 0. D) speed = VB, load factor = +1. 21122. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The gust load factor due to a vertical upgust increases when: A) weight increases. B) the gradient of the CL-alpha graph increases. C) altitude increases. D) wing loading increases. 21176. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about the gust load factor on an aeroplane? 1) When the mass increases, the gust load factor increases. 2) When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases. A) 1 is correct; 2 is correct. B) 1 is incorrect; 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct. D) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. 081-06-03 Gust envelope 081-06 LIMITATIONS 95 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23502 (C) 23578 (B) 23626 (A) 23686 (D) 23732 (C) 27023 (B) 27035 (B) 23502. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The recommended air speed at which to fly in turbulence is:

A) VMD B) VLO C) VRA D) VMO 23578. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is a correct design gust value? A) 25 ft/sec at VB. B) 50 ft/sec at VC. C) 66 ft/sec at VD. D) 55 ft/sec at VD. 23626. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The extreme right limit for both V-n and gust / manoeuvre diagrams are created by the speed: A) VD B) VMD C) Vflutter D) VC 23686. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following are the gust values used in the V-n diagram? A) 66 ft/sec / 55 ft/sec / 35 ft/sec. B) 75 ft/sec / 25 ft/sec / 50 ft/sec. C) 20 ft/sec / 55 ft/sec / 70 ft/sec. D) 50 ft/sec / 66 ft/sec / 25 ft/sec. 23732. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is the correct speed for a modern jet to fly in turbulence? A) Between VC and VD. B) VMO. C) VRA. D) VA. 27023. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VRA is the speed recommended for: A) penetration of rain. B) penetration of severe turbulence. C) penetration of moderate turbulence. D) best dive. 27035. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On JAR-23 airplane, the limit load factor in normal category is: A) +4,4 G B) +3,8 G C) +6,0 G D) +3,2 G 081-07 PROPELLERS 96 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3672 (C) 3674 (D) 3676 (D) 3681 (D) 3686 (A) 3689 (C) 3691 (C) 3703 (C) 3720 (C) 3722 (A) 3725 (B) 3730 (C) 3736 (C) 081-07-01 Conversion of engine torque to thrust 3672. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between: A) the usable (power available) power and the maximum power. B) the thrust and the maximum thrust. C) usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power. D) the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power. 3674. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: A) decrease and the rate of descent will increase. B) increase and the rate of descent will increase. C) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. D) increase and the rate of descent will decrease. 3676. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller can be increased by: A) reducing power and reducing TAS. B) increasing power and increasing TAS. C) reducing power and increasing TAS. D) increasing power and reducing TAS. 3681. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence? A) Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine. B) Yes strongly. C) No. D) Yes slightly. 3686. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct? A) The blade angle increases with increasing speed. B) The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant. C) The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed. D) The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure. 3689. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idlepower at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will: A) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. B) increase and the rate of descent will increase. C) increase and the rate of descent will decrease. D) decrease and the rate of descent will increase. 3691. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when: A) forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing. B) velocity and RPM increase. C) RPM increases and forward velocity decreases. D) velocity and RPM decrease. 3703. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The propeller CTM will: A) cause the propeller CSU to pitch lock. B) tend to move the blades to a coarse pitch. C) move the blades about their longitudinal axis. D) act in reverse when propeller braking is applied. 3720. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct? A) Propeller angle of attack is the angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical plane. B) Blade angle is the angle between blade chord line and propeller axis. C) Geometric propeller pitch is the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution. D) Critical tip velocity is the propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of propeller blade occurs. 3722. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

With a constant speed propeller, which of the following statements is true? A) Pitch angle increases with increasing TAS. B) Pitch angle decreases with increasing TAS. C) RPM decreases with increasing TAS. D) RPM increases with increasing TAS. 3725. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they: A) have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller. B) produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range. C) produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller. D) have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller. 3730. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a fixed pitch propeller increasing speed will ___ propeller alpha and increasing power and therefore propeller RPM will ___ propeller alpha. A) decrease; decrease B) increase; decrease C) decrease; increase D) increase; increase 3736. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and: A) aeroplane heading. B) direction of propeller axis. C) local air speed vector. D) principal direction of propeller blade. 081-07 PROPELLERS 97 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3743 (A) 3754 (C) 16691 (A) 16692 (B) 16704 (A) 21025 (C) 21074 (C) 21079 (B) 21109 (C) 21110 (B) 23526 (B) 23527 (D) 23528 (C) 23529 (A) 3743. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: A) decrease and the rate of descent will increase. B) increase and the rate of descent will decrease. C) increase and the rate of descent will increase. D) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. 3754. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idlepower at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will. A) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. B) increase and the rate of descent will increase. C) decrease and the rate of descent will increase. D) increase and the rate of descent will decrease. 16691. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A fixed pitch propeller is usually: A) at too coarse an angle of takeoff. B) at too fine and angle of takeoff. C) at too coarse an angle in the cruise. D) at its optimum angle on takeoff. 16692. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Running an engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller at full throttle with the aircraft stationary and nose into strong

wind will result in: A) a variable RPM depending on the CSU. B) higher RPM than in still air. C) lower RPM than in still air. D) the same RPM as in still air. 16704. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a variable propeller, which way does the blade twist from root to tip? A) To finer pitch angle. B) To coarser pithc angle. C) Depend on the variable pitch setting. D) Depends if it a left handed or right handed propeller. 21025. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane is fitted with a constant speed propeller. If the aeroplane speed increases while manifold pressure remains constant (i) propeller pitch and the (ii) propeller torque will: A) (i) decrease (ii) decrease. B) (i) increase (ii) increase. C) (i) increase (ii) remain constant. D) (i) decrease (ii) remain constant. 21074. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the propeller pitch, within its constant speed range and at constant power, during descent at constant IAS is decreased, the aeroplane lift to drag ratio will: A) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. B) increase and the rate of descent will increase. C) decrease and the rate of descent will increase. D) increase and the rate of descent will decrease. 21079. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the propeller pitch, within its constant speed range and at constant power, during descent at constant IAS is increased, the aeroplane lift to drag ratio will: A) increase and the rate of descent will increase. B) increase and the rate of descent will decrease. C) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. D) decrease and the rate of descent will increase. 21109. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when: A) forward velocity increases and RPM decreases. B) velocity and RPM increase. C) RPM increases and forward velocity decreases. D) velocity and RPM decrease. 21110. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a propeller blade element is the angle between the blade element chord line and the: A) propeller axis. B) resultant air speed vector. C) propeller plane. D) TAS vector. 23526. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Propeller slip is the difference between the: A) geometric pitch and the blade angle. B) geometric pitch and the effective pitch. C) plane of rotation and the aircraft s forward velocity. D) the RPM of the engine and the RPM of the propeller. 23527. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between: A) the root chord and the tip chord of the propeller.

B) the chord and the airflow relative to the propeller. C) the chord of the propeller and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. D) the propeller chord and the plane of rotation of the propeller. 23528. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the primary advantage of a constant speed propeller? A) To obtain and maintain a selected pitch angle of the blades regardless of the flight situation or power setting. B) To maintain a specific engine speed. C) To obtain a pitch setting that is suitable for each flight situation and power setting. D) To ensure that the propeller RPM is always greater than the manifold pressure. 23529. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A constant speed propeller is one which: A) rotates at a constant speed by altering the blade angle. B) is most efficient at a constant aircraft speed. C) rotates at a constant speed by maintaining a constant blade angle. D) maintains a constant aircraft speed by altering blade angle. 081-07 PROPELLERS 98 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23530 (B) 23531 (D) 23558 (A) 23581 (B) 23629 (C) 23630 (D) 23654 (C) 23669 (A) 23726 (C) 23728 (C) 26799 (D) 26803 (B) 26972 (B) 26997 (D) 27000 (C) 23530. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic loads on a propeller which produce forward thrust will tend to: A) increase RPM. B) bend the tips forward. C) increase tip velocity to supersonic speeds. D) bend the tips backwards. 23531. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The forces acting on a propeller are: A) thrust only. B) thrust and drag only. C) torque only. D) thrust and torque. 23558. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft with constant speed propeller increases its speed with constant manifold pressure. The propeller pitch will ___ and the propeller torque will ___. A) increase; remain constant B) increase; increase C) decrease; increase D) remain constant; decrease 23581. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How can the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller be increased? A) Increase RPM and increase TAS. B) Increase RPM and reduce TAS. C) Decrease RPM and increase TAS. D) Decrease RPM and decrease TAS. 23629. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the engine is developing no thrust in a glide, if the propeller pitch is increased: A) L/D increases, ROD increases. B) L/D decreases, ROD increases.

C) L/D increases, ROD decreases. D) L/D decreases, ROD decreases. 23630. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: A) higher maximum thrust available. B) higher maximum efficiency. C) more blade surface area available. D) nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range. 23654. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller climbs, does the angle of attack of the propeller: A) get smaller. B) remain the same. C) get bigger. D) reduce to zero. 23669. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller designed for cruising flight, measured at its reference station is: A) optimum in steady cruising flight only. B) increases with an increase in TAS. C) decreases with an increase in RPM. D) will always be positive in a power off glide. 23726. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: A) is lower in the takeoff run than in flight. B) is optimum in flight. C) is optimum in stabilised cruise flight. D) decreases with decrease in speed at constant engine RPM. 23728. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Propeller blade angle of attack is the angle between the chord and the: A) direction of axis of the propeller. B) aeroplane heading. C) relative airflow. D) vector of TAS. 26799. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The first action in event of propeller runaway (overspeed condition), should be to: A) feather the propeller. B) reduce the RPM. lever setting. C) push the RPM. lever fully forward. D) close the throttle. 26803. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Atypical fixed pitch propeller (C-172) is designed to achieve its optimum angle of attack at: A) low forward speeds, such as during takeoff. B) cruise speed. C) rest to case engine starting. D) maximum speed for high performance. 26972. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A variable pitch propeller during takeoff will move towards: A) coarse pitch to achieve the highest possible thrust. B) fine pitch to ensure that the engine can develop its maximum power. C) coarse pitch to ensure the best angle of attack is achieved. D) fine pitch to ensure minimum aerodynamic drag is generated. 26997. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

The output of a turboprop engine is usually indicated by: A) engine RPM as a percentage. B) propeller RPM. C) SHP. D) torque. 27000. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The greates drag produced by the variable pitch propeller on a piston engine will occur when the propeller is: A) stopped in fine pitch. B) stopped in coarse pitch. C) windmilling. D) used during a powered glide. 081-07 PROPELLERS 99 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27001 (C) 27012 (A) 27013 (B) 27017 (D) 27024 (B) 27036 (B) 3713 (C) 3726 (C) 3735 (C) 3739 (C) 3748 (D) 21088 (B) 23566 (B) 27001. (AIR: atpl, cpl) It is possible to have an aileron control aerodynamically balanced by: A) setting the hinge back into the control surface. B) causing the surface to move through a greater angle in up deflection than down deflection. C) attaching weights which act forward of the hinge line. D) used during a powered glide. 27012. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The twisting of a propeller blade from root to tip has been made to: A) provide a constant angle of attack from root to tip. B) to provide its greatest thrust toward the blade root. C) to ensure its optimum thrust is always achieved at takeoff. D) to prevent excessive stress at the blade tip at high RPM. 27013. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A propeller is said to be double acting when it: A) employs a spring to move the propeller blade toward fine. B) uses oil pressure to move the blade toward fine and coarse. C) produces thrust on both its front and flat faces of its blades. D) employs an electrically driven booster pump to move the blades in both directions. 27017. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The de-icing of a propeller by fluid is achieved through: A) spray mats. B) de-icing paste. C) ground application of fluid only. D) slinger rings. 27024. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The propeller noise can be minimised by: A) reduce the RPM of the engine. B) increase number of blades. C) decrease the angle of attack of the propeller. D) reduce the propeller area. 27036. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a single engine A/C with clockwise rotating propeller, a left yaw is generated due to: A) the torque effect. B) the slipstream, striking the fin on the left side.

C) higher lift on the right wing. D) higher helix angle. 081-07-02 Engine failure or engine stop 3713. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An engine failure can result in a windmilling (i) propeller and a non rotating (ii) propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct? A) (ii) is larger than (i). B) (i) is equal to (ii). C) (i) is larger than (ii). D) Impossible to say which one is largest. 3726. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A twin-engine aircraft is available in both jet and propeller variants. The engines are mounted on the wings in the same position in both types. In the case of failure of one engine how would the resultant roll effect show itself? A) Jet: roll toward the dead engine; propeller: roll toward the live engine. B) Jet: roll toward the live engine; propeller: roll toward the dead engine. C) Jet: roll away from the live engine; propeller: roll away from the live engine more rapidly. D) Jet: no change but; propeller: roll opposite to direction of rotation of the live engine. 3735. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position: A) the windmilling RPM is the maximum. B) the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM. C) the drag of the propeller is then minimal. D) the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine. 3739. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In an aircraft with a two-lever power control system, in a descent with the throttle closed, what would be the effect if the pitch control were pulled fully back to the flight stop? A) Rate of descent would remain the same and RPM would decrease. B) Rate of descent would remain the same and RPM would increase. C) Rate of descent would decrease and RPM would decrease. D) Rate of descent would increase and RPM would increase. 3748. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a propeller feathered: A) the best windmilling speed is achieved. B) the engine will turn over just fast enough to lubricate it. C) there will be minimum lift to drag ratio. D) there will be minimum drag on the propeller. 21088. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In twin engine aeroplanes with propellers turning clockwise as seen from behind: A) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa. B) the left engine is the critical engine. C) the minimum control speed is determined by the failure of the right engine. D) the right engine is the critical engine. 23566. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft fitted with a constant speed propeller is in a gliding descent with the throttle closed and the engine at idle, what would be the effect if the propeller lever were pulled back?

A) B) C) D)

Rate of descent would increase and RPM increase. ROD decreases and RPM decreases. ROD remains the same and RPM increases. ROD remains the same and RPM decreases.

081-07 PROPELLERS 100 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23569 (D) 23586 (B) 23652 (C) 23670 (A) 23717 (C) 26977 (A) 26996 (B) 27009 (B) 3669 (A) 3678 (D) 3679 (D) 3680 (D) 3684 (B) 3687 (A) 23569. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is maintaining altitude while flying with the left engine inoperative and the wings level, which of the following indications are correct? A) Turn indicator neutral and slip indicator displaced to the left. B) Turn indicator displaced to the left and the slip indicator displaced to the left. C) Turn indicator displaced to the left and the slip indicator neutral. D) Turn indicator neutral and slip indicator neutral. 23586. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When considering 2 multi-engine aircraft, one a jet and one with co-rotating propellers, following an engine failure in flight which of the following is most likely to occur? A) The jet will have a greater rolling tendency. B) The propeller will have a greater rolling tendency. C) Both will have the same rolling tendency. D) Neither will tend to roll. 23652. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the propeller RPM lever is pushed forward during a power off descent the propeller pitch: A) increases and ROD increases. B) increases and ROD decreases. C) decreases and ROD increases. D) decreases and ROD decreases. 23670. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a propeller in the feathered position: A) drag is minimal. B) best for engine lubrication. C) gives maximum wind milling RPM. D) drag is maximal. 23717. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A single engine aircraft with a constant speed propeller is in a gliding descent with the engine idling, what would be the effect of increasing the propeller pitch? A) Increased L/D max, increased ROD. B) Decreased L/D max, increased ROD. C) Increased L/D max, decreased ROD. D) Decreased L/D max, decreased ROD. 26977. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The windmilling of a propeller will cause: A) drag to be produced instead of thrust. B) some thrust to be produced. C) the CTM tend to cause the propeller to move to coarse pitch. D) the external weights to move the propeller to fine pitch. 26996. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With the propeller windmilling after an engine failure, the

A) CTM will rapidly increase. B) ATM and CTM will act in the same direction. C) ATM and CTM will immediately reduce to zero. D) ATM will rapidly increase. 27009. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The purpose of the feathering stop on a variable pitch propeller is to: A) prevent the propeller from feathering above a set RPM. B) prevent the propeller blades from moving beyond the feather position. C) allow the blades to be feathered on engine shut down. D) allow the blades to be feathered when ground running. 081-07-03 Design feature for power absorption 3669. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades? A) Decrease propeller efficiency. B) Increased noise. C) Less power can be absorbed by the propeller. D) Higher tip-speed. 3678. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In the alpha and beta ranges respectively the governed elements of turboprop propeller controls are as follows: A) fuel flow and pitch. B) reverse thrust and blade angle. C) engine RPM and fuel flow. D) propeller RPM and engine RPM. 3679. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip? A) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust. B) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segments speed in the plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers. C) To ensure that the root produces most thrust. D) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segments speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane. 3680. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increasing the number of propeller blades will: A) decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power. B) increase the propeller efficiency. C) increase the noise level at maximum power. D) increase the maximum absorption of power. 3684. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Increasing the camber on propeller blades will, if all else is the same: A) increase the propeller solidity. B) increase the power absorption capability. C) increase the propeller efficiency. D) give the aircraft greater range. 3687. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why does the blade angle of a propeller change from root to tip? A) To compensate for the increased velocity of the blade tip. B) Cross-sectional segment increases from tip to root. C) To provide increased thrust at root. D) To compensate for the change in geometric cross section. 081-07 PROPELLERS

101 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3696 (C) 3712 (B) 16700 (A) 16703 (C) 21190 (D) 23565 (B) 23615 (A) 2643 (C) 3671 (D) 3677 (C) 3685 (B) 3688 (D) 3698 (A) 3696. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference section: A) is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM). B) decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM). C) is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight. D) is always positive during idling descent. 3712. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The number of blades in a propeller would be increased: A) to increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanism. B) to increase power absorption capability. C) to reduce noise. D) to enable a longer undercarriage to be fitted. 16700. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A reversible propeller is on that: A) will deliver negative thrust. B) is mounted behind the main wing. C) is a pusher rather than a tractor. D) can be operated in either direction of rotation. 16703. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The more blades a propeller has, the more power it is able to absorb. The limitation on blade number from an aerodynamic standpoint is: A) engine speed if the engine is not geared. B) the blade diameter as compared to the maximum width. C) the loss of efficiency of one blade if it follows to the path of the preceding blade to closely. D) the loss of efficiency as the propeller tip approaches sonic speed. 21190. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip? A) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust. B) To ensure the angle of attack is greatest at the tip. C) To ensure that the root produces most thrust. D) To maintain a constant angle of attack along the whole length of the propeller blade. 23565. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the purpose of increasing the number of propeller blades? A) Noise reduction. B) Increase the power absorption. C) Increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanism. D) Enable a longer undercarriage to be used. 23615. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the disadvantage of increasing the number of propeller blades? A) Decreased efficiency. B) Increased noise. C) Decreased power absorption. D) Increased vibration. 081-07-04 Moments and couples due to propeller operation 2643. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Asymmetric propeller blade effect is mainly induced by: A) large angles of yaw. B) large angles of climb. C) the inclination of the propeller axis to the relative airflow. D) high speed. 3671. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will: A) roll the aeroplane to the right. B) roll the aeroplane to the left. C) yaw the aeroplane to the right. D) yaw the aeroplane to the left. 3677. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by: A) large angles of yaw. B) high speed. C) high angles of attack. D) large angles of climb. 3685. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-09) Using the diagram below of the forces affecting a propeller in flight, which arrow represents the torque moment? A) B B) A C) C D) D 3688. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The torque effect in the takeoff will: A) pitch the aeroplane nose up. B) pitch the aeroplane nose down. C) roll the aeroplane to the right. D) roll the aeroplane to the left. 3698. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Propeller efficiency is best described as: A) thrust HP to shaft HP. B) thrust HP to overall power. C) brake HP to maximum power. D) thermal HP to shaft HP. 081-07 PROPELLERS 102 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 3707 (B) 3708 (C) 3723 (A) 3752 (A) 3753 (B) 16695 (C) 16696 (A) 16697 (B) 16698 (A) 16699 (D) 16707 (D) 23557 (A) 23567 (C) 23631 (B) 3707. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following definitions of propeller parameters is correct? A) Blade angle is the angle between chord line and propeller axis. B) Geometric propeller pitch is the theoretical distance travelled forward by the propeller in one rotation. C) Critical tip speed is the propeller speed at which there is a risk of the flow separating at some part of the propeller. D) Blade angle of attack is the angle between chord line and propeller vertical axis. 3708. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following would change the magnitude of the

gyroscopic precession effect of the propeller? A) Propeller blade angle. B) Rate of roll. C) Propeller RPM. D) TAS. 3723. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During the takeoff roll, what affect does torque have on an aircraft with a clockwise rotating propeller? A) Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel decreased. B) Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel remains constant. C) Weight on left wheel decreased, weight on right wheel increased. D) Weight on right wheel increased, weight on left wheel decreased. 3752. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A propeller rotating anti-clockwise when viewed from the front, during the takeoff ground roll will: A) produce an increased load on the left wheel due to torque reaction. B) produce an increased load on the right wheel due to gyroscopic effect. C) produce an increased load on the right wheel due to torque reaction. D) produce an increased load on the left wheel due to gyroscopic effect. 3753. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by: A) pitching and rolling. B) pitching and yawing. C) ncreasing RPM and yawing. D) increasing RPM and rolling. 16695. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The torque reaction of a right-hand propeller will cause: A) roll to the right. B) nose up pitch. C) roll to the left. D) nose down pitch. 16696. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft with a righ hand propeller, the slipstream rotation will cause: A) yaw to the left. B) yaw to the right. C) roll to the left. D) roll to the right. 16697. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To counteract the effect of slipstream on a single engined aircraft: A) the horizontal stabilizer should be reduced in size. B) the fin should be placed as far as possible from the propeller. C) higher setting should be used. D) frise ailerons shoul be used. 16698. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a single engineed aircraft with a right hand propeller the gyroscopic effect causes: A) the nose to rise during turn to the left. B) the nose to fall during turns to the left. C) roll to the right during turns to the left. D) roll to the left during turns to the right. 16699. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Counter rotating propellers have the effect of: A) increasing the torque but decreasing the gyroscopic effect.

B) decreasing the torque but increasing the gyroscopic effect. C) increasing the torque and gyroscopic effects. D) canceling out the torque and gyroscopic effects. 16707. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a tail wheel aircraft with a right handed propelle, at the start of the takeoff run, asymmetric blade effect causes: A) yaw to right. B) no effect. C) nose down pitch (tail up). D) yaw to left. 23557. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In which of the following lists of flight conditions will torque effect be greatest in a single-engine aeroplane? A) Low airspeed / high power / high angle of attack. B) High airspeed / high power / high angle of attack. C) Low airspeed / low power / low angle of attack. D) High airspeed / low power / low angle of attack. 23567. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following would alter the gyroscopic effect of a propeller? A) Roll and pitch. B) Pitch and roll. C) Increase RPM. D) Decrease blade angle. 23631. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a clockwise rotating propeller in a climb, the asymmetric thrust effect will cause: A) roll to the left. B) yaw to the left. C) roll to the right. D) yaw to the right. 081-07 PROPELLERS 103 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23731 (B) 26827 (D) 23731. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Torque effect of a propeller which turns to the right produces a: A) nose up pitching moment. B) rolling moment to the left. C) nose down pitching moment. D) rolling moment to the right. 26827. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear tends to rotate the aircraft to the: A) right around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis. B) right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis. C) left around the vertical axis, and to the right.around the lqngitudinal axis. D) left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 104 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com

3623 (B) 3629 (B) 3651 (D) 3663 (D) 4084 (A) 4091 (D) 4094 (C) 4095 (A) 4097 (D) 4102 (D) 4103 (A) 4106 (C) 4108 (C) 081-08-01 Forces acting on an airplane 3623. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0,42, increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0,1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be: A) 0,74 B) 1,71 C) 1,49 D) 2,49 3629. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is in straight, level flight has a CL of 0,42, and a 1° increase in angle of attack would increase the CL by 0,1. Following a gust that increases the angle of attack by 3°, what load factor would the aircraft be subject to? A) N = 0,7 B) N = 1,7 C) N = 1,4 D) N = 1,0 3651. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0,4. Increase of angle of attack of 1° will increase CL by 0,09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5°. The load factor will be: A) 3,18 B) 1,09 C) 2,0 D) 2,13 3663. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0,35. Increase in angle of attack of 1° will increase CL by 0,079. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2°. The load factor will be: A) 1,9 B) 0,9 C) 0,45 D) 1,45 4084. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct? 1) VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration. 2) The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate. A) 1 is correct; 2 is correct. B) 1 is incorrect; 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. D) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct. 4091. (AIR: atpl, cpl) As fuel is consumed during a level flight cruise at high level: A) the angle of attack must be increased. B) the stalling speed will increase. C) the center of pressure will move forward. D) induced drag will decrease. 4094. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50.000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn?

A) 50.000 N B) 60.000 N C) 70.000 N D) 80.000 N 4095. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately: A) Wcos(gamma) B) W(1-sin(gamma)) C) W(1-tan(gamma)) D) W/cos(gamma) 4097. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is left of neutral. To coordinate the turn: A) a higher turn rate is required. B) more right rudder is required. C) less right bank is required. D) more right bank is required. 4102. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What action must the pilot take to maintain altitude and airspeed when turning in a jet aircraft? A) Increase thrust. B) Increase angle of attack. C) Decrease the turn radius. D) Increase angle of attack and thrust. 4103. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The theoretical best range speed for a jet aircraft at low level is: A) approximately 1,32 times the minimum drag speed. B) the minimum drag speed. C) the same as for a propeller aircraft. D) the minimum power speed. 4106. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Propeller aircraft flown at medium altitude at the recommended EAS will have a better specific air range (SAR) than at sea level because: A) drag is the same. B) the power required to maintain level flight is less. C) engine efficiency is greater. D) the thrust required is less. 4108. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft in level flight, if the wing center of pressure is aft of the center of gravity and there is no thrust-drag couple, the tailplane load must be: A) directed upwards. B) up or down depending on the position of the flight spoilers. C) directed downwards. D) zero at all times. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 105 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4111 (B) 4114 (A) 4115 (D) 4118 (B) 4127 (B) 4129 (B) 4131 (A) 4133 (C) 4134 (B) 4140 (C) 4142 (A) 4148 (B) 4156 (B) 4160 (C) 4111. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a steady climb: A) thrust equals drag plus the weight component perpendicular to the flight path and lift equals the weight component along the flight path.

B) thrust equals drag plus the weight component along the flight path and lift equals the weight component perpendicular to the flight path. C) thrust equals the weight component along the flight path and lift equals the sum of the components of drag and weight along the flight path. D) if the angle of climb is 20°, lift equals weight times sin 20°. 4114. (AIR: atpl, cpl) By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight? A) 41% B) 19% C) 31% D) 52% 4115. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on: A) wind. B) weight. C) load factor. D) TAS. 4118. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a steady turn at constant height: A) the radius of turn depends upon the weight and load factor. B) the rate of turn depends upon the TAS and angle of bank. C) the rate of turn depends upon the weight, TAS and angle of bank. D) the radius of turn depends only upon load factor. 4127. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with 20 degrees bank and 150 kts TAS. The same aeroplane with the same bank angle and the same speed, but at a lower mass will: A) turn with a higher turn rate. B) turn with the same turn radius. C) turn with a larger turn radius. D) turn with a smaller turn radius. 4129. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Weight acts: A) perpendicular to the chord line. B) parallel to the gravitational force. C) perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. D) perpendicular to the relative airflow. 4131. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If VS1g is 100 kts, the stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be: A) 119 kts B) 80 kts C) 141 kts D) 100 kts 4133. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a jet aircraft the best rate of climb is achieved: A) at the optimum lift to drag ratio. B) when excess thrust available is at a maximum. C) when excess power available is at a maximum. D) at the optimum angle of attack, nominally 4°. 4134. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to achieve the maximum rate of climb, aircraft should be flown at the indicated airspeed which: A) gives the best lift/drag ratio.

B) gives maximum excess power. C) gives the best thrust/drag ratio. D) gives the best speed/drag ratio. 4140. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to: A) increase thrust and decrease angle of attack. B) increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged. C) increase thrust and angle of attack. D) increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged. 4142. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic)? A) The gliding angle is minimum. B) The CL/CD ratio is minimum. C) Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag. D) Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max endurance. 4148. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The speed for minimum sink rate in a glide, compared to the speed for maximum distance VIMD is: A) equal to VIMD. B) slower than VIMD. C) faster than VIMD. D) not related to VIMD. 4156. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft in flight is affected by loads. These may be classified as: A) tensile, shear, twisting and stretching. B) compressive, tensile, shear and torsional. C) thrust, drag, lift and weight. D) compressive, bending, shear and torsional. 4160. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kts TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will: A) turn at a smaller turn radius. B) turn at a bigger turn radius. C) turn at the same turn radius. D) turn at a higher turn rate. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 106 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4165 (D) 4166 (C) 4167 (A) 4169 (B) 4172 (D) 4181 (B) 4182 (A) 4183 (D) 15615 (A) 15696 (B) 15711 (C) 15723 (A) 15735 (C) 16652 (B) 4165. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a correctly balanced turn: A) the thrust is a component of the centrifugal force. B) the centrifugal force directly balances the weight of the aircraft. C) the lift force balances the aircraft weight. D) the lift force provides a centripetal force and a force that opposes the weight of the aircraft. 4166. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The angle of climb of an aircraft is proportional to ___ and ___ as weight increases. A) excess power; decreases B) excess thrust; increases

C) excess thrust; decreases D) excess power; increases 4167. (AIR: atpl, cpl) At a true airspeed of 300 kts and in a 45° bank level turn, the radius of turn would be: (assume a value of 10 m/sec2 for g). A) 2.387 m B) 2.765 m C) 8.000 m D) 23.780 m 4169. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following will give an increase of ground range when gliding at VDmin? A) Increased weight. B) A tailwind. C) A headwind. D) Decreased weight. 4172. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1.000 ft/min vertical speed. In this condition: A) drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward. B) lift is equal to weight. C) lift is less than drag. D) weight is greater than lift. 4181. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45° bank turn? A) 10% B) 19% C) 41% D) 45% 4182. (AIR: atpl, cpl) From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read: A) the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient. B) the minimum drag and the maximum lift. C) the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift. D) the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag. 4183. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards direction. B) Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and lift acts perpendicular to the chord. C) Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lift. D) Drag acts in the same direction as the relative wind and lift perpendicular to it. 15615. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide? A) The wind and the lift/draq ratio, which changes with angle of attack. B) The wind and the aeroplane s mass. C) The wind and CLmax. D) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the weight. 15696. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kts, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is equal to: A) 3.354 m B) 2.381 m C) 4.743 m D) 9.000 m 15711. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with: A) V B) 1/V C) 1/V2 D) V2 15723. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be: A) n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight. B) n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. C) n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. D) n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight. 15735. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The location of the center of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will: A) shift aft. B) shift in spanwise direction. C) shift forward. D) not shift. 16652. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The greatest gliding range would be obtained from a wing at: A) a high angle of attack at maximum lift/drag ratio. B) a small angle of attack at maximum lift/drag ratio. C) a small angle of attack at minimum lift/drag ratio. D) a high angle of attack at minimum lift/drag ratio. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 107 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16654 (B) 16662 (C) 16663 (B) 16664 (C) 16665 (B) 16667 (C) 16668 (D) 21018 (B) 21026 (A) 21028 (D) 21029 (C) 21032 (A) 21042 (C) 21044 (A) 16654. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flying horizontally in a turn: A) less power is required than in level flight. B) more power is required than in level flight. C) the same power is required. D) more of less power may be require depending on which side of the drag curve the aeroplane is sitting. 16662. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a steady banked turn the lift will: A) equal the weight. B) equal the centrifugal force. C) equal the resultant of weight and centrifugal force. D) equal the centrifugal force minus the weight. 16663. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The margin between the power available and the power required: A) increases when the aircraft climbs. B) decreases when the aircraft climbs. C) decreases when the aircraft descends. D) remains the same.

16664. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A pitch up could be caused by: A) forward movement of the center of gravity. B) a reduction in varying loads due to g. C) forward movement of the center of pressure. D) lateral movement of the center of gravity. 16665. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a level banked turn, the stalling speed will: A) decrease. B) increase. C) remain the same. D) vary inversely with wing loading. 16667. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During the glide, the forces acting on an aircraft are: A) thrust, lift and drag. B) lift, weight and thrust. C) lift, drag and weight. D) drag, thrust and weight. 16668. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: A) near to the stalling speed. B) as high as possible within V limits. C) minimum control speed. D) the one that gives the lowest total drag. 21018. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude and maximum climb thrust (assume no supercharger). How do the following variables change during the climb? (gamma = flight path angle) A) gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS remains constant. B) gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases. C) gamma decreases, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases. D) gamma remains constant, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases. 21026. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane is in a steady horizontal turn at a TAS of 194 kts. The turn radius is 1.000 m. The bank angle is (assume g = 10 m/s2)? A) 45° B) 30° C) 50° D) 60° 21028. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: A) a higher turn-rate. B) more right rudder. C) less right bank. D) more left rudder. 21029. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 kts. The turn radius is 2.000 m. The load factor (n) is approximately: A) 2,0 B) 1,4 C) 1,1 D) 1,8

21032. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 200 kts? A) 63 s B) 95 s C) 126 s D) 630 s 21042. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Dividing lift by weight gives: A) wing loading. B) lift -drag ratio. C) load factor. D) aspect ratio. 21044. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a climbing turn to the right the: A) angle of attack of the left wing is larger than the angle of attack of the right wing. B) angle of attack of the left wing is smaller than the angle of attack of the right wing. C) angle of attack of both wings is the same. D) stall angle of attack of the left wing will be larger than the corresponding angle for the right wing. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 108 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21047 (A) 21054 (B) 21058 (B) 21059 (D) 21060 (D) 21061 (B) 21062 (A) 21063 (C) 21064 (A) 21047. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During a straight steady climb: 1) Lift is less than weight. 2) Lift is greater than weight. 3) Load factor is less than 1. 4) Load factor is greater than 1. 5) Lift is equal to weight. 6) Load factor is equal to 1. Which of the following lists all the correct answers? A) 1, 3 B) 2, 4 C) 5, 6 D) 1, 6 21054. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For shallow climb angles the folowing formula can be used: A) sin(gamma) = W/T - CD/CL B) sin(gamma) = T/W - CD/CL C) sin(gamma) = W/T - CL/CD D) sin(gamma) = T/W - CL/CD 21058. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 10 Thrust per engine: 60.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 3,7% B) 14%

C) 15,7% D) 11,7% 21059. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 10 Thrust per engine: 20.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 8,5% B) 4,3% C) 7,7% D) 6,0% 21060. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 10 Thrust per engine: 30.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 8,5% B) 9,7% C) 2,9% D) 8,0% 21061. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 20.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 4,3% B) 7,7% C) 6,0% D) 8,5% 21062. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 21.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 8,5% B) 4,3% C) 7,7% D) 6,0% 21063. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 21.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the one engine inoperative climb gradient will be: A) 6,0%

B) 7,7% C) 4,3% D) 8,5% 21064. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 28.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 8,5% B) 8,0% C) 9,7% D) 2,9% 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 109 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21065 (C) 21066 (B) 21067 (D) 21068 (C) 21069 (A) 21082 (C) 21083 (C) 21084 (C) 21085 (D) 21115 (A) 21121 (A) 21065. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 28.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the one engine inoperative climb gradient will be: A) 8,0% B) 9,7% C) 2,9% D) 8,5% 21066. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 30.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 2,9% B) 9,7% C) 8,0% D) 8,5% 21067. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 50.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 15,7% B) 3,7% C) 14% D) 11,7% 21068. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 60.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all engines climb gradient will be: A) 14% B) 3,7% C) 15,7% D) 11,7% 21069. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Given: Aeroplane mass: 50.000 kg Lift/Drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 60.000 N Assumed g: 10 m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the one engine inoperative climb gradient will be: A) 3,7% B) 15,7% C) 14% D) 11,7% 21082. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a slipping turn (nose pointing outwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the ball or slip indicator (ii) are respectively: A) (i) too large; (ii) displaced towards the high wing. B) (i) too small; (ii) displaced towards the low wing. C) (i) too large; (ii) displaced towards the low wing. D) (i) too small; (ii) displaced towards the high wing. 21083. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a steady straight climb at climb angle gamma , the lift of an aeroplane with weight W is approximately: A) w x (1-tan (gamma)) B) w x (1-sin (gamma)) C) w x cos (gamma) D) w / cos (gamma) 21084. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a straight steady descent, which of the following statements is correct? A) Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to 1. B) Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to 1. C) Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than 1. D) Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than 1. 21085. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In order to perform a steady level turn at constant speed in an aeroplane, the pilot must: A) increase angle of attack and keep thrust/power unchanged. B) increase thrust/power and keep angle of attack unchanged. C) increase thrust/power and decrease angle of attack. D) increase thrust/power and angle of attack. 21115. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The descent angle of a given aeroplane in a steady wings level glide has a fixed value for a certain combination of: (ignore compressibility effects and assume zero thrust) A) configuration and angle of attack. B) mass and altitude. C) altitude and configuration.

D) configuration and mass. 21121. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The forces of lift and drag on an aerofoil are, respectively, normal and parallel to the: A) relative wind/airflow. B) chord line. C) longitudinal axis. D) horizon. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 110 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 21132 (C) 21137 (A) 21142 (D) 21143 (D) 21144 (C) 21145 (A) 21146 (B) 21155 (D) 21183 (D) 23222 (B) 23273 (D) 23291 (B) 23311 (A) 23326 (A) 23362 (C) 21132. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that corresponds to (assume zero thrust): A) (CL/CD 2) max B) CL max C) (CL/CD) max D) (CL 3/CD 2) max 21137. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Two identical aircraft A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kts and that of B is 200 kt: A) the rate of turn of A is greater than that of B. B) the load factor of A is greater than that of B. C) the turn radius of A is greater than that of B. D) the lift coefficient of A is less than that of B. 21142. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What decreases the maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust? A) A decrease in aeroplane mass with zero wind. B) A tailwind with constant aeroplane mass. C) An increase in aeroplane mass with zero wind. D) A headwind with constant aeroplane mass. 21143. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What increases the maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust? A) A decrease in aeroplane mass with zero wind. B) A headwind with constant aeroplane mass. C) An increase in aeroplane mass with zero wind. D) A tailwind with constant aeroplane mass. 21144. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the approximate diameter of a steady, level, co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 30 degrees and a speed (TAS) of 500 kts? A) 13 km B) 17 km C) 23 km D) 7 km 21145. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the approximate radius of a steady horizontal coordinated turn at a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 200 kts? A) 1 km B) 10 km

C) 2 km D) 1,5 km 21146. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the correct relationship between the true airspeed for (i) minimum sink rate and (ii) minimum glide angle, at a given altitude? A) (i) is equal to (ii). B) (i) is less than (ii). C) (i) is greater than (ii). D) (i) can be greater than or less than (ii) depending on the type of aeroplane. 21155. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane performs a straight steady climb with a 20% climb gradient, the load factor is equal to: A) 0,83 B) 1,02 C) 1 D) 0,98 21183. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift to drag ratio determines the: A) horizontal distance in the climb up to a given altitude. B) maximum rate of climb. C) endurance speed. D) horizontal glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind and zero thrust. 23222. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is load factor? A) Lift multiplied by the total weight. B) Lift divided by the total weight. C) Lift subtracted by the total weight. D) The total weight divided by the wing area. 23273. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Side slip is: A) that which occurs when an aircraft loses adhesion when taxi-ing. B) the motion that will occur if trailing edge flaps deploy asymmetrically. C) the out of balance which occurs when an engine fails and thrust is asymmetric. D) motion of an aircraft, relative to the relative airflow, which has a component of velocity along the lateral axis. 23291. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In steady level flight the load factor is: A) zero B) 1,0 C) 1,5 D) 2,0 23311. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If cruising into a 15 kts headwind and a 180° turn is made so the wind is directly behind the aircraft, the IAS would: A) be the same and the ground speed would increase by 30 kts. B) be the same and the ground speed would increase by 15 kts. C) decrease by 15 kts and the ground speed would increase by 15 kts. D) increase by 30 kts and the ground speed would remain the same. 23326. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To maintain level flight at a steady speed: A) thrust must be exactly equal to drag.

B) thrust must be slightly greater than drag. C) thrust must be much greater than drag. D) thrust must be less than drag. 23362. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft is in level unaccelerated flight: A) parasite drag equals induced drag. B) lift is greater than weight. C) lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. D) lift and weight are equal and act through the CP. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 111 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23375 (B) 23378 (D) 23380 (A) 23399 (C) 23401 (A) 23402 (B) 23403 (B) 23404 (A) 23405 (C) 23406 (C) 23407 (B) 23408 (A) 23409 (D) 23410 (B) 23375. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is true, if during a level coordinated turn the load factor was kept constant? A) A decrease in airspeed results in an increase in radius. B) An increase in airspeed results in an increase in radius. C) An increase in airspeed results in a decrease in radius. D) An increase in airspeed would result in the same radius. 23378. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a given TAS and bank angle, a heavy aircraft: A) will have a larger radius of turn than a lighter one. B) will have a smaller radius of turn than a lighter one. C) will have the same radius of turn as a lighter one, but at a higher g load. D) will have the same radius of turn as a lighter one, and the same g load. 23380. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What action is necessary to make an aircraft turn? A) Change the direction of lift. B) Change the direction of thrust. C) Yaw the aircraft. D) Roll the aircraft. 23399. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft is in level unaccelerated flight: A) parasite drag equals induced drag. B) lift must be greater than weight. C) upward forces equal downward forces and thrust equals drag. D) lift and weight are equal and both act through the CP. 23401. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When an aircraft is climbing the requirements to maintain equilibrium are: A) thrust equals the sum of drag and the weight component along the flight path, and lift equals the weight component perpendicular to the flight path. B) thrust equals the weight component along the flight path, and lift equals the sum of the drag and weight component perpendicular to the flight path. C) thrust equals the weight component perpendicular to the flight path, and lift equals the weight component along the flight path. D) lift equals weight, and thrust equals drag. 23402. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The best speed for obstacle clearance is: A) VX with optimum flap setting for runway length, takeoff

weight and atmospheric conditions. B) VX and no high lift devices. C) VY with no flaps. D) VY with optimum flap setting for runway length, takeoff weight and atmospheric conditions. 23403. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When climbing into a headwind, compared to still air, the climb gradient relative to the ground will be: A) steeper, and the rate of climb increased. B) steeper, and the rate of climb unchanged. C) less steep, and the rate of climb increased. D) the same, and the rate of climb unchanged. 23404. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A glider has a L/D ratio of 25:1. For every 1.000 ft of height lost it would cover a distance in still air of: A) 4 NM B) 2,5 NM C) 25 NM D) 40 NM 23405. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a glide the line of action of the total reaction will be: A) behind that of lift and ahead that of weight. B) ahead that of lift and directly opposite that of weight. C) behind that of lift and directly opposite that of weight. D) ahead that of lift and weight. 23406. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The force which causes an aircraft to turn is given by: A) the rudder. B) the ailerons. C) the wing lift. D) the weight. 23407. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an aeroplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude? A) For any specific angle of bank and airspeed, the lighter the aeroplane the faster the rate and the smaller the radius of turn. B) For a specific angle of bank and airspeed the rate and radius of turn will not vary. C) The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger radius of turn regardless of the angle of bank. D) To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased. 23408. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft maintains a constant radius of turn but the speed is increased: A) the bank angle must be increased. B) the bank angle must be decreased. C) the bank angle will remain constant and the g load will be constant. D) the bank angle will remain constant but the g load will increase. 23409. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In coordinated flight for any specific bank, the faster the speed of the aircraft the: A) smaller the radius and slower rate of turn. B) greater the radius and faster rate of turn. C) smaller the radius and faster rate of turn. D) greater the radius and slower rate of turn. 23410. (AIR: atpl, cpl)

While holding the angle of bank constant, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would: A) vary depending upon the resultant lift vector. B) remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector. C) vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately. D) increase at an increasing rate. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 112 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23411 (D) 23466 (D) 23470 (D) 23471 (B) 23472 (B) 23473 (B) 23474 (C) 23475 (B) 23476 (D) 23477 (D) 23478 (B) 23479 (D) 23480 (B) 23489 (C) 23411. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aircraft to make a rate 1 turn: A) there is only 1 correct speed and one corresponding bank angle. B) it may be done at any speed but there is only 1 correct bank angle. C) there is only 1 correct speed but any bank angle may be chosen. D) it may be done at any speed but the higher the speed the greater the bank angle. 23466. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady state level flight? A) Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. B) Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight. C) Thrust is less than drag and lift is less than weight. D) These forces are equal. 23470. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a steady climb, the rate of climb is a maximum when: A) angle of climb is a maximum. B) excess thrust is a maximum. C) lift is a maximum. D) excess power is a maximum. 23471. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Flying at the maximum rate of climb speed will give: A) maximum height in the shortest distance. B) maximum height in the shortest time. C) maximum height in both shortest time and distance. D) minimum height gain in the shortest distance. 23472. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a steady climb at a constant speed: A) the power available must equal the power required. B) the power available must exceed the power required. C) the power available must be less than the power required. D) the power required must be greater than the power available. 23473. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To obtain the maximum rate of climb: A) power available must be least for the power required. B) power required must be least for the power available. C) power available must be equal to power required. D) thrust must exceed drag by the greatest margin. 23474. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When gliding, the speed which will give the minimum rate of descent is: A) as close to the stalling speed as possible.

B) the same as the speed for maximum glide range. C) less than the speed for maximum glide range. D) higher than the speed for maximum glide range. 23475. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? A) The sum of all rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. B) The sum of all forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C) The sum of all upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. D) The sum of all upward forces is greater than the sum of all downward forces. 23476. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If, during a level turn the rate of turn is kept constant, an increase in airspeed will result in a: A) decrease in centrifugal force. B) constant load factor regardless of changes in bank angle. C) need to decrease angle of bank to maintain the same radius of turn. D) need to increase angle of bank to maintain the same radius of turn. 23477. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A) Lift increases and sink rate increases. B) Lift decreases and sink rate decreases. C) Lift increases and sink rate decreases. D) Lift decreases and sink rate increases. 23478. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A) Rate will increase and radius will decrease. B) Rate will decrease and radius will increase. C) Rate and radius will increase. D) Rate and radius will decrease. 23479. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2.000 kg was subjected to a 60 degree bank turn, what would the total load be? A) 3.000 kg B) 12.000 kg C) 1.000 kg D) 4.000 kg 23480. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? A) Rudder deflection and slight aileron use throughout the turn. B) Due to the loss of the vertical component of lift. C) Due to the loss of the horizontal component of lift. D) Because the wing tip on the outside of the turn is travelling faster. 23489. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a glide the maximum range will be obtained by flying at: A) VNE. B) a speed close to the stalling speed. C) VMD. D) VMO/MMO.

081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 113 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23497 (B) 23498 (A) 23500 (A) 23534 (C) 23548 (D) 23549 (A) 23550 (B) 23587 (B) 23620 (A) 23624 (A) 23625 (C) 23633 (B) 23656 (B) 23677 (C) 23718 (B) 23497. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a co-ordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude? A) The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B) The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no change in the load factor. C) The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. D) The rate of turn will increase resulting in a decreased load factor. 23498. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Upon which factor does wing loading during a level co-ordinated turn in smooth air depend? A) Angle of bank. B) TAS. C) Rate of turn. D) IAS. 23500. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a climb the weight component along the flight path is balanced by: A) thrust B) lift C) drag D) gravity 23534. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If a twin engine aircraft with a L/D ratio of 8:1 is in straight and level flight and the engines are each developing 16.000 N of thrust, what is the weight of the aircraft? A) 4.000 N B) 8.000 N C) 256.000 N D) 32.000 N 23548. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A glide ratio of 14:1 with respect to the air mass will be: A) 7:1 in a headwind and 28:1 in a tailwind. B) 7:1 in a tailwind and 28:1 in a headwind. C) 14:1 in a tailwind and 7:1 in a headwind. D) 14:1 regardless of wind direction and speed. 23549. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a co-ordinated constant altitude turn: A) is constant, but the stall speed is higher than in straight and level flight. B) varies with the rate of turn. C) is directly related to the aeroplane s gross weight. D) is inversely proportional to the bank angle. 23550. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the airspeed is increased from 90 kts to 135 kts during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will: A) decrease and the stall speed will increase.

B) remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. C) increase as well as the stall speed. D) increase and the radius of turn will increase. 23587. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What % increase in lift is required to maintain altitude while in a 45° bank turn? A) 19% B) 41% C) 50% D) 10% 23620. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a rate 1 turn, the angle of bank is affected by: A) TAS. B) weight. C) wind. D) load factor. 23624. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the turn and slip indicator needle shows right and ball to the left, the correct input is: A) more bank to the right. B) more right rudder. C) less bank to the right. D) increase turn radius. 23625. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect on turn radius at the same angle of bank at different weights will be to: A) increase turn radius. B) decrease turn radius. C) the turn radius will not be affected by different weights. D) the turn radius depends only upon the bank angle. 23633. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a constant continuous descent of 1.000 ft/min at 160 kts IAS, which statement is true? A) Lift is less than drag. B) Lift is less than weight. C) Drag is less than the sum of the forces driving the aeroplane forward. D) Lift equals weight. 23656. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Except wind, what other factors affect the glide range? A) weight B) Lift/drag ratio. C) CL max. D) Weight and power required. 23677. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When flying at L/D max the glide distance covered will be increased by: A) increasing weight. B) decreasing weight. C) increasing tailwind. D) increasing headwind. 23718. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a descent: A) weight and lift are the same. B) weight is greater than lift. C) weight is less than lift. D) weight and drag are the same. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 114

© 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 23724 (D) 24062 (A) 24063 (C) 24068 (C) 24076 (C) 24082 (C) 24536 (C) 24549 (B) 26401 (C) 26992 (D) 27003 (C) 4109 (A) 4113 (A) 4116 (B) 23724. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What changes the load factor in straight and level flight? A) An increase in weight. B) An increase in density. C) CG moving rearwards. D) A vertical gust. 24062. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which condition gives the greatest gliding range? A) A tail wind. B) A head wind. C) A cross wind at right angles. D) Still air conditions. 24063. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An increase in weight will ___ glide range with a ___ wind. A) decrease; head B) increase; tail C) increase; head D) have no effect; tail 24068. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For an aeroplane in a glide, what other factor apart from wind affects the minimum glide angle? A) height B) weight C) CL:CD D) CG 24076. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The lift of an aeroplane in level flight is 50 kN. In a level turn at 45° bank the lift would be increased to: A) 50 kN B) 60 kN C) 70 kN D) 80 kN 24082. (AIR: atpl, cpl) If the turn and slip indicator needle is to the left and the ball is to the right, what is the correct control input? A) More left rudder. B) More right rudder. C) Less left bank. D) Increase rate of turn. 24536. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A glider reduces weight by dumping water ballast. A ten per cent reduction in weight would give: A) a five per cent reduction in best glide angle. B) a ten per cent increase in best glide angle. C) a decrease in best rate of descent. D) no change in best rate of descent. 24549. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In straight and level flight the aircraft s normal axis is approximately: A) horizontal. B) vertical. C) lateral. D) longitudinal. 26401. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at a certain angle of attack. Which are the corresponding aerodynamic coefficients(s)?

A) (CL/CD 2)max B) CLmax C) (CL/CD)max D) (CL 3/CD 2)max 26992. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The four forces of lift, weight, thrust and drag in level flight act through: A) the CP. B) the aerodynamic centre. C) the aft Limit. D) the CG. 27003. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The glide range of an aircraft is affected by: A) aircraft all up weight. B) drag only. C) the lift/drag ratio. D) the wingspan only. 081-08-02 Asymmetric thrust 4109. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VMCL can be limited by: 1) engine failure on takeoff 2) roll rate A) 1 is incorrect 2 is correct. B) 1 is correct 2 is incorrect. C) 1 and 2 are both correct. D) 1 and 2 are incorrect. 4113. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct? 1 When the critical engine fails during takeoff the speed VMCL can be limiting. 2 The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate. A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. B) 1 is correct, 2 is correct. C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect. D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 4116. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected? A) Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed. B) Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways. C) Because it must be possible to abort the takeoff even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground. D) Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 115 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 4117 (D) 4149 (D) 4159 (A) 4177 (A) 21048 (D) 21053 (A) 21141 (D) 21171 (D) 23359 (D) 23412 (B) 23501 (D) 23551 (D) 24511 (C) 24555 (C) 4117. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Nose-wheel steering is not used in certification of VMCG because: A) nose-wheel steering is not stressed for high speed operation. B) nose-wheel steering doesnt work on wet runways.

C) the use of nose-wheel steering is a distraction from the real emergency. D) all of the above. 4149. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature? A) Increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases. B) Decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density. C) Increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force. D) Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases. 4159. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level? A) Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral. B) Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral. C) Turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral. D) Turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral. 4177. (AIR: atpl, cpl) An aircraft is in straight and level flight with the left engine inoperative and the wings level. The turn indicator will be ___ and the slip indicator will be ___. A) neutral; neutral B) showing left yaw; neutral C) showing right yaw; displaced left D) showing right yaw; displaced right 21048. (AIR: atpl, cpl) During the takeoff roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a four engine jet aeroplane with wing mounted engines experiences an engine failure. The greatest control problem is caused by the loss of which engine? A) The left inboard engine. B) The right outboard engine. C) The right inboard engine. D) The left outboard engine. 21053. (AIR: atpl, cpl) For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of VMCG? A) Airport elevation and temperature. B) Engine thrust and rudder deflection. C) Air density and runway length. D) Engine thrust and gear position. 21141. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VMCA is certified with a bank angle of not more than 5° towards the operating engine because: A) the slip indicator at 5° bank (live engine low) is centered. B) at 5° bank (live engine low), sideslip is zero. C) more than 5° bank (live engine low) would not reduce VMCA. D) although more bank reduces VMCA, too much bank may lead to fin stall. 21171. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which statement about minimum control speed is correct? A) VMCL is determined by maximum rudder only. B) The nose wheel steering control may used to determine VMCG. C) Crosswind is taken into account to determine VMCG.

D) VMCA depends on the airport density altitude, and the location of the engine on the aeroplane (aft fuselage or wing). 23359. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The fin of an aircraft is a symmetrical aerofoil: A) it will only provide an aerodynamic force when the rudder is moved. B) it will give drag, but no lift because it is a symmetrical aerofoil. C) it can give no lift, only drag. D) it could stall if the fin angle of attack is too great. 23412. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed: A) low gross weight. B) high density altitude. C) slush on the runway or inoperative anti-skid. D) fitting engines of greater power output. 23501. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an aeroplane with un-supercharged engines? A) Remains constant to full throttle height and then decreases. B) Increases with increasing altitude. C) Altitude has no effect. D) Decreases with increasing altitude. 23551. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which is the advantage of rear mounted engines? A) Easier engine access. B) Decreased liability for wing flutter. C) Lighter wing construction. D) Less effect of thrust changes on longitudinal control. 24511. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Higher all-up-weight will make your VMCA: A) lower. B) higher. C) the same. D) higher by half the percentage change in all-up-weight. 24555. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VMCG is the speed at which: A) directional control can be maintained at engine failure on takeoff using the primary flying controls. B) it is no longer possible to reject the takeoff. C) nose wheel steering becomes ineffective. D) directional and lateral control can be maintained using aileron alone. 081-08 FLIGHT MECHANICS 116 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27025 (B) 4083 (A) 4107 (A) 4130 (A) 4155 (D) 15749 (C) 23377 (B) 23499 (C) 23564 (B) 23667 (A) 23520 (B) 23521 (C) 23524 (A) 27025. (AIR: atpl, cpl) VMCG is defined as the minimum speed which directional control on the ground can be recovered and maintained under which condition: A) flaps in landing configuration. B) by use of rudder only. C) sudden engine failure on one engine. D) rudder and wheel steering used for recovery. 4083. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A glider reduces weight by dumping water ballast. A ten per

cent reduction in weight would give: A) a decrease in best rate of descent. B) a ten per cent increase in best glide angle. C) a five per cent reduction in best glide angle. D) no change in best rate of descent. 4107. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The effect of a headwind is to ___ the climb gradient and to ___ the rate of climb. A) increase; not affect B) increase; decrease C) decrease; increase D) not affect; increase 4130. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The maximum glide range of an aircraft will depend on wind and: A) the ratio to lift to drag which varies according to angle of attack. B) speed for minimum power required. C) CL MAX. D) minimum lift / drag ratio. 081-08-04 Windshear 081-08-03 Emergency descent 23564. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which of the following will result in the maximum distance covered over the ground when gliding? A) Headwind. B) Tailwind. C) Increased weight. D) Decreased weight. 23667. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The L/D ratio allows the pilot to determine: A) glide distance in still air from a given altitude. B) glide distance from a given altitude. C) horizontal distance covered over the ground. D) descent angle. 23520. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which windshear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A) Increasing tailwind. B) Decreasing tailwind. C) Decreasing headwind. D) None of the above. 23521. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwindshears to a calm wind? A) IAS decreases / pitch up / altitude decreases. B) IAS increases / pitch down / altitude increases. C) IAS decreases / pitch down / altitude decreases. D) IAS increases / pitch up / altitude increases. 23524. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On passing through a shear line, why does the IAS change? A) The inertia of the aircraft will initially keep it at its original speed in relation to the ground. B) A decreased mass of air is entering the pitot tube. C) Windshear alters the air density, which affects the ASI reading. D) Windshear changes the static pressure, which makes the ASI miss-read. 4155. (AIR: atpl, cpl) With a L/D ratio of 9:1 and flying at 12.000 ft the glide range

in still air would be: A) 15 NM B) 20 NM C) 14 NM D) 18 NM 15749. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between: A) angle of attack and CL. B) CD and angle of attack. C) CL and CD. D) TAC and stall speed. 23377. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Maximum gliding distance of an aircraft is obtained when: A) induced drag equals the coefficient of lift. B) induced drag and parasite drag are equal. C) parasite drag is the least. D) parasite drag is greatest. 23499. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To obtain the best possible gliding distance an aircraft should: A) be a light as possible. B) have a wing that will give high lift. C) have the highest possible lift / drag ratio. D) be as heavy as possible. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 117 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25400 (B) 25406 (A) 25407 (B) 25409 (D) 25410 (A) 25411 (D) 25412 (A) 25415 (D) 25421 (C) 25423 (D) 25426 (C) 25429 (D) 25436 (B) 25447 (A) 25460 (C) 25400. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The rate of doing work is: A) power, measured in Joules. B) power, measured in Watts. C) force, measured in Newtons. D) power, measured in Newtons. 25406. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the significance of Vi? A) Along with VR, it determines the angle of attack. B) It determines the magnitude of VR. C) Along with VR, it determines the pitch angle. D) It determines the magnitude of rotor drag. 25407. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During a climb how is the angle of attack affected? A) A rate of climb airflow opposes induced flow increasing the angle of attack. B) A rate of climb airflow adds to induced flow decreasing the angle of attack. C) A rate of descent airflow opposes induced flow increasing the angle of attack. D) A rate of climb airflow adds to induced flow increasing the angle of attack. 25409. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a steady stream of airflows through a venturi its velocity will ___ and static pressure will ___. A) increase; rise B) decrease; fall C) decrease; rise D) increase; fall

25410. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is viscosity? A) The resistance to movement of one layer of air over another. B) The density of a liquid or gas. C) The pressure exerted within a substance. D) A measure of temperature and humidity. 25411. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the disc of a teetering rotor system with an underslung feathering hinge is tilted the radius of the rotor blades center of gravity will: A) increase. B) decrease. C) become elliptical. D) remain the same. 25412. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The resultant force from pressure envelopes around an aerofoil can be described as: A) the total reaction. B) lift. C) rotor thrust. D) the vertical component of rotor thrust. 25415. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When air is compressed the number of molecules in a given volume ___ and density ___. A) decreases; rises B) decreases; drops C) increases; drops D) increases; rises 25421. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Up to what height can water vapour be found in the atmosphere? A) 11 miles B) 6 km C) 11 km D) 16 miles 25423. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the relationship between VR and the plane of rotation? A) They are parallel. B) They are perpendicular. C) They determine the angle of attack. D) They determine the RAF. 25426. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lift = CL1/2pV2S, where S is: A) the speed of the air flow. B) the shape of the aerofoil. C) the plan area of the aerofoil. D) air density. 25429. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is force? A) Mass x pressure B) Speed x pressure C) Mass x speed D) Mass x acceleration 25436. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is a mixing unit? A) A mechanical system of balancing the controls. B) A mechanical system of cross-coupling the controls. C) A method of balancing blade pitch angle. D) None of the above. 25447. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a helicopter is at on the ground and the center of gravity

is directly below the rotor hub, where will weight be acting? A) Vertically down along the shaft axis. B) Vertically down from the center of the helicopter. C) Down and back, away from the shaft axis. D) Down and forward, away from the shaft axis. 25460. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When the upper surface of an aerofoil is predominantly covered in separated airflow the aerofoil is: A) descending. B) climbing. C) stalled. D) retreating. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 118 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25461 (D) 25465 (D) 25467 (B) 25469 (D) 25472 (C) 25474 (B) 25486 (B) 25489 (B) 25501 (C) 25502 (D) 25504 (C) 25510 (B) 25511 (B) 25513 (A) 25515 (D) 25461. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If uncorrected, what will retreating blade stall cause? A) The helicopter to pitch down and roll towards the retreating side. B) The helicopter to pitch up and roll towards the advancing side. C) The helicopter to pitch down and roll towards the advancing side. D) The helicopter to pitch up and roll towards the retreating side. 25465. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What part of the disc is affected by retreating blade stall? A) The tip section on the advancing side. B) The root section on the retreating side. C) The root section on the advancing side. D) The tip section on the retreating side. 25467. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During incipient vortex ring the vortex at the root becomes ___ and creates a very turbulent wake as the ___ stalls. A) stronger; tip B) weaker; root C) weaker; tip D) stronger; root 25469. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At what speed do shock waves occur on most aerofoils? A) M 0,99 B) M 0,5 C) M 1,15 D) M 0,85 25472. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When can shock stall occur? A) At low speed. B) At negative angles of attack. C) At any angle of attack. D) In the hover. 25474. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In fully developed vortex ring root stall moves ___ and the tip vortices ___. A) inboard; reduce B) outboard; increase C) outboard; reduce

D) inboard; increase 25486. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As air becomes saturated, air density ___ and rotor performance is ___. A) increases; reduced B) decreases; reduced C) decreases; improved D) increases; improved 25489. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a body is dynamically unstable any oscillations would be: A) damped B) divergent C) neutral D) contained 25501. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is ASE? A) Automated Servo Equipment. B) Automatic Stopping Equipment. C) Automatic Stability Equipment. D) Angle Staged Electrics. 25502. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If density altitude increases the TAS will ___ and range will ___. A) increase; increase B) decrease; increase C) decrease; decrease D) increase; decrease 25504. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which is the normal axis of stability? A) Pitch B) Roll C) Yaw D) Feathering 25510. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An aerofoil produces lift by: A) airflow velocity decreasing over the upper surface decreasing the pressure and increasing across the lower surface increasing the pressure. B) airflow velocity increasing over the upper surface decreasing the pressure and decreasing across the lower surface increasing the pressure. C) airflow velocity decreasing over the upper surface increasing the pressure and increasing across the lower surface decreasing the pressure. D) airflow velocity increasing over the upper surface increasing the pressure and decreasing across the lower surface decreasing the pressure. 25511. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The Centre of Pressure is the point on an aerofoil chord section where: A) the total weight of the aircraft is said to act. B) the total reaction is said to act. C) the airflow separates from the aerofoil section. D) the maximum velocity of the airflow occurs. 25513. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the formula for lift? A) L = CL1pV2S B) L = CL1pVS2 C) L = CL1pVS

D) L = CL1pV2S 25515. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter is in unaccelerated, steady forward flight. The forces acting on the helicopter are: A) the lift / weight couple balancing the thrust/parasite drag couple. B) the vertical component of TRT / horizontal component of TRT, balancing the weight / parasite drag couple. C) the lift/thrust couple balancing the weight / parasite drag couple. D) the vertical component of TRT / weight couple, balancing the horizontal component of TRT / parasite drag couple. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 119 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25519 (C) 25529 (C) 25550 (D) 25555 (D) 25650 (A) 25651 (D) 25653 (C) 25654 (C) 25657 (B) 25661 (A) 25662 (B) 25668 (B) 25669 (D) 25670 (B) 25519. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The phenomenon of retreating blade stall can cause the helicopter to: A) suddenly pitch up and roll towards the advancing side. B) suddenly pitch down and roll towards the retreating side. C) suddenly pitch up and roll towards the retreating side. D) suddenly pitch down and roll towards the advancing side. 25529. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The (i) is determined by the relationship between (ii) and the (iii). Choose which the words which fit the statement. A) (i) rotational airflow; (ii) induced flow; (iii) relative velocity B) (i) relative airflow; (ii) rotor thrust; (iii) plane of rotation C) (i) relative airflow; (ii) induced flow; (iii) rotational velocity D) (i) rotational airflow; (ii) rotor drag; (iii) relative velocity 25550. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ice build up on the airframe, rotor blades and engine can lead to a number of hazards and limitations: 1) Increase in power requirements. 2) Increase in A.U.W. 3) Increase in vibration. 4) Decrease in controllability. 5) Change to rotor profile. A) 1, 2, 4, 5 B) 2, 3, 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 25555. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As A.U.W or altitude is increased, retreating blade stall is likely to occur: A) at a lower Indicated Airspeed (IAS) in both cases. B) at a higher IAS for a higher AUW, but the same IAS for an increased altitude. C) at a higher IAS in both cases. D) at a lower IAS for a higher AUW but the same IAS for an increased altitude. 25650. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In level flight an increase in angle of attack will cause: A) the stagnation point to move down and aft. B) the boundary layer to become thinner. C) a decrease in pitch angle. D) the center of pressure to move aft.

25651. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The unit of density is: A) bar B) psi C) kg/cm2 D) kg/m3 25653. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Induced drag is created by the: A) separation of the boundary layer over the wing. B) interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage. C) spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices. D) propeller wash blowing across the wing. 25654. (HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-06) Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane? A) Line B. B) Line A. C) Line C. D) Line D. 25657. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The term angle of attack is defined as: A) the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force. B) the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind. C) the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis. D) the angle between the wing and tailplane incidence. 25661. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At a constant IAS, induced drag is affected by: A) aircraft weight. B) changes in thrust. C) angle between chord line and longitudinal axis. D) wing location. 25662. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices? A) Air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip. B) Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip. C) Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the left wing tip and from the top. surface to the bottom surface at the right wing tip. D) Spanwise flow vector from the tip to the root on the bottom surface of the wing. 25668. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the effect on EAS as height is increased when you are holding a constant IAS? A) EAS remains the same. B) EAS falls. C) EAS rises. D) The effect depends on the temperature. 25669. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer: A) separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer. B) friction drag will be equal in both types of layers. C) friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer. D) friction drag is lower in the laminar layer. 25670. (HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 081-05)

The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows: A) the total drag. B) the induced drag. C) the lift force. D) the parasite drag. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 120 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25671 (B) 25673 (B) 25677 (B) 25679 (D) 25683 (A) 25684 (B) 25686 (A) 25689 (A) 25692 (B) 25695 (B) 25698 (A) 25700 (C) 25702 (C) 25706 (A) 25710 (A) 25712 (C) 25671. (HELI: atpl, cpl) High aspect ratio: A) reduces parasite drag. B) reduces induced drag. C) increases stalling speed. D) reduces manoeuverability. 25673. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At a constant CAS when flying below sea level an aircraft will have: A) a higher TAS than at sea level. B) a lower TAS than at sea level at ISA conditions. C) the same TAS as at sea level. D) the same TAS, but an increased IAS. 25677. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Induced drag may be reduced by: A) an increase in the taper ratio of the wing. B) an increase in aspect ratio. C) a decrease of the aspect ratio. D) the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil. 25679. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The units of wing loading (i) W/S and (ii) dynamic pressure q are: A) (i) N/m3; (ii) kg/m2. B) (i) kg/m; (ii) N/m2. C) (i) N/m; (ii) kg. D) (i) N/m2, (ii) N/m2. 25683. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With increasing angle of attack the CP will reach its most forward point: A) just below the stalling angle. B) just above the stalling angle. C) at the stalling angle. D) at various points dependent on aircraft weight. 25684. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of: A) CL2 and S (wing surface). B) CL2 and AR (aspect ratio). C) CL and CD. D) CL and b (wing span). 25686. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The units of the density of the air (i) and the force (ii) are: A) (i) kg/m3; (ii) N. B) (i) kg/m; (ii) kg. C) (i) N/m3; (ii) N. D) (i) N/kg; (ii) kg. 25689. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

The induced drag: A) increases as the lift coefficient increases. B) increases as the aspect ratio increases. C) has no relation to the lift coefficient. D) increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases. 25692. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the: A) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag. B) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag. C) induced drag is equal to zero. D) induced drag is lowest. 25695. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move ___ and the point of lowest pressure will move ___. A) up; aft B) down; forward C) down; aft D) up; forward 25698. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur? A) Upper side. B) Lower side. C) In front of the stagnation point. D) In the stagnation point. 25700. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil section at CL = 0 will produce? A) A negative (nose down) pitching moment. B) A positive (nose up) pitching moment. C) Zero pitching moment. D) No aerodynamic force. 25702. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the greatest factor causing lift? A) Increased airflow velocity below the wing. B) Increased pressure below wing. C) Suction above the wing. D) Decreased airflow velocity above the wing. 25706. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The airfoil chord is: A) a straight line from the wing leading edge to the trailing edge. B) a line equidistant from the upper and lower wing surfaces. C) a line tangential to the wing surface at the point of maximum curvature. D) a line drawn at 15% chord from the root to the tip. 25710. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: A) decrease of CLmax and increase of drag. B) decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag. C) increase of CLmax and increase of drag. D) increase of CLmax and decrease of drag. 25712. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Induced drag is caused by: A) increased pressure at the leading edge stagnation point. B) wing mounted fuel tanks. C) wing tip vortices and downwash. D) winglets and washout.

082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 121 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25714 (D) 25719 (B) 25721 (B) 25725 (D) 25731 (D) 25733 (A) 25735 (D) 25736 (B) 25737 (C) 25738 (B) 25740 (D) 25744 (B) 25745 (D) 25746 (A) 25714. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A laminar boundary layer is ___ and has ___ drag than a turbulent layer. A) thick; more B) thick; less C) thin; more D) thin; less 25719. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor: A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 1,4 25721. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines converge the static pressure will: A) increase initially, then decrease. B) decrease. C) increase. D) not change. 25725. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as: A) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio. B) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon. C) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing. D) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow. 25731. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow inside is: A) sonic. B) not changing. C) increasing. D) decreasing. 25733. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What phenomena causes induced drag? A) Wing tip vortices. B) Wing tanks. C) The increased pressure at the leading edge. D) The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above. 25735. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a stream tube, if density is halved, drag will be reduced by a factor of: A) 8 B) 4 C) 6 D) 2

25736. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The following unit of measurement kgm/s2 is expressed in the SI unites as: A) Pascal B) Newton C) Joule D) Watt 25737. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The aerofoil polar is: A) the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed. B) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack. C) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient. D) a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord. 25738. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The wake vortices behind a large aircraft begin on takeoff ___ and end on landing ___. A) at V2; in the flare B) on rotation; as the nosewheel goes down C) at V1; when lift dump is selected D) at 80 kts; on touchdown 25740. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The (subsonic) static pressure: A) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases. B) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure. C) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero. D) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases. 25744. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent? A) Just in front of the transition point. B) Between the transition and separation points. C) Just aft of the separation point. D) Just in front of the center of pressure. 25745. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the IAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would the drag increase? A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16 25746. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct about the CL and angle of attack? A) For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, CL =0. B) For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, CL is not equal to 0. C) For an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, CL =0. D) For an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, CL = 0. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 122 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25750 (C) 25757 (A) 25760 (C) 25761 (C) 25762 (B) 25764 (A) 25770 (A) 25772 (C) 25774 (C) 25783 (D) 25784 (D) 25791 (D) 25793 (B) 25796 (B) 25798 (C) 25750. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

What are the correct SI units for density and force? A) Kg/N, Nm3. B) N/m3, kg. C) Kg/m3, Newtons. D) Kg/m3, kg. 25757. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Subsonic flow over a cambered airfoil at 4° angle of attack will cause: A) an increase in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and a rise in pressure over the lower surface. B) a decrease in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface. C) an increase in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface. D) a decrease in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface. 25760. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following expressions could represent the relationship between force, mass and acceleration: A) a = m / F B) m = F x a C) F = m x a D) a = F x m 25761. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil. This definition is applicable for: A) the mean aerodynamic chord line. B) the chord line. C) the camber line. D) the upper camber line. 25762. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The terms q and S in the lift formula are: A) square root of surface and wing loading. B) dynamic pressure and the area of the wing. C) static pressure and wing surface area. D) static pressure and dynamic pressure. 25764. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ___ and the stagnation point moves ___. A) decreases; rearward B) increases; rearward C) decreases; forward D) increases; forward 25770. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s2? A) Newton B) Psi C) Joule D) Watt 25772. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface? A) No difference.

B) Laminar boundary layer. C) Turbulent boundary layer. D) Transition boundary layer. 25774. (HELI: atpl, cpl) How is the thickness of an aerofoil section measured? A) As the ratio of wing angle. B) Related to camber. C) As the percentage of chord. D) In metres. 25783. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the most important result/problem caused by ice formation? A) Increased drag. B) Increased weight. C) Blockage of the controls. D) Reduction in CLMAX. 25784. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the CL and CD ratio at normal angles of attack? A) CL higher. B) CD higher. C) The same. D) CL much higher. 25791. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Cambered wing sections give ___ maximum CL at a relatively ___ angles of attack. A) high; high B) low; high C) low; low D) high; low 25793. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Drag acts in the direction of ___ . Lift is perpendicular to the ___ . A) chord line; chord line B) relative wind (airflow); relative wind (airflow) C) horizon; horizon D) longitudinal axis; longitudinal axis 25796. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Bernoulli s theorem states: A) dynamic pressure increase and static pressure increase. B) dynamic pressure increase and static pressure decrease. C) dynamic pressure is maximum at stagnation point. D) zero pressure at zero dynamic pressure. 25798. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On an airfoil the center of pressure will be most forward: A) at the optimum angle. B) at the stalling angle. C) just below the stalling angle. D) just above the stalling angle. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 123 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25801 (A) 25803 (B) 25804 (D) 25805 (B) 25806 (C) 25807 (A) 25810 (B) 25814 (D) 25817 (B) 25819 (A) 25820 (A) 25822 (D) 25824 (A) 25830 (C) 25801. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on: A) the airstream velocity. B) the specific mass of the body.

C) the weight of the body. D) the CG location of the body. 25803. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct? A) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators. B) The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction. C) The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction. D) The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack. 25804. (HELI: atpl, cpl) How does aerodynamic drag vary when airspeed is doubled? By a factor of: A) 2 B) 1 C) 16 D) 4 25805. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The true airspeed (TAS) is: A) higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. B) lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level. C) equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level. D) lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. 25806. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: A) 8 B) 4 C) 16 D) 12 25807. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What does parasite drag vary with? A) Square of the speed. B) CLmax. C) Speed. D) Surface area. 25810. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Bernoulli s equation can be written as (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure): A) pt = ps - q B) pt - q = ps C) pt + ps = q D) pt = q - ps 25814. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a symmetrical airfoil the mean camber line is? A) A line joining points of mean camber along the wing. B) A line joining points of maximum camber along the wing. C) A curve co-incident with the top surface of the airfoil. D) A straight line co-incident with the chord line. 25817. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lift is a function of: A) velocity, density, wing shape and lift coefficient. B) velocity, wing area, CL and density.

C) velocity, wing shape, wing area and CL. D) velocity, density, gross wing area and CD. 25819. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If EAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would profile drag increase? A) 16 B) 12 C) 8 D) 4 25820. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: A) CL2 B) CL C) square root (CL). D) CLmax 25822. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At zero angle of attack in flight, a symmetrical wing section will produce: A) some lift and drag. B) zero lift with some induced and profile drag. C) zero lift and drag. D) zero lift with some drag. 25824. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When considering an angle of attack versus coefficient of lift graph for a cambered aerofoil, where does the lift curve intersect the vertical CL axis? A) Above the origin. B) Below the origin. C) At the point of origin. D) To the left of the origin. 25830. (HELI: atpl, cpl) There are two types of boundary layer, laminar and turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that: A) skin friction drag is less. B) it is thinner. C) it has less tendency to separate from the surface. D) energy is less. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 124 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25831 (A) 25835 (D) 25839 (C) 25841 (A) 25843 (A) 25846 (A) 25849 (D) 25850 (C) 25852 (D) 25855 (C) 25856 (A) 25860 (D) 25862 (A) 25863 (B) 25831. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: A) a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag. B) there is no relationship. C) induced drag = 1,3 aspect ratio value. D) an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag. 25835. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube changes? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow: A) the density depends on the change of the tube area. B) rho1 < rho2.

C) rho1 > rho2. D) rho1 = rho2. 25839. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is: A) climb path angle. B) glide path angle. C) angle of attack. D) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis. 25841. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements are correct? A) Drag acts in the same direction as the relative airflow and lift perpendicular to it. B) Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lift. C) Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and lift acts perpendicular to the chord. D) Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards direction. 25843. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack: A) CL is much greater than CD. B) CL has approximately the same value as CD. C) CL is lower than CD. D) CL is much lower than CD. 25846. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The lift force, acting on an aerofoil: A) is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil. B) increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40°. C) is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil. D) is maximum at an angle of attack of 2°. 25849. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is V. An increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will: A) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow. B) increase the mass flow. C) not affect the mass flow. D) decrease the mass flow. 25850. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lift is generated when: A) an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream. B) the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered. C) a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards. D) a certain mass of air is retarded. 25852. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is: A) blocking of control surfaces. B) increase in weight. C) increase in drag. D) reduction in CLmax. 25855. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Static pressure acts: A) parallel to airflow. B) parallel to dynamic pressure.

C) in all directions. D) downwards. 25856. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The lift formula is: A) L = CL 1/2 RHO V2 S B) L = W C) L = CL 2 RHO V2 S D) L = n W 25860. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As subsonic air flows through a convergent duct, static pressure ___ and velocity ___. A) increases; decreases B) increases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) decreases; increases 25862. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the center of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane): A) move forward. B) move aft. C) remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic center. D) remain unaffected. 25863. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: A) the CG location. B) the center of pressure. C) the point of maximum thickness of the wing. D) the suction point of the wing. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 125 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25864 (C) 25870 (D) 25871 (B) 25873 (D) 25874 (A) 25876 (D) 25878 (B) 25880 (A) 25884 (B) 25885 (A) 25886 (D) 25887 (C) 25888 (D) 25889 (B) 25864. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant): A) the drag decreases. B) this has no effect. C) the drag increases. D) the drag is only affected by the ground speed. 25870. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli s theorem is correct? A) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point. B) The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases. C) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero. D) The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases. 25871. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from: A) the top to beneath the wing via the wings trailing edge. B) beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip.

C) beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge. D) the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge. 25873. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: A) 1,5 B) 9 C) 6 D) 3 25874. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be: A) 4 feet B) 10 feet C) 7,5 feet D) 2,5 feet 25876. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is: A) decreases energy. B) thinner. C) increased skin friction. D) less tendency to separate. 25878. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct? A) The center of pressure is the point on the wings leading edge where the airflow splits up. B) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wings profile moves downwards. C) The stagnation point is another name for center of pressure. D) The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the center of pressure is not. 25880. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which CL=0 is: A) zero. B) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack. C) positive (pitch-up). D) negative (pitch-down). 25884. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the: A) botto surface and the chord line. B) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow. C) bottom surface and the horizontal. D) bottom surface and the relative airflow. 25885. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure will ___ and the velocity will ___. A) decrease; increase B) increase; increase C) increase; decrease D) decrease; decrease 25886. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)? A) M = F x a B) A = F x m

C) F = m / a D) F = m x a 25887. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The static pressure is acting: A) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow. B) only in the direction of the total pressure. C) in all directions. D) only in direction of the flow. 25888. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct? A) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer. B) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer. C) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer. D) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer. 25889. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack? A) Lower side leading edge. B) Upper side trailing edge. C) Upper side leading edge. D) Lower side trailing edge. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 126 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25894 (A) 25895 (A) 25896 (C) 25908 (D) 25909 (B) 25910 (B) 25911 (B) 25919 (C) 25922 (C) 25924 (B) 25927 (C) 25928 (B) 25934 (A) 25939 (B) 25943 (C) 25894. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements about the lift to drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct? A) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest. B) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero. C) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases. D) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to, the aircraft weight. 25895. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The correct drag formula is: A) d = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S B) d = CD 2 RHO V2 S C) d = CD 1/2 RHO V S D) d = CD 1/2 1/RHO V2 S 25896. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the: A) angle of attack. B) square of the angle of attack. C) square of the speed. D) speed. 25908. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: A) the vortices, are weak. B) the velocity is constant.

C) the temperature varies constantly. D) no velocity components exist normal to the surface. 25909. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The total pressure is: A) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream. B) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure. C) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure. D) 1 rho V2. 25910. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The lift and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section: A) vary linearly with the angle of attack. B) depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section. C) are normal to each other at just one angle of attack. D) are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack. 25911. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: A) degrees cross section tail angle. B) % chord. C) camber. D) meters. 25919. (HELI: atpl, cpl) After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer: A) the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases. B) the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases. C) the mean speed and friction drag increases. D) the boundary layer crets thinner and the speed increases. 25922. (HELI: atpl, cpl) High aspect ratio, as compared with low aspect ratio, has the effect of: A) increasing lift and drag. B) increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack. C) decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack. D) increasing lift and critical angle of attack. 25924. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the unit of measurement for power? A) N/m B) N m/s C) kg m/s2 D) Pa/m2 25927. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The interference drag is created as a result of: A) separation of the induced vortex. B) the addition of induced and parasite drag. C) interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing / fuselage). D) downwash behind the wing. 25928. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the: A) horizon. B) relative wind/airflow. C) chord line. D) longitudinal axis. 25934. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The induced angle of attack is the result of: A) downwash due to tip vortices.

B) a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow. C) downwash due to flow separation. D) change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack. 25939. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Load factor is the actual lift supported by the wings at any given time: A) divided by the surface aera of the wing. B) divided by the total weight af the aircraft. C) subtracted from the aircraft s total weight. D) divided by the aircrafts empty weight. 25943. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The service ceiling of an aircraft is: A) the altitude where rate of climb is zero. B) the highest sltitude permitted tor flight because of manoeuvre capability. C) the altitude where a low specific rate of climb is achieved. D) the altitude above which crusing speed cannot be maintained. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 127 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25945 (C) 25957 (A) 25959 (C) 25965 (C) 25969 (D) 25971 (D) 25972 (D) 25981 (C) 25983 (C) 25988 (B) 25994 (D) 25995 (C) 25998 (A) 25999 (C) 25945. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the weight an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift/drag ratio will: A) decrease. B) increase. C) not be affected. D) increase although the aircraft will have to be flown more slowly. 25957. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will produce: A) both lift and drag. B) lift but no drag. C) drag but no lift. D) neither lift nor drag. 25959. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An aerofoil is cambered when: A) the upper surface of the aerofoil is curved. B) the chord line is curved. C) the line, which connects the centers of all inscribed circles, is curved. D) the maximum thickness is large compared with the length of the chord. 25965. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a horizontal co-ordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the: A) lift increases by a factor of 4. B) angle of attack increases by a factor of 1/4. C) induced drag increases by a factor of 4. D) total drag increases by a factor of 4. 25969. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Bernoulli s equation is: (note: rho is density; Pstat is static pressure; Pdyn is dynamic pressure; Ptot is total pressure)

A) Ptot + 1rho * TAS2 = constant B) Pstat + 1rho * IAS2 = constant C) Pdyn + 1rho * IAS2 = constant D) Pstat + 1rho * TAS2 = constant 25971. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Consider the steady flow through a stream tube where the velocity of the stream is V. An increase in temperature of the flow at a constant value of V will: A) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow. B) increase the mass flow. C) not affect the mass flow. D) decrease the mass flow. 25972. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Considering a positively cambered aerofoil section, the pitching moment when the lift coefficient CL=0 is: A) positive (nose up). B) equal to zero. C) maximum. D) negative (nose down). 25981. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static pressure in the flow will: A) not change. B) increase. C) decrease. D) increase initially, then decrease. 25983. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur: Ps = static pressure Pdyn = dynamic pressure Ptot = total pressure A) Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases. B) Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant. C) Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant. D) Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases. 25988. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lift is generated when: A) a certain mass of air is accelerated in its flow direction. B) the flow direction of a certain mass of air is changed. C) a symmetrical aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream at zero angle of attack. D) a certain mass of air is retarded. 25994. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the: A) bottom surface and the chord line. B) bottom surface and the horizontal. C) bottom surface and the relative airflow. D) chord line and the relative airflow. 25995. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The difference between IAS and TAS will: A) increase with increasing air density. B) increase with decreasing temperature. C) decrease with decreasing altitude. D) decrease with increasing speed. 25998. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The location of the center of pressure of a positively cambered

aerofoil section at increasing angle of attack will: A) shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack. B) not shift. C) shift aft until approaching the critical angle of attack. D) shift in spanwise direction. 25999. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The point, where the single resultant aerodynamic force acts on an aerofoil, is called: A) neutral point. B) center of gravity. C) center of pressure. D) aerodynamic center. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 128 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26000 (C) 26001 (B) 26003 (A) 26007 (B) 26014 (C) 26018 (A) 26020 (A) 26025 (B) 26026 (C) 26027 (B) 26028 (D) 26029 (A) 26030 (C) 26031 (C) 26000. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The SI unit of measurement for pressure is: A) lb/gal B) kg/m3 C) N/m2 D) bar/dm2 26001. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The SI units of air density (i) and force (ii) are: A) (i) kg/m2; (ii) kg. B) (i) kg/m3; (ii) N. C) (i) N/m2; (ii) N. D) (i) N/kg; (ii) kg. 26003. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The unit of measurement for density is: A) kg/m3 B) psi C) kg/cm2 D) bar 26007. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the stagnation point? A) The intersection of the total aerodynamic force and the chord line. B) The point where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero. C) The intersection of the thrust vector and the chord line. D) The point, relative to which the sumtotal of all moments is independent of angle of attack. 26014. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which boundary layer, when considering its velocity profile perpendicular to the flow, has the greatest change in velocity close to the surface? A) No difference. B) Laminar boundary layer. C) Turbulent boundary layer. D) The boundary layer in the transition between turbulent and laminar. 26018. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a subsonic airflow are correct? 1) The dynamic pressures in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.

2) The total pressures in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal. A) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. B) 1 and 2 are correct. C) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. D) 1 and 2 are incorrect. 26020. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement is correct regarding CL (lift coefficient) and alpha (angle of attack)? A) For a symmetrical aerofoil section, if the alpha is zero, CL is zero. B) For a symmetrical aerofoil section, if the alpha is zero, CL is not zero. C) For an asymmetrical aerofoil section, if the alphais zero, CL is zero. D) For an asymmetrical aerofoil section with positive camber, if alpha is greater than zero, CL is zero. 26025. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dynamic pressure is: A) the total pressure at a point where the moving air stream is bought to rest. B) the amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving air stream is brought to rest. C) the pressure due to the weight of the atmosphere in still air. D) the pressure change caused by heating when a moving air stream is brought to rest. 26026. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The input connections to an air speed indicator are from: A) a static source only. B) a pitot source only. C) both pitot and static sources. D) pitot and static sources and outside air temperature sensor. 26027. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The mean camber line of an aerofoil section is: A) a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge. B) a line from the leading to the trailing edge equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces. C) the profile of the upper surface of an aerofoil section. D) an arc of circle from the leading edge to the trailing edge. 26028. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil set at zero angle of attack in an air stream will produce: A) lift and drag. B) no lift and no drag. C) lift but no drag. D) drag but no lift. 26029. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a cambered aerofoil which of the following statements is correct: A) it will give lift at small negative angles of attack. B) at negative angles of attack it will produce negative lift only. C) it will give lift at positive angles of attack only. D) it will give negative lift at small positive angles of attack. 26030. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The dynamic pressure is equal to: A) the density x speed squared. B) half the density x speed. C) half the density x speed squared.

D) half the speed x density squared. 26031. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As air flows into the converging section of a venture: A) static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass decreases. B) static pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass is constant. C) static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass is constant. D) static pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass decreases.

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082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 129 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26032 (C) 26033 (A) 26034 (C) 26035 (B) 26036 (D) 26037 (A) 26038 (D) 26039 (D) 26043 (A) 26047 (A) 26050 (B) 26051 (C) 26053 (B) 26054 (C) 26062 (A) 26032. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The calibration for the ASI is based on density: A) at the normal cruising altitude. B) at the tropopause. C) at sea level, ISA temperature. D) at sea level, ISA +15 °C. 26033. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To obtain TAS, the EAS must be corrected for: A) relative density only. B) relative density and compressibility. C) position error and compressibility. D) position error and relative density. 26034. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The chord line of an aerofoil is: A) a line from wing tip to wing tip. B) a line from the leading edge to trailing edge equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces. C) a straight line joining the center of curvature of the leading and trailing edges. D) a horizontal line tangential to the wing surface. 26035. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The thickness to chord ratio of an aerofoil is: A) the ratio of wing thickness at the root to the thickness at the tip. B) the ratio of the maximum thickness of an aerofoil section to its chord. C) the ratio of the wing span to the mean chord. D) the ratio of the thickness at the quarter chord point to the chord. 26036. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The center of pressure of an aerofoil is: A) the point where the pressure on the upper surface of the wing is lowest. B) the center of gravity of the aerofoil. C) the point where the pressure on the lower surface of the wing is highest. D) the point on the chord line where the resultant lift force acts. 26037. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased slightly, the CP will: A) move forward slightly.

B) move forward to the leading edge. C) move rearward. D) remain stationary. 26038. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil at zero degree angle of attack will, in level flight produce: A) most of its lift on the lower surface. B) most of its lift on the upper surface. C) the same amount of lift on the upper and lower surfaces. D) zero lift. 26039. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Compared to the relative airflow, air on top of a wing: A) static pressure increases, velocity decreases. B) static pressure increases, velocity increases. C) static pressure decreases, velocity decreases. D) static pressure decreases, velocity increases. 26043. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The effects of increased pressure would be: A) increased lift and drag. B) decreased lift and drag. C) have no effect on lift and drag. D) increased lift and decreased drag. 26047. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The effect of changes of aspect ratio on total drag will be: A) greatest at low speed. B) greatest at high speed. C) the same at all speeds. D) no effect at any speed. 26050. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The minimum total drag of an aircraft in flight occurs: A) at the stalling speed. B) at the speed where parasite drag and induced drag are equal. C) at the speed where induced drag is least. D) at the speed where parasite drag is least. 26051. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Aspect ratio is: A) the ratio of the mean chord to the maximum wing thickness. B) the ratio of the wingspan to the square of the mean chord. C) the ratio of the wingspan to the mean chord. D) the ratio of the wingspan to the wing area. 26053. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the static pressure port iced over while descending from altitude, the ASI would read: A) zero B) high C) low D) correctly 26054. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During flight with zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a wing would be: A) greater than atmospheric pressure. B) equal to atmospheric pressure. C) less than atmospheric pressure. D) always above MCRIT. 26062. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Effective angle of attack is the: A) angle between the chord line and the mean direction of a non-uniform disturbed air stream. B) angle between the relative airflow and the chord line.

C) angle between the chord line and the fuselage horizontal datum. D) angle between the fuselage horizontal datum and the chord line of the horizontal stabiliser. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 130 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26065 (C) 26067 (A) 26069 (A) 26080 (A) 26081 (B) 26095 (A) 26096 (A) 26097 (C) 26098 (A) 26099 (B) 26106 (C) 26112 (A) 26128 (B) 26129 (D) 26065. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In ISA the air temperature is considered to be: A) -56,5 °C at 26.090 ft. B) -56,5 °F at 36.500 ft. C) -56,5 °C at 36.090 ft. D) 56,5 °C at 36.090 ft. 26067. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If an aircraft is descending at 500 ft/min from 5.000 ft altitude, the rate of pressure increase outside the aircraft is: A) greater than the rate of pressure increase outside an aircraft descending at 500 ft/min from 15.000 ft to 10.000 ft. B) less than the rate of pressure increase outside an aircraft descending at 500 ft/min from 15.000 ft to 10.000 ft. C) equal to the rate of pressure increase outside an aircraft descending at 5.000 ft/min at any altitude. D) the rate of change will be the same. 26069. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An aerofoil which is producing lift will have: A) upwash ahead of the wing and downwash behind it. B) upwash ahead of the wing but no deflection of the airflow behind it. C) no deflection of the airflow ahead of the wing but downwash behind it. D) no deflection of the airflow either ahead or behind the aerofoil. 26080. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The purpose of streamlining is: A) to reduce form drag. B) to reduce induced drag. C) to increase lift. D) to reduce skin friction drag. 26081. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Skin friction drag resulting from a laminar boundary layer will be: A) more than from a turbulent boundary layer. B) less than from a turbulent boundary layer. C) the same as from a turbulent boundary layer. D) unmeasurable. 26095. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A moment is: A) the product of a force and the distance through which it acts. The distance in the moment is merely a leverage and no movement is involved. B) the product of a force and the distance through which it moves. C) the product of the application of a force. D) the vector quantity of a lever. 26096. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At a constant TAS the dynamic pressure:

A) will be greater at sea level than at high altitude. B) will be less at sea level than at high altitude. C) will be the same at sea level as at high altitude. D) will be greater at altitude than at sea level. 26097. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The position error of an ASI results from: A) mechanical differences in individual instruments. B) the difference in air density from sea level ISA density. C) the effects of the airflow around the static vent and pitot head. D) the fact that air becomes more compressible at high speeds. 26098. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The CAS is the ASI reading corrected for: A) position and instrument error. B) position, instrument and compressibility error. C) compressibility and density error. D) position, instrument, compressibility and density error. 26099. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Between approximately 8° and 15° angle of attack an aerofoil produces lift due to: A) an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the under surface giving a decrease in pressure. B) an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the under surface giving an increase in pressure. C) a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the under surface giving an increase in pressure. D) a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the lower surface giving an increase in pressure and a decrease in pressure over the upper surface causing an increase in velocity. 26106. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The stalling angle of an aerofoil is approximately: A) 4° B) -2° C) 16° D) 10° 26112. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With a decrease in angle of attack: A) the stagnation point moves forward. B) the separation point moves forward. C) form drag will increase. D) induced drag will increase. 26128. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To convert knots into miles per hour: A) multiply the knots by 0,87. B) divide the knots by 0,87. C) multiply the knots by 0,87 and divide by the relative density. D) divide the knots by 8,7. 26129. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic center is the point on the chord line where: A) drag acts. B) the sum of all aerodynamic forces act.

C) the geometric center of the wing is located. D) the pitching moment remains constant throughout changes in angle of attack within the normal range. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 131 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26132 (C) 26141 (C) 26153 (C) 26163 (B) 26184 (B) 26185 (D) 26195 (A) 26198 (D) 26199 (D) 26201 (C) 26204 (C) 26207 (C) 26208 (C) 26211 (C) 26212 (A) 26214 (B) 26132. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The drag of an aircraft will: A) increase with increase in air temperature. B) increase with decrease in air density. C) increase with increase in air pressure. D) decrease with an increase in stagnation pressure. 26141. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Vortex wake behind large aircraft: A) stays at ground level. B) gradually descends to ground level. C) gradually descends to a lower level. D) gradually ascends to a higher level. 26153. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The density of air may be measured in: A) kg / square metre. B) millibars C) kg / cubic metre. D) newton s per cubic metre. 26163. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Density of the atmosphere will: A) increase with rising humidity. B) decrease with rising humidity. C) remain unaffected by changes in humidity. D) decrease with reduced humidity. 26184. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If air is assumed to be incompressible, this means: A) there will be no change in pressure when the speed of the airflow is changed. B) there will be no change of density due to change of pressure. C) the density will only change with speed at supersonic speed. D) pressure changes will only occur at very high speeds. 26185. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A symmetrical aerofoil section of a wing is set at zero AOA will produce: A) most of the lift on the upper surface. B) most of the lift on the lower surface. C) depends on the aircraft s speed. D) zero lift. 26195. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A line from the center of curvature of the leading edge to the trailing edge, equidistant from the top and bottom wing surface is: A) camber line. B) upper camber line. C) mean chord. D) mean aerodynamic chord. 26198. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following creates lift? A) A slightly cambered aerofoil.

B) An aerofoil in a high speed flow. C) Air accelerated upwards. D) Air accelerated downwards. 26199. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the SI unit for density? A) m/V2 B) kg/cm2 C) kg/m D) kg/m3 26201. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results in airflow from: A) bottom to top around the trailing edge. B) top to bottom around the trailing edge. C) bottom to top around the wingtip. D) top to bottom around the wingtip. 26204. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When considering the properties of a laminar and turbulent boundary layer, which of the following statements is correct? A) Friction drag is the same. B) Friction drag higher in laminar. C) Friction drag higher in turbulent. D) Separation point is most forward with a turbulent layer. 26207. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What do S and q represent in the lift equation? A) Static pressure and chord. B) Wing span and dynamic pressure. C) Wing area and dynamic pressure. D) Wing area and static pressure. 26208. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the correct definition of aspect ratio? A) Span divided by tip chord. B) Chord divided by span. C) Span divided by mean chord. D) Chord divided by span, measured at the 25% chord position. 26211. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Where does airflow separation begin? A) Upper surface / towards the leading edge. B) Lower surface / towards the trailing edge. C) Upper surface / towards the trailing edge. D) Lower surface / towards the leading edge. 26212. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is true? A) A turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy. B) A turbulent boundary layer is thinner. C) Less skin friction is generated by a turbulent layer. D) A laminar flow boundary layer is less likely to separate. 26214. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following is the SI unit for power? A) N/m B) Nm/s C) Pa/s2 D) Kg/m/s2 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 132 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26215 (D) 26231 (A) 26234 (C) 26237 (B) 26238 (D) 26248 (C) 26366 (D) 26367 (B)

26368 (D) 26369 (B) 26370 (A) 26379 (D) 26382 (B) 26421 (D) 26215. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When considering the aerodynamic forces acting on an aerofoil section: A) lift and drag increase linearly with an increase in angle of attack. B) lift and drag act normal to each other only at one angle of attack. C) lift and drag increase exponentially with an increase in angle of attack. D) lift increases linearly and drag increases exponentially with an increase in angle of attack. 26231. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Consider a positively cambered aerofoil section, the pitching moment when CL = 0 will be: A) negative B) infinite C) positive D) equal to zero 26234. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Parasite drag is linearly proportional to: A) speed. B) angle of attack. C) speed2. D) weight. 26237. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The aerodynamic center is: A) the point where the CG meets the lateral axis. B) the point where all changes in the magnitude of the lift force effectively take place. C) situated at about 50% chord. D) always to the rear of the neutral point. 26238. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In the equation of continuity relating to low velocity air, what is the effect on density with a change in area? A) Area increases / density decreases. B) Area decreases / density decreases. C) Area increases / density increases. D) Area increases or decreases / no significant change in density. 26248. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On a cambered airfoil, as the angle of attack increases from zero to about ten degrees, the CP: A) moves back and then forward. B) remains in the same place. C) moves forward and then remains in the same place. D) moves back and then remains in the same place. 26366. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The center of pressure is the point: A) through which the four forces acting on a helicopter act. B) at which the extended rotor axis intersects the plane of rotation. C) of maximum pressure on the under surface of the aerofoil. D) on the chord line of an aerofoil section through which the resultant of the lift forces acts. 26367. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle between the: A) bottom surface of the aerofoil and the relative airflow. B) chord line and the relative airflow. C) chord line and the plane of rotation.

D) plane of rotation and the direction of flight of the helicopter. 26368. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Moving the center of gravity to the extreme aft position will: A) not affect the position of the cyclic fore and aft control. B) not affect the nose position in level flight. C) reduce the effective cyclic stick aft range of movement. D) reduce the effective cyclic stick forward range of movement. 26369. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In the case of a symmetrical aerofoil: A) induced drag will not be generated at any angle of attack due to the symmetrical pressure distribution. B) pitching moment variations due to center of pressure movement are small. C) there is no downwash at any angle of attack. D) its characteristics make it totally unsuitable for main rotor applications although it is frequently used for tail rotors. 26370. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Given a favourable ground surface, ground cushion is normally of practical value up to a rotor height above ground: A) equal to the diameter of the main rotor. B) of 50 feet. C) equal to the length of a rotor blade. D) of less than half the length of a rotor blade. 26379. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The lift force is: A) perpendicular to the plan which contains the swash plate. B) parallel with the engine pylon of the main rotor mast. C) perpendicular to the hub plane. D) perpendicular to the tip path plane. 26382. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dynamic roll-over may be caused by: A) excessive yaw pedal movements. B) an excessive rolling movement developing about a skid or wheel in contact with a slope or uneven ground. C) the torque effect of rapid acceleration of the main rotor. D) excessive movement of the cyclic control in pitch only. 26421. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A free wheel is fitted to a helicopter to: A) allow for fluctuations in engine speed. B) relieve torsional stresses in the gearbox and rotor drive when starting up and accelerating. C) isolate the main rotor from the engine and the tail rotor. D) prevent the rotor from driving the engine. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 133 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26429 (B) 26436 (D) 26445 (D) 26446 (D) 26452 (A) 26454 (C) 26456 (B) 26457 (B) 26458 (C) 26459 (C) 26460 (C) 26463 (A) 26473 (B) 26429. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The load of a blade is equal to: A) the average stress due to the centrifugal force. B) its average lift per unit of area of the blade. C) the rotor power divided by the number of blades. D) average lift per revolution. 26436. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The position of the advancing blade relative to the pilot in

forward flight: A) depends on wind direction. B) is to the left. C) is to the right. D) depends on the direction of rotation of the main rotor. 26445. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The helicopter is said to be statically stable if, after a disturbance in flight: A) it continues to move steadily and smoothly away from its original position. B) it remains in the new position without a control input from the pilot. C) pilot control input is required to regain the original position. D) it returns to its original position without a control input from the pilot. 26446. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dynamic stability in a helicopter can only exist if there is: A) sufficient forward speed. B) static instability. C) sufficient control force available. D) static stability. 26452. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The addition of a mass in the blade tip at 60% of the chord will: A) modify twist behaviour under operation. B) not modify twist behaviour under operation. C) not modify the graduation in pitch of the polar curve for the hover outside of ground effect. D) not modify the graduation in pitch of the polar curve for the hover in ground effect. 26454. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If you don t change the lift force, an increase of the speed of the rotor: A) causes the onset of blade stalling in forward flight. B) increases conicity. C) increases the stresses in the blade fasteners. D) decreases control surface efficiency. 26456. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During steady level forward flight, forces acting on a helicopter are: A) lift, equal and opposite to weight, horizontal thrust opposite to but greater than drag. B) the vertical component of total rotor thrust equal and opposite to weight, the horizontal component equal and opposite to drag. C) the vertical component of total rotor thrust opposite to weight, the horizontal component opposite and equal to tail rotor thrust. D) total rotor thrust equal and opposite to weight, the horizontal component of total rotor thrust equal and opposite to drag. 26457. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Moving the center of gravity to the extreme aft position will: A) reduce the effective cyclic stick aft range of movement. B) reduce the effective cyclic pitch forward range of movement. C) not affect the position of the cyclic fore and aft control. D) due to phase lag, produce a tendency to roll in the direction of the advancing blade side. 26458. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

Stability of a helicopter is its: A) tendency to pitch at low airspeed. B) ability to rotate about an axis. C) tendency to return to its original attitude after having been displaced. D) ability to resist dynamic roll-over. 26459. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A current requirement for the main rotor blade section is that: A) the center of pressure moves rapidly forward as the angle of attack is increased to ensure correct blade flapping. B) pitch changes produce large changes in the position of the center of pressure to minimise control forces. C) changes in angle of attack produce minimum center of pressure movement. D) its induced drag characteristics are insignificant compared with profile drag. 26460. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The amount of lift produced by a given helicopter rotor blade element is dependent upon the: A) the angle of attack of the blade, the square of the forward speed of the helicopter and the square of the density. B) the pitch angle, the square root of the speed of the blade element relative to the air and the air density. C) angle of attack of the blade, the square of the speed of the blade element relative to the air and the air density. D) the pitch angle of the blade, the square of the speed of the blade element through the air and the square root of the density. 26463. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a helicopter the rotor brake is normally situated: A) immediately after the main gearbox on the intermediate drive shaft. B) between the engine gearbox and the main rotor gearbox. C) after the main gearbox and before the main rotor head. D) between the main gearbox and the swashplate. 26473. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The pressure at the stagnation point on a rotor blade is: A) static pressure. B) static plus dynamic pressure. C) dynamic pressure. D) ambiant pressure. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 134 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26477 (D) 26485 (C) 26487 (B) 26488 (C) 26489 (A) 26492 (B) 26494 (B) 26497 (C) 26504 (D) 26510 (C) 26511 (C) 26514 (B) 26520 (B) 26477. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A fenestron blade is equipped with: A) flapping, feathering and drag hinges. B) flapping and feathering hinges. C) feathering and drag hinges. D) feathering hinges only. 26485. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The axis of rotation of the blades is: A) the resultant of lift and drag. B) the horizontal axis of a the rotor disc. C) the axis through the center of the main rotor head about

which the blades rotate. D) the axis coinciding with the shaft axis. 26487. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The tip path plane is: A) the path described by the blade tips during rotation and perpendicular to the plane of rotation. B) the path plane described by the blade tips during rotation and perpendicular to the axis of rotation. C) the plane perpendicular to the shaft axis of the main rotor. D) the path plane described by the disc in forward flight. 26488. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The type of aerofoil most commonly used for helicopter rotor blades has: A) high lift aerofoil sections. B) a tapered aerofoil planform. C) symmetrical aerofoil sections. D) transonic aerofoil sections. 26489. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The chord line of a blade section is: A) a straight line from leading to trailing edge. B) a line equidistant from the upper and lower surface of the blade. C) a line tangential to the wing surface on the leading edge. D) the line of the chord used to determine balance on some smaller helicopters. 26492. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The three basic flight controls in a helicopter are: A) collective pitch control, yaw control and throttle. B) collective pitch control, cyclic pitch control and anti-torque device control. C) forward and aft trim control, lateral trim control and throttle. D) collective pitch control, cyclic yaw control and pedals. 26494. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Rotor blades profile drag is: A) a force acting behind the total reaction and at right angles to the relative airflow a force proportional to the speed of the blades. B) a component of total reaction the aerodynamic forces, acting parallel to the plane of rotation and backwards at 90 degrees to total rotor thrust. C) a force proportional to the size of the blade. D) a component of total reaction acting at right angles perpendicular to the relative airflow. 26497. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The function of a helicopter tail rotor is: A) to enable less power to be delivered to the main rotor. B) to increase the balance in the turn. C) to counteract the torque reaction between the revolving main rotor and the fuselage. D) to enable more power to be delivered directly to the main rotor. 26504. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Main rotor freedom of movement is defined as: A) dragging and independent movement of the blades in the vertical plane. B) feathering and rotation of the blades on the drag hinges. C) feathering and dragging of the blades in the horizontal plane. D) feathering, flapping and dragging. 26510. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

Translational lift is due to: A) an increase in tail rotor efficiency due to forward speed. B) the relationship between total reaction and total rotor drag. C) the increase in main rotor efficiency when moving from hovering to forward flight. D) an increase in power required due to forward speed. 26511. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A transition in a helicopter is: A) the force acting on the rotor head in forward flight. B) tilting the disc as a result of cyclic control movement. C) a change in the flight condition from or to hovering flight. D) the takeoff. 26514. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter cannot normally fly backwards as fast as it can fly forward because: A) of interference between the main rotor and tail rotor slipstream. B) rearward movement of the cyclic control is more restricted than forward movement. C) the main rotor blades would strick the tail boom. D) the pilot cannot see. 26520. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Retreating rotor blade stall can be detected by: A) vibration, stick shake, increased flap back. B) vibration, erratic cyclic stick forces, tendency to pitch up and roll towards the retreating side. C) loss of directional control, large reduction in rotor RPM, height loss. D) vibration, erratic cyclic stick forces, tendency to pitch up and roll towards advancing side. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 135 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26525 (D) 26526 (C) 26533 (C) 26534 (A) 26535 (C) 26552 (B) 26590 (C) 26598 (C) 26607 (A) 26611 (D) 26612 (D) 26615 (B) 26525. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The aerofoil shape of the blade produces lift because: A) the faster air over the top of the blade causes suction which raises the blade. B) airflow speeds up over the top surface and pressure increases relative to the pressure of the slower air over the lower surface. C) pressure of the air above the blade decreases as the speed of the air increases under the blade. D) airflow speeds up over the top surface and pressure decreases relative to the pressure of the slower air over the lower surface. 26526. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The Centre of Pressure of an aerofoil section is: A) where the resultant of all the centrifugal forces acts relative to the shape of the aerofoil. B) where the largest component of lift is said to be produced. C) the point on the chord line through which the resultant of all aerodynamic forces acts. D) the point about which the airflow is deflected around the aerofoil. 26533. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter whose center of gravity is outside authorised

limits will be unsafe because: A) the tail rotor will strike the ground when lifting to the hover. B) there will be oscillations of the fuselage. C) there will be insufficient control movement available for safe flight. D) there will be insufficient clearance between the main rotor and the tail boom. 26534. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blade stall can be alleviated by increasing the: A) speed of the rotor. B) pitch angle. C) forward speed. D) angle of attack. 26535. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Rotor blade sections are designed so that the center of pressure: A) can move forward rapidly to aid forward CG and reduce stress related problems at high speeds. B) has a large degree of movement for stability at high and low speeds to reduce stress related problems. C) is normally positioned close to the feathering axis to reduce control system loads. D) moves outwards and inwards according to the rotor speed to reduce stress related problems. 26552. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The effects of recirculation are at their worst: A) over level ground. B) close to obstructions. C) whilst making a transition into forward flight. D) over water. 26590. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a helicopter is loaded for flight and the center of gravity is within limits for takeoff: A) as fuel tanks are always situated on the center of gravity, the center of gravity will not change during flight. B) it follows that the center of gravity will remain within limits as oil and fuel are used up during flight. C) the center of gravity must be calculated for landing. D) the center of gravity may well move outside limits as fuel and oil are consumed but since the aircraft will be lighter than at takeoff, the movement will not be critical. 26598. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ground resonance can be prevented from developing to a critical point, if action is taken early enough, by: A) compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control. B) applying the rotor brake as rapidly as possible. C) applying collective pitch control and lifting off. D) avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased. 26607. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The amount of lift produced by a given helicopter rotor blade is dependent upon (among other things) the: A) angle of attack and the square of the speed of the blade through the air. B) angle of attack and the square of the rotational speed of the blade. C) pitch angle and the square root of the rotational speed of the blade. D) pitch angle and the square of the forward speed of the helicopter. 26611. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

The stability of a helicopter in flight is: A) ability to accelerate in forward flight without excess fuselage pitch down. B) tendency to pitch at low airspeed. C) ability to rotate about an axis. D) tendency to return to its original attitude after a disturbance. 26612. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The amount of lift produced by a given helicopter rotor blade element is dependent upon: A) angle of attack of the blade, the square root of the relative airvelocity to the blade element and the air density. B) the angle of attack of the blade, the square of the forward speed of the helicopter and the air density. C) pitch angle, the square of the forward speed of the helicopter and the square root of the air density. D) angle of attack of the blade, the square of the airvelocity relative to the blade element and the air density. 26615. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As speed increases the parasite drag of a helicopter fuselage will: A) have no effect on pitching moments. B) tend to cause the nose to pitch down. C) tend to cause the nose to pitch up only. D) tend to cause the helicopter to yaw in the direction of rotation of the main rotor in addition to pitch up. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 136 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26623 (B) 26632 (C) 26633 (D) 26635 (A) 26636 (D) 26651 (C) 26656 (A) 26667 (D) 26669 (D) 26670 (D) 26672 (A) 26675 (D) 26685 (B) 26623. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a helicopter is loaded for flight and the center of gravity is within limits for takeoff: A) as fuel tanks are always located on the center of gravity, the center of gravity will not change during flight. B) the center of gravity position needs to be calculated for landing. C) the center of gravity may well move as fuel and oil are consumed but since the aircraft will be lighter than at takeoff, the movement will not be critical for landing. D) it is an airworthiness requirement that provided the center of gravity is within limits on takeoff, it will remain within limits for landing as fuel and oil are consumed during flight. 26632. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ground resonance can be alleviated by: A) compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control. B) applying the rotor brake as rapidly as possible. C) applying collective pitch and lifting off. D) avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased. 26633. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the center of gravity is at the rear limit: A) then rearward cyclic control is not affected. B) then rearward cyclic control is limited. C) then forward cyclic control is increased. D) then forward cyclic control is limited. 26635. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The forces acting on a helicopter in forward flight are: A) weight, parasite drag and total rotor thrust.

B) total rotor thrust, lift and parasite drag. C) thrust, weight, parasite drag. D) thrust, lift, weight and parasite drag. 26636. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A nose down pitch attitude in forward flight is caused by: A) the vertical component of total rotor thrust acting forward of the weight. B) drag acting above the thrust. C) lift acting forward of weight. D) the horizontal component of total rotor thrust acting above parasite drag. 26651. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With respect only to blade design, forward speed is limited by: A) the power required against power available. B) availability of cyclic in counter-acting flapback. C) airflow reversal, retreating blade stall and compressibility effects. D) availability of cyclic in counter-acting inflow roll. 26656. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the advantage of the biconvex symmetrical aerofoil section as related to helicopter blade design? A) The center of pressure moves little in the normal angle of attack range. B) It produces no lift at zero degrees angle of attack. C) It has good stalling characteristics. D) For a given angle of attack, it has a greater CL than other aerofoil sections. 26667. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the right skid of a helicopter touches down first due to tail rotor roll, then the main rotation seen from above: A) could be either way, depending upon the vertical distance of the tail rotor from the main rotor. B) is anti-clockwide. C) could be either way. Tail rotor roll depends only on degree of yaw pedal required. D) is clockwise. 26669. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Coriolis effect: A) only noticeable with helicopters with a semi-articulated head. B) is basically the movement of the blade to reposition itself relative to the other blades on the cone of the disc when cyclic stick is applied. C) causes the rotor RPM to stabilise after disturbance from a wind gust. D) tends to accelerate or decelerate a blade as it flaps up or down. 26670. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Coriolis effect is: A) restricted by a delta three hinge. B) the processional force that causes tail rotor flapping. C) another term for phase lag. D) that effect which tends to accelerate or decelerate a blade as it flaps up or down. 26672. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The advance angle of a helicopter blade is: A) the azimuthal angular difference between the pitchlink attachement on the control orbit and the blade axis to which it relates.

B) the angular difference between the movement of the stick and the tilt of the control orbit. C) the angular difference between the tilt of the control orbit and the subequent tilt of the rotor. D) always 90°. 26675. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When an aerofoil is stalled the lift/drag ratio is: A) improved because of a decrease in drag. B) about 20:1 because of an increase in the CL. C) greater than the most efficient ratio. D) less than the most efficient ratio. 26685. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ground resonance is due to: A) the rotor downwash affecting the tail rotor when on or close to the ground. B) a harmonic between rotor imbalance and the natural frequency of the undercarriage. C) a high frequency, low amplitude vibration emanating from thin skinned areas such as doors and panels. D) a rate of roll which cannot be arrested with full opposite cycle. 082-01 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS 137 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26692 (C) 26696 (B) 26707 (C) 26713 (B) 26692. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Stability is: A) the ability of an aircraft to climb after being disturbed. B) the ability of an aircraft to turn about its axis. C) the tendency of an aircraft to return to its original condition of flight after a disturbance. D) most difficult to achieve, in the yawing plane, in forward flight. 26696. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What are the conditions necessary for ground resonance in addition to having a helicopter in contact with the ground? A) Low rotor RPM, high wind. B) An out of balance force at the rotor head. C) Flapping of the blades with wind on the beam. D) The ground must be sloping. 26707. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The camber line of a biconvex symmetrical section is: A) curved towards the lower surface. B) curved towards the upper surface. C) common with the chord line. D) a circular arc. 26713. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a given quantity of air, if pressure and temperature remain the same and humidity is increased the air will become: A) more dense. B) less dense. C) neither more or less dense. D) incompressible. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 138 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com

25401 (A) 25402 (C) 25403 (D) 25404 (B) 25405 (B) 25408 (B) 25413 (C) 25414 (B) 25416 (D) 25417 (C) 25418 (D) 25419 (A) 25420 (B) 25422 (D) 25424 (C) 25425 (B) 25401. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The Robinson R22 is equipped with: A) relatively small bias springs. B) hydraulic flying controls. C) relatively large bias springs. D) balance weights to overcome centrifugal turning moments on the main rotor. 25402. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Rotor blades are connected to the rotor head by a ___ allowing the blades to ___. A) dragging hinge; flap up and down B) flapping hinge; twist C) feathering hinge; twist D) feathering hinge; move in the plane of rotation 25403. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As streamline flow approaches an aerofoil it pauses at the stagnation point. What happens to static pressure at this point? A) It drops. B) It reaches a minimum value. C) It rises. D) It reaches a maximum value. 25404. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To achieve an even increase in rotor thrust across the disc the blade pitch angle must be increased: A) cyclicly. B) collectively. C) one by one. D) at the front of the disc. 25405. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To enable the blade to feather the blade must be able to rotate around the: A) rotor head. B) span-wise axis of the blade. C) chord. D) dragging hinge. 25408. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When hovering close to the ground, the downwash creates ___ under the helicopter. A) a convergent duct B) a divergent duct C) a drop in pressure D) a vacuum 25413. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The pitch operating arms are linked to ___ at the___. A) pitch horns; non rotating swash plate B) the control linkages; rotating swash plate C) pitch horns; blade root D) the swash plate; blade root 25414. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In which direction does rotor thrust act? A) Along the plane of rototation. B) Along the axis of rotation. C) Perpendicular to the RAF. D) Perpendicular to the chord. 25416. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What can reduce the positive effects of ground cushion? A) Zero wind.

B) Hovering too low. C) A smooth tarmac surface. D) Long grass. 25417. (HELI: atpl, cpl) How does recirculation affect the angle of attack? A) It adds to induced flow, increasing the angle of attack. B) It opposes induced flow, increasing the angle of attack. C) It adds to induced flow, decreasing the angle of attack. D) It opposes induced flow, decreasing the angle of attack. 25418. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The hughes NOTAR balances fuselage torque reaction by: A) using a cambered tail fin. B) hydraulic assistance. C) low presure air ducts. D) high pressure air ducts. 25419. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the major difference between the operation of the main rotor and the tail rotor? A) The tail rotor has no cyclic pitch control. B) The main rotor has no cyclic pitch control. C) The tail rotor has no collective pitch control. D) The tail rotor is always slower than the main rotor. 25420. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When hovering total rotor thrust is resolved into a vertical component to balance ___ and a horizontal component to balance ___. A) weight; the wind B) weight; tail rotor drift C) tail rotor roll; tail rotor drift D) tail rotor roll; the wind 25422. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Rotor blades are normally built with ___ to provide ___. A) an extruded D spar; sufficient twisting B) an extruded C spar; torsional stiffness C) a strong trailing edge; rigidity, torsional D) an extruded D spar; stiffness 25424. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Tapered rotor blades have a shorter ___ at the blade ___. A) span; root B) chord; root C) chord; tip D) span; tip 25425. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Why do rotor blades lead as the disc cones upwards? A) Hookes joint effect. B) Coriolis effect. C) Less rotor drag. D) The blades do not lead as the disc cones upwards. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 139 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25427 (B) 25428 (A) 25430 (B) 25431 (B) 25432 (C) 25433 (C) 25434 (A) 25435 (D) 25437 (C) 25438 (B) 25439 (C) 25440 (A) 25441 (C) 25442 (B) 25443 (B) 25427. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the rotor disc is tilted to the left, what happens to the blade at the front of the disc? A) It accelerates because of the Coriolis effect. B) It accelerates because of Hookes joint Coriolis effect.

C) It decelerates because of the Coriolis effect. D) It decelerates because of Hookes joint effect. 25428. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The Fenestron tail has a: A) shrouded tail rotor. B) flat fin. C) tradiional tail rotor. D) puffer jets. 25430. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What happens to the coning angle if rotor RPM decreases and collective pitch is constant? A) Nothing. B) It increases. C) It decreases. D) It is balanced by an increase in centrifugal force. 25431. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a helicopter is in a free air hover with 9° of collective pitch applied and the swash plate is tilted to the left by 4°, what will be the pitch angle of the blade at the rear of the disc? A) 5° B) 9° C) 14° D) 4° 25432. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following can be used to overcome centrifugal turning moments? 1) Bias springs. 2) Balance weights. 3) Trim tabs. 4) Hydraulic assistance. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 25433. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the rotor blades turn in a clockwise direction during normal flight, which way does fuselae torque reaction occur? A) Clockwise. B) Right. C) Anti-clockwise. D) There is no reaction during power on flight. 25434. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A convential helicopter will hover with the undercarriage on the ___ low because of ___. A) retreating side; tail rotor drift B) retreating side; tail rotor roll C) advancing side; tail rotor drift D) advancing side; tail rotor roll 25435. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A rotor blade will always reach the low point ___ after it experienced the maximum change in pitch angle. A) 45° B) 30° C) 60° D) 90° 25437. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which direction does the swash plate move when the collective lever is raised? A) Down B) Left

C) Up D) Right 25438. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Rigid rotor heads have ___ to absorb stress with the rotor ___ excessively. A) dragging hinges; flap B) pillow blocks; flap C) pillow blocks; feather D) dragging hinges; feather 25439. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Without hydraulic assistance, how much pressure is required to control a Fenestron tail rotor? A) 6 lbs B) 36 lbs C) 66 lbs D) 96 lbs 25440. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At what speeds are the majority of horizontal stabilisers designed to be effective? A) In the cruise. B) At low speed. C) At high speed. D) In the hover. 25441. (HELI: atpl, cpl) How does rotor downwash affect a helicopter with a tail boom mounted horizontal stabiliser in a free air hover? A) It will pitch nose down. B) It will descend. C) It will pitch nose up. D) The downwash will not affect the stabiliser. 25442. (HELI: atpl, cpl) How is the hover attitude affected by tilting the main rotor shaft forwards? A) Hover with a level attitude. B) Hover with a pronounced nose up attitude. C) Hover with a pronounced nose down attitude. D) Hover with a roll towards the advancing blade. 25443. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When hovering into a 15 kts headwind, the induced flow is: A) removed B) reduced C) unaffected D) increased 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 140 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25444 (C) 25445 (D) 25446 (C) 25448 (C) 25449 (A) 25450 (B) 25451 (C) 25452 (B) 25453 (D) 25454 (C) 25455 (A) 25456 (C) 25457 (D) 25458 (A) 25459 (A) 25444. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following must increase as a helicopter accelerates in level flight? 1) Total rotor thrust. 2) Parasite drag. 3) Horizontal component of total rotor thrust. 4) Vertical component of total rotor thrust. A) 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 4

C) 1, 2, 3 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 25445. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When hovering into wind the horizontal flow is: A) parallel to the disc. B) perpendicular to the disc. C) parallel to the plane of rotation. D) not parallel to the disc. 25446. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What happens as a helicopter accelerates through 12 kts? A) It descends unless corrected. B) It passes through tail rotor drift. C) It passes through translational lift. D) It yaws towards the retreating blade. 25448. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a helicopter accelerates the attitude becomes: A) level. B) nose up. C) nose down. D) rolls towards the advancing side. 25449. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When a helicopter is in an ideal free air hover the TRT is acting vertically and is equal and opposite to: A) weight and parasite drag. B) weight and rotor drag. C) parasite drag and rotor drag. D) engine torque and rotor drag. 25450. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a helicopter accelerates the benefits of ___ are outweighed by the increased ___. A) translational lift; 90° component of horizontal airflow B) translational lift; 60° component of horizontal airflow C) 90° component of horizontal airflow; translational lift D) increased induced flow; horizontal airflow 25451. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During acceleration the ___ component of total rotor thrust must be ___ than parasite drag. A) horizontal; less B) vertical; less C) horizontal; greater D) vertical; greater 25452. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The Delta Three Hinge has what? A) A flapping hinge mounted at right angles to the span of the rotor blades. B) A flapping hinge set at an angle forward of the leading edge. C) A feathering hinge set at right angles to the leading edge. D) A dragging hinge set at an angle forward of the leading edge. 25453. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In order to counteract airflow reversal the retreating blade must have: A) an angle of attack less than the advancing blade. B) an angle of attack equal to the advancing blade. C) a velocity greater than the advancing blade. D) a large angle of attack on the outboard section. 25454. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If tail rotor blades are not allowed to flap the tail rotor will suffer from what?

A) Inflow roll. B) Flapback. C) Dissymmetry of rotor thrust. D) Airflow reversal. 25455. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a helicopter is flared the ___ increases because ___ decreases. A) RRPM; rotor drag B) RRPM; angle of attack C) rotor drag; rotor thrust D) rotor drag; Nr. 25456. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a free air hover how does Vi vary along the blade? A) It is greater at the tip because of tip vortices. B) It is greater at the root because of the demarcation vortex. C) It is less at the tip because of tip vortices. D) It is less at the tip because of recirculation. 25457. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a helicopter is positioned into wind and suffers from blade sailing where will the blade reach a maximum height? A) At the back of the disc. B) Perpendicular to the airflow. C) On the advancing side. D) At the front of the disc. 25458. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a rotor blade passes the back of the disc it is subjected to ___ velocity and it will flap ___. A) an increasing; up B) an increasing; down C) a decreasing; down D) a decreasing; up 25459. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the relationship between flapback and forward speed? A) Flapback increases with forward speed. B) Flapback decreases with forward speed. C) There is no relationship. D) Flapback is subject to changes in TAS. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 141 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25462 (C) 25463 (A) 25464 (A) 25466 (C) 25468 (C) 25470 (C) 25471 (A) 25473 (B) 25475 (A) 25476 (C) 25477 (C) 25478 (D) 25479 (A) 25480 (C) 25481 (D) 25462. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following conditions need to be met for vortex ring to exist? 1) Induced flow passing down through the disc. 2) Low IAS. 3) High all up weight. 4) Moderate or high rate of descent. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 25463. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During a flare what acts against Vi? A) The 90° component. B) The 60° component. C) TRT.

D) Recirculation. 25464. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Inflow roll is caused by: A) the reduction of Vi differing across the disc. B) the reduction of Vi being greater at the front of the disc. C) the reduction of induced flow being uniform. D) the increase of induced flow differing across the disc. 25466. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The fuselage rotates around the point where the ___ s acting and is known as ___. A) TRT; pendulosity B) vertical component of TRT; flapback C) horizontal component of TRT; pendulosity D) rotor drag; flapback 25468. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The risk causing damage by blade sailing can be reduced by: A) accelerating the rotors slower than normal. B) positioning the helicopter downwind. C) accelerating the rotors faster than normal. D) positioning the helicopter into wind. 25470. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The blade velocity at the midway point on the retreating side is: A) VR + VW B) VW - VR C) VR - VW D) Vi + VR 25471. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Tail rotors with more than 2 blades are likely to use: A) an offset control junction ahead of the leading edge. B) a delta three hinge. C) an offset pitch control rod at the feathering hinge. D) a feathering hinge mounted on the control rod. 25473. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the speed range for normal rotor tips? A) 390 - 350 ft per second. B) 660 - 680 ft per second. C) 660 - 680 kts. D) 450 - 490 kts. 25475. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which part of the tail rotor is least affected by the main rotor? A) The bottom. B) The top. C) The advancing side. D) The retreating side. 25476. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Airflow reversal causes greater: A) tuck under. B) inflow roll. C) flap back. D) forward speed. 25477. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What happens to translational lift as a helicopter decelerates? A) It increases. B) It remains the same. C) It reduces. D) It adds to forward speed. 25478. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

If the collective lever is raised when a helicopter is in vortex ring what will happen? A) The rate of descent will decrease. B) The helicopter will recover. C) The stall will lessen. D) The stall will deepen. 25479. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During autorotation the rate of descent creates the inflow angle between the ___ and the ___. A) RAF; plane of rotation B) plane of rotation; Induced flow C) RAF; axis of rotation D) plane of rotation; axis of rotation 25480. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In the hover, a helicopter is dynamically ___ and statically ___ in yaw. A) stable; stable B) neutral; stable C) unstable; stable D) unstable; unstable 25481. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In order to autorotate for range the helicopter must be flown at: A) the fastest speed. B) the slowest speed. C) the steepest angle. D) the shallowest angle. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 142 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25482 (A) 25483 (B) 25484 (B) 25485 (C) 25487 (D) 25488 (A) 25490 (D) 25491 (B) 25492 (C) 25493 (D) 25494 (B) 25495 (A) 25496 (C) 25497 (D) 25498 (B) 25499 (C) 25482. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is rotor profile power? A) The power related to variation of RPM for a given pitch angle and coefficient of drag. B) The power related to variation of pitch for a given RPM and coefficient of drag. C) The power related to variation of drag for a given pitch angle and RPM. D) The power related to variation of RPM for a given pitch angle and coefficient of lift. 25483. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On a fully articulated rotor head what makes up the dragging and flapping hinges? A) Pillow blocks. B) Trunnions mounted in bearings. C) Trunnions mounted on pillow blocks. D) Pillow blocks mounted in bearings. 25484. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What causes the rotors to turn during autorotation? A) Rotor thrust. B) Autorotative force. C) Engine torque. D) Momentum. 25485. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a helicopter accelerates away from a zero speed autorotation what will happen to the rate of descent?

A) It will increase. B) It will decrease. C) It will decrease initially, then increase. D) It will increase initially, then decrease. 25487. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What is power available? A) A measure of rotor efficiency and engine power. B) A measure of the power available to drive to rotor shaft and produce lift. C) A measure of the power available to produce lift. D) A measure of the power available to drive to the rotor shaft. 25488. (HELI: atpl, cpl) How is the inflow angle affected if the disc is tilted in autorotation? A) It is reduced. B) It is increased. C) It is not affected by disc tilt. D) It is only affected at the front of the disc. 25490. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which rotor system is most effective in terms of control power? A) The fully articulated head. B) The teetering head. C) The semi-rigid head. D) The rigid head. 25491. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The ___ speed in piston engine helicopters is ___ than in turbine helicopters. A) endurance; lower B) range; lower C) maximum; higher D) range; higher 25492. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Where is a stabiliser bar mounted? A) On the tail boom. B) On the rotor shaft parallel to the main rotor blades. C) On the rotor mast perpendicular to the main rotor blades. D) On the tail rotor. 25493. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What must autorotative force balance to maintain RRPM? A) Rotor drag. B) Friction caused by the gearbox. C) Friction caused by the tail rotor shaft and gearbox. D) All answers are correct. 25494. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Once established in autorotation the rate of descent airflow is reduced by: A) rotor drag. B) rotor thrust. C) horizontal airflow through the disc. D) collective pitch reduction. 25495. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If an object is statically unstable it will: A) move in the direction of the displacement. B) stop moving. C) return to the original position. D) oscillate. 25496. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the disc of a teetering head is tilted what will the blades do?

A) Tilt by flapping. B) Tilt by feathering. C) Remain at the preset coning angle. D) Cone upwards. 25497. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What are modern piston aero-engines constructed from? A) Pressed steel. B) Stainless steel. C) Dense alloys. D) Lightweight alloys. 25498. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Power is: A) KV2 B) KV3 C) KVV D) V/CD 25499. (HELI: atpl, cpl) It is unwise to operate a helicopter at low speed between ___ and ___ ft above the ground. A) 15; 1.000 B) 65; 400 C) 15; 400 D) 65; 1.000 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 143 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25500 (A) 25503 (B) 25505 (A) 25506 (D) 25507 (A) 25508 (D) 25509 (B) 25512 (C) 25514 (D) 25516 (D) 25517 (A) 25518 (B) 25520 (C) 25521 (D) 25500. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During autorotation with forward speed what causes the inflow angle to reduce? A) Horizontal airflow and disc tilt. B) Vertical airflow and disc tilt. C) Horizontal airflow and rotor thrust. D) Vertical airflow and rotor thrust. 25503. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following are rate of descent requirements in autorotation? 1) Parasite drag. 2) Rotor drag. 3) Rotor thrust. 4) Autorotative force. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 25505. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a helicopter ___ then ___ power reduces. A) accelerates; induced B) decelerates; induced C) accelerates; rotor profile D) decelerates; parasite 25506. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Total power required is: A) the sum of rotor profile power and induced power. B) the sum of parasite power and induced power. C) the sum of rotor profile power and parasite power. D) the sum of rotor profile power, induced power and parasite

power. 25507. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Following an engine failure the ___ is removed and the ___ turns the blades. A) engine torque; airflow B) airflow; engine torque C) engine torque; momentum D) airflow; momentum 25508. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During a 30° banked turn the apparent increase in mass is: A) 100% B) 60% C) 30% D) 15% 25509. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The axis about which a main rotor blade is able to change pitch angle is known as: A) the normal axis. B) the feathering axis. C) the axis of rotation. D) the lateral axis. 25512. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The lift/drag ratio is: A) at a maximum where the lift/drag curve meets the origin. B) a minimum at the peak of the lift/drag curve. C) a maximum at the peak of the lift/drag curve. D) at a minimum where the lift/drag curve meets the origin. 25514. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When a rotor blade flaps up it will accelerate. Why does this happen? A) Due to an increase in engine torque. B) As a result of an increase in drag. C) As a result of an increase in rotor thrust. D) Due to the conservation of angular momentum. 25516. (HELI: atpl, cpl) From displacement a divergent oscillation is: A) dynamically stable. B) neutrally stable. C) dynamically neutral. D) dynamically unstable. 25517. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The phenomenon of inflow roll will: A) cause a helicopter to roll towards the advancing blade. B) cause an increase in flapback with an increase of forward speed. C) cause a helicopter to roll towards the retreating blade. D) cause a decrease in flapback with an increase of forward speed. 25518. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In an established steady vertical climb from a hover where parasite drag is negligible: A) TRT is greater than weight and TR drag is the same as at the hover. B) TRT balances weight but TR drag is greater than at the hover. C) TRT is greater than weight and TR drag is greater than at the hover. D) TRT balances weight and TR drag is the same as at the hover.

25520. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blade loading of a helicopter can be calculated by: A) the AUW of the helicopter divided by the disc area. B) the disc area divided by the AUW of the helicopter. C) the AUW of the helicopter divided by the total area of all the blades. D) the total area of all the blades divided by the AUW of the helicopter. 25521. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The coning angle is determined by: A) the drag and lift produced by the blade. B) the rotor RPM and the centrifugal force on the blade. C) rotor thrust parallel to the feathering axis and drag. D) rotor thrust and centrifugal force. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 144 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25522 (A) 25523 (B) 25524 (C) 25525 (A) 25526 (C) 25527 (A) 25528 (A) 25530 (A) 25531 (A) 25532 (B) 25533 (B) 25534 (D) 25522. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The maximum rate of climb speed for a piston engine helicopter is: A) the lowest point on the power required curve. B) where the power required curve meets the power available line. C) that point where a line from the origin makes a tangent with the power available curve. D) range speed minus endurance speed in ft per min. 25523. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter is most likely to enter a state of vortex ring when at: A) partial power, cruising airspeed and RoD of less than 200 ft/min. B) partial power, low airspeed and RoD greater than 300 ft/ min. C) partial power, zero airspeed and RoD less than 200 ft/ min. D) zero power, low to mid-range speed and RoD greater than 1.000 ft/min. 25524. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Pitching is a rotation about: A) the normal axis of the helicopter. B) the longitudinal axis of the helicopter. C) the lateral axis of the helicopter. D) the axis of rotation. 25525. (HELI: atpl, cpl) So that the rotor maintains symmetry of rotor thrust: A) the retreating blade flaps down, automatically increasing the A of A. B) the advancing blade flaps up, thereby maintaining the A of A. C) the retreating blade flaps up, thereby maintaining the A of A. D) the advancing blade flaps down, automatically decreasing the A of A. 25526. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During autorotation, the tail rotor normally provides thrust using:

A) a positive pitch angle. B) a neutral pitch angle. C) a negative pitch angle. D) does not provide any thrust. 25527. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Consider the rotor blade of a helicopter with blade pitch applied, centrifugal turning moments will: A) reduce the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the feathering axis. B) increase the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the feathering axis. C) reduce the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the tip path plane. D) increase the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the tip path plane. 25528. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When considering the effect of overpitching , the: A) RRPM decreases and the coning angle increases. B) RRPM increases and the coning angle increases. C) RRPM decreases and the coning angle decreases. D) RRPM increases and the coning angle remains constant. 25530. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When a helicopter is in forward flight, the thrust produced by the advancing side of a tail rotor system: A) can be kept constant due to flapping of the blade on a delta 3 hinge. B) decreases due to the upward movement of the blade increasing the AoA. C) increases due to the downward movement of the blade decreasing the AoA. D) is kept constant due to the balancing effect of the retreating blade on an alpha 3 hinge. 25531. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The theory of conservation of angular momentum influences the position of a blade on its lead-lag hinge with changes in the coning angle. Assuming a constant RRPM which of the following statements is correct: A) flapping up moves the blade forward as it speeds up in the POR. B) flapping down moves the blade forward as it slows down in the POR. C) flapping up moves the blade rearwards as it slows down in the POR. D) flapping down moves the blade rearwards as it speeds up in the POR. 25532. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When entering autorotation any delay in lowering the collective lever: A) causes the RRPM to speed up and the coning angle to increase. B) increases the coning angle and causes a rapid decrease in RRPM. C) reduces the pitch angle and causes a rapid increase in RRPM. D) causes the RRPM to remain steady but decreases the pitch angle. 25533. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Rotor profile power is that part of the power required to: A) the power required to maintain TRT in response to changes in pitch angle.

B) the power required to maintain RRPM at a zero thrust condition and overcome the drag of ancilliary equipment, drive shafts and tail rotor. C) the power required to overcome the parasite drag associated with the rotor blades. D) the power required to overcome TRT in response to changes in pitch angle. 25534. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter has 120 horsepower available at a mass of 2750 lbs. What rate of climb could be expected? A) 1250 feet per min. B) 980 feet per min. C) 1740 feet per min. D) 1440 feet per min. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 145 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25535 (C) 25536 (A) 25537 (D) 25538 (B) 25539 (D) 25540 (C) 25541 (A) 25542 (B) 25543 (C) 25544 (B) 25545 (D) 25546 (B) 25535. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When a helicopter is hovering within ground effect: A) the requirement for induced power is increased. B) the requirement for rotor profile power is reduced. C) the requirement for induced power is reduced. D) the required total power remains the same. 25536. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With reference to translational lift, which of the following statements is true? A) Translational lift with the associated reduction in induced flow and inflow angle becomes effective at about 12 knots. B) Translational lift with the associated increase in induced flow and reduction in inflow angle becomes effective at about 18 knots. C) Translational lift with the associated reduction in induced flow and increase in inflow angle becomes effective at about 12 knots. D) Translational lift with the associated increase in induced flow and increase in inflow angle becomes effective at about 18 knots. 25537. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The maximum angle of bank in a level turn will be achieved at what speed: A) at the speed for max range. B) min level speed. C) the bank angle remains constant at all speeds. D) at max rate of climb speed. 25538. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter takes off and transitions from the hover into level forward flight. During this phase the: A) power requirement increases but TRT decreases. B) the TRT increases whilst TR drag decreases. C) the TRT and the power requirement increases. D) the TRT increases and the TR drag remains the same. 25539. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To enable the rotor blades to rotate freely during an autorotation: A) an intermediate gearbox is fitted to transfer the drive to the main rotor.

B) a clutch is fitted between the engine and rotor drive unit. C) a semi-automatic gearbox is fitted between engine and rotor. D) a free-wheeling unit is fitted between the engine and the rotor. 25540. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a single-engined helicopter flying at low forward airspeeds, what altitude band should be avoided to ensure the helicopter can land safely in the event of an engine failure: A) in the band 15 - 200 feet. B) in the band 15 - 400 metres. C) in the band 15 - 400 feet. D) in the band 15 - 200 metres. 25541. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If when flying a helicopter a pilot accidentally finds themselves in a zero or negative g situation, the correct recovery technique is to: A) apply rearward cyclic to reload the rotor into positive g situation, then use cyclic to counteract the roll. B) apply forward cyclic to remove the load on the rotor. C) apply left cyclic to counteract the roll, whilst raising collective. D) raise collective. 25542. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What effect does a headwind have on the rate of climb and the angle of climb of a helicopter: A) rate of climb - increases; angle of climb - steeper. B) rate of climb - remains steady; angle of climb - steeper. C) rate of climb - reduces; angle of climb - remains the same. D) rate of climb - increases; angle of climb - shallower. 25543. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The technical term washout can be described as: A) a reduction in blade angle towards the tip to reduce the chances of Retreating Blade Stall (RBS). B) a reduction in blade angle towards the tip to delay the onset of compressibility. C) a reduction in blade angle towards the tip to give a more equal distribution of rotor thrust along the span. D) an increase in blade angle towards the tip to delay the onset of compressibility. 25544. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The condition of dynamic rollover is: A) a rate of roll which cannot be counteracted with full up collective. B) a rate of roll, where the rolling motion with wheels/skid in ground contact cannot be stopped with cyclic. C) the rate of angular momentum about the wheel/skids is greater than the power available. D) is influenced by inflow roll and cannot be stopped by increasing RRPM. 25545. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements is correct about recirculation? A) It reduces the induced flow, increasing the AoA and TRT. B) It increases the induced flow, increases the AoA and TRT. C) It reduces the induced flow, whilst AoA and TRT remain constant. D) It increases the induced flow, decreasing the AoA and TRT. 25546. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

Raising the collective lever in large pitch change will cause: A) the blade beginning to stall B) the blade beginning to stall C) the blade beginning to stall D) the blade will not stall due the disc.

autorotation resulting in a at the blade tip. near the root. along the length of the blade. to the steady RoD flow through

082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 146 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25547 (B) 25548 (B) 25549 (C) 25551 (A) 25552 (B) 25553 (C) 25554 (D) 25556 (B) 25557 (C) 25558 (C) 25559 (A) 25560 (D) 25547. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which direction will a helicopter yaw if it suffers from a tail rotor control failure at a high pitch setting during the cruise? A) The same direction as the main rotor. B) The opposite direction to the main rotor. C) Always to the left. D) Always to the right. 25548. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Phase lag can be described as: A) a gyroscopic effect on the main rotor due to a collective pitch change. B) a vertical movement of the blades to a max/min position 90° further on in the plane of rotation from the position at which the force was applied. C) vertical movement of the blade in response to changing aerodynamic loads 90° before maximum collective pitch change. D) horizontal movement of the blade in the plane of rotation in response to a cyclic input. 25549. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The retreating blade experiences airflow reversal in forward flight. This effect can be reduced by: A) giving the retreating blade a lower AoA thereby reducing the inflow angle. B) designing the rotor system to work at a lower RRPM. C) giving the rotor blade an aerodynamic section starting further away from rotor hub. D) giving the rotor blade a more efficient aerodynamic section inboard which repositions the reverse flow area over the center of the rotor disc. 25551. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement most accurately describes the flare? A) Tot Reaction moves nearer the axis of rotation, increase in RRPM, thrust reversal, increase in TRT and a reduction in rotor drag. B) Tot Reaction moves away from the axis of rotation, decrease in RRPM, thrust reversal, decrease in TRT and a reduction in rotor drag. C) Tot Reaction moves nearer the axis of rotation, decrease in RRPM, increase in parasite drag. D) Tot Reaction moves away from the axis of rotation, increase in RRPM, decrease in parasite drag and a decrease in TRT. 25552. (HELI: atpl, cpl) What parameters are most likely to give rise to blade sailing:

A) three bladed rotor, high RRPM and low wind speed. B) two bladed rotor, low RRPM and gusting wind. C) three bladed rotor, low RRPM and gusting wind. D) two bladed rotor, high RRPM and low wind speed. 25553. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the collective lever is held at a constant position during the an autorotation from altitude, what is likely to happen: A) an increase in RRPM due to an increase in temperature. B) an increase in RRPM due to an increase in density. C) a decrease in RRPM due to an increase in density. D) a decrease in RRPM due to an increase in temperature. 25554. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter in the hover is: A) statically unstable and dynamically stable in the normal axis. B) statically neutral and dynamically stable in the normal axis. C) statically and dynamically stable in the normal axis. D) statically stable and dynamically unstable in the normal axis. 25556. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The most common mechanical cause of ground resonance is: A) sideways vector during landing. B) faulty drag dampers creating an imbalance in the rotor head. C) faulty flapping hinges inhibiting the natural conservation of angular momentum response. D) faulty feathering hinges increasing the centrifugal turning moment of a blade. 25557. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blade counter-weights are fitted to the rotor system so that: A) the level of aerodynamic pitching can be reduced. B) the feathering moment can be increased in the POR. C) the feathering moment due to CTM is reduced. D) they provide damping reducing individual blade vibration. 25558. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If a helicopter encounters a microburst during an approach to land, a drop in windspeed could place the helicopter in: A) retreating blade stall conditions. B) a sudden climb. C) vortex ring conditions. D) overpitching regime. 25559. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When flying in an area of strong wind or turbulence, a pilot should: A) keep the collective within a set range to avoid an overtorque. B) keep the cyclic within a set range to avoid an overspeed. C) keep the collective within a set range to avoid an overspeed. D) keep the yaw pedals within a set range to avoid overtorque. 25560. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To initiate recovery from vortex ring the pilot should: A) cyclic forwards, raise the collective then accelerate above 20 knots. B) reduce collective, move cyclic forwards and accelerate. C) raise the collective, move cyclic forwards and accelerate. D) cyclic forwards, accelerate to min 20 knots then raise collective. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS

147 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26371 (C) 26377 (C) 26378 (B) 26402 (C) 26403 (A) 26404 (B) 26405 (B) 26406 (B) 26407 (B) 26408 (B) 26409 (C) 26410 (C) 26411 (D) 26412 (B) 26371. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A vortex ring state : A) refers to the tip vortices which occur in normal flight. B) is a vortex caused by a stalled condition at the root end caused by high forward speed. C) causes an even higher rate of descent when descending with power. D) is the condition when, in an autorotative descent , the interaction between main rotor downwash and the tail rotor produces a massive vortex, leading to loss of directional control. 26377. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An upward bent outboard trim tab influences the rotor blade in rotation as follows: A) the blade rotates below the reference blade. B) blade track is not influenced. C) the blade rotates above the reference blade. D) produces a wave-like movement of the blade. 26378. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack is the angle determined by: A) the rotor speed plus the speed of the helicopter. B) the chord line and the relative airflow. C) the rotor speed and the inclination of the reference plane. D) the aerofoil chord and the shaft axis. 26402. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The forward speed of helicopters is limited by: A) the effect of main rotor torque exceeding the capabilities of the tail rotor. B) induced power. C) retreating blade stall and advancing blade tip speed. D) flap back limitations. 26403. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Reverse airflow over part of the rotor is associated with: A) flight at high forward speed. B) hovering in ground effect. C) the vortex ring state. D) autorotation. 26404. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In forward flight, if the rotor RPM increase above those specified: A) the resultant increase in blade drag will automatically cause the RPM to decay to their original level. B) the large centrifugal forces impose severe and possibly excessive loads on the hub. C) the increase in centrifugal force will decrease blade coning and reduce RPM to their original level. D) it will induce retreating blade stall at a reduced forward speed. 26405. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Coning angle is defined as the angle between the rotor blade s longitudinal axis and the: A) horizontal B) tip path plane. C) rotor mast. D) rear fuselage clearance datum.

26406. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During autorotative descent, main rotor RPM are maintained by: A) form drag acting as torque after the reversal of air upwards. B) the lift force created by the upflow of air. C) the inertia of the rotor head and blades. D) coanda effect of air flowing round the descending fuselage. 26407. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a stationary hovering (relative to the ground), the position of the advancing blade relative to the pilot: A) is to the left. B) depends on the direction of rotation of the main rotor and wind direction. C) is to the right. D) depends only on the rotor s direction of rotation. 26408. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In hovering, for a single rotor helicopter whose main rotor turns clockwise from above, the thrust of the main rotor will be mainly vertical but with a slight orientation towards the: A) left. B) right. C) right or the left according to side balance. D) front or back of the machine according to longitudinal balance. 26409. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The formula (takeoff mass/rotor disc area) is used to calculate: A) power ratio kW to M2. B) disc area density. C) rotor disc loading. D) the coning angle. 26410. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The coning angle of a fully articulated rotor is defined by: A) thrust, takeoff mass and rotational speed. B) takeoff mass. C) lift, centrifugal force and weight of the blade. D) relative wind and centrifugal forces. 26411. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The resulting rolling moment on the main rotor hub due to the asymmetrical airflow on the blades in forward flight is reduced by: A) counter-action by cockpit crew. B) rotor blade lead-lag. C) blade twist. D) flapping hinges. 26412. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For an autogiro, the power from engines provided to the rotor is: A) equal to 30% of the total power provided by the engines. B) nil. C) equal to 70% of the total power provided by the engines. D) equal to 85% of the total power provided by the engines. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 148 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26413 (B) 26414 (C) 26415 (D) 26416 (C) 26417 (B) 26418 (A) 26419 (A) 26420 (C) 26422 (B) 26423 (A) 26424 (A) 26425 (A) 26426 (A) 26427 (C) 26428 (D) 26430 (B) 26413. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In an autogiro the lift force comes from:

A) the engine power to the rotor. B) the speed of forward movement. C) the propeller slipstream passing over the wing. D) the propeller slipstream turning the rotor. 26414. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On an autogiro, the engine power output is used: A) to ensure forward motion and for the lift of the machine. B) for the lift of the machine. C) to ensure forward motion. D) to make the rotor turn. 26415. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An anti-torque rotor is necessary on: A) a dual-rotor helicopter. B) an autogiro. C) a synchropter. D) a single-rotor helicopter. 26416. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On an articulated rotor, variations in attitude of the tip path plane are due to: A) collective pitch. B) blades setting angles. C) blades flapping angles. D) blades angle of attack. 26417. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On an articulated rotor, the rotation axis of the main rotor shaft is: A) perpendicular to the plane of rotation. B) perpendicular to the hub plane. C) perpendicular to the plane of the swash plate. D) always perpendicular to the airframe reference plane. 26418. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Helicopter rotor blades are designed with twist or taper to incorporate washout - a design that: A) ensures adequate lift distribution along the span of the blade. B) allows for acceleration or dragging of the blade at the root. C) allows for the difference of pressure along the span of the blade. D) provides the same angle of attack along the span of the blade. 26419. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In autorotation the blades are free to rotate because: A) a freewheel unit disengages the rotor from the engine. B) a clutch is fitted between the engine and the transmission. C) a governor is fitted between the rotor and the engine. D) of a descent airflow through the disc. 26420. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The effect of ground cushion on a hovering helicopter is greatest on: A) sloping ground with an upslope wind. B) level ground with a strong wind. C) level ground with no wind. D) sloping ground with no wind. 26422. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When right pedal is applied to a hovering helicopter whose main rotor is rotating clockwise when viewed from above will: A) tend to climb - unless the throttle is closed slightly. B) tend to sink - unless the throttle is opened slightly.

C) tend to climb - unless collective pitch is reduced. D) turn with no effect on power. 26423. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As airspeed increases during the transition from the hover to the climb, the rate of climb improves due to a: A) reduction in induced drag. B) reduction in skin friction. C) reduction in rotor profile drag. D) greater induced flow. 26424. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Maximum permissable rotor RPM in powered flight are governed by: A) engine and hub limitations. B) retreating blade stall. C) compressibility D) limit of forward cyclic. 26425. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flying for range in autorotation requires: A) high forward speed combined with low rotor RPM. B) low forward speed combined with high rotor RPM. C) low forward speed combined with low rotor RPM. D) high forward speed combined with high rotor RPM. 26426. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Retreating blade stall occurs at: A) high collective pitch angles at high AUM, high altitude, temperature and humidity. B) high AUM. C) low forward speed with high AUM. D) vortex ring (settling with power). 26427. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On a see-saw rotor, the axis of rotation of the shaft of the main rotor is: A) perpendicular to the plane of the swash plate. B) perpendicular to the plane of rotation. C) perpendicular to the hub plane. D) always perpendicular to the airframe reference plane. 26428. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The rotor disc is: A) parallel to the relative airflow. B) perpendicular to the main rotor shaft. C) parallel to the plan of the swash plate. D) perpendicular to the lift. 26430. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The pitch angle of the blade sections: A) is constant throughout the span of the blade. B) varies with the twist of the blade. C) is regarded as constant along the blade. D) is conserved during a rotation. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 149 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26431 (D) 26432 (C) 26433 (A) 26434 (D) 26435 (A) 26437 (D) 26438 (A) 26439 (A) 26440 (C) 26441 (C) 26442 (C) 26443 (B) 26444 (B) 26447 (B) 26431. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The mean induced airflow velocity is considered perpendicular to the: A) plane of swash plate. B) airframe reference plan.

C) drive plan. D) rotor disc. 26432. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In the hover, the induced airflow velocity: A) is equal above and below the rotor. B) decreases after having passed the rotor. C) increases further after having passed the rotor. D) remains constant after having passed the rotor. 26433. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in an anti-clockwise direction seen from above, a sideways to the left with zero wind, the pilot will have the advancing blade: A) in front of him. B) on his left. C) on his right. D) behind him. 26434. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in a clockwise direction seen from above, in backward hover, with zero wind, the pilot will have the advancing blade: A) behind him. B) in front of him. C) on his left. D) on his right. 26435. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in a clockwise direction seen from above, in a sideways hover to the right, with zero wind, the pilot will see the retreating blade: A) behind him. B) on his right. C) on his left. D) in front of him. 26437. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in an anti-clockwise direction seen from above, in a sideways hover to the left, with zero wind, the pilot will have the retreating blade: A) in front of him. B) on his left. C) on his right. D) behind him. 26438. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in an anti- clockwise direction seen from above, in backward hover, with zero wind, the pilot will have the retreating blade: A) on his right. B) on his left. C) behind him. D) in front of him. 26439. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in a clockwise direction seen from above, in backward flight, with zero wind, the pilot will have the retreating blade: A) on his left. B) on his right. C) in front of him. D) behind him. 26440. (HELI: atpl, cpl) For a rotor which turns in a clockwise direction seen from above, in a sideways hover to the left, with zero wind, the pilot will have the retreating blade:

A) on his left. B) on his right. C) in front of him. D) behind him. 26441. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The position of the retreating blade relative to the pilot in forward flight: A) is to the right. B) is to the left. C) depends on the direction of rotation of the main rotor. D) depends on wind direction. 26442. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a stationary hovering (relative to the ground), the position of the retreating blade relative to the pilot: A) is to the right. B) is to the left. C) depends on the direction of rotation of the main rotor and wind direction. D) depends only on the rotor s direction of rotation. 26443. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blade sailing is a condition which may occur: A) during a vertical autorotation. B) during starting or stopping the main rotors in strong winds. C) at the onset of retreating blade stall. D) at the onset of vortex ring (settling with power). 26444. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the helicopter is affected by a strong gust of headwind whilst the rotor RPM is low: A) cyclic control will be effective in keeping the disc level. B) there is a danger of the main rotor blades striking the tail boom. C) groundcrew, standing in front of the helicopter, are in danger from a blade strike. D) the effect on the rotor blades will depend on the direction of rotation. 26447. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter in the hover is statically: A) stable and dynamically stable. B) stable and dynamically unstable. C) unstable and dynamically stable. D) unstable and dynamically unstable. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 150 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26448 (D) 26450 (A) 26451 (D) 26453 (B) 26455 (C) 26461 (A) 26462 (D) 26464 (D) 26465 (A) 26466 (B) 26467 (B) 26468 (A) 26469 (C) 26470 (D) 26471 (B) 26448. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A stabiliser fitted to the tail boom of a helicopter, in forward flight, will ___ stability in ___. A) decrease; pitch B) decrease; roll C) increase; roll D) increase; pitch 26450. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On a two bladed main rotor, a stabiliser bar positioned at 90 degrees to the rotor blades will ___ stability and ___ control forces.

A) increase; decrease B) increase; increase C) decrease; increase D) decrease; decrease 26451. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Control power is the effectiveness of: A) the cyclic control in achieving changes in direction. B) the collective control in achieving changes in height. C) the throttle in achieving changes of rotor RPM. D) the cyclic control in achieving changes in fuselage attitude. 26453. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Centrifugal force: A) decreases with mass and rotational speed. B) increases with mass and the square of rotational speed. C) decreases with mass and increases with rotational speed. D) increases with mass and decreases with rotational speed. 26455. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flapping is the: A) trimming of a rotor blade to ensure accurate and consistent tracking. B) movement, in the plane of rotation, of a rotor blade from its neutral position. C) angular movement of a blade, about its root,in the vertical plane. D) flexing of a blade along its length as a result of turbulence. 26461. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The vortex ring state which may develop under conditions of a power-on descent at low forward airspeed is: A) an unstable condition which may result in an uncontrolled rate of descent. B) a stable condition which reduces the rate of descent. C) a desirable condition since it causes the helicopter to flare automatically on landing. D) normally controlled by increasing the collective pitch on the main rotor blades. 26462. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The principle of offset hinges are used in a hingeless rotor system which has the effect of (i) stability and (ii) control power. A) (i) decreasing; (ii) decreasing B) (i) increasing; (ii) decreasing C) (i) decreasing; (ii) increasing D) (i) increasing; (ii) increasing 26464. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The non-rotating scissors of a swashplate control system are attached, at their lower attachment point, to the: A) rotor mast. B) fuselage structure. C) drive shaft. D) rotor gearbox. 26465. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The Delta-3 hinge is used to allow: A) blade pitch to decrease on the upwards flapping blade. B) the advancing blade to flap up about the hinge. C) the advancing blade to drag about the hinge. D) the advancing blade to lead about the hinge. 26466. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In order to permit the rotor blades to rotate freely in autorotation:

A) a clutch is fitted between engine and rotor. B) a free-wheel unit is fitted between engine and rotor. C) inflow must equal rate of descent airflow. D) the rate of descent must be greater than 500 ft/min. 26467. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The purpose of the swept back tip region in some modern rotor blade designs is to: A) reduce blade tip vortices. B) improve high speed performance. C) reduce blade tip stresses. D) reduce the amount of flapping up. 26468. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A conventional tail rotor has: A) flapping hinges incorporating a Delta-3 hinge together with a feathering hinge. B) flapping, feathering and dragging hinges. C) flapping hinges incorporating a Delta-3 hinge together with feathering and dragging hinges. D) only a feathering hinge. 26469. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Droop restrainers on a rotor head: A) prevent excessive blade movement in strong or gusty wind conditions. B) are only fitted to teetering head rotor systems. C) limit the amount of blade droop when the blades are rotating at low rotor RPM. D) limit the amount of blade droop in forward flight. 26470. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An increase in the angle of attack of a rotor blade, on a helicopter in forward flight will cause the: A) velocity of the air over the upper surface to reduce. B) stagnation point to move forward. C) the center of pressure to move aft. D) separation point to move forward. 26471. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a helicopter in forward, level flight, the angle of attack of the blades of a main rotor disc will be: A) the same throughout the disc. B) greatest on the retreating side. C) greatest at the front of the disc. D) greatest at the rear of the disc. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 151 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26472 (C) 26474 (C) 26475 (D) 26476 (A) 26478 (C) 26479 (B) 26480 (A) 26481 (B) 26482 (C) 26483 (D) 26484 (A) 26486 (D) 26490 (A) 26491 (A) 26493 (B) 26472. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a helicopter hovering in still air with blade design to obtain minimum power required, induced air velocities will: A) be smallest at the rear of the disc. B) be greatest at the rear of the disc. C) be uniform through the disc. D) decrease with increasing radius. 26474. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a hovering helicopter, recirculated air at the main rotor blade tips will cause: A) an increase in ground effect. B) increased lift.

C) a reduction of lift. D) no effect on lift. 26475. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During an autorotation, an increase in collective pitch will ___ rotor thrust, ___ rotor RPM and ___ rate of descent. A) decrease; decrease; decrease B) increase; increase; increase C) decrease; decrease; increase D) increase; decrease; decrease 26476. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During flight, an increase in main rotor torque will require: A) an increase in tail rotor pitch. B) no change in tail rotor pitch. C) a reduction in tail rotor pitch. D) a reduction in tail rotor RPM. 26478. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the coning angle of the main rotor disc is increased: A) the helicopter center of gravity moves aft. B) the helicopter center of gravity moves forward. C) the center of gravity of the blade moves inboard. D) the cg of the blade moves outboard. 26479. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Phase lag of a main rotor blade is the result of: A) advance angle. B) inertia. C) action of flapping hinges. D) drift. 26480. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Cyclic stick movement: A) alters the disc attitude. B) alters the amount of total rotor thrust. C) changes the coning angle. D) causes an equal pitch change on all blades together. 26481. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a blade section is the angle between the chord line and the: A) rotational airflow. B) relative airflow. C) induced airflow. D) plane of rotation. 26482. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The pitch angle of a rotor blade section is: A) the angle between the tip path plane and the relative airflow. B) the angular difference between the root and tip of the blade. C) the angle between the chord line and the plane of rotation. D) the angle at which the induced flow passes over the blade. 26483. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The coning angle is the angle: A) between the normal plane of rotation in forward flight and the plane of rotation in the flare. B) between maximum flapping up and maximum flapping down of the blade in autorotation. C) between the longitudinal axis of the blade and the horizon. D) between the longitudinal axis of the blade and the tip path plane. 26484. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The main rotor shaft axis is:

A) the axis through the main rotor shaft. B) the axis of rotation of the blades. C) the axis of the thrust. D) the vertical. 26486. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The plane of rotation is perpendicular to: A) the total reaction aerodynamic forces on the blades. B) the axis of rotation vertical through the center of the main rotor head. C) the shaft axis. D) the axis of rotation and parallel to the tip path plane. 26490. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The coning angle of a rotor blade is determined by: A) the amount of lift and the centrifugal force applied. B) the amount of lift and the drag force applied. C) the amount of drag and the centrifugal force applied. D) the effect of the flare. 26491. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter rotor system fitted with blade flapping hinges and blade drag hinges is said to be: A) fully articulated. B) semi-articulated. C) teetering. D) semi-rigid. 26493. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The total rotor thrust is: A) a force acting at right angles perpendicular to the relative air flow. B) a component of total reaction acting at right angles of the aerodynamic forces on the blades, and perpendicular to the plane of rotation. C) a force acting parallel to the plane of rotation. D) a force opposite to weight. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 152 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26495 (D) 26496 (D) 26498 (B) 26499 (A) 26500 (B) 26501 (A) 26502 (C) 26503 (D) 26505 (A) 26506 (C) 26507 (A) 26508 (C) 26509 (B) 26495. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The purpose of the collective pitch control is: A) to adjust the power to achieve the required thrust. B) to change the pitch angle of each blade by the appropriate amount. C) to control the revolutions within the required limits. D) to change the pitch angle on all rotor blades collectively. 26496. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lateral control of the helicopter is obtained by: A) pedals. B) tail rotor pitch control. C) aerodynamic shape of fin. D) the cyclic pitch control. 26498. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Yawing in a helicopter is the term used to define: A) a rotation about the lateral axis. B) a rotation about the normal axis. C) a rotation about the longitudinal axis. D) the balance of forces between the main rotor and the fuselage. 26499. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

Viewed from above, a helicopter in the hover, with anticlockwise rotating blades, if not corrected, would tend to drift to the: A) right with power on. B) right with power off. C) left with power on. D) left if the tail rotor is on the left and to the right if the tail rotor is on the right. 26500. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flapping hinges are fitted to the helicopter rotor system to allow: A) for movement of the blade in the horizontal plane during the cycle of rotation, decreasing lift and increasing drag. B) for movement of the blade in the vertical plane perpendicular to the hub plane, to eliminate inequalities of lift, to tilt the rotor disc without having to tilt the hub and to reduce stresses on the blade root. C) the blade to move horizontally and maintain correct rotor revolutions, changing drag over each individual blade. D) for movement of the blade in the vertical plane to overcome flapback and inflow roll. 26501. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Drag hinges are fitted to: A) allow for blade movement in the rotor disc plane. B) allow the blade to move in the vertical plane to reduce stresses and increase lift and drag. C) enable the disc to be tilted in the direction of the cyclic pitch control, by flapping up on the advancing side and down on the retreating side. D) allow the blades to reposition to compensate for lag. 26502. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Phase lag is: A) vertical movement of the blades due to forward movement of the helicopter and flap back. B) a gyroscopic effect of the main rotor due to a cyclic pitch change and a consequent decrease in lift and drag. C) a vertical movement of the blades to a maximum or minimum position at the point approximating 90° further on in the plane of rotation from that at which force was applied. D) the delay in control response after an input from the cyclic due to the effect of the sloppy loink. 26503. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Advance angle is an angle between the: A) pitch operating arm and the swash plate. B) chord line and the pitch operating arm. C) advancing and retreating blades. D) pitch link attachement on the swash plate and the longitudinal axis of the blade. 26505. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During flight the cyclic stick determines: A) attitude,airspeed and horizontal movement. B) attitude and direction of movement. C) balance in the turn. D) direction of movement. 26506. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During balanced level flight, the pitch angle of the main rotor blade: A) remains constant on both sides. B) increases on the advancing side, decreases on the retreating side.

C) decreases on the advancing side, increases on the retreating side. D) varies according to the circumference of the disc decreases in the front position, increases in the back position. 26507. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The control orbit is: A) the plane in which the pitch link attachements are rotating. B) variation of pitch angle due to flap back. C) vertical movement of the swash plate on the rotor shaft. D) the extent of fore and aft and lateral movement on the cyclic control. 26508. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When transitioning from hover to forward flight, the swash plate is moved so that the pitch operating arms start to move upwards: A) at the front of the swash plate. B) on the right hand side of the swash plate. C) on the left hand side of the swash plate. D) at the rear of the swash plate. 26509. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Factors which influence the ground effect of a hovering helicopter include: A) the hover height, power applied, type of surface, proximity of obstructions. B) the hover height, type of ground surface, slope of the ground, wind direction. C) wind strength, shape of fuselage, hover height, size of rotor disc, power applied. D) wind strength, AUM, position of cyclic, shape of fuselage, power applied. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 153 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26512 (A) 26513 (D) 26515 (B) 26516 (B) 26517 (A) 26518 (D) 26519 (C) 26521 (B) 26523 (D) 26524 (D) 26527 (D) 26528 (D) 26529 (B) 26512. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The flare in a helicopter is: A) a change of the main rotor disc attitude to reduce forward speed. B) a method of reducing speed without gaining height. C) a method of reducing forward speed in stages. D) carried out after an autorotation. 26513. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flare effects in a helicopter include: A) an increase in the coning angle thus reducing the conservation of angular momentum. B) thrust reversal, rapid deceleration and tendency to pitch up. C) large increase in parasite drag with tendency to overpitch. D) thrust reversal, increase in rotor RPM, increase in total rotor thrust. 26515. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dissymmetry of lift is eliminated by: A) moving the cyclic control forward. B) the advancing blade reducing the angle of attack and the retreating blade increasing the angle of attack. C) adjustment of the flapping stops. D) washout along the blade.

26516. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Airflow reversal may occur: A) at the tip of the retreating blade. B) at the root end of the retreating blade. C) if the windspeed is less than 30 knots. D) in the flare. 26517. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A tail rotor is fitted to most helicopters to compensate for: A) main rotor torque reaction and give directional control. B) main rotor torque reaction and give thrust in sideways flight. C) sideways drift when in hovering flight. D) main rotor torque reaction when entering autorotation. 26518. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In hovering flight, if not corrected, the tail rotor has a tendency to cause the helicopter to: A) sink under power. B) turn to the right. C) turn to the left. D) drift and roll. 26519. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the collective pitch is increased and rotor RPM reduced to a safe minimum during autorotation the rate of descent: A) remains the same. B) increases C) decreases D) fluctuates depending on windspeed. 26521. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In autorotation, if the cyclic control is pulled back, speed will reduce and: A) lift will increase, coning angle will increase and rotor RPM will decrease. B) rate of descent will decrease, coning angle will increase and rotor RPM will increase. C) lift will increase, coning angle will decrease and rotor RPM will decrease. D) lift, coning angle and rotor RPM will remain unchanged. 26523. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In the event of an engine failure in a single engine helicopter in the cruise, a delay in lowering the collective lever to enter autorotation will: A) increase the rate of descent, increase the coning angle, cause a decrease in pitch. B) increase the coning angle, cause the rotor RPM to reduce, decrease the angle of attack of the blades. C) slow the rate of descent, cause the rotor RPM to reduce, increase the coning angle. D) cause rotor RPM to reduce, increase the coning angle, increase the angle of attack of the blades,. 26524. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The ground cushion effect on a hovering helicopter is of practical value up to a rotor height above ground equivalent to: A) three times the rotor diameter. B) twice the rotor diameter. C) the length of a rotor blade. D) the rotor diameter. 26527. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ground cushion effect is caused by: A) recirculation of air through the rotor disc causing air to flow

outwards at ground level. B) increasing the mass airflow through the rotor. C) high pressure beneath the rotor creating a convergent duct from the downdraft. D) the airflow through the disc creating a divergent duct with higher pressure beneath the rotor. 26528. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A fully articulated helicopter rotor is one in which the blades are: A) hinged with the axis parallel to the rotor plane of rotation which permits the blades to flap up or down. B) without individual flapping and dragging hinges but the blades can move about a central gimbal. C) not mounted on flapping or dragging hinges. D) free to flap, drag and change pitch through hinges or bearings. 26529. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Vortex ring (settling with power) is most likely to occur with: A) zero airspeed, partial power, rate of descent less than 300 ft/min. B) low airspeed, power applied, rate of descent greater than 300 ft/min. C) cruise airspeed, partial power, rate of descent greater than 300 ft/min. D) low airspeed, zero power, rate of descent greater than 300 ft/min. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 154 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26530 (B) 26531 (B) 26532 (B) 26536 (C) 26537 (C) 26538 (B) 26539 (B) 26540 (A) 26541 (A) 26542 (B) 26543 (B) 26544 (D) 26545 (D) 26546 (C) 26530. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In autorotation, the blade element producing the autorotative forces: A) moves towards the tip of the blade when rotor RPM decrease. B) moves towards the root of the blade when rotor RPM decrease. C) remains in a constant position when rotor RPM decrease. D) spreads out towards both the root and the tip of the blade as rotor RPM decrease. 26531. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The plane of rotation is tilted by the pilot: A) raising and lowering the collective lever. B) moving the cyclic control. C) moving the yaw pedals. D) allowing the blades freedom to flap. 26532. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The amount of induced power required after achieving translational lift is: A) more than was required to hover. B) less than was required to hover. C) the same as was required to hover. D) equivalent to that required for takeoff. 26536. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The plane of rotation of the rotor blades is parallel to: A) the plane of the main rotor hub. B) the relative airflow. C) the tip path plane. D) the horizon.

26537. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The pitch angle of a rotor blade is the angle between the chord line and the: A) axis of rotation. B) relative airflow. C) hubplane of rotation. D) longitudinal axis. 26538. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The effect of main rotor torque reaction will be to rotate the fuselage in the: A) same direction as the main rotor blades. B) opposite direction to the main rotor blades. C) same direction as the tail rotor blades. D) opposite direction to the tail rotor blades. 26539. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Tail rotor roll may be prevented by: A) tilting the main rotor disc when the collective is raised. B) raising the tail rotor hub to the same level as the main rotor hub. C) cyclic input from the pilot. D) yaw pedal inputs from the pilot. 26540. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a rotor blade is: A) never equal to the pitch angle during powered flight. B) always equal to the pitch angle during powered flight. C) always equal to the pitch angle during autorotative flight. D) always determined solely by the rotational speed of the rotor blades. 26541. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flapping is: A) the angular movement of the blade relative to the hubplane. B) corrected by causing the disc to tilt to the left when collective lever is raised. C) controlled in the tail rotor by moving the yaw pedals. D) the angular movement of the blade above or below the horizontal plane. 26542. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A increase in pitch angle during the revolution causes the affected blade to: A) flap down, thus increasing the angle of attack. B) flap up, thus decreasing the angle of attack. C) flap down, thus decreasing the angle of attack. D) flap up, thus increasing the angle of attack. 26543. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The control orbit can best be described as: A) a plane of rotation perpendicular to the shaft axis. B) the plane of rotation of the upper attachements of the pitch links. C) the total range of movement of the cyclic stick. D) the total range of movement of the rotor disc. 26544. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Lead-lagging or dragging is: A) caused only by blade drag changes. B) movement of the rotor blades to reposition themselves after a collective pitch change. C) the blades moving at 90° to the plane of rotation. D) blades moving in the plane of rotation independent of each other. 26545. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Advance angle is:

A) the difference between the pitch angle and the angle of attack of a blade section. B) always 90°. C) the difference between the pitch angle and the inflow angle of a blade section. D) the azimuthal angular difference between the attachment point of the pitch link on the swash plate and the longitudinal axis of the blade to which it refers. 26546. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a constant speed vertical climb outside ground effect, if the effects of parasite drag on the helicopter fuselage are ignored: A) blade section pitch angle will be decreased. B) total rotor thrust will need to be greater than aircraft weight. C) total rotor thrust will equal aircraft weight. D) blade angle of attack must be greater than the pitch angle. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 155 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26547 (A) 26548 (B) 26549 (D) 26550 (D) 26551 (A) 26553 (D) 26554 (B) 26555 (D) 26556 (B) 26557 (D) 26558 (C) 26559 (B) 26560 (C) 26561 (B) 26547. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When a helicopter is operating in ground effect (IGE) under the same environmetal conditions than the helicopter OGE the blade section: A) pitch angle is lower. B) pitch angle is higher. C) angle of attack is higher. D) angle of attack is lower. 26548. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In level flight, as forward speed is increased, total rotor thrust is: A) reduced as translational lift is achieved. B) increased C) reduced initially, then increased. D) increased because rotor drag is reduced. 26549. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ground effect is altered by wind and slope of the ground and its effect disappears at a height approximately equal to: A) three quarters of the radius of the rotor disc. B) the radius of the rotor disc. C) 50 feet. D) the diameter of the rotor disc. 26550. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Whilst hovering close to the ground, if the effect of recirculation becomes greater than ground effect: A) less power and more collective pitch would be required. B) less power and collective pitch would be required. C) more power and less collective pitch would be required. D) more power and collective pitch would be required. 26551. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In level flight, as forward velocity is increased, induced flow velocity: A) decreases and the component of the horizontal airflow through the disc increases. B) increases and the component of the horizontal airflow

through the disc increases. C) increases and the component of the horizontal airflow through the disc decreases. D) decreases and the component of the horizontal airflow through the disc decreases. 26553. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the CG is aft of the rotor hub, when the helicopter lifts to the hover: A) it will hover right skid low. B) the nose will pitch down. C) it will hover left skid low. D) the nose will pitch up. 26554. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Translational lift becomes useful: A) as soon as the helicopter moves from a stationary hover. B) as forward speed reaches a value of approximately 10 knots. C) only when the helicopter is operating in ground effect. D) only at high all up weights. 26555. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When the helicopter is flared to transition from forward flight to the hover, the change in relative airflow causes: A) an increase in blade pitch angle. B) total rotor thrust to decrease. C) rotor RPM to decrease. D) the blade angle of attack to increase. 26556. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Airflow reversal first occurs at the blade ___ on the ___ side of the disc. A) tip; advancing B) root; retreating C) tip; retreating D) root; advancing 26557. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Retreating blade stall will occur because: A) at decreasing forward speed the relative airvelocity on the the retreating blade dereases. B) at decreasing forward speed the retreating blade needs an increasingly higher angle of attack. C) at increasing forward speed the relative airvelocity on the retreating blade increases. D) at increasing forward speed the retreating blade needs an increasingly higher angle of attack. 26558. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The symptoms of retreating blade stall are: A) random roll, pitch and yaw leading to a possible pitch down and roll to the retreating side. B) rotor roughness and vibration leading to a possible pitch down and roll to the retreating side. C) rotor roughness and vibration leading to a possible pitch up and roll to the retreating side. D) random roll, pitch and yaw leading to a possible pitch up and roll to the retreating side. 26559. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When the helicopter is in level, forward flight: A) the induced flow velocity is uniform across the disc. B) the induced flow velocity is smallest at the front of the disc. C) the horizontal flow causes an increase in induced flow velocities in comparison with the hover flight.

D) the induced flow velocitiy is smallest at the rear of the disc. 26560. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Inflow roll: A) causes a roll towards the advancing side only if the blades are rotating anti-clockwise. B) causes a roll towards the retreating side. C) causes a roll towards the advancing side. D) only occurs if the blades are rotating below normal rotor RPM speed. 26561. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The degree of control available through the cyclic stick is affected by aircraft: A) AUM only. B) AUM, altitude and cg. C) altitude and AUM. D) altitude, AUM, cg and advance angle. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 156 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26562 (B) 26563 (C) 26564 (B) 26565 (C) 26566 (B) 26567 (D) 26568 (B) 26569 (B) 26570 (D) 26571 (B) 26572 (C) 26573 (A) 26574 (D) 26575 (C) 26562. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Induced power: A) is unaffected by changes in forward speed. B) decreases as forward speed increases. C) is unaffected by changes in forward speed provided altitude remains constant. D) increases as forward speed increases. 26563. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The flight speed to achieve maximum endurance in a helicopter is: A) zero because maximum endurance is obtained in the hover. B) the speed shown by a tangent from the origin of the power required curve. C) the speed corresponding to the lowest point of the power required curve. D) the speed corresponding to the maximum point of the power available curve. 26564. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Normally aspirated piston engine power will ___ with altitude and rotor power required will ___. A) increase; increase B) decrease; increase C) increase; decrease D) decrease; decrease 26565. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When operating with limited power, the speed giving the steepest or maximum angle of climb: (limited power - power available is less than the hover power required) A) is always equal to the best endurance speed. B) is always equal to the best rate of climb speed. C) is always less than the best endurance speed. D) decreases as altitude increases. 26566. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To maintain the height in a balanced turn at high angles of bank, collective pitch must be ___ and power ___. A) increased; decreased

B) increased; increased C) decreased; increased D) decreased; decreased 26567. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the rotor is overpitched, the corrective action is to: A) reduce engine power and leave collective pitch constant. B) reduce both engine power and collective pitch. C) increase engine power and collective pitch. D) reduce collective pitch and leave engine power constant. 26568. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If the helicopter forward speed increases then: A) parasite power from the fuselage and its components decreases. B) parasite drag from the fuselage and its components increases. C) rotor profile power decreases. D) rotor profile drag decreases. 26569. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Overpitching may occur as a result of: A) applying too much rear cyclic in the hover. B) applying too much collective pitch at high power settings. C) transitioning too rapidly from the hover to forward flight. D) retreating blade stall. 26570. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To maintain constant rotor RPM during autorotation: A) the total autorotative force must equal total rotor thrust. B) the autorotative moment must equal the moment of the blades drag. C) the autorotative moment must be smaller than the moment of the blades drag. D) the autorotative moment must be greater than the moment of the blades drag. 26571. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The autorotative section of a rotor blade in vertical autorotation is: A) towards the tip of the blade. B) in the center span section of the blade. C) along the full blade span. D) at the root of the blade. 26572. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In autorotation for maximum range, the helicopter must be flown at a speed: A) found from the lowest point on the TAS / rate of descent curve. B) which is less than the speed for maximum endurance. C) found by drawing a tangent from the origin to the TAS / rate of descent curve. D) equal to the maximum endurance speed. 26573. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In an autorotation with normal forward speed, compared with a vertical autorotation in still air, the rate of descent is: A) always lower. B) always greater. C) lower up to a certain speed but is then greater. D) greater up to a certain speed but is then lower. 26574. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a normal forward autorotative descent, if the collective is raised by a small amount, the rotor RPM will ___ and the rate of descent will ___. A) increase; increase B) decrease; increase

C) increase; decrease D) decrease; decrease 26575. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The function of the anti-torque device during an autorotation is: A) to prevent the fuselage rotating in the opposite direction to the main rotor blades. B) non-existent, as the tail rotor is not required during autorotation. C) to prevent the fuselage rotating in the same direction as the main rotor blades. D) variable depending on the autorotation speed. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 157 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26576 (C) 26577 (A) 26578 (A) 26579 (A) 26580 (A) 26581 (A) 26582 (C) 26583 (A) 26584 (A) 26585 (C) 26586 (C) 26587 (B) 26576. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The avoid areas in a height/velocity diagram define the height/velocity combinations: A) in which it is only possible to make a transition into forward flight. B) from which it is not possible to operate because of engine power limitations. C) from which it is not possible to make a safe autorotative landing. D) in which it is not possible to hover out of ground effect. 26577. (HELI: atpl, cpl) If an autorotative descent is commenced from a high altitude and collective position is not changed, then, as altitude reduces, rotor RPM: A) and rate of descent will decrease. B) and rate of descent will increase. C) will increase and rate of descent will decrease. D) will decrease and rate of descent will increase. 26578. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The required condition for the initiation of ground resonance is: A) a deliberate or unintentional oscillation of the helicopter in contact with or resting on the ground. B) a moment produced by the horizontal component of total rotor thrust about the point of ground contact of the skid. C) low rotor RPM during start-up or shut-down producing insufficient centrifugal force on the blades. D) the helicopter CG positioned outside the wheelbase coupled with a self generated rotor head vibration. 26579. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The most likely causes of rotor head vibration are: A) faulty drag dampers, incorrect blade tracking and blades of unequal weight or balance. B) ineffective droop stops, faulty drag dampers and moisture ingestion in the blades. C) faulty drag dampers, incorrect tracking and inefficient flapping restrainers. D) blades of unequal weight or balance, faulty drag dampers and inoperative pitch operating arms. 26580. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Vortex ring (settling with power) will probably occur if power is applied when the airspeed is below approximately:

A) 30 kts and the rate of descent is greater than 300 ft/min. B) 50 kts and the rate of descent is greater than 300 ft/min. C) 30 kts and the rate of descent is greater than 100 ft/min. D) 50 kts and the rate of descent is greater than 100 ft/min. 26581. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Phase lag is the: A) azimuthal angle through which a blade moves between a pitch value and the corresponding flapped position. B) time between collective pitch increase and the restoration of the original RPM. C) time between cyclic pitch control inputs and rotor disc attitude change. D) the angle, in the plane of rotation, by which a dragging rotor blade lags its neutral position. 26582. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The loss of lift leading to retreating blade stall will commence: A) at the root. B) mid-way along the span. C) at the tip. D) at the same indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, temperature and all-up weight of the helicopter. 26583. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The angle of attack of a helicopter rotor blade is defined as the angle between the: A) blade s chord line and the relative airflow. B) blade s chord line and the airflow upstream of the helicopter. C) the bottom surface of the blade and the tip path plane. D) the blade s chord line and the plane of rotation. 26584. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a result of a positive g manoeuvre in a helicopter there is an increase in: A) blade lift and hence an increase in coning angle. B) blade centrifugal force and hence a decrease in coning angle. C) both blade lift and centrifugal force and hence coning angle is not affected. D) the forward lift component of each blade, increasing the rotor speed automatically compensating for increased loading. 26585. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Disc loading is defined as the: A) the weight of the main rotor blades. B) maximum centrifugal loading of the rotor hub assembly. C) the ratio of the total weight of the helicopter, per unit of the disc area. D) the increase in rotor thrust required to compensate for accelerations during manoeuvre. 26586. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Autorotative moment of the aerodynamic forces: A) is the resultant of the forces of gravity and inertia due to the forward speed during autorotation. B) opposes the weight of a helicopter during autorotation. C) maintains rotor speed during autorotation. D) is the opposite torque required from the tail rotor to maintain direction during an autorotative descent. 26587. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At a given power setting, ground effect is most effective when hovering: A) over a disturbed water surface. B) over a hard level surface.

C) into a moderate wind. D) over long grass. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 158 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26588 (C) 26589 (A) 26591 (A) 26592 (A) 26593 (D) 26594 (A) 26595 (C) 26596 (A) 26597 (A) 26599 (C) 26600 (A) 26601 (B) 26602 (B) 26603 (B) 26588. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Airflow reversal is associated with: A) the Vortex Ring State and originates at the tip of the advancing blade. B) flight at low forward speed and originates at the root of the advancing blade. C) flight at high forward speed and originates at the root of the retreating blade. D) autorotation and originates at the root of the advancing blade if RPM are allowed to fall too low. 26589. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A fully articulated rotor permits the blades to: A) flap, drag and feather. B) feather only. C) flap and drag only. D) feather and drag only. 26591. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A main rotor blade may be twisted along its span to ensure: A) a more desirable lift distribution. B) that the angle of attack remains constant when the blade bends under the load. C) that retreating blade stall occurs first at the tip. D) that retreating blade stall occurs first at the root. 26592. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The maximum speed during backwards is lower than in forward flight, this is due to: A) the reduced control range in the rearward direction and the directional stability of the airframe. B) aerodynamic interference between the main and tail rotors. C) the restricted clearance between the main and tail rotors. D) the increased parasite drag when flying backwards. 26593. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When in the hover, movement of the collective lever upwards will change the pitch angle of the main rotor blades: A) about the flapping hinges. B) to prevent excessive coning of the blades. C) independently as each blade passes the helicopter longitudinal axis. D) by an equal amount throughout 360° of rotation. 26594. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a tail rotor, dissymmetry of lift: A) may be reduced by allowing blade flapping. B) cannot occur since the relative airlow velocity is the same at any position. C) cannot be reduced in any configuration and therefore has to be accepted. D) is essential for the correct functioning of the helicopter. 26595. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter having an anti-clockwise rotating main rotor (when seen from above), with power on, will have a tendency to drift:

A) in neither direction because transverse forces are in balance. B) to the right if the tail rotor is on the left of the aircraft and to the left if it is on the right. C) to the right. D) to the left. 26596. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a semi-rigid main rotor there are: A) feathering hinges but no dragging or flapping hinges. B) dragging and feathering hinges but no flapping hinges. C) flapping and feathering hinges but no dragging hinges. D) flapping hinges but no dragging or feathering hinges. 26597. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a shrouded tail rotor (fenestron) the blades: A) respond to collective pitch control. B) respond to cyclic and collective pitch control. C) respond to cyclic control. D) are fully articulated. 26599. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The three main features which define the maximum speed of a helicopter are: A) retreating blade stall, blade sailing limit and tail rotor overspeed limit. B) runaway rotor RPM limit, critical flapback speed and airflow reversal. C) compressibility limit of advancing blade, retreating blade stall and design limits of cyclic control. D) design limit of collective control, compressibility limit of advancing blades and airflow reversal. 26600. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During autorotative flight: A) the fuselage will tend to rotate in the same direction as the rotor. B) yaw is controlled by the cyclic control since the low tail rotor RPM would exert insufficient force. C) no attempt must be made to control yaw through the pedals as the power required to drive the tail rotor would derive from the main rotor, reducing the RPM disastrously. D) collective and cyclic inputs work in the reverse sense to powered flight. 26601. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The attendant possibility of a blade the main rotor blade coning upwards on an articulated rotor head is: A) gravity acting on the blades. B) the centrifugal force acting on the blades. C) the lift developed by the blades. D) Coriolis effect. 26602. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blades flapping upwards tend to: A) decrease rotational speed. B) increase rotational speed. C) stall. D) increase the angle of attack. 26603. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dragging of a rotor blade is an angular oscillation of the blade in: A) a plane parallel to the rotor shaft axis,. B) the plane of rotation. C) the vertical plane. D) the horizontal plane.

082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 159 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26604 (D) 26605 (C) 26606 (B) 26608 (B) 26609 (D) 26610 (B) 26613 (C) 26616 (C) 26617 (A) 26619 (B) 26620 (D) 26622 (C) 26624 (D) 26604. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An increase in angle of attack of a rotor blade would cause an increase in: A) lift only. B) induced drag and a decrease in parasite drag but no change in lift unless rotor speed is increased. C) induced drag and parasite drag but a reduction in lift. D) drag and lift forces. 26605. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A shrouded tail rotor (fenestron): A) allows the tail rotor to be used for pitch as well as yaw control. B) removes the need for tail rotor pitch control, allowing yaw control to be achieved by a fin and rudder. C) largely removes lift dissymmetry and the attendant need for cyclic feathering of the tail rotor. D) permits greater CG movement fore and aft. 26606. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During an autorotative descent the maximum gliding distance will be obtained at: A) the speed associated with the minimum rate of descent. B) a speed greater than that associated with the minimum rate of descent. C) a speed slightly less than that associated with the minimum rate of descent. D) the minimum speed that will sustain rotor RPM. 26608. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When the cyclic pitch control is forward, a main rotor blade will reach its maximum pitch: A) in the rearmost position. B) on the retreating side. C) on the advancing side. D) in the foremost position. 26609. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Some tail rotor hinges are not perpendicular to the feathering axis in order to: A) produce a stabilising lift component when lift is increased at the main rotor by an increase in RPM. B) provide a pitch change hinge free from phase lag. C) cater for centrifugal twisting moment. D) reduce the effects of dissymmetry of lift with forward speed. 26610. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The normal or yaw axis of a helicopter is a straight line: A) passing through the center of lift perpendicular to the relative airflow. B) passing through the center of gravity perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. C) coincident with the main rotor axis. D) passing through the center of gravity and perpendicular to the helicopter velocity. 26613. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The vortex ring state is: A) a desirable condition since it causes the helicopter to flare

automatically on landing. B) a stable condition which reduces the rate of descent. C) an unstable condition which may result in an uncontrolled rate of descent. D) normally controlled by increasing collective pitch on the main rotor blades. 26616. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Coning angle is defined as the angle between the rotor blade s longitudinal axis and the: A) plane containing the lateral and longitudinal axes of the helicopter. B) rotor mast. C) tip path plane. D) horizontal 26617. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As a result of a positive g manoeuvre in a helicopter there is an increase in: A) blade centrifugal force and hence a decrease in coning angle. B) blade centrifugal force and hence a decrease in coning angle and RRPM (Rotor RPM). C) both blade lift and centrifugal force on the blade. D) induced drag and hence a decrease in coning angle and rotor RPM. 26619. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During autorotative descent, main rotor RPM are maintained by: A) the coanda effect of air flowing round the descending fuselage. B) the aerodynamic force due to the upflow of air. C) drag, acting as a torque force, after the reversal of airflow upwards. D) the inertia of the rotor head and blades. 26620. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dragging of a rotor blade is an angular oscillation of the blade in: A) a plane parallel to the shaft axis, perpendicular to the feathering hinge. B) the horizontal plane. C) the vertical plane. D) the plane of rotation perpendicular to the axis of rotation. 26622. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In order to reduce the effects of retreating blade stall on a helicopter in flight, the: A) cyclic control should be pushed forward to increase speed. B) power should be reduced and collective pitch increased at once to reduce speed. C) collective pitch should be lowered to decrease pitch. D) cyclic control should be pulled back to decrease speed in a flare manoeuvre. 26624. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The advance angle in a helicopter cyclic control: A) with increased rotor RPM will increase on the advancing side and decrease on the retreating side. B) will increase with increased rotor RPM. C) will decrease with increased rotor RPM. D) is not affected by rotor RPM. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 160

© 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26625 (D) 26626 (C) 26627 (D) 26628 (C) 26629 (D) 26630 (D) 26631 (C) 26634 (D) 26637 (C) 26638 (C) 26639 (D) 26640 (D) 26641 (D) 26625. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In order to produce a stable rotor in a teetering rotor it may be necessary to: A) use an odd number of blades. B) give it a preset coning angle. C) embody delta-three hinges. D) stabilise it by use of rotating masses or separate aerofoils. 26626. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A tilt of the rotor disc plane will cause the helicopter to accelerate: A) against the direction of tilt. B) 90 to the direction of tilt, in the direction of rotation. C) in the direction of tilt. D) in the direction in which the fuselage is pointing but the pilot should rotate the fuselage against the direction of tilt in order to maintain balanced flight. 26627. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The avoid areas in a Height Velocity Diagram define the height / velocity combination: A) in which it is possible only to make forward (as opposed to sideways or rearwards) translational flight. B) from which it is not possible to operate the helicopter due to the engine being power limited. C) from which a safe climb-out may not be made, having regard to obstacle clearance. D) from which safe autorotative descent and landing after engine failure may not easily be accomplished. 26628. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In helicopters with an automatic system of RPM control, the term static droop refers to: A) the RRPM underswing value. B) the initial total fall in RRPM following a collective pitch increase. C) a change in stabilised RRPM following a collective pitch increase. D) a progressive fall in RRPM over a long period with unchanged collective setting. 26629. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a hingeless rotor head, flapping movements: A) are accommodated by flapping hinges. B) do not arise since the fuselage always follows the rotor head. C) are accommodated for by the whole rotor hub tilting. D) are accommodated for by the rotor blades flexible attachements to the hub. 26630. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When a cyclic control input has been made, the rotor blade pitch will be: A) increasing for one quarter revolution, remaining constant for a quarter, decreasing for a quarter and then remaining constant for the last quarter. B) increasing for one whole revolution and decreasing the next. C) increasing or decreasing immediately and remaining at the new position until a new control input is made. D) increasing for one half revolution and decreasing for the next half. 26631. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

What effect does an increase in density altitude have on the amount of anti-torque pedal required to maintain heading in the hover and why? A) Maintained in the same position because density will affect the main and tail rotors equally. B) Decreased because the tail rotor is more effective. C) Increased because the tail rotor is less effective. D) Decreased due to less power being required to drive the main rotor. 26634. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With a center of gravity position near the front limit what will be the effect upon fuselage attitude and cyclic stick position, in a still air hover: A) nose down, cyclic stick forward. B) nose up, cyclic stick forward. C) with the cg within limits there would be no change. D) nose down, cyclic stick back. 26637. (HELI: atpl, cpl) As forward speed is gained in level flight: A) total rotor thrust reduces initially, then increases. B) total rotor thrust reduces as translational lift is achieved. C) total rotor thrust increases. D) total rotor thrust remains constant. 26638. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The induced flow component of airflow through the rotor disc: A) in forward flight is evenly distributed about the disc. B) increases with forward speed to increase the mass flow. C) decreases with forward flight. D) remains constant throughout the helicopters speed range. 26639. (HELI: atpl, cpl) During a transition into forward flight from the hover, and maintaining level flight: A) power increases but total rotor thrust decreases. B) total rotor thrust decreases. C) total rotor thrust and power increase. D) total rotor thrust increases. 26640. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When the induced flow and the perpendicular component of horizontal flow are of the same magnitude: A) maximum power will be required, to maintain the correct rotor RPM. B) the flow through the disc will be at a maximum. C) for a particular blade pitch angle the angle of attack will be at a minimum. D) the flow throught the disc will be at a minimum. 26641. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With weight on the wheels / skids, and takeoff rotor RPM set: A) rotor profile power is at a maximum. B) the induced power is high. C) parasite power plus induced power equals rotor profile power. D) rotor profile power only is required. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 161 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com

26642 (B) 26643 (C) 26644 (B) 26645 (C) 26646 (D) 26647 (A) 26648 (A) 26649 (C) 26650 (B) 26652 (D) 26653 (D) 26654 (B) 26655 (D) 26657 (D) 26658 (A) 26642. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The parasite power required by a helicopter: A) is a minimum when total power required is a minimum. B) is a minimum at the hover. C) increases in direct proportion to forward speed. D) is a minimum at Mean Sea Level. 26643. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The total power required curve is the resultant of: A) induced power + rotor profile power - parasite power. B) induced power - parasite power - rotor profile power. C) induced power + rotor profile power + parasite power. D) power required + power in hand. 26644. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The range speed for piston engined helicopters is found by: A) noting the speed on the graph at which the power required is a minimum. B) drawing a line tangential to the power required curve from the point of origin of the graph. C) drawing a line tangential to the power required curve from the power available orgin. D) noting the speed on the graph where the ratio of power in hand to forward speed is greatest. 26645. (HELI: atpl, cpl) An overpitched situation is most likely to occur: A) when power required is low. B) when induced power is increasing. C) when manoeuvring at the hover. D) when carrying out a flare manoeuvre. 26646. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a level turn: A) the total power requirement is unchanged. B) the parasite power increases. C) the rotor profile power decreases. D) the induced power increases. 26647. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When the power required is greater than the power available and rotor RPM are decaying: A) the rotor is overpitched. B) the rotor is stalled. C) the rotor RPM can be recovered by opening the throttle. D) the lever must be raised to maintain the total rotor thrust required. 26648. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Recovery from retreating blade stall is made by: A) lowering the lever. B) flaring the aircraft to reduce speed. C) turning away from the wind. D) moving the cyclic further to increase speed. 26649. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The retreating blade will stall at: A) a higher IAS for an increase of AUW or increased altitude. B) a higher IAS for increased All Up Weight but at the same IAS for an increase in altitude. C) a lower IAS for an increase of AUW or increased altitude. D) a lower IAS for increased All Up Weight but at the same IAS for an increase in altitude. 26650. (HELI: atpl, cpl)

In flow roll: A) rolls a helicopter to the retreating blade. B) rolls a helicopter to the advancing blade. C) rolls the helicoper as the tail rotor pitches upwards during a transition. D) causes increased flapback with increase of forward speed. 26652. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Retreating blade stall: A) starts at the blade root because of the larger blade pitch angle. B) starts about mid span and develops outboard to the tips. C) is not dangerous as the blade negotiates the affected disc area rapidly. D) starts at the tip region and develops inboard. 26653. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Separation of the airflow from a blade: A) always occurs at the same speed. B) occurs with decreasing Mach number at decreasing angle of attack. C) occurs at a constant angle of attack. D) occurs with increasing Mach number at decreasing angle of attack. 26654. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a balanced level turn: A) retreating blade stall will occur at the same IAS as in straight and level flight. B) retreating blade stall will occur at a lower IAS than in straight and level flight. C) the larger the angle of bank the higher the IAS at which retreating blade stall will occur. D) retreating blade stall will occur at a higher IAS than in straight and level flight. 26655. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Longitudinal stability refers to movement about the: A) axis perpendicular on the vertical axis. B) longitudinal axis. C) axis of the tail rotor. D) lateral axis. 26657. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The plane of rotation is the plane through the rotor head parallel: A) the horizon. B) the relative airflow. C) the main rotor hubplane. D) the tip path plane. 26658. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blade loading is: A) the weight of the helicopter, divided by the total area of all the blades. B) the weight of the helicopter, divided by the disc area. C) the disc area, divided by the weight of the helicopter. D) the blade area, divided by the disc area x 100%. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 162 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26659 (B) 26660 (A) 26661 (A) 26662 (D) 26663 (D) 26664 (A) 26665 (C) 26666 (D) 26668 (D) 26671 (A) 26673 (A) 26676 (D) 26677 (D)

26659. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Which factors determine the magnitude and direction of the relative airflow in a still air hover? A) Lift and rotor drag. B) Induced flow velocity and blade section velocity. C) Total rotor thrust and rotor drag. D) Lift and total aerodynamic forces. 26660. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Total aerodynamic force is resolved to find rotor thrust and rotor drag. In which direction does rotor thrust act? A) Along the axis of rotation at right angles to the plane of rotation. B) Perpendicular to the relative airflow. C) Opposing fuselage parasite drag. D) Along the shaft axis. 26661. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The coning angle is determined by: A) blade lift and centrifugal force. B) the aerodynamic lift and drag produced by a blade. C) centrifugal force and rotor RPM. D) rotor thrust and rotor drag. 26662. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The centrifugal turning moment acting on the blade of a helicopter: A) is only caused by the balance weights attached to the helicopter blade. B) tends to roll the aircraft towards the advancing blades. C) tends to increase the blade pitch angle. D) tends to decrease the blade pitch angle. 26663. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Washout is: A) the difference between the blade section pitch angle and the angle of attack at any point along the blade. B) a reduction in the blade section pitch angle towards the tip to reduce the chances of retreating blade stall. C) a reduction in the blade section pitch angle towards the tip to delay the effects of compressibility. D) a reduction in the blade section pitch angle towards the tip to give a more even distribution of lift along the span of the blade. 26664. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Blade counter weights are sometimes used in order to: A) reduce the centrifugal turning moment or feathering moment. B) reduce the aerodynamic pitching moment. C) adjust the CG position on the blade. D) increase the centrifugal turning moment or feathering moment. 26665. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Tail rotor drift is corrected by: A) designing the tail rotor to be level with the main rotor. B) fitting delta three hinges to the tail rotor. C) tilting the main rotor disc in the opposite direction to the drift. D) fitting the tail rotor as a tractor type as opposed to a pusher type . 26666. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Cyclic pitch function is: A) to counteract flapback. B) to decrease the pitch angle on the advancing and retreating side thereby giving a differential in rotor thrust. C) to assist in flapback of the disc.

D) to make a continuous variation of pitch throughout the cycle of rotation, to obtain max pitch on the retreating side and min pitch on the advancing side when in forward flight. 26668. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flapping is: A) the angular movement of the blade in the horizontal plane. B) corrected by fitting a mixing unit, which causes the disc to tilt to the left when the lever is raised. C) controlled with respect to the tail rotor by moving the rudder pedals. D) movement of a blade perpendicular to the hub plane. 26671. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dragging of a blade takes place: A) in the plane of rotation. B) in the horizontal plane rotating about the vertical axis. C) in the vertical plane rotating about the axis of rotation. D) in the horizontal plane rotating about the shaft axis. 26673. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The negative range of tail rotor pitch is? A) For control in autorotation. B) To counteract tail rotor drift. C) To elimate tail rotor flapping. D) For control when carrying out a pro-torque spot turn. 26676. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The control orbit: A) refers to the range of movement, through 360 of the cyclic stick. B) is the amount of full cyclic stick movement. C) is the vertical movement of the swashplate system. D) represents the plane in which the upper pitchlink attachements are rotating. 26677. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a steady vertical climb and ignoring the parasite drag of the fuselage: A) rotor thrust is greater than weight and rotor required power is the same as that at the hover. B) rotor thrust is greater than weight and rotor required power is greater than that at the hover. C) rotor thrust balances weight and rotor required power is the same as that at the hover. D) rotor thrust balances weight but rotor required power is greater than that at the hover. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 163 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26678 (B) 26680 (B) 26681 (C) 26682 (D) 26683 (A) 26684 (D) 26686 (A) 26687 (D) 26689 (C) 26690 (C) 26691 (B) 26693 (C) 26694 (C) 26678. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Compared with a hover in ground effect, a helicopter when hovering out of ground effect: A) has the same total rotor thrust and rotor required power. B) has the same total rotor thrust and increased rotor required power. C) has increased total rotor thrust and increased rotor required power. D) has increased total rotor thrust and the same rotor required power.

26680. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Ground effect is most effective when hovering at a skid height: A) at normal 4 ft. B) below 4 ft. C) at approximately 3/4 of the rotor diameter. D) over tall grass. 26681. (HELI: atpl, cpl) At the hover and compared to sea level, the induced flow velocity will: A) show no change with altitude. B) decrease with altitude. C) increase with altitude. D) increase up to the optimum altitude and then decrease above the optimum altitude. 26682. (HELI: atpl, cpl) When hovering over long grass the power required to hover will be greater than that required over a smooth surface. Why is this? A) An increase in the pressure above the rotor disc. B) A decrease in the induced flow velocity through the rotor disc. C) Increased air pressure below the rotor disc as the air can t flow smoothly away. D) Greater recirculation of air through the rotor disc. 26683. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Flapping is: A) the angular movement of the blade above or below the hub plane. B) corrected by fitting a mixing unit, which causes the disc to tilt to the left when the lever is raised. C) controlled with respect to the tail rotor by moving the rudder pedals. D) the angular movement of the blade above or below the horizontal plane. 26684. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The advance angle of a particular helicopter is 74°. The phase lag for that particular helicopter will be approximately: A) 164° B) 16° C) 106° D) 90° 26686. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The induced flow component of airflow through the rotor disc: A) decreases with forward flight so influencing the angle of attack. B) increases with forward speed to increase the mass flow. C) in forward flight is evenly distributed about the disc. D) remains constant throughout the helicopters speed range. 26687. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Induced power: A) is affected only by change of speed. B) increases with forward speed. C) decreases in direct proportion to forward speed. D) is a maximum at the hover. 26689. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With reference to rotor design, forward speed is limited by:

A) engine power availability. B) tail rotor control availability. C) retreating blade stall and relative airspeed. D) lack of forward cyclic control. 26690. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A helicopter is most likely to encounter vortex ring under conditions of: A) cruising airspeed with power, rate of descent 500 ft/min. B) zero airspeed with power rate of descent less than 200 ft/ min. C) low airspeed with power, rate of descent greater than 300 ft/min. D) a vertical or low airspeed autorotation. 26691. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In autorotation when aft cyclic is applied the effect will be: A) a decrease in speed only. B) a decrease in airspeed and rate of descent. C) a decrease in airspeed and rotor RPM. D) an increase in airspeed and rotor RPM. 26693. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With a tail rotor positioned below the line of the main rotor, a helicopter at the hover will: A) fly left or right side low depending on which side of the helicopter the tail rotor is positioned. B) fly right side low if main rotor rotates anti-clockwise viewed from above. C) fly left side low if main rotor rotates anti-clockwise viewed from above. D) maintain a level attitude. 26694. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With reference to blade element theory, ground effect is caused by: A) an increased induced flow velocity. B) recirculation of the air through the disc giving greater mass flow. C) a decreased induced flow velocity. D) adecrease in pressure, below the disc. 082-02 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS 164 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26695 (D) 26697 (D) 26698 (A) 26699 (B) 26701 (B) 26702 (D) 26703 (D) 26704 (B) 26705 (A) 26706 (A) 26709 (C) 26695. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In a still air hover induced flow velocity is affected by: A) density only. B) the weight of the aircraft only. C) the rotatonal velocity and rotor drag. D) disc loading and density. 26697. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Dynamic roll over is: A) only experienced when taking off or landing on sloping ground. B) caused by inflow roll and cannot be restrained by cyclic control. C) reduced in helicopters with a high cg because of reduced angular momentum about the undercarriage. D) a condition whereby a rolling motion with wheels in contact with the ground cannot be restrained by cyclic control.

26698. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A nose down pitch attitude in forward flight is caused by: A) the horizontal component of total rotor thrust acting above parasite drag. B) drag acting above the thrust. C) lift acting forward of weight. D) the vertical component of total rotor thrust acting forward of the weight. 26699. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The minimum value of the power required curve determines: A) the TAS for maximum range. B) the TAS for maximum rate of climb speed. C) the TAS for maximum angle of climb. D) the aircraft s VNO. 26701. (HELI: atpl, cpl) With forward flight, thrust on the advancing side of a tail rotor system: A) decreases by the upward flapping movement of the blade increasing the angle of attack. B) is kept approximately constant because movement of the blade about its flapping axis reduces the angle of attack. C) increases by the downward flapping movement of the blade decreasing the angle of attack. D) is kept constant because the pilot reduces the blade pitch angle with the rudder pedals. 26702. (HELI: atpl, cpl) On a main rotor, if the flapping hinge is offset: A) it has no effect on the control power of the helicopter. B) it increases control movement. C) it maintains thrust symmetry. D) it improves cyclic control response. 26703. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The centrifugal turning moment: A) prevents the rotor blades from flapping. B) tends to increase the blade pitch angle. C) increases the yaw rate. D) tends to decrease the blade pitch angle. 26704. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In autorotation the tail rotor thrust on a helicopter with anticlockwise main rotor rotation as seen from above is: A) to the right. B) to the left. C) not required as there is no fuselage torque reaction. D) equal in magnitude to that required in powered flight but in the opposite direction. 26705. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Induced power: A) is a maximum at the hover. B) increases with forward speed. C) decreases in direct proportion to forward speed. D) is affected only by a change of speed. 26706. (HELI: atpl, cpl) In the flare, the resultant aerodynamic forces on the blades: A) moves forward, towards the axis of rotation. B) moves further aft, away from the axis of rotation. C) moves very little, remaining substantially vertical. D) reduces, due to the decrease in the angle of attack. 26709. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A reduction in blade section pitch angle towards the tip is

termed: A) upwash. B) washin. C) washout. D) downwash. PICTURE SUPLEMENTS 166 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 080 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 167 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 150 200 250 300 350 400 450 45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 Indicated Airspeed - kts Pressure Altitude - 1000 ft Level Flight 1.0g No Turbulence 60 70 80 90 M0.8 M0.6 M0.9 M0.7 M MO VMO V / MRA RA Aircraft weights in lb x 1000 Low and High Speed Buffer Onset Boundary FIGURE 081-01 080 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 168 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com .50 .55 .60 .65 .70 .75 .80 1 1.5 2 2.5 380 360 340 320 300 280 260 240 220

200 180 160 140 120 100 80 60 400 4101 2 1 3 Indicated Mach Load Factor Weight (t) 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 Data Results Weight 120 t Load factor 1g Level 350 Mach Nr. 0.80 Level 350 Weight 120 t 1 Low speed buffeting at M = 0.60 2 High speed buffeting at M > 0.84 At Mach 0.80 Buffeting takes place at 48° bank or 1.5g 3 Flight level EXAMPLE Buffet Onset Boundary Chart - Clean Configuration 30 45 50 55 60 65 LATERAL ANGLE (°) FIGURE 081-02 080 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 169 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 370 350 330 310 290 270 250 240 220 200 180 160 140 120 100

80 60 410 390 .50 .55 .60 .65 .70 .75 .80 .85 MMO 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 1 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2 2.2 2.4 NOTE: FOR MACH NUMBERS ABOVE OR EQUAL TO 0.82 THERE IS NO CG VARIATION EFFECT FROM REFERENCE VALUE REF FLIGHT LEVEL WEIGHT (t) 150 140 130 120 110 100 90 80 MACH NUMBER CG% LOAD FACTOR V LIMIT MO 30 45 50 55 60 65 BANK ANGLE (°) BUFFET ONSET clean configuration FIGURE 081-03 080 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 170 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com X TAS TIME A) V B) V C) V D) V A B C D A B C D CL CD FIGURE 081-04 FIGURE 081-05 Drag TAS A B C D

FIGURE 081-06 FIGURE 081-07 FIGURE 081-08 FIGURE 081-09 1 2 Relative Wind V V2 V1 = Stagnation Point FIGURE 081-10 1 2 3 4 FIGURE 081-11