010 - Air Law & Atc Procedures

Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 Visual Flight Rules Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take 0 off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the

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ceiling is less than 1 500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

ceiling is less than 1 000 ceiling is less than 2 ft or the ground visibility 000 ft or the ground is less than 5 km. visibility is less than 5 km.

01 Authority The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the: 0

Pilot-in-command.

aircraft owner.

01 Avoidance of collisions The highest priority for landing has: 0

an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace. a military aircraft.

RispostaD ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km. Operator.

01 The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are: 0

clear of clouds; 8 km visibility

01 Visual Flight Rules Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in 0 accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:

a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.

01 A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air 0 Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 01 Interception An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall 0 immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A 01 Interception An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to 0 establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency

5%

an aircraft on a an Air diplomatic flight (Head Ambulance of state). carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention. a distance from cloud of a distance from cloud of a distance from 1000 m horizontally and 1500 m horizontally and cloud of 600 m 1000 ft vertically and a 1000 ft vertically and a horizontally and flight visibility of 5 km. flight visibility of 8 km. 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km. 1 mile horizontally and 1 2 000 metres 1 nautical mile 000 feet vertically from horizontally, 1 000 feet horizontally and clouds; 5 km visibility vertically from clouds; 8 1 000 feet km visibility vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility a distance from cloud: a distance from cloud: 1 a distance from 1500 m horizontally, Nautical Mile (NM) cloud: 1 1000 ft vertically, flight horizontally, 1000 ft Nautical Mile visibility: 5 km. vertically, flight (NM) visibility: 5 km. horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km. 3% 2% 10 %

Code 7700.

Code 7500.

Code 7600.

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz.

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.

121.5 MHz. If no contact 243 MHz. If no has been established, contact has and if practicable, been repeat this call on the established, frequency 282.8 MHz. and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz. Circling the intercepted Rocking aircraft aircraft in a counterand flashing

01 Visual Flight Rules An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between a distance from cloud 0 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.

01 Interception, DAY or NIGHT Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot An abrupt break-away 0 of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"? manoeuvre from the

Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting

Code 7000.

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intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

aircraft, after acknowledgement by intercepted aircraft a slow level turn (normally to the left).

clockwise pattern for aeroplanes, in a clockwise pattern for helicopter.

navigational lights at regular intervals.

Switching on and off three times the landing lights

Switching on and off four times the landing lights

01 If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common 0 language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing? 01 If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common 0 language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received? 01 A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: 0

Descend

Let down

You land

Switching on and off four times the navigation lights Descend for landing

CAN NOT

CAN NOT COMPLY

UNABLE TO COMPLY

The airport is unsafe, do not land

The airport is temporarily Give way to other closed, continue circling aircraft in emergency

01 On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: 0

aircraft taking off or about to take off

01 Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying 0 IFR outside controlled airspace?

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft

01 Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with 0 no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?

Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

01 Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? 0

Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

01 Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio 0 failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

01 While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What The appropriate ATC 0 action must be taken? unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit 01 A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Raise arm and hand, 0 with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist

NOT POSSIBLE

Continue circling and wait for further instructions other vehicles and other converging all vehicles pedestrians aircraft moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle 2 000 feet above the 1 000 feet above the 2 000 feet highest obstacle within 8 highest obstacle within above the kilometres of course 8 nautical miles of highest course obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its Aircraft "A" regardless Aircraft "B" right of the direction which regardless of "B" is approaching the direction "A" is approaching Inform the ATC unit If VMC, maintain this Notify ATC of immediately condition, waiting for the new track the ATC instructions immediately and comply with instructions Request an amended Submit a detailed report Squawk 7700 clearance or cancel the to ATC within 24 hours IFR flight plan

Arms down , palms facing Crossing arms extended inwards, moving arms above his head from extended position inwards.

Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the 0 sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

01 A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: 0

01 Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach 0 between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal. 01 OCA An OCA is referenced to: 0 01 Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by 0 a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track: 01 Circling approach One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: 0

01 Holding procedures If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal 0 conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:

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land on the closest adopt a VFR flight level appropriate aerodrome, and continue flight onto then advise Air Traffic destination Services of landing

continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.

Not with standing any Come back and land. previous instructions, do not land for the time being. Base turn Procedure turn

Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

descend to Enroute Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

Reversal procedure

Race track

Mean Sea Level Procedure turn.

The required visual references have been established and can be maintained. advise ATC as early as possible.

01 Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in 0 still air conditions is: 01 Holding procedures (entry) You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published 0 procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure: 01 Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still 0 air conditions is: 01 Altimeter setting (change during climb) On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the 0 altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: 01 AIP Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is 0 provided? 01 AIP Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades 0 available? 01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger 0 areas?

1 minute.

01 A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or 0 legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: 01 A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures 0 and distributed in advance of its effective date is: 01 Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for 0 areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: 01 "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using 0 instrument approach procedures.

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the Aerodrome Reference the relevant Runway Point Threshold Base turn. Race track.

an Aerodrome Elevation Reversal track.

The landing runway and The horizontal Visibility The Ceiling is an alternative landing is at least 5 NM and the 1500 ft or possibility (runway) are in Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher. sight. higher. execute a non-standard remain within the follow the radio holding pattern in protected area, but may communication accordance with the deviate from the failure performance of his prescribed holding. procedure. aeroplane. 2 minutes. 1,5 minutes. 30 seconds.

either offset or parallel. offset only.

parallel or direct.

direct only.

1 minute 30 seconds.

1 minute.

2 minutes.

transition altitude.

transition layer.

transition level.

GEN

ENR

METEO

2 minutes 30 seconds. level specified by ATC. AD

AD

ENR

GEN

FAL

ENR

GEN

AD

Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). An AIRAC.

Aeronautical Information NOTAM. Publication (AIP).

The AIP does not contain this information AIRAC.

A NOTAM RAC.

Integrated Aeronautical Only AIP and NOTAMs. Information Package.

An ATS NOTAM. AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.

Non precision approach Precision approach Instrument approach runways, precision runways category I, II and runways, precision

An Advisory NOTAM. Only NOTAMs and Circulars. Precision approach

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01 "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear 0 wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: 01 "TODA" take-off distance available is: 0

01 "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: 0

01 Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel 0 base of 15 m? 01 According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing 0 span of: 01 In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: 0 01 The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the 0 aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: 01 According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft 0 reference field length of: 01 The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available 0 prepared as a suitable area where:

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approach runways category I, II and III. 18 m.

III.

The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. Code letter "C". 52 m up to but not including 65 m.

RispostaC approach runways category I, II and III. 23 m.

runways in general. 25 m.

Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided). Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

Code letter "B".

Code letter "D".

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off. Code letter "E".

36 m up to but not including 52 m.

24 m up to but not including 36 m.

15 m.

The aircraft wing span Only the aircraft wing and the outer main span. gear wheel span. 2B. 6D.

15 m up to but not including 24 m. The width of the aircraft The length of wing. the aircraft fuselage. 5E. 4F.

1 800 m and over.

1 500 m.

1 600 m.

An aircraft can be A landing aircraft can be A landing aircraft can stopped in the case of stopped if overcoming be stopped only in an abandoned take-off. the end of runway. emergency.

01 "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: 0

The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .

01 How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide 0 path defined by a PAPI? 01 Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: 0 01 In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: 0

2.

The length of the runway The length of the takeplus the length of stop off run available plus way available (if stop way the length of stop way provided). and clearway (if provided) . 3. None.

Fixed lights showing green. Fixed lights showing variable white.

Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing yellow. Flashing lights showing Fixed lights showing variable white. variable green.

01 The abbreviation PAPI stands for: 0 01 The "PAPI" shall consist of: 0

01 In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red 0 and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: 01 In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: 0

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1 200 m. An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway. 1.

Fixed lights showing white. Flashing lights showing variable green. Precision Approach Precision Approach Path Precision Approach Precision Path Indicator. Index. Power Indicator. Approach Power Index. A wing bar of 4 sharp Two wing bars of 4 sharp Two wing bars of 6 A wing bar of 2 transition multi-lamp or transition multi-lamp or sharp transition multi- sharp transition paired units equally paired units equally lamp or paired units multi-lamp spaced. spaced. equally spaced. equally spaced. On or close to the Above the approach Below the approach Only on the approach slope. slope. slope. approach slope. By a letter - for By a number like "0" and By a letter for 2 parallel By a letter - for example 2 parallel "01" for 2 parallel runways. example 3

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01 Taxiway edge lights shall be: 0 01 Runway end lights shall be: 0

01 Runway threshold lights shall be: 0

01 Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: 0 01 Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: 0 01 The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: 0

01 In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 0 01 In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the 0 centre line have a length of: 01 High intensity obstacle lights should be: 0 01 Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: 0 01 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: 0 01 The runway edge lights shall be: 0 01 A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: 0

01 The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: 0

01 The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State 0 shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.

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runways "L" and "R" for 3 "L", "C" and "R".

runways.

Fixed showing blue.

Fixed showing green.

Fixed unidirectional Fixed unidirectional lights lights showing red in showing white in the the direction of the direction of the runway. runway. Fixed unidirectional Fixed unidirectional lights lights showing green in showing white in the the direction of direction of approach to approach to the the runway. runway. Fixed lights showing Fixed lights, white or variable white. yellow colour. Flashing white. Fixed green.

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Fixed showing yellow. Fixed lights showing variable red.

Fixed lights green colours.

RispostaD parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter. Flashing showing blue. Fixed lights showing variable white. Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

Fixed lights showing Flashing white. variable white or yellow. Flashing green. Fixed white.

Green colour Blue colour identification White and green colour White colour identification given by given by Morse Code. identification given by identification Morse Code. Morse Code. given by Morse Code. 3. 2. 4. 5. 300 m.

150 m.

200 m.

250 m.

Flashing white.

Flashing red.

Fixed red.

Fixed orange.

Flashing red or preferably yellow. Fixed red.

Fixed red or preferably orange. Flashing red.

Fixed red or preferably blue. Flashing yellow.

Flashing blue.

white

blue

green

red

Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

Need special precautions while approaching for landing. The longest aeroplane maximum width only

The aerodrome is being An area unit for the used by gliders and movement of aircraft. that glider flights are being performed. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. The stated above is correct.

Fixed orange.

The over-all length of the The over-all length of longest aeroplane the longest aeroplane. normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. The operator has no The obligation is for the The obligation obligation. Contracting State of the of the operator operator. terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 Search and Rescue The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue 0 service is the: 01 Accident, incident notification and reporting After landing, while taxiing towards the apron, the 0 landing gear of your aircraft sinks into a hole. No persons are injured, but the aircraft sustains structural damage. As a consequence you have to cancel the onward flight.

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01 A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: 0

Control area.

Flight Information Centre Since there is no person This is an irregularity in injured and the flight is the operation. The crew terminated, a damage must inform the report has to be made operator of the out with the services of aerodrome and the aerodrome in charge establish a report. of the runway and taxiways for the insurance company. Control zone. Advisory airspace.

01 A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: 0 01 ATS airspace's where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control 0 service and are separated from each other is classified as: 01 Aerodrome traffic is: 0

Control zone.

Control area.

Air traffic zone.

Class B.

Class A.

Class D.

All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.

All traffic on the manoeuvring area.

All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.

01 Air Traffic Service unit means: 0

Rescue Co-ordination Centre This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

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01 Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? 0

The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

01 Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: 0

Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

01 Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: 0

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.

01 A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 0

5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

Alerting Centre

Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.

RispostaD Area Control Centre This is an incident and the pilot-incommand must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours. Flight Information Region. Advisory airspace. Class E. All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.

Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices. The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome located within a Control located within a shall be located Zone. controlled airspace. within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. Flight Information Flight Information Flight Service, Alerting Service Service only. Information and Advisory Service. Service and Advisory Service. A controlled airspace A controlled airspace A controlled extending upwards from extending upwards from airspace a height of 900 feet the surface of the earth extending above the earth. to a specified limit. upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth. 10 miles from the centre 15 miles from the 20 miles from of the aerodrome or centre of the aerodrome the centre of aerodromes concerned in or aerodromes the aerodrome the direction from which concerned in the or aerodromes approaches may be direction from which concerned in made. approaches may be the direction made. from which approaches

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01 A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not 200 metres. 0 less than: 01 The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre 0 Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office. 01 Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions 0 between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic 01 Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation 0 between controlled flights 01 Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Achieving separation 0 between controlled flights 01 You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean? If not airborne until 0 0920, a new clearance has to be issued 01 When are ATIS broadcasts updated? 0

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

01 When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is 0 the responsibility of the:

operational air traffic control centres

01 The Alerting Service is provided by: 0

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

01 The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 0

01 A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: 0

There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

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RispostaD may be made. 500 metres.

300 metres.

150 metres.

Area Control Centre Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.

Area Control Centre Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre Approach Control Office and Tower.

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region Approach Control Office and Tower.

Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Achieving separation between IFR flights

Providing flight Information Service

Providing advisory service Providing flight Providing advisory Providing Information Service services alerting services Do not take off before The take off clearance After 0920 0920 is expected at 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan Every 30 minutes if Only when weather Only when the weather conditions are conditions change ceiling and/or below those for VFR ; enough to require a visibility otherwise hourly change in the active changes by a runway or instrument reportable approach in use value flight information or air traffic co-ordination search and control organisations services rescue coordination centres The ATC unit responsible Only by ATC units. The Area for the aircraft at that Control moment, when it is Centres. provided with 121.5 MHz. uncertainty phase, uncertainty phase, uncertainty urgency phase, distress distress phase, urgency phase, alert phase. phase. phase, distress phase and urgency phase. The aeroplane has The aeroplane will not The aeroplane suffered damages which be able to reach a or a impair its fitness to fly. suitable aerodrome. passenger's safety require the flight immediately

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01 Alert phase is defined as follows: 0

A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.

01 Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is: 0

Controlled Traffic not Controlled Traffic separated from another separated from other controlled traffic with controlled traffic with the the prescribed prescribed separation separation minima. minima.

01 General provisions - change from IFR to VFR A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual 0 flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when

the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR flight".

the PIC has requested and obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.

01 General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay of a 0 controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:

30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

01 General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444) A complete 0 position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

01 General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance Who is in general responsible for an ATC 0 clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

The pilot-in-command. The aircraft operator.

01 General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay for an estimated off-block 0 uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a time by 60 minutes. new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original 01 Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC Which procedure do you follow after having Continue to fly in VMC, 0 experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC? land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit. 01 General provisions - amended clearance If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command The PIC may request 0 of an aircraft and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

estimated off-block time by 30 minutes. Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA. The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots request.

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interrupted. A situation related to an A situation aircraft and its related to an occupants are aircraft which considered to be in a reports that the state of emergency. fuel on board is exhausted. Controlled IFR flights Uncontrolled separated from IFR flights uncontrolled flights separated from within advisory uncontrolled airspace. VFR flights within advisory airspace. the position of the ATC invites the change has been noted PIC to change on the ATC flight plan. from IFR to The cancellation of the VFR. IFR flight will then be made automatically by ATC. 60 minutes of the 60 minutes of estimated time off the estimated blocks. time of departure. 1) Aircraft identification, 1) Aircraft 2) position, 3) time, 4) identification, true air speed, 5) flight 2) position, 3) level or altitude, 6) next time, 4) flight position and time over. level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over. The ATC. The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan. estimated departure estimated time by 60 minutes. departure time by 30 minutes. Maintain the assigned Continue to fly level and route and land in VMC and at the nearest return to the aerodrome where VMC aerodrome of conditions prevail. departure.

The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC.

The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended

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01 Separation - VMC and own separation The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in 0 visual meteorological conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are: 01 Separation Methods and Minima - General What are the controlled traffic separation methods 0 applied by ATC? 01 Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for 0 flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is: 01 Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for 0 flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is: 01 Communications Failure - Flight Procedures You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly 0 on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised". At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again. 01 Separation methods and minima - vertical separation Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical 0 Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is: 01 Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be 0 utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to

01 General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance When does Air Traffic Control Services have the 0 responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?

01 One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: 0

01 The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: 0

01 When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: 0

01 One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: 0

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Airspace Class D and E, Airspace Class C, VMC, VMC, hours of daylight hours of daylight

Airspace Class C, D, VMC

Vertical and horizontal Vertical, horizontal and separation. angular separation. 1000 feet (300 m). 2000 feet (600 m).

Time separation and track separation. 500 feet (150 m).

2000 feet (600 m).

500 feet (150 m).

RispostaD clearances will only be given when VMC prevails. Airspace Class B. C, D and E, VMC

You have to return to You continue on Heading You continue on your current flight plan 050. Heading 050 for 15 route. minutes.

Composite separation. 2500 feet (750 m). 4000 feet (1200 m). You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.

4 000 feet.

1 500 feet.

pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.

1000 feet (300 m).

2 000 feet.

3 000 feet.

notify the time when keep distance and time maintain a passing a specified point. equal between aircraft specified in the approach. airspeed during the approach procedure. When a flight in Always when ATS are ATS never prevent ATS only accordance with IFR is provided. collisions with terrain. provides vectored by radar. prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC. To conduct surveillance To apply a reduced To apply a horizontal To provide radar approaches. vertical separation of 500 separation less than 5 instructions in feet between IFR flights NM. order to reduce and VFR flights. separations minima, if accepted by the pilots. To provide radar To assist aircraft due to To assist aircraft on the To assist separation. failure of airborne location storms. aircraft where equipment. navigation appears unsatisfactory. Inform the aircraft prior Inform the aircraft only if not advise the aircraft Inform the to issue any communication's load before issuing aircraft only if instructions or advice permits it. instructions. radar based on the use of identification radar. has been achieved without availability of SSR. To conduct precision To apply a horizontal To apply a reduced To provide radar approach (PAR). separation less than 5 vertical separation of instructions to

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

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RispostaA

01 Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) 2 NM. 0 shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 01 When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: Observation of 0 compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON". 01 Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved To instruct the pilot to 0 by one of the following procedures: execute one or more changes of 30° or more. 01 Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful Code 7500. 0 interference? 01 Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been 0 identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

NM.

500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.

reduce the separation minima. 3 NM.

4 NM.

5 NM.

To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".

To request pilot to set To request pilot transponder on position to switch from "OFF". "ON" to "STDBY".

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.

Code 7700.

Code 7600.

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°. Code 2000.

ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost. 01 What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been You should maintain Radar Service is Advisories will no longer You are still in 0 vectored to an airway? that airway by use of terminated. be issued by ATC. radar contact, your navigation but must make equipment. position reports. 01 The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency 31th of December the 15th of October the same 30th of October the 30th of April 0 check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed: same year year same year the following year 01 Abbreviations What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168) Obstacle identification Obstacle in surface. Obstacle identification Obstruction in 0 surface. slope. surface. 01 Abbreviations In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168) Departure end of Distance error in routing. Direct entry route. Displaced end 0 runway. of runway. 01 Instrument Departure Procedure – Wind correction Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots correct the track for request from ATC an ignore the wind and request a 0 are expected to: known wind to remain adequate heading to proceed on a heading clearance from within the protected cater for wind direction equal to the track. ATC with airspace. and strength. regards to a wind correction to be applied. 01 Departure procedure – Design The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument the terrain surrounding ATC availability and availability of airspace 0 departure procedure is/are: the aerodrome. requirements. navigation aids. restrictions applicable and in force. 01 Instrument Departure Procedures – Obstacle Clearance The minimum obstacle clearance at the 0 ft. 3.3 % gradient. 35 ft. 0.8 % gradient. 0 departure end of runway equals: 01 Standard Instrument Departure Procedures – Straight Departures A straight departure is one in 15°. 30°. 45°. 12.5°. 0 which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda RispostaA b 01 Holding procedures – Offset Entry Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track 1 minute 30 seconds. 0 is limited to: 01 Arrival and Approach segments, General What are the names of all separate segments that can be Arrival, initial, 0 part of an instrument approach procedure? intermediate, final, missed approach.

01 Approach Procedures –Arrival and Approach Segments The minimum obstacle clearance in the 0 primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least: 01 Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments – Intermediate approach segment What is the 0 minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? 01 Approach procedures – Arrival and approach segments In an instrument approach procedure, the 0 segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: 01 Approach procedures – Final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach 0 segment begins at the: 01 Approach procedures – final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path 0 interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

300m (984 ft).

RispostaB 1 minute.

RispostaC 2 minutes.

Initial, intermediate, final. Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

150m (492 ft).

450m (1476 ft).

300m (984 ft) reducing 150m (492 ft) reducing to 450m (1476 ft) to 150 m (492 ft). 0 m. reducing to 150 m (492 ft). Final approach Initial approach segment. Intermediate approach segment. segment. FAP. FAF. MAP. 300m (984 ft) to 900m 300m (984 ft) to 600m (2955 ft). (1968 ft).

01 Approach procedures – Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS The ILS obstacle clearance Half a scale deflection One full scale deflection 0 surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than: after being established after being established on the track. on the track.

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. Visual approach.

RispostaD 3 minutes. Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach. 600m (1968 ft). 300 m (984 ft) reducing to 0 m. Arrival segment. IF.

150m (492 ft) to 300m 150m (492 ft) (984 ft). to 900m (2955 ft). A quarter of a scale One and a half deflection after being of a scale established on the deflection after track. being established on the track. Arrival, intermediate Initial and final. and final. Contact approach. Aerodrome traffic pattern.

01 Approach Procedures – Missed Approach – Phases A complete missed approach procedure consists of 0 the following phases? 01 Approach Procedures – Circling The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing 0 an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: 01 Approach Procedures – Circling It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector 0 where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:

Initial, intermediate and final. Visual manoeuvring (circling).

Prohibits circling within Permits circling only in the total sector in VMC. which the obstacle exists.

Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

01 Approach Procedures – Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is: 0

A visual flight A visual manoeuvre to be manoeuvre keeping the conducted only in IMC. runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.

A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.

01 Holding Procedures - Entry Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of 0 flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: 01 Holding Procedures – Buffer Area How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the 0 buffer area? 01 Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Altitude The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as 0 low as possible but normally not less than: 01 Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Level The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the 0 transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported: 01 SSR – Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the 0 transponder:

5°.

10°.

15°.

Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway. A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained. 20°.

5 NM.

3 NM.

5 km.

3 km.

3000 ft.

2500 ft.

1500 ft.

1000 ft.

as Flight Level.

as Height.

as Altitude.

At all times during flight, regardless of

Only when the aircraft is Only when the aircraft flying within airspace is flying within

According to pilot's choice. Only when directed by

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

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RispostaA

RispostaC

RispostaD

where SSR is used for ATS controlled airspace. purposes.

ATC.

only when directed by ATC.

regardless of ATC instructions.

01 SSR – Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall 7500. 0 indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code 01 SSR – Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they: are requested by ATC. 0

7700.

7600.

only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. 7000.

01 SSR – Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall: 0

read back the mode and code to be set.

use the word ROGER.

use the word WILCO.

01 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where 0 navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: 01 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where 0 navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 01 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where 0 navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 01 The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and 0 following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 01 The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and 0 following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 01 When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following 0 minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

operate outside controlled airspace. read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT. 3 minutes.

5 minutes.

3 minutes.

10 minutes.

15 minutes.

3 minutes.

5 minutes.

6 minutes.

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

3 minutes.

10 minutes.

2 minutes.

3 minutes.

5 minutes.

10 minutes.

8 minutes.

01 The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses 0 DME stations, is:

20 NM.

01 The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, 0 is:

10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

01 SSR – Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall 0 continuously operate this mode

whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. unless otherwise directed by ATC.

RispostaB

operate within controlled operate a transponder airspace. with Mode C.

15 minutes at the time 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed. the level is crossed.

5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

20 minutes at the time the level is crossed. 10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the 20 NM provided that the 10 NM provided leading aircraft maintains leading aircraft that the leading a true airspeed of 40 kt maintains a true aircraft or more faster than the airspeed of 10 kt or maintains a succeeding aircraft. more faster than the true airspeed of succeeding aircraft. 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, 0 provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is: 01 A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace 0 classified as: 01 One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging 0 by at least:

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

80 NM.

60 NM.

50 NM.

20 NM.

B.

B and C.

B, C and D.

B, C, D and E.

45° immediately after take-off.

30° immediately after take-off.

15° immediately after take-off.

01 When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such 0 as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than: 01 The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer 0 with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence: 01 The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: 0

30 degrees.

25° immediately after take-off. The preceding aircraft is The preceding aircraft is The preceding 30 kt or more faster than 20 kt or more faster aircraft is 10 kt the following aircraft. than the following or more faster aircraft. than the following aircraft. 25 degrees. 15 degrees. 20 degrees.

3 NM.

2 NM.

5 NM.

3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.

01 The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the 0 controller is accurate shall be: 01 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation 0 minimum shall be: 01 The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall 0 be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): 01 An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived 0 level information indicated that it is within: 01 An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived 0 level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: 01 The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 0 01 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the 0 non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately: 01 An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if 0 the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last: 01 When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance 0 radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: 01 Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request 0 radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: 01 The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: 0

+/- 300 ft.

+/- 200 ft.

2.0 NM between aircraft 5.0 NM on the same localizer between course. aircraft on the same localizer course. +/- 250 ft. +/- 500 ft.

5.0 NM.

3.0 NM.

10.0 NM.

3.5 NM.

+/- 300 ft.

+/- 200 ft.

+/- 150 ft.

+/- 250 ft.

+/- 300 ft of the assigned level. More than 300 ft.

+/- 200 ft of the assigned +/- 250 ft of the level. assigned level. 300 ft. +/- 300 ft.

3.0 NM.

5.0 NM.

2.0 NM.

+/- 500 ft of the assigned level. More than 200 ft. 1.5 NM.

8 NM.

10 NM.

5 NM.

6 NM.

2 NM.

3 NM.

1 NM.

4 NM.

2.5 NM from touchdown. +/- 15 kt.

1 NM from touchdown. +/- 8 kt.

01 Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, The preceding aircraft 0 when: is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

01 Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic 0 advisory service:

2 NM from touchdown. 3 NM from touchdown. +/- 20 kt.

+/- 10 kt.

2.5 NM.

4 NM from the 2 NM from the threshold 3 NM from the threshold 5 NM from the threshold on final on final approach. on final approach. threshold on approach. final approach. Shall nevertheless Shall nevertheless submit need to file a flight plan may file a flight submit a flight plan and a flight plan but changes plan under notify changes made made thereto are not pilot's thereto to the ATS unit necessary to be notified. discretion. providing that service.

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda RispostaA RispostaB b 01 Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid Red Blue 0 equipment is: 01 The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival Yellow for blankets and Red for food and water. 0 equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: protective clothing. 01 Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is: 0 01 The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated 0 medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:

Blue

Red

A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial operations.

01 In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another 0 contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:

Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.

01 The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: 0

01 The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: 0

01 Altimeter setting procedures – transition altitude / level In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended 0 landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:

01 Altimeter setting procedures – Transition Layer When flying through the transition layer the vertical 0 position of the aircraft should be expressed as: 01 Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light 0 system?

01 The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? 0 01 What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? 0 01 Change from IFR to VFR will always take place: 0

RispostaC

RispostaD

Black

Yellow

Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment. Black

Black for food and water. Yellow

A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.

Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial operations. Shall not extend beyond Is only one year for ATPL and considered for PCL. PPL.

Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence. binding for the member advice and guidance for binding for all member binding for all states that have not the aviation legislation states air line notified ICAO about a within the member states companies with national difference international traffic limitation of the the regulation of operator¹s licence for the security operator's liability for transportation of international scheduled system at damage caused to dangerous goods aviation airports passengers and goods transported altitude above mean altitude above mean sea flight level at or below flight level at or sea level at or below level at or above the the transition level below the the transition altitude transition altitude transition altitude altitude during descent altitude during climb flight level during either altitude descent or flight level during climb 5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line 3 crossbars, centre line 3 crossbars, with 3, 2 and 1 lamp with 3 or 2 lamps per with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per centre line with per light unit light unit light unit 3 or 2 lamps per light unit The radar identity of The pilot does not have The aircraft is subject to Position reports the aircraft has been to follow up the position positive control may be omitted established of the aircraft 1000 feet 500 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet on the initiative of the aircraft commander

at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions

as instructed by an air traffic control unit

when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during

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RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

01 Approach procedures – Circling The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, 0 while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:

Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.

Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.

01 Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? 0

ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention

ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

01 Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for 0 adoption?

the Air Navigation Commission

the Assembly

01 You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL 0

With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating 1 year

With a PPL plus CPL theory

VMC Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions. ICAO must be informed ICAO must be about changes in the informed about national regulations new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses the Council the Regional Air Navigation meeting With a PPL plus flight With a CPL instructor rating

6 months

5 years

2 years

GEN

ENR

AD

LOC

17 years

16 years

18 years

21 years

70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

50 degrees with the 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the plane of symmetry of latter the latter

01 The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: 0 01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"? 0 01 The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 0 01 An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a 0 line forming an angle of less than:

01 Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? 0

01 VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are: 0

01 During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication 0 failure. You will:

01 An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which 0 freedom of the Air will be exercised? 01 Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed 0 adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: 01 What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: 0 01 What is a "barrette"? 0

If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground contact.

80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter Service provided: Service provided: Air Service provided: Traffic Service Traffic Information as Traffic Control Service; Information as far as provided: Air far as practical; ATC ATC Clearance: required ; practical; ATC Traffic Control Clearance: not required Clearance: required ; Service; ATC ; Clearance: not required 8 km visibility, and 5 km visibility, 1500 m 8 km visibility, 1500 m No minima, VFR clear of clouds ; horizontal and 1000 ft horizontal and 1000 ft flights are not vertical distance from vertical distance from permitted clouds ; clouds ; Land at the nearest Select A7600 and Descend to the flight Land at the suitable aerodrome continue according level submitted for that nearest suitable maintaining VMC and current flight plan to portion of flight ; aerodrome and inform ATC ; destination ; inform ATC 2nd freedom 1st freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom 20 knots and not within 10 knots and not within 5 15 knots at any stage 4 NM of threshold NM of threshold 900m 150m 300m

25 knots at any stage 600m

three or more ground a high obstacle near the lights closely spaced runway and/or taxiway. together to appear as a

a frangible structure on which approach

a CAT II or III holding position.

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01 When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: 0 01 Approach Procedures – Non-precision – straight-in A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to 0 be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is: 01 To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E : 0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

bar of lights. 300 m from threshold

150 m from threshold

450 m from threshold

30° or less

40° or less

20° or less

two way radio communication is not required.

a clearance is required.

a clearance and twoway radio communication is required.

RispostaD lights are fixed. 600 m from threshold 10° or less

a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required. 01 Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? If it is anticipated that Approach control have to An approach sequence During a visual 0 an aircraft has to hold advise the aircraft shall be established approach an for 30 minutes or more, operators about according to the aircraft is an Expected Approach substantial delays in sequence of initial radio maintaining its Time will be departure in any event contact between own transmitted by the when they are expected aircraft and approach separation ; most expeditious to exceed 45 minutes ; control ; means to the aircraft 01 Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain 1NM 2NM 3NM 5NM 0 distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within: 01 Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: of group of at least always of a straight row of flashing lights only; of an arbitrary 0 three white lights of lights towards the amount of flashing in sequence runway green lights; towards the runway ; 01 Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? Alerting Service and The Alert phase is The distress phase is Aircraft in the 0 Flight Information established when no established when an vicinity of an Service are often communication has been aircraft is known or aircraft known provided by the same received from an aircraft believed to be the or believed to ATS unit within a period of thirty subject of unlawful be the subject minutes after the time a interference of unlawful communication should interference, have been received; shall be informed about this; 01 Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? An aircraft entering the The aerodrome control Suspension of VFR ATC permission 0 traffic circuit without service is a service operations can not be is required for permission of ATC, will provided for the purpose initiated by the entering the be cleared to land if of preventing collisions aerodrome controller; apron with a this is desirable ; between aircraft on the vehicle movement area; 01 Which statement is correct? The lower limit of a The lower limit of a CTA The upper limit of a CTR The lower limit 0 TMA shall be shall be established at a shall be established at a of an UIR may established at a height height of at least 1500ft height of at least 3000ft coincide with of at least 700ft AGL; AGL; AMSL; an IFR cruising level 01 The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a Composite separation Combined separation Reduced separation Essential 0 maximum of half the standard criteria is called: separation 01 The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: in NOTAM and AIP, only in NOTAM only in AIP NOTAM, AIP and 0 inclusive Supplement. MAL 01 Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: information signs; mandatory instruction information signs; mandatory 0 yellow or black signs ; red background orange background with instruction background with black with black inscriptions. black inscriptions. signs; black or yellow inscriptions. background

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RispostaA

01 When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in the TAS varies by plus 0 case: or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan. 01 When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, departure to the 0 than: nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed 01 Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above 0 the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:

01 An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: 0

01 The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: 0

01 Interception If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the 0 intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:

01 Approach procedures – Instrument Approach Area The primary area of an instrument approach 0 segment is:

01 A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed: 0

01 An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if: 0

at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

RispostaB

of an emergency.

you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight; at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

RispostaC

RispostaD

with red inscriptions. the estimated time is in it is a deviation error by more than 10 from the track. minutes. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

you are not allowed to commence the flight

at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position on the ground when outside the daylightwhile taxiing, but not outside the the engines are period in flight, but not when it is being towed; daylight-period running on the ground when it is at engine-start. being towed; During the daylight-period this is not applicable; taxiing need not be glider flying is performed landing, take-off and this aerodrome confined to the outside the landing area; taxiing is allowed on is using parallel taxiways ; runway and/or taxiway runways only; follow the instructions ignore the signals of the ignore the signals of the select of the intercepting intercepting aircraft and intercepting aircraft and transponder aircraft and request request instructions from continue in accordance mode A, immediate clarification. the appropriate ATS unit. with the last clearance squawk 7600, received and confirmed fly holding by the appropriate ATS patterns until unit. having received instructions from the appropriate ATS unit. a defined area the most critical part of the first part of the the outside part symmetrically disposed the segment where the segment. of the segment about the nominal minimum altitude should where the flight track in which the be kept very carefully. obstacle Minimum Obstacle clearance Clearance is provided. increases from zero ft to the appropriate minimum. during IFR flights, if during IFR and VFR flights during IFR flights, if the as in above, but there is permanent in VMC; cloud base is 1000 ft in addition sight on the movement more than the there should be area and the appropriate DA or MDA a visibility of underlying ground; for that procedure; 5,5 km or more all mentioned answers the pilot has the field and the aircraft gets radar the pilot is are correct the underlying terrain in vectors ; following the

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

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RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

sight and will keep it in sight;

RispostaD

01 To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is: 0 01 The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is: 0 01 Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control 0 shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than: 01 During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the 0 "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is: 01 Which statement is correct ? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C): 0

21 and 59 years

16 and 60 years

17 and 59 years

5 minutes or more.

15 minutes or more

10 minutes

published approach procedure 18 and 60 years 20 minutes

2,5 NM

1,5 NM

3 NM

5 NM

01 "Cabotage" refers to: 0 01 A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in: 0

domestic air services ; a national air carrier;

2 NM from touch-down; 1NM from touch-down; ATC will apply separation with other traffic

the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down; ATC will apply ATC will apply separation only with separation with other IFR-traffic other arriving traffic a flight above territorial crop spraying waters; flight identification and urgent weather noted ; messages

01 An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from 0 the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

a position report, weather noted ; including aircraft identification, height, position and time ; Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency that differs from the triangle semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

01 What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 0

250 kt for IFR and VFR 250 kt only for VFR up to 250 kt VFR and IFR, all UP TO FL 100 FL 195 levels

01 Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for 0 different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? 01 Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific 0 dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? 01 One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: 0

45 metres

35 metres

40 metres

As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100 50 metres

900 metres

420 metres

1000 metres

1200 metres

develop principles and technique for international aviation Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies Fly the emergency triangle

approve new international airlines with jet aircraft Declare an emergency

approve new international airlines As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

01 An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from 0 the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

Declare an emergency

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda RispostaA b 01 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a Annex 1 0 crew licence to have international validity? 01 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the Annex 14 0 design of aerodromes? 01 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and Annex 11 0 recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? 01 An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving When the other aircraft 0 a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a has reported that it has clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? descended through FL 130 01 A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is: Poor 0 01 Accident investigation Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? The Authority of the 0 State in which the accident took place. 01 According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and Before landing and 0 given in degrees magnetic: take-off

01 Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP 0 01 Altimeter setting procedures – Definitions The Transition Level: 0

Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

RispostaB

RispostaD

Annex 2

Annex 3

Annex 4

Annex 6

Annex 11

Annex 10

Annex 14

Annex 6

Annex 17

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140 Good

When the other aircraft When the other has reported that it has aircraft has reached FL 70 reported that it has left FL 120 Medium/poor Medium

The Operators of the same aircraft type.

The aircraft manufacturer.

The State of design and manufacturer. When the local variation In upper wind forecast When an exceeds 10° East or 10° for areas north of lat aircraft on the West. 60° north or 60° south. request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP Obstacles penetrating the OCA or OCH DMEobstacle free area in the frequencies final approach sector shall be the highest is published for the is calculated available flight level aerodrome in the and declared below the transition Section ENR of the AIP. for an approach altitude that has been by the Pilot-in established. command. is published on the is calculated by the is published approach and landing Pilot-in command and updated in chart for each aerodrome the NOTAM When QNH is higher than only in airspace class A if the obstacle the standard pressure clearance is 1013 hPa more than 2000 feet If instructed by ATC so If instructed by ATC so Only when long as VMC is forecasted long as VMC is leaving during the next 30 forecasted during the controlled minutes next 60 minutes airspace At the discretion of the If the commander of the Only if the air air traffic controller involved aircraft so traffic controller requests has the involved aircraft in sight

01 Altimeter setting procedures – transition level The transition level: 0

will be passed to aircraft by ATS units

01 Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) 0

Above the transition altitude when applicable

01 Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible 0

If the commander so requests

01 For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be 0 reduced:

When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation The air traffic controller Continued approach will will provide separation be according to VFR to other controlled traffic

01 If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a 0 clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions

RispostaC

The approach must be passing the FAF

The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda RispostaA b 01 What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' 6 NM 0 aircraft 01 Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it 10 NM 0 is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DMEdistance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend 01 The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the: Chicago convention 0 1944 01 Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: 0 01 Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is: 0 01 The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering 0 which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is: 01 If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to 0 illness, the authority must be informed:

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

3 NM

2 km

10 km

12 NM

15 NM

20 NM

Warsaw convention 1929 Geneva convention 1948

V

X

N

Geneva convention 1936 Y

X

V

N

Y

21

30

60

90

After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

as soon as possible if the after one calendar illness is expected to last month of consecutive more than 21days illness

if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires 01 If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any until five minutes until three minutes until two minutes until ten 0 direction before the arriving before the arriving before the arriving minutes before aircraft is estimated to aircraft is estimated to be aircraft is estimated to the arriving be over the instrument over the instrument be over the instrument aircraft is runway runway runway estimated to be over the instrument runway 01 When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission 4 NM from the 2 NM from the touchdown 3 NM from the 1.5 NM from 0 should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a touchdown touchdown the touchdown distance of: 01 The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown half NM 1 NM 1.5 NM half mile 0 except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each 01 Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should 2 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown 4 NM from touchdown 5 NM from 0 normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of: touchdown 01 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no 2 NM from the 4 NM from the touchdown 5 NM from the 1.5 NM from 0 clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a touchdown touchdown the touchdown distance of: 01 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if Last 2 NM of the Last 4 NM of the Last 3 NM of the Last 5 NM of 0 the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the: approach approach approach the approach 01 What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar ± 20KT ± 15 KT ± 10KT ± 25 KT 0 control and established on intermediate and final approach? 01 Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again At least one hour At least 30 minutes At least 15 minutes At least 5 0 brought into operation: before the expected before the expected before the expected minutes before arrival of an aircraft arrival of an aircraft arrival of an aircraft the expected arrival of an aircraft 01 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of 5 KT 3 KT 10 KT 8 KT 0 components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is: 01 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of 2 KT 4 KT 5 KT 3 KT

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 0 components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is: 01 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of 0 components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is: 01 Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display 0 of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:

RispostaA

10 KT

RispostaB

5 KT

Setting the SSR Setting the SSR decoder decoder to mode A to mode A code 7000 and code 7500 and thereafter to code 7500 thereafter to code 7700

RispostaC

8 KT

RispostaD

4 KT

01 When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain 80 NM 0 a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is: 01 Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level 20 NM 0 and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is: 01 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation 3 minutes 0 aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 01 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation 5 minutes 0 aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 01 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation 10 minutes 0 aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be 01 Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of On at least ten 0 consecutive weeks and: occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days 01 What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a 2 minutes 0 medium aircraft and both are using the same runway? 01 Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground E airspace 0 visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: 01 In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what medium aircraft behind 0 minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft? heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

100 NM

Setting the SSR decoder Setting the SSR to mode A 7500 then to decoder to standby and thereafter mode A 7700 to code 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500 70 NM 60 NM

10 NM

25 NM

40 NM

5 minutes

10 minutes

2 minutes

3 minutes

10 minutes

2 minutes

15 minutes

5 minutes

3 minutes

01 A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS 0 localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted: 01 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and 0 between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by: 01 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and 0 between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is: 01 A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS 0 localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel

On at least ten occasions On at least 20 days or every day over a consecutively period of at least 20 consecutive days

On at least 20 occasions

3 minutes

1 minute

5 minutes

D and E airspace

D airspace

C, D and E airspace

medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

300 m (1000 ft)

200 m (660 ft)

150 m (500 ft)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes 100 m (330 ft)

Less than 760 m

760 m

Less than 730 m

730 m

2 minutes

5 minutes

3 minutes

1 minute

3.0 NM

5.0 NM

1.0 NM

2.0 NM

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

Domanda

approaches are being conducted: 01 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: 0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

25 degrees

20 degrees

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 15 degrees

500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

01 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS 30 degrees 0 localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than: 01 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no 610 m is established 0 transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display 01 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to at least 2.0 NM prior to at least 3.0 NM prior to at least 1.5 NM prior to at least 2.5 NM 0 intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS glide intercepting the ILS prior to the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for: glide path or specified path or specified MLS glide path or specified intercepting the MLS elevation angle elevation angle MLS elevation angle ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle 01 Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed at least 30° (degrees) at least 45° (degrees) at least 25° (degrees) at least 15° 0 approach track for one approach diverges by: from the missed from the missed from the missed (degrees) from approach track of the approach track of the approach track of the the missed adjacent approach adjacent approach adjacent approach approach track of the adjacent approach 01 In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a 2 minutes 3 minutes 4 minutes 1 minute 0 medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway? 01 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS 240 KT IAS 0 (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 01 The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 240 KT IAS 0 (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 01 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS 0 (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 01 The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS 260 KT IAS 0 flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is: 01 A strayed aircraft is: An aircraft which has only that aircraft which only that aircraft which an aircraft in a 0 deviated significantly has deviated significantly reports that it is lost given area but from its intended track its intended track whose identity or which reports that it has not been is lost established 01 Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning C to G (inclusive) A to G (inclusive) A to E (inclusive) F and G 0 collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, 0 when the clouds are:

01 Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in: 0

RispostaA

RispostaB

below 1 500 m (5.000 below 900 m (3.000 ft) or ft) or below the highest below the highest minimum sector minimum sector altitude, altitude, whichever is whichever is the greater the greater need not to be identical has to be the same as with those applicable in the underlying flight the underlying flight information region information region

RispostaD

Airspace D

below 2 000 m (600 ft) cumulonimbus or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater have to be as indicated have to be as by ICAO council agreed at the regional air navigation meetings 5 NM visibility below 5 NM visibility 3050 m (10.000 ft) when below AMSL, clear of clouds 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud 8 km below 3050 m 5 km visibility, (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 1500 m m horizontal and 300 m horizontal and vertical from clouds 300 m vertical from clouds 5 NM at or above 3050 8 km at or m (10.000 ft) AMSL, above 3050 m 1500 m horizontal and (10.000 ft) 300 m vertical from AMSL, and clear clouds of clouds Airspace E Airspace B

Airspace C

Airspace D

Airspace E

Airspace B

Airspace E

Airspace A

Airspace D

Airspace B

Airspace A

Airspace G

Airspace E

Airspace D

Airspace F

Airspace C

Airspace E

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries

AIP, supplements to AIP; AIP including NOTAM and PIB; AIC amendment and checklist service; summaries supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC

01 The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: 0

8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

01 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima 0 of flight visibility and distance from clouds

5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

01 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima 0 of flight visibility and distance from clouds

8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds Airspace C

5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control 0 service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as: 01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control Airspace B 0 service and are separated from each other is classified as 01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic Airspace D 0 control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: 01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service Airspace E 0 and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as 01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air Airspace F 0 traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified 01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, Airspace G 0 is classified as 01 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements AIP, including 0 amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries 01 The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: The nationality letters 0 for location indicators

RispostaC

The letters P (Prohibited), The nationality letters R (Restricted) and D for the location

The letters P (Prohibited), R

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

Domanda

RispostaA

RispostaB

assigned to the state or (Dangerous) for the area territory, followed the concerned and figures letters P. R and D and figures 01 In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area At least one year after At least 6 months after 0 and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of cancellation of the area cancellation of the area to which they refer to which they refer

RispostaC

RispostaD

indicators assigned to (Restricted) and the state, followed by P, D (Dangerous) R and D followed by figures At least 3 months after At least 2 cancellation of the area months after to which they refer cancellation of the area to which they refer One year or longer Two months or longer

01 Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short 0 duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. 01 Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: 0

Three months or longer Six months or longer

AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC

NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number

01 A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: 0 01 A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: 0 01 The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity 0 is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is 01 AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP? 0 01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and 0 rescue? 01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures? 0 01 Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: 0

Not more than one month Not more than one month RED

Not more than three months No more than 15 days YELLOW

AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number Not more than 28 days Not more than 2 months Not more than 28 days Not more than 10 days GREEN ORANGE

GEN

ENR

AD

MET

GEN

ENR

AD

SAR

ENR

GEN

AD

MAP

01 The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: 0

are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink

01 When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the 0 territory of the state, the operator:

AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified

accompanied baggage cargo and is covered by a cargo but is free from or under another traffic document any kind of declaration simplified customs forms procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo

shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility 01 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international annex 9 0 flights is:

has to be typewritten

shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility annex 8

cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment has to be typewritten or are accepted at produced by electronic the contracting data processing state discretion techniques is not responsible for and the state of the person inadmissible the operator for entry in the are both receiving state responsible for the person inadmissible annex 6 annex 15

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda RispostaA b 01 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international annex 9 0 flights is: 01 The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or may deliver such 0 is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law person to the competent authorities

01 The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: 0

RispostaB annex 8

RispostaC annex 15

RispostaD annex 16

may request such person may require the to disembark assistance of passengers to restrain such person

Damage caused by Regulation of foreign aircraft to third transportation of parties on the surface dangerous goods

may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members Damage caused by any offences and aircraft to third parties certain other on the surface acts committed on board aircraft the Paris Convention the Tokyo Convention the Warsaw Convention the Montreal Convention

01 The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for the Rome Convention the Warsaw Convention 0 persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: 01 Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an the Rome Convention the Chicago Convention 0 aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: 01 The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris the convention of Rome 0 01 The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is the convention of Tokyo the convention of Warsaw the convention of Rome 0 01 The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co- 50 % of the co-pilot 40 % of the co-pilot flight 100 hours of flying time 0 pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: flight time towards the time towards, the total required for a higher total flight time flight time required for a grade of a pilot licence required for a higher higher grade of a pilot grade of pilot licence licence

01 The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than: 0 01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold 0

18 years of age

21 years of age

17 years of age

a current class I medical assessment

a current class II medical a current class III assessment medical assessment

01 The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be: 0

to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation

to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation

01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours 0 of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are: 01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less 0 than:

20 hours and 540 km (300NM)

10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)

20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-incommand including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

the convention of Chicago the convention of Madrid 60 % of the copilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 16 years of age

a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence to act as pilot in none of the command in any answers are aeroplane certificate for correct single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation 15 hours and 540 km 20 hours and (300NM) 270 km (150NM) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-incommand including a

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

Domanda

01 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not 0 less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-incommand and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-incommand the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively: 01 The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less 0 than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively: 01 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) 150 hours and 75 hours

250 hours and 100 hours

200 hours and 75 hours

200 hours and 100 hours

200 hours and 100 hours

250 hours and 10 hours

150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours

75 hours of instrument 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more time, of which not more than 30 hours may be than 30 hours of instrument ground instrument ground time time.

150 hours of instrument 75 hours of time, of which not more instrument than 75 hours of time, of which instrument ground time. not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time. 01 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 100 hours of night 100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight 75 hours of 0 flight as pilot in only as pilot in command as pilot in command or night time only command or as co-pilot as co-pilot as pilot in command 01 The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic 100 hours, of which not 100 hours of which not 100 hours of which not 75 hours of 0 flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. more than 25 hours more than 20 hours shall more than 15 hours which not more Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of: shall have been have been acquired in a shall have been than 20 hours acquired in a flight basic instrument flight acquired in a flight shall have been procedure trainer or trainer procedure trainer or acquired in a basic instrument flight basic instrument flight flight procedure trainer trainer trainer or basic instrument flight trainer 01 An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument 50 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 15 hours 50 hours and 0 rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in 15 hours categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively 01 In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing A single period of six Two consecutive periods A single period of six in the case of a 0 authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: months in the case of a each of three months in months in the case of a private pilot, a flight crew member of the case of a flight crew flight crew member of single period of an aircraft engaged in member of an aircraft an aircraft engaged in 12 months non commercial engaged in non commercial operations. operations. commercial operations 01 The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: the medical the licence is issued or the licence is issued or the licence is 0 assessment is issued validated renewed delivered to the pilot 01 When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of shall not extend shall not extend more the Contracting state shall not extend 0 the authorisation beyond the period of than 15 days from the rendering a licence beyond the validity of the licence date of the licence valid may extend the period of date of the validity at validity of the its own discretion licence other than for use in private flights

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda RispostaA RispostaB b 01 When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th 12 months to 6 months 12 months to 3 months 0 birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from: 01 Type ratings shall be established 0

for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

01 The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in 0 command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:

in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

01 For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less 0 than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night

5 hours of night flight time including 5 takeoffs and 5 landings as pilot in command

01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less 0 than:

200 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if and 80 hours as pilot in completed during a command course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes 10 hours of instrument 20 hours of instrument instruction time of instruction time of which which not more than 5 not more than 5 hours hours may be may be instrument instrument ground time ground time.

01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 0

01 The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: 0

Each contracting state

01 When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other the passengers 0 persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving concerned and their international civil aviation have been passed cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft 01 Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be to all international civil 0 responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security air transport including programme. This programme should apply: aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state 01 When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign Prior notification by the

RispostaC 24 months to 12 months

only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter in full with his flight but the flight time towards not more than 300 hours the total time required towards the total time for higher grade of pilot required for a higher licence in accordance grade of pilot licence with the requirements of the licensing authority 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs time including 3 takeand 5 landings either as offs and 3 landings as pilot in command or as pilot in command co-pilot

RispostaD none of the answers are correct all the answers are correct

50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of and 70 hours as pilot in flight time and command 100 hours as pilot in command 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time

15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command ICAO ECAC ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned only the passengers are only the passengers the persons not to be re screened cabin baggage are to be subjected to re screened security control shall be identified only to all international only to passengers and only to civil transport including aircrew in international passengers and aircraft engaged solely in civil transport flights aircrew in the carriage of cargo international civil transport flights and domestic flights Notification of the pilot in Agreement between the Agreement

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 0 states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:

01 Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following 0 groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:

01 For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be 0 observed such as:

01 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable 0 RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:

01 Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a 0 navigation accuracy of

01 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable 0 RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:

01 The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed 0 01 Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated 0 01 Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the 0 responsibility of 01 ATIS broadcast 0

01 Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to 0 ensure correct time to within plus or minus 01 An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected 0 occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is 01 Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route 0 segments of

RispostaA state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody boarding prior to all passengers

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

command of a decision to state of embarcation permit a weapon to be and the state of carried on board his destination aircraft only

between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival

Deportees and persons in Deportees and lawful custody only inadmissible persons only

None of the answers is correct

boarding after to all other the boarding will be at passengers the pilot in command discretion

the boarding has to be done at the state discretion 15 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 22.5 NM on the route 25 NM on the between 30° and 90° between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at route between at and below FL 190 and above FL 200 and above FL 250 30° and 90° at and below FL190 plus or minus 4 NM on plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4 a 95 per cent 90 per cent containment 98 per cent miles on a 90 containment basis basis containment basis per cent containment basis 22.5 NM between 30° 25.0 NM on the route 22.5 NM between 30° 20 NM on the and 90° at and above between 30° and 90° at and 90° at and above route between FL200 and above FL 250 FL260 30° and 90° at and above FL200 30 seconds 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes immediately a significant change occurs the air traffic services

at least every half an as prescribed by the hour independently of meteorological office any significant change the meteorological office both air traffic services serving the aerodrome (s) and the meteorological office shall not be Shall be transmitted on Shall not be transmitted transmitted on the the voice channel of an on the voice of a VOR voice channel of an ILS ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR 30 seconds of UTC at 15 seconds of UTC at all 10 seconds of UTC at all all times times times An AIRMET information A SIGMET information A NOTAM

as prescribed by the state

60 NM or more

100 NM or more

75 NM or more

50 NM or more

the unit as prescribed the states Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency 1 minute of UTC at all times An En-Route Meteo Report

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed 0

RispostaA by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements C, D, E, F, and G

RispostaB by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements F and G only

RispostaC by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements A, B, C, D, E, F and G

by regional air navigation agreements F only

three letters combinations used in the international code of signals RCC

the International Telecommunica tion Union letters used for ICAO identification documents LLL

LLL

DDD

RCC

LLL

01 Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when 0 operating in airspace classes: 01 According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and the state of registry or the state of registry only the International Civil 0 numbers and shall be that assigned by: common mark Aviation Organisation registering authority 01 When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be 0 confused with the

five letter combinations four letter combinations used in the beginning with Q international code of signals 01 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused TTT FFF 0 with urgent signals for example 01 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused PAN RCC 0 with urgent signals for example 01 When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be XXX DDD 0 confused with urgent or distress signals for example 01 The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least 50 centimetres at least between 40 0 centimetres and 50 centimetres 01 The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of at least 30 centimetres at least 40 centimetres 0 heavier than air aircraft shall be:

RispostaD

at least 60 centimetres at least 75 centimetres

at least 20 centimetres at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres 01 The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure over 5.700 kg over 5.700 kg maximum up to 5.700 kg up to 5.700 kg 0 the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion maximum certificate certificate take-off and maximum certificate maximum prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: take-off mass landing mass take-off mass certificate takeoff and landing mass 01 When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if the state of registry the state of registry, the the state of the state of 0 considers that the state of design and the manufacture informs design and the damage sustained is of state of manufacture the state of registry state of a nature such that the consider that the aircraft that the damage manufacture aircraft is still airworthy is still airworthy sustained is of a nature inform the state such that the aircraft is of registry that still airworthy the aircraft is still airworthy 01 The loading limitations shall include: all limiting mass, all limiting mass and all limiting mass, mass all limiting 0 centres of gravity centres of gravity distributions and mass, centres position, mass centres of gravity of gravity distributions and floor position and loading floor loading 01 An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. not land because the give way to another return to land and that not land for the 0 This signifies that the aircraft must: airport is not available aircraft. clearance to land will be moment for landing. communicated in due regardless of course. previous instructions. 01 The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international Chicago The Hague Warsaw Montreal 0 convention of: 01 The second freedom of the air is the: right to land for a right to overfly without right to "cabotage" right to operate

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b 0

Domanda

RispostaA technical stop

01 The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices Annex 1 0 for Personnel Licensing is: 01 The first freedom of the air is: The right to overfly 0 without landing.

RispostaB

RispostaC

landing

traffic, (trans-border traffic).

Annex 2

Annex 11

The right to land for a technical stop.

The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.

RispostaD a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. Annex 12

The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. 01 An AIRAC is: An Acronym for a A publication issued by or A notice distributed by A package 0 system aimed at with the authority of a means of which consists advance notification state containing telecommunication of the following based on common aeronautical information containing information elements: AIP, effective dates, of of a lasting character concerning the supplements to circumstances essential to air establishment, the AIP, necessitating navigation. condition or change in NOTAM, AIC, significant changes in any aeronautical facility checklists and operating procedures. service, procedure or summaries. hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. 01 The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: standards and aeronautical standards proposals for standards and 0 recommended adopted by all states. aeronautical regulations recommended international practices in the form of 18 practices for contracting member annexes. applied without states. exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. 01 The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers Warsaw Convention. Tokyo Convention. Hague Convention. Montreal 0 for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Convention. 01 At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received switch his landing make at least one transmit, by luminous fly over the 0 these ground signals, the pilot must: lights on and off twice complete turn over the Morse signal, a series of group of people or, if he is not so group of people in the letter "R" using his in difficulty as equipped, his difficulty. navigational lights. low as possible. navigation lights twice. 01 The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered true air speed (TAS). estimated ground speed indicated air speed true air speed 0 in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: (G/S). (IAS). at 65% power. 01 The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: required by the aircraft required by the aircraft required by the aircraft of endurance at 0 from take-off to arrive from the moment it from brake release at cruising power overhead the moves by its own power take-off until landing. taking into destination airport. until it stops at the end of account the flight (block time). pressure and temperature on

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

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01 An air traffic control unit: 0

RispostaA

RispostaB

may ask an aircraft to may require to change must not ask an aircraft temporarily change its the call sign for safety to change its call sign. call sign for safety reasons when there is a reasons when there is a risk of confusion between risk of confusion two or more similar call between two or more signs providing the similar call signs. aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. 3-5 3-4-5 1-4

01 The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from 0 ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 01 Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the must come back to is cleared to land. 0 tower. The aircraft: land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. 01 The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: by agreement with the automatically at the 0 receiving unit. control zone boundary. 01 Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): 0

it can only supply its purpose is to supply limited services to the ATC services but it is not users and under no a state organisation. circumstances may it supply ATC services.

01 SSR special codes ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of loosing two way 0 radio communication, you have to squawk: 01 When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly 0 heading:

Mode A Code 7600

Mode A Code 5320

030° magnetic

030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)

01 The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified 7 000 kg. 0 take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:

14 000 kg.

01 If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... 0

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

01 While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red 0 flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

must vacate the landing area in use.

must stop.

01 While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of 0 green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

RispostaC

may continue to taxi towards the take-off area. 01 Approach procedures – missed approach climb Normally the missed approach procedures are based 2.5% 0 on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

must stop.

2%

RispostaD that day. may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.

2-3-5

must land immediately must give way and clear the landing to another area. aircraft. with the pilot's consent. through a central control unit. it has the same its only purpose privileges and is to relay ATC prerogatives as an ATC information to organisation but its the aircraft in activity is neither flight or on the continuous nor regular. ground. Mode A Code 7700 Mode A Code 7500 030° true 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track) 20 000 kg. 5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters. write XXXX in box 16 write ZZZZ in and indicate in box 18 box 16 and (additional information) indicate in box DEGT/followed by the 18 (additional name of the airport information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport. must return to its point may continue of departure. to taxi to the take-off area. must return to its point is cleared for of departure. take-off. 5%

3.3%

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su Domanda b 01 For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated 0 time at which the aircraft:

RispostaA

RispostaC

RispostaD

will arrive overhead the will land. initial approach fix.

01 Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 0 airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: 000ft AGL. 01 Approach procedures – Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for 25 NM 0 each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the radius of this circle? 01 Approach procedures – MDH / OCH For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent the Obstacle Clearance 0 Height (MDH) cannot be lower than: Height (OCH) 01 When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: air traffic control and 0 flight information centres. 01 During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the the pilot in command. 0 responsibility of: 01 According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be At the discretion of the 0 rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

01 According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings 0 or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: 01 According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for 0

RispostaB

More than 12 hours

60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter

will stop on the parking will leave the area. initial approach fix to start the final approach. 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft FL 30 or 100 ft AGL. FL 30 or 1 500 AGL. ft AGL. 20 NM 10 NM 5 NM

200 ft

350 ft

400 ft

search and rescue coordination centres.

air traffic co-ordination control centres centres. only.

the approach controller.

the radar controller.

60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

the airport controller. At the discretion of the At the discretion of the At the Authority of the Member Authority of that discretion of State concerned for a Member State the Authority of period not exceeding the concerned for a period that Member period validity of basic not exceeding one year State licence concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. More than 12 days More than one week Any period

24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter 01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of 0 integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of plus 10 hours of flight time plus airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: instrument ground time 10 hours of instrument ground time 01 According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: one year two years The period of validity of Indefinitely 0 the licence. 01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or Cross country flight Cross country flight time Instructional flight time Instructional 0 CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: time as pilot-inas pilot of aeroplanes or as student-pilot-inflight time as command in helicopters of which at command of student-pilot-inaeroplanes or least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. command of helicopters of which at aeroplanes. aeroplanes or least 10 hours shall be helicopters of in aeroplanes. which at least 10 hours shall

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

Domanda

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

be in aeroplanes. 01 According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a All self.-sustaining All types of single-pilot, Microlights having fixed Any other type 0 type rating, including: gliders. single-engine aeroplanes wings and moveable of aeroplane if fitted with a turbojet aerodynamic control considered engine. surfaces acting in all necessary. three dimensions. 01 According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the Handling Handling characteristics A certificate of A certificate of 0 basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has: characteristics that that require the use of airworthiness issued by airworthiness require additional flying more than one crew a non-member state. issued by the or simulator training member manufacturer. 01 According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from Of issue Of the skill test The application is Of the last 0 the date: received by the medical Authority. certificate 01 According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: Two years One year Two years up to age 40 Five years after 0 years then one year licence issue. thereafter. 01 According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be Obtain the first type Obtain the first class Obtain a professional Revalidate any 0 required to: rating on multi-pilot rating on multi-engine pilot licence rating or aeroplanes aeroplanes licence 01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 500 hours in multi-pilot 500 hours in multi-pilot 500 hours in multi-pilot 500 hours in 0 1.500 hours of flight time, including operations on operations on aeroplanes operations on multi-pilot aeroplanes type type certificated in aeroplanes type operations on certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR certificated in aeroplanes accordance with 25 or JAR/FAR 23, as pilot- accordance with type JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR in-command JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR certificated in 23. 23, of which up to 150 accordance hours may be as flight with JAR/FAR 25 engineer. or JAR/FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilotin-command or as co-pilot. 01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as a minimum crew of two the carriage of a minimum crew of two operations by 0 pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for: pilots under IFR passengers at night. pilots plus a flight pilots under engineer. training. 01 According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying On the On the recommendation On the recommendation On the 0 out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be recommendation of the of the supervising FI(A) of the supervising FI(A) recommendatio removed from the rating: supervising FI(A) after after the holder of the after the holder of the n of the the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has restricted FI(A) rating supervising restricted FI(A) rating supervised at least 100 has completed a FI(A) after the has completed at least solo flights. competency test. holder of the 100 hours flight restricted FI(A) instruction and , in rating has addition, has supervised at supervised at least 25 least 100 solo student solo flights. flights and completed a competency test. 01 According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE( FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE( FI(A) and IRI(A). 0 ) and SFI authorisation A) and SFI authorisation. A) and SFI authorisation 01 According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight Provided that the FI(A) Provided that the FI(A) Provided that the FI(A) Without

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b 0 instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):

Domanda

01 According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: 0

RispostaA has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction Not more than three years

RispostaB has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceding 12 months.

RispostaC has completed 200 hours of flight instruction

RispostaD restriction

01 According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: 0 01 According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid 0 subject to the:

1 and 2

Not more than two years The period of validity of The period of the class/type rating. validity of the medical certificate. 1, 2 and 3 1,2,3 and 4 class 1 only.

Laws of the State of registry

Laws of the State in which is operated

01 Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme, 0

At each airport

That is common for all airports within State

01 The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers 0

cabin baggage, and baggage checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

01 When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most Two aforementioned 0 expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing States, each State and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO 01 A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance provision of navigation 0 includes: aids, air traffic services and permission to land

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling during a period of investigation

01 A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is 0 subjected to an act of unlawful interference,

until their journey can be continued

01 Accident investigation, objective The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident 0 shall be the:

prevention of accidents prevention of accidents or incidents. or incidents and establish the liability.

01 Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by 0 means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano

ASHTAM

GVATAM

Laws of the State of registry and operation

Requirements laid down by ICAO for every airline only for operating in the State administrative staff of airport checked baggage, checked cargo and other goods baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design Two aforementioned Two States and the ICAO aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and the ICAO provision of navigation only permission aids, air traffic services, to land permission to land and catering for passengers and arrange for them to if is requested return to their country by an individual of origin passenger prevention of accidents prevention of or incidents and to accidents or provide legal evidence incidents and for subsequent court provide the cases. manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design. NAVTAM VULTAM

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Air Law and ATC Procedures su b

Domanda

activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud. 01 The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of 0 operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: 01 The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or 0 graphical information are published as follows: 01 The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall 0 prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________. 01 The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with 0 controlled access is called:

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

AIRAC

IFPS

NOTAM

EATCHIP

AIP Supplements

AIP Amendments

NOTAM

Trigger NOTAM

Multi-engine / Land/inactive. inoperative or simulated inoperative. Aeronautical part Security program.

Amphibious/inactive or Singlesimulated inactive. engine/inactive. Manoeuvring area.

Terminal.

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