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Bank Exam Preparation Guide
SBI Exam solved paper, BANK PO sample PAPER,BANK CLERK sample PAPER, ,MAT SOLVED PAPER,B.ED SOLVED PAPER, Corporation Bank Clerk 2008 Solved Paper ,SBI PO 2008 Solved Paper,SBI PO GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER,Computer General Awareness For Bank Exam, Heads of Important Offices Sunday 14 December 2008 03:34 PM Heads of Important Offices ● Ban KiMoon—General Secretary, UNO. ● Mohd. El Baradei—Director General IAEA (International Atomic Energy Agency) ● Dominique StraussKahn—Managing Director, IMF. ● Nirupam Sen—India’s Permanent Representative in UNO. ● Mukesh Ambani—Chairman, Reliance Industry Group. ● Pullock Chatterjee—Executive Director in World Bank (from India). (From Feb. 1, 2009) ● B. P. Mishra—Indian Executive Director, IMF. ● P. S. Rana—President, HUDCO. ● Jose Manuel Durao Barroso—President, European Commission ● Pascal Lamy—Director General, WTO. ● K. M. Chandra Shekhar—Indian Ambassador to WTO. ● Dr. D. Subbarao—Governor RBI. ● Robert Zoellick—President, World Bank. ● Obiageli ‘Oby’ Ezekwesili—Vice President, World Bank. ● P.C. Jha—Chairman, Central Board of Excise & Custom (CBEC).
● Narendra Bahadur Singh—Chairman, Central Board on Direct Taxes (CBDT). ● Deepankar Vasu—Chairman, Island Waterways Authority of India. ● Govind Hari Singhania—President, Indian Unit of International Chamber of Commerce. ● Sanjeev Batra—President and Managing Director, Mineral and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC). ● Ajit Kumar Singh—Chairman, National Agricultural Federation Cooperative Marketing (NAFED). ● Montek Singh Ahluwalia—Vice Chairman, Indian Planning Commission. ● K. Ramalingam—Chairman, Indian Airports Authority (IAA). ● P. V. Narsingham—President/Chairman, Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI). ● Srinivasan K. Swami—President, Advertising Agencies Association of India (AAAI). ● Priyadarshni Thakur—Director General, International Centre for Promotion of Enterprises (ICPE). ● J. Harinarayan—Chairman, Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority (IRDA). ● R. S. Sharma—Chairman & CMD National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC). ● Ms. Shanta Sinha—Chairman, National Child Rights Commission. ● U. D. Chaubey—Chairman, GAIL. ● Arun Balkrishnan—Chairman and CMD, HPCL. ● S. K. Garg—CMD, National Hydro Power Corporation. ● K. C. Jaina—Chairman, Railway Board ● Partha Sarathi Bhattacharjee—Chairman Coal India Ltd. ● Justice M. B. Shah—Chairman, NCDRC. ● P. B. Nimbalkar—President and Managing Director, SIDBI. ● Y. S. P. Thorat—Chairman, NABARD.
● D. P. Agrawal—Chairman, Transport Corporation of India. ● V. S. Awasthi—Managing Director, IFFCO (Indian Farmer’s Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd.) ● Gurudas Dasgupta—General Secretary All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC). ● G. Sanjeev Reddy—President, Indian National Trade Union Congress. ● Rajni Patil—Chairperson, Central Social Welfare Board. ● S. Sridhar—Chairman, National Housing Bank. ● O. P. Bhatt—Chairman, State Bank of India. ● G. Subramanian—President, Hindustan Chamber of Commerce. ● Pradeep Kumar—Chairman, National Highway Authority of India. ● K. J. Udeshi—First Lady Deputy Governor of RBI. ● Ashok Kumar Lahiri—Executive Director in ADB ● Arvind Virmani—Chief Economic Advisor to Finance Minister. ● Shusheela Kerketta—Chairman, National Commission on Scheduled Caste & Scheduled Tribes ● N. Ravi—Chairman, Press Trust of India ● Vijai L. Kelkar—Chairman, 13th Finance Commission ● Amartya Sen—Human Development Advisor, UNDP. ● C. B. Bhave—Chairman, SEBI. ● Girija Vyas—Chairperson, National Women Commission. ● R. H. Patil—Chairman, UTI–Asset Management Company. ● Suresh Tendulkar—Chairman, Economic Advisory Committee. ● T. S. Vijayan—Chairman, LIC. ● Yogesh Lohia—Chairman, General Insurance Company.
● B. Chakaravorti—Chairman, National Insurance Company. ● M. K. Garg—Chairman, United India Insurance Company. ● M. Ramadoss—Chairman, Oriental Insurance Company. ● J. P. Naik—Chairman & Joint Managing Director, UTI Bank. ● Krishna Kumar—Chairman, NCERT. ● Kuldeep Goyal—Chairman & CMD Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. ● D. K. Sikri—Registrar General of India & Census Commissioner. ● K. V. Kamath—Chairman, C.I.I. ● M. N. Chaini—President, Indian Merchant Chamber (IMC) ● Rajesh Lilothia—Chairman, SC/ST Welfare Board ● Pramod Dev—President Central Electricity Regulatory Commission ● T. S. Narayansami—President, Indian Bank Association. ● Deepak Parekh—Chairman, HDFC. ● Sajjan Jindal—President, ASSOCHAM ● Nripendra Mishra—President, TRAI ● M. S. Swaminathan—President, National Farmer Commission. ● Rajiv Chandra Shekhar—Chairman FICCI. ● Arun Bhatnagar—Chairman Prasar Bharti ● Vishwapati Trivedi—Joint Chairman cum Managing Director (NACIL). ● Jacques Diouf—Director General, Food & Agriculture Organisation (FAO). ● K. N. Memani—Chairman, American Chamber of Commerce in India. ● Ganesh Natrajan—President NASSCOM (200809)
● L. M. Singh—Chairman, Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulation Board. ● Jagdish Kapoor President Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Delhi Judicial Service Exam (Pre)2008 (Nov. 2) Delhi Metro rail corporation Junior Engineers (Electronics/Electrical/Mechanical and Civil)(Nov.2) S.S.C. CPO SubInspectors Examination, 2008 (Nov. 9) N.C.E.R.T National Talent Search Examination, 2009 (Class VIII) (Nov. 16) Uttar pradesh meanscummerit scholarship 200809 examination (Class VIII) (Nov. 16) Madhya Pradesh meanscummerit scholarship 200809 examination (Class VIII) (Nov. 16) State Bank of India (Main) Examination , 2008 (Nov. 30) S.S.C. Section Officer (Audit) Examination 2008 (Nov. 30) Bank of Baroda Clerical Cadre Exam 2008 (Nov. 30) Indian Air Force Airmen Group ‘Y’ Trades Exam. (Nov.) Bank of Baroda Agriculture officer Recruitmnent examination 2008 (Dec. 12, 2008) SSC Tax Assistant Examination ,2008 (Dec. 14) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Officers Cadre and NonTeaching Posts Examination (Dec. 14,2008) RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2008 (Dec. 21) Rastriya Millitary School Common Enterance Test (Class VI) (Dec. 21,2008) CSIRUGC Examination (NET) (Dec. 21,2008) Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary officers Examination 2008 (Dec. 21,2008) EXAMINATION 2009 Madhya Pradesh State Service Examination , 2008 (Jan 11, 2009) Oriental Bank of Commerce Clarical Cadre Examination 2009 (Jan 18, 2009) Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Examination, 2009 (Class IX) (Feb. 8, 2009) (Closing Date : 30 Dec., 2008) Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (PT) Examination 2008 (Feb. 1, 2009 ) RPSC Teacher Grade II Competitive Examination ,2008 (Feb 2009) All India Pre Medical/Dental Entrance Examination 2009 (April 5,2009) I.I.T. Combined Enterance Examination 2009 (April 12,2009) NDA & NA Exam (I), Examination 2009 (April 19,2009) Rajasthan Accounts officer, Junior Accounts Officers and Tehsil Revenue Accounts direct Recruitment Combined Examination 2008 (April May 2009) UPSC Preliminary Examination 2009 (May 17,2009) NCERT National Talent Search Exam 2009 Class VIII (Second Term) ( May 10, 2009) Special Class Railway Apprentice (SCRA) Examination 2009 (July 26,2009) NDA & NA Exam (II), Examination 2009 (August 30,2009) ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT (900 POST) 2009 Saturday 15 November 2008 09:30 AM ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT
ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT 2009 No. of Posts 900 Candidates are requested to apply online between 14.11.2008 and 03.12.2008 only through Bank’s websitewww.obcindia.co.in No other means/mode of application will be accepted. OPENING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION : 14.11.2008 (24 hour open) and Cash Payment in OBC (Business Hours) CLOSING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION : 03.12.2008 (Including those from farflung areas)DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION : 18.01.2009 EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION Degree in any discipline or its equivalent with any class/division OR 10+2 examination or its equivalent with 50% or more for General Category CandidateRELAXATION FOR SC/ST/XS/PC CANDIDATES: Pass in 10+2.NOTE: (a) All educational qualifications should be from a Recognised University / Board. (b) Candidates should know to read, write and speak the language of the State for which they are applying.AGE – (AS ON 01.11.2008) Minimum age – 18 years Maximum age –28 years i.e. Born between 01/11/1980 and 01/11/1990 (both days inclusive)RELAXATION IN UPPER AGE LIMIT : SC/ST 5 years VH/HI/OC 10 years OBC 3 years XS 3 years (in addition to the usual period of service in the Defence forces subject to a maximum age of 50 years) Widows, divorced women and women judicially separated from their husbands, who have not remarried 9 years. Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the Sate of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from 1.1.80 to 31.12.89 5 years. (Certificate to this effect from the competent authority should be enclosed.)NOTE: In case of a candidate who is eligible for relaxation under more than one of the above categories, the age relaxation will be available on cumulative basis with any one of the remaining categories for which age relaxation is permitted as mentioned above. This cumulative age relaxation is available to SC/ST/OBC candidates only.
General SocioEconomic & Banking Awareness 1. RBI's open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate ____ (A) Liquidity in the economy (B) Prices of essential commodities (C) Inflation (D) Borrowing power of the banks (E) All the above Ans (E) 2. Open market operations , one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means ____ (A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities (B) Issuance of different types of bonds (C) Auction of gold (D) To make available direct finance to borrowers (E) None of these Ans (A) 3. The bank rate means ___ (A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers (B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers (C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits (D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks (E) None of these Ans (D)
4. What is an Indian Depository Receipt? (A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank (B) A deposit account with any of depositories in India (C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company (D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by an Indian depositories (E) None of these Ans (C) 5. Fiscal deficit is ____ (A) total income less Govt. borrowing (B) total payments less total receipts (C) total payments less capital receipts (D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing (E) None of these Ans (D) 6. In the capital market , the term arbitrage is used with reference to ____ (A) purchase of securities to cover the sale (B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase (C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price (D) variation in different markets (E) Any of the above Ans (C)
7. The stance of RBI monetary policy is _____ (A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth (B) improving credit quality of the Banks (C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism (D) supporting investment demand in the economy (E) Any of the above Ans (E) 8. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage ___ (A) currency risk (B) interest rate risk (C) currency and interest rate risk (D) cash flows in different currency (E) All of the above Ans (D) 9. "Subprime" refers to_______ (A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR (B) funds raised by the banks at sub Libor Rates (C) Group of banks which are not rate as prime banks as per Banker's Almanac (D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards (E) All of the above Ans (D) 10. Euro Bond is an instrument _____
(A) issued in the European market (B) issued in Euro currency (C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond (D) All of the above (E) None of these Ans (C) 11. Money laundering normally involves _____ (A) placement of funds (B) layering of funds (C) integrating of funds (D) All of (A), (B) & (C) (E) None of (A), (B) & (C) Ans (D) 12. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to ____ (A) strengthening international economic cooperation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy (B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation (C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction (D) All of (A),(B) & (C) (E) None of (A),(B) & (C) Ans (D) 13. Capital Market Regulator is _____
(A) RBI (B) IRDA (C) NSE (D) BSE (E) SEBI Ans (e) 14. In the term BRICS , R stands for ______ (A) Romania (B) Rajithan (C) Russia (D) Regulation (E) Npne of these Ans (C) 15. FDI refers to _____ (A) Fixed Deposit Interest (B) Fixed Deposit Investment (C) Foreign Direct Investment (D) Future Derivative Investment (E) None of these Ans (C) 16. Which is the fist Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ? (A) Reliance
(B) TCS (C) HCL (D) Infosys (E) None of these Ans (D) 17. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India? (A) RBI (B) SBI (C) SIDBI (D) SEBI (E) None of these Ans (D) 18. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda? (A) Juhi Chawala (B) Kiran Bedi (C) Amitabh Bachchan (D) Kapil Dev (E) None of these Ans (E) 19. The Branding Line of Bank of Baroda is ____ (A) International Bank of India (B) India's International Bank
(C) India's Multinational Bank (D) World's Local Bank (E) None of these Ans (B) 20. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as ___ (A) Sun of Bank of Baroda (B) Baroda Sun (C) Bank of Baroda's Rays (D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda (E) None of these Ans (B) 21. One of the major challenges banking industries is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/ norms are launched by the banks by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ? (A) Know your customer norms (B) Banking Regulation Act (C) Negotiable Instrument Act (D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act (E) None of these Ans (E) 22. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering MBanking Facility to their customers . What is the full form of 'M' in 'MBanking'? (A) Money (B) Marginal
(C) Message (D) Mutual Fund (E) Mobile Phone Ans (E) 23. Which of the following is/are true about the "SubPrime Crisis" ? (The term was very much in news recently.) (1) It is a Mortage Crisis referring to Credit default by the borrowers (2) SubPrime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers (3) This crisis originated of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (D) 24. Which of the following is NOT the part of the structure of the financial System in India ? (A) Industrial Finance (B) Agricultural Finance (C) Government Finance (D) Development Finance (E) Personal Finance Ans (E)
25. Which of the following is NOT the part of the Scheduled Banking structure in India ? (A) Money Lenders (B) Public Sector Banks (C) Private Sector Banks (D) Regional Rural Banks (E) State Cooperative Banks Ans (A) 26. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ? (1) Tax on Income (2) Tax on Expenditure (3) Tax on property or Capital Asset (4) Tax on Goods and Services (A) Both 1 and 3 only (B) Both 2 and 4 only (C) All 1,2,3 & 4 (D) Only 2,3 and 4 (E) None of these Ans (C) 27. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ? (1) To attract foreign investment directly (2) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals
(3) To provide more capital to agriculture and allied activities (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (A) 28. Which of the following groups of the countries has almost 50% share in Global emission of carbon every year ? (A) US, China, India, South Africa (B) India, china, Russia , Britain (C) South Africa, Nepal , Myanmar (D) US, Russia, China & India (E) None of these Ans (D) 29. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is Future Trading ? (1) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges where in it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year (2) It is an agreement between two parties to buy and sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price (3) It is agreement between Stock Exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (B) 30. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA? (A) George Bush (B) Barack Obama (C) John McCain (D) Boll Clinton (E) None of these Ans (B) 31. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the _____ (A) President of Cango (B) Prime Minister of Uganda (C) President of Venezuela (D) Prime Minister of Brazil (E) None of these Ans (C) 32. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly _____ (A) Rs. 60,000 crores (B) Rs. 65,000 crores
(C) Rs. 72,000 crores (D) Rs. 76,000 crores (E) Rs. 80,000 crores Ans (A) 33. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation the next Census should be Panchayat wise. When is the next Census due ? (A) 2010 (B) 2011 (C) 2012 (D) 2013 (E) 2015 Ans (B) 34. The world Health Organization has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ? (A) Tobacco (B) Alcoholic drinks (C) Junk Food (D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives (E) None of these Ans (A) 35. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ? (A) Japan (B) South Korea
(C) China (D) South Africa (E) None of these Ans (C) 36. Which of the foloowing names is NOT closely associated with space Programme of India or any other country ? (A) CARTOSAT (B) NLS5 (C) RUBIN8 (D) GSLV (E) SCOPE Ans (E) 37. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with game of _____ (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Badminton (D) Football (E) Golf Ans (B) 38. Which of the following was theme of the Olympic Torch ? (A) Journey of Harmony (B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace (D) Jouney of Hungerfree World (E) None of these Ans (A) 39. Which of the following schemes is NOT a social development Scheme ? (A) Indira Awas Yojana (B) Mid Day Meal (C) Bharat Nirman Yojana (D) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (E) All are Social Schemes Ans (C) 40. Which of the following is NOT a member of ASEAN ? (A) Maleysia (B) Indonesia (C) Vietnam (D) Britain (E) Singapore Ans (D) 41. Which of the following awards are given for the excellence in the field of Sports ? (A) Kalinga Prize (B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award (C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Award (E) None of these Ans (C) 42. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ? (A) Cost of Living Index (COLI) (B) Consumer Price Index (CPI) (C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) (E) None of these Ans (D) General Awareness 1. Ashok Mankad who died recently was a famous (A) Journalist (B) Cricket Player (C) Politician (D) Author (E) Cine Artist Ans (B) 2. The logo of the "Olympic Games 2008" is named as (A) Dancing Beijing (B) Race of Harmony (C) One world one dream
(D) Beijing welcomes you (E) None of these Ans (A) 3. Midnight children is book written by (A) Kiran Desai (B) Chetan Bhagat (C) Salman Rusdie (D) V.S.Naipaul (E) None of these Ans (C) 4. Which of the following teams won the "Asia cup cricket 2008" held in Karanchi in July 2008? (A) India (B) Pakistan (C) Sri Lanka (D) Bangladesh (E) None of these Ans (C) 5. The commonwealth Games 2010 are scheduled to be held in (A) Bnagalore (B) Pune (C) New Delhi (D) Mumbai
(E) Hyderabad Ans (C) 6. Which of the following teams won the "Champions Trophy" 2008 (of Hockey) held in June 2008? (A) Russia (B) England (C) India (D) Pakistan (E) Australia Ans (E) 7. The 34th G8 Summit was organized in July 2008 in (A) France (B) Germany (C) Russia (D) Italy (E) Japan Ans (E) 8. Which of the following is specifically designed to control various risk involve in Banking operations? (A) RTGS (B) FEMA (C) Basel Norms (D) EFTOPS (E) All these
Ans (C) 9. In banking world providing credit and other financial services and products of very small amount to the poors in rural/semiurban area is known as (A) NGO Finance (B) Credit Finance (C) Corporate Finance (D) Micro Finance (E) None of these Ans (D) 10. Which of the following organizations has launched "Kick the CO2 Habit" Campaign to create awareness about "Global Warming"? (A) ISRO (B) WTO (C) NASA (D) UNO (E) None of these Ans (E) UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme) 11. Which of the following has been the approximate growth of India economy during 200708? (A) 7 % (B) 8 % (C) 9 % (D) 10 % (E) 11 %
Ans (C) 12. Which of the following plays a very important role in farming guidelines/policies pertaining to provide credit facility to agriculculture and rural sectors? (A) SIDBI (B) NABARD (C) ICICI Bank (D) ECGE (E) Exim Bank Ans (B) 13. Who amongst the following was the Speaker of the Lok Sabha when Mnamohan Singh Govt. was required to go for "Vote of Confidence" on 22nd July 2008? (A) Najma Heptulaha (B) P.M.Sayeed (C) Somnath Chatterjee (D) Mohamad Hamid Ansari (E) None of these Ans (C) 14. Amar singh whose name was very much in news recently belongs to which of the following political parties? (A) Bohujan Samaj Party (B) Samajwadi Party (C) Samta Party (D) CPI (M)
(E) None of these Ans (B) 15. The RBI Governor reviews the Annual Monetary and Credit Policy every time after a gap of (A) Two months (B) Three months (C) Four months (D) Six months (E) As and When required Ans (B) 16. The Advertisement of which of the following banks has the punch line "Much more to do with you in focus"? (A) State Bank of India (B) ICICI Bank (C) Bank of Baroda (D) Bank of India (E) Andhra Bank Ans (E) 17. R.S.Gavai has taken over as the Governor of _ (A) Assam (B)Jammu & Kashmir (C) Biha (D) Kerala (E) None of these
Ans (D) 18. The unit of sound is (A) Dyne (B) Joule (C) Knot (D) Watt (E) Decibel Ans (E) 19. Who amongst the following has written the book "Gandhiji's Emissary"? (A) Arun Gandhi (B) Abdul Sultan (C) B.G.Varghese (D) D.B.C.Pierre (E) Sudhir Ghosh Ans (E) 20. Who amongst the following has written the book "The Last Moghul"? (A) John Banville (B) Elfriede Jelinek (C) Graham Green (D) Hussain Haqqani (E) William Darlymple Ans (E)
Banking and Marketing Aptitude : Objective Questions Tuesday 04 November 2008 02:06 PM Banking and Marketing Aptitude : Objective Questions
1. A prospect means a) any customer who walks into the bank b) an employee of the bank c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service d) a depositor of the bank’ e) a borrower of the bank 2. A lead means a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product b) a political leader c) a religious leader d) a bank chairman e) None of these 3. Innovation means a) Compensation b) inspiration c) additional perquisites d) implementing new ideas or new methods e) None of these 4. A Call means
a) calling on friends b) calling on bank employees c) calling on prospective customers d) to make telephone calls e) calling on relatives 5. The Traditional Marketing style involves a) Telemarketing b) Digital Marketing c) Indirect Marketing d) Direct Marketing e) All of these 6. Modern Method of Marketing include a) Publicity on the net b) Advertisement on the net c) Soliciting business through emails d) Tele marketing e) All of these 7. A true marketing requires a) Command and other mindset b) Control Mindset c) Passive mindset d) Active mindset
e) None of these 8. Which of the following sentences is true? a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market c) Marketing is not required due to competition d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation 9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities? a) Creativity b) Team spirit c) Motivation d) Effective communication skills e) All of these 10. Market information means a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars b) Knowledge of shopping malls c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix d) knowledge of various languages e) None of these 11. Market Research is needed for a) checking the market area b) checking the right product to be sold
c) making proper marketing decisions d) deciding right time to sell e) All of these 12. Which of the following statement is true a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function e) Marketing is a waste of time 13. Marketing plan helps in a) better lead generation b) better systems c) better results d) improved balance sheet e) better customer service 14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required? a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Market Research d) Market Segmentation e) None of these 15. Motivation means
a) Inspiring employees to perform better b) Better communication skills c) Sales Coaching d) Market Research e) None of these 16. In a Selling Process in today’s world? a) Only standard products are sold b) No customization required c) the seller need not have product knowledge d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction e) only quantum of sales matters 17. Find the true statement a) Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population c) Marketing involves additional work d) Marketing involves team work e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement 18. A Target market is a) entire country b) entire city c) entire globe d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product
e) all of these 19. Sales forecasting involves a) Sales Planning b) Sales Pricing c) Distribution Channels d) Consumer tastes e) All of these 20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC a) Shirts b) Ties c) Both A and B d) Liberty 21. SWIFT cars are being manufactured by a) DCM b) Maruti c) Premier Automobiles d) Hyundai 22. With you all the way is the slogan of a) Vodafone b) SBI c) ICICI d) Raymonds
23. Which company used the slogan "The complete Man" a) DCM b) GRASIM c) RAYMONDS d) VIMAL 24. Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes? a) Cavenders b) Four Square c) Red & White d) Wills 25. Cross Selling means a) Identifying customer needs b) matching the products to customer needs c) convincing the customers of product benefits d) responding to questions and objections of customers e) all of these
ANSWERS 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 ( c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (e) 10 (c) 11 (e) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (e) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (e)
General Awareness/Computer Knowledge 1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____ (A) Goa (B) Bihar (C) Meghalaya (D) Sikkim (E) None of these Ans (D) 2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____ (A) Tokyo (B) New York (C) Madrid (D) Stckholm (E) Beijing Ans (E) 3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently? (1) The NRAA was setup in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru (2) NRAA was established to coordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas (3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1 , 2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (B) 4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base / (A) Jet Airways (B) Ranbaxy (C) Bhilai Steel Plant (D) National Textiles Corporation (E) None of these Ans (B) 5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels? (A) 5 % (B) 6 % (C) 7 % (D) 8 % (E) 9 % Ans (C) 6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial
newspaper) (A) London (B) New York (C) Tokyo (D) Beijing (E) Mumbai Ans (D) 7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___ (A) Credit Policy (B) Monetary Policy (C) KYC Norms (D) Basel Accord (E) None of these Ans (D) 8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___ (A) Repo Rate (B) Reserve Repo Rate (C) SLR (D) Liquidity Ratio (E) None of these Ans (E) 9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month
have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy? (1) Turmoil in US Credit market (2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains (3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 only (E) All 1,2 & 3 Ans (D) 10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ? (A) 5 % (B) 15 % (C) 25 % (D) 30 % (E) None of these Ans (B) 11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ? (A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon (B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region (C) It is new battle tank produced by India (D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently
(E) None of these Ans (B) 12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ? (A) Seeds (B) Pesticides (C) Fertilizers (D) Organic Manure (E) None of these Ans (D) 13. The next NonAligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___ (A) India (B) Egypt (C) Brazil (D) South Africa (E) None of these Ans (B) 15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___ (A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir (B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir (C) Governor , Jharkhand (D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand
(E) Governor, Manipur Ans (B) 15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ? (A) Inflation (B) Recession (C) Deflation (D) Economic Boom (E) None of these Ans (B) 16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ? (A) NATO (B) SAARC (C) European Union (D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) (E) None of these Ans (C) 17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___ (A) Treasury Bill (B) Momerandom of Association (C) Kisan Vikas Patra (D) National Saving Certificate
(E) Commercial Papers Ans (E) 18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ? (A) Ukraine (B) Kazakhastan (C) Croatia (D) Georgia (E) None of these Ans (D) 19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ? (A) Manipur (B) Assam (C) Meghalaya (D) Arunachal Pradesh (E) None of these Ans (E) 20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ? (A) Hockey (B) Football (C) Lawn Tennis (D) Swimming
(E) Rifle Shooting Ans (E) Computer General Awareness For forthcomming Examination Saturday 01 November 2008 02:24 PM Computer General Awareness (Bank PO, Bank Clerk) 1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit? a. Printer b. Key board c. Mouse d. Arithmetic & Logic unit e. None 2. CAD stands for a. Computer aided design b. Computer algorithm for design c. Computer application in design d. All of the above e. None 3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics? a. Inkjet b. Daisy Wheel c. Laser
d. Dotmatrix e. None 4. A program written in machine language is called? a. Assembler b. Object c. Computer d. Machine e. None 5. The father of Modern Computer is a. Charles Babbage b. Vonnuumann c. Danies Ritchel d. Blaise Pascal e. None 6. The Word FTP stands for a. File Translate Protocol b. File Transit Protocol c. File Transfer protocol d. file typing protocol e. None 7. The lowest form of Computer language is called
a. BASIC b. FORTRAN c. Machine Language d. COBOL e. None 8. Best Quality graphics is produced by a. Dot Matix b. Laser Printer c. Inkjet Printer d. Plotter e. None 9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as a. Corrupted b. Volatile c. NonVolatile d. NonCorrupted e. None 10. The linking of computers with a communication system is called a. Networking b. Pairing c. Interlocking
d. Assembling e. Sharing 11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has a. 16 address lines b. 16 Buses c. 16 Data lines d. 16 routes e. None 12. Data going into the computer is called a. Output b. algorithm c. Input d. Calculations e. flow chart 13. Which of the following refers to a small, singlesite network? a. LAN b. DSL c. RAM d. USB e. CPU 14. Microsoft Office is a. Shareware
b.Public domain software c. Opensourse software d. A vertical market application e. An application suite 15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer a. None b. One c. Two d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer e. It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor 16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called a. Operating System b. Computer c. Office d. Compiler e. Interpreter 17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can a. run faster b. go on line c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment d. Email
e. None 18. Information travels between components on the mother board through a. Flash memory b. CMOS c. Bays d. Buses e. Peripherals 19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet? a. Lines & spaces b. Layers & Planes c. Height & Width d. Rows & Columns e. None 20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the a. mouse b. logo c. hand d. palm e. cursor 21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as
a. Boot b. Bug c. Biff d. Strap e. None 22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________ a. Bug b. Vice c. Lice d. Worm e. None 23. A _______ is a bistable electronic circuit that has two stable states. a. Multivibrator b. Flipflop c. Logic gates d. laten e. None 24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk email is known as a. Spam b. Trash
c. Calibri d. Courier e. None 25. DOS stands for a. Disk Operating System b. Disk operating session c. Digital Operating System d. Digital Open system e. None 26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft a. Babbage b. Bill Gates c. Bill Clinton d. Bush e. None 27. Which of the following are input devices. a. Keyboard b. Mouse c. Card reader d. Scanner e. All of these 28. Examples of output devices are
a. Screen b. Printer c. Speaker d. All of these e. None 29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer a. Control unit b. Central Processing unit c. Arithmatic and language unit d. Monitor e. None 30. IBM stands for a. Internal Business Management b. International Business Management c. International Business Machines d. Internal Business Machines e. None 31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line a. Compiler b. Interpreter c. Linker
d. Loader e. None 32. ___________ is an OOP principle a. Structured programming b. Procedural programming c. Inheritance d. Linking e. None 33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications a. Commercial b. Scientific c. Space d. Mathematical e. None 34. RAM stands for a. Random origin money b. Random only memory c. Read only memory d. Random access memory e. None 35. 1 Byte = ? a. 8 bits
b. 4 bits c. 2 bits d. 9 bits e. None 36. SMPS stands for a. Switched mode Power Suply b. Start mode power supply c. Store mode power supply d. Single mode power supply e. None 37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as a. Modem b. Multiplexer c. Modulator d. Demodulator e. None 38. VDU is also called a. Screen b. Monitor c. Both 1 & 2 d. printer
e. None 39. BIOS stands for a. Basic Input Output system b. Binary Input output system c. Basic Input Off system d. all the above e. None 40. Father of ‘C’ programming language a. Dennis Ritchie b. Prof Jhon Kemeny c. Thomas Kurtz d. Bill Gates e. None ANSWERS 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (e) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a) English Language Test Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA,
Saturday 01 November 2008 01:03 PM ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST Idioms and Phrases Objective Question Idioms are Phrases are an important part of the English Language test in almost all Entrance Exams like Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc. Idioms and phrases are similar to "muhavare" that we have in Hindi.
Directions: In each of the following questions part of sentence is in bold. Four alternative meanings of the highlited part of the sentence are given below the sentence. Mark as your answer that alternative meaning which you think is correct. If none of the first four is correct, mark (5) i.e. none of these as your answer. 1. In the last few years India has advanced by leaps and bounds in the industrial sector. 1. Very rapidly 2. Very competently 3. Very slowly 4. Very pathetically 5. None of these 2. The authorities turned a deaf ear to the demands of the employees. 1. Immediately implemented 2. Agreed to listen to 3. Misrepresented 4. Wholeheartedly agreed to 5. None of these
3. He was in doldrums after the quarrel he had with his brother. 1. He was jubilant 2. He was in low spirits 3. He was in a financial difficulty 4. He left the house 5. None of these 4. If you pass this difficult examination it will be a feather in you cap 1. Your parents will be very happy 2. You will get a scholarship for higher studies 3. You will feel proud of it 4. You will get a very good job 5. None of these 5. Tell me plainly who broke the mirror, do not beat about the bush. 1. Pretend to be unaware of the matter 2. Try to impress me with your arguments 3. Put any blame on others 4. Approach the matter in a round about way 5. None of these 6. Some people have a habit of wearing their heart on their sleeve.
1. saying something which is not to be taken seriously 2. exposing their innermost feelings to others 3. avoiding being friendly with others 4. always trying to gain advantage over others 5. wasting their time on unnecessary details 7. I raked my brains to solve this difficult problem. 1. I read number of books 2. I consulted several people 3. I used my commonsense 4. I subjected my mind to hard thinking 5. I brainwashed several experts 8. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand. 1. sympathetically 2. kindly 3. democratically 4. conveniently 5. oppressively 9. It is a matter of gratification for me that he has turned a new leaf. 1. begun a different mode of life 2. proved to be a worthy person on his job 3. decided to use a different strategy to solve the problem
4. accepted the new job that was offered to him 5. started using his intelligence 10. He is a plain, simple and sincere man, he will always call a spade a spade. 1. be outspoken 2. help needy person 3. stand by his friends and relatives 4. sacrifice his life for others 5. put up a simple dress 11. It was such a strange affair that I could not make head or tail of it. 1. tolerate it 2. face it 3. remember it 4. believe it 5. understand it 12. He is temporarily in charge of the company and is trying to feather his nest. 1. bring order and discipline in the company 2. raise the image of the company 3. act for his own future benefits 4. diversify the product of the company 5. practice his own brand of management philosophy
13. Those who make no bones about such actions face a tough oppostion. 1. do without hesitation 2. make no plan 3. waste no time 4. invite no comments 5. None of these 14. Mrs B is known as a shoplifter in a Mumbai commercial center. 1. smuggler 2. a thief in the guise of a customer 3. buyer of all new things 4. daily visitor 5. None of these 15. The people in north India are known for keeping open house. 1. never locking it 2. not worrying about its security 3. offering hospitality to everyone 4. keeping it well ventilated 5. None of these Directions (Q 1620): In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression and its four possible meaning are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and mark the number of that meanings as your answer on the answer sheet. If you do
not find any correct answer, mark ‘5′, i.e. none of these as your answer. 16. To make clean breast of 1. to gain prominence 2. to praise oneself 3. to confess without reserve 4. to destroy before it blooms 5. None of these 17. To end in smoke 1. to make completely understand 2. to ruin oneself 3. to excite great applause 4. to overcome some one 5. None of these 18. To leave someone in the lurch. 1. to come to compromise with someone 2. constant source of annoyance to someone 3. to put someone at ease 4. to desert someone in his difficulties 5. None of these 19. To cry wolf 1. to listen eagerly 2. to give false alarm
3. to turn pale 4. to keep off starvation 5. None of these 20. A man of straw 1. a man of no substance 2. a very active person 3. a worthy fellow 4. an unreasonable person 5. None of these ANSWERS 1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (5) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1) Mental Ability Test For Fothcomming Exam Friday 24 October 2008 08:44 AM Mental Ability Test For Fothcomming Exam [MBA, BANK PO, RRB TC,B.ED.,BANK CLERK] 1. Sanu walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point? (A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these Ans : (B)
2. Raza walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West. Here is the house of Satyam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the SouthWest direction from Satyam's house. If the market is in the West of Raza's house, then how far is the market from Raza's house? (A) 100 m (B) 150 m (C) 300 m (D) 400 m (E) None of these Ans : (E) 3. Ravi goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point? (A) 4 km, West (B) 7 km, East (C) 9 km, East (D) 7 km, West (E) None of these Ans : (B) 4. How many 7's are there in the following number series; which are preceded by an even number but not followed by any odd? 437523721367542742712276572 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four Ans : (B) 5. How many 5's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2 ? 5243546785325735642354752358356 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four Ans : (E) 6. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number? 3425315213673182785391345235435 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
(E) More than four Ans : (C) 7. If the numbers which are divisible by 4, from 4 to 84 are written in reverse order then which number will be at the 7th place? (A) 60 (B) 28 (C) 20 (D) 32 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 8. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth digit or both include 3 ? (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) Less than 6 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 9. How many 4's are there in the following numberseries which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ? 23423425473243192547547234529546 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four Ans : (A) 10. If the numbers between 4 to 90, which are divisible by 5, and which contain 5 in the unit, tenth or both place, are removed, then how many numbers divisible by 5 will be left? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 12 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 11. Rajan remembers that his elder brother was born between 13th and 16th April while his mother remembers that he was born after 14th April and before 17th April. If the statements of both are considered correct then on which date of April he was born ? (A) 14
(B) 16 (C) 14 or 15 (D) 15 (E) 15 or 16 Ans : (D) 12. How many numbers are there from 1 to 60, which are divisible by 3 and either unit digit or tenth digit or both include 3 ? (A) 5 (B) 9 (C)15 (D) More than 15 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 13. If the following numbers are written in descending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ? 723, 789, 595, 659, 713, 785, 689 (A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 3 (E) 2 Ans : (A) 14. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ? (A) 10.05 a.m. (B) 9.55 a.m. (C) 10.35 a.m. (D) 10.15 a.m. (E) 10.25 a.m. Ans : (D) 15. If the numbers between 1 to 65 and divisible by 4 are written in reverse order then which of the following numbers will be at l0th place? (A) 44 (B) 24 (C) 40 (D) 28 (E) None of these Ans : (D)
16. How many 6's are there in the following numberseries which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ? 56765649276743568649567 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) None of these Ans : (B) 17. How many 4's are there in the following numberseries which are preceded and followed by only an even number? 6432483154232464813242645 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) None of these Ans : (D) 18. How many 2's are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? . 13523545245226245267823527524 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than four (E) None of these Ans : (E) 19. How many 3's are there in the following series, which are not preceded by an odd number but followed by 4 ? 15323465347834923456343534 (A) None (B) Two (C) Four (D) One (E) None of these Ans : (C) 20. How many B's are there in the following letterseries, which are followed by G but G is not be followed by S ? BGSQBRNOBGNSQLTBGQTDBGUWXBGF (A) 4
(B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 21. How many D's are there in the following letterseries, which are preceded by K and followed by Q ? KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 22. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are removed, then how many numbers will be left? (A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) 25 (E) None of these. Ans : (D) 23. At a railway station a man said to Swapna, "A train leaves for Muzaffar Nagar after every 1.45 hours. The last train has already left 50 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 5.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to Swapna ? (A) 3.30 (B) 2.40 (C) 4.10 (D) 3.50 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 24. A trader said to his servant Ramu, "I leave for my house after every 2.40 hours from his shop. I have already gone to his house 55 minutes ago and next time. I shall go to my house from the shop at 8.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to the servant? (A) 6.30 (B) 6.00 (C) 6.15 (D) 4.40 (E) None of these Ans : (A)
25. A doctor said to his compounder, "I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1.40 p.m." At what time this information was given to the compounder by the doctor? (A) 10.10 (B) 11.30 (C) 8.50 (D) 11.20 (E) None of these Ans : (B) Business and Marketing Aptitude Objective Questions Thursday 23 October 2008 02:38 PM Business Based Current Objective Questions 1. "Zindagi ke saath bhi zindagi ke baad bhi" is a punchline of a LIC b Relaince Life c Bharti AXA Life d Indian Railway 2. CD Dawn and CD Deluxe are bike models of a HMSI b Hero Honda c Bajaj Auto d TVS 3. The president of India has a salary of a 1 lakh b 1.5 lakh c 2 lakhs d 5 lakhs 4. “Dus Ka Dum” hosted by Salman Khan is on air on channel a Sony b Star c Star One d Zee 5. Ganga soap is from the brand basket of a P&G b ITC c HUL d Godrej 6. Godrej Group has alliance with a Saralee b Hercheys c A & b d GE e P&G
7. Lifespace is the retail venture of a Pantaloon b Godrej Group c Future Group d RPG Group 8. The rural retail initiative Aadhar is an initiative of a Pantaloon b Godrej Group c Future Group d RPG Group 9. echaupal is a rural initiative of a Future Group b RPG Group c ITC d Pantaloon 10. Broadband penetration in India is at a 4% b 12% c 20% d 24% 11. Mobile penetration in India is at a 15% b 30% c 40% d 50% 12. Navratna Oil is a brand of a Emami b ITC c HUL d P&G 13. Monte Carlo is a brand of a Westside b Oswal Woolen Mills c Crossworld d pantaloons 14. The parent company of Rolls Royce is a BMW b Audi c Toyota d GM 15. Current standard for encryption is a 40 bit b 64 bit c 128 bit
d 256 bit 16. Schaffer Group is into a Car manufacture b CV manufacture c Truck Manufacture d Car Parts 17. Altis is the new car model being launched by a Honda b Audi Skoda c. GM India d. Toyota 18. The Atom N 270 processor is more powerful than Core 2 Duo a True b False c Cant Say d None of these 19. Asda is the top grocery retailer of a UK b US c. Italy d France 20. Big Adda social networking site belongs to a Times Group b HT Group c Naukri.com d ADAG Group 21. Who is the chairman and CEO of General Motor's ? a Rick Wagoner b Adam Smith c Steve Jobs d Indra Kumar Sharma 22. Tata Nano project relocated to a Maharastra b Orrissa c Uttrakhand d. Gujrat 23. According to Digit most trustworthy PC brand is a HP/Compaq b Lenovo c IBM d Dell 24. India's Sensex consists of __________stocks. a 30 b 50
c 75 d 100 25. Flash drive has more storage space compared to External Hard disks. a True b False c Cant Say d None of the above 26. The Advertisement of which of the following banks has the punch line "Much more to do with you in focus"? a State Bank of Indi b ICICI Bank c Andhra Bank d Bank of Baroda ANSWERS: 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. c Banking : General Awareness Tuesday 21 October 2008 04:24 PM
Banking Based General Awareness SET1 1. Which of the following is not a recommendation made by A K Purwar Committee? (A) Merger of loss making RRBs in their sponsored banks (B) Merger of weak commercial banks in strong banks (C) Merger of all RRBs into State Bank of India (D) Merger of RRBs at zonal basis Ans : (D) 2. Which of the following RRBs has a plan for statewise merger of RRBs? (A) State Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) Bank of Baroda (D) All the above Ans : (D) 3. A Regional Rural Bank does banking operations in a— (A) Notified area (B) Village (C) District
(D) State Ans : (A) 4. Punjab National Bank has recently merged its three Regional Rural Banks in Punjab. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Gurudaspur Amritsar Regional Rural Bank (B) Kapoorthala Firozpur Regional Rural Bank (C) Shivalik Regional Rural Bank (D) Punjab Gramin Bank Ans : (D) 5. Union Bank of India has recently merged its three Regional Rural Banks in Uttar Pradesh. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Gorakhpur Regional Rural Bank (B) Ganga Yamuna Regional Rural Bank (C) Basti Gramin Bank (D) Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank Ans : (D) 6. Canara Bank has recently merged its four Regional Rural Banks in Karnataka. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Pragati Gramin Bank (B) Pitambra Gramin Bank (C) Santhal Regional Rural Bank (D) Manjira Gramin Bank Ans : (A) 7. Syndicate Bank has recently merged its four Regional Rural Banks in Karnataka. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Karnataka Vikas Bank (B) Shivpuri Gramin Bank (C) Shriram Regional Rural Bank (D) Malaprabha Gramin Bank Ans : (A) 8. Central Bank of India has recently merged its three Regional Rural Banks in Maharashtra. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Kalptaru Gramin Bank (B) Vidarbha Kshetria Gramin Bank (C) JunagarhAmreli Gramin Bank (D) MumbaiGoa Regional Rural Bank Ans : (B) 9. Bank of Baroda has recently merged its 5 Regional Rural Banks in Rajsthan. What is the name of
merged entity? (A) Panchmahal Vadodra Gramin Bank (B) Surat Baruch Gramin Bank (C) Surat Valsad Gramin Bank (D) Baroda Gramin Bank Ans : (D) 10. State Bank of Saurashtra has recently merged its three Regional Rural Banks. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Jamnagar Rajkot Gramin Bank (B) Saurashtra Gramin Bank (C) Surendranagar Bhavnagar Gramin Bank (D) Junagarh Amreli Gramin Bank Ans : (B) 11. Punjab National Bank has recently merged its three Regional Rural Banks in Uttar Pradesh. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Ganga Jamuna Gramin Bank (B) Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank (C) Lucknow Kshetria Gramin Bank (D) Vidur Gramin Bank Ans : (B) 12. Punjab National Bank has recently merged its three Regional Rural Banks in Hariyana. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Haryana Gramin Bank (B) Hisar Gramin Bank (C) Hisar Kurukshetra Gramin Bank (D) Haryana Kshetria Gramin Bank Ans : (A) 13. Central Bank of India has recently merged its 7 RRBs in Bihar. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Madhumani Gramin Bank (B) Vaishali Gramin Bank (C) Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank (D) Mithila Koshi Gramin Bank Ans : (C) 14. Bank of Baroda has recently merged its 7 RRBs in Uttar Pradesh. What is the name of merged entity? (A) Baroda Gramin Bank (B) Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank (C) Baroda Lucknow Gramin Bank
(D) Baroda Eastern U.P. Gramin Bank Ans : (D) 15. Local Area Banks are classified under— (A) Private Sector (B) Public Sector (C) Govt. Sector (D) Cooperative Sector Ans : (A) 16. A Local Area Bank can do business in maximum………………..district(s). (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Five Ans : (C) 17. Minimum Paidup Capital of a Local Area Bank is— (A) Rs 1 crore (B) Rs 2 crore (C) Rs 5 crore (D) Rs 10 crore Ans : (C) 18. Which of the following Local Area Banks was merged in Bank of Baroda in 2004? (A) South Gujrat Local Area Bank (B) Manipal Local Area Bank (C) Central Gujrat Local Area Bank (D) Vinayak Local Area Bank Ans : (A) 19. Which is the first Local Area Bank of India? (A) Coastal Local Area Bank (B) Capital Local Area Bank (C) Krishnabhim Smridhi Local Area Bank (D) Vinayak Local Area Bank Ans : (C) 20. When was Coastal Local Area Bank established? (A) December 1999 (B) December 2000 (C) December 2001 (D) December 2002 Ans : (A)
21. Where was Coastal Local Area Bank established? (A) Vijayawada (B) Hyderabad (C) Secunderabad (D) Rajmundri Ans : (A) 22. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of Capital Local Area Bank? 1. It is the third Local Area Bank in the country 2. It was established in January 2000 at Nakodar (Punjab) 3. All its branches are fully computerised (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 23. Local Area Banks are required to increase their capital from Rs 5 crore to………………..in next 5 to 7 years— (A) Rs 10 crore (B) Rs 20 crore (C) Rs 25 crore (D) Rs 50 crore Ans : (C) 24. Local Area Banks are required to have a minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio of— (A) 8% (B) 10% (C) 12% (D) 15% Ans : (D) 25. Reserve Bank of India has cancelled licence of………………..Local Area Bank. (A) South Gujrat Local Area Bank (B) Manipal Local Area Bank (C) Central Gujrat Local Area Bank (D) Vinayak Local Area Bank Ans : (D) SET2 1. Hanil Bank, that opened its first branch at New Delhi in India in March 1997, belongs to— (A) China
(B) South Korea (C) Hongkong (D) Taiwan Ans : (B) 2. China Trust Commercial Bank, which has opened its first branch in India in April 1996, belongs to— (A) China (B) South Korea (C) Hong Kong (D) Taiwan Ans : (D) 3. The first foreign bank that has been permitted by Reserve Bank of India to handle Currency Chest in India is— (A) Standard Chartered Bank (B) China Trust Commercial Bank (C) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation (D) ABN Amro Bank Ans : (A) 4. What target has been fixed for a foreign bank functioning in India to provide priority sector lending as a percentage of net bank credit? (A) 40% (B) 33–1/3 % (C) 32% (D) 25% Ans : (C) 5. If a foreign bank does not achieve the target of 32% priority sector lending, it has to deposit the amount of shortfall with— (A) State Bank of India (B) EXIM Bank (C) SIDBI (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 6. If a foreign bank wants to establish its subsidiary unit in India, the minimum Paid up Capital of that subsidiary should be— (A) Rs. 100 crore (B) Rs. 200 crore (C) Rs. 300 crore (D) Rs. 500 crore Ans : (C)
7. Which of the following foreign banks has acquired 14.7% stake in UTI Bank? (A) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation. (B) Standard Chartered Bank (C) ABN Amro (D) Citi Bank Ans : (A) 8. Which of the following is Counseling Bank for modernization of airports at New Delhi and Mumbai? (A) China Trust Commercial Bank (B) Standard Chartered Bank (C) ABN Amro (D) Citi Bank Ans : (C) 9. Which of the following has acquired 'Korea First Bank' of Korea? (A) China Trust Commercial Bank (B) Standard Chartered Bank (C) ABN Amro (D) Citi Bank Ans : (B) 10. Foreign banks are working in India in— (A) Public Sector (B) Private Sector (C) Cooperative Sector (D) All the above Ans : (B) 11. Govt of India has recently given permission to 'Overseas Chinese Banking Corporation' to establish wholly owned bank in India. To which country does OCBC belong? (A) Singapore (B) Taiwan (C) South Korea (D) China Ans : (A) 12. Standard Chartered Bank has not acquired Indian operations of (A) Bank of Bahrain and Kuwait (B) Grindlays Bank (C) Sumitomo Mitshui Banking Corporation (D) Mizuho Bank Ans : (D)
13. Which foreign bank has a plan to enter in Indian banking sector? (A) PT Bank Indomonex, Indonesia (B) Giro Commercial Bank, Kenya (C) Habib Bank, Pakistan (D) Rupali Bank, Bangladesh Ans : (C) 14. Evolution of cooperative banks in India was made in the year— (A) 1904 (B) 1909 (C) 1914 (D) 1919 Ans : (A) 15. How many cooperative banks and cooperative societies have been providing loans to Agriculture Sector in our country? (A) 101422 (B) 102422 (C) 103422 (D) 104422 Ans : (D) 16. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. District Cooperative Banks have been established at District level. 2. Primary Cooperative Banks have been established at Village level. 3. State Cooperative Banks have been established at Apex level. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 17. Which of the following states has largest number of urban cooperative banks? (A) Maharashtra (B) Gujrat (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh Ans : (A) 18. Maintenance of Investment Fluctuation Reserve is necessary for a cooperative bank that has its deposits of …………………... or more. (A) Rs 50 crore (B) Rs 100 crore
(C) Rs 200 crore (D) Rs 500 crore Ans : (B) 19. A Primary (Urban) Cooperative Bank can open its Extension Counter only if its NPA level is below………………….and it has earned Net Profit for last…………………years and more. (A) 10%, 2 Years (B) 9%, 2 Years (C) 8%, 3 Years (D) 7%, 3 Years Ans : (A) 20. A Primary (Urban) Cooperative Bank can provide Safe Deposit Locker facility to its customers only if its NPA level is below……………………..and it has earned Net Profit for last……………… ……...years and more. (A) 10%, 2 Years (B) 9%, 2 Years (C) 8%, 3 Years (D) 7%, 3 Years Ans : (D) 21. Which of the following facilities are prohibited to be provided by Urban Cooperative Banks at their Extension Counters? 1. Granting of loans and advances. 2. Encashment of Traveller's Cheques. 3. Issuance and Encashment of Bank Drafts. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 22. An Urban Cooperative Bank can open its Extension Counter at— 1. Educational Institutions and Hospitals 2. Big Offices and Factories 3. Residential Areas (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 23. A scheduled urban cooperative bank having its NPA level of……………………or more cannot accept deposits from a nonscheduled urban cooperative bank.
(A) 5% (B) 6% (C) 7% (D) 8% Ans : (C) 24. Minimum networth of an urban cooperative bank should be……………………for doing insurance business. (A) Rs 50 crore (B) Rs 100 crore (C) Rs 200 crore (D) Rs 500 crore Ans : (B) 25. Which of the following is a scheduled cooperative bank? 1. Ahmedabad Mercantile Cooperative Bank 2. Bharat Cooperative Bank 3. Development Cooperative Bank (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B)
SET3 1. Which of the following is a function of Exim Bank? 1. Discounting of Export Bills. 2. Providing technical assistance to exporters. 3. Providing counseling services to exporters. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 2. With a view to provide Factoring and Forfaiting services to Indian exporters, EXIM Bank has established a joint venture jointly with— (A) West Dutch Lands Bank (B) Bank of Nova Scotia (C) Union Bank of Switzerland (D) Bank National De Paris Ans : (A)
3. Out of 7 offices in India, Exim Bank has no office in— 1. Hyderabad, Kanpur, Jaipur 2. Banglore, Ahmedabad, Pune 3. New Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 4. Out of 5 offices abroad, Exim Bank has no office in— 1. Singapore, Rome 2. Landon, Thailand 3. Washington D.C., Johannesburg, Budapest (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Exim Bank? 1. It provides Financial advises and counseling services for internationalization of business of Indian Companies which are foreign oriented. 2. It provides Working Capital Term Loan to export oriented units. 3. It provides refinance for export credit. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 6. Exim Bank has decided to acquire some stake in— (A) Commonwealth Bank of Australia (B) Royal Bank of Scotland (C) Development Bank of Mauritius (D) United Bank of Switzerland Ans : (C) 7. Which of the following is a joint venture of EXIM Bank? (A) Global Procurement Consultants Ltd., Mumbai (B) Development Bank of Zambia (C) West African Development Bank (D) State Bank ocean International
Ans : (A) 8. Export Import Bank of India has recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with — (A) Economic Development Board of Bahrain (B) Economic Development Board of Singapore (C) Economic Development Board of Thailand (D) All the above Ans : (A) 9. When was National Housing Bank established? (A) July 1982 (B) July 1985 (C) July 1988 (D) July 1991 Ans : (C) 10. Which is an apex body with regard to housing finance? (A) National Housing Bank (B) Housing & Urban Development Corporation (C) Housing Development Finance Corporation (D) SBI Home Finance Ans : (A) 11. Whose subsidiary is National Housing Bank? (A) State Bank of India (B) Reserve Bank of India (C) Housing Development Finance Corporation (D) ICICI Bank Ans : (B) 12. The Paid up Capital of National Housing Bank is— (A) Rs 150 crore (B) Rs 250 crore (C) Rs 350 crore (D) Rs 450 crore Ans : (D) 13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding National Housing Bank? 1. It provides refinance to scheduled commercial banks. 2. It provided Guarantee and Underwriting services to Housing Finance institutions. 3. It is not authorised to audit account books of Housing Finance institutions and scheduled commercial banks. (A) 1
(B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding National Housing Bank? 1. It is an apex bank for housing finance. 2. It can make a plan for raising funds and providing loans for housing. 3. It cannot raise its resources through issuance of debentures. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 15. When was Home Loan Account Scheme launched by National Housing Bank? (A) 1st July 1989 (B) 1st July 1991 (C) 1st July 1993 (D) 1st July 1995 Ans : (A) 16. An account can be opened in a………………………under Home Loan Account Scheme of National Housing Bank. 1. Specified branches of scheduled banks 2. National Housing Bank 3. Post Offices (Selected) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 17. A depositor is required to deposit a certain sum of money for a minimum period of …………… ……………. to be eligible for a loan under Home Loan Account scheme of National Housing Bank. (A) 1 year (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 5 years Ans : (D) 18. Commercial banks can provide loans to housing finance companies to the extent of…………… ……………of net owned funds of the respective bank. (A) 2 times
(B) 3 times (C) 5 times (D) No limit Ans : (D) 19. Every housing finance company is required to transfer………………….of its net profit to a Reserve Fund before declaring any dividend. (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20% Ans : (D) 20. For building a house, loan can be obtained through scheduled commercial banks and ………… ………..under ‘Swarn Jayanti Rural Housing Finance Scheme’ of National Housing Bank. 1. Agriculture & Rural Development Bank 2. Housing Finance Companies. 3. State level Scheduled Cooperative Banks. 4. Cooperative Housing Finance Companies. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 21. What is the maximum repayment period under ‘Swarn Jayanti Rural Housing Finance Scheme’ of National Housing Bank? (A) 10 years (B) 15 years (C) 20 years (D) 25 years Ans : (B) 22. Housing Finance Companies are required to maintain minimum capital adequacy ratio of— (A) 9% (B) 10% (C) 11% (D) 12% Ans : (D) 23. A Housing Finance Company can provide loan to an individual to the extent of.........................of its net owned funds. (A) 15% (B) 20%
(C) 25% (D) 30% Ans : (A) 24. A Housing Finance Company can provide loan to a group to the extent of……………………..of its net owned funds. (A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 35% Ans : (C) 25. A Housing Finance Company can invest in other companies to the extent of........................of its net owned funds. (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20% Ans : (A) SET4 1. When was Bank of Gujrat established? (A) 15th August 1993 (B) 15th August 1994 (C) 15th August 1995 (D) 15th August 1996 Ans : (B) 2. Where is the Head Office of Bank of Gujrat Ltd.? (A) Ahmedabad (B) Baroda (C) Bhavnagar (D) Gandhinagar Ans : (A) 3. What is the upper limit of foreign holding in private sector banks in our country? (A) 10% (B) 24% (C) 49% (D) 74% Ans : (D) 4. Where is the Head Office of HDFC Bank Ltd.?
(A) Hyderabad (B) Mumbai (C) New Delhi (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 5. Where is the Head Office of ICICI Bank Ltd.? (A) Indore (B) Mumbai (C) Chennai (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 6. Which of the following has opened its 500th Branch in December 2004 at Mumbai? (A) HDFC Bank (B) ICICI Bank (C) Federal Bank (D) Development Credit Bank Ans : (B) 7. Karur Vaisya Bank has launched a cobranded Smart Cash Debit Card jointly with— (A) HDFC Bank Ltd. (B) IDBI Bank Ltd. (C) UTI Bank Ltd. (D) Centurian Bank of Punjab Ltd. Ans : (C) 8. Head Office of UTI Bank is located at— (A) Indore (B) Mumbai (C) Chennai (D) Ahmedabad Ans : (D) 9. First branch of UTI Bank Ltd. was opened at— (A) Mumbai (B) Indore (C) Ahmedabad (D) Hyderabad Ans : (C) 10. Which is the first financial company that was converted into a Bank? (A) Mahindra & Mahindra P. Ltd. (B) Ambani Finance P. Ltd.
(C) Reliance Finance P. Ltd. (D) None of the above Ans : (D) 11. Which of the following private sector banks is the newest amongst others? (A) Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd. (B) Development Credit Bank Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) Yes Bank Ltd. Ans : (D) 12. How many private sector banks (except foreign banks) are there in India? (A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 33 (D) 36 Ans : (B) 13. Which bank has been deleted in April 2005 from the 2nd schedule of Reserve Bank of India? (A) IDBI Bank Ltd. (B) UTI Bank Ltd. (C) Yes Bank Ltd. (D) Development Credit Bank Ltd. Ans : (A) 14. ICICI Bank has announced to reduce its stake in Federal Bank from 20.76% to 5%. It will sell its stake to— (A) National Bank of Pakistan (B) International Finance Corporation (C) ABN Amro (D) State Bank of India Ans : (B) 15. Which of the following is a foreign promoter in Yes Bank? (A) Federal Reserve Bank (B) Standard Chartered Bank (C) Rabo Bank (D) Barclays Bank Ans : (C) 16. Foreign bank means a bank— 1. That has been incorporated outside India 2. That has its 51% or more branches out side India 3. Whose more than 51% Equity Capital is owned by foreign persons
(A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 17. How many foreign banks are there in India? (A) 27 (B) 31 (C) 42 (D) 53 Ans : (C) 18. Which is the largest foreign bank in our country? (A) ABN Amro Bank (B) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation (C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) American Express Bank Ans : (C) 19. A foreign bank in India can repatriate its earnings from operations in India to its Head Office without obtaining prior approval from Reserve Bank of India at …………………….rests. (A) Annually (B) HalfYearly (C) Quarterly (D) Monthly Ans : (C) 20. Union Bank of Switzerland and Swiss Bank Corporation have been merged to form— (A) Union Swiss Bank (B) United Bank of Switzerland (C) Swiss Union Bank (D) United Swiss Bank Ans : (B) 21. Which foreign bank has launched Home Banking service under which Cash upto Rs. 25000 can be delivered to a customer at his Home or Office? (A) ABN Amro Bank. (B) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation (C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) American Express Bank Ans : (B) 22. Which is the first foreign bank to offer interest on Savings Bank accounts at quarterly intervals?
(A) Bank of Nova Scotia (B) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation (C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) Dresdner Bank Ans : (B) 23. Which is the first foreign bank to introduce 'Telebanking' services in India? (A) Citi Bank (B) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation (C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) Chase Manhattan Bank Ans : (A) 24. First foreign bank to introduce 'International Credit Card' in India is— (A) Bank of Nova Scotia (B) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation (C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) Dresdner Bank Ans : (B) 25. Which subsidiary of Long Tern Credit Bank of Japan was declared as insolvent? (A) Japan Factoring Company (B) Tokyo Hire Purchase Company (C) Japan Leasing Corporation (D) Tokyo Finance Corporation Ans : (C) SET5 1. Which is the first cooperative bank that has multistates branches in India? (A) Bombay Mercantile Cooperative Bank (B) Charminar Cooperative Bank (C) Maharashtra Shahri Sahakari Bank (D) Uttar Pradesh Urban Cooperative Bank Ans : (A) 2. What is the minimum capital requirement for a cooperative bank under Banking Regulation Act? (A) Rs 1 crore (B) Rs 2 crore (C) Rs 5 crore (D) Rs 10 crore Ans : (A) 3. Which cooperative bank has introduced 'Apoorv Nutan Scheme' under which a bearer cheque
can be encashed at any branch of drawee bank? (A) Nutan Nagrik Sahakari Bank (B) Maharashtra Shahri Sahakari Bank (C) Bombay Mercantile Cooperative Bank (D) Development Cooperative Bank Ans : (A) 4. Nonscheduled Primary Cooperative Banks are required to maintain Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of ……………………… of their Net Demand & Time Liabilities. (A) 3% (B) Equal to Bank Rate (C) Bank Rate – 1% (D) Bank Rate + 1 % Ans : (A) 5. Scheduled Primary Cooperative Banks are required to maintain Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of… …………………of their Net Demand & Time Liabilities. (A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 4.5% (D) 5% Ans : (D) 6. Scheduled Primary Cooperative Banks are required to provide…………………..of their total advances to Priority Sector. (A) 40% (B) 50% (C) 60% (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 7. Scheduled Primary Cooperative Banks are required to provide……………………… of their total advances to Weaker Sections. (A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 8. Saraswat Cooperative Bank is making efforts to acquire— (A) Maratha Mandir Cooperative Bank (B) South Indian Cooperative Bank (C) Nasik People Cooperative Bank (D) All the above
Ans : (D) 9. Shamrao Vitthal Cooperative Bank is making efforts to acquire— (A) Shriram Cooperative Bank, Nasik (B) Sauhadra Cooperative Bank, Bangalore (C) Samast Cooperative Bank, Mumbai (D) All the above Ans : (D) 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 1. Only Central Cooperative Banks have access to Reserve Bank of India. 2. Cooperative Banks are established at unitary basis. 3. Reserve Bank of India has no control over cooperative banks. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 11. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Primary Cooperative Banks can be in cluded in 2nd Schedule of Reserve Bank of India. 2. Cooperative banks cannot invest in Capital Issues of All India Development Institutions. 3. District Central Cooperative Banks can not open an NRE Account. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 12. Which is the largest Urban Cooperative Bank of Asia? (A) Bombay Urban Cooperative Bank (B) Maharashtra Shahri Sahakari Bank (C) Bombay Mercantile Cooperative Bank (D) Development Cooperative Bank Ans : (C) 13. Which of the following statements is in correct? 1. Cooperative banks are exempted from maintaining Cash Reserve Ratio. 2. State Governments subscribe in the capital of State Cooperative Banks. 3. Primary Credit Societies can be members of State Cooperative Banks. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A) 14. At which interest rate does Reserve Bank of India provide loans to State Cooperative Banks for banking activities? (A) Bank Rate (B) Bank Rate – 1% (C) Bank Rate – 0.5% (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 15. Under which Act is a Land Development Bank registered in our country? (A) Indian Companies Act (B) Development Banks Act (C) Banking Regulation Act (D) Cooperative Societies Act Ans : (D) 16. A Land Development Bank is a bank that provides (A) Long term loans for land reforms activities (B) Loans for development of weaker sections (C) Short term loans to farmers (D) All the above Ans : (A) 17. How many Land Development Banks are there in our country? (A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 6 (D) 80 Ans : (A) 18. Concurrent Audit is necessary for— (A) those urban cooperative banks which have total deposits of Rs. 50 crore or more (B) those urban cooperative banks which have total deposits of Rs. 100 crore or more (C) those urban cooperative banks which have total deposits of Rs. 200 crore or more (D) all urban cooperative banks Ans : (D) 19. Some small cooperative banks are facing anger of their depositors because most of the depositors want to withdraw their money at a time. How the interests of depositors can be protected in the eyes of Law, in case of closure of a cooperative bank? (Select the right statement) 1. Small depositors are assured because deposits upto Rs. 1 lac of a depositor are insured. 2. Depositors have preference in the capital of the bank; and the depositors will loss their money only when the loss of the bank are more than the capital of the bank.
3. Each depositor is paid a sum of Rs. 10000 or entire balance in his account (whichever is less). (A) Only 1 above (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 20. Reserve Bank of India has asked to loss making urban cooperative banks to initiate action— (A) Surrender of Banking licence (B) Merger in a strong bank (C) Liquidation of the Bank (D) Anyone of the above three Ans : (D) 21. 90days prudential norms for classification of an asset as nonperformance asset (NPA) are applicable for urban cooperative banks, RRBs and commercial banks with effect from. (A) March 2001 (B) March 2002 (C) March 2003 (D) March 2004 Ans : (D) 22. 90days prudential norms for classification of an asset as nonperformance asset (NPA) are applicable for State Cooperative Banks and District Central Cooperative Banks with effect from— (A) April 2003 (B) April 2004 (C) April 2005 (D) April 2006 Ans : (D) 23. Which is the first cooperative bank to introduce Core Banking? (A) Orissa State Cooperative Bank (B) Maharashtra State Shahri Sahakari Bank (C) Bombay Mercantile Cooperative Bank (D) Development Cooperative Bank Ans : (A) 24. Which of the following cooperative banks can undertake Repo transaction? (A) Scheduled big cooperative banks (B) Scheduled small cooperative banks (C) Nonscheduled cooperative banks (D) All the above Ans : (D)
25. How many State Cooperative Banks (out of 30) did not comply the instructions of Reserve Bank of India regarding minimum requirement of Paid up Capital and Reserve of Rs. 1 lac? (A) 7 (B) 17 (C) 27 (D) 37 Ans : (A) SET6 1. Two public sector banks of India have set up 'Commercial Bank of India', a joint venture in Moscow. Which are partner banks with 60 : 40 ratio in this joint venture? 1. State Bank of India 2. Punjab National Bank 3. Canara Bank 4. Bank of Baroda (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 Ans : (B) 2. Which is the first public sector bank to introduce Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS)? (A) State Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) Allahabad Bank (D) United Bank of India Ans : (B) 3. Which is the first public sector bank to introduce retail stock broking business? (A) Canara Bank (B) Central Bank of India (C) State Bank of India (D) Punjab National Bank Ans : (C) 4. The assets of UTI Assets Management Company have been transferred to four organisations including 'Life Insurance Corporation of India' and three public sector banks. Which of the following banks is not included in it? (A) State Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) Bank of Baroda (D) Central Bank of India Ans : (D)
5. Which is the first public sector bank to introduce Website for imparting knowledge about crops, farming season, agriculture sector, soil etc? (A) Syndicate Bank (B) Union Bank of India (C) Punjab National Bank (D) State Bank of India Ans : (C) 6. Which public sector bank is not listed in Share Market? 1. Punjab & Sindh Bank 2. Indian Bank 3. United Bank of India 4. Central Bank of India (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 7. Which is the first bank to introduce retail sales of gold coins in India? (A) Corporation Bank (B) Punjab National Bank (C) Canara Bank (D) Central Bank of India Ans : (A) 8. Saudi Arabia Monetary Agency has recently issued a licence to a public sector bank to introduce banking operations in Saudi Arab. What is the name of this bank? (A) Punjab National Bank (B) State Bank of India (C) Canara Bank (D) Corporation Bank Ans : (B) 9. Which is the first public sector bank to introduce the loan for purchase of consumer durables? (A) Corporation Bank (B) Indian Overseas Bank (C) Indian Bank (D) Punjab & Sindh Bank Ans : (B) 10. Which is the first public sector bank to enter in the area of Business Process Outsourcing? (A) Corporation Bank
(B) Syndicate Bank (C) Canara Bank (D) United Bank of India Ans : (B)
11. What is the minimum initial capital required to set up a bank in private sector in India? (A) Rs 100 crore (B) Rs 200 crore (C) Rs 300 crore (D) Rs 500 crore Ans : (B) 12. How many private sector banks have been permitted by Reserve Bank of India to do Govt. Business (Direct and Indirect Tax Collection, Pension Payment etc.) as an Agent of Govt. of India? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans : (D) 13. Which of the following banks is not authorised to do Govt. Business? (A) ICICI Bank Ltd. (B) Centurian Bank of Punjab Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) lDBI Bank Ltd. Ans : (B) 14. Which of the following banks has been authorised by Reserve Bank of India to do Govt. Business? (A) UTI Bank Ltd. (B) IndusInd Bank Ltd. (C) Bank of Gujrat Ltd. (D) Centurian Bank of Punjab Ltd. Ans : (A) 15. IDBI Bank is a— (A) Scheduled commercial bank (B) Nonscheduled commercial bank (C) Development Financial Institution (D) None of the above Ans : (A)
16. Which of the following private sector banks has opened its Representative Office at Dubai? (A) HDFC Bank Ltd. (B) lDBI Bank Ltd. (C) UTI Bank Ltd. (D) Centurian Bank Ltd. Ans : (C) 17. Which of the following banks has acquired, in May 2005, Investitsiono Kreditni Bank (IKB) of Russia? (A) Yes Bank (B) Kotak Mahindra Bank (C) ICICI Bank (D) IDBI Ltd. Ans : (C) 18. Which is the first private sector bank to introduce Internet Banking services for Nonresident Indians? (A) IndusInd Bank Ltd. (B) ICICI Bank Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) Times Bank Ltd. Ans : (B) 19. Which is the first private sector bank to link its Term Deposit Interest Rate with Bank Rate? (A) ICICI Bank Ltd. (B) Centurial Bank of Punjab Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) IndusInd Bank Ltd. Ans : (B) 20. Which is the first private sector bank to introduce Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS)? (A) Federal Bank Ltd. (B) ICICI Bank Ltd. (C) Bank of Madura Ltd. (D) Bharat Overseas Bank Ltd. Ans : (C) 21. First private sector bank to introduce 'Sunday Banking' in India is— (A) ICICI Bank Ltd. (B) Times Bank Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) IndusInd Bank Ltd. Ans : (B)
22. First private sector bank to introduce 'Offshore Banking' in India is (A) Federal Bank Ltd. (B) ICICI Bank Ltd. (C) Bank of Madura Ltd. (D) Bharat Overseas Bank Ltd. Ans : (D) 23. Reserve Bank of India has permitted…………………………to increase stock market exposure upto 10% of aggregate advances as at the end of last Financial Year. (A) HDFC Bank (B) ICICI Bank (C) Federal Bank (D) Development Credit Bank Ans : (A) 24. Which is the first private sector bank with foreign promoter? (A) Yes Bank (B) Development Credit Bank (C) Laxmi Vilas Bank (D) ING Vaisya Bank Ans : (B) 25. Which is the first private sector bank to issue Equity Shares to retail investors at discount? (A) Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd. (B) Yes Bank Ltd. (C) IDBI Ltd. (D) ICICI Bank Ltd. Ans : (D)
SET7 1. Which is the company set up for retail stock broking business by SBI Capital Markets Ltd., a banking subsidiary company of State Bank of India? (A) SBI Securities Ltd. (B) SBI Caps Securities Ltd. (C) SBI Broking Finance Ltd. (D) SBI Securities and Stock Broking Ltd. Ans : (B) 2. Which is the company with whom State Bank of India has tied up recently for setting up an information technology joint venture named CEdge Technologies? (A) Satyam Infosys
(B) Reliance Info services Ltd. (C) Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. (D) CEdge Services India Ltd. Ans : (C) 3. What is the shareholding of State Bank of India in the Paid up Capital of CEdge Technologies, an information technology joint venture? (A) 24 % (B) 30 % (C) 51 % (D) 74 % Ans : (C) 4. How many banks are there in public sector in our country? (A) 28 (B) 20 (C) 27 (D) 19 Ans : (C) 5. Which of the following banks is classified under Public Sector? 1. State Bank of Indore 2. Miraj State Bank 3. Jammu & Kashmir Bank (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 6. Which of the following banks is not classified under Public Sector? 1. Bank of Credit and Commerce International 2. Development Credit Bank 3. ICICI Bank (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 7. Which of the following is included under Public Sector Banks? 1. All nationalised banks 2. State Bank of India 3. 7 Subsidiaries of SBI
4. Reserve Bank of India (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (C) 8. Which of the Public Sector Banks had opened in Shenzen (China) its first office? (A) Bank of Baroda (B) Bank of India (C) Punjab National Bank (D) Syndicate Bank Ans : (B) 9. Which is the first public sector bank to bring its Public Issue at par? (A) Corporation Bank (B) Dena Bank (C) Syndicate Bank (D) Bank of Baroda Ans : (C) 10. Which is the subsidiary of State Bank of India in which State Bank of India has its lowest stake? (A) State Bank of Hyderabad (B) State Bank of Travancore (C) State Bank of Saurashtra (D) State Bank of Patiala Ans : (A) 11. Which is the first Public Sector Bank to increase its Equity Capital through Public Issue? (A) Corporation Bank (B) Dena Bank (C) Syndicate Bank (D) State Bank of India Ans : (D) 12. Which of the Public Sector Banks has its Head Office in the State of Gujrat? 1. Bank of Saurashtra 2. Bank of Baroda 3. Bank of India (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A)
13. Canara Bank, Union Bank of India, Central Bank of India, United Commercial Bank and …… ………………. have jointly launched ATM Network Cash Online Service under which a customer of any of the branch of these 5 Public Sector Banks can transact through any ATM of the Group of these banks. (A) Bank of Baroda (B) Indian Overseas Bank (C) Corporation Bank (D) Punjab National Bank Ans : (B) 14. Which is the first Public Sector Bank that has been included in Master Card ATM Network? (A) Corporation Bank (B) State Bank of India (C) Canara Bank (D) Bank of Baroda Ans : (C) 15. Which is the first Subsidiary of Punjab National Bank? (A) PNB Gilts Ltd. (B) PNB Housing Finance Ltd. (C) PNB Capital Services Ltd. (D) PNB Mutual Fund Ans : (C) 16. As per a list published by Ministry of Finance in February 2005, 'stronger banks' can enter in new areas of business and in foreign markets without priorpermission from Govt. of India. What are these 'stronger banks'? 1. Banks that have Capital Adequacy Ratio of 9% or above 2. Banks that have nonperforming assets below 4% 3. Banks that have net owned funds of Rs. 300 crore or more 4. Banks that have earned net profit in last three consecutive years (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 17. There is a precondition that the bank should have earned profit during last……………….. consecutive years, with a view to provide managerial autonomy to public sector banks by Ministry of Finance. (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3
(D) 2 Ans : (C) 18. There is a precondition that the public sector bank should have Capital Adequacy Ratio of…… …………………for getting managerial autonomy (Recruitment, Posting, Transfer, Training, and Promotion) from Ministry of Finance. (A) 10% or more (B) 9% or more (C) 8% or more (D) 6% or more Ans : (B) 19. There is a precondition that the public sector bank should have level of NPAs ………………… ……… for getting managerial autonomy like recruitment, posting, transfer, training, promotion etc. from Ministry of Finance. (A) Below 6% (B) Below 7% (C) Below 8% (D) Below 9% Ans : (D) 20. Which of the following banks have 100% Govt. holdings in its Paid up Capital ? 1. Central Bank of India 2. Indian Bank 3. Punjab & Sindh Bank 4. United Bank of India (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 21. How many banks in public sector have 100% Govt. holding in Paid up Capital of them? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 Ans : (A) 22. What should be the minimum owned capital of a public sector bank? (A) Rs. 100 crore (B) Rs. 200 crare (C) Rs. 300 crare (D) Rs. 500 crare
Ans : (A) 23. What is the maximum limit of foreign holding in a public sector bank? (A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 24% (D) 49% Ans : (B) 24. Which is the first bank to introduce intrabank intercity Cheque Truncation System in India? (A) State Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) Corporation Bank (D) Bank of Baroda Ans : (B) 25. Which of the following bank has established its branch in July 2004 in Afghanistan that is first branch of any Indian bank in that country? (A) State Bank of India (B) Canara Bank (C) Punjab National Bank (D) Bank of Baroda Ans : (C) SET8 1. Which of the following cooperative banks has merged its 10 lossmaking branches? (A) Ahmedabad Mercantile Cooperative Bank. (B) Bharat Cooperative Bank. (C) Madhavpura Mercantile Cooperative Bank. (D) Express Cooperative Bank of Maharashtra and Goa. Ans : (C) 2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding cooperative banks? 1. State Cooperative Bank is Apex Cooperative bank whose capital is owned by Central Co operative Banks and State Governments. 2. Each State has one or more State Co operative Bank(s). 3. State Cooperative Banks can establish their branches at centre where there is no Central Co operative bank. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D)
3. A nonscheduled Urban Cooperative Bank can deposit…………………of its capital in a scheduled Urban Cooperative Bank. (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 25% Ans : (C) 4. A scheduled Urban Cooperative Bank can mobilize deposits from a nonscheduled Urban Cooperative Banks to the extent of……………………..of its total demand and time liabilities in preceding year— (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 25% Ans : (A) 5. Nonscheduled Urban Cooperative Banks can have deposits in those nonscheduled Urban Co operative Banks (A) That have earned Net Profit in last three Financial Years. (B) That have NPA level of below 7%. (C) That have Capital Adequacy Ratio of 9% or more. (D) All the above Ans : (D) 6. The NPA level of a District Central Cooperative Bank or a Regional Rural Bank should be less than………………... to get unlimited refinance fork NABARD? (A) 15% (B) 12% (C) 10% (D) 6% Ans : (A) 7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Central Cooperative Banks? 1. These banks are established under Cooperative Societies Act 1912. 2. Each district has a Central Cooperative Bank whose Capital is owned by Primary Cooperative Societies. 3. These banks, like other banks, mobilize public deposits and provide short term loans to their customers. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D) 8. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Primary Cooperative Credit Societies? 1. These Societies mobilize deposits from rural and urban areas and provide shortterm loan to its members. 2. Entrance Fees, Share Capital, Deposits from Public, Reserve Fund, and Deposits from other credit societies/cooperative banks are the major sources of Capital of these Societies. 3. These Societies provide loans to their members only. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 9. Which cooperative bank was closed and reopened? (A) Charminar Cooperative Bank (B) Janta Cooperative Bank, Dholka (C) Welfare Cooperative Bank, Bhavnagar (D) Ujjwal Cooperative Bank, Ahmedabad Ans : (A) 10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Urban Cooperative Banks? 1. There are more than 2000 Urban Cooperative Banks in India at present. 2. Urban Cooperative Banks are regulated by Reserve Bank of India and Registrar of Cooperative Societies both. 3. 90days NP A norms are applicable in Urban Cooperative Banks since March 2004. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 11. Which is the first Urban Cooperative Bank to introduce 'Entrepreneurship Core Banking'? (A) Bharat Cooperative Bank Ltd. (B) Gujrat Cooperative Bank Ltd. (C) Maharashtra State Cooperative Bank Ltd. (D) Ahmedabad Mercantile Cooperative Bank Ltd. Ans : (A) 12. Capital Adequacy Norms are applicable for Urban Cooperative Banks (as are applicable to commercial banks) from (A) March 2005 (B) March 2006
(C) March 2007 (D) March 2008 Ans : (A) 13. Which is the largest cooperative bank of India? (A) Saraswat Cooperative Bank (B) Shamrao Vitthal Cooperative Bank (C) Maratha Mandir Cooperative Bank (D) South Indian Cooperative Bank Ans : (A) 14. How many Primary Agricultural Societies regulated by NABARD are functioning in India? (A) 604 (B) 704 (C) 804 (D) 904 Ans : (C) 15. Which Urban Cooperative Bank has been declared by Reserve Bank of India as a non scheduled cooperative bank? (A) Thane Bharat Sahakari Bank (B) Jorastrain Cooperative Bank (C) Both the above (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 16. A scheduled cooperative bank is a cooperative bank that has its aggregate Demand and Time Liabilities of…………………..or more and which has been authorised by Reserve Bank of India to issue Bank Guarantee. (A) Rs 50 crore (B) Rs 100 crore (C) Rs 200 crore (D) Rs 500 crore Ans : (B) 17. NABARD provides unlimited refinance facility to a cooperative bank if— 1. its NPA level is below 15%. 2. its Capital Adequacy Ratio is more than 9%. 3. its loan recovery is 90% or more. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A)
18. How many Urban Cooperative Banks are there in India? (A) 2104 (B) 3104 (C) 4104 (D) 5104 Ans : (A) 19. How many scheduled Urban Cooperative Banks are there in India? (A) 52 (B) 72 (C) 92 (D) 112 Ans : (A) 20. How many State Cooperative Banks are there in India? (A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60 Ans : (A) 21. What is the number of branches of all State Cooperative Banks? (A) 847 (B) 947 (C) 1047 (D) 1147 Ans : (A) 22. How many District Central Cooperative Banks are there in India? (A) 284 (B) 318 (C) 384 (D) 418 Ans : (B) 23. What is the number of branches of all 318 District Central Cooperative Banks? (A) 9652 (B) 10652 (C) 11652 (D) 12652 Ans : (D) 24. How many Primary Cooperative Banks are there in India?
(A) 1425 (B) 1525 (C) 1625 (D) 1725 Ans : (B) 25. What is the number of branches of all 1525 Primary Cooperative Banks? (A) 4000 (B) 5000 (C) 6000 (D) 7000 Ans : (A) SET9
1. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of Local Area Banks? (A) It is registered under Indian Companies Act (B) It is not included in second schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act (C) Provisions that are applicable to RRBs are also applicable to Local Area Bank (D) It is established wholly in private sector and it has no stake of Govt. in the capital Ans : (B) 2. What should be the minimum stake of promoter in the capital of a Local Area Bank? (A) Rs. 1 crore (B) Rs. 2 crore (C) Rs. 5 crore (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 3. How many Local Area Banks are there in India? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 12 Ans : (A) 4. Which of the following is not a Local Area Bank out of three functioning at present? (A) Coastal Local Area Bank, Vijayawada (Andhra Pradesh) (B) Capital Local Area Bank, Nakodar (Punjab) (C) Krishna Bhim Smridhi Local Area Bank, Mehbubnagar (Andhra Pradesh) (D) Manipal Local Area Bank, Manipal (Karnataka) Ans : (D)
5. Who is the chairperson of National Bank of Agriculture & Rural Development (NABARD)? (A) Y S P Thorat (B) K C Pant (C) Bimal Jalan (D) Ms Ranjana Kumar Ans : (A) 6. 'National Bank of Agriculture & Rural Development' was established on the recommendations of — (A) B Shivraman (B) N L Dantwala (C) D R Gadgil (D) A D Gorewala Ans : (A) 7. When was 'NABARD' established? (A) 12th July 1980 (B) 12th July 1982 (C) 12th July 1984 (D) 12th July 1986 Ans : (B) 8. Which of the following undertakings were merged to form 'National Bank of Agriculture & Rural Development'? 1. 1.Agriculture Credit Department of RBI 2. 2.Agriculture Refinance and Development Corporation 3. Rural Planning and Credit Centre (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 9. The contribution of Govt. of India and Reserve Bank of India in the capital of NABARD is in the ratio of— (A) 75: 25 (B) 60: 40 (C) 50: 50 (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 10. Which of the following committees is directly related to NABARD? (A) Review Committee of Institutional Credit Arrangement for Agriculture and Rural Development (B) Banking Services Committee for Agriculture and Rural Development
(C) Loan and Refinance Facility Committee for Agriculture and Rural Development (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 11. NABARD provides refinance to commercial banks to the extent of…….............in connection with loans granted by them for dry land development and wasteland development. (A) 70% (B) 80% (C) 90% (D) 100% Ans : (D) 12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding NABARD? 1. It is an apex bank functioning for Agriculture and Rural Development. 2. It provides refinance to commercial banks for allround rural development. 3. It cannot raise funds from abroad. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 13. NABARD has established a Rs 50000 crore ……………………….for agriculture and rural infrastructure. (A) Prime Minister Rural Infrastructure Fund (B) Ambedkar Agriculture and Rural Infrastructure Fund (C) Loknayak Jaiprakash Narayan Fund (D) Chaudhry Charan Singh Infrastructure Fund Ans : (C) 14. On 1st January 2004, NABARD established……………………which is its wholly owned subsidiary. (A) NABARD Construction Ltd. (B) NABARD Consultancy Services Ltd. (C) National Bank for Consultancy Services (D) All the above Ans : (B) 15. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (A) Micro Management of RRBs is in the hands of NABARD (B) Inspection of cooperative banks/RRBs is a regulatory function of NABARD (C) Credit Card issued by NABARD is known as Kisan Credit Card (D) Board of Directors of NABARD comprises of 15 members including Chairman Ans : (A)
16. What is the rate of interest charged by NABARD on refinance provided to commercial banks in respect of loans for establishing Agriculture Business Centre or Agriculture Clinic? (A) 5.50% (B) 5.75% (C) 6% (D) 6.25% Ans : (A) 17. What is the new name of Micro Finance Development Fund established by NABARD? (A) National Equity Fund (B) Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund (C) Rural Development Equity Fund (D) Integrated Rural Development Fund Ans : (B) 18. What is the corpus of 'Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund' set up in NABARD? (A) Rs. 100 crore (B) Rs. 200 crore (C) Rs. 500 crore (D) Rs. 1000 crore Ans : (B) 19. NABARD provides refinance facility for farm sector activities irrespective of location of the project. For nonfarm sector activities, NABARD provides refinance in rural and other areas, where population does not exceed 50000. Which is not included in nonfarm activities? (A) SSI (B) Road/Water Transport Operator (C) Hospital (D) Business Unit Ans : (D) 20. Export Import Bank (Exim Bank) was established on— (A) 1st January 1980 (B) 1st January 1981 (C) 1st January 1982 (D) 1st January 1983 Ans : (B) 21. The Head Office of Exim Bank is situated at— (A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai (C) Kolkata (D) Chennai
Ans : (B) 22. Authorised Capital of Exim Bank is— (A) Rs 500 crore (B) Rs 1000 crore (C) Rs 2000 crore (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 23. Paid up Capital of Exim Bank is— (A) Rs 299.99 crore (B) Rs 399.99 crore (C) Rs 499.99 crore (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 24. What is the stake of Govt. of India in Paid up Capital of Exim Bank? (A) 51% (B) 55% (C) 76% (D) 100% Ans : (D) 25. Which of the following is not a function of Exim Bank? 1. To provide loans to foreign Governments and banks in foreign countries. 2. To provide financial assistance to exporters of Indian goods/services. 3. To promote foreign buyers for buying Indian goods/services. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) SET10 1. Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of an ATM? 1. A person can withdraw upto Rs 3000 per day from an ATM. 2. Two or more banks can jointly establish an ATM. 3. Through an ATM, the amount can be withdrawn at any day and at any time. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of the above Ans : (A)
2. Which is the first public sector bank to provide ATM facility independently? (A) State Bank of India (B) Corporation Bank (C) Dena Bank (D) Bank of Baroda Ans : (A) 3. Five public sector banks have jointly introduced ATM Network Cash Online Services under which a customer of any of these five banks can transact from any ATM of another banks of the group. Four of these banks are Canara Bank, Union Bank of India, Central Bank of India and UCO Bank. Which is the fifth bank of the group? (A) Bank of Baroda (B) Indian Overseas Bank (C) Corporation Bank (D) Punjab National Bank Ans : (B) 4. About 18000 ATMs (Onsite and Offsite) have been set up in our country? What is the percentage of Offsite ATMs in them? (A) 27% (B) 37% (C) 47% (D) 57% Ans : (D) 5. Which of the following conducts Shared Payment Network System (SPNS)? (A) Reserve Bank of India. (B) State Bank of India (C) Indian Banks' Association (D) National Institute of Bank Management Ans : (C) 6. Which is the ATM Network that is sponsored by Indian Banks' Association? (A) ATM Net (B) RBI Net (C) SWADHAN (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 7. Which is the first public sector bank that was included in Master Card ATM Network? (A) Corporation Bank (B) State Bank of India (C) Canara Bank
(D) Bank of Baroda Ans : (C) 8. India Switch Company, which managed IBA's SWADHAN Network, has managed a new Network. What is the name of this new network? (A) BANCS (B) BANCASSURANCE (C) BANKMASTER (D) BANK PLUS Ans : (A) 9. Which is the first bank to introduce Floating ATM facility in India? (A) State Bank of India (B) ICICI Bank (C) Corporation Bank (D) UTI Bank Ans : (A) 10. What is the new name of shared payment network facility that is being provided jointly by Development Credit Bank, IDBI Bank, UTI Bank, Citi Bank, Standard Chartered Bank and Corporation Bank? (A) CASHNET (B) SHARENET (C) EURONET (D) SAFETYNET Ans : (A) 11. Which is the first bank that has installed an ATM at Thegu (a place that is 13200 feet high from sea level), near Nathula Pass of Sikkim? (A) ICICI Bank (B) State Bank of India (C) Corporation Bank (D) UTI Bank Ans : (D) 12. Which is the first bank to establish more than 5000 ATMs in India? (A) State Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) Central Bank of India (D) ICICI Bank Ans : (A) 13. Where was India's first Drivein ATM established by State Bank of India? (A) Mumbai
(B) Hyderabad (C) Bangalore (D) New Delhi Ans : (B) 14. Where did State Bank of India establish its first floating ATM, Jhankar Boat? (A) Gateway of India—Kovlam (B) Kovlam—Rameshwar (C) Ernakulam—Vyapin (Kochchi) (D) Thiruvanantpuram—Chennai Ans : (C) 15. What are Hot Listed ATM Cards? (A) Lost cards (B) Vishwa Yatra cards (C) American Smart Cards (D) Cards issued by Corporates Ans : (A) 16. How many ATMs have so far established in our country? (A) 10000 (B) 12000 (C) 15000 (D) 18000 Ans : (D) 17. Which bank has proposed to introduce lowcost ATMs in rural areas supported by biometric authentication i.e. through finger print identification? (A) State Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) ICICI Bank (D) Corporation Bank Ans : (C) 18. Shared ATM Network among Punjab National Bank, UTI Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce and Indian Bank is called— (A) MITR (B) Fast ATM (C) CBS (D) Wide ATM Ans : (A) 19. Which is the first nationalised bank to provide mobile ATM Facility in India? (A) ICICI Bank
(B) Andhra Bank (C) Corporation Bank (D) Canara Bank Ans : (B) 20. How many centres in India do operate Electronic Fund Transfer system? (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 15 Ans : (D) 21. In which year was Electronic Fund Transfer system launched as pilot basis, between Mumbai and Chennai? (A) 1994 (B) 1996 (C) 1998 (D) 2000 Ans : (A) 22. Which is the first bank to introduce Electronic Fund Transfer scheme? (A) State Bank of India (B) Canara Bank (C) Corporation Bank (D) Bharat Overseas Bank Ans : (C) 23. Electronic Fund Transfer is a service of money transfer— 1. From one city to another but in the branch of same bank. 2. From one branch of a bank in a city to another branch in the same city. 3. From one bank to another bank and from one branch of a bank in a city to other branch of another bank in another city. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 24. What is the time limit for transfer of money under 'Electronic Fund Transfer'? (A) 24 hours (B) 36 hours (C) 48 hours (D) 60 hours Ans : (A)
25. What is the maximum amount per transaction under 'Electronic Fund Transfer' Scheme? (A) Rs. 1 crore (B) Rs. 2 crore (C) Rs. 5 crore (D) No limit Ans : (D) SET11 1. Which is the first bank to introduce Credit Card in India? (A) Bank of India (B) Global Trust Bank (C) IndusInd Bank (D) Central Bank of India Ans : (D) 2. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of Credit Card? 1. It is a source of revolving credit. 2. It is one of the means for obtaining cash. 3. It is a mean for payment of goods and services. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 3. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of Credit Card? (A) While purchasing something, the buyer customer neither pays in cash not gives a cheque to seller (B) The customer can buy goods on credit through a Credit Card upto a certain limit (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 4. Which of the following banks has issued largest number of Credit Cards? (A) Standard Chartered Bank (B) Citi Bank (C) ABN Amro (D) ICICI Bank Ans : (D) 5. For which of the following purpose an Indian can use of his International Credit Cards subject to his eligibility of foreign currency?
1. Meeting foreign travel expenses 2. Subscription for foreign magazine 3. Import of some goods (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (C) 6. Which is the first bank to launch Debit Card in India? (A) Standard Chartered Bank (B) Citi Bank (C) ABN Amro (D) American Express Ans : (B) 7. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of Debit Card? 1. The customer needs not to carry his cheque book and wait until approval. 2. The customer presents his Debit Card to the seller and signs 'Sale Slip'. 3. The amount of purchase is debited to the account of the customer. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 8. Which is the first Indian bank to introduce Debit Cards in India? (A) UTI Bank Ltd. (B) Times Bank Ltd. (C) Canara Bank (D) Corporation Bank Ans : (B) 9. Which committee has recommended introduction of Smart Card? (A) Rangrajan Committee (B) Saraf Committee (C) Nayak Committee (D) Pannirselvam Committee Ans : (B) 10. What is the period of time after which a Kisan Credit Card is renewed? (A) 12 months (B) 25 months (C) 36 months
(D) 72 months Ans : (C) 11. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of Kisan Credit Card? (A) Credit limit of cardholder is determined on the basis of ownership of agriculture land (B) Cash Credit facility in respect of all crops is provided on Kisan Credit Card (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 12. Which institutions did issue the first City Affinity Card in Ju1y 2002? (A) ICICI Bank Ltd. (B) SBI Cards & Payment Services Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) Punjab National Bank Ans : (B) 13. Which bank has issued Visa Mini Card, smallest payment card of India? (A) State Bank of India (B) ICICI Bank Ltd. (C) HDFC Bank Ltd. (D) Panjab National Bank Ans : (B) 14. Which bank has issued largest number of Credit Cards? (A) State Bank of India (B) Citi Bank (C) ICICI Bank (D) Standard Chartered Bank Ans : (C) 15. Which bank has issued largest number of Debit Cards? (A) ICICI Bank (B) Standard Chartered Bank (C) State Bank of India (D) Citi Bank Ans : (A) 16. What is the number of Credit Cards that have been issued in India so far? (A) 110 lac (B) 120 lac (C) 130 lac (D) 140 lac Ans : (D)
17. What is the number of Debit Cards that have been issued in India so far? (A) 176 lac (B) 186 lac (C) 196 lac (D) 206 lac Ans : (D) 18. What is the other name of Credit Card that is popular in banking world? (A) PAN Card (B) PIN Card (C) Electronic Cheque (D) Plastic Money Ans : (D) 19. Why are Credit Cards useful? (A) Risk of carrying cash is very low (B) It is helpful in case of contingent purchasing (C) There is an increase in sales indirectly (D) All the above Ans : (D) 20. Which bank has recently issued Marathon Credit Card? (A) State Bank of India (B) ICICI Bank (C) Standard Chartered Bank (D) Development Credit Bank Ans : (C) 21. State Bank of India has recently issued a cobranded Credit Card through tie up with_______________, a consumer equipments industrial company. (A) Whirlpool India (B) LG Electronics India (C) Videocon International (D) Hutch India Ans : (B) 22. Which private sector bank has launched 'Forex on Swipe' scheme for its Credit/Debit Cardholders under which Credit/Debit Cardholders of the Bank can get necessary foreign currency through their Cards during their foreign travels? (A) ICICI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) Centurian Bank of Punjab (D) IndusInd Bank
Ans : (A) 23. Which statement is incorrect with regard to General Credit Card (GCC) scheme? (A) GCCs are issued by commercial banks to meet general credit requirement of customers in rurl/semiurban areas (B) Total credit facility under a GCC for an individual should not exceed Rs. 25,000 (C) Banks should not insist for collateral securities while issuing GCCs (D) A loan disbursed under GCC Scheme is not a part of Priority Sector Lending Ans : (D) 24. Which is the first bank to establish an ATM and where was first ATM established? (A) Barchiys Bank—in 1967 in London (B) Citi Bank—in 1965 in New York (C) Hongkong & Shanghai Banking Corporation—in 1963 in Shanghai (D) DiIchiKangyo Bank—in 1961 in Tokyo Ans : (A) 25. At which place can a bank establish an Automated Teller Machine? 1. At Bank premises or a nearby place. 2. At railway platform or airport or petrol pump or hospital. 3. In a train or factory or super bazaar. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D)
SET12 1. First cooperative bank of India was established in………………..State. (A) Maharashtra (B) Gujrat (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (B) 2. What should be the minimum net worth of a cooperative bank for selling policies of an insurance company? (A) Rs. 100 crore (B) Rs. 50 crore (C) Rs. 20 crore (D) Rs. 10 crore Ans : (B)
3. Housing Loans granted to an individual by an urban cooperative bank will be classified under priority sector if the amount of loan does not exceed— (A) Rs. 7.5 lac (B) Rs. 10 lac (C) Rs. 15 lac (D) Rs. 20 lac Ans : (C) 4. Pune based Saraswat Cooperative Bank has announced for acquisition of— (A) Maratha Mandir Cooperative Bank (B) Cosmos Cooperative Bank (C) Bombay Mercantile Cooperative Bank (D) Abhudaya Cooperative Bank Ans : (A) 5. Cosmos Cooperative Bank has been voluntarily merged with— (A) South Indian Cooperative Bank (B) Premier Cooperative Urban Bank (C) Jamnagar Rajkot Sahakari Bank (D) Nutan Nagrik Sahakari Bank Ans : (B) 6. Which is the first bank to set up overseas operations? (A) Cosmos Cooperative Bank (B) Saraswat Cooperative Bank (C) Kalupur Commercial Cooperative Bank (D) Mahila Utkarsh Cooperative Bank Ans : (B) 7. Regional Rural Banks were established on the recommendations of— (A) Narsimham Committee (B) N. L. Dantwala Committee (C) B. Sivraman Committee (D) S. M. Kelkar Committee Ans : (A) 8. First RRB of our country was established on— (A) 2nd October 1974 (B) 2nd October 1975 (C) 2nd October 1976 (D) 2nd October 1977 Ans : (B)
9. RRBs are classified under— (A) Cooperative banks (B) Development banks (C) Public sector banks (D) Private sector banks Ans : (C) 10. A Regional Rural Bank is sponsored by— (A) Cooperative Bank (B) Scheduled Commercial Bank (C) State Govt. (D) Reserve Bank of India Ans : (B) 11. How many RRBs are there in our country? (A) 196 (B) 176 (C) 156 (D) None of the above Ans : (D) 12. What is the Authorised Capital of a Regional Rural Bank? (A) Rs 1 crore (B) Rs 5 crore (C) Rs 10 crore (D) Rs 100 crore Ans : (B) 13. Minimum Paid up Capital of a Regional Rural Bank should be— (A) Rs 1 crore (B) Rs 2 crore (C) Rs 5 crore (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 14. Contribution of Central Govt., State Govt. and sponsored bank in Paid up Capital of a Regional Rural Bank is in the ratio of— (A) 50: 15: 35 (B) 60: 25: 15 (C) 60: 20: 20 (D) 50: 25: 25 Ans : (A) 15. Which of the following is the first computerized RRB of India?
(A) North Malbar Gramin Bank (B) Kaktia Gramin Bank (C) South Malbar Gramin Bank (D) Nutan Kshetria Gramin Bank Ans : (C) 16. What is the precondition for a Regional Rural Bank for doing insurance business? 1. Positive net worth. 2. Net Profit in last three consecutive years. 3. Level of gross NPAs below 10%. 4. Recommendation of sponsor bank. (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 17. Which committee has recommended merger of RRBs in their sponsored banks? (A) A. M. Khusro Committee (B) M. S. Verma Committee (C) S. H. Khan Committee (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 18. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding RRB? 1. These banks are exempted from maintenance of SLR and CRR 2. These banks can do nonfund based business 3. These banks can invest in shares and debentures of companies (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (A) 19. Which of the following statements is correct regarding RRBs? 1. It is not obligatory for these banks to provide 40% of their total advances to Priory Sector. 2. These banks are free to determine their lending rates. 3. Minimum and maximum Paid up Capital of these banks is Rs 25 lac and Rs 1 crore respectively (A) 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (C)
20. Which of the following RRBs was first authorised to open NRI Accounts? (A) North Malbar Gramin Bank (B) Ruhelkhand Gramin Bank (C) Nutan Kshetria Gramin Bank (D) Jamuna Gramin Bank Ans : (A) 21. On the recommendations of………………………no Regional Rural Bank has been established since April 1987— (A) Kelkar Committee (B) Khusro Committee (C) Padamnabhan Committee (D) Basu Committee Ans : (A) 22. Which of the following states has no RRBs? 1. Sikkim 2. Goa 3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. Nagaland (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (A) 23. Regional Rural Banks have their branches in……………districts of the country— (A) 418 (B) 468 (C) 518 (D) 568 Ans : (C) 24. Regional Rural Banks are required to provide…………………..…of their loans to Priority Sector? (A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60% Ans : (C) 25. The number of branches of all RRBs is ……………….... (percent) of total branches of all scheduled commercial banks. (A) 12%
(B) 22% (C) 32% (D) 42% Ans : (B) L.I.C. Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper Saturday 18 October 2008 11:04 AM L.I.C. Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Exam., 2008 (Held on 06072008) General Knowledge 1. Who is the highest Law officer of a State ? (A) Attorney General (B) Secretary General Law Department (C) Advocate General (D) Solicitor General Ans : (C) 2. The place for Amritsar was given by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to— (A) Guru Amar Das (B) Guru Hari Kishan (C) Guru Ram Das (D) Guru Tegh Bahadur Ans : (C)
3. Which section of IPC is applicable in a case of death due to negligence ? (A) 304 PartI (B) 304 PartII (C) 304 A (D) 307 Ans : (C) 4. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ? (A) Sabarigiri Project —Gujarat (B) Sharavathy Project —Karnataka (C) Kundah Project —Tamil Nadu (D) Balimela Project —Orissa Ans : (A) 5. The Olympic Flame symbolises— (A) Speed, perfection and strength (B) Unity among various nations of the world (C) Continuity between the ancient and modern games (D) Sports as a means of securing harmony among the nations Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following deals with economic offences ? (A) TADA (B) MISA (C) NSA (D) COFEPOSA Ans : (D) 7. The earth rotates on its axis from— (A) East to West (B) West to East (C) North to South (D) South to North Ans : (B) 8. A Cricket match is being telecasted live from Delhi. If the match commences at 10 a.m. at What time would viewers in London have to tune in their sets ? (A) 10 a.m. (B) 4∙30 a.m. (C) 4.30 p.m. (D) 10 p.m. Ans : (B)
9. ‘The United Kingdom’ consists of England and— (A) Northern Ireland, Scotland and Wales (B) Northern Ireland, Palma and Iceland (C) Scotland, Wales and Faeroe Island (D) Scotland, Sardinia and Wales Ans : (A) 10. Which of the following is the publisher of ‘Employment News’ ? (A) Indian Express Group (B) Times of India Group (C) Ministry of Human Resources Development (D) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Ans : (D) 11. The states of India having common border with Myanmar are— (A) Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh (B) Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Meghalya (C) Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalya, Assam (D) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh Ans : (A) 12. In which of the following states ‘Koyana Hydro Electric Power Project’ is located ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Kerala (D) Orissa Ans : (B) 13. The scientist associated with the success of Green Revolution is— (A) V. R. Rao (B) J. C. Bose (C) S. S. Bhatnagar (D) Norman Borlaug Ans : (D) 14. The largest coal deposit in India is in— (A) Damodar Valley (B) Satpura Valley (C) Godavari Valley (D) Brahmani Valley Ans : (A) 15. National Highway2 connects— (A) Srinagar and Leh
(B) Varanasi and Kanyakumari (C) Agra and Mumbai (D) Delhi and Kolkata Ans : (D) 16. The national centre for production of biofertilizers is at— (A) Hyderabad (B) Ghaziabad (C) Nellore (D) Dehradoon Ans : (B) 17. Which of the following satellites helps to telecast T.V. Network Programmes all over the country ? (A) APPLE (B) Rohini (C) Aryabhatta (D) INSAT–1B Ans : (D) 18. Which Sports Association of Indian lifted the ban from its players ‘foreign tours’ ? (A) BCCI (B) All India Tennis Federation
(C) Badminton Association of India (D) All India Football Federation Ans : (A) 19. In which state ‘Kanya Vidyadhan Yojana’ is operational ? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Haryana Ans : (A) 20. With which country U.N.O. has an agreement for ‘Oil for food’ ? (A) Kuwait (B) Iran (C) Iraq (D) Venezuela Ans : (C) 21. Where will World Cup Football, 2010 be played ? (A) South Africa (B) Mexico (C) Brazil
(D) Canada Ans : (A) 22. Who has declared as ‘Miss India World, 2007’ ? (A) Puja Gupta (B) Amrita Pathi (C) Puja Chitgopekar (D) Sarah Jane Dias Ans : (D) 23. Electron was discovered by— (A) Rutherford (B) Bohr (C) J. J. Thomson (D) Ramsay Ans : (C) 24. Which film won the Best Picture in the 79th Annual Academy Award (Oscar Award) 2007 conferred in Feb. 2007 ? (A) The Departed (B) The Queen (C) The Dream Girls (D) The Last King of Scotland Ans : (A) 25. In which country of the world, the largest Buddhist temple is located ?
(A) Japan (B) Indonesia (C) China (D) India Ans : (B) State Bank of India Probationary Officer 2008 : Solved Paper Friday 17 October 2008 04:07 PM State Bank of India Probationary Officer 2008 Solved Paper (Held on 27072008) General Awareness & Computer Knowledge 1. Which of the following statement(s) reflects India's stand on new World Trade Organization's proposal on the issue of the subsidy to agro products ? (1) India would protect the interest of its poor farmers who can not bear the burden of the cost of the products if they have to sell them on cheaper rate. (2) Indian industry needs more flexibility as compared to the industry in developed countries. (3) WTO has set up a new committee under the chairmanship of Putin of Russia to look into the issue of subsidy and find out a solution to the problem acceptable to all the parties. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 2. Which of the following statement(s) is / are true about the 11th five year plan of India ? (1) The highest priority is given to exports ,education and development of steel sector. (2) The plan aims at achieving the growth at 10 % level by the end of the plan. (3) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is revived in such a way so that it can be achieve a growth nof 4 % for agriculture sector. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these Ans : (D) 3. As per the figures released recently the Stock markets in emerging economies made handsome returns last year (200708). Which of the following stock markets amongst the BRIC nations registered highest increased (97 %) compared to its performance in 200607 ? (A) China (B) Brazil (C) Russia (D) India (E) None of these Ans : (A) 4. Bayana which was in news recently is a place in— (A) Uttar Pradseh (B) Madhya Pradseh (C) Bihar (D) Haryana (E) Rajasthan Ans : (E) 5. Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct about the IndoRussia Bilateral Defence Ties ? (1) Both the countries have decided to produce a fifth generation fighter aircraft and a multi role cargo plane. (2) India has agreed to launch Russian missiles from its base at Chandipur incase some other nation attacks on Russia (3) India and Russia were able to sort out differences over the utilization of Rupee debt fund which is of Rs. 8000 crore at present. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 3 only (E) None of these Ans : (A) 6. India has recently decided to put a wire fence on the 76 km. long border in Dhudri district in Assam. The fence will separate India from— (A) Nepal (B) China (C) Bangladesh (D) Myanmar (E) Pakistan Ans : (C)
7. As we all know the Govt. of India is very keen about providing banking service to the people in rural and remote areas . However , banks feel that the cost of providing services in these areas for financial inclusion is quite high if services are offered through the "traditional branch channel ". What is / are the other alternative cost effective channel(s) to fulfill this aim of the Govt. of India ? (1) Putting biometric ATMs. (2) Introduce mobile banking. (3) Issue credit or debit cards (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 8. The Govt. of India recently issued a notification altering constituencies in 24 States and Union territories. This is done as per the provision of which of the following Acts? (A) Delimitation Act (B) Census Act (C) Parliament Act (D) State Reorganization Act (E) None of these Ans : (A) 9. As we read very frequently in the newspaper fraudulent activities in financial world is still continuing despite various efforts made by various countries to prevent them. As an estimate by IMF, what is the probable amount derived from such illegal activities which is laundered through the world's formal financial systems every year? About (A) US$ 500 billion (B) US$ 800 billion (C) US$ 1000 billion (D) US$ 1250 billion (E) US$ 1500 billion Ans : (A) 10. Indian Prime Minister during his visit the Arunachal Pradseh a few months back asserted that the State is India's Land of Rising Sun. Which of the following countries did not like his statement and had raised some objection over his visit to Arunachal Pradseh which is very much a part of India? (A) Myanmar (B) China (C) Bangladseh (D) Bhutan
(E) Nepal Ans : (B) 11. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana? (A) Rs. 10,000/ (B) Rs. 20,000/ (C) Rs. 30,000/ (D) Rs. 40,000/ (E) Rs. 50,000/ Ans : (C) 12. Which of the following is NOT one of the highlights Economic Survey presented in the Lok Sabha for the year 200708? (A) Economy has "moved to higher growth phase" (B) A trend of acceleration in domestic investment and saving rate is recorded. (C) Buoyant growth in Govt. revenue. (D) Indian Economy at market rate of exchange crossed 1 trillion US$ in current fiscal. (E) Net Foreign direct Investment increased by 350% . Ans : (E) 13. Which of the following is / are correct about sub prime crisis which was in news recently? (1) It has reduced the flow of capital coming of Indian Stock Markets. (2) The sub prime crisis is the major financial crisis whose origin is in the Russia and Brazil.It has adversely affected the economy of Europe and USA. (3) The crisis started when some people started trading with false Share certificates of major blue chip US companies in the stock markets. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 14. The Prime Minister Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) has a target to connect all habitations of which of the following levels with all weather roads by 200809? (A) 1000+ (B) 2000+ (C) 3000+ (D) 4000+ (E) None of these Ans : (A)
15. As we all know the value of the Indian rupee has appreciated in the recent past . The value of the Rupee is direct dependent on which of the following? (A) Availability of commodities in the market. (B) VAT introduced by the Govt. on various commodities. (C) Size of total Forex Reserve of India currently. (D) Capital flow in the market during a given period of time. (E) None of these Ans : (A) 16. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab? (A) ICICI Bank (B) IDBI Bank (C) HDFC Bank (D) AXIS Bank (E) None of these Ans : (B) 17. As per provision made in Bharat Nirman Programme the pace of creation of irrigation facilities is required to be raised from present level of 1.42 million hectare per year in such a way so that it can achieve the target level fixed for the same? (A) 1.50 million hectares / year (B) 1.75 million hectares / year (C) 2.00 million hectares / year (D) 2.25 million hectares / year (E) 2.50 million hectares / year Ans : (D) 18. Inflation has become major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. of India / RBI normally take to control the same? (1) Fixation of Maximum Price of the Commodities (2) System of Dual prices. (3) Increased in supply of food grains. (4) Control on credit and liquidity in market. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2, 3 & 4 (E) All 1, 2, 3 & 4 Ans : (D) 19. How much Education Cess is being levied on all the taxes to support elementary education for the children of age group of 614 years under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)? (A) 0.50% (B) 0.75%
(C) 1.00% (D) 1.50% (E) 2.00% Ans : (E) 20. Which of the following is / are correct about various concessions given in the Union Budget for 200809? (1) Five years tax holidays for setting up hospitals in Tier II & Tier III regions for providing health care in rural areas. (2) Commodities tax transaction to be introduced. (3) Banking cash transaction tax withdrawn. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 & 3 (E) All 1, 2 & 3 Ans : (E) 21. Which of the following statements reflects the aim(s) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)? (1) Give focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities. (2) Provide basic services to the urban poors (3) Scale up civic amenities and provision of utilities in urban areas. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 22. The Press Freedom Day is observed on which of the following days? (A) 1st May (B) 1st June (C) 3rd May (D) 3rd June (E) 10th June Ans : (C) 23. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means : it will now be applicable to about— (A) 200 districts (B) 300 districts (C) 400 districts
(D) 500 districts (E) 600 districts Ans : (E) 24. As per the reports published by the Ministry of Finance recently the overseas borrowings by the Corporates and currency fluctuation has gone up by which of the following percentage points? About— (A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4% (E) 5% Ans : (C) 25. The Govt. of India and Reserve Bank of India is planning to set up an autonomous "ATM corporation of India" in which various banks can get together for common ATM operations. If this happens how will we all be benefited by the same? (1) It will be a cost effective measure as each bank can share its operational cost with others. (2) Clients can withdrawn money from any ATM from any location. They are not required to go to their banks' ATM only. (3) It will indirectly help the IT business also as India has a large pool of IT skilled manpower waiting for suitable placement. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 & 2 (D) All 1, 2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 26. As per the news published in various newspapers the Govt. of India has decided to create a Strategic Reserve of— (A) Oil & Petroleum (B) Rasoi Gas (C) Food grains (D) Cement & Steel (E) None of these Ans : (C) 27. The Govt. of India had constituted a high level committee on financial sector reforms with Raghuram G.Rajan as its Chairman. Which of the following is / are the recommendations of the committee? (1) Liberalize the interest rate that banks/institution can charge to ensure credit for poors. (2) Create an office of the Ombudsman exclusively for financial sector. (3) Do not allow foreign investors in domestic stock markets.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 & 2 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 28. Yves Leterme has taken over as the prime minister of— (A) Newzealand (B) Belgium (C) Croatia (D) Portugal (E) None of these Ans : (B) 29. The State Bank of India recently opened its 10000th branch in Puduvayal (Tamil Nadu). Only a bank in China has more branches than State Bank of India in the world. What is the name of that Chinese bank? (A) Shanghai Commercial Bank (B) Bank of China (C) China Banking Corporation (D) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (E) None of these Ans : (D) 30. Many a times we read about 'Globalization' and its impact on business practice in India. Which of the following is NOT one of the important parameters of 'Globalization'? (1) Reduction of trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services amongst various nations. (2) Developing an environment in which free flow of capital can take place. (3) Promoting local industry to cater to the needs of the consumers in Tier II and Tier III cities. The production from metros should be reserved only for exports. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) Both 2 & 3 Ans : (D) 31. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter 'C' in the term 'CBS'? (A) Core (B) Credit (C) Continuous
(D) Complete (E) None of these Ans : (A) 32. As per news published in newspapers the Oil & Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) has purchased some oil assets in Latin American Countries along with one other major company of India . What is the name of that company? (A) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation (B) Indian Oil Corporation (C) Reliance Industries Ltd. (D) National Mineral Development Corporation of India (E) None of these Ans : (E) 33. India's First centre to monitor climate change was opened recently at— (A) New Delhi (B) Chennai (C) Jaipur (D) Bangalore (E) Kolkata Ans : (B) 34. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with the problem of NonPerforming Assets in banking system? (A) SARFAESI ACT. (B) Banking Regulation Act. (C) Foreign Exchange Management Act. (D) Industrial Dispute Act. (E) None of these Ans : (A) 35. The————shows all the websites and pages that you have visited over a period of time. (A) status bar (B) task bar (C) history list (D) tool bar (E) None of these Ans : (C) 36. A proxy server is used for the which of the following? (A) To provide security against unauthorized users (B) To process client requests for web pages (C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP (E) None of these Ans : (A) 37. A repair for a known software bug,usually available at no charge on the internet, is called a(n)— (A) version (B) Patch (C) Tutorial (D) FAQ (E) None of these Ans : (B) 38. In the URL http://www.prenhall.com, the portion lebelled http is the— (A) host (B) domain name (C) protocol (D) toplevel domain (E) None of these Ans : (C) 39. Which of the following organizations has recently given a US$ 600 million loan to Power Grid Corporation of India,a Govt. run organization? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) World Bank (C) International Monetary Fund (D) Bank of America (E) None of these Ans : (B) 40. The ability to easily add additional users meAns : that a network is— (A) Scalable (B) dedicated (C) Decentralized (D) Secure (E) None of these Ans : (A) 41. In a database, a field is a— (A) lable (B) table of information (C) group of related records (D) category of information (E) None of these
Ans : (C) 42. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen— (A) resolution (B) colour depth (C) refresh rate (D) viewing size (E) None of these Ans : (A) 43. Wor processing , spreadsheet , and phoyoediting are example of— (A) application software (B) system software (C) operating system software (D) platform software (E) None of these Ans : (A) 44. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a— (A) repeater (B) router (C) gateway (D) switch (E) None of these Ans : (A) 45. A————is approximately a million bytes. (A) gigabyte (B) kilobyte (C) megabyte (D) terabyte (E) None of these Ans : (C) 46. The time it takes a device to locate data and instructions and make them available to CPU is known as— (A) clock speed (B) a processing cycle (C) CPU speed (D) access time (E) None of these Ans : (D)
47. ——————controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means : by which users are interact with the computer. (A) The platform (B) The operating system (C) Application software (D) The motherboard (E) None of these Ans : (B) 48. ——————meAns : that the data contained in a database is accurate and reliable. (A) Data redundancy (B) Data integrity (C) Data reliability (D) Data consistency (E) None of these Ans : (B) 49. A(n) —————— is aprivate corporate network,used exclusively by company employees. (A) Internet (B) local area network (C) peertopeer (D) intranet (E) None of these Ans : (B) 50. A characteristic of a file server is which of the following? (A) Manages file operations and is shared on a network (B) Manages file operations and is limited to one PC (C) Acts as fat client and is shared on a network (D) Acts as fat client and is limited to one PC (E) None of these Ans : (A) Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 Friday 17 October 2008 03:57 PM Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 1562008) General Awareness 1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies ? 1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India. 2. It has made countries to suffer from Subprime Crisis. 3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many nonEuro countries are in ‘Swap Agreement’ with various nations. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these 2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally ? About— (A) Rs. 10,000 crore (B) Rs. 15,000 crore (C) Rs. 20,000 crore (D) Rs. 25,000 crore (E) Rs. 30,000 crore 3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present ? (A) 40% (B) 49% (C) 50% (D) 64% (E) 74% 4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 200809 ? 1. A target of Rs. 2.80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector. 2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.……… (A) 15,000 (B) 20,000 (C) 25,000 (D) 30,000 (E) 50,000 6. As proposed in the Union Budget 200809 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ? (A) NABARD (B) SIDBI (C) ECGC (D) RBI (E) None of these 7. As per the Economic Survey 200708 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About— (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 18% (D) 21% (E) 26% 8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 200809 the operating ratio of the railways has — (A) Improved only by 0•5% (B) Decreased by 0•5% (C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 200708 (D) Reached at the level of 81% (E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 200001 9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the name of the scheme ? (A) Raj Lakshmi (B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi (D) Aanandita (E) None of these 10. The President of India recently signed the muchawaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’. What will be the effect of this notification ? (A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined (B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time (C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further (D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks (E) None of these 11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now— (A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 26 (D) 30 (E) 31 12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India ? 1. CARE 2. CRISIL 3. ULIP (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) 1 and 2 only (D) Only 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’ ? 1. Their Shelf life will be longer. 2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices. 3. Printing will be cheaper. (A) Only 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these
14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to— (A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history (B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets (C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years (D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank (E) None of these 15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ? (A) Credit cards (B) Loan against gold from financial institute (C) Debit cards (D) Money lender (E) None of these 16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ? (A) Janki Raman (B) Raghuram Rajan (C) Rakesh Mohan (D) K. V. Kamath (E) None of these 17. BaselII norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry ? (A) Risk management (B) Manpower planning (C) Retirement benefits for the employees (D) Corporate Governance (E) None of these 18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector ? (A) Under valuation of the assets (B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee (C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan (D) The act of permission to float an IPO (E) None of these 19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th). What are its major functions ? To decide— 1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government. 2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt. 3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these 20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which registered its victory in triseries ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008 ? (A) M.S. Dhoni (B) Anil Kumble (C) Rahul Dravid (D) Saurav Ganguly (E) Sachin Tendulkar 21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008 is the — (A) President of Brazil (B) Prime Minister of Brazil (C) President of France (D) Prime Minister of France (E) Foreign Secretary of USA 22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the General elections held there in February 2008 ? (A) Boris Tadic (B) Tomislav Nicolic (C) Samak Sundaravej (D) Novak Djokovic (E) None of these 23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the USIndia Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies ? (A) Pepsi Co. (B) Infosys (C) Tata Consultancy Services (D) NIIT (E) None of these 24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating— (A) Shahar Peer (B) Kateryna Bondarenko (C) Sania Mirza (D) Victoria Azarenka (E) Ana Ivanovic
25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following games held in Goa in January 2008 ? (A) Golf (B) Tennis (C) Table tennis (D) Archery (E) Badminton 26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’. What is the full form of ‘SPV’ ? (A) Small Power Venture (B) Special Purpose Vehicle (C) Special Power Venture (D) Small Purpose Vehicle (E) None of these 27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is allowed in this field ? (A) 50% (B) 60% (C) 64% (D) 70% (E) 74% 28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3•6 per cent ? (A) Agriculture Sector (B) Banking Sector (C) Tourism Sector (D) Aviation Services Sector (E) None of these 29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster ? (A) Trade winds (B) Hurricane (C) Cirrus (D) Stratus (E) None of these 30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour
Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility ? 1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world. 2. Rise in oil prices in international market. 3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) None of these 31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace ? 1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation. 2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates. 3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) Only 2 and 3 32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following shapes/forms ? 1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of services and also the quality. 2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks. 3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a lot in this reference. (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Only 3 is correct (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct (E) None of these 33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean ? 1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank account in his/her country without any restrictions. 2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in dollar and then in rupee. 3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee anywhere
without any problem. (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Only 3 is correct (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct (E) None of these 34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ? (A) Credit wrap (B) EMI (C) Held to Maturity (D) Exposure limit (E) Diffusion 35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions ? 1. Providing subsidy to agriculture. 2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations. 3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 and 3 (E) None of these 36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the end of the plan ? (A) 100 lakh bales (B) 150 lakh bales (C) 175 lakh bales (D) 200 lakh bales (E) None of these 37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years ago. What was the purpose of the fund ? 1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and employment. 2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns. 3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these 38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in— (A) Paris (B) Tokyo (C) London (D) Moscow (E) None of these 39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008 ? (A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Afghanistan (D) Myanmar (E) Sri Lanka 40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’ ? (A) Morarji Desai (B) K. Rajeshwar Rao (C) Charan Singh (D) Jyoti Basu (E) None of these 41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels ? (A) 5% (B) 6% (C) 7% (D) 8% (E) 9% 42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by— (A) Sonia Gandhi (B) L. K. Advani (C) Nelson Mandela (D) Benazir Bhutto (E) Nawaz Sheriff 43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the problems of Indian labour in that country ? (A) Iran (B) UAE (C) Malaysia (D) Kuwait
(E) None of these 44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun ? (A) USA (B) India (C) Russia (D) China (E) None of these 45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is from— (A) China (B) Singapore (C) South Korea (D) India (E) None of these 46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away recently ? (A) Rahul Gandhi (B) Priya Dutt (C) Vinod Dua (D) Ratan Tata (E) None of these 47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards given away in January 2008 ? (A) Om Shanti Om (B) Guru (C) Taare Zameen Par (D) Jab We Met (E) Chak De India 48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’ ? (A) London (B) New Delhi (C) New York (D) Tokyo (E) Milan 49. Castro Sibling is the new President of— (A) Romania (B) Cuba (C) Israel
(D) Venezuela (E) None of these 50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries ? (A) Ukraine (B) Croatia (C) Serbia (D) Russia (E) None of these Answers with Hint 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D) According to Economic Survey 200708, the percentage growth in bank credit is 21.5%. 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (E) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (E) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (E) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (E) 48. (A) 49. (E) 50. (E) Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 Solved Papers Thursday 16 October 2008 01:44 PM
Solved Paper Union Bank of India PO's Exam., 2008 (Held on 07092008) English Language Directions—(Q. 1–5) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them— 1. It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri Desgrange, a magazine editor in Paris. 2. The Tour de France is a test of human endurance. 3. His idea worked and the magazine boomed. 4. His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
5. He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the three week long, 3,500 kilometre long cycling race. 6. Till today the race remains more popular than he could ever have dreamed. 1. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 2. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 3. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3
(D) 4 (E) 5 4. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6 5. Which of the following should be the sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 Directions—(Q. 6–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letters of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 6. On account of the week (A)/long strike the factory (B)/was forced to close and (C)/next month’s shipment will delay. (D) No error. (E)
7. Since the US economy experiences (A)/a recession many Asian countries (B)/are likely to have (C)/reduced growth rates this year. (D) No error. (E) 8. Oil is now so expensive that (A)/India will have to cut subsidies (B)/instead face running out (C)/of funds to import oil. (D) No error. (E) 9. It is unlikely that you will (A)/find a more qualified and experience (B)/candidate than Mr. Prasad (C)/for the post of President. (D) No error. (E) 10. On account of the rising (A)/costs many people are (B)/finding it difficult (C)/ to feed their families. (D) No error. (E) 11. By marketing agriculture (A)/products well, we (B)/can ensure that (C)/farmers make a good profit. (D) No error. (E) 12. The promotion means (A)/that you may be (B)/post in Chennai (C)/from next month. (D) No error.(E) 13. This project is (A)/too big to (B)/undertake successfully at (C)/such short of notice. (D) No error. (E) 14. When our company was (A)/faced financial difficulties (B)/the training budget was (C)/the first to be cut. (D) No error. (E) 15. Conservationists believe that (A)/better management of national parks (B)/is the only way to save (C)/India’s tiger population from extinction. (D) No error. (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–25) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. In July 2008, one of the most inspiring leaders of our times, will …(16)… his ninetieth birthday. Nelson Mandela retired from politics in 1999, but he has remained …(17)…, continuing his work through the Nelson Mandela Foundation. The foundation has launched an Aids awareness campaign, 46664, named …(18)… Mandela’s prison number. He has also set up a scholarship programme whose …(19)… was to promote leadership among young Africans. During the 1990s, …(20)… I worked with Mr. Mandela on his autobiography “Long Walk to Freedom”, I …(21)… his leadership first hand. During his election campaign we were on board a plane discussing his book. Twenty minutes …(22)… to landing the engine failed. Many began to panic. The only thing that …(23)… them was looking at Mandela, who was reading his paper as if he was a passenger on a morning train to work. The plane landed safely and when we got into the car taking us to the hotel he …(24)… to me, “I was terrified on the plane !” As a leader he realized he was a model for others and this gave him the strength to …(25)… over his own fear. 16. (A) tribute (B) remember (C) honour (D) celebrate (E) rejoice 17. (A) resigned (B) active (C) influenced
(D) participant (E) reserved 18. (A) by (B) with (C) after (D) as (E) thereafter 19. (A) wish (B) pursuit (C) result (D) plot (E) aim 20. (A) when (B) that (C) period (D) later (E) alongside 21. (A) felt
(B) acquainted (C) experienced (D) underwent (E) learned 22. (A) before (B) sooner (C) close (D) prior (E) advance 23. (A) calmed (B) soothing (C) composed (D) restraint (E) discipline 24. (A) speaks (B) confided (C) confidentially (D) entrusted (E) assured
25. (A) success (B) overcame (C) dominate (D) victory (E) triumph Directions—(Q. 26–40) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian economies expanded at an average annual rate of 8∙1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in Asia averaged only about 3∙5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May, the average inflation rate throughout the region reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11∙6% annual rate in June, according to the latest government figures, the highest in 13 years. Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get inflation under control. But these same measures suppress the investment and consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring inflation makes economic policymaking tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes because it can quickly erase years of hardwon personal gains. Inflation is cruel to the poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meagre incomes on necessities. In the Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors, use water buffaloes to plough their fields. But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid antiinflation measures. Voters won’t hesitate to remove from office any politician who doesn’t deliver the goods. So they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in the process. Developing nations need to grow
quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for their large populations. With prices soaring, doing nothing is not an option. Most central banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank of India increased its benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8∙5%. The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin. Prices are being driven higher by a global surge in oil and food prices, which individual governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a problem in Asia. World Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a manmade ‘catastrophe’ that could quickly reverse the gains made in overcoming poverty over the past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than action on the international front, so Asian governments are on their own. Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming months, no one is expecting an economic calamity. According to the Asian Development Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy banks, and so are far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region’s last recession ten years ago. Asian policymakers have learned their lessons and are more alert. 26. Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from 2003 2007 ? 1. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention. 2. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally. 3. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries. (A) All 1, 2, and 3 (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 1 and 2 (E) None of these 27. Which of the following is not an antiinflation measure being used by Asian countries ?
1. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank. 2. Checks on lending. 3. Subsidising fuel for farmers. (A) Only 3 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) Both 2 and 3 (D) Only 2 (E) None of these 28. What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation ? (A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank (B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures (C) The problem is global in nature, not restricted to their individual countries (D) Countries have never faced a financial crisis (E) Economic growth rate cannot occur in the absence of inflation 29. Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies ? 1. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves. 2. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong. 3. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Only 2 (E) None of these 30. What is the author’s advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation ? (A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens not implementing antiinflation measures (B) They ought to implement antiinflation measures even at the cost of losing office (C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off on its own (D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively (E) None of these 31. What could the impact of stringent inflation measures be ? (A) Increased consumption as families spend a larger part of their income on essential goods (B) Politicians may be voted out of power (C) Economic growth rate remains constant (D) Oil prices within the country remain stable despite high global prices (E) None of these 32. Why is high economic growth necessary for developing countries ? (A) To catch up with the growth rate of the advanced countries (B) To sustain their economies despite the ill effects of inflation
(C) To provide better educational opportunities to their citizens (D) To create employment opportunities for citizens (E) None of these 33. Why has inflation been referred to as a ‘catastrophe’ ? (A) Prices of essential commodities are unaffordable for all (B) Our past efforts to reduce poverty will be nullified (C) Governments are unstable and do not take stringent decisions (D) It has divided countries rather than ensuring cooperation among them (E) None of these 34. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ? 1. Growth rate in advanced countries was low so the effects of inflation were not felt. 2. Closing the economy to global markets will reduce inflation. 3. India has been the most severely affected by inflation. (A) None (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 35. Which of the following factors was responsible for inflation in India ? (A) Reserve Bank India raising the interest rates very frequently
(B) High population growth (C) Sudden rise in prices of oil worldwide (D) Reckless competition with China (E) None of these Directions—(Q. 36–38) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 36. stirs (A) trembles (B) moves (C) mixes (D) inspires (E) agitates
37. scale (A) descent (B) climb (C) hindrance (D) cut (E) measure
38. origin (A) ancestry
(B) source (C) inauguration (D) down (E) heritage
Directions—(Q. 39–40) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 39. turbulent (A) quiet (B) rest (C) soothes (D) stormy (E) lawful 40. gains (A) decreases (B) fails (C) deprives (D) frauds (E) losses Directions—(Q. 41–45) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer. 41. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical music. (A) will make children aware
(B) is to make children aware (C) is making aware children (D) awareness of children (E) No correction required 42. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting, Sunita arrived an hour early at the station. (A) but later for (B) and been late to (C) after being late (D) and being late for (E) No correction required 43. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare subjects. (A) rarely to subjects (B) of rare subject (C) with rarest of subject (D) in subjects rarely (E) No correction required 44. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped with the latest facilities. (A) in the opening ceremony (B) which the ceremony will open (C) where the opening ceremony (D) that the opening ceremony
(E) No correction required 45. There will be a trend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years. (A) There has been (B) It has been (C) There is being (D) It may have been (E) No correction required Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 46. A committee has been…………..to…………..the transformation of the city into an international finance centre. (A) constituted, convert (B) appointed, oversee (C) converged, evaluate (D) inducted, change (E) inaugurated, determine 47. Keeping in mind the…………..to develop the sector the government has………….. solicited foreign investment. (A) importance, never (B) proposal, forcibly (C) objective, wanted (D) view, discretely
(E) need, actively 48. In his speech he vowed to…………..the four billion unbanked individuals across the world into the…………..of financial inclusion. (A) represent, sphere (B) target, area (C) bring, realm (D) engage, achievement (E) convince, era 49. Although he puts in…………..of overtime and takes few holidays, he…………..cannot support his family. (A) sufficient, however (B) lot, besides (C) much, thus (D) plenty, still (E) frequency, yet 50. They have been…………..on incentives to…………..these practices are implemented at grass root level. (A) relying, ensure (B) improving, secure (C) advocating, confirm (D) debating, necessitate (E) focusing, display Answers : 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (E)
6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (E) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (E) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (E) 26. (E) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (E) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (E) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (E) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (E) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (A) Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, 2008 Sunday 12 October 2008 10:02 AM General Awareness 1. A passive threat to computer security is— (1) Malicious Intent (2) Sabotage (3) Accident Errors (4) Espionage Agents (5) None of these 2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification— (1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate (2) provides privatekey encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server (3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server (4) uses a publickey encryption to secure creditcard transaction systems (5) None of these 3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and email— (1) TCP/IP
(2) Ethernet (3)WAP (4) Token ring (5) None of these 4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have— (1) A Boot Record (2) A File Allocation Table (3) A Root Directory (4) Virtual Memory (5) BIOS 5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to— (1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition (3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition (4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition (5) None of these 6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a— (1) repository (2) data warehouse (3) RAD (4) CASE (5) None of these 7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database. (1) data extraction (2) enduser query tool (3) enduser presentation tool (4) data store (5) None of these 8. A(n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server. (1) singleuser license agreement (2) network site license (3) enduser license agreement (4) business software license (5) None of these 9. A polymorphic virus— (1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(2) is a maliciouslogic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains (3) a maliciouslogic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program (4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program (5) None of these 10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is— (1) difficult or impossible and where lineofsight transmission is unavailable (2) easy or promising and where lineofsight transmission is unavailable (3) difficult or impossible and where lineofsight transmission is available (4) easy or promising and where lineofsight transmission is available (5) None of these 11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy? (1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open (2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files. (3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data. (4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters. (5) None of these 12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is— (1) Biometrics (2) Compression (3) Encryption (4) Ergonomics (5) None of these 13. The word FIP stands for— (1) File Translate Protocol (2) File Transit Protocol (3) File Typing Protocol (4) File Transfer Protocol (5) None of these 14. Voice mail— (1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet (2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet (3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party (4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants
at geographically separate locations (5) None of these 15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is— (1) Bridge (2) Gateway (3) Router (4) Modem (5) All of these 16. Which of the following is a generalpurpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web? (1) VB Script (2) Java Script (3) CSS (4) Java (5) None of these 17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data. (1) Client (2) Applications/Web server (3) Enterprise server (4) DBA (5) None of these 18. RSA is— (1) Symmetric Cryptosystem (2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem (3) Block Cypher (4) Digital Signature (5) None of these 19. A DVDRAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB. (1) CDR (2) floppy disk (3) CDRW (4) hard disk (5) None of these 20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration? (1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse
(2) The length of the mouse cord (3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with (4) The number of buttons the mouse has (5) None of these 21. How is power supplied to a lowpower USB device? (1) Through a power cable (2) From an external power supply (3) Directly from the computer's power supply (4) Through the USB cable (5) None of these 22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except— (1) each computer must have a network card (2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices (3) there must be at least one connecting device (4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information (5) None of these 23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from realworld case examples. (1) Rule discover (2) Signal processing (3) Neural nets (4) Casebased reasoning (5) None of these 24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website. (1) Cookies (2) Plugins (3) Scripts (4) ASPs (5) None of these 25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action? (1) Servlet Request (2) Http Servlet Request (3) Servlet Response (4) Http Servlet Response (5) None of these ANSWERS : 1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) General Awareness 1. Nav Krishi is a programme by— (1) Door Darshan (2) All India Radio (3) NIC (4) ICRISAT (5) MANAGE 2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare. (1) 0.0541 (2) 0.8032 (3) 0.1082 (4) 0.2514 (5) 0.4047 3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of— (1) Fruits (2) Vegetables (3) Flowers (4) Rice (5) Wheat 4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is— (1) Acidic (2) Neutral (3) Alkaline (4) Saline (5) Sodic 5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil— (1) Lime (2) Gypsum (3) Sulphur (4) Calcium Chloride (5) Ferrous Sulphate 6. 2008 is declared as International Year of— (1) Rice (2) Wheat
(3) Sugarcane (4) Potato (5) Apple 7. Golden revolution refers to the development of— (1) Oilseeds (2) Pulses (3) Horticulture (4) Cereals (5) Fodder 8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is— (1) Chickpea (2) Soyabean (3) Pigeon pea (4) Green gram (5) Black gram 9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is— (1) Growth promoter (2) Molecular marker (3) Growth retardent (4) Herbicide (5) Germicide 10. National Commission on Farmers was chaired by— (1) Sri Som Pal (2) Sri Y.C. Nanda (3) Dr C. Rangarajan (4) Dr M.S. Swaminathan (5) Sri Sharad Pawar 11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for— (1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal (2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal (3) Determining general pest system (4) Determining disease forecast (5) Determining area of farm 12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends— (1) Comfort Price (2) State Advised Price (3) Minimum Support Price (4) Minimum Export Price
(5) Statutory Minimum Price 13. NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is— (1) Pest (2) Pathogen (3) Bio pesticide (4) Bio fungicide (5) Bio control agent 14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as— (1) NIAM (2) NAFED (3) MARKFED (4) NACMF (5) NACOM 15. Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1? (1) Bollworm (2) Desert locust (3) Aphids (4) Stem borer (5) Fruit fly 16. Indian Institute of Forest management is located at— (1) Chennai (2) Bhopal (3) Hissar (4) Dehradun (5) Imphal 17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface. (1) 11% (2) 22% (3) 33% (4) 14% (5) 25% 18. VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is— (1) Azospirillum (2) Mycorrhiza (3) Phosphate solubilising bacteria (4) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (5) Azotobacter
19. An example of Single Cell Protein is— (1) agar agar (2) spirulina (3) rhizobium (4) acetobacter (5) salmonella 20. Major producer of mulberry silk in India— (1) Karnataka (2) Jammu and Kashmir (3) Jharkhand (4) Assam (5) Himachal Pradesh 21. Bird flu affects— (1) Cattle (2) Poultry (3) Sheep (4) Prawn (5) Silkworm 22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate upto— (1) 2000 acre (2) 2000 ha (3) 1000 ha (4) 1000 acre (5) 2500 ha 23. Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is— (1) 8 : 4 : 2 (2) 4 : 2 : 1 (3) 9 : 5 : 3 (4) 2 : 1 : 0.5 (5) 10 : 4 : 2 24. Which of the following is a bio diesel plant? (1) Jatropha (2) Rose (3) Pepper (4) Noni (5) Teak 25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at— (1) Nagpur
(2) New Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Kolkata (5) Chennai ANSWERS : 1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2) Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Papers Sunday 12 October 2008 09:48 AM Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam, 2008
Computer General Awareness (Held on 17082008) 1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as .... (A) software suites (B) integrated software packages (C) software processing packages (D) personal information managers (E) none of these Ans : (A) 2. A data warehouse is which of the following ? (A) Can be updated by the end users (B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats (C) Organized around important subject areas (D) Contains only current data (E) None of these Ans : (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users. (A) Authentication (B) Main (C) Web (D) File (E) None of these Ans : (D) 4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____ (A) hackers (B) spam (C) viruses (D) identify theft (E) None of these Ans : (B) 5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems . (A) Data (B) Sales (C) Query (D) (Pointofsale (POS) (E) None of these Ans : (B) 6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers. (A) five (B) six (C) seven (D) eight (E) None of these Ans : (C) 7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together. (A) management (B) processing (C) utility (D) application (E) None of these Ans : (D) 8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers (B) Embedded computers (C) Robotic computers (D) Mainframes (E) None of these Ans : (B) 9. The following are all computing devices , except......... (A) notebook computers (B) cellular telephones (C) digital scanners (D) personal digital assistants (E) None of these Ans : (C) 10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data (A) packet (B) data (C) access method (D) token (E) None of these Ans : (D) 11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____ (A) basic input/output system (B) secondary input/output system (C) peripheral input/output system (D) marginal input/output system (E) None of these Ans : (A) 12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive (A) Trojan horse (B) Boot sector (C) Script (D) Logic bomb (E) None of these Ans : (B) 13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a meAns : by which users can interact with the computer (A) The platform (B) Application software
(C) Operating system (D) The motherboard (E) None of these Ans : (C) 14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________ (A) mainframe (B) network (C) supercomputer (D) client (E) None of these Ans : (B) 15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following? (A) To explain some observed event or condition (B) To confirm that data exists (C) To analyze data for expected relationships (D) To create a new data warehouse (E) None of these Ans : (A) 16. URL stands for ........ (A) Universal Research List (B) Universal Resource List (C) Uniform Resource Locator (D) Uniform Research Locator (E) None of these Ans : (C) 17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............ (A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database (B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database. (C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database. (D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database. (E) None of these Ans : (D) 18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ? (A) Capture , process and store transactions (B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities (C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions (D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making (E) None of these
Ans : () 19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following? (A) To provide security against unauthorized users (B) To process client requests for web pages (C) To process client requests for database access (D) To provide TCP/IP (E) None of these Ans : (B) 20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes: (A) data redundancy (B) information overload (C) duplicate data (D) data inconsistency (E) None of these Ans : (D) 21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use. (A) Control worlds (B) Reserved words (C) Control structures (D) Reserved keys (E) None of these Ans : (B) 22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm? (A) A worm has the ability to selfpropagate from an infected user's computer to other computers (B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program (C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem (D) Antivirus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms (E) None of these Ans : () 23. ______ describe what is database fields. (A) Structures (B) Field markers (C) Field definition (D) Field names (E) None of these Ans : (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection. (A) router (B) modem (C) node (D) cable (E) None of these Ans : (A) 25. A goal of normalization is to __________ (A) minimize the number of relationships (B) minimize the number of entities (C) minimize the number of tables (D) minimize the number of redundancy (E) None of these Ans : (D) 26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____ (A) extranet (B) intranet (C) internet (D) hacker (E) None of these Ans : (A) 27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site (A) URL (B) Web site address (C) Hyperlink (D) Domain name (E) None of these Ans : (A) 28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as ..... (A) QBE (B) SQL (C) OLAP (D) Sequel Server (E) None of these Ans : (B) 29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor (B) resistor (C) integrated circuit (D) semiconductor (E) None of these Ans : (C) 30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to: (A) unlock the database (B) provide a map of the data (C) uniquely identify a record (D) establish constraints on database operations. (E) None of these Ans : (B) 31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm. (A) programming language (B) syntax (C) programming structure (D) logic chart (E) None of these Ans : () 32. The design of the network is called the network: (A) architecture (B) server (C) transmission (D) type (E) None of these Ans : (A) 33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from: (A) the hard disk (B) cache memory (C) RAM (D) registers (E) None of these Ans : (B) 34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database. (A) data dictionary (B) data table
(C) data record (D) data field (E) None of these Ans : (A) 35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as: (A) listservs (B) Webcasts (C) blogs (D) subject directories (E) None of these Ans : (C) 36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system. (A) command based user interface (B) GUI (C) system utility (D) API (E) None of these Ans : (B) 37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program. (A) documentation (B) programming (C) technical (D) user (E) None of these Ans : () 38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection? (A) Cable (B) DSL (C) Dialup (D) Satellite (E) None of these Ans : (C) 39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as: (A) spyware (B) adware (C) spam (D) malware
(E) None of these Ans : (D) 40. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank. (A) numeric (B) required (C) calculated (D) validated (E) None of these Ans : (B) 41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code. (A) Debugging (B) Compiling (C) Testing (D) Running (E) None pf these Ans : () 42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date. (A) Bootsector viruses (B) Macro viruses (C) Time bombs (D) Worms (E) None of these Ans : (C) 43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system. (A) opensource (B) Microsoft (C) Windows (D) Mac (E) None of these Ans : (A) 44. What is a backup? (A) Restoring the information backup (B) An exact copy of a system's information (C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D) 45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database (B) character, record, field, database, file (C) character, field, record, file, database (D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database, (E) None of these Ans : (C) 46. The internet is ...... (A) a large network of networks (B) an internal communication system for a business (C) a communication system for the Indian government (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D) 47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen. (A) GUIs (B) Icons (C) Menus (D) Windows (E) None of these Ans : (C) 48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names? (A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both (B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name (C) File extension is another name for file type (D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name (E) None of these Ans : (D) 49. Verification of a login name and password is known as: (A) configuration (B) accessibility (C) authentication (D) logging in (E) None of these Ans : (C) 50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus? (A) Existing program files and icons disappear. (B) The CDROM stops functioning. (C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page. (D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these Ans : (B) List of Nobel laureates (19012008) Saturday 11 October 2008 02:11 PM Nobel Prize Laureates 2008 Announced List of Nobel laureates (19012008) This is a list of Nobel Prize laureates awarded for their outstanding contributions to humanitarian causes for peace, work in literature and in the science disciplines for chemistry, medicine and physiology, physics and economics.
1. Physics , 2 .Chemistry 3 Physiology or medicine 4 Literature 5. Peace 6 Economics 1. Physics 1901: Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen 1902: Hendrik A. Lorentz / Pieter Zeeman 1903: Henri Becquerel / Pierre Curie / Maria SklodowskaCurie 1904: Lord Rayleigh 1905: Philipp Lenard 1906: J.J. Thomson 1907: Albert A. Michelson 1908: Gabriel Lippmann 1909: Guglielmo Marconi / Ferdinand Braun 1910: Johannes Diderik van der Waals 1911: Wilhelm Wien 1912: Gustaf Dalén 1913: Heike Kamerlingh Onnes 1914: Max von Laue 1915: William Henry Bragg / William Lawrence Bragg 1916: no award 1917: Charles Glover Barkla 1918: Max Planck 1919: Johannes Stark
1920: Charles Edouard Guillaume 1921: Albert Einstein 1922: Niels Bohr 1923: Robert A. Millikan 1924: Manne Siegbahn 1925: James Franck / Gustav Hertz 1926: Jean Baptiste Perrin 1927: Arthur H. Compton / C.T.R. Wilson 1928: Owen Willans Richardson 1929: Louis de Broglie 1930: Venkata Raman 1931: no award 1932: Werner Heisenberg 1933: Erwin Schrödinger / Paul A.M. Dirac 1934: no award 1935: James Chadwick 1936: Victor F. Hess / Carl D. Anderson 1937: Clinton Davisson / George Paget Thomson 1938: Enrico Fermi 1939: Ernest Lawrence 1940: no award 1941: no award 1942: no award 1943: Otto Stern 1944: Isidor Isaac Rabi 1945: Wolfgang Pauli 1946: Percy W. Bridgman 1947: Edward V. Appleton 1948: Patrick M.S. Blackett 1949: Hideki Yukawa 1950: Cecil Powell 1951: John Cockcroft / Ernest T.S. Walton 1952: Felix Bloch / E. M. Purcell 1953: Frits Zernike 1954: Max Born / Walther Bothe 1955: Willis E. Lamb / Polykarp Kusch 1956: William B. Shockley / John Bardeen / Walter H. Brattain 1957: Chen Ning Yang / TsungDao Lee 1958: Pavel A. Cherenkov / Il´ja M. Frank / Igor Y. Tamm 1959: Emilio Segrè / Owen Chamberlain 1960: Donald A. Glaser 1961: Robert Hofstadter / Rudolf Mössbauer 1962: Lev Landau 1963: Eugene Wigner / Maria GoeppertMayer / J. Hans D. Jensen
1964: Charles H. Townes / Nicolay G. Basov / Aleksandr M. Prokhorov 1965: SinItiro Tomonaga / Julian Schwinger / Richard P. Feynman 1966: Alfred Kastler 1967: Hans Bethe 1968: Luis Alvarez 1969: Murray GellMann 1970: Hannes Alfvén / Louis Néel 1971: Dennis Gabor 1972: John Bardeen / Leon Neil Cooper / Robert Schrieffer 1973: Leo Esaki / Ivar Giaever / Brian D. Josephson 1974: Martin Ryle / Antony Hewish 1975: Aage N. Bohr / Ben R. Mottelson / James Rainwater 1976: Burton Richter / Samuel C.C. Ting 1977: Philip W. Anderson / Sir Nevill F. Mott / John H. van Vleck 1978: Pyotr Kapitsa / Arno Penzias / Robert Woodrow Wilson 1979: Sheldon Glashow / Abdus Salam / Steven Weinberg 1980: James Cronin / Val Fitch 1981: Nicolaas Bloembergen / Arthur L. Schawlow / Kai M. Siegbahn 1982: Kenneth G. Wilson 1983: Subramanyan Chandrasekhar / William A. Fowler 1984: Carlo Rubbia / Simon van der Meer 1985: Klaus von Klitzing 1986: Ernst Ruska / Gerd Binnig / Heinrich Rohrer 1987: J. Georg Bednorz / K. Alex Müller 1988: Leon M. Lederman / Melvin Schwartz / Jack Steinberger 1989: Norman F. Ramsey / Hans G. Dehmelt / Wolfgang Paul 1990: Jerome I. Friedman / Henry W. Kendall / Richard E. Taylor 1991: PierreGilles de Gennes 1992: Georges Charpak 1993: Russell A. Hulse / Joseph H. Taylor, Jr. 1994: Bertram N. Brockhouse / Clifford G. Shull 1995: Martin L. Perl / Frederick Reines 1996: David M. Lee / Douglas D. Osheroff / Robert Coleman Richardson 1997: Steven Chu / Claude CohenTannoudji / William D. Phillips 1998: Robert B. Laughlin / Horst L. Störmer / Daniel C. Tsui 1999: Gerardus 't Hooft / Martinus J.G. Veltman 2000: Zhores I. Alferov / Herbert Kroemer / Jack S. Kilby 2001: Eric A. Cornell / Wolfgang Ketterle / Carl E. Wieman 2002: Raymond Davis, Jr. / Masatoshi Koshiba / Riccardo Giacconi 2003: Alexei A. Abrikosov / Vitaly L. Ginzburg / Anthony J. Leggett 2004: David J. Gross / H. David Politzer / Frank Wilczek 2005: Roy J. Glauber / John L. Hall / Theodor W. Hänsch 2006: John C. Mather / George F. Smoot 2007: Albert Fert / Peter Grünberg
2008: Yoichiro Nambu / Makoto Kobayashi / Toshihide Maskawa 2 .Chemistry 1901: Jacobus H. van 't Hoff 1902: Emil Fischer 1903: Svante Arrhenius 1904: Sir William Ramsay 1905: Adolf von Baeyer 1906: Henri Moissan 1907: Eduard Buchner 1908: Ernest Rutherford 1909: Wilhelm Ostwald 1910: Otto Wallach 1911: Maria SkłodowskaCurie 1912: Victor Grignard / Paul Sabatier 1913: Alfred Werner 1914: Theodore William Richards 1915: Richard Willstätter 1916: no award 1917: no award 1918: Fritz Haber 1919: no award 1920: Walther Nernst 1921: Frederick Soddy 1922: Francis W. Aston 1923: Fritz Pregl 1924: no award 1925: Richard Zsigmondy 1926: The Svedberg 1927: Heinrich Wieland 1928: Adolf Windaus 1929: Arthur Harden / Hans von EulerChelpin 1930: Hans Fischer 1931: Carl Bosch / Friedrich Bergius 1932: Irving Langmuir 1933: no award 1934: Harold C. Urey 1935: Frédéric JoliotCurie / Irène JoliotCurie 1936: Peter Debye 1937: Norman Haworth / Paul Karrer 1938: Richard Kuhn 1939: Adolf Butenandt / Leopold Ruzicka 1940: no award 1941: no award
1942: no award 1943: George de Hevesy 1944: Otto Hahn 1945: Artturi Virtanen 1946: James B. Sumner / John H. Northrop / Wendell M. Stanley 1947: Sir Robert Robinson 1948: Arne Wilhelm Kaurin Tiselius 1949: William F. Giauque 1950: Otto Diels / Kurt Alder 1951: Edwin M. McMillan / Glenn T. Seaborg 1952: Archer J.P. Martin / Richard L.M. Synge 1953: Hermann Staudinger 1954: Linus Pauling 1955: Vincent du Vigneaud 1956: Sir Cyril Hinshelwood / Nikolay Semenov 1957: Lord Todd 1958: Frederick Sanger 1959: Jaroslav Heyrovský 1960: Willard F. Libby 1961: Melvin Calvin 1962: Max F. Perutz / John C. Kendrew 1963: Karl Ziegler / Giulio Natta 1964: Dorothy Crowfoot Hodgkin 1965: Robert Burns Woodward 1966: Robert S. Mulliken 1967: Manfred Eigen / Ronald G.W. Norrish / George Porter 1968: Lars Onsager 1969: Derek Barton / Odd Hassel 1970: Luis Leloir 1971: Gerhard Herzberg 1972: Christian Anfinsen / Stanford Moore / William H. Stein 1973: Ernst Otto Fischer / Geoffrey Wilkinson 1974: Paul J. Flory 1975: John Cornforth / Vladimir Prelog 1976: William Lipscomb 1977: Ilya Prigogine 1978: Peter Mitchell 1979: Herbert C. Brown / Georg Wittig 1980: Paul Berg / Walter Gilbert / Frederick Sanger 1981: Kenichi Fukui / Roald Hoffmann 1982: Aaron Klug 1983: Henry Taube 1984: Bruce Merrifield 1985: Herbert A. Hauptman / Jerome Karle
1986: Dudley R. Herschbach / Yuan T. Lee / John C. Polanyi 1987: Donald J. Cram / JeanMarie Lehn / Charles J. Pedersen 1988: Johann Deisenhofer / Robert Huber / Hartmut Michel 1989: Sidney Altman / Thomas R. Cech 1990: Elias James Corey 1991: Richard R. Ernst 1992: Rudolph A. Marcus 1993: Kary B. Mullis / Michael Smith 1994: George A. Olah 1995: Paul J. Crutzen / Mario J. Molina / F. Sherwood Rowland 1996: Robert F. Curl, Jr. / Sir Harold Kroto / Richard E. Smalley 1997: Paul D. Boyer / John E. Walker / Jens C. Skou 1998: Walter Kohn / John Pople 1999: Ahmed Zewail 2000: Alan Heeger / Alan G. MacDiarmid / Hideki Shirakawa 2001: William S. Knowles / Ryoji Noyori / K. Barry Sharpless 2002: John B. Fenn / Koichi Tanaka / Kurt Wüthrich 2003: Peter Agre / Roderick MacKinnon 2004: Aaron Ciechanover / Avram Hershko / Irwin Rose 2005: Robert Grubbs / Richard Schrock / Yves Chauvin 2006: Roger D. Kornberg 2007: Gerhard Ertl 2008: Osamu Shimomura / Martin Chalfie / Roger Y. Tsien 3. Physiology or medicine 1901: Emil von Behring 1902: Ronald Ross 1903: Niels Ryberg Finsen 1904: Ivan Pavlov 1905: Robert Koch 1906: Camillo Golgi / Santiago Ramón y Cajal 1907: Alphonse Laveran 1908: Ilya Mechnikov / Paul Ehrlich 1909: Theodor Kocher 1910: Albrecht Kossel 1911: Allvar Gullstrand 1912: Alexis Carrel 1913: Robert Bárány 1914: no award 1915: no award 1916: no award 1917: no award 1918: no award
1919: Jules Bordet 1920: August Krogh 1921: no award 1922: Archibald Vivian Hill / Otto Meyerhof 1923: Frederick G. Banting / John James Richard Macleod 1924: Willem Einthoven 1925: no award 1926: Johannes Fibiger 1927: Julius WagnerJauregg 1928: Charles Nicolle 1929: Christiaan Eijkman / Sir Frederick Hopkins 1930: Karl Landsteiner 1931: Otto Heinrich Warburg 1932: Sir Charles Sherrington / Edgar Adrian 1933: Thomas H. Morgan 1934: George H. Whipple / George R. Minot / William P. Murphy 1935: Hans Spemann 1936: Sir Henry Dale / Otto Loewi 1937: Albert SzentGyörgyi 1938: Corneille Heymans 1939: Gerhard Domagk 1940: no award 1941: no award 1942: no award 1943: Henrik Dam / Edward A. Doisy 1944: Joseph Erlanger / Herbert S. Gasser 1945: Sir Alexander Fleming / Ernst B. Chain / Sir Howard Florey 1946: Hermann J. Muller 1947: Carl Cori / Gerty Cori / Bernardo Houssay 1948: Paul Müller 1949: Walter Hess / Egas Moniz 1950: Edward C. Kendall / Tadeus Reichstein / Philip S. Hench 1951: Max Theiler 1952: Selman A. Waksman 1953: Hans Krebs / Fritz Lipmann 1954: John Franklin Enders / Thomas Huckle Weller / Frederick Chapman Robbins 1955: Hugo Theorell 1956: André F. Cournand / Werner Forssmann / Dickinson W. Richards 1957: Daniel Bovet 1958: George Beadle / Edward Tatum / Joshua Lederberg 1959: Severo Ochoa / Arthur Kornberg 1960: Frank Macfarlane Burnet / Peter Medawar 1961: Georg von Békésy 1962: Francis Crick / James D. Watson / Maurice Wilkins
1963: Sir John Eccles / Alan L. Hodgkin / Andrew Huxley 1964: Konrad Bloch / Feodor Lynen 1965: François Jacob / André Lwoff / Jacques Monod 1966: Peyton Rous / Charles B. Huggins 1967: Ragnar Granit / Haldan K. Hartline / George Wald 1968: Robert W. Holley / H. Gobind Khorana / Marshall W. Nirenberg 1969: Max Delbrück / Alfred D. Hershey / Salvador E. Luria 1970: Sir Bernard Katz / Ulf von Euler / Julius Axelrod 1971: Earl W. Sutherland, Jr. 1972: Gerald M. Edelman / Rodney R. Porter 1973: Karl von Frisch / Konrad Lorenz / Nikolaas Tinbergen 1974: Albert Claude / Christian de Duve / George E. Palade 1975: David Baltimore / Renato Dulbecco / Howard M. Temin 1976: Baruch S. Blumberg / D. Carleton Gajdusek 1977: Roger Guillemin / Andrew V. Schally / Rosalyn Yalow 1978: Werner Arber / Daniel Nathans / Hamilton O. Smith 1979: Allan M. Cormack / Godfrey N. Hounsfield 1980: Baruj Benacerraf / Jean Dausset / George D. Snell 1981: Roger W. Sperry / David H. Hubel / Torsten N. Wiesel 1982: Sune K. Bergström / Bengt I. Samuelsson / John R. Vane 1983: Barbara McClintock 1984: Niels K. Jerne / Georges J.F. Köhler / César Milstein 1985: Michael S. Brown / Joseph L. Goldstein 1986: Stanley Cohen / Rita LeviMontalcini 1987: Susumu Tonegawa 1988: James W. Black / Gertrude B. Elion / George H. Hitchings 1989: J. Michael Bishop / Harold E. Varmus 1990: Joseph E. Murray / E. Donnall Thomas 1991: Erwin Neher / Bert Sakmann 1992: Edmond H. Fischer / Edwin G. Krebs 1993: Richard J. Roberts / Phillip A. Sharp 1994: Alfred G. Gilman / Martin Rodbell 1995: Edward B. Lewis / Christiane NüssleinVolhard / Eric F. Wieschaus 1996: Peter C. Doherty / Rolf M. Zinkernagel 1997: Stanley B. Prusiner 1998: Robert F. Furchgott / Louis J. Ignarro / Ferid Murad 1999: Günter Blobel 2000: Arvid Carlsson / Paul Greengard / Eric R. Kandel 2001: Leland H. Hartwell / Tim Hunt / Sir Paul Nurse 2002: Sydney Brenner / H. Robert Horvitz / John E. Sulston 2003: Paul C. Lauterbur / Peter Mansfield 2004: Richard Axel / Linda B. Buck 2005: Barry J. Marshall / J. Robin Warren 2006: Andrew Z. Fire / Craig C. Mello
2007: Mario Capecchi / Martin Evans / Oliver Smithies 2008: Harald zur Hausen / Françoise BarréSinoussi / Luc Montagnier 4. Literature 1901: Sully Prudhomme 1902: Theodor Mommsen 1903: Bjørnstjerne Bjørnson 1904: Frédéric Mistral / José Echegaray 1905: Henryk Sienkiewicz 1906: Giosuè Carducci 1907: Rudyard Kipling 1908: Rudolf Eucken 1909: Selma Lagerlöf 1910: Paul Heyse 1911: Maurice Maeterlinck 1912: Gerhart Hauptmann 1913: Rabindranath Tagore 1914: no award 1915: Romain Rolland 1916: Verner von Heidenstam 1917: Karl Gjellerup / Henrik Pontoppidan 1918: no award 1919: Carl Spitteler 1920: Knut Hamsun 1921: Anatole France 1922: Jacinto Benavente 1923: William Butler Yeats 1924: Władysław Reymont 1925: George Bernard Shaw 1926: Grazia Deledda 1927: Henri Bergson 1928: Sigrid Undset 1929: Thomas Mann 1930: Sinclair Lewis 1931: Erik Axel Karlfeldt 1932: John Galsworthy 1933: Ivan Bunin 1934: Luigi Pirandello 1935: no award 1936: Eugene O'Neill 1937: Roger Martin du Gard 1938: Pearl Buck 1939: Frans Eemil Sillanpää
1940: no award 1941: no award 1942: no award 1943: no award 1944: Johannes V. Jensen 1945: Gabriela Mistral 1946: Hermann Hesse 1947: André Gide 1948: T. S. Eliot 1949: William Faulkner 1950: Bertrand Russell 1951: Pär Lagerkvist 1952: François Mauriac 1953: Winston Churchill 1954: Ernest Hemingway 1955: Halldór Laxness 1956: Juan Ramón Jiménez 1957: Albert Camus 1958: Boris Pasternak 1959: Salvatore Quasimodo 1960: SaintJohn Perse 1961: Ivo Andrić 1962: John Steinbeck 1963: Giorgos Seferis 1964: JeanPaul Sartre (refused)[1] 1965: Mikhail Sholokhov 1966: Samuel Agnon / Nelly Sachs 1967: Miguel Ángel Asturias 1968: Yasunari Kawabata 1969: Samuel Beckett 1970: Aleksandr Solzhenitsyn 1971: Pablo Neruda 1972: Heinrich Böll 1973: Patrick White 1974: Eyvind Johnson / Harry Martinson 1975: Eugenio Montale 1976: Saul Bellow 1977: Vicente Aleixandre 1978: Isaac Bashevis Singer 1979: Odysseus Elytis 1980: Czesław Miłosz 1981: Elias Canetti 1982: Gabriel García Márquez 1983: William Golding
1984: Jaroslav Seifert 1985: Claude Simon 1986: Wole Soyinka 1987: Joseph Brodsky 1988: Naguib Mahfouz 1989: Camilo José Cela 1990: Octavio Paz 1991: Nadine Gordimer 1992: Derek Walcott 1993: Toni Morrison 1994: Kenzaburo Oe 1995: Seamus Heaney 1996: Wisława Szymborska 1997: Dario Fo 1998: José Saramago 1999: Günter Grass 2000: Gao Xingjian 2001: V. S. Naipaul 2002: Imre Kertész 2003: J. M. Coetzee 2004: Elfriede Jelinek 2005: Harold Pinter 2006: Orhan Pamuk 2007: Doris Lessing 2008: JeanMarie Gustave Le Clézio 5. Peace 1901: Henry Dunant / Frédéric Passy 1902: Élie Ducommun / Albert Gobat 1903: Randal Cremer 1904: Institute of International Law 1905: Bertha von Suttner 1906: Theodore Roosevelt 1907: Ernesto Teodoro Moneta / Louis Renault 1908: Klas Pontus Arnoldson / Fredrik Bajer 1909: Auguste Beernaert / Paul Henri d'Estournelles de Constant 1910: Permanent International Peace Bureau 1911: Tobias Asser / Alfred Fried 1912: Elihu Root 1913: Henri La Fontaine 1914: no award 1915: no award 1916: no award
1917: International Committee of the Red Cross 1918: no award 1919: Woodrow Wilson 1920: Léon Bourgeois 1921: Hjalmar Branting / Christian Lange 1922: Fridtjof Nansen 1923: no award 1924: no award 1925: Sir Austen Chamberlain / Charles G. Dawes 1926: Aristide Briand / Gustav Stresemann 1927: Ferdinand Buisson / Ludwig Quidde 1928: no award 1929: Frank B. Kellogg 1930: Nathan Söderblom 1931: Jane Addams / Nicholas Murray Butler 1932: no award 1933: Sir Norman Angell 1934: Arthur Henderson 1935: Carl von Ossietzky 1936: Carlos Saavedra Lamas 1937: The Viscount Cecil of Chelwood 1938: Nansen International Office for Refugees 1939: no award 1940: no award 1941: no award 1942: no award 1943: no award 1944: International Committee of the Red Cross 1945: Cordell Hull 1946: Emily Greene Balch / John R. Mott 1947: Friends Service Council / American Friends Service Committee 1948: no award 1949: Lord Boyd Orr 1950: Ralph Bunche 1951: Léon Jouhaux 1952: Albert Schweitzer 1953: George C. Marshall 1954: Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 1955: no award 1956: no award 1957: Lester Bowles Pearson 1958: Georges Pire 1959: Philip NoelBaker 1960: Albert Lutuli
1961: Dag Hammarskjöld (posthumous) 1962: Linus Pauling 1963: International Committee of the Red Cross / League of Red Cross Societies 1964: Martin Luther King, Jr. 1965: United Nations Children's Fund 1966: no award 1967: no award 1968: René Cassin 1969: International Labour Organization 1970: Norman Borlaug 1971: Willy Brandt 1972: no award 1973: Henry Kissinger / Le Duc Tho (refused) 1974: Seán MacBride / Eisaku Sato 1975: Andrei Sakharov 1976: Betty Williams / Mairead Corrigan 1977: Amnesty International 1978: Anwar alSadat / Menachem Begin 1979: Mother Teresa 1980: Adolfo Pérez Esquivel 1981: Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 1982: Alva Myrdal / Alfonso García Robles 1983: Lech Wałęsa 1984: Desmond Tutu 1985: International Physicians for the Prevention of Nuclear War 1986: Elie Wiesel 1987: Óscar Arias 1988: United Nations Peacekeeping Forces 1989: Tenzin Gyatso, 14th Dalai Lama 1990: Mikhail Gorbachev 1991: Aung San Suu Kyi 1992: Rigoberta Menchú 1993: Nelson Mandela / F.W. de Klerk 1994: Yasser Arafat / Shimon Peres / Yitzhak Rabin 1995: Joseph Rotblat / Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs 1996: Carlos Filipe Ximenes Belo / José RamosHorta 1997: International Campaign to Ban Landmines / Jody Williams 1998: John Hume / David Trimble 1999: Médecins Sans Frontières 2000: Kim Daejung 2001: United Nations / Kofi Annan 2002: Jimmy Carter 2003: Shirin Ebadi 2004: Wangari Maathai
2005: International Atomic Energy Agency / Mohamed ElBaradei 2006: Grameen Bank / Muhammad Yunus 2007: Al Gore / Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change 2008: Martti Ahtisaari 6. Economics 1969: Ragnar Frisch / Jan Tinbergen 1970: Paul A. Samuelson 1971: Simon Kuznets 1972: John Hicks / Kenneth J. Arrow 1973: Wassily Leontief 1974: Gunnar Myrdal / Friedrich August von Hayek 1975: Leonid Kantorovich / Tjalling C. Koopmans 1976: Milton Friedman 1977: Bertil Ohlin / James Edward Meade 1978: Herbert A. Simon 1979: Theodore William Schultz / Sir Arthur Lewis 1980: Lawrence R. Klein 1981: James Tobin 1982: George J. Stigler 1983: Gerard Debreu 1984: Richard Stone 1985: Franco Modigliani 1986: James McGill Buchanan, Jr. 1987: Robert M. Solow 1988: Maurice Allais 1989: Trygve Haavelmo 1990: Harry M. Markowitz / Merton H. Miller / William F. Sharpe 1991: Ronald H. Coase 1992: Gary S. Becker 1993: Robert W. Fogel / Douglass C. North 1994: John C. Harsanyi / John Forbes Nash, Jr. / Reinhard Selten 1995: Robert Lucas, Jr. 1996: James A. Mirrlees / William Vickrey 1997: Robert C. Merton / Myron S. Scholes 1998: Amartya Sen 1999: Robert A. Mundell 2000: James J. Heckman / Daniel L. McFadden 2001: George A. Akerlof / A. Michael Spence / Joseph E. Stiglitz 2002: Daniel Kahneman / Vernon L. Smith 2003: Robert F. Engle III / Clive W. J. Granger 2004: Finn E. Kydland / Edward C. Prescott 2005: Robert J. Aumann / Thomas C. Schelling
2006: Edmund S. Phelps 2007: Leonid Hurwicz / Eric S. Maskin / Roger B. Myerson Computer General Awareness For Bank Exam Friday 10 October 2008 03:27 PM Marketing Aptitude For Bank Exam Friday 10 October 2008 03:26 PM Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Papers Friday 10 October 2008 03:25 PM Bank of Baroda Solved Papers Friday 10 October 2008 03:24 PM Oriental Bank of Commerce Solved Papers Friday 10 October 2008 03:23 PM
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